GEAS

GENERAL ENGINEERING
AND APPLIED SCIENCES

1. What is anything that occupies space and has mass?
a) Matter
b) Ion
c) Element
d) Molecule
2. All forms of matter are composed of the same building blocks called
a) Atom
b) Elements
c) Molecules
d) ion
3. How are substances classified?
a) Elements or Compounds
b) Metals or Non-metals
c) Acids or Bases
d) Homogeneous or Heterogeneous
4. What is a substance that cannot be broken down into simpler substances?
a) Element
b) Molecule
c) Atom
d) Ion
5. What is the result from the combination, in definite proportion of mass, of two or
more elements?
a) Compound
b) Mixture
c) Substance
d) Chemical Reaction
6. How are mixtures classified?
a) Suspension, Colloids or Solutions
b) Elements or Compounds
c) Metals, Nonmetals or Metalloids
d) Homogeneous or Heterogeneous
7. The mixture of soil and water is an example of what classification of a mixture?
a) Suspension
b) Homogeneous
c) Colloid
d) Solution
8. A very fine particle of soil when mixed to water will form a cloudy mixture. How is this
mixture classified?
a) Colloid
b) Suspension
c) Solution
d) Compound
9. The particles of sugar dispersed in water are so small that a clear homogeneous
mixture. What is this homogeneous mixture called?
a) Solution
b) Colloid
c) Compound
d) Suspension
10. What is the property of metals that allow them to be rolled without breaking?
a) Malleability
b) Ductility
c) Luster
d) Elasticity
11. What is the property of metals that reflects the light that strikes their surfaces,
making them appear shiny?
a) Luster
b) Malleability
c) Ductility
d) Plasticity
12. Which of the following is NOT a property of acids?
a) Feel slippery on the skin
b) Taste sour
c) Turn litmus paper to red
d) Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas
13. Which of the following is NOT a property of bases?
a) Dissolve metals producing various salts and hydrogen gas
b) Feel slippery on the skin
c) Turn litmus paper to blue
d) Taste bitter
14. An acid can react with base to produce a
a) salt
b) hydrogen gas
c) oxide
d) hydroxide
15. Vinegar is a solution of water and what kind of acid?
a) Acetic acid
b) Phosphoric acid
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Nitric acid
16. What acid is added to carbonated drinks to produce a tart test?
a) Phosphoric acid
b) Citric acid
c) Sulfuric acid
d) Nitric acid
17. Table salt or sodium chloride may be formed by the reaction of
a) Hydrochloric acid and sodium hydroxide
b) Hydrochloric acid and sodium bicarbonate
c) Sodium and chlorine
d) Hydrochloric acid and sodium carbonate
18. Which of the following statement is FALSE?
a) The different rate is the mathematical expression that shows how the rate of a
reaction depends on volume
b) In general, as reaction products are formed, they react with each other and
reform reactants
c) At equilibrium, the net reaction rate is zero
d) The net rate at which a reaction proceeds from left to right is equal to the forward
rate minus the reverse rate
19. What is the opposite of alkali?
a) Acid
b) Fluid
c) Carbon
d) Oxide
20. The amount of electricity a battery can produce is controlled by the
a) Strength of the acid
b) Thickness of the plate
c) Plate surface area
d) Discharge load
21. What represents the number of protons in the nucleus of an atom?
a) Atomic number
b) Molecular number
c) Proton number
d) Mass number
22. The electrolyte is a solution of water and
a) Sulfuric acid
b) Uric acid
c) Nitric acid
d) Formic acid
23. What is deuteron?
a) A nucleus containing a neutron and a proton
b) A neutron plus two protons
c) An electron with a positive charg
d) A helium molecules
24. Which of the following elements is NOT radioactive?
a) Cobalt
b) Uranium
c) Californium
d) Plutonium
25. One of the following statements is wrongWhich one is it?
a) The mass of an electron is heavier than that of a proton
b) Electron is an elementary quantity of negative electricity
c) Proton is an elementary quantity of positive electricity
d) An atom is composed of a central nucleus and orbital electrons
26. What are compounds with the same molecular formula but with different structural
formula?
a) Isomers
b) Aldehydes
c) Amines
d) Esters
27. What is formed when a carboxylic acid and an alcohol react, with water as a by-
product?
a) Ester
b) Amine
c) Polymer
d) Teflon
28. What common carboxylic acid is found in yogurt?
a) Lactic acid
b) Citric acid
c) Tartaric acid
d) Lauric acid
29. What do you call the distance pattern in space which the atoms of metal arranged
themselves when they combine to produce a substance of recognizable size?
a) Space-lattice
b) Crystal
c) Grain
d) Unit cell
30. What refers to a crystal imperfection characterized by regions of severe atomic misfit
where atoms are not properly surrounded by neighbor atoms?
a) Dislocation
b) Discrystallization
c) Slip step
d) Dispersion
31. What is the process of putting back the lost electrons to convert the ion back to a
metal?
a) Reduction
b) Oxidation
c) Corrosion
d) Ionization
32. Oxidation in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?
a) At the anode
b) At the cathode
c) At the electrode
d) At both cathode and anode
33. Reduction in an electrochemical cell always takes place where?
a) At the cathode
b) At the anode
c) At the electrode
d) At both cathode and anode
34. What is equal to the fraction of the isotope in a naturally occurring sample of the
element?
a) The relative abundance of the isotope
b) The chemical atomic weight of the isotope
c) The electromagnetivity of the isotope
d) The quantum number of the isotope
35. What refers to salts of weak bases dissolving in water to form acidic solution?
a) Hydrolysis
b) Neutralization
c) Bufferization
d) Titration
36. Which of the following elements has the hig
a) Plutonium
b) Titanium
c) Uranium
d) Radium
37. All are properties of gaseous state except one. Which one?
a) Mixed uniformly when soluble in one another
b) May be expanded or may be compressed
c) Have low densities
d) Indefinite shape
38. All are properties of liquid state except one. Which one?
a) Do not mix by diffusion
b) Do not expand nor compress to any degree
c) Usually flow readily
d) Indefinite shape but fixed volume
39. What type of hydrocarbons that do not contain the benzene group or the benzene
ring?
a) Aliphatic hydrocarbon
b) Aromatic hydrocarbon
c) Simple hydrocarbon
d) Carbon hydrocarbon
40. What is an organic compound that contains the hydroxyl group?
a) Alcohol
b) Base
c) Acid
d) Wine
41. What is a reaction in which one molecule adds to another?
a) Additional reaction
b) Partial reaction
c) Monomolecular reaction
d) Molecular reaction
42. What refers to the minimum amount of energy required to initiate a chemical
reaction?
a) Activation energy
b) Atomic energy
c) Initial energy
d) Reaction energy
43. Oxygen comprises what percent in mass in the earth's crust?
a) 49.5
b) 50
c) 48.5
d) 47.5
44. What refers to how closely a measured value agrees with the correct value?
a) Accuracy
b) Precision
c) Relative precision
d) Relative accuracy
45. What refers to how closely individual measurements agree with each other?
a) Precision
b) Accuracy
c) Relative precision
d) Relative accuracy
46. What is the physical appearance of sodium?
a) Silver metal
b) Yellowish metal
c) White crystal
d) Reddish gas
47. Who proposed the quantum theory in 1900?
a) Max Planck
b) J.J Thomson
c) Neils Bohr
d) Ernest Rutherford
48. What is a general term that refers to an allowed energy state for an electron in the
atom?
a) Quantum energy level
b) Quantum orbital level
c) Orbital
d) Quantum Theory
49. Who performed an experiment in 1887 that yielded the charge-to-mass ratio of the
electrons?
a) J.J Thompson
b) Niels Bohr
c) Ernest Rutherford
d) Max Planck
50. What is an alloy of mercury with another metal or metals?
a) Amalgram
b) Amine
c) Allotrope
d) Alkynes
51. A compound that contains at least one animo group and at least one carboxyl group
is called
a) Animo acid
b) Allotrope
c) Alkenes
d) Alkynes
52. What is the magnitude of the resultant force of the two forces which are
perpendicular to each other? The two forces are 20 units and 30 units respectively
a) 36
b) 42
c) 25
d) 40
53. A rope is stretched between two rigid walls 40 feet apart. At the midpoint, a load of
100 lbs was placed that caused it to sag 5 feet. Compute the approximate tension in
the rope
a) 206 lbs
b) 150 lbs
c) 280 lbs
d) 240 lbs
54. What is the effective component applied on the box that is being pulled by a 30 N
force inclined at 30 degrees with horizontal?
a) 25.98 N
b) 36.21 N
c) 15.32 N
d) 20.62 N
55. A post is supported by a guy wire which exerts a pull of 100 N on the top of the post.
If the angle between the wire and the ground is 60 degrees, what is the horizontal
component of the force supporting the pole?
a) 50.0 N
b) 86.6 N
c) 76.6 N
d) 98.5 N
56. The resultant of two forces in a plane is 400 N at 120 degrees. If one of the forces is
200 lbs at 20 degrees what is the other force?
a) 477.27 N at 144.38 degrees
b) 347.77 N at 114.85 degrees
c) 435.77 N at 104.37 degrees
d) 357.56 N at 114.24 degrees
57. Determine the resultant of the following forces: A = 600 N at 40 degrees, B = 800 N
at 160 degrees and C = 200 N at 300 degrees
a) 522.68 N, 111.57 degrees
b) 532.78 N, 55.32 degrees
c) 435.94 N, 235.12 degrees
d) 627.89 N, 225.81 degrees
58. A simply supported beam is five meters in length. It carries a uniformly distributed
load including its own weight of 300 N/m and a concentrated load of 100 N, 2 meters
from the left end. Find the reactions if reaction A at the left end and reaction B at the
right end
a) RA = 810 N, RB = 700 N
b) RA = 820 N, RB = 690 N
c) RA = 830 N, RB = 680 N
d) RA = 840 N, RB = 670 N
59. A man can exert a maximum pull of 1,000 N but wishes to lift a new stone door for
his cave weighing 20,000 N. If he uses a lever how much closer must the fulcrum be
to the stone than to his hand?
a) 20 times nearer
b) 10 times nearer
c) 20 times farther
d) 10 times farther
60. A certain cable is suspended between two supports at the same elevation and 500 ft
apart. The load is 500 lbs per horizontal foot including the weight of the cable. The
sag of the cable is 30 ft. Calculate the total length of the cable
a) 504.76 ft
b) 503.21 ft
c) 505.12 ft
d) 506.03 ft
61. The weight of a transmission cable is 1.5 kg/m distributed horizontally. If the
maximum safe tension of the cable is 60000 kg and the allowable sag is 30 m,
determine the horizontal distance between the electric posts supporting the
transmission cable
a) 976 m
b) 897 m
c) 926 m
d) 967 m
62. A cable 45.5 m long is carrying a uniformly distributed load along its span. If the
cable is strung between two posts at the same level, 40 m apart, compute the
smallest value that the cable may sag
a) 9.71 m
b) 12.14 m
c) 10.12 m
d) 8.62 m
63. A pipeline crossing a river is suspended from a steel cable stretched between two
posts 100 m apart. The weight of the pipe is 14 kg/m while the cable weighs 1 kg/m
assumed to be uniformly distributed horizontally. If the allowed sag is 2 m, determine
the tension of the cable at the post
a) 9404.95 kg
b) 9047.28 kg
c) 9545.88 kg
d) 9245.37 kg
64. A cable weighing 0.4 pound per foot and 800 feet long is to be suspended with sag
of 80 feet. Determine the maximum tension of the cable
a) 416 kg
b) 403 kg
c) 456 kg
d) 425 kg
65. A cable 200 m long weighs 50 N/m and is supported from two points at the same
elevation. Determine the required sag if the maximum tension that the cable can
carry shall not exceed 8000 N
a) 35.1 m
b) 28.2 m
c) 40.3 m
d) 31.3 m
66. A transmission cable 300 m long, weighs 600 kg. The tensions at the ends of the
cable are 400 kg and 450 kg. Find the distance of its lowest point to the ground
a) 150 m
b) 145 m
c) 148 m
d) 153 m
67. A 250 kg block rests on a 30 degrees plane. If the coefficient of kinetic friction is
0.20, determine the horizontal force P applied on the block to start the block moving
up the plane
a) 219.71 kg
b) 59.30 kg
c) 58.10 kg
d) 265.29 kg
68. Compute the number of turns of the rope to be wound around a pole in order to
support a man weighing 600 N with an input force of 10 N. Note: coefficient of
friction is 0.30
a) 2.172
b) 3.123
c) 1.234
d) 4.234
69. A block weighing 500 N is held by a rope that passes over a horizontal drum. The
coefficient of friction between the rope and the drum is 0.15. If the angle of contact is
150 degrees, compute the force that will raise the object
a) 740.7 N
b) 760.6 N
c) 770.5 N
d) 780.8 N
70. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of stationary
rigid body?
a) Statics
b) Kinetics
c) Kinematics
d) Dynamics
71. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body
in motion under the action of forces?
