9 Giles B3

Practice Questions 1
1. A frequently administered treatment for cancer in which doses of energy are administered to the body to stop cell
replication is termed
A. immunotherapy
B. radiation therapy
C. chemotherapy
D. surgical intervention
2. The intermittent use of tone reducing lower extremity bivalve casting for children with cerebral palsy hypothesizes
that casting may
A. increase compensatory stabilizing efforts
B. cause flexion of the toes which inhibits the plantar grasp response
C. facilitate trunk stability by reducing contractures of the foot
D. inhibit the use of extensor thrust by preventing plantarflexion
3. A therapist completes a manual muscle test where resistance is applied toward plantarflexion and eversion. This
description best describes a manual muscle test of the
A. tibialis anterior
B. tibialis posterior
C. peroneus longus
D. peroneus brevis
4. A patient status post radical mastectomy secondary to breast cancer is referred to physical therapy. Typical
intervention includes all of the following EXCEPT
A. monitoring postoperative circumferential measurements
B. passive and active-assistive range of motion
C. elevation and positioning of the upper extremity
D. providing pain medication
5. A person with an anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency, who elects not to have surgical reconstruction, could
probably expect to reach which minimal functional level?
A. able to participate in all sports
B. able to participate in light recreational sports
C. cannot play any type of sport
D. problems with normal walking
6. A therapist develops exercise guidelines for a pregnant woman. Which of the following guidelines is NOT
accurate?
A. deep flexion and extension of joints should be avoided
B. heart rate should be measured at times of peak activity
C. duration of exercise should be influenced by perceived exertion
D. fluid intake should be limited before and after exercise
7. All of the following modalities would be indicated in the treatment of a pregnant woman EXCEPT
A. vapocoolant sprays in the treatment of muscle spasms
B. transcutaneous electrical stimulation used for pain relief during labor
C. phonophoresis in the treatment of lateral epicondylitis
D. continuous ultrasound over an area of diminished circulation
8. A physical therapist performs a manual muscle test on the primary hip abductor. The therapist should perform the
test while palpating the
A. rectus femoris
B. gluteus medius
C. sartorius
D. gluteus minimus
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2 Practice Questions
9. A manual muscle test of the triceps reveals evidence of slight contractility without any active range of motion.
The muscle should be graded as
A. zero
B. trace
C. poor
D. fair
10. A therapist designs an exercise program for a patient rehabilitating from a prolonged illness. Which of the
following exercises is indicated for coordination training?
A. Buerger-Allen exercises
B. Codman’s exercises
C. DeLorme’s exercises
D. Frenkel’s exercises
11. A 36 year-old female is limited to 30 degrees of lateral rotation of the right shoulder. Which shoulder
mobilization technique would be the most beneficial to increase lateral rotation?
A. anterior glide of the humeral head
B. posterior glide of the humeral head
C. inferior glide of the humeral head
D. superior glide of the humeral head
12. Whirlpool treatments are commonly used in physical therapy to stimulate circulation, promote muscle relaxation,
and provide pain relief. Which statement regarding hydrotherapy is NOT true?
A. 41-46 degrees Celsius is an acceptable range for water temperature
B. The region to be treated should be thoroughly inspected prior to beginning treatment
C. The tank and turbine should be cleaned after each treatment
D. The agitation force should be adjusted initially at a minimum level and increased as desired
13. A physical therapist observes a patient ambulating with a normal gait pattern. The therapist notices that
approximately ____ percent of the normal gait cycle is spent in the stance phase?
A. 20
B. 40
C. 60
D. 80
14. Which progressive resistive exercise would function to strengthen the infraspinatus and teres minor?
A. extension of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
B. flexion of the shoulder with dumbbell weights
C. lateral rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
D. medial rotation of the shoulder with elastic tubing
15. A physical therapist transfers a patient in a wheelchair down a curb with a forward approach. Which of the
following is an appropriate action for this task?
A. have the patient lean forward
B. have the wheelchair brakes locked
C. tilt the wheelchair backwards
D. position yourself in front of the patient
16. A therapist positions a patient in supine in order to perform a passive stretch to the rectus femoris on the right. In
order to effectively stabilize the pelvis in a supine position, the therapist should
A. passively flex the right hip to the patient’s chest
B. passively flex the right hip and knee to the patient’s chest
C. passively flex the left hip to the patient’s chest
D. passively flex the left hip and knee to the patient’s chest
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17. A patient who is partial weight bearing on the left ambulates with a walker. The patient advances the walker
followed by a step with the left and then a step with the right. The gait pattern is termed
A. two-point
B. three-point
C. four-point
D. swing to
18. A physical therapist treats a patient with a fractured left hip. The patient is weight bearing as tolerated and uses a
large base quad cane for gait activities. Correct use of the quad cane would include
A. using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned away from the patient
B. using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned away from the patient
C. using the quad cane on the left with the longer legs positioned toward the patient
D. using the quad cane on the right with the longer legs positioned toward the patient
19. A physical therapist observes a patient ambulating with a Trendelenburg gait pattern. This deviation is often
caused by weakness of the
A. gluteus maximus
B. gluteus medius
C. gluteus minimus
D. piriformis
20. It is extremely important to thoroughly instruct patients about specific precautions before and after total hip
replacement surgery. Patients that do not understand or choose to disregard this information often experience
subluxation or dislocation. Which of the following would be considered good advice after total hip replacement
surgery?
A. use a raised toilet seat
B. use an abduction pillow for one week postoperatively
C. avoid sitting in high and hard chairs
D. slowly bend forward when picking objects up from the floor
21. A phase IV cardiac rehabilitation program can BEST be described as

A. a program of maintenance designed to allow the patient to continue a lifelong routine of exercise and
education
B. a program that is monitored by electrocardiogram to determine the patient’s maximal heart rate and exercise
tolerance
C. a program that allows for independent progression of exercise at home
D. a two to four month program based solely on exercise which allows the patient to attain the appropriate
maximal heart rate for his/her age group
22. A therapist treats a patient status post CVA. Which action would be most likely to facilitate elbow extension in a
patient with hemiplegia?
A. turn the head to the affected side
B. turn the head to the unaffected side
C. extend the lower extremities
D. flex the lower extremities
23. Independent bed mobility is a realistic goal for a patient with C6 tetraplegia. In order to achieve this goal, a
physical therapist should initiate strengthening to all of the following muscles EXCEPT
A. teres major
B. flexor carpi ulnaris
C. biceps brachii
D. anterior deltoid
24. A 26 year-old female presents with a diagnosis of recurrent patellar dislocation. Which direction does the patella
most often dislocate?
A. superior
B. inferior
C. medial
D. lateral
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25. A physical therapist examines a 16 year-old male diagnosed with left knee anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency.
During the examination a Lachman test is performed. Ideally, the therapist should perform the test with the knee
in
A. complete extension
B. 15-20 degrees
C. 25-35 degrees
D. 35-45 degrees
26. A therapist records a manual muscle test grade of poor for right hip adduction. The most appropriate patient
position to conduct the test would be
A. supine
B. prone
C. right sidelying
D. left sidelying
27. A patient is referred to physical therapy following a work related lifting injury. The patient complains of acute
back pain and has obvious muscle spasms throughout the paraspinal region. Which treatment option would be the
MOST appropriate for the patient?
A. hot packs and ultrasound
B. extension exercises
C. flexion exercises
D. unable to determine based on the information given
28. A patient with full thickness burn over the entire anterior aspect of the neck is examined in physical therapy. The
physical therapist must plan a treatment program based on the anticipation of a possible ______ contracture?
A. flexion
B. extension
C. rotation with extension
D. rotation with sidebending
29. A therapist examines a patient referred to physical therapy diagnosed with a lateral collateral ligament sprain.
Which nerve can be palpated immediately below the head of the fibula?
A. common peroneal
B. tibial
C. sural
D. lateral plantar
30. Proper positioning of the affected areas is essential for patients with burns. Proper positioning should be
maintained
A. not less than twelve hours per day
B. until skin grafting have been performed
C. only when the patient is sleeping
D. consistently throughout the day
31. Failure to integrate the _____ reflex could explain a child’s inability to flex the neck while in a supine position?
A. tonic labyrinthine
B. Moro
C. asymmetrical tonic neck
D. symmetrical tonic neck
32. Which type of gait pattern would be most appropriate for a patient who exhibits unilateral lower extremity
weakness?
A. four-point
B. two-point
C. three-point
D. swing through
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33. A patient with hemiplegia lying in supine demonstrates a synergistic pattern of movement when attempting to
move his affected leg. The patient’s hip is abducted and externally rotated, knee flexed, ankle plantarflexed and
inverted, toes plantarflexed and adducted. This synergy pattern should be classified as
A. purely extension
B. purely flexion
C. a combination of flexion and extension synergy patterns
D. isolated active movement
34. A therapist completes a postural examination on a patient with low back pain. Which structural deformity is often
associated with weak abdominal muscles?
A. increased lordosis
B. decreased lordosis
C. increased posterior pelvic tilt
D. increased kyphosis
35. A 55 year-old patient, six months status post CVA and right hemiparesis, attends physical therapy on an outpatient
basis. As the patient lies supine on the mat, the therapist applies resistance to right elbow flexion. The therapist
notes mass flexion of the right lower extremity as the resistance is applied. The therapist should document this as
A. Raimiste’s phenomenon
B. Souque’s phenomenon
C. coordination synkinesis
D. homolateral synkinesis
36. A ramp, which begins at ground level and ends 18 inches above ground should be at least ____ feet long?
A. 9
B. 18
C. 27
D. 36
37. A therapist completes a discharge summary on a patient following a six-week hospital admission. A discharge
summary is BEST described as
A. an explanation of the patient’s condition at the time of discharge
B. an overview of the patient’s progress during therapy and his/her condition at discharge
C. a document which indicates the reason for discharge and explains the patient’s home program
D. a record which indicates the frequency and number of appointments from the initial examination until
discharge
38. An audit attempts to determine the quality of patient care through a review of patient records. All of the following
are recommended to ensure that the results of an audit are accurate EXCEPT
A. a comparison of the actual practice’s level of care to the expected level of care
B. specific objectives of the audit are defined prior to the collection of data
C. an audit should not exceed a sample size of 15 to 20 charts
D. the study should include records over a six month period to ensure a diverse sample
39. A therapist uses patient care gloves to prevent the transmission of infection. When is it appropriate to reuse
patient care gloves?
A. when the gloves are used to treat the same patient
B. when the gloves are used by the same therapist
C. when the gloves do not come in contact with any potentially infectious material
D. gloves should not be reused
40. A patient with a transfemoral amputation begins gait training with a prosthesis. What effect will a hip flexion
contracture have on the patient’s gait?
A. The patient will demonstrate increased stability in the prosthetic knee
B. The patient’s step length on the prosthetic side will be increased
C. The hip flexion contracture will not affect the patient’s gait pattern
D. The patient will not begin to ambulate until normal range of motion is restored
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41. A physical therapist examines a patient with a suspected acutely torn medial meniscus. Which symptom is not
commonly associated with a medial meniscus tear?