a) Dynamics
b) Statics
c) Strenght of materials
d) Kinematics
72. What is the branch of engineering mechanics which refers to the study of rigid body
in motion without reference to the force that causes the motion?
a) Kinematics
b) Statics
c) Kinetics
d) Dynamics
73. What refers to the force that holds part of the rigid body together?
a) Internal force
b) Natural force
c) External force
d) Concentrated force
74. What is a concurrent force system?
a) All forces act at the same point
b) All forces have the same line of action
c) All forces are parallel with one another
d) All forces are in the same plane
75. A roller support has how many reactions?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
76. A link or cable support has how many reactions?
a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
77. A build-in, fixed support has how many reactions and moment?
a) 2 reactions and 1 moment
b) 1 reaction and 1 moment
c) 1 reaction and 2 moments
d) 2 reactions and no moment
78. Which support has one moment?
a) Fixed support
b) Frictionless guide
c) Pin connection
d) Roller
79. What is the science that describes and predicts the effect on bodies at rest or in
motion by forces acting on it?
a) Engineering Mechanics
b) Theory of Structures
c) Mechanics of Materials
d) Strength of Materials
80. What refers to a negligible body when compared to the distances involved regarding
its motion?
a) Particle
b) Atomic substance
c) Element
d) Quarks
81. The resulting force of a distributed load is always acting at
a) the centroid of the area of the loading curve
b) the center of the beam subjected to the distributed load
c) the 1/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
d) the 2/3 point from the higher intensity side of the loading curve
82. The resultant force of a distributed load is always equal to
a) the area under the loading curve
b) twice the area under the loading curve
c) half the area under the loading curve
d) one-fourth the area under the loading curve
83. When a body has more supports than are necessary to maintain equilibrium, the
body is said to be
a) in static equilibrium
b) in dynamic equilibrium
c) statically determine
d) statically indeterminate
84. When does an equation be considered 'dimensionally homogeneous'?
a) When the dimensions of various terms on the left side of the equation is the
same as the dimensions of the various terms on the right side
b) When it is unitless
c) When the dimensions of the various terms on the left side of the equation is not
the same as the dimensions of the various terms on the right side
d) When the degree of the left side of the equation is the same as the right side
85. What refers to the branch of mathematics which deals with the dimensions of
quantities?
a) Dimensional analysis
b) Unit analysis
c) System analysis
d) Homogeneity analysis
86. What is a 'simple beam'?
a) A beam supported only at its ends
b) A beam supported with a fixed support at one end and non on the other end
c) A beam with more than two supports
d) A beam with only one support at the midspan
87. 'The sum of individual moments about a point caused by multiple concurrent forces
is equal to the moment of the resultant force about the same point'. This statement is
known as
a) Varignon?s theorem
b) Pappus proposition
c) D' Alembert's principle
d) Newton's method
88. 'Two forces acting on a particle may be replaced by a single force called resultant
which can be obtained by drawing diagonal of parallelogram, which has the sides
equal to the given forces'. This statement is known as
a) Parallelogram Law
b) Pappus Propositions
c) Principle of Transmissibility
d) Varignon's Theorem
89. 'The condition of equilibrium or motion of a rigid body remains unchanged if a force
acting at a given point of the rigid body is replaced by a force of same magnitude
and direction, but acting at a different point provided that the two forces have the
same line of action'. This statement is known as
a) Principle of Transmissibility
b) Pappus Propositions
c) Parallelogram Law
d) Varignon's Theorem
90. 'If two forces acting simultaneously on a particle can be represented by the two sides
of a triangle taken in order that the third side represents the resultant in the opposite
order'. This statement is known as
a) Triangle Law of Forces
b) Principle of Transmissibility
c) Pappus Propositions
d) Parallelogram Law
91. A beam with more than one supports is called
a) continuous beam
b) cantilever beam
c) simple beam
d) complex beam
92. A truss consisting of coplanar members is called
a) plane truss
b) space truss
c) ideal truss
d) rigid truss
93. A truss consisting of non-coplanar members is called
a) space truss
b) plane truss
c) ideal truss
d) rigid truss
94. What method of determining the bar force of a truss if only few members are
required?
a) Method of section
b) Methods of joints
c) Maxwell's diagram
d) Method of superposition
95. Which of the following statements about friction is FALSE?
a) The total frictional force is dependent on the area of contact between the two
surfaces
b) The direction of frictional force on a surface is such as to oppose the tendency of
one surface to slide relative to the other
c) The magnitude of the frictional force is equal to the force which tends to move
the body till the limiting value is reached
d) Friction force is always less than the force required to prevent motion
96. In the analysis of friction, the angle between the normal force and the resultant force
_____ the angle of friction
a) is less than
b) may be greater than or less than
c) is greater than
d) is equal to
97. When a block is place on an inclined plane, its steepest inclination to which the block
will be in equilibrium is called
a) angle of repose
b) angle of friction
c) angle of reaction
d) angle of normal
98. What is usually used to move heavy loads by applying a force which is usually
smaller that the weight of the load?
a) Wedge
b) Axle
c) Incline plane
d) Belt
99. The angle of inclined plane of a jack screw is also known as
a) angle of lead
b) angle of thread
c) angle of friction
d) angle of pitch
100. Center of gravity for a two dimensional body is the point at which the entire _____
acts regardless of the orientation of the body
a) weight
b) mass
c) mass or weight
d) volume
101. Second moment of area is the product of
a) area and square of the distance from the reference axis
b) area and distance from the reference axis
c) square of the area and distance from the reference axis
d) square of the area and square of the distance from the reference axis
102. What is the ratio of the transverse strain to the corresponding axial strain in a body
subjected to uniaxial stress?
a) Poisson's ratio
b) Euler's ratio
c) Refractive index
d) Dielectric index
103. What are the four basic forms of deformation of solid bodies?
a) Tension, compression, bending and twisting
b) Tension, compression, elongation and bending
c) Tension, compression, plastic and elastic
d) Tension, compression, elongation and torsion
104. What is a structural member supported horizontally and carries transverse loading?
a) Beam
b) Column
c) Arch
d) Shaft
105. What refers to a slender member which prevents parts of a structure moving towards
each other under compressive force?
a) Strut
b) Tie
c) Column
d) Panel
106. What refers to the point in which the bending moment changes sign through a zero
value?
a) Point of contraflexure
b) Critical point
c) Point of inflection
d) Point of zero stress
107. Volumetric stain is the
a) ratio of change in volume to original volume
b) change in volume per unit time
c) square root of difference of original volume and change in volume
d) original volume minus change in volume
108. What refers to the stress in the material at the elastic limit?
a) Yield stress
b) Working stress
c) Ultimate stress
d) Maximum stress
109. Which of the following materials has the least modulus of elasticity?
a) Glass
b) Steel
c) Copper
d) Aluminum
110. Within elastic limit, the shear stress is proportional to shear strain. What is the
constant of propotionality of this statement called?
a) Modulus of rigidity
b) Modulus of elasticity
c) Young's modulus
d) Bulk modulus
111. Within elastic limit, the volumetric strain is proportional to the hydrostatic stress.
What is the constant that relates these two quantities called?
a) Bulk modulus
b) Modulus of rigidity
c) Modulus of elasticity
d) Young's modulus
112. What is another term for modulus of rigidity?
a) Shear modulus
b) Bulk modulus
c) Modulus of elasticity
d) Young's modulus
113. How many times greater is the plastic range of strain as compared to the elastic
range of strain?
a) 300
b) 100
c) 200
d) 400
114. What does it means when the material is said to be 'yielding'?
a) The material has pass through elastic range and enter the plastic range
b) The material has pass through plastic range and enter the elastic range
c) The material is in the elastic range only
d) The material is in the plastic range only
115. The elastic deformation of a material is:
a) inversely proportional to the modulus of elasticity of material
b) directly proportional to cross-sectional area of the material
c) inversely proportional to the force acting on the material
d) inversely proportional to the initial length of the material
116. The strain energy of a member is
a) inversely proportional to the cross-sectional area of the member
b) inversely proportional to the square of the force acting on the member
c) directly proportional to the modulus of elasticity
d) inversely proportional to the initial length of the member
117. Stiffness is
a) ratio of force to deformation
b) ratio of force to modulus of elasticity
c) ratio of product of cross-sectional area and initial length to deformation
d) ratio of initial length to cross-sectional area
118. Which of the following substances has the least average coefficient of linear thermal
expansion?
a) Steel
b) Copper
c) Concrete
d) Tin
119. Steel has a modulus of elasticity of _____ MPa
a) 200,000
b) 20,000
c) 2,000
d) 200
120. ________ is the stress beyond which the material will not return to its original shape
when unloaded but will retain a permanent deformation
a) Elastic limit
b) Proportional limit
c) Yield limit
d) Yield strength
121. All are methods of determining the bar force of a truss member except one. Which
one?
a) Maxwell diagram
b) Method of joints
c) Method of section
d) Method of virtual work
122. A cylindrical water tank is 8 m in diameter and 12 m high. If the tank is to be
completely filled, determine the minimum thickness of the tank plating if the stress is
limited to 40 MPa
a) 11.77 mm
b) 13.18 mm
c) 10.25 mm
d) 12.60 mm
123. The stress in a 90-cm diameter pipe having a wall thickness of 9.5 cm and under a
static head of 70 m of water is
a) 3.25 MPa
b) 325 kPa
c) 32.5 kPa
d) 32.5 MPa
124. A 30-m long aluminum bar is subjected to a tensile stress of 175 MPa. Determine
the elongation if E = 69116 MPa
a) 76 mm
b) 78 mm
c) 74 mm
d) 72 mm
125. Determine the load capacity in kN on a 25 mm diameter x 1200 mm long steel shaft
if its maximum elongation shall not exceed 1 mm. Assume E = 200,000 MPa
a) 81.8 kN
b) 83.2 kN
c) 78.3 kN
d) 88.2 kN
126. A 19-foot beam 10 inches wide and 20 inches high supports 1500 lb/ft on two
supports 14 feet apart. The right end of the beam extends 2 feet past the support.
What is the shearing stress midway between supports?
a) 2.0 psi
b) psi
c) 10 psi
d) 67 psi
127. High strength steel band saw, 20 mm wide and 0.8 mm thick runs over the pulley
600 mm in diameter of pulleys can be used without exceeding the flexural stress of
400 MPa? Note: E = 200 GPa
a) 400 mm
b) 250 cm
c) 325 mm
d) 150 in
128. A hallow shaft has an inner diameter of 0.035 m and an outer diameter of 0.06 m.
Compute the torque if the shear stress is not exceed 120 MPa
a) 4,500 N-m
b) 4,300 N-m
c) 5,500 N-m
d) 3,450 N-m
129. A spherical tank with 10 inches inside diameter contains oxygen gas at 2,500 psi.
Calculate the required wall thickness in (mm) under stress of 28,000 psi
a) 5.66 mm
b) 6.12 mm
c) 4.88 mm
d) 7.21 mm
130. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20
turns of 20 mm diameter wire on mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is
supporting a load of 2 kN?
a) 121 MPa
b) 130 MPa
c) 150 MPa
d) 120 MPa
131. A single bolt is used to lap joint two steel bars together. Tensile force on the bar is
20,000 N. Determine the diameter of the bolt required if the allowable shearing
stress on it is 70 MPa
a) 19 mm
b) 25 mm
c) 15 mm
d) 12 mm
132. What telecommunications law deregulates the paging services in the country?
a) R. A. 7925
b) E. O. 125
c) R. A. 3846
d) R. A. 3396
133. Republic Act No. 6849 is otherwise known as
a) Municipal Telephone Act of 2000
b) Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
c) Telecommunications Law of the Philippines
d) PRC Modernization Law
134. What is otherwise known as 'The Maritime Communications Law' ?
a) R. A. 3396
b) R. A. 109
c) R. A. 3846
d) R. A. 7925
135. What law specifically requires the service of a duly registered Electronics and
Communications Engineer in the designing, installation and construction, operation
and maintenance of radio stations?
a) D. O. 88
b) R. A. 3846
c) R. A. 9292
d) R. A. 5734
136. What is the basic law that provides for the regulation of radio station,
communications in the Philippines and other purposes?
a) R. A. 3846
b) D. O. 11
c) D. O. 88
d) D. O. 5
137. Which law vested the jurisdiction, control and regulation over the Philippine
communicateons satellite corporation with the National Telecommunications
Commission?
a) E. O. 196
b) E. O. 109
c) E. O. 59
d) E. O. 205
138. What law provides regulation of the ownership and operation of radio and television
stations and for other purposes?
a) P. D. No. 576-A
b) P. D. No. 223
c) P. D. No. 567-A
d) P. D. No. 657-A
139. What NTC memorandum circular sets the rules and regulations governing the
manufacture, acquisition, sale and service of radio communication equipment?