A. tenderness along the medial joint line
B. moderate to severe pain
C. joint locking
D. hamstrings atrophy
42. The tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal may be avulsed during violent eversion of the foot by the tendon of the
A. posterior tibialis
B. peroneus longus
C. peroneus brevis
D. peroneus tertius
43. A child with athetoid cerebral palsy is referred to physical therapy. Which of the following characteristics would a
physical therapist typically identify when examining the child?
A. continuous low tone and intermittent tonic spasms
B. small range movements with full control within the range
C. disorganized movement with fluctuating muscle tone
D. little to no influence from tonic neck reflexes
44. A patient is examined following a pneumonectomy secondary to lung cancer. All of the following may be seen
postoperatively EXCEPT
A. an ineffective cough
B. increased chest expansion with inhalation
C. decreased endurance with activities of daily living
D. pain with inhalation
45. Studies using intradiscal pressures in the lumbar spine have given physical therapists valuable information on the
importance of body position. Which body position would you expect to place the most pressure on the lumbar
spine?
A. standing in the anatomical position
B. standing with 45 degrees of hip flexion
C. sitting in a chair
D. sitting in a chair with reduced lumbar lordosis
46. A physical therapist reviews the medical record of a patient who sustained a brachial plexus injury. The record
states that the medial cord of the brachial plexus was partially severed. Which nerve would you expect to be the
most seriously affected by the injury?
A. axillary
B. median
C. musculocutaneous
D. medial pectoral
47. A patient begins to demonstrate signs and symptoms of a seizure including uncontrolled muscular movements,
convulsions, and confused behavior. Appropriate intervention would include
A. attempt to check airway breathing and circulation
B. place a soft object between the patient’s teeth
C. hold or restrain the patient
D. protect the victim from injury, but do not restrain
48. A physical therapist instructs a patient to perform a quadriceps setting exercise. This exercise is considered to be
A. eccentric
B. isokinetic
C. isometric
D. isotonic
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49. Tenderness elicited through palpation on the floor of the anatomic snuffbox can often be indicative of a fracture.
A fracture in this area would likely involve the
A. hamate
B. lunate
C. scaphoid
D. pisiform
50. A physical therapist treats a patient using transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulation. Which condition would
NOT be considered a contraindication for TENS?
A. placement over the carotid sinus
B. placement over a pregnant uterus
C. use on a patient with a cardiac pacemaker
D. use during labor and delivery
51. A physical therapist treats a 32 year-old female diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. While exercising the
patient begins to complain of feeling light headed and dizzy. The therapist immediately ushers the patient to a
nearby chair and begins to monitor her vital signs. The therapist measures the patient’s respiration rate as 10
breaths per minute, pulse rate of 45 beats per minute, and blood pressure of 115/85 mmHg. Which of the
following statements is MOST accurate?
A. pulse rate and respiration rate are below normal levels
B. pulse rate and blood pressure are above normal levels
C. blood pressure and respiration rate are above normal levels
D. the patient’s vital signs are within normal limits
52. A therapist designs an exercise program for a patient rehabilitating from a myocardial infarction. During the
exercise session the patient’s blood pressure and pulse rate markedly exceed typical levels. The most appropriate
course of action is to
A. consult with the referring physician
B. ask the director of rehabilitation to examine the patient
C. continue the exercise program when the patient indicates he/she is ready
D. re-examine the patient prior to the beginning of the next treatment session.
53. A physical therapist performs a test to measure the strength of a patient’s lower abdominal muscles. The most
appropriate technique to examine the strength of the abdominals is
A. partial sit up
B. full sit up with rotation
C. single leg lowering test
D. double leg lowering test
54. A patient requires a walker for gait training. When fitting the walker for the patient the elbow should be placed in
A. 10-20 degrees of flexion
B. 20-30 degrees of flexion
C. 40-50 degrees of flexion
D. complete extension
55. A physical therapist guards a patient during stair training. The most appropriate position for the therapist as the
patient descends the stairs is
A. beside the patient on the involved side
B. beside the patient on the uninvolved side
C. behind the patient on the uninvolved side
D. in front of the patient on the involved side
56. Which statement best describes the realistic functional status of a patient with C4 tetraplegia after completing
rehabilitation?
A. able to ambulate independently
B. independent in all activities of daily living
C. able to propel a manual wheelchair independently
D. able to operate a power wheelchair.
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57. A physical therapist examines a six month-old infant with spina bifida. The infant suddenly begins to act strangely
at the conclusion of treatment. A primary survey reveals the infant is not breathing, but does have a pulse. The
most immediate response would be to
A. begin chest compressions
B. begin mouth to mouth breathing
C. begin mouth to nose breathing
D. begin mouth to mouth and nose breathing
58. A physical therapy treatment plan for a patient rehabilitating from an anterior shoulder dislocation includes
progressive resistive exercises. Which muscle groups should be emphasized during rehabilitation?
A. abductors, lateral rotators
B. adductors, lateral rotators
C. abductors, medial rotators
D. adductors, medial rotators
59. A physical therapist works with a patient diagnosed with anterior cruciate ligament insufficiency. The physician
referral specifies closed kinetic chain rehabilitation. Which exercise would not be appropriate based on the
physician order?
A. exercise on a stair machine
B. limited squats to 45 degrees
C. walking backwards on a treadmill
D. isokinetic knee extension and flexion
60. Physical therapy clinics should possess detailed infection control programs. Which of the following is not an
example of effective infection control?
A. Universal precautions should be observed to prevent contact with blood or other potentially infectious
materials.
B. Infectious waste must be placed in closable, labeled waste containers after use
C. Equipment and working surfaces must be decontaminated after contact with potentially infectious material
D. Employees shall purchase, maintain, repair and lauder their personal protective clothing.
61. A female distance runner complains of recurrent friction blisters whenever she increases the intensity of her
training regimen. Appropriate physical therapy care of friction blisters include all of the following EXCEPT
A. pad the blister with a pressure pad
B. use of skin tougheners with astringents
C. soak regularly in ice water after activity
D. make a large incision along the periphery of the blister with a sterile instrument
62. Patients are often placed on diuretics to control high blood pressure and fluid retention. Which of the following
side effects of diuretics can require immediate medical attention?
A. elevated cholesterol and lipoprotein levels
B. nausea
C. elevated white blood cell count
D. potassium depletion
63. A physical therapist palpates along the lateral portion of the hamstrings musculature to its tendinous attachment on
the fibular head. The hamstring muscle should be identified as the
A. biceps femoris
B. gracilis
C. sartorius
D. semitendinosus
64. A physical therapist instructs a patient to reach behind her head and touch the superior medial angle of the
opposite scapula. Which shoulder motions are necessary in order to follow this command?
A. flexion and lateral rotation
B. flexion and medial rotation
C. abduction and lateral rotation
D. abduction and medial rotation
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65. A high school basketball player is treated in physical therapy after spraining her ankle. Palpation reveals an
extremely painful area extending from the anterior portion of the lateral malleolus to the lateral aspect of the talar
neck. The ligament most likely associated with the discomfort is the
A. deltoid
B. calcaneofibular
C. posterior talofibular
D. anterior talofibular
66. In designing a wheelchair for a patient with bilateral transfemoral amputations, the axle should be moved in what
direction?
A. two inches laterally
B. two inches backward
C. two inches forward
D. standard position is appropriate
67. A manager is responsible for motivating staff members to take on the organization’s goals as their own. Useful
guidelines for a successful manager include all of the following EXCEPT
A. managing by results with emphasis on upward communication
B. maintaining morale with emphasis on productivity and revenue generated
C. negotiating and maintaining a mutual commitment to goals
D. using performance appraisals for setting future goals
68. A patient reports pain radiating down her posterior leg into the foot. She also exhibits weakness in plantarflexion
and an absent Achilles reflex. Which spinal level would you expect to be involved?
A. L2
B. L3
C. L5
D. S2
69. Weakness in the ____ would make it extremely difficult to ambulated on crutches?
A. medial deltoid
B. erector spinae
C. latissimus dorsi
D. rhomboids
70. Transverse friction massage is a valuable treatment technique in a variety of common musculoskeletal disorders.
Which of the following statements does not accurately describe the application technique of transverse friction
massage?
A. The therapist moves the skin back and forth in a direction perpendicular to the normal orientation of the
fibers.
B. A lubricant is used to prevent excessive skin friction
C. Fingers that are not involved directly in the massage are used to provide stabilization
D. The rate of movement is 2-3 cycles per second and rhythmical
71. A physical therapist uses proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation techniques to increase muscular strength. The
therapist instructs the patient to actively perform a pattern of hip extension, abduction, and medial rotation. This
pattern emphasizes strengthening of the
A. psoas major and minor, iliacus
B. tensor fasciae latae, biceps femoris
C. gluteus maximus, medius and minimus
D. gluteus maximus, piriformis, adductor magnus
72. If the radial nerve is severed above the origin of the triceps muscle, what motion of the elbow joint is impossible?
A. flexion
B. extension
C. pronation
D. supination
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73. A therapist employed in a community health practice presents an inservice to a group of expectant mothers. As
part of the inservice the therapist facilitates a discussion on cesarean sections. Which of the following would NOT
be an indication for a cesarean section?
A. cephalopelvic disproportion
B. prolonged labor
C. transverse lie of the baby
D. full effacement and dilation of the cervix
74. All of the following are used frequently by a physical therapist to treat temporomandibular joint disorders
EXCEPT
A. postural training
B. diathermy
C. electrical stimulation
D. ultrasound
75. A 47 year-old patient with a diagnosis of CVA with left hemiplegia is referred for orthotic examination.
Significant results of manual muscle testing include: hip flexion 3+/5, hip extension 3/5, knee flexion 3+/5, knee
extension 3+/5, ankle dorsiflexion 2/5, and ankle inversion and eversion 1/5. Sensation is intact and no abnormal
tone is noted. The MOST appropriate orthosis for this patient is a
A. knee-ankle-foot orthosis with a locked knee
B. plastic articulating ankle-foot orthosis
C. metal upright ankle-foot orthosis locked in neutral
D. prefabricated posterior leaf orthosis
76. A physical therapist observes that a patient’s medial longitudinal arch is extremely depressed. Which ligament
helps to maintain the medial longitudinal arch?
A. talonavicular
B. anterior talofibular
C. calcaneonavicular
D. posterior talofibular
77. Tests for the length of the hamstring typically involve stabilization of the uninvolved leg while raising the leg to be
tested. It is important to stabilize the uninvolved leg because it
A. prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of the lumbar spine
B. prevents excessive posterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of the lumbar spine
C. prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive flexion of the lumbar spine
D. prevents excessive anterior pelvic tilt and excessive extension of the lumbar spine
78. A physical therapist conducts an initial examination on a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. Which of
the following clinical findings would you expect the therapist to identify?