a) MC No. 2-05-88
b) MC No. 9-13-98
c) MC No. 8-06-88
d) MC No. 4-22-99
140. What law governs the operations of cable television in the Philippines?
a) E. O. 436
b) E. O. 196
c) E. O. 463
d) E. O. 205
141. What law created the national council for the promotion of E-Commerce in the
country?
a) E. O. 468
b) E. O. 467
c) E. O. 109
d) E. O. 59
142. Which law provides for a national policy on the operation and use of international
satellite communications in the country?
a) E. O. 467
b) E. O. 468
c) E. O. 109
d) E. O. 205
143. What law regulates the operation of CATV systems in the country?
a) E. O. 205
b) E. O. 436
c) E. O. 250
d) E. O. 346
144. What is an executive order signed by former President Fidel Ramos in March 1998
providing the national policy in the operation and use of international satellite
communications in the Philippines?
a) E. O. 467
b) E. O. 3846
c) E. O. 59
d) E. O. 456
145. When was the effectivity of Executive Order No. 59?
a) ########
b) ########
c) 21-Jun-93
d) ########
a) 9-Sep-97
b) ########
c) 6-Sep-97
d) ########
a) 12-Jul-93
b) 15-Jul-93
c) 10-Oct-93
d) ########
148. When was the affectivity of Executive Order No. 205?
a) 30-Jun-87
b) 21-Jun-87
c) 12-Jun-87
d) 1-Jun-87
149. When is the effectivity of Republic Act No. 7925?
a) ########
b) 1-Mar-95
c) ########
d) 7-Mar-95
150. When was Republic Act No. 7925 approved?
a) 1-Mar-95
b) ########
c) ########
d) ########
151. What law created the Movie and Television Review and Classification Board
(MTRCB)?
a) P. D. 1986
b) P. D. 223
c) P. D. 1987
d) P. D. 1988
152. What law created the Videogram Regulatory Board (VRB)?
a) P. D. 1987
b) P. D. 223
c) P. D. 1986
d) P. D. 1988
153. What is the new regulation issued by NTC providing the guideline for mobile
personal communication having a global coverage using satellite?
a) GMPCS
b) NMT
c) GSM
d) TACS
154. What government agency is the principal administrator of Republic Act No. 7925?
a) National Telecommunications Commission
b) Bureau of Communications
c) Department of Transportation and Communications
d) House of Representatives
155. What government agency was designated as the Chairman of the Electronic
Commerce Promotion Council?
a) DTI
b) NTC
c) DOTC
d) NEDA
156. The VRB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and _______ members
a) 18
b) 10
c) 22
d) 25
157. MTRCB Board is composed of a chairman, a vice chairman and ______ members
a) 30
b) 20
c) 10
d) 5
158. MTRCB law defines an 'Adult' as a person _____ years of age and above
a) 18
b) 19
c) 20
d) 21
159. Radio programs not suitable for children must be aired after what time?
a) 9:00 PM
b) 7:00 PM
c) 8:00 PM
d) 10:00 PM
160. All are AM radio prime time block for provincial stations except one. Which one?
a) 11 AM to 3 PM
b) 5 AM to 9 AM
c) 12 NN to 2 PM
d) 4 PM to 7 PM
161. For CATV system, prime time refers to the five-hour period from _____ local time
a) 6:00 to 11:00 PM
b) 5:00 to 10:00 PM
c) 4:00 to 9:00 PM
d) 3:00 to 8:00 PM
162. What is the prime time block for FM radio for provincial stations?
a) 6 AM to 8 PM
b) 5 AM to 7 PM
c) 7 AM to 7 PM
d) 6 PM to 7 PM
163. What is the prime time block for AM radio in Metro Manila?
a) 5 AM to 9 AM and 4 PM to 8PM
b) 4 AM to 8 AM and 4 PM to 8 PM
c) 5 AM to 9 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
d) 6 AM to 10 AM and 5 PM to 9 PM
164. What is the prime time block for FM radio in Metro Manila?
a) 6:00 AM to 8 PM
b) 7:00 AM to 7 PM
c) 6:00 AM to 6 PM
d) 7:00 AM to 8 PM
165. In Metro Manila, Class D airtime classification for FM radio is from
a) 12 MN to 5 AM
b) 6 AM to 8 PM
c) 9 PM to 12 MN
d) 5 AM to 6 AM and 8 PM to 9 PM
166. According to the medium frequency broadcast standards, the term 'nighttime' refers
to the period of time between ______ UTC
a) 1000 to 2200
b) 1000 to 1600
c) 1000 to 1500
d) 1000 to 1800
167. What is the maximum power suggested by KBP on 919 - 1312 AM broadcast station
in Metro Manila?
a) 20 kW
b) 10 kW
c) 15 kW
d) 5 kW
168. What is the minimum carrier power output of a standard AM broadcast where
effective and direct supervision of an Electronics and Communications Engineer is
required?
a) 1kW
b) 5 kW
c) 4 kW
d) 3kW
169. What is the maximum power allocation for AM broadcast in Metro Manila?
a) 50 kW
b) 10 kW
c) 25 kW
d) 100 kW
170. According to the TV broadcast standards, what is the maximum effective radiated
power in Metro Manila and Metro Cebu for channels 7 - 13?
a) 1000 kW
b) 300 kW
c) 500 kW
d) 1500 kW
171. In Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed _____ minutes for one hour
program
a) 15
b) 10
c) 20
d) 25
172. KBP Radio Code requires each radio station a minimum of _____ of news per day
a) 45 minutes
b) 1 hour
c) 2 hours
d) 1 hour and 30 minutes
173. Program interruption for the airing of commercial in Metro Manila shall not exceed
_____ breaks in every program hour
a) 6
b) 5
c) 7
d) 8
174. Program interruption for the airing of commercial outside Metro Manila shall not
exceed _____ breaks per program hour
a) 7
b) 5
c) 6
d) 8
175. Outside Metro Manila, commercial load shall not exceed ______ minutes in one
hour program
a) 17
b) 12
c) 15
d) 20
176. All stations must promote the Filipino music by playing _____ OPM every hour
a) 4
b) 1
c) 2
d) 3
177. All station must have a minimum of _______ news/day form 5:00 AM to 10:00 PM
a) 45 minutes
b) 50 minutes
c) 60 minutes
d) 30 minutes
178. Newscast is a distinct unit of a program with minimum news content of ______
excluding intro, extro, headline and commercial load
a) 1 minute
b) 2 minutes
c) 30 seconds
d) 1 minute and 30 seconds
179. In Metro Manila, program interruption for the airing of commercial shall not exceed
how many breaks in 1 hour?
a) 6
b) 5
c) 3
d) 7
180. TV station is required at least _____ newscast (aggregate total including advisories)
per day during weekdays
a) 30 minutes
b) 20 minutes
c) 40 minutes
d) 60 minutes
181. Radio station shall allocate at least _____ as a program or programs rendering
public service
a) 2 hours per day
b) 3 hours per day
c) 1 hour per day
d) 1.5 hours per day
182. What is the standard IF Sound Carrier for a cable TV system?
a) 41.25 MHz
b) 40.25 MHz
c) 45.75 MHz
d) 43.75MHz
183. What is the standard IF Video Carrier for a cable TV system?
a) 45.75 MHz
b) 40.25 MHz
c) 43.75MHz
d) 41.25 MHz
184. Which band is allocated to Short Range Radio Service in the country?
a) UHF
b) ELF
c) VHF
d) HF
185. The certificate of Authority issued by National Telecommunications Commission to a
CATV operator shall have a maximum term of how many years?
a) 15 years
b) 5 years
c) 10 years
d) 20 years
186. The authorized transmit frequency range for cordless telephone sets operating in the
UHF band is MHz
a) 1.725 to 1.79
b) 1.275 to 1.975
c) 1.925 to 1.975
d) 1.575 to 1.975
187. In CATV system, video signal to noise ratio of modulator must be better than ______
dB
a) 36
b) 30
c) 34
d) 38
188. In a CATV system, head end processor as RF input/output terminal match should a
minimum loss of _____ dB
a) 16
b) 18
c) 20
d) 22
189. What refers to a remuneration paid to a carrier by the interconnecting carriers for
accessing the facilities of such carrier which is needed by the interconnecting
carriers for the origination and/or termination of all types of traffic derived from the
interconnector?
a) Access charge
b) Interconnection charge
c) Approach charge
d) Network charge
190. What refers to a permit issued by the NTC authorizing the holder thereof to engage
to the acquisition, servicing, maintenance, purchase or sale of transmitters and/or
transceivers, parts and accessories thereof?
a) Radio Communication Equipment Dealer Permit
b) Radio Communication Equipment Manufacture Permit
c) Service Center Operation Permit
d) Radio Communication Equipment Service Center Point
191. A series whose episodes have had no national network television exhibitions in the
Philippines and no regional network exhibition in the relevant market is known in
CATV system as
a) First-Run series
b) Off-network
c) Cablecasting
d) First-Run No-series programs
192. The installation or construction of a cable TV head-end station shall be directly
supervised by a registered ECE. The statement above is
a) TRUE
b) FALSE
c) It depends upon the area of coverage
d) It depends upon the number of households using the CATV system
193. Which of the following shall be complied by an international ship pursuant to the
global maritime distress and safety system implemented last 1999?
a) A radio-telegraph operator
b) A facsimile
c) A radio personnel
d) A Morse code
194. Authorized gateway operators shall provide a minimum of _____ switch termination
a) 300 local exchange lines per international
b) 100 local exchange lines per international
c) 200 local exchange lines per international
d) 500 local exchange lines per international
195. When is Electronics and Communications Engineer supervision required under
Department Order No. 88?
a) Standard AM broadcast with a carrier power of 5kW
b) FM broadcast station with a carrier power of 1000 watts
c) TV translator with an RF carrier power of 0.5 watts
d) TV RF power booster with effective radiated power of 2kW
196. An entity, relying on the transmission, switching and local distribution facilities of
local exchange and inter-exchange operators, and overseas carriers, offers
enhanced services beyond those ordinarily provided by such carriers is known as
a) Value-added service provider
b) International carrier
c) Inter-exchange carrier
d) Local exchange carrier
197. What refers to a privilege conferred upon a telecommunications entity by Congress,
authorizing an entity to engage in a certain type of telecommunications service?
a) Franchise
b) Authority to Operate
c) Certificate of Public Convenience and Necessity
d) Provisional Authority
198. NTC cannot grant one of the following, an authority to operate a cable television
system within the same franchise area covered by any provisional Authority or
Certificate of Authority previously granted by the Commission
a) New entrant has more financial support
b) Prior operator has not complied sufficiently with terms and condition of the
authorization
c) Current service is grossly inadequate
d) Issuance to new entrant will not cause ruinous competition
199. Which of the following penalties is provided under the existing telecommunication
law, should an international carrier unable to comply with its obligation to provide
local exchange service in un-served and under-served areas within three years from
grant of authority?
a) Cancellation of its authority
b) Financial penalty in accordance with existing schedule
c) Given one year to comply
d) Given two years to comply
200. When can telecommunications entity provide value added service in its area?
a) Upon approval of NTC, when other VAS operators are not discriminated in rate
and access, and has separated books of account
b) When it has separated book of account, has technical capability and must be
within the franchise area
c) When it is within franchise area, upon submission of required capitalization and
upon approval of NTC
d) Upon approval of NTC, with financial capability and technical capability
201. What refers to an undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text,
images or other signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a
geographical area via wired or wireless means?
a) Broadcasting
b) Telecommunications
c) Mass media
d) Multi media
202. What refers to a non-exclusive facility which the public may, by the payment of
appropriate fees, place as well as receive telephone calls and/or telegrams or other
messages?
a) Public toll calling station
b) Telephone-telegraph calling center
c) Telecommunications calling station
d) Call center
203. The international carrier shall also comply with its obligation to provide the local
exchange service in unserved or underserved areas within _____ years from the
grant of the authority as required by existing regulation
a) 3 years
b) 4 years
c) 2 years
d) 5 years
204. International switch termination refers to a port in the switching international gateway
system equivalent to _____ kbps (digital) where international circuit terminates
a) 64
b) 56.6
c) 128
d) 256
205. Which of the following is designated as the international distress, safety and calling
frequency for radio telephony for stations of the maritime mobile service when using
frequencies in the authorized bands between 156 MHz and 174 MHz?
a) 156.8 MHz
b) 165.8 MHz
c) 158.6 MHz
d) 168.5 MHz
206. Which conference in the ITU structure does the Telecommunications Development
Bureau report?
a) WTDC
b) RRB
c) WRC
d) WTSC
207. What is the main principle used by ITU in determining the distribution of the
orbit/spectrum resources?
a) Efficient use and equitable access
b) Depending on geographical boundary of a nation
c) Depending on national sovereignty
d) Equal distribution
208. Which body in the present ITU structure took the place of CCITT?
a) ITU-T
b) ITU-R
c) ITU-D
d) RAG
209. Where does the secretary general in the organizational structure of present ITU
report?