A. aphasia
B. ballistic movements
C. severe muscle atrophy
D. cogwheel rigidity
79. What percentage of physical therapy students taking their state board examination would you expect to score
within plus and minus one standard deviation of the mean?
A. 48%
B. 58%
C. 68%
D. 88%
80. Which aquatic exercise would be the most effective in reducing tone in a patient with a spinal cord injury?
A. slow passive movements of the neck and upper extremities with the patient floating in supine
B. passive abduction and adduction of the upper extremities with the patient in short sitting
C. approximation of the trunk with the patient floating in spine
D. gentle rocking of the trunk with the patient in short sitting
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81. A therapist prepares to treat a patient in isolation by donning a mask. Which of the following isolation categories
would require only the use of a mask?
A. strict isolation
B. contact isolation
C. respiratory isolation
D. enteric precautions
82. A physical therapist examines a 15 year-old female distance runner for foot pain of unknown etiology. As the
therapist palpates along the medial aspect of the foot and ankle, she palpates the head of the first metatarsal bone
and the metatarsophalangeal joint. Immediately proximal to this she identifies the first cuneiform. What large
bony prominence would you expect the therapist to identify next if she continues to move in a proximal direction?
A. talar head
B. navicular
C. medial malleolus
D. cuboid
83. A 14 year-old girl presents with a twenty-five degree left thoracic scoliotic curvature. All of the following are
appropriate immediate forms of treatment EXCEPT
A. use of corset/orthotics
B. postural exercises
C. deep breathing
D. surgical intervention
84. A physical therapist receives a referral for lumbar traction on a 61 year-old female diagnosed with chronic lumbar
pain. During the history the patient states that she sustained a compression fracture at the L4 level six weeks ago.
The most appropriate action is
A. initiate lumbar traction in a prone position only
B. initiate lumbar traction since the compression fracture was six weeks ago
C. contact the physician and discuss your concerns
D. inform the physician that the referral showed poor judgment
85. Therapists often elevate the foot of a treatment table to maximize the effectiveness of specific postural drainage
techniques. Standard postural drainage positioning of the ___ would require elevation of the treatment table?
A. anterior segments of the upper lobes
B. lateral basal segments of the lower lobes
C. posterior basal segments of the lower lobes
D. right middle lobe
86. A therapist develops an exercise program for a young boy with insulin dependent diabetes. What effect does
exercise have on the patient’s insulin requirements?
A. exercise may reduce a patient’s insulin requirements
B. exercise often increases a patient’s insulin requirements
C. exercise has no effect on a patient’s insulin requirements
D. exercise is contraindicated for insulin dependent diabetics
87. A patient with a traumatic brain injury and right hemiplegia receives an ankle-foot orthosis to assist with
ambulation. The patient’s right knee occasionally buckles during stance phase. A modification to the ankle-foot
orthosis that would enhance knee extension during loading and stance on the right is to
A. position the ankle joint in 5 degrees of dorsiflexion
B. shorten the toe plate
C. extend the foot plate
D. add a soft anterior shell
88. A patient ambulates outside a rehab hospital as part his therapy. The therapist monitors the patient closely during
the session due to extreme heat & humidity. What is the PRIMARY mode of heat loss during exercise?
A. conduction
B. convection
C. evaporation
D. radiation
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89. A therapist develops a treatment program for a patient diagnosed with cystic fibrosis. Which of the following
treatment activities would be the most essential to improve ventilation?
A. gait training
B. family education
C. postural drainage
D. home adaptations
90. A physical therapist debrides a decubitus ulcer after a whirlpool treatment. The therapist should take off sterile
patient care gloves after
A. completing debridement and transporting the patient to the patient waiting area
B. completing debridement
C. contact with the patient’s decubitus ulcer
D. cleaning the whirlpool at the conclusion of patient treatment
91. A home visit is performed for a patient who resides alone and is three weeks status post total hip replacement. The
patient is presently partial weight bearing on the affected side. The most appropriate recommendation to increase
safety in the bathroom is
A. raised toilet seat with rails, tub bench, hand held shower
B. grab bars in the shower and next to the toilet
C. handrails for the toilet, tub bench, hand held shower
D. the patient should not shower until her weight bearing status increases
92. Rhythmic stabilization is an ____ technique that can be implemented to increase joint stability?
A. isometric
B. isotonic
C. isokinetic
D. eccentric
93. A therapist designs a plan of care for a patient with left hemiparesis. Which treatment option would not assist with
the facilitation of motor return and control?
A. biofeedback
B. icing
C. functional electrical stimulation
D. Buck’s traction
94. A laboratory report indicates that a patient’s hematocrit and hemoglobin levels are decreased when compared to
expected values. Which condition would not typically be associated with decreased hematocrit and hemoglobin
levels?
A. anemia
B. hypoglycemia
C. trauma
D. iron deficiency
95. A therapist attempts to strengthen the serratus anterior by utilizing proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation
techniques. Which pattern would be the most beneficial to strengthen the serratus anterior?
A. D2 flexion
B. D2 extension
C. D1 flexion
D. D1 extension
96. A therapist treats a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease. When working on controlled mobility, which of
the following would best describe the therapist’s objective?
A. facilitate postural muscle control
B. promote weight shifting and rotational trunk control
C. emphasize reciprocal extremity movement
D. facilitate tone and rigidity
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97. A therapist completes a sensory examination on a patient diagnosed with an incomplete spinal cord injury. To
assess the C5 dermatome the therapist should utilize the
A. neck
B. superior portion of the chest above the axilla
C. thumb and index finger
D. deltoid area of the lateral arm
98. A child is referred to physical therapy with physician orders to examine and treat the left knee. During the
examination the patient describes diffuse pain throughout the area of the patella and proximal tibia/fibula. The
mother states that the child has been extremely tired and has had a significant reduction in her appetite during the
past two months. The medical record shows no evidence of any special testing and all other evaluative findings
are inconclusive. The MOST appropriate therapist action is to
A. utilize superficial modalities in an attempt to reduce the patient’s pain
B. call the physician to discuss the patient’s care
C. design an exercise program for the patient
D. inform the physician that the patient is not a candidate for physical therapy
99. A therapist examines a patient for a standard wheelchair. The therapist measures from the patient’s posterior
buttock along the lateral thigh to the popliteal fold. The therapist then subtracts two inches from the measurement.
This method can be used to measure
A. seat height
B. seat depth
C. seat width
D. armrest length
100. A therapist instructs a patient diagnosed with multiple sclerosis to ambulate using two canes. Which gait pattern
would be the most appropriate when using two canes?
A. swing-to
B. swing-through
C. three-point gait
D. four-point gait
101. A therapist monitors a patient’s blood pressure during exercise. Which of the following responses would be
considered normal?
A. diastolic pressure increases 5 mmHg during exercise
B. systolic pressure does not decline as the intensity of exercise declines
C. systolic pressure does not increase during active exercise
D. systolic pressure declines during exercise before the intensity of the exercise declines
102. A therapist examines a patient three days following lumbar laminectomy. The most accurate predictor of the
patient’s functional status following rehabilitation is based on the patient’s
A. age
B. previous functional status
C. level of family/community support
D. past surgical history
103. In order to maximize the effectiveness of postural drainage techniques for the right middle lobe, a therapist should
elevate the foot of the bed by _____ inches.
A. 4
B. 8
C. 16
D. 24
104. A therapist determines that a patient’s age predicted maximal heart rate is 165 beats per minute. Which of the
following would be most representative of the patient’s target heart rate during cardiovascular exercise?
A. 82-99 beats per minute
B. 99-115 beats per minute
C. 99-132 beats per minute
D. 132 – 148 beats per minute
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105. A therapist working in a special care unit notices a tiny air bubble in a peripheral IV line. The therapist’s most
immediate response would be to
A. turn off the IV
B. remove the IV
C. reposition the peripheral IV line
D. continue with the present treatment
106. A therapist selects an assistive device for a patient rehabilitating from an ankle injury. Which of the following
would serve as the most significant obstacle to independent ambulation with axillary crutches?
A. cognitive impairment
B. weight bearing restrictions
C. architectural barriers
D. unilateral lower extremity weakness
107. A patient rehabilitating from a laminectomy informs a therapist that his work schedule has prohibited him from
completing the prescribed home exercise program. The therapist is frustrated with the patient’s admission,
particularly since the home exercise program takes only 10 minutes to complete. The most appropriate therapist
action is to
A. emphasize the importance of the home exercise program as part of the patient’s rehabilitation program
B. ask the patient to make a specific effort to complete the home exercise program
C. inform the referring physician that the patient has been noncompliant
D. discharge the patient from physical therapy
108. A physical therapist assistant completes daily documentation in the medical record. Which of the following
documentation activities would be inappropriate for a physical therapist assistant?
A. a reaction to treatment
B. patient compliance
C. discharge summary
D. treatment of services provided
109. A therapist performs percussion over a selected area on the chest wall of a patient diagnosed with chronic
obstructive pulmonary disease. The therapist documents the sound as dull. Which structure would not typically
yield this type of sound?
A. lung
B. liver
C. heart
D. viscera
110. A therapist begins to suspect neurological involvement after completing an upper quarter screening examination.
Which anatomic area would be most appropriate to gather information on the C8 dermatome?
A. thumb and index finger
B. radial border of the hand
C. middle three fingers
D. ulnar border of the hand
111. A therapist examines a 62-year-old female status post stroke with left hemiparesis. Which of the following
perceptual deficits is NOT commonly associated with left hemiparesis?
A. denial of disability
B. rigidity of thought
C. short attention span
D. sequencing deficits
112. A patient with a lengthy cardiac history ambulates on a treadmill as part of a phase II cardiac rehabilitation
program. Suddenly, the patient begins to experience signs and symptoms of an angina attack. The therapist’s
most immediate response should be to
A. contact emergency medical services
B. stop the exercise session
C. contact the patient’s physician
D. document the incident in the medical record
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113. A therapist utilizes the results of a symptom-limited exercise treadmill test to determine the intensity of exercise
for a patient who previously sustained a cardiac event. Which of the following guidelines would be MOST
appropriate when determining an appropriate exercise intensity for the patient?
A. 20 % of the maximal heart rate obtained on the treadmill test
B. 40 % of the maximal heart rate obtained on the treadmill test
C. 60 % of the maximal heart rate obtained on the treadmill test
D. 80 % of the maximal heart rate obtained on the treadmill test
114. A physical therapist is a member of an interdisciplinary team in a rehabilitation center. One of the patients on the
pediatric unit is a 5 year-old boy who sustained a head injury and multiple fractures in a motor vehicle accident.
The patient is scheduled to be treated by the team, but there is no information in the medical chart, which specifies
the patient’s current weight bearing status. Which member of the interdisciplinary team would be responsible for
determining the patient’s weight bearing status?
A. physical therapist
B. occupational therapist
C. speech therapist
D. physician
115. A therapist is asked to indicate on a five-point scale how competent a patient is in a selected transfer technique.
The scale ranges from totally incompetent to extremely competent. This type of scale utilizes a/an _level of
measurement?
A. nominal
B. ordinal
C. interval
D. ratio
116. A nurse on a cardiac unit describes a patient’s pulse as thready. This description MOST accurately describes a
pulse that is
A. slow and rhythmical
B. slow and forceful
C. weak and irregular
D. intermittent and pronounced
117. A therapist prepares a sterile field for wound debridement. Which of the following methods would be
unacceptable when removing an object from the sterile field?
A. using a sterile towel
B. using sterile gloves
C. using a bare hand after a thorough scrubbing
D. using a sterile gauze pad
118. A therapist attempts to take a history from a patient that is acutely ill. In an attempt to conserve the patient’s
energy, the therapist should ask questions that are
A. thought provoking and reflective
B. easily answered with brief statements
C. stimulating and invigorating
D. sympathetic and endearing
119. A patient two days status post cardiac surgery complains of soreness in her right calf. Which of the following
actions would be the most appropriate?
A. gently massage the calf
B. notify the patient’s nurse of the symptoms
C. assess the patient’s dorsal pedal pulse
D. have the patient ambulate and reassess the calf
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120. A therapist examines a patient recently admitted to the hospital with uncontrolled diabetes mellitus. The physical
therapy referral is for daily whirlpool treatments for a decubitus ulcer. Which of the following signs and
symptoms might the therapist expect based on the supplied information?
A. fever and convulsions
B. tremors and rigidity
C. polydipsia and polyuria
D. nausea and vomiting
121. A group of therapists utilize a statistical test to determine whether two means differ significantly from each other.
Which parametric test of statistical significance is MOST appropriate?
A. t test
B. analysis of variance
C. Chi-square test
D. Mann-Whitney test
122. A therapist examines a patient diagnosed with thoracic outlet syndrome. During the examination the patient
repeatedly uses offensive language. The MOST appropriate therapist action is to
A. document the patient’s offensive language in the medical record
B. discharge the patient from physical therapy
C. inform the patient you find his/her language to be offensive
D. contact the referring physician
123. A therapist examines the elbow of a patient rehabilitating from a radial head fracture. Which of the following
MOST accurately describes the close packed position of the radiohumeral joint?
A. 45 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination
B. 60 degrees flexion, 20 degrees supination
C. 90 degrees flexion, 5 degrees supination
D. 120 degrees flexion, 10 degrees supination
124. A patient rehabilitating from greater trochanteric bursitis completes active range of motion exercises. Which of
the following best describes the arthrokinematics associated with hip flexion?
A. superior glide of the femoral head
B. anterior glide of the femoral head
C. inferior glide of the femoral head in the acetabulum
D. posterior and inferior glide of the femoral head in the acetabulum
125. A therapist examines a patient rehabilitating from an injury to the temporomandibular joint and concludes that the
patient is restricted in a capsular pattern. Which of the following would be the MOST likely clinical presentation?
A. protrusion is most restricted
B. retrusion is most restricted
C. mouth opening is most restricted
D. mouth closing is most restricted
126. A patient is informed that her condition is terminal shortly before her scheduled therapy session. During the
treatment session, the patient asks the therapist if she believes the physician’s assessment is accurate. The most
appropriate therapist response is
A. physicians are not infallible
B. your present condition is very serious
C. channel your energy towards getting better
D. focus on your therapy goals
127. A therapist orders a wheelchair for a patient in a rehabilitation hospital. Which of the following patients would be
most in need of a wheelchair with handrim projections?
A. a patient with a C3 spinal cord injury
B. a patient with a C5 spinal cord injury
C. a patient with hemiparesis
D. a patient with a cauda equina lesion
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128. A therapist reviews the results of ultraviolet testing. Which grade of erythemal dose BEST describes the time
required for mild reddening of the skin?
A. Suberythemal dose
B. minimal erythemal dose
C. second degree erythema
D. third degree erythema
129. A therapist assesses a patient’s voice sounds as part of a respiratory examination. Which condition is typically
associated with increased voice sounds?
A. pneumothorax
B. consolidation
C. atelectasis
D. pleural effusion
130. A patient rehabilitating from a myocardial infarction expresses to his therapist a desire to quit smoking. The most
appropriate therapist action is to
A. supply the patient with the phone number of the American Heart Association
B. refer the patient to a smoking cessation program
C. provide the patient with general information on the dangers of smoking
D. ask the patient to consider nicotine gum
131. A therapist examines a patient referred to physical therapy diagnosed with bicipital tendonitis. Which of the
following special tests would be the most useful to confirm the patient’s diagnosis?
A. Halstead maneuver
B. apprehension test
C. drop arm test
D. Yergason’s test
132. A therapist completes a selected resistive test as part of an initial examination. The patient reports feeling pain
during the test, however strength is normal. Which of the following conclusions is MOST likely?
A. capsular or ligamentous laxity
B. a minor lesion of the muscle or tendon
C. a complete rupture of the muscle or tendon
D. intermittent claudication may be present
133. A note in a patient’s medical chart indicates the presence of an acid-base disturbance of metabolic origin. Which
condition is not typically associated with metabolic acidosis?
A. vomiting
B. secondary hyperventilation
C. lethargy
D. syncope
134. A therapist identifies signs and symptoms of neurovascular compression after examining a patient with an upper
extremity injury. Which of the following special tests would not be helpful in identifying the presence of
neurovascular compression?
A. Tinel’s sign
B. Froment’s sign
C. Phalen’s test
D. Bunnel-Littler test
135. A therapist presents an inservice to the rehabilitation staff on the anatomy of the spine. As part of the presentation
the therapist discusses the role of each of the ligaments of the spine. Which ligament of the spine acts to prevent
hyperextension?
A. ligamentum flavum
B. Interspinous ligaments
C. anterior longitudinal ligament
D. posterior longitudinal ligament
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136. A therapist assigns a grade of good after completing a manual muscle test of the extensor digitorum. The MOST
appropriate position to conduct the test would be
A. supine
B. prone
C. sidelying
D. standing
137. A therapist completes a goniometric assessment of a patient’s wrist. Assuming normal range of motion, which of
the following motions would you expect to have the greatest available range?
A. extension
B. flexion
C. radial deviation
D. ulnar deviation
138. A therapist reviews the results of a research study that examined intratester reliability of selected goniometric
measurements. Which of the following goniometric measurements would you expect to have the poorest
intratester reliability?
A. shoulder flexion
B. shoulder abduction
C. knee flexion
D. ankle inversion
139. A 63 year-old female status post stroke is screened for admission into a rehabilitation hospital. As part of the
screen the therapist utilizes a standardized instrument to document the extent of the patient’s impairments and
disabilities. Which of the following standardized instruments would be most beneficial to provide an assessment
of motor function?
A. Barthel Index
B. Functional Independence Measure
C. Fugl-Meyer Assessment
D. Rivermead Mobility Index
140. A physical therapist reviews an initial examination of a patient diagnosed with an upper motor neuron disease.
The examination documents the existence of a positive Babinski reflex. A positive Babinski reflex is
characterized by
A. extension of the great toe
B. flexion of the great toe
C. abduction of the great toe
D. adduction of the great toe
141. A therapist measures passive forearm pronation and concludes the results are within normal limits. Which
measurement would be classified as within normal limits?
A. 65 degrees
B. 85 degrees
C. 105 degrees
D. 125 degrees
142. A physical therapist obtains a goniometric measurement with a patient in supine. The stationary arm of the
goniometer is positioned at the midaxillary line of the trunk. The movable arm is positioned along the lateral
midline of the humerus using the lateral epicondyle as a reference. This positioning of the goniometer can be used
to measure.
A. shoulder flexion
B. medial and lateral rotation of the shoulder
C. shoulder extension
D. elbow extension
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143. A patient status post stroke presents with a hypotonic left upper extremity. While performing sitting activities the
position of choice for the left upper extremity is
A. in the patient’s lap
B. in a sling
C. weight bearing through the upper extremity with the elbow extended
D. weight bearing through the upper extremity with the elbow and wrist flexed
144. A physical therapist examines a patient with lower extremity hypertonicity. All of the following could be used by
the therapist to temporarily reduce tone EXCEPT
A. gentle rocking
B. cryotherapy
C. approximation
D. sustained stretch
145. A patient who recently sustained a gastrocnemius strain asks a therapist what factors may have contributed to the
muscle strain. Which statement does NOT accurately describe contributing factors to a muscle strain?
A. The muscle may have been poorly prepared due to inadequate warm up
B. The muscle may have been weakened by a previous injury
C. The muscle may have been exposed to heat which would cause the muscle to be less contractile than normal
D. The muscle may previously have been extensively injured with resultant scar tissue formation
146. Effective measures to prevent decubitus ulcers include all of the following EXCEPT
A. frequent inspection of the skin for redness and signs of skin breakdown
B. turning and position changes every 4 hours
C. early ambulation when possible
D. passive range of motion exercises
147. A physical therapist consistently falls behind with his documentation due to an excessive patient load. The MOST
appropriate action is
A. discuss the situation with other staff physical therapists
B. ignore the situation and attempt to complete the documentation in a timely fashion
C. discuss the situation with the immediate supervisor
D. discuss the situation with the director of rehabilitation
148. A physical therapist attempts to measure a patient’s shoulder lateral rotation. Proper positioning of the upper
extremity in supine would BEST be described by which of the following?
A. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 90 degrees
B. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow fully extended
C. shoulder abducted to 90 degrees, elbow flexed to 45 degrees
D. shoulder in neutral, elbow flexed to 90 degrees
149. A physical therapist observes a patient performing active hip abduction in supine. The patient is limited by 10
degrees in abduction, but appears to be moving through the full range of motion. What compensatory measures
might the patient use to seemingly increase hip abduction?
A. hip flexion and lateral rotation
B. hip flexion and medial rotation
C. hip hyperextension and lateral rotation
D. hip hyperextension and medial rotation
150. What massage technique is commonly used at the beginning and conclusion of treatment and may be used during
transitional periods prior to changing massage techniques?
A. effleurage
B. petrissage
C. tapotement
D. vibration
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151. Restrictive lung diseases limit to varying degrees the maximum volume of air that can be inhaled and exhaled.
Examples of restrictive diseases include all of the following EXCEPT
A. emphysema
B. pleural effusion
C. pneumonia
D. bony abnormality of the chest
152. A patient with a fractured right tibia who is partial weight bearing is referred to physical therapy for fitting and
instruction with an assistive device. During the examination the physical therapist identifies poor lower extremity
strength and coordination. Which assistive device would be MOST appropriate for the patient?
A. axillary crutches
B. cane
C. Lofstrand crutches
D. walker
153. Which of the following statements would probably NOT increase a patient’s compliance with a home exercise
program?