a) Council
b) WTSC
c) TDAB
d) WRC
210. The International Radio Consultative Committee is referred to in international radio
communications as
a) CCIR
b) IRR
c) ITU
d) IRCC
211. What agency of the United Nations formulates standards and recommended
practices for all civil aviation?
a) ICAO
b) CAA
c) IATA
d) ATO
212. What is the executive branch of government in-charge of policy making in the
telecommunication?
a) Department of Transportation and Communications
b) National Telecommunications Commission
c) Telecommunications Control Bureau
d) Bureau of Telecommunications
213. What refers to the listing of the date and time events, programs, equipment, test,
malfunctions and corrections in communication system?
a) Log
b) Reporting
c) Documentation
d) File
214. Which position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is connected to the
reserve transmitter and receiver?
a) Emergency transmitter
b) Main transmitter
c) Direction finder
d) AA
215. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety
system is the
a) provision of radiotelegraph operator
b) provision of Morse code
c) provision of facsimile
d) provision of radio personnel
216. One of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship under the
global maritime distress and safety system. Which one?
a) Radio operator telegraphy onboard
b) On board radio facilities
c) Shore base facilities
d) Radio personnel onboard
217. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited
and that any auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
a) Direction finder
b) AA
c) Emergency transmitter
d) Ground
218. What position of maritime ship main antenna, when the radio watch is secured or
when the ship is in electrical storm?
a) Grounded
b) AA
c) Main transmitter
d) HF
219. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union
in its international conference issues on orbital resources?
a) Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of
distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources
b) Assign frequencies and organized conferences
c) Assign frequencies and organized conferences
d) Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots
220. A person or entity intending to register as VolP service provider is required to post a
performance bond of
a) P 5 million
b) P 1 million
c) P 3 million
d) P 10 million
221. What refers to as linkage by wire, radio, satellite or other means, of two or more
telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of allowing
or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the
subscribers of the other carrier or operator?
a) Interconnection
b) Toll patching
c) Gateway
d) Outside plant sharing
222. Which law refers to the 'Electronic Commerce Act of 2000'?
a) R. A. 8792
b) R. A. 8927
c) R. A. 9287
d) R. A. 8729
223. What is otherwise known as 'Electronics Engineering Law of 2004'?
a) R. A. 9292
b) P. D. 223
c) R. A. 5734
d) R. A. 7925
224. What is otherwise known as 'PRC modernization law'?
a) R. A. 8981
b) R. A. 8891
c) R. A. 8918
d) R. A. 8198
225. Professional Regulations Commission was created under
a) P. D. 223
b) P. D. 323
c) P. D. 232
d) P. D. 223
226. When was the effectivity of Presidential Degree No. 223?
a) 22-Jun-73
b) 21-Jun-73
c) 23-Jun-73
d) 24-Jun-74
227. When was the Electronic Commerce Act of the Philippines approved?
a) 14-Jun-00
b) 21-Jun-00
c) 10-Oct-00
d) ########
228. When was Republic Act No. 9292 approved by President Gloria Macapagal Arroyo?
a) ########
b) ########
c) ########
d) ########
229. When was the implementing rules and regulations (IRR) of the R. A. 9292
approved?
a) ########
b) ########
c) ########
d) ########
230. Under R. A. 9292, can a Register Electronic Engineer render design services?
a) Yes
b) No
c) Yes if he has more than 5 years experience
d) Yes if he has more than 10 years experience
231. Under R. A. 9292, who are authorized to take charge of or supervise electronics
construction and installation?
a) Professional Electronic Engineers and Registered Electronic Engineers
b) Professional Electronic Engineers
c) Registered Electronic Engineers
d) Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice
experience
232. Only those engineers who have more than 5 years professional practice experience
a) Section 7
b) Section 5
c) Section 6
d) Section 8
233. What is the minimum punishment imposed to any person who shall give any false or
fraudulent statement to the Board to obtain a Certificate of registration and/or
Professional ID Card as Electronics Engineer?
a) P 100,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
b) P 10,000 or imprisonment of 3 months
c) P 50,000 or imprisonment of 6 months
d) P 100,000 or imprisonment of 1 year
234. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioners with less than 5
years of active service?
a) P 2,000 to P 5,000
b) P 4,000 to P 8,000
c) P 5,000 to P 9,000
d) P 6,000 to P 10,000
235. To provide technical specifications for electronics equipment and systems" is under
what field of ECE practice?"
a) Engineering consultation
b) Design Services
c) Construction and Installation
d) Inspection and Appraisal
236. Testing and quality control of electronic products" is under what field of ECE
practice?"
a) Manufacturing
b) Education Service
c) Research and Development
d) Maintenance
237. All are methods of determining the fees to electronics engineers except
a) Constant Percentage Method
b) Percent of Cost Method
c) Cost Plus Reasonable Profit
d) Percent of Total Project Cost
238. When a project involves alterations, repairs, additions, modifications, etc, which
does not involve a whole project, what method is used for computing the
professional fee?
a) Unit Cost Method
b) Constant Percentage Method
c) Per Lot Method
d) Per Project Method
239. What method of computing fees is where the electronic facilities are divided into
classifications which have corresponding unit design rate?
a) Unit Cost Method
b) Percent of Cost Method
c) Per Lot Method
d) Per Project Method
240. What is the basic monthly salary scale for salaried ECE practitioner with 5 to 10
years of active service?
a) P 5,000 to P 8,000
b) P 6,000 to P 20,000
c) P 8,000 to P 12,000
d) P 10,000 to P 15,000
241. According to the manual of professional practice of electronics engineers, the
minimum rate of retainer's fee to be charged by the consulting electronics engineer
is
a) P 1,500 per month
b) P 1,000 per month
c) P 2,000 per month
d) P 2,500 per month
242. What refers to the act of putting together parts of a whole in order to build-up; to
erect or to form and/or to set or establish electronics equipment, systems or
facilities?
a) Construction and/or installation
b) Investigation
c) Appraisal
d) Acceptance
243. What refers to the process of producing, forming or fabricating electronic equipment
and/or related components, parts, devices and accessories?
a) Manufacturing
b) Quality control
c) Development
d) System design
244. What refers to the act of conceptualizing, planning and projecting a scheme, system
and facility using the arts and science of electronics along with social, economic,
financial and technical consideration?
a) Design service
b) Construction service
c) Consultation service
d) Organizing service
245. What is the act of giving advice and information to client in the area of electronics
engineering and its related fields in line with current internationally accepted
standards and practices?
a) Engineering consultation
b) Consultancy design
c) Professional consultation
d) Consultancy service
246. What is the minimum fine for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as provided
in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
a) P 100,000
b) P 500,000
c) P 100,000
d) P 50,000
247. What is the minimum penalty for unauthorized copying of copyrighted works as
provided in the E-commerce Act of the Philippines?
a) 6 months imprisonment
b) 12 months imprisonment
c) 2 months imprisonment
d) 3 months imprisonment
248. A secret code which secures and defends sensitive information that crosses over
public channels into a form decipherable only with a matching electronic key is
referred to as
a) electronic key
b) password
c) username
d) encrypted code
249. What is the term of the Chairman of the Professional Regulation Commission?
a) 7 years
b) 5 years
c) 3 years
d) 6 years
250. Which one is NOT the basic electrical protection measure in the Philippine Electronic
Codes?
a) Undergrounding
b) Voltage/current limiting and interrupting
c) Grounding and bonding
d) Shielding
251. What unit measures the dosage ratio of radiation?
a) milliroentgens per hour (mr per hour)
b) roentgens per minute
c) rebs per hour
d) rems per minute
252. The term thermodynamics" comes from Greek words "therme" and "dynamis" which
means"
a) Heat power
b) Heat transfer
c) Heat energy
d) Heat motion
253. The term thermodynamics" was first used in 1849 in the publication of a"
a) Lord Kelvin
b) Rudolph Clausius
c) William Rankine
d) Thomas Savery
254. What law asserts that energy is a thermodynamic property?
a) First law of Thermodynamics
b) Second law of Thermodynamics
c) Third law of Thermodynamics
d) Zeroth law of Thermodynamics
255. What law asserts that energy has quality as well as quantity?
a) Second law of Thermodynamics
b) First law of Thermodynamics
c) Third law of Thermodynamics
d) Zeroth law of Thermodynamics
256. The macroscopic approach to the study of thermodynamics does not require a
knowledge of the behavior of individual particles is called
a) Classical thermodynamics
b) Dynamic thermodynamics
c) Static thermodynamics
d) Statistical thermodynamics
257. What is the more elaborate approach to the study of thermodynamics and based on
the average behavior of large groups of individual particles?
a) Statistical thermodynamics
b) Dynamic thermodynamics
c) Static thermodynamics
d) Classical thermodynamics
258. What is defined a region in space chosen for study?
a) System
b) Surroundings
c) Boundary
d) Volume
259. The first law of thermodynamics is based on which of the following principles?
a) Conservation of energy
b) Conservation of mass
c) Action and reaction
d) The entropy-temperature relationship
260. What is the mass or region outside the system called?
a) Surroundings
b) Boundary
c) Volume
d) Environment
261. What is the real or imaginary surface that separates the system from its
surroundings?
a) Boundary
b) Division
c) Wall
d) Interface
262. A system which consists of fixed amount of mass and no mass can cross its
boundary called
a) Closed system
b) Equilibrium system
c) Thermal equilibrium system
d) Open system
263. A system in which even energy is not allowed to cross the boundary is called
a) Isolated system
b) Closed system
c) Exclusive system
d) Special system
264. A system in which there is a flow of mass is known as
a) Open system
b) Equilibrium system
c) Isolated system
d) Closed system
265. The boundaries of a control volume, which may either real or imaginary is called
a) Control surface
b) Control boundary
c) Control system
d) Interface
266. Any characteristic of a thermodynamics system is called a
a) Property
b) Process
c) Phase
d) Cycle
267. How are thermodynamic properties classified?
a) Intensive and extensive
b) Physical and chemical
c) Real and imaginary
d) Homogeneous and heterogeneous
268. The thermodynamic properties that are independent on the size of the system is
called
a) Intensive property
b) Extensive property
c) Open property
d) Closed property
269. The thermodynamic properties that are dependent on the size or extent of the
system is called
a) Extensive property
b) Intensive property
c) Open property
d) Closed property
270. Which is NOT an intensive property of thermodynamics?
a) Mass
b) Temperature
c) Pressure
d) Density
271. A system is in ______ equilibrium if the temperature is the same throughout the
entire system
a) Thermal
b) Static
c) Mechanical
d) Phase
272. Without electrical, mechanical, gravitational, surface tension and motion effects, a
system is called _____ system
a) Simple compressible
b) Simple
c) Compressible
d) Independent
273. What refers to any change that a system undergoes from one equilibrium state to
another equilibrium state?
a) Process
b) Path
c) Phase
d) Cycle
274. What refers to the series of state through which a system passes during a process?
a) Path
b) Phase
c) Cycle
d) Direction
275. How many independent properties are required to completely fix the equilibrium
state of a pure gaseous compound?
a) 2
b) 1
c) 3
d) 4
276. What is a process in which the system remains infinitesimally closed to an
equilibrium state at all times?
a) Quasi-state or quasi- equilibrium process
b) Path equilibrium process
c) Cycle equilibrium process
d) Phase equilibrium process
277. A closed system may refer to
a) Control mass
b) Control volume
c) Control energy
d) Control temperature
278. An open system may refer to
a) Control volume
b) Control mass
c) Control energy
d) Control temperature
279. What is a process with identical end states called?
a) Cycle
b) Path
c) Phase
d) Either path or phase
280. The prefix 'iso' used to designate a process means
a) Remains constant
b) Cannot be interchanged
c) Approximately equal
d) Slight difference
281. What does the term 'steady' implies?
a) No change with time
b) No change with volume
c) No change with location
d) No change with mass
282. What does the tem 'uniform' implies?
a) No change with location
b) No change with time
c) No change with volume
d) No change with mass
283. What is defined as a process during which a fluid flows through a control volume
steadily?
a) Steady-flow process
b) Transient-flow process
c) Steady and uniform process
d) Uniform-flow process
284. The sum of all the microscopic form of energy is called
a) Internal energy
b) Total energy
c) System energy
d) Phase energy
285. What type of system energy is related to the molecular structure of a system?
a) Microscopic form of energy
b) Macroscopic form of energy
c) Internal energy
d) External energy
286. What form of energy refers to those a system possesses as a whole with respect to
some outside reference frame, such as potential and kinetic energies?
a) Macroscopic form of energy
b) Microscopic form of energy
c) Internal energy
d) External energy
287. Who coined the word 'energy' in 1807?
a) Thomas Young
b) William Rankine
c) Rudolph Clausius
d) Lord Kelvin
288. The molecules of a gas moving through space with some velocity possesses what
kind of energy?
a) Translational energy
b) Spin energy
c) Rotational kinetic energy
d) Sensible energy
289. Which is NOT a vector quantity?
a) Time
b) Displacement
c) Velocity
d) Acceleration
290. Which is NOT a fundamental physical quantity of mechanics?
a) Volume
b) Length
c) Mass
d) Time
291. What is an arrowed line whose length is proportional to the magnitude of some
vector quantity and whose direction is that of the quantity?
a) Vector
b) Vector diagram
c) Component
d) Resultant
292. What is scaled drawing of the various forces, velocities or other vector quantities
involved in the motion of a body?
a) Vector diagram
b) Vector
c) Component
d) Resultant
293. The _______ of a moving object is the distance it covers in a time interval divided by
the time interval
a) average speed
b) acceleration
c) instantaneous speed
d) instantaneous velocity
294. The rate at which velocity changes with time is known as
a) acceleration
b) instantaneous speed
c) average speed
d) instantaneous velocity
295. 'The work done by the net force on a particle equals the change in the particle's
kinetic energy.' This statement is known as
a) Work-energy theorem
b) Law of conservation of energy
c) Law of conservation of work
d) Total work theorem
296. The ________ of a particle is equal to the total work that particle can do in the
process of being brought to rest
a) kinetic energy
b) potential energy
c) total energy
d) mechanical energy
297. Work is defined as the product of
a) Force and displacement
b) Force and time
c) Displacement and time
d) Power and time
298. What is defined as the time rate at which work is done?
a) Power
b) impulse
c) Momentum
d) Energy
299. What is defined as any influence that can change the velocity of an object?
a) Force
b) Impulse
c) Energy
d) Work
300. What is a measure of the inertia of an object?
a) Mass
b) Density
c) Weight
d) Force
301. What is the property of matter which is the reluctance to change its state of rest or of
uniform motion?
a) Inertia
b) Impulse
c) Momentum
d) Equilibrium
302. 'If no net force acts on it, an object at rest will remain at rest and an object in motion
will remain in motion at constant velocity'. This statement is the
a) first law of motion
b) second law of motion
c) third law of motion
d) d'Alembert's principle
303. 'The net force acting on an object equals the product of the mass and the
acceleration of the object. The direction of the force is the same as that of the
acceleration'. This statement is the
a) second law of motion
b) first law of motion
c) third law of motion
304. 'When an object exerts a force on another object, the second object exerts on the
first a force of the same magnitude but in the opposite direction'. This statement is
the
a) third law of motion
b) first law of motion
c) second law of motion
305. How many kilograms are there in 1 slug
a) 14.6
b) 11.9
c) 12.5
d) 13.2
306. What refers to an actual force that arises to oppose relative motion between
contracting surfaces?
a) Friction
b) Action force
c) Reaction force
d) Drag
307. What refers to the force between two stationary surfaces in contact that prevents
motion between them?
a) static friction
b) kinetic friction
c) sliding friction
d) starting friction
308. What is the maximum value of the static friction?
a) Starting friction
b) Sliding friction
c) Kinetic friction
d) Dynamic friction
309. What is TRUE between kinetic friction and static friction?
a) Kinetic friction is always less than static friction
b) Kinetic friction is always to static friction
c) Kinetic friction is always greater than static friction
d) Kinetic friction is equal to or greater than static friction
310. For the same materials in contact, what is TRUE between coefficient of static friction
and coefficient of kinetic friction?
a) Coefficient of static friction is always greater than the coefficient of kinetic friction
b) Coefficient of static friction is always less than the coefficient of kinetic friction
c) Coefficient of static friction is always equal to the coefficient of kinetic friction
d) Coefficient of static friction may be greater than or less than the coefficient of
kinetic friction
311. Efficiency of a machine is the ratio of
a) power output to power input
b) power input to power output
c) total work done to total energy
d) total energy to total power
312. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its motion?
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential energy
c) Rest energy
d) Mechanical energy
313. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its mass?
a) Rest energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Potential energy
314. What is the energy something possesses by virtue of its position?
a) Potential energy
b) Kinetic energy
c) Rest energy
315. When the vector sum of the external forces acting on the system of particles equals
zero, the total linear momentum of the system
a) remains constant
b) becomes zero
c) maximizes
d) changes abruptly
316. What is conserved in an elastic collision?
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential energy
c) Rest energy
317. In elastic collision, kinetic energy is conserved. This statement is
a) FALSE
b) TRUE
c) is either true or false, depending upon the colliding bodies
d) is either true or false, depending on the impact of two colliding bodies
318. When can we say that a collision is a completely inelastic collision?
a) When the two colliding objects stick together after impact
b) When the kinetic energy lost is minimum
c) When the kinetic energy is conserved
d) When the two colliding objects will separate after impact
319. What will happen to the kinetic energy if it is a completely inelastic collision?
a) It is lost to maximum value
b) It is conserved
c) It is gained from the loss of potential energy
d) It is lost to minimum value
320. Coefficient of restitution is the ratio of
a) relative speed after collision to relative speed before collision
b) relative speed before collision to relative speed after collision
c) relative speed to absolute speed
d) absolute speed to relative speed
321. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly elastic collision?
a) 1
b) 0
c) Less than 1
d) Greater than 1
322. What is the coefficient of restitution for a perfectly inelastic collision?
a) 0
b) 1
c) Less than 1
d) Greater than 1
323. The coefficient of restitution always applies
a) jointly to the colliding objects
b) to only one of the colliding objects
c) to neither of the colliding objects
d) to the bigger colliding object
324. 'When the vector sum of the external forces acting on a system of particles equals
zero, the total linear momentum of the system remaining constant.' This statement is
known as
a) Law of conservation of momentum
b) Law of universal gravitation
c) Law of conservation of impulse
d) Law of conservation of energy
325. What refers to the product of the force and the time during which a force acts?
a) Impulse
b) Momentum
c) Power
d) Energy
326. Momentum is the product of
a) velocity and mass
b) mass and time
c) force and time
d) force and mass
327. Management is
a) An art
b) Both science and art
c) A science
d) Neither art nor science
328. Engineering is
a) A science
b) An art
c) Both science and art
d) Neither art nor science
329. Engineers can become good managers only through
a) Effective career planning
b) Experience
c) Taking master degree in management
d) Trainings
330. What management functions refers to the process of anticipating problems,
analyzing them, estimating their likely impact and determining actions that will lead
to the desired outcomes and goals?
a) Planning
b) Leading
c) Controlling
d) Organizing
331. What refers to the establishing interrelationships between people and things in such
a way that human and materials resources are effectively focused toward achieving
the goal of the company?
a) Organizing
b) Controlling
c) Leading
d) Planning
332. What management function involves selecting candidates and training personnel?
a) Staffing
b) Organizing
c) Motivating
d) Controlling
333. What management function involves orienting personnel in the most effective way
and channeling resources?
a) Directing
b) Planning
c) Organizing
d) Leading
334. Actual performance normally is the same as the original plan and therefore it is
necessary to check for deviation and to take corrective action. This action refers to
what management function?
a) Controlling
b) Organizing
c) Planning
d) Staffing
335. What refers to management function which is to encourage others to follow the
example set for them, with great commitment and conviction?
a) Leading
b) Staffing
c) Motivating
d) Motivating
336. What refers to a principal function of lower management which is to instill in the
workforce a commitment and enthusiasm for pursuing the goals of the organization?
a) Motivating
b) Directing
c) Staffing
d) Controlling
337. What refers to the collection of the tolls and techniques that are used on a
predefined set of inputs to produce a predefined set of outputs?
a) Project Management
b) Engineering Management
c) Management
d) Planning
338. Which is NOT an element of project management process?
a) Research and development
b) Data and information
c) Decision making
d) Implementation and action
339. What is the most essential attribute of a project manager?
a) Leadership
b) Charisma
c) Communication skill
d) Knowledge
340. What project life cycle model is the most relevant for information technology project?
a) Waterfall model
b) Morris model
c) Incremental release model
d) Prototype model
341. In project management, 'R & D' stands for
a) Research and Development
b) Retail Distribution
c) Repair and Develop
d) Reduce and Deduce
342. In project management, 'O & M' stands for
a) Operation and Maintenance
b) Operation and Manpower
c) Operation and Management
d) Operation and Mission
343. Project integration management involves which of the following processes?
a) Quality planning
b) Project plan development
c) Project plan execution
d) Integrated change control
344. Project quality management involves all of the following processes except
a) Quality feature
b) Quality planning
c) Quality assurance
d) Quality Control
345. What is defined as an organized method of providing past, present, and projected
information on internal operations and external intelligence for use in decision-
making?
a) Management Information System
b) Electronic Data Processing Systems
c) Central Processing System
d) Data Management System
346. Middle management level undertakes what planning activity?
a) Intermediate planning
b) Strategic planning
c) Operational planning
d) Direct planning
347. Strategic planning is undertaken in which management level?
a) Top management level
b) Lower management level
c) Middle management level
d) Lowest management level
348. If you are appointed as a division manager, your first task is most likely to
a) Set goals
b) Determine the resources needed
c) Set a standard
d) Develop strategies and tactics
349. What is defined as the process of planning, organizing, and controlling operations to
reach objective efficiently and effectively?
a) Operations Management
b) General Management
c) Engineering Management
d) Production Management
350. For a project manager to achieve his given set of goals through other people, he
must have a good
a) Interpersonal skills
b) Communication skills
c) Leadership
d) Decision- making skills
351. What type of conflict do managers encounter when there is disagreement on issues
of territorial power or hidden agenda?
a) Politics
b) Technical opinion conflict
c) Ambiguous roles
d) Managerial procedure conflict
352. What is defines as the analysis and evaluation of the monetary consequences by
using the theories and principles of economics to engineering applications, designs
and projects?
a) Economic Analysis
b) Engineering cost analysis
c) Engineering economy
d) Design cost analysis
353. What is considered as the standard unit which forms the basis of a country's
domestic money supply?
a) Foreign exchange
b) Monetary unit
c) Currency
d) Cash or check
354. What is defined as any tangible economic product that contributes directly or
indirectly to the satisfaction of human want?
a) Goods or commodities
b) Services
c) Goods
d) Commodities
355. What is defined as any tangible economic activity that contributes directly or
indirectly to the satisfaction of human want?
a) Services
b) Goods
c) Commodities
d) Goods or commodities
356. What are the two classifications of goods and services?
a) Consumer and producer
b) Local and imported
c) Raw and finished
d) Ready-made and made-to-order
357. What refers to the goods and services that are required to support human life, needs
and activities?
a) Necessity
b) Producer products
c) Consumer products
d) Luxury
358. What refers to the exchange mechanism that brings together the sellers and the
buyers of a product, factor of production or financial security?
a) Market
b) Mall
c) Store
d) Office
359. What is considered as the basic consuming or demanding unit of a commodity?
a) Buyer or consumer
b) Seller
c) Manufacturer
d) Producer
360. What is defined as an entity which makes product, good or services available to
buyer or consumer in exchange of monetary consideration?
a) Producer
b) Seller
c) Manufacturer
d) Buyer or consumer
361. What is a market situation whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there
is no goods substitute?
a) Monopsony
b) Monopoly
c) Oligopoly
d) Oligopsony
362. What market situation exists where there are few sellers and few buyers?
a) Bilateral oligopoly
b) Oligopoly
c) Oligopsony
d) Bilateral Oligopsony
363. What market situation exists where there is only one buyer and only one seller?
a) Bilateral monopoly
b) Monopsony
c) Monopsony
d) Bilateral monopsony
364. What is the market situation exist when there are many buyers and many sellers?
a) Perfect compettion
b) Oligopoly
c) Oligopsony
d) Monopoly
365. If there is only one seller and many buyers, the market situation is
a) Monopoly
b) Duopsony
c) Duopsony
d) Duopsony
366. If there are many sellers and few buyers, the market situation is
a) Oligopsony
b) Duopsony
c) Oligopoly
d) Monopoly
367. Oligopoly exists when there is/are
a) Few sellers and many buyers
b) Few sellers and few buyers
c) Many sellers and few buyers
d) One seller and few buyers
368. Duopsony is a market situation where there is/are
a) Many sellers and few buyers
c) Few sellers and many buyers
369. Duopoly is a market situation where there is/are
a) Few sellers and many buyers
c) Many sellers and few buyers
370. What is another term for 'perfect competition'?
a) Atomistic competition
b) No-limit competition
c) Free-for-all competition
d) Heterogeneous market
371. What refers to the market situation in which any given product is supplied by a very
large number of vendors and there is no restriction against additional vendors from
entering the market?
a) Perfect competition
b) Oligopoly
c) Oligopsony
d) Oligopsony
372. Perfect monopoly exists only if
a) the single vendor can prevent the entry of all other vendors in the market
b) the single vendor gets the absolute franchise of the product
c) the single vendor is the only one who has the permit to sell
d) the single vendor is the only one who has the knowledge of the product
373. A ______ is a market situation where economies of scale are so significant that cost
are only minimized when the entire output of an industry is supplied by a single
producer so that the supply costs are lower under monopoly that under perfect
competition
a) Natural monopoly
b) Perfect monopoly
c) Bilateral monopoly
d) Ordinary monopoly
374. What refers to the need, want or desire for a product backed by the money to
purchase it?