A. The patient should receive both written and verbal instructions
B. The program should be goal oriented
C. The program should be individualized to the needs of the patient
D. The program should take in excess of thirty minutes to complete
154. A therapist observes the gait of a patient status post right CVA with a metal upright ankle-foot orthosis. The
therapist notes left knee instability with left stance. The ankle foot orthosis MOST likely has
A. a long foot plate
B. inadequate knee lock
C. inadequate dorsiflexion stop
D. inadequate plantarflexion stop
155. A physical therapist examines a patient with a limited straight leg raise to 40 degrees due to inadequate hamstrings
length. Which proprioceptive neuromuscular technique would be MOST appropriate to increase the patient’s
hamstrings length?
A. contract-relax
B. rhythmic initiation
C. rhythmic stabilization
D. rhythmic rotation
156. A short-term goal for a patient status post CVA is to perform a stand pivot transfer from a bed to a wheelchair.
The goal should be recorded in the _____ section of a SOAP note?
A. subjective
B. objective
C. assessment
D. plan
157. A therapist practices assessing joint end feel. The therapist would MOST accurately classify normal elbow
extension end feel as
A. firm
B. hard
C. soft
D. empty
158. A physical therapist observes a patient dragging his toe during the swing phase of gait. All of the following are
possible causes EXCEPT
A. weakness of dorsiflexors
B. spasticity of plantarflexors
C. weakness of plantarflexors
D. inadequate knee flexion
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159. A physical therapist notices a student physical therapist using improper guarding technique on a patient that
appears to be unstable. The most immediate therapist action should be
A. discuss the situation with the student’s clinical instructor
B. leave the student an anonymous note describing proper guarding technique
C. offer suggestions to improve the student’s guarding technique
D. ignore the situation since you are not the clinical instructor
160. A physical therapist instructs a patient diagnosed with Parkinson’s disease in ambulation activities. Which of the
following would be helpful to improve the quality of the patient’s gait?
A. decrease stride length
B. increase trunk rotation
C. increase forward head posture
D. decrease base of support
161. When wrapping the residual limb of a patient with transfemoral amputation, a therapist should adhere to all of the
following EXCEPT
A. the bandage should provide increased pressure proximally
B. the bandage should be smooth and wrinkle free
C. the bandage should be applied using diagonal turns
D. the bandage should be applied to encourage proximal joint extension
162. A physical therapist positions a patient with hemiplegia in a plantigrade position to promote weight bearing
through the affected upper extremity. The MOST appropriate hand position on the plinth is
A. total palmar contact with the fingers fully extended
B. total palmar contact with the finger flexed
C. weight bearing on a closed fist
D. palmar contact with support of the palmar arches and weight bearing through the heel of the hand
163. Which surgical technique is commonly performed on a shoulder to repair a defect in the glenoid labrum?
A. acromioplasty
B. Bankart
C. inferior capsular shift
D. Magnuson
164. A therapist completes a manual muscle test on a muscle that inverts the foot and assists in plantarflexion of the
ankle joint. This description BEST describes the
A. tibialis anterior
B. tibialis posterior
C. peroneus longus
D. peroneus tertius
165. A physical therapist assists a patient with C7 tetraplegia into a prone on elbows position on a mat. The therapist
instructs the patient to push his elbows down, tuck his chin, and lift his trunk off the mat while rounding out the
shoulders. This exercise is helpful in strengthening the
A. serratus anterior and scapular muscles
B. serratus anterior
C. latissimus dorsi and scapular muscles
D. sacrospinalis and semispinalis
166. A therapist performs a range of motion screening on a 14 year-old female. The therapist instructs the patient to
stand on her tiptoes. The therapist uses this command to examine
A. dorsiflexion and toe extension
B. dorsiflexion and toe flexion
C. plantarflexion and toe extension
D. plantarflexion and toe flexion
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167. A forearm laceration causes damage to the median nerve. Which muscle NOT innervated by the median nerve can
flex the wrist?
A. flexor carpi radialis
B. flexor carpi ulnaris
C. flexor digitorum superficialis
D. palmaris longus
168. A therapist observes the gait of a patient status post pneumonia. The therapist notices that the patient walks on his
heels. Possible causes of this deviation include all of the following EXCEPT
A. weakness of the gastrocnemius muscle
B. tightness of the dorsiflexor muscles
C. decreased strength in the dorsiflexors
D. pes calcaneus deformity
169. A therapist performs a muscle screening examination on a 43 year-old female diagnosed with carpal tunnel
syndrome. The therapist attempts to pull the patient’s fingers from a position of adduction to abduction. This
action is used to test the
A. finger extensors
B. opponens pollicis
C. dorsal interossei
D. palmar interossei
170. The middle score of a distribution which divides a group of scores into equal parts with half of the scores falling
above and half of the scores falling below describes the
A. mean
B. median
C. mode
D. quota
171. A developmental examination is performed on an infant. The infant is able to play on extended arms and attempts
to reach for objects. The infant can maintain good alignment of the head and trunk when pulled to a sitting
position. The infant bears weight when placed in supportive standing. The therapist would expect the infant’s age
to be
A. 3 months
B. 5 months
C. 7 months
D. 9 months
172. A physical therapist’s emphasis when treating a child with ___ is aggressive bronchial drainage, chest vibration
and percussion?
A. cystic fibrosis
B. chronic asthma
C. respiratory muscle weakness
D. pneumothorax
173. A physical therapist observes the standing posture of a patient from a lateral view. If the patient has normal
anatomical alignment, a plumb line would fall
A. posterior to the lobe of the ear
B. anterior to the greater trochanter of the femur
C. slightly anterior to a midline through the knee
D. slightly posterior to the lateral malleolus
174. A patient demonstrates unilateral neglect to the left. The physical therapist’s short-term goals for the patient
include reducing the patient’s neglect. Which treatment technique would NOT be effective in improving the
patient’s condition?
A. have the patient participate in bilateral tasks to increase total body awareness
B. place the patient’s food on the right side of the tray so the patient can eat by himself
C. have the patient observe himself massaging his left upper extremity
D. have the patient use a mirror while dressing
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175. A physical therapist instructs a 67 year-old female, four weeks status post total hip replacement in a home exercise
program. Which exercise description would be INAPPROPRIATE for the patient?
A. Lie on your involved side and lift the involved leg towards the ceiling
B. Place a rolled up towel under your knee. Rest the weight of the thigh on the towel roll. Lift the heel off the
table so that you can straighten the knee
C. Lie on your back with the opposite knee bent. Tighten the thigh muscle, keeping the leg straight and lift the
leg toward the ceiling
D. Lie on your back with knees bent. Raise your buttocks off the table
176. A physical therapist performs a vertebral artery test on a patient prior to using traction and mobilization techniques
in the upper cervical spine. During the test the patient begins to demonstrate nystagmus and blurred vision. The
therapist should
A. repeat the vertebral artery test to confirm the original results
B. proceed cautiously with traction and mobilization techniques in the upper cervical spine
C. avoid traction or mobilization techniques in the upper cervical spine
D. discharge the patient from physical therapy
177. A physical therapist straps the ankle of a young athlete with a history of recurrent inversion ankle sprains. The
therapist elects to use the closed basket weave strapping technique. Which of the following is NOT accurate when
using this technique?
A. one and one half inch adhesive tape is traditionally used
B. stirrups should be applied pulling the foot into inversion
C. the foot should remain in dorsiflexion during strapping
D. to provide additional support use figure-eights with or without heel locks
178. A 16 year-old basketball player is anxious to return to athletic competition following rehabilitation from an
Achilles tendon rupture. The athlete is objectively ready to return to competition, however continues to
demonstrate a severe preoccupation with reinjury. The MOST appropriate response is to
A. allow the patient to return to basketball without restriction
B. inform the patient that he should not participate in basketball this season
C. design a functional progression for basketball which allows the patient to progress to higher level activities in
a gradual fashion
D. discuss other less demanding athletic activities with the patient
179. A therapist observes random changes in the intensity of an ultrasound generator during patient treatment. The
MOST appropriate response is to
A. ignore the changes in the intensity since they are normal when using ultrasound
B. continue to use the machine at intensity levels less than 1.0 W/cm 2
C. closely monitor the machine during use
D. discontinue use of the machine and contact a service technician
180. A therapist reviews literature, which details the expected changes in endurance and physical work capacity as an
individual progresses from middle age to an older adult. Which of the following measurements would NOT be
affected by this transition?
A. resting heart rate
B. stroke volume
C. cardiac output
D. blood pressure
181. A physician requests that a therapist report to the orthopedic surgical center to instruct a patient in a preoperative
training program. After completing the training program the therapist returns to the outpatient physical therapy
area and finds a number of items that require her attention. Which of the following items should be give the
highest priority?
A. an interim progress note for a patient scheduled to see a physician
B. unfinished documentation from a patient seen earlier in the day
C. a message from a patient that has been discharged from therapy
D. a scheduled patient that has been waiting for 15 minutes
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182. A patient with latissimus dorsi and lower trapezius weakness would have the most difficulty performing which of
the following activities?
A. four-point gait with Lofstrand crutches
B. modified two-point gait with a straight cane
C. swing-through gait with axillary crutches
D. wheelchair propulsion
183. A patient performs bridging in supine as part of an exercise program. The therapist increases the difficulty by
applying agonistic reversals as the patient maintains the bridge position. The application of agonistic reversals
promotes eccentric control of the
A. hip extensors, hamstrings
B. hip flexors, quadriceps
C. hip extensors, adductors
D. adductors, hamstrings
184. A therapist attempts to obtain information on the integrity of the C7 dermatome. The MOST appropriate location
to assess the dermatome is the
A. little finger and ulnar border of the hand
B. lateral forearm and thumb
C. palmar distal phalanx of the middle finger
D. medial forearm
185. A physical therapist studies a normal resting electrocardiogram for one cardiac cycle. What wave or change in
shape of the electrocardiogram results from atrial depolarization?