a) Demand
b) Supply
c) Product
d) Good
375. What refers to the amount of a product made available for sale?
a) Supply
b) Demand
c) Product
d) Good
376. What do you call any particular raw material or primary product such as cloth, wool,
flour, coffee, etc.?
a) Commodity
b) Utility
c) Necessity
d) Stock
377. What are considered as the 'building blocks' for engineering materials?
a) Atoms
b) Elements
c) Matters
d) Compounds
378. What types of materials behave like iron when placed in a magnetic field?
a) Ferromagnetic materials
b) Crystals
c) Amorphous materials
d) Metalloids
379. What do you call metals reinforced by ceramics or other materials, usually in fiber
form?
a) Metal Matrix composites
b) Metalloids
c) Matrix alloys
d) Metal lattices
380. What is a combination of one or more metals with a nonmetallic element?
a) Ceramic
b) Inert
c) Matrix Composite
d) Metalloids
381. Polymer comes from Greek words 'poly' which means 'many' and 'meros' which
means
a) part
b) metal
c) material
d) plastic
382. The engineering materials known as 'plastics' are more correctly called
a) Polymers
b) Polyvinyl chloride
c) Polyethylene
d) Mers
383. What is a combination of two or more materials that has properties that the
components materials do not have by themselves?
a) Composite
b) Compound
c) Mixture
d) Matrix
384. What is a reference sheet for the elements that can be used to form engineering
materials?
a) Periodic Table
b) Truth Table
c) Building blocks of Materials
d) Structure of Materials
385. What physical property of a material that refers to the point at which a material
liquefies on heating or solidifies on cooling?
a) Melting point
b) Curie point
c) Refractive index
d) Specific heat
386. What physical property of a material that refers to the temperature at which
ferromagnetic materials can no longer be magnetized by outside forces?
a) Curie point
b) Melting point
c) Thermal conductivity
d) Thermal expansion
387. What physical property of a material that refers to the rate of heat flow per unit time
in a homogenous material under steady-state conditions per unit are, per unit
temperature gradient in a direction perpendicular to area?
a) Thermal conductivity
b) Thermal expansion
c) Heat distortion temperature
d) Water absorption
388. What physical property of a material refers to the highest potential difference
(voltage) that an insulting material of given thickness can withstand for a specified
time without occurrence of electrical breakdown through its bulk?
a) Dielectric strength
b) Thermal expansion
c) Conductivity
d) Electrical resistivity
389. What physical property of a material refers to the ratio of the amount of heat required
to raise the temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree to the heat required
to raise the same mass of water to 1 degree
a) Specific heat
b) Latent heat
c) Heat of fusion
d) Heat of fission
390. What physical property of a material refers to the temperature at which a polymer
under a specified load shows a specified amount of deflection?
a) Heat distortion temperature
b) Curie temperature
c) Specific heat
d) Thermal conductivity
391. What mechanical property of a material refers to the nominal stress at fracture in a
tension test at constant load and constant temperature?
a) Stress rapture strength
b) Creep strength
c) Compressive yield strength
d) Hardness
392. What mechanical property of a material refers to the resistance to plastic
deformation?
a) Hardness
b) Rigidity
c) Plasticity
d) Ductility
393. What dimensional property of a material refers to the deviation from edge
straightness?
a) Camber
b) Lay
c) Out of flat
d) Waviness
394. What dimensional property of a material refers to a wavelike variation from a perfect
surface, generally much wider in spacing and higher in amplitude than surface
roughness?
a) Waviness
b) Lay
c) surface finish
d) Out of flat
395. Wood is composed of chains of cellulose molecules bonded together by another
natural polymer called
a) lignin
b) plastic
c) plastic
d) additive
396. What is a polymer production process that involves forming a polymer chain
containing two different monuments?
a) Copolymerization
b) Blending
c) Alloying
d) Cross-linking
397. What is the generic name of class of polymer which is commercially known as
'nylon'?
a) Polyamide
b) Polyacetals
c) Cellulose
d) Polyester
398. What is a method of forming polymer sheets or films into three-dimensional shapes
in which the sheet is clamped on the edge, heated until it softens and sags, drawn in
contact with the mold by vacuum, and cooled while still in contact with the mold?
a) Thermoforming
b) Calendaring
c) Blow molding
d) Solid phase forming
399. What is a process of forming continuous shapes by forcing a molten polymer
through a metal die?
a) Extrusion
b) Calendaring
c) Thermoforming
d) Lithugraphy
400. What chemical property of a material which refers to its ability to resist deterioration
by chemical or electrochemical reactions with environment?
a) Corrosion resistance
b) Stereo specificity
c) Conductivity
d) Electrical resistance
401. What refers to the tendency for polymers and molecular materials to from with an
ordered, spatial, three-dimensional arrangement of monomer molecules?
a) Stereo specificity
b) Conductivity
c) Retentivity
d) Spatial configuration
402. What is the amount of energy required to fracture a given volume of material?
a) Impact strength
b) Endurance limit
c) Creep strength
d) Stress rupture strength
403. What mechanical property of a material which is a time-dependent permanent strain
under stress?
a) Creep
b) Elongation
c) Elasticity
d) Rupture
404. The weight of a mass of 10 kilograms at a location where g = 9.77 m/s^2 is:
a) 97.7 N
b) 977 N
c) 77.9 N
d) 79.7 N
405. A boat has a speed of 8 mph in still water attempts to go directly across a river with
a current of 3 mph. What is the effective speed of the boat?
a) 8.54 mph
b) 8.35 mph
c) 7.42 mph
d) 6.33 mph
406. A man wishes to cross due west on a river which is flowing due north at the rate of 3
mph. If he can row 12 mph in still water, what direction should he take to cross the
river?
a) S 75.52 degrees W
b) S 14.47 degrees W
c) S 81.36 degrees W
d) S 84.36 degrees W
407. A plane is moving due east with air speed of 240 kph. If a wind of 40 kph is blowing
from the south, find the ground speed of the plane.
a) 243 kph
b) 423 kph
c) 200 kph
d) 240 kph
408. Three forces 20N, 30N, and 40N are in equilibrium. Find the angle between the 30-
40N.
a) 28.96 degrees
b) 26.96 degrees
c) 25.96 degrees
d) 40 degrees
409. A 100 kN block slides down a place inclined at an angle of 30 deg with the
horizontal. Neglecting friction, find the force that causes the block to slide.
a) 50 kN
b) 20 kN
c) 80 kN
d) 86.6 kN
410. What tension must be applied at the ends of a flexible wire cable supporting a load
of 0.5 kg per horizontal meter in a span of 100 m if the sag is to be limited to 1.25
m?
a) 500.62 kg
b) 623.24 kg
c) 584.23 kg
d) 423.42 kg
411. The allowable spacing of towers to carry an aluminum cable weighing 0.03 kg per
horizontal meter if the maximum tension at the lowest point is not to exceed 1150 at
sag of 0.50 m is:
a) 392 m
b) 248 m
c) 408 m
d) 422 m
412. A wooden plank x" meters long has one end leaning on top of a vertical wall 1.5 m
high and the other end resting on a horizontal ground. Neglecting friction, find x if a
force (parallel to the plank) of 100 N is needed to pull a 400 N block up the plank."
a) 6m
b) 5m
c) 3m
d) 4m
413. What is the acceleration of the body that increases in velocity from 20 m/s to 40 m/s
in 3 seconds? Answer in S.I. units.
a) 6.67 m/s^2
b) 8 m/s^2
c) 5 m/s^2
d) 7 m/s^2
414. From a speed of 75 kph, a car decelerates at the rate of 500 m/min^2 along a
straight path. How far in meters will it travel in 45 sec?
a) 797
b) 793
c) 791
d) 795
415. With a starting speed of 30 kph at point A, a car accelerates uniformly. After 18
minutes, it reaches point B, 21 km from A. Find the acceleration of the car in m/s^2.
a) 0.0206 m/s^2
b) 3.42 m/s^2
c) 0.0562 m/s^2
d) 0.126 m/s^2
416. A train upon passing point A at a speed of 72 kph accelerates at 0.75 m/s^2 for one
minute along a straight path the decelerates at 1.0 m/s^2. How far in kilometers from
point A will it be 2 minutes after passing point A?
a) 4.65
b) 4.85
c) 4.75
d) 4.95
417. A car starting from rest moves with a constant acceleration of 10 km/hr2 for 1 hour,
then decelerates at a constant -5 km/hr2 until it comes to a stop. How far has it
traveled?
a) 15 km
b) 12 km
c) 20 km
d) 10 km
418. A train running at 60 kph decelerated at 2 m/min^2 for 14 minutes. Find the distance
traveled, in kilometers within this period.
a) 13.8
b) 12.8
c) 13.2
d) 12.2
419. An automobile accelerates at a constant rate of 15 mi/hr to 45 mi/hr in 15 seconds,
while travelling in a straight line. What is the average acceleration?
a) 2.93 ft/s^2
b) 2.12 ft/s^2
c) 2.39 ft/s^2
d) 2 ft/s^2
420. A car was travelling at a speed of 50 mph. The driver saw a road block 80 m ahead
and stepped on the brake causing the car to decelerate uniformly at 10 m/s^2. Find
the distance from the roadblock to the point where the car stopped. Assume
perception reaction time is 2 seconds.
a) 10.28 m
b) 8.63 m
c) 6.25 m
d) 12.48 m
421. A mango falls from a branch 5 meters above the ground. With what speed in meters
per second will it strike the ground? Assume g = 10 m/s^2.
a) 10
b) 14
c) 8
d) 12
422. A man standing at a window 5 meters tall watches a falling stone pass by the
window in 0.3 seconds. From how high above the top of the window was the stone
released?
a) 3,664 m
b) 3,466 m
c) 4,366 m
d) 3,646 m
423. A bullet is fired at an initial velocity of 350 m/s and an angle of 50deg with the
horizontal. Neglecting air resistance, find its range on the horizontal plane through
the point it was fired.
a) 12,298 m
b) 12.298 km
c) 12.298 m
d) 12,298 cm
424. A bullet is fired at an initial velocity of 350 m/s and an angle of 50deg with the
horizontal. Neglecting air resistance, how long will the bullet travel before hitting the
ground?
a) 54.66 sec
b) 56.42 min.
c) 56.42 sec
d) 54.66 min.
425. A shot is fired at an angle of 45deg with the horizontal and a velocity of 300 ft per
second. Find the height and the range of projectile
a) 700 ft and 2800 ft
b) 600 ft and 2500 ft
c) 1000 ft and 4800 ft
d) 750 ft and 3000 ft
426. A baseball is thrown from a horizontal plane following a parabolic path with an initial
velocity of 100 m/s at an angle of 30 degrees above the horizontal. How far from the
throwing point will the ball attain its original level?
a) 883 m
b) 880 m
c) 875 m
d) 890 m
427. A coin is tossed vertically upward from the ground at a velocity of 12 m/s. How long
will the coin touch the ground?
a) 2.45 sec.
b) 1.45 sec.
c) 3.45 sec.
d) 4.35 sec.
428. A stone is projected from the ground with a velocity of 15 m/s at an angle of 30deg
with the horizontal ground. How high in m will it rise? Use g = 9.817 m/s.
a) 2.865 m
b) 2.685 m
c) 2.586 m
d) 8.652 m
429. A man in a hot air balloon dropped an apple at a height of 150 m. If the balloon is
rising at 15 m/s, find the highest point reached by the apple.
a) 161.5 m
b) 151.5 m
c) 171.5 m
d) 141.5 m
430. A balloon is ascending at the rate of 10 kph and is being carried horizontally by a
wind at 20 kph. If a bomb is dropped from the balloon such that it takes 8 sec. to
reach the ground, the balloon's altitude when the bomb was released is:
a) 292 m
b) 252 m
c) 322.13 m
d) 336.14 m
431. A plane is flying horizontally 350 kph at an altitude of 420 m. At this instant, a bomb
is released. How far horizontally from this point will the bomb hit the ground?
a) 900 m
b) 785 m
c) 577 m
d) 625 m
432. The wheel of an automobile revolves at the rate of 700 rpm. How fast does it move,
in km per hr., if the radius of its wheel is 250 mm?
a) 5.09
b) 34.67
c) 18.33
d) 73.3
433. Using a constant angular acceleration, a water turbine is brought to its normal
operating speed of 180 rev/min in 6 minutes. How many complete revolutions did the
turbine make in coming to normal speed?
a) 540
b) 560
c) 530
d) 550
434. horizontal platform 6 m in diameter revolves so that a point on its rim moves 6.28
m/s. Find its angular speed in rpm.
a) 20
b) 15
c) 12
d) 25
435. A horizontal platform with a diameter of 6 m revolves about its center at 20 rpm. Find
the tangential speed, in m/s of a point at the edge of the platform.
a) 6.28
b) 6.34
c) 6.12
d) 6.46
436. A flywheel rotating at 500 rpm decelerates uniformly at 2 rad/sec^2. How many
seconds will it take for the flywheel to stop?
a) 26.2 s
b) 25.1 s
c) 28.4 s
d) 24.5 s
437. The radius of the earth is 3,960 miles. The gravitational acceleration at the earth?s
surface is 32.16 ft/s^2. What is the velocity of escape from the earth in miles/s?
a) 6.94
b) 8.62
c) 7.83
d) 9.36
438. The radius of the moon is 1080 mi. The gravitational acceleration at the moon's
surface is 0.165 times the gravitational acceleration at the earth's surface. What is
the velocity of escape from the moon in miles/second?
a) 1.47
b) 2.38
c) 4.26
d) 3.52
439. A 10-lbm object is acted upon by a 40-lb force. What is the acceleration in ft/min^2?
a) 4.638 x 10 to the 4th power ft/min^2
b) 7.8 x 10 to the 4th power ft/min^2
c) 9.2 x 10 to the 4th power ft/min^2
d) 8.0 x 10 to the 4th power ft/min^2
440. What horizontal force P can be applied to a 100-kg block in a level surface with
coefficient of friction of 0.2, that will cause and acceleration of 2.50 m/s^2?
a) 446.2 N
b) 106 N
c) 224.5 N
d) 343.5 N
441. A skier wishes to build a rope tow to pull her up a ski hill that is inclined at 15deg
with the horizontal. Calculate the tension needed to give the skier's 54-kg body an
acceleration of 1.2 m/s^2. Neglect friction.
a) 202 N
b) 403 N
c) 304 N
d) 106 N
442. A pick-up truck is traveling forward at 25 m/s. The truck bed is loaded with boxes,
whose coefficient of friction with the bed is 0.4. What is the shortest time that the
truck can be brought to a stop such that the boxes do not shift?
a) 6.37 sec
b) 5.45 sec
c) 2.35 sec
d) 4.75 sec
443. A 40-kg block is resting on an inclined plane making an angle of 20deg from the
horizontal. If the coefficient of friction is 0.60, determine the force parallel to the
incline that must be applied to cause impending motion down the plane. Use g =
9.81 m/s.
a) 87
b) 72
c) 82
d) 77
444. A 50-kilogram block of wood rest on the top of the plane whose length is 3 m. and
whose altitude is 0.8 m. How long will it take for the block to slide to the bottom of
the plane when released?
a) 1.51 seconds
b) 2.41 seconds
c) 2.14 seconds
d) 2.51 seconds
445. A car and its load weigh 27 kN and the center of gravity is 600 mm from the ground
and midway between the front and rear wheel which are 3 m apart. The car is
brought to rest from a speed of 54 kph in 5 seconds by means of the brakes.
Compute the normal force on each of the front wheels of the car.
a) 7.576 kN
b) 9.541 kN
c) 5.478 kN
d) 6 kN
446. An elevator weighing 2,000 lb attains an upward velocity of 16 fps in 4 sec with
uniform acceleration. What is the tension in the supporting cables?
a) 2,250 lb
b) 2495 lb
c) 2,150 lb
d) 1,950 lb
447. A block weighing 200 N rests on a plane inclined upwards to the right at a slope of 4
vertical to 3 horizontal. The block is connected to a cable initially parallel to the
plane, passing through the pulley and connected to another block weighing 100 N
moving vertically downward. The coefficient of kinetic friction between the 200 N
block and the inclined plane is 0.10. Which of the following most nearly gives the
acceleration of the system?
a) a = 1.57 m/sec^2
b) a = 3.74 m/sec^2
c) a = 0.37 m/sec^2
d) a = 2.93 m/sec^2
448. A car travels on the horizontal unbanked circular track of radius r. Coefficient of
friction between the tires and the track is 0.3. If the car's velocity is 10 m/s, what is
the smallest radius it may travel without skidding?
a) 34 m
b) 15 m
c) 60 m
d) 50 m
449. If a car travels at 15 m/s and the track is banked 5deg, what is the smallest radius it
can travel so that friction will not be necessary to resist sliding?
a) 262.16 m
b) 651.23 m
c) 278.14 m
d) 214.74 m
450. A vertical bar of length L with a mass of 40 kg is rotated vertically about its one end
at 40 rpm. Find the length of the bar if it makes an angle of 45 deg with the vertical?
a) 1.58 m
b) 2.38 m
c) 1.86 m
d) 3.26 m
451. A highway curve is super elevated at 7 deg. Find the radius of the curve if there is no
lateral pressure on the wheels of a car at a speed of 40 mph.
a) 265.6 m
b) 247.4 m
c) 229.6 m
d) 285.3 m
452. A 2-N weight is swung in a vertical circle of 1-m radius at the end of the cable that
will break if the tension exceeds 500 N. Find the angular velocity of the weight when
the cable breaks:
a) 49.4 rad/s
b) 37.2 rad/s
c) 24.9 rad/s
d) 58.3 rad/s
453. A concrete highway curve with a radius of 500 feet is banked to give a lateral
pressure equivalent to f = 0.15. For what coefficient of friction will skidding impend
for a speed of 60 mph?
a) < 0.310
b) < 0.360
c) 0.310
d) 0.360
454. A 3500 lbf car is towing a 500 lbf trailer. The coefficient of friction between all tires
and the road is 0.80. How fast can the car and trailer travel around an unbanked
curve of radius 0.12 mile without either the car or trailer skidding?
a) 87 mph
b) 72 mph
c) 26 mph
d) 55 mph
455. A cast-iron governor ball 3 inches in diameter has its center 18 inches from the point
of support. Neglecting the weight of the arm itself, find the tension in the arm if the
angle with the vertical axes is 60deg.
a) 7.36 lb
b) 7.56 lb
c) 6.36 lb
d) 7.63 lb
456. An object is placed 3 feet from the center of a horizontally rotating platform. The
coefficient of friction is 0.3. The object will begin to slide off when the platform speed
is nearest to:
a) 17 rpm
b) 12 rpm
c) 22 rpm
d) 27 rpm
457. A force of 200 lbf acts on a block at an angle of 28deg with respect to horizontal.
The block is pushed 2 feet horizontally. What is the work done by this force?
a) 480 J
b) 215 J
c) 540 J
d) 320 J
458. A 10-kg block is raised vertically 3 meters. What is the change in potential energy?
Answer in SI units closest to:
a) 294 J
b) 350 N-m
c) 320 J
d) 350 kg-m^2/s^2
459. At her highest point, a girl on the swing is 7 feet above the ground, and at her lowest
point, she is 3 feet above the ground. What is her maximum velocity?
a) 16 fps
b) 14 fps
c) 12 fps
d) 10 fps
460. An automobile has a power output of 1 hp. When it pulls a cart with a force of 300 N,
what is the cart's velocity?
a) 2.49 m/s
b) 0.249 m/s
c) 249 m/s
d) 24.9 m/s
461. A hunter fires a 50 gram bullet at a tiger. The bullet left the gun with a speed of 600
m/s. What is the momentum of the bullet?
a) 30 kg-m/s
b) 15 kg-m/s
c) 150 kg-m/s
d) 300 kg-m/s
462. An elevator can lift a load of 5000 N from the ground level to a height of 20 meters in
10 seconds. Find the horsepower rating of the elevator.
a) 13.4
b) 1340
c) 13400
d) 10000
463. The average horsepower required to raise a 150-kg box to a height of 20 meters
over a period of one minute is:
a) 0.657 hp
b) 450 hp
c) 785 hp
d) 2960 hp
464. What is the efficiency of the pulley system, which lifts a 1 tonne load, a distance of 2
m by the application of the force 150 kg for a distance of 15 m?
a) 89%
b) 75%
c) 46%
d) 11%
465. What is the force of attraction between two 90-kg bodies spaced 40 m apart?
Assume gravitational constant, G = 6.67 x 10-11 N-m^2/kg2
a) 3.38 x 10 -6 N
b) 45.6 x 10 -6 N
c) 4.26 x 10 -6 N
d) 33.8 x 10 -6 N
466. How much mass is converted to energy per day in a nuclear power plant operated at
a level of 100 MW?
a) 9.6 x 10 -5 kg
b) 9.6 x 10 -6 kg
c) 9.6 x 10 -7 kg
d) 9.6 x 10 -4 kg
467. What is the kinetic energy of a 4000-lb automobile, which is moving at 44 ft/s?
a) 1.20 x 10 5 ft-lb
b) 2.10 x 10 5 ft-lb
c) 1.12 x 10 5 ft-lb
d) 1.8 x 10 5 ft-lb
468. A 4000-kg elevator starts from rest accelerates uniformly to a constant speed of 2.0
m/s and decelerates uniformly to stop 20 m above its initial position. Neglecting the
friction and other losses, what work was done on the elevator?
a) 785 x 10 3 J
b) 700 x 10 3 J
c) 900 x 10 3 J
d) 685 x 10 3 J
469. The brakes of a 1000-kg automobile exert 3000 N. How long will it take for the car to
come to a complete stop from a velocity of 30 m/s?
a) 10 sec
b) 15 sec
c) 5 sec
d) 2 sec
470. A car weighing 40 tons is switched to a 2% upgrade with a velocity of 30 mph. If the
train resistance is 10 lbs/ton, how far does the grade will it go?
a) 1204 ft
b) 1402 ft
c) 2104 ft
d) 1124 ft
471. A body weighing 1000 lbs. fall 6 inches and strikes a 2000 lbs (per inch) spring.
What is the deformation of the spring?
a) 3 inches
b) 6 inches
c) 100 mm
d) 2 inches
472. A 16-gram mass is moving at 30 cm/s while a 4-gram mass is moving in an opposite
direction at 50 cm/s. They collide head on and stick together. Their velocity after
collision is:
a) 14 cm/s
b) 15 cm/s
c) 13 cm/s
d) 18 cm/s
473. A 5-kg rifle fires a 15-g bullet at a muzzle velocity of 600 m/s. What is the recoil
velocity of the rifle?
a) 1.80 m/s
b) 18 m/s
c) 180 m/s
d) 1800 m/s
474. A 0.50-kg ball with a speed of 20 m/s strikes and sticks to a 70-kg block resting on a
frictionless surface. Find the block's velocity.
a) 0.142 m/s
b) 1.42 m/s
c) 14.2 m/s
d) 142 m/s
475. Determine the outside diameter of a hollow steel tube that will carry a tensile load of
500 kN at a stress of 140 MPa. Assume the wall thickness to be one-tenth of the
outside diameter.
a) 113 mm
b) 123 mm
c) 93 mm
d) 103 mm
476. A force of 10 N is applied to one end of a 10 inches diameter circular rod. Calculate
the stress.
a) 0.20 kPa
b) 0.05 kPa
c) 0.10 kPa
d) 0.15 kPa
477. What force is required to punch a 20-mm diameter hole through a 10-mm thick
plate? The ultimate strength of the plate material is 450 MPa.
a) 283 kN
b) 241 kN
c) 386 kN
d) 252 kN
478. A steel pipe 1.5m in diameter is required to carry an internal pressure of 750 kPa. If
the allowable tensile stress of steel is 140 MPa, determine the required thickness of
the pipe in mm.
a) 4.01
b) 4.25
c) 5.12
d) 4.56
479. A spherical pressure vessel 400-mm in diameter has a uniform thickness of 6 mm.
The vessel contains gas under a pressure of 8,000 kPa. If the ultimate stress of the
material is 420 MPa, what is the factor of safety with respect to tensile failure?
a) 3.15
b) 3.55
c) 2.15
d) 2.55
480. A metal specimen 36-mm in diameter has a length of 360 mm and a force of 300 kN
elongates the length bar to 1.20 -mm. What is the modulus of elasticity?
a) 88.419 GPa
b) 92.564 GPa
c) 92.658 GPa
d) 95.635 GPa
481. An axial load of 100 kN is applied to a flat bar 20 mm thick, tapering in width from
120 mm to 40 mm in a length of 10 m. Assuming E = 200 GPa, determine the total
elongation of the bar.
a) 3.43 mm
b) 2.125 mm
c) 4.33 mm
d) 1.985 mm
482. A steel bar 50 mm in diameter and 2 m long is surrounded by a shell of cast iron 5
mm thick. Compute the load that will compress the bar a total of 1 mm in the length
of 2 m. Use E steel = 200 GPa and E cast-iron = 100 GPa.
a) 240 kN
b) 200 kN
c) 280 kN
d) 320 kN
483. A solid aluminum shaft of 100-mm diameter fits concentrically in a hollow steel tube.
Determine the minimum internal diameter of the steel tube so that no contact
pressure exists when the aluminum shaft carries an axial compressive load of 600
kN. Assume Poisson's ratio u = 1/3 and the modulus of elasticity of aluminum E be
70 GPa.
a) 100.0364 mm
b) 100.0312 mm
c) 100.0414 mm
d) 100.0303 mm
484. The maximum allowable torque, in kN-m, for a 50-mm diameter steel shaft when the
allowable shearing stress is 81.5 MPa is:
a) 2
b) 4
c) 1
d) 3
485. Compute the value of the shear modulus G of steel whose modulus of elasticity E is
200 GPa and Poisson's ratio is u = 0.30.
a) 76,923 MPa
b) 72,456 MPa
c) 79,698 MPa
d) 82,400 MPa
486. Determine the length of the shortest 2-mm diameter bronze wire, which can be
twisted through two complete turns without exceeding a stress of 70 MPa. Use G =
35 GPa.
a) 6.28 m
b) 5.23 m
c) 8.56 m
d) 6.89 m
487. A hollow steel shaft 2540 mm long must transmit torque of 34 kN-m. The total angle
of twist must not exceed 3 degrees. The maximum shearing stress must not exceed
110 MPa. Find the inside diameter and the outside diameter of the shaft the meets
these conditions. Use G = 83 GPa.
a) D = 129 mm; d = 92 mm
b) D = 125 mm; d = 65 mm
c) D = 132 mm; d = 100 mm
d) D = 112 mm; d = 85 mm
488. Determine the maximum shearing stress in a helical steel spring composed of 20
turns of 20-mm diameter wire on a mean radius of 80 mm when the spring is
supporting a load of 2 kN.
a) 120.6 MPa
b) 136.5 MPa
c) 101.1 MPa
d) 110.6 MPa
489. A load P is supported by two springs arranged in series. The upper spring has 20
turns of 29 -mm diameter wire on a mean diameter of 150 mm. The lower spring
consist of 15 turns of 10 -mm diameter wire on a mean diameter of 130 mm.