A. P wave
B. QRS complex
C. ST segment
D. T wave
186. A patient is referred to physical therapy after sustaining a Colles’ fracture. A Colles’ fracture refers to an injury of
the
A. ulna
B. radius
C. olecranon
D. scaphoid
187. Forearm supination is measured with the moving arm of the goniometer placed on the _____ side of the wrist
A. dorsal
B. lateral
C. medial
D. volar
188. When reviewing a medical record, a therapist identifies an entry, which classifies the patient’s pulse rate as
bradycardia. This should be interpreted as
A. an increased pulse rate
B. a decreased pulse rate
C. an increase in the size of the heart
D. an underdeveloped atria
189. A patient three weeks status post right total knee replacement complains of pain in the right calf. The patient’s
pain increases with ambulation and with quick passive range of motion into dorsiflexion. The patient’s lower
extremity is warm to touch. The MOST appropriate response would be to
A. disregard the findings as postoperative pain
B. continue with ambulation to tolerance
C. perform active calf stretching
D. request a physician to rule out deep venous thrombosis
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190. A patient is referred to physical therapy after sustaining a complete tear of the anterior cruciate ligament. The
patient’s ligament injury is BEST described as a
A. grade I sprain
B. grade III sprain
C. grade I strain
D. grade III strain
191. A therapist records the vital signs of a 45 year-old male prior to beginning treatment. The therapist palpates the
patient’s radial pulse for 15 seconds, but has difficulty computing the actual pulse rate since the rhythm is
irregular. The MOST appropriate method to identify the actual pulse rate is to
A. recheck hand positioning and palpate the radial pulse for an additional 15 seconds
B. select another pulse site and palpate for 15 seconds
C. palpate the radial pulse for one minute
D. record the original pulse rate and document the rhythm
192. When measuring ulnar deviation of the wrist, the movable arm of the goniometer should be aligned with the
A. shaft of the second proximal phalanx
B. shaft of the third proximal phalanx
C. shaft of the second metacarpal
D. shaft of the third metacarpal
193. A patient sustained a knife wound, which severed the distal lateral cord of the brachial plexus. EMG testing
reveals no damage to the median nerve. This injury will likely result in impairment of
A. elbow flexion and forearm supination
B. elbow extension and forearm pronation
C. shoulder flexion and abduction
D. shoulder lateral rotation
194. Kneading. wringing and rolling are all specific variations of which basic massage technique?
A. effleurage
B. vibration
C. petrissage
D. tapotement
195. A therapist instructs a patient that appears to be disinterested in a home exercise program. Which therapist action
would be the most appropriate?
A. allow the patient to select exercise activities
B. explain to the patient the importance of the home exercise program
C. explain to the patient the consequences of refusing treatment
D. discontinue the treatment session
196. To increase patient compliance with a home exercise program, a therapist should
A. speak strongly and directly to the patient
B. individualize the program to the particular needs of each patient
C. lecture the patient on the importance of compliance
D. use medical terminology to impress the patient
197. A physical therapist treating a patient in supine elects to reinforce active movement of the lower extremity in a
flexion, adduction, and lateral rotation pattern. This proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique pattern is
termed
A. D1 flexion
B. D1 extension
C. D2 flexion
D. D2 extension
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198. When writing daily progress notes using the SOAP format, a therapist records her professional judgment in the
___ section
A. subjective
B. objective
C. assessment
D. plan
199. A physical therapist treats a patient with incomplete L4 paraplegia. The therapist uses proprioceptive
neuromuscular facilitation techniques to strengthen the abdominals and improve trunk stability in sitting. The
most appropriate technique to improve strength and control include
A. hold-relax alternating movement in sitting
B. D1 flexion in quadruped
C. D1 flexion in supine
D. alternating isometrics and timing for emphasis in sitting
200. A patient is not able to whistle on command, but you have heard him whistling while listening to music. The same
patient is unable to walk in the gym after demonstration, but is observed walking across the room to get his dinner
tray. This condition is termed
A. ideational apraxia
B. ideomotor apraxia
C. constructional apraxia
D. dressing apraxia
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1. B. Radiation therapy has a number of useful clinical applications including reducing the size of tumors, relieving
compression on tumors, and relieving pain. Radiation dosage is measured using Grays.
2. D. Lower extremity bivalve casting inhibits the extensor thrust reflex which is elicited through plantarflexion and
pressure through the ball of the foot. The reflex interferes with mobility by stimulating a mass extension pattern.
3. A. The tibialis anterior acts to dorsiflex the ankle joint and assists in inversion of the foot. During muscle testing
pressure should be applied against the medial side of the dorsal surface of the foot in the direction of plantarflexion
of the ankle joint and eversion of the foot
4. D. Providing pain medication is not typically considered within a therapist’s scope of practice.
5. B. Although there is a wide range of outcomes with nonoperative anterior cruciate ligament injuries, most
individuals are able to return to a minimum level of light recreational sports. Therapeutic management of an
anterior cruciate ligament injury includes range of motion, progressive resistive exercises, functional activities,
and may or may not include bracing.
6. D. Patients exercising during pregnancy must carefully monitor and maintain an adequate fluid intake in order to
avoid dehydration.
7. D. Ultrasound application over areas of reduced circulation may result in excessive temperature elevation.
8. B. The gluteus medius functions as an abductor and medial rotator of the hip. The superior gluteal nerve
innervates the muscle.
9. B. Evidence of slight contractility includes a mild muscle contraction felt through palpation or a tendon becoming
slightly prominent without visible movement. Each of the findings is characteristic of a trace muscle grade.
10. D. Frenkel’s exercises are designed to improve coordination by emphasizing the use of vision and hearing to
compensate for altered or impaired proprioception.
11. A. The glenohumeral joint consists of the concave glenoid fossa and the convex humeral head. An anterior glide
of the humeral head is indicated to increase lateral rotation.
12. A. Acceptable water temperature when using whirlpool for heating effects is 36.5 to 40.5 degrees.
13. C. The stance phase makes up approximately 60 percent of the gait cycle, while the swing phase makes up
approximately 40 percent.
14. C. The infraspinatus and teres minor both serve as lateral rotators of the shoulder.
15. C. When descending a curb using a forward approach, the wheelchair must remain tipped backward until the rear
wheels are in contact with the surface below the curb.
16. D. The rectus femoris is a two joint muscle that acts to flex the hip and extend the knee. Passively flexing the hip
and knee of the contralateral lower extremity effectively serves to stabilize the pelvis.
17. B. The walker, uninvolved, and involved extremity are each considered one point. Since each of the points is
moved independently, the gait pattern is considered to be three-point.
18. B. A quad cane should be utilized in the upper extremity that is opposite from the affected lower extremity. The
device is designed so that the longer legs are positioned away from the patient
19. B. The gluteus medius functions as a hip abductor. Weakness of the gluteus medius can result in a Trendelenburg
gait pattern which is characterized by dropping of the pelvis on the unaffected side of the body at the moment of
heel strike on the affected side
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20. A. A raised toilet seat helps to limit hip flexion. Hip flexion beyond 90 degrees is often considered a
contraindication following total hip replacement surgery. Although a hip abduction pillow is employed
postoperatively, it is used for more than a week.
21. A. A phase IV cardiac rehabilitation program is designed to promote lifelong maintenance of cardiopulmonary
status through exercise, lifestyle management, and education.
22. A. The asymmetrical tonic neck reflex may produce extension of the affected upper extremity by turning the
patient’s head toward the affected side.
23. B. The flexor carpi ulnaris (C8-T1) would not be innervated in a patient with C6 tetraplegia.
24. D. Dislocation of the patella occurs when the patella displaces laterally out of the trochlear groove. A number of
anatomical factors such as a flat lateral femoral condyle and a shallow trochlear groove may predispose an
individual to dislocation.
25. B. The Lachman test is perhaps the most common ligamentous instability test designed to assess the integrity of
the anterior cruciate ligament. It is most commonly performed with the patient in a supine position and the knee
flexed 15-20 degrees.
26. A. The gravity-eliminated position for the hip adductors is supine.
27. D. The supplied information provides limited insight into the patient’s present condition. A comprehensive
treatment plan must be based on the results of a thorough examination.
28. A. A patient with burns over the anterior aspect of the neck will have a tendency to maintain the head in a fixed
position and therefore is at risk for acquiring a flexion contracture.
29. A. The common peroneal nerve can be palpated immediately below the head of the fibula. An injury to the nerve
may result in foot drop.
30. D. A positioning program can be used to decrease edema, preserve function, and prevent contractures. Proper
positioning should be a constant objective of the patient, therapist, and the entire rehabilitation team.
31. A. The tonic labyrinthine reflex creates full extension of the body and extremities when positioned in supine.
Extension serves to limit the child’s ability to flex the neck.
32. C. A three-point gait pattern is used by individuals with one involved lower extremity. The three-point gait
pattern allows for varying degrees of weight bearing.
33. C. The described pattern is a combination of both flexor and extensor synergies. The hip and knee reflect flexor
synergy, while the ankle and toes reflect the extensor synergy. A combination of the two patterns is common.
34. A. Increased lordosis refers to an abnormal anterior convexity of the lumbar spine. A lordotic posture is often
associated with stretched or weakened abdominal muscles.
35. D. Homolateral synkinesis is an associated reaction that can occur after neurological damage. Resistance to
flexion of the affected upper extremity will cause flexion in the lower extremity.
36. B. A ramp should be a minimum of 12 inches in length for each inch of rise.
37. B. A discharge summary provides an overview of the treatment provided and the progress made toward achieving
established goals. The note should include a description of the patient’s status at the time of discharge.
38. C. Audit size should be based on available personnel, topic selected, and the monitory system used. Audits often
are composed of samples significantly greater than 20.
39. D. Gloves worn during patient care activities should not be reused since they may contain contaminants.
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40. B. Maintaining an angle of increased hip flexion during late swing through heel strike will create an increased
step length.
41. D. An acute medial meniscus injury would not produce hamstrings atrophy.
42. C. The peroneus brevis acts to evert the foot and assist in plantarflexion of the ankle. The muscle inserts at the
base of the fifth metatarsal.
43. C. A child with athetoid cerebral palsy typically demonstrates disorganized movements with tone that fluctuates
between hypotonic and hypertonic. The child’s cognitive ability usually remains age appropriate.
44. B. Pneumonectomy refers to the excision of all or part of a lung. The surgical procedure often results in a
reduction in chest expansion during inspiration.
45. D. According to a study performed by Nachemson, intradiskal pressure is greatest when sitting in a chair with
reduced lumbar lordosis.
46. D. The medial pectoral nerve originates from the medial cord of the brachial plexus. The nerve innervates
pectoralis major and minor.
47. D. A seizure occurs as a result of abnormal stimulation of brain cells. Intervention should be initially limited to
protecting the patient from injury. A seizure typically lasts less than 2 minutes.
48. C. Quadriceps setting is an isometric form of exercise where the muscle contracts without a significant change in
length or joint motion. Quadriceps setting exercises are often employed in the initial stages of a rehabilitation
program.
49. C. The scaphoid also known as the navicular bone makes up the floor of the anatomical snuffbox. The bone is
located in the proximal carpal row and is the most frequently fractured carpal bone.
50. D. Transcutaneous electrical nerve stimulators deliver controlled, low voltage electrical impulses that can be used
for pain relief during labor and delivery.
51. A. Normal range for pulse rate is 60-100 beats per minute, while respiration rate is 12-18 breaths per minute.
52. A. Abnormal blood pressure and pulse rate in a patient rehabilitating from a myocardial infarction is a significant
finding that warrants consultation with the referring physician. Serious complications associated with myocardial
infarction include arrhythmias, heart failure, and thrombolytic complications.
53. D. The double leg-lowering test assesses the strength of the lower abdominals. The test is performed by slowly
lowering the legs from a vertical position with the knees extended.
54. B. A patient grasping a walker in standing should exhibit 20-30 degrees of elbow flexion.
55. D. Guarding in front of the patient on the involved side while descending stairs provides the therapist with the
greatest opportunity to assist the patient in the event of a fall.
56. D. A patient with complete C4 tetraplegia has innervation of the sternocleidomastoids and trapezius muscles.
This allows the patient to operate a power wheelchair using a chin control.
57. D. Mouth to mouth and nose breathing is appropriate for an infant (less than one year old)
58. D. The shoulder medial rotators and adductors provide support for the anterior joint capsule and as a result
strengthening of these muscles is an essential component of a rehabilitation program following anterior shoulder
dislocation.
59. D. Isokinetic knee extension and flexion require the distal segment to move freely in space, as a result the exercise
is considered to be an open kinematic chain exercise.
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60. D. The health care facility should provide protective clothing and equipment to protect employees and patients
from infection. The facility should be responsible for maintaining the clothing and equipment.
61. D. Making a large incision along the periphery of a blister with a sterile instrument may be considered outside the
physical therapist’s scope of practice.
62. D. Hypokalemia is a condition where there is an extreme depletion of potassium in the blood. This type of
electrolyte imbalance requires medical intervention.
63. A. The biceps femoris muscle acts to flex and laterally rotate the knee joint and is innervated by the peroneal and
tibial portions of the sciatic nerve.
64. C. The supplied instructions can be used to examine shoulder abduction and lateral rotation. The type of gross
screening examination is a component of Apley scratch test.
65. D. The anterior talofibular ligament runs from the anterior aspect of the lateral malleolus to the lateral aspect of
the talar neck. The ligament is commonly injured with an inversion ankle sprain.
66. B. Bilateral amputations cause a patient’s center of gravity to be moved posteriorly; as a result the wheels on a
wheelchair must also be moved in a posterior direction in order to maintain an acceptable center of gravity.
67. B. Emphasizing productivity and revenue generated may serve to undermine morale and compromise existing
patient care standards.
68. D. S2 nerve root: dermatome: buttock, thigh and posterior leg

myotome: plantarflexors and hamstrings
reflexes: Achilles
69. C. In addition to extending the shoulder, the latissimus dorsi acts to support the body’s weight and assists to
propel the body forward.
70. B. Transverse friction massage requires firm contact with the skin and subcutaneous tissues. Using a lubricant
would make this type of contact impossible.
71. C. The gluteus maximus extends the hip and the medius and minimus are responsible for abduction and medial
rotation of the hip.
72. B. Muscles responsible for extending the elbow are the triceps and the anconeus. The radial nerve innervates both
muscles.
73. D. Full effacement and dilation of the cervix are requirements for a normal vaginal birth.
74. B. Internal or external metallic objects are contraindications for diathermy. As a result the heating agent is not
commonly used to treat the temporomandibular joint.
75. B. Intact sensation along with the absence of tone allows for a plastic orthosis with an articulating ankle joint.
This type of orthosis allows for a more normal gait pattern during stance phase.
76. C. The calcaneonavicular ligament helps to maintain the medial longitudinal arch by supporting the head of the
talus between the navicular and the calcaneus.
77. A. Stabilizing the opposite leg while assessing the hamstrings length serves to limit posterior pelvic tilt and
flexion of the lumbar spine. Failure to adequately stabilize results in exaggerated hamstrings length.
78. D. Signs and symptoms of Parkinson’s disease include cogwheel rigidity, resting tremor, poor initiation of
movement, shuffling gait, and flat affect.
79. C. In a normal distribution a known percentage of the population falls between specific standard deviation units.
The area between +1 and –1 standard deviation units represents approximately 68 % of the population.
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80. A. Aquatic therapy can be beneficial in the reduction of hypertonicity. Slow and passive movements in supine
allow the patient to relax while floating with support from the therapist. Reduction of tone occurs as a result of
overflow.
81. C. Respiratory isolation requires the use of a mask, but does not require the use of gowns or gloves. Examples of
diseases that may require respiratory isolation include measles, pneumonia, and pertussis.
82. B. The navicular is located along the medial aspect of the foot, proximal to the cuneiforms and distal to the talus.
83. D. Surgical intervention is typically associated with scoliotic curves greater than 35 degrees.
84. C. The therapist must consult with the referring physician when the prescribed treatment procedure is
contraindicated.
85. A. Bronchial drainage positioning for the anterior segments of the upper lobes is with the patient in supine with
pillows under the knees.
86. A. Insulin dependent diabetes mellitus usually has its onset before the age of 30. The disease is characterized by
an absence of circulating insulin. Exercise has been shown to increase the effectiveness of insulin and as a result
may slightly reduce a patient’s insulin requirement.
87. C. An extended toe plate on an ankle-foot orthosis creates an extension moment at the knee by diminishing toe
extension during toe off and subsequently reducing the knee’s ability to flex.
88. C. The primary mode of heat loss during exercise occurs through perspiration and exhaling. Both mechanisms
are examples of evaporation.
89. C. Postural drainage should be the highest priority in the care of a patient with cystic fibrosis. Postural drainage
enhances gas exchange by removing mucus from the lungs and limits the incidence of infection.
90. B. The therapist should remove the sterile gloves after completing debridement. Failure to remove the gloves may
result in the spread of contaminants.
91. A. The most appropriate recommendation must adequately address safety and the patient’s postoperative
condition. A raised toilet seat is essential in order to avoid excessive flexion of the hip and a tub bench can
significantly reduce the incidence of falls while bathing.
92. A. Rhythmic stabilization elicits cocontraction of the muscles around a joint through isometric contractions. The
technique can also be utilized to increase range of motion.
93. D. Buck’s traction is a specific form of traction used to immobilize, position, and align the lower extremity.
94. B. Hypoglycemia refers to decreased blood sugar levels. Signs and symptoms of hypoglycemia include fatigue,
malaise, irritability, headache and hunger. Causes of hypoglycemia include injection of an excessive quantity of
insulin, hyperfunction of the islets of Langerhans or dietary deficiency. Hematocrit and hemoglobin levels are not
significantly affected with hypoglycemia.
95. C. The serratus anterior is primarily responsible for scapular upward rotation and abduction. D1 flexion produces
scapular elevation, abduction and upward rotation.
96. B. Controlled mobility activities should emphasize weight shifting and trunk control with rotation. This type of
activity may serve to decrease rigidity and improve the fluidity of gait in a patient with Parkinson’s disease.
97. D. C5 nerve root: dermatome: deltoid area, anterior aspect of the entire arm to the base of the thumb
myotome : supraspinatus, infraspinatus, deltoid, biceps
reflexes : biceps, brachioradialis
98. B. The patient exhibits several signs and symptoms that may be associated with a condition such as cancer. Since
the examination findings are inconclusive, it is advisable to consult with the referring physician.
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99. B. Seat depth in an average size adult chair is 16 inches.
100. D. Two canes do not offer an adequate platform to transmit the upper extremity force necessary to perform a
swing-to, swing-through, or three-point gait pattern.
101. A. Systolic pressure gradually increases as exercise intensity increases, however diastolic pressure remains
relatively stable.
102. B. A lumbar laminectomy refers to the excision of a vertebral posterior arch, usually for the purpose of removing
herniated disc or other lesion. After a comprehensive rehabilitation program, most patients are able to gradually
return to an activity level similar to their previous functional status.
103. C. To administer bronchial drainage to the right middle lobe, a patient should be positioned on his/her left side
and then rotated one quarter turn backward. The foot of the bed should be elevated 6 inches.
104. C. Target heart rate is often expressed as 60-80 % of a patient’s age predicted maximal heart rate.
105. D. Tiny air bubbles in a peripheral IV line are not typically indicative of a complication of intravenous therapy.
106. A. A significant cognitive impairment may result in a patient being unable to safely use axillary crutches.
107. A. The patient must develop an understanding of the importance of the home exercise program in order for it to be
considered a priority.
108. C. The physical therapist is the health care professional responsible for establishing the discharge plan and
documenting the discharge summary.
109. A. Percussion of the lungs should produce normal resonance. Liver, heart, and viscera typically yield a dull
sound.
110. D. C8 nerve root: dermatome: medial arm and forearm to long, ring, and little finger
myotome : ulnar deviators, thumb extensors, thumb adductors
reflexes : triceps
111. D. Sequencing and general language deficits are commonly identified with damage to the left hemisphere and
therefore would be more commonly associated with right hemiparesis.
112. B. The most immediate response should be to stop the exercise session. This action allows the therapist to assist
the patient in a safe and effective manner. Further intervention may include contacting emergency medical
services or a referral to the patient’s primary care physician.
113. C. Patients who have sustained a cardiac event often are prescribed an exercise intensity that corresponds to 60 %
of the maximal heart rate obtained on a symptom-limited exercise treadmill test. Patients without a significant
cardiac history should exercise at an exercise intensity of 70 % of maximal heart rate at least three times per week.
Exercise sessions should range from 30-60 minutes.
114. D. The physician is the only health care professional that can legally determine the weight bearing status for a
patient. The prescribed weight bearing status should appear in the medical record as an order.
115. B. An ordinal scale allows for the ranking of items from highest to lowest with no definitive value between ranks.
116. C. Thready is a descriptive term used to characterize the quality of a pulse. A thready pulse indicates a weak
force to each beat and an irregular pattern.
117. C. A sterile field is contaminated after contact with a nonsterile object such as a bare hand.
118. B. For a patient that is acutely ill answering questions that require detailed responses can be exhausting.
Questions that can be answered with brief statements allow the therapist to collect necessary data without
adversely affecting the patient.
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119. B. Patients on bed rest following cardiac surgery are susceptible to developing a deep vein thrombosis due to
circulatory stasis. Any indication of a potential thrombosis including tenderness and pain in the calf should be
reported immediately.
120. C. Diabetes mellitus is a disorder of carbohydrate metabolism that results from inadequate production or use of
insulin. Signs and symptoms of diabetes mellitus include polyuria, polydipsia, rapid weight loss, keturia, and
elevation of blood glucose levels.
121. A. A t test is used to determine the significance of the difference between the means of two sets of data.
122. C. The therapist should inform the patient that the language is offensive and will not be tolerated in the physical
therapy clinic.
123. C. The radiohumeral joint is composed of the radial head articulating with the capitulum of the humerus. The
close packed position is 90 degrees of elbow flexion and 5 degrees of forearm supination.
124. D. The hip joint consists of a convex femoral head within a concave acetabulum. Hip flexion requires a posterior
and inferior translation of the femoral head within the acetabulum.
125. C. A patient with limited range of motion in a capsular pattern at the temporomandibular joint would have the
most difficulty opening the mouth.
126. B. The statement “your present condition is very serious” acknowledges the patient’s present condition without
providing false hope. Since the patient was just informed of her terminal condition prior to the scheduled therapy
session, it is premature to remind the patient of the therapy goals.
127. B. A manual wheelchair with handrim projections is appropriate for a patient with C5 tetraplegia. The projection
handrims are necessary due to distal weakness and diminished proprioception.
128. B. Minimal erythemal dose is defined as the time necessary for mild reddening of the skin which appears within 8
hours of treatment and disappears within 24 hours.
129. B. A whispered sound will not typically be audible through a stethoscope with normal air-filled lung tissue, but
may be distinctly audible with consolidation.
130. B. A smoking cessation program offers the patient the support and resources necessary to optimize his chances of
quitting.
131. D. Yergason’s test and Speed’s maneuver are common special tests utilized to identify bicipital tendonitis.
132. B. A minor lesion of a muscle or tendon will often yield mild to moderate pain with resistance, without a resultant
decrease in strength.
133. D. Syncope is often associated with respiratory alkalosis.
134. D. The Bunnel-Littler test can be used to assess several structure acting on the metacarpophalangeal joint. A
positive test is demonstrated by an inability to flex the proximal interphalangeal joint and is indicative of intrinsic
muscle tightness, or a contracture of the joint capsule.
135. C. The anterior longitudinal ligament extends from C2 to the sacrum and functions to limit extension of the
vertebral column.
136. A. The most common patient position to utilize when testing the extensor digitorum is sitting, however a supine
position is also acceptable.
137. B. According to the American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons available range of motion for the wrist is as
follows: extension 0-70 degrees, flexion 0-80 degrees, radial deviation 0-20 degrees, and ulnar deviation 0-30
degrees.
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138. D. Ankle inversion has been shown to have an intraclass correlation coefficient of 0.74. This value is
significantly lower than the intraclass correlation coefficients for the remaining options.
139. C. The Fugl-Meyer is used to determine the level of recovery after a CVA. The assessment tool emphasizes the
examination of motor function, range of motion, and balance.
140. A. The Babinski reflex occurs by stimulating the lateral sole of the foot with resultant extension of the great toe.
The reflex normally occurs in infants up to 6 months of age.
141. B. According to the American Academy of Orthopedic Surgeons normal pronation of the forearm is 80 degrees.
142. A. When measuring shoulder flexion, the axis of the goniometer should be aligned closely with the acromion
process. Normal shoulder flexion range of motion is 0-180 degrees.
143. C. Weight bearing through the arm with the elbow extended facilitates cocontraction at the shoulder and muscle
activity throughout the affected upper extremity.
144. C. Approximation is a facilitation technique used to enhance muscle tone. Joint approximation attempts to
facilitate cocontraction of muscles around a joint in order to increase joint stability.
145. C. Application of heat causes a number of physiologic effects that facilitate muscle contractility. These effects
include elevation of blood flow and an increase in collage tissue temperature.
146. B. Changes in patient position should occur approximately every 2 hours to prevent contractures and to relieve
pressure on the skin and subcutaneous tissues.
147. C. Failure to complete documentation in a timely manner can have potentially serious ramifications. A function
of the supervisor is to assist therapists with prioritizing patient needs and improving time management skills.
148. A. Abducting the arm to 90 degrees and flexing the elbow to 90 degrees allows for adequate exposure of the
appropriate bony landmarks.
149. A. Hip abduction occurs in a frontal plane. Failure to stay within the frontal plane often yields compensatory
motion such as flexion and lateral rotation.
150. A. Effleurage is defined as a slow, stroking movement performed over a large body area in the direction of the
venous and lymphatic flow. The massage stroke is commonly incorporated into a treatment program to provide
continuity between various massage strokes.
151. A. Emphysema is an obstructive disorder characterized by pathological distension of interstitial tissues. Increased
resistance to airflow during forced expiration characterizes airway obstruction.
152. D. Poor lower extremity strength and coordination requires a stable assistive device such as a walker.
153. D. A home exercise program that is excessively lengthy will serve to decrease compliance
154. C. A metal upright ankle-foot orthosis with an inadequate dorsiflexion stop will allow the tibia to advance over
the foot during the stance phase of gait. If there is inadequate quadriceps strength the knee will remain flexed
resulting in diminished stability.
155. A. Contract-relax is a proprioceptive neuromuscular facilitation technique utilized to increase range of motion on
one side of a joint. The technique utilizes isometric as well as isotonic contractions.
156. C. Short term goals are considered intermediate steps toward achieving established long term goals. Both short
term and long term goals are part of the assessment section of a SOAP note.
157. B. The end-feel associated with elbow extension is most often classified as hard due to contact between the ulna
and the radius.
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158. C. Plantarflexor weakness would affect toe off during the late stance phase of gait.
159. C. Failure to address the student’s improper guarding technique may unnecessarily jeopardize patient safety.
160. B. A patient with Parkinson’s disease would benefit from activities that emphasize rotation of the trunk and
subsequent arm swing. Rotation allows for improvement in weight shifting, step length, and reciprocal arm swing.
161. A. A patient with transfemoral amputation should bandage the residual limb to provide pressure distally.
Bandaging serves to shape the limb and reduce dependent edema.
162. D. A patient with hemiplegia should not bear weight through the palm in a flattened position. The position will
eventually collapse the palmar arches and create more difficulty for motor return in the hand. Weight bearing
should be directed through the heel of the hand.
163. B. A Bankart procedure is a surgical technique designed to repair a tear in the anteroinferior labrum.
164. B. The tibialis posterior acts to invert the foot and assists in plantarflexion of the ankle joint. The tibial nerve
innervates this muscle.
165. A. A patient with C7 tetraplegia can strengthen the serratus anterior and scapular muscles in a prone on elbow
position. This activity can be extremely useful to assist with bed mobility.
166. C. Standing on the tiptoes requires plantarflexion and toe extension. This activity provides a gross indicator range
of motion, but does not control for other variables.
167. B. The flexor carpi ulnaris acts to flex the wrist and is innervated by the ulnar nerve. Flexor carpi radialis, flexor
digitorum superficialis, and palmaris longus are innervated by the median nerve.
168. C. Weakness of the dorsiflexors results in an inability to dorsiflex the foot and in cases of advanced weakness can
present as foot drop. In both instances, walking on the heels is unrealistic.
169. A. The palmar interossei act to adduct the thumb, index, ring, and little finger toward the axial line through the
third digit. The muscles are innervated by the ulnar nerve.
170. B. The median is a measure of central tendency that lies at the midpoint of a distribution. Inspection rather than
calculation can often determine it.
171. B. A five month-old infant is able to play on extended arms and grasp toys using an ulnar-palmar grasp. The
infant is able to bear weight through the lower extremities when in supported standing and may be able to ring sit
without support for short periods of time.
172. A. Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease characterized by exocrine gland dysfunction resulting in excessive
accumulation of mucus. Children with cystic fibrosis are at high risk for pulmonary infection and require
bronchial drainage and chest physical therapy.
173. C. Assuring normal posture, a plumb line should fall through the lobe of the ear, midway through the trunk,
through the greater trochanter, slightly anterior to a midline through the knee and slightly anterior to the lateral
malleolus.
174. B. A patient with unilateral left neglect must learn to compensate through scanning and conscious attention
towards the left. Placing food on the right side of the tray will not improve the patient’s ability to compensate for
the neglect.
175. A. Hip adduction is a contraindication following total hip replacement surgery.
176. C. Nystagmus, slurring of speech, and loss of consciousness are contraindications to traction and mobilization in
the upper cervical spine.
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177. B. Pulling the stirrups toward inversion will tend to place the ankle in a slightly inverted position and as a result
will make the patient more susceptible to an inversion sprain.
178. C. A functional progression requires a patient to perform sport specific activities that demonstrate readiness to
return to competition.
179. D. Random changes in the intensity of an ultrasound generator can be indicative of equipment malfunction.
Failure to discontinue use of the machine is a potentially negligent act.
180. A. The resting heart rate of an adult is not influenced by age.
181. D. A therapist should attempt to treat patients in a timely fashion. Since the remaining options do not require
immediate action, the therapist’s priority should be the patient who has been waiting.
182. A. A swing-through gait pattern relies on upper extremity strength to propel the body through the point where the
assistive devices were advanced. Any significant upper extremity weakness would make this gait pattern
extremely difficult to perform.
183. A. The use of agonistic reversals in bridging promotes eccentric control of the hip extensors and hamstrings
through applied resistance.
184. C. C7 nerve root: dermatome: lateral arm and forearm to index, long and ring fingers
myotome : triceps, wrist flexors
reflexes : triceps
185. A. P wave – atrial depolarization, QRS complex – ventricular depolarization, T wave – ventricular repolarization.
186. B. A Colle’s fracture is defined as a fracture of the radius within 1 inch of the wrist.
187. D. When measuring supination of the forearm, the moving arm of the goniometer is aligned along the volar aspect
of the wrist, immediately proximal to the styloid processes.
188. B. Bradycardia is a term used to describe a heart rate of less than 60 beats per minute.
189. D. Signs and symptoms of a deep venous thrombosis include a positive Homan’s sign, swelling, redness, and
warmth in the calf. Physical therapy treatment should not continue until a physician clears the patient.
190. B. A grade III sprain refers to a complete tear of disruption of a ligament.
191. C. Pulse rate should be measured for a full minute with any identified arrhythmia.
192. D. When measuring ulnar deviation of the wrist, the moveable arm of the goniometer is aligned with the dorsal
midline of the third metacarpal.
193. A. An injury to the lateral cord of the brachial plexus would affect the musculocutaneous nerve. The
musculocutaneous nerve innervates the coracobrachialis, biceps and brachialis, which are responsible for elbow
flexion and supination of the forearm.
194. C. Petrissage is characterized by firm pressure to a fold of skin and the underlying tissues. Massage strokes
considered to be variations of petrissage include kneading, wringing, rolling and pinching.
195. B. The patient must be aware of the potential benefits of a home exercise program and its importance toward
achieving the established rehabilitation goals.
196. B. An exercise program individualized to the needs of each patient will serve to increase compliance and promote
a more favorable rehabilitation outcome.
197. A. D1 flexion pattern of the lower extremity includes hip flexion, adduction, and lateral rotation. The knee can
remain in extension or flexion, while the foot moves into dorsiflexion and inversion.
Giles B3.doc
Answers 37
198. C. The assessment section of SOAP note provides an opportunity for the therapist to offer his/her analysis of the
patient’s problems, establish goals, and determine the plan of treatment.
199. D. Alternating isometrics and timing for emphasis are techniques that can be used in order to strengthen the
abdominals and increase overall stability through the use of overflow.
200. B. Ideomotor apraxia occurs from an insult to the dominant hemisphere of the brain in the supramarginal gyrus.
Ideomotor apraxia is a condition where a patient cannot perform functional movements or tasks upon command,
but can perform tasks automatically.
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Practice Questions 1

21. A phase IV cardiac rehabilitation program can BEST be described as

26. A. The gravity-eliminated position for the hip adductors is supine.

68. D. S2 nerve root: dermatome: buttock, thigh and posterior leg

99. B. Seat depth in an average size adult chair is 16 inches.

133. D. Syncope is often associated with respiratory alkalosis.

175. A. Hip adduction is a contraindication following total hip replacement surgery.

180. A. The resting heart rate of an adult is not influenced by age.

190. B. A grade III sprain refers to a complete tear of disruption of a ligament.

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