Determine the value of P that will cause a total deflection of 80 mm. Assume G = 80
GPa for both spring.
a) 223.3 N
b) 228.8 N
c) 214.8 N
d) 278.4 N
490. A simple beam, 10 m long carries a concentrated load of 500 kN at the midspan.
What is the maximum moment of the beam?
a) 1250 kN-m
b) 1050 kN-m
c) 1510 kN-m
d) 1520 kN-m
491. A small square 5cm by 5cm is cut out of one corner of a rectangular cardboard 20cm
wide by 30cm long. How far, in cm from the uncut longer side, is the centroid of the
remaining area?
a) 9.67
b) 9.48
c) 9.35
d) 9.56
492. What is the inertia of a bowling ball (mass = 0.5 kg) of radius 15 cm rotating at an
angular speed of 10 rpm for 6 seconds?
a) 0.0045 kg-m^2
b) 0.001 kg-m^2
c) 0.005 kg-m^2
d) 0.002 kg-m^2
493. What is the moment of inertia of a cylinder of radius 5 m and mass of 5 kg?
a) 62.5 kg-m^2
b) 80 kg-m^2
c) 72.5 kg-m^2
d) 120 kg-m^2
494. The mass of air in a room which is 3m x 5m x 20 m is known to be 350 kg. Find its
density.
a) 1.167 kg/m^3
b) 1.176 kg/m^3
c) 1.617 kg/m^3
d) 1.716 kg/m^3
495. One hundred (100) grams of water are mixed with 150 grams of alcohol p = 790
kg/cu m. What is the specific gravity of the resulting mixtures, assuming that the two
fluids mix completely?
a) 0.86
b) 0.63
c) 0.96
d) 0.82
496. One hundred grams of water are mixed with 150 grams of alcohol p = 790 kg/cu m.
What is the specific volume of the resulting mixtures, assuming that the fluids mix
completely?
a) 1.20 cu cm/g
b) 0.88 cu cm/g
c) 0.82 cu cm/g
d) 0.63 cu cm/g
497. The pressure 34 meters below the ocean is nearest to:
a) 344 kPa
b) 362 kPa
c) 222 kPa
d) 204 kPa
498. What is the atmospheric pressure on a planet where the absolute pressure is 100
kPa and the gage pressure is 10 kPa?
a) 90 kPa
b) 80 kPa
c) 100 kPa
d) 10 kPa
499. A pressure gage 6 m above the bottom of the tank containing a liquid reads 90 kPa;
another gage height 4 m reads 103 kPa. Determine the specific weight of the liquid.
a) 6.5 kN/m^3
b) 5.1 kN/m^3
c) 3.2 kN/m^3
d) 8.5 kN/m^3
500. The weight density of a mud is given by w = 10 + 0.5h, where w is in kN/m^3 and h
is in meters. Determine the pressure, in kPa, at a depth of 5 m.
a) 56.25 kPa
b) 89.36 kPa
c) 62.5 kPa
d) 78.54 kPa
501. What is the resulting pressure when one pound of air at 15 psia and 200 deg F is
heated at constant volume to 800 deg F?
a) 28.6 psia
b) 52.1 psia
c) 15 psia
d) 36.4 psia
502. The volume of a gas under standard atmospheric pressure 76 cm Hg is 200 in^3.
What is the volume when the pressure is 80 cm Hg, if the temperature is
unchanged?
a) 190 in^3
b) 90 in^3
c) 110 in^3
d) 30.4 in^3
503. A two-meter square plane surface is immersed vertically below the water surface.
The immersion is such that the two edges of the square are horizontal. If the top of
the square is 1 meter below the water surface, what is the total water pressure
exerted on the plane surface?
a) 78.48 kN
b) 64.76 kN
c) 52.46 kN
d) 43.93 kN
504. Find the total water pressure on a vertical circular gate, 2 meters in diameter, with its
top 3.5 meters below the water surface.
a) 138.7 kN
b) 107.9 kN
c) 186.5 kN
d) 169.5 kN
505. An iceberg having specific gravity of 0.92 is floating on salt water of specific gravity
of 1.03. If the volume of ice above the water surface is 1000 cu. m., what is the total
volume of the ice?
a) 9364 m^3
b) 6325 m^3
c) 8523 m^3
d) 7862 m^3
506. A block of wood requires a force of 40 N to keep it immersed in water and a force of
100 N to keep it immersed in glycerin (sp. gr. = 1.3). Find the weight and specific
gravity of the wood.
a) 0.8
b) 0.9
c) 0.6
d) 0.7
507. Reynolds number may be calculated from:
a) characteristic length, mass flow rate per unit area, and absolute viscosity
b) diameter, velocity, and absolute viscosity
c) diameter, velocity, and surface tension
d) diameter, density, and absolute viscosity
508. The sum of the pressure load, elevation head, and the velocity head remains
constant, this is known as:
a) Bernoulli's Theorem
b) Boyle's Law
c) Archimedes' Principle
d) Torricelli's Theorem
509. What is the expected head loss per mile of closed circular pipe (17-in inside
diameter, friction factor of 0.03) when 3300 gal/min of water flows under pressure?
a) 38 ft
b) 0.007 ft
c) 3580 ft
d) 64 ft
510. An orifice has a coefficient of discharge of 0.62 and a coefficient of contraction of
0.63. Determine the coefficient of velocity for the orifice.
a) 0.98
b) 0.97
c) 0.99
d) 0.96
511. The theoretical velocity of flow through the orifice 3m above the surface of water in a
tall tank is:
a) 7.67 m/s
b) 6.38 m/s
c) 9.85 m/s
d) 8.63 m/s
512. Oil having specific gravity of 0.869 and dynamic viscosity of 0.0814 Pa-s flows
through a cast iron pipe at a velocity of 1 m/s. The pipe is 50 m long and 150 mm in
diameter. Find the head lost due to friction.
a) 0.68 m
b) 1.25 m
c) 0.45 m
d) 0.73 m
513. What commercial size of new cast iron pipe shall be used to carry 4490 gpm with a
lost of head of 10.56 feet per mile? Assume f = 0.019.
a) 576 mm
b) 625 mm
c) 479 mm
d) 352 mm
514. Assume that 57 liters per second of oil ( p = 860 kg/m^3) is pumped through a 300
mm diameter pipeline of cast iron. If each pump produces 685 kPa, how far apart
can they be placed? (Assume f = 0.031)
a) 23.7 m
b) 32.2 m
c) 12.6 m
d) 19.8 m
515. A 20-mm diameter commercial steel pipe, 30 m long is used to drain an oil tank.
Determine the discharge when the oil level in the tank is 3 m above the exit of the
pipe. Neglect minor losses and assume f = 0.12.
a) 0.000179 m^3/s
b) 0.000256 m^3/s
c) 0.000113 m^3/s
d) 0.000869 m^3/s
516. Find the interest on P6800.00 for 3 years at 11% simple interest.
a) P2,244.00
b) P2,144.00
c) P1,987.00
d) P1,875.00
517. A man borrowed P10,000.00 from his friend and agrees to pay at the end of 90 days
under 8% simple interest rate. What is the required amount?
a) P10,200.00
b) P11,500.00
c) P9,500.00
d) P10,700.00
518. Annie buys a television set from a merchant who offers P 25,000.00 at the end of 60
days. Annie wishes to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the
required amount on the assumption that money is worth 14% simple interest. What
is the required amount?
a) P24,429.97
b) P28,456.23
c) P19,222.67
d) P20,234.87
519. What is the principal amount if the amount of interest at the end of 2 1/2 year is
P4500 for a simple interest of 6% per annum?
a) P30,000.00
b) P35,000.00
c) P40,000.00
d) P45,000.00
520. How long must a P40,000.00 not bearing 4% simple interest run to amount to
P41,350.00?
a) 304 days
b) 430 days
c) 403 days
d) 340 days
521. If P16,000 earns P480 in 9 months, what is the annual rate of interest?
a) 4%
b) 3%
c) 2%
d) 1%
522. A time deposit of P110,000 for 31 days earns P890.39 on maturity date after
deducting the 20% withholding tax on interest income. Find the rate of interest per
annum.
a) 11.75%
b) 12.25%
c) 12.50%
d) 11.95%
523. A bank charges 12% simple interest on a P300.00 loan. How much will be repaid if
the load is paid back in one lump sum after three years?
a) P408.00
b) P551.00
c) P415.00
d) P450.00
524. The tag price of a certain commodity is for 100 days. If paid in 31 days, there is a 3%
discount. What is the simple interest paid?
a) 16.14%
b) 22.32%
c) 6.25%
d) 12.15%
525. Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly.
a) P11,040.20
b) P10,345.80
c) P13,876.50
d) P12,456.20
526. Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded semi-annually.
a) P10,955.62
b) P10,233.67
c) P9,455.67
d) P11,876.34
527. Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded monthly
a) P11,102.61
b) P15,456.75
c) P14,768.34
d) P12,867.34
528. Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded annually.
a) P10,794.62
b) P8,567.98
c) P10,987.90
d) P7,876.87
529. How long will it take P1,000 to amount to P1,346 if invested at 6% compounded
quarterly?
a) 5 years
b) 6 years
c) 4 years
d) 3 years
530. How long will it take for an investment to double its amount if invested at an interest
rate of 6% compounded bi-monthly?
a) 12 years
b) 10 years
c) 13 years
d) 14 years
531. If the compound interest on P3,000.00 in 2 years is P500.00, then the compound
interest on P3,000.00 in 4 years is:
a) P1,083.00
b) P956.00
c) P1,125.00
d) P1,526.00
532. The salary of Mr. Cruz is increased by 30% every 2 years beginning January 1,
1982. Counting from that date, at what year will his salary just exceed twice his
original salary?
a) 1988
b) 1989
c) 1990
d) 1991
533. If you borrowed P10,000.00 from a bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the
total amount to be repaid at the end of one year?
a) P11,800.00
b) P19,000.00
c) P28,000.00
d) P10,180.00
534. What is the effective rate for an interest rate of 12% compounded continuously?
a) 12.75%
b) 12.42%
c) 12.89%
d) 12.01%
535. How long will it take for an investment to fivefold its amount if money is worth 14%
compounded semi-annually?
a) 12
b) 11
c) 13
d) 14
536. An interest rate of 8% compounded semiannually is how many percent if
compounded quarterly?
a) 7.92%
b) 8.01%
c) 7.85%
d) 7.81%
537. A man is expecting to receive P450,000.00 at the end of 7 years. If money is worth
14% compounded quarterly, how much is it worth at present?
a) P171,744.44
b) P162,455.63
c) P147,456.36
d) P125,458.36
538. A man has a will of P650,000.00 from his father. If his father deposited an account of
P450,000.00 in a trust fund earning 8% compounded annually, after how many
years will the man receive his will?
a) 4.77 years
b) 4.55 years
c) 5.11 years
d) 5.33 years
539. Mr. Adam deposited P120,000.00 in a bank who offers 8% interest compounded
quarterly. If the interest is subject to a 14% tax, how much will he receive after 5
years?
a) P170,149.77
b) P175,343.77
c) P153,349.77
d) P178,313.69
540. What interest compounded monthly is equivalent to an interest rate of 14%
compounded quarterly?
a) 13.84%
b) 1.15%
c) 10.03%
d) 11.52%
541. A student has money given by his grandfather in the amount of P20,000.00. How
much money in the form of interest will he get if the money is put in a bank that
offers 8% rate compounded annually, at the end of 7 years?
a) P34,276.48
b) P34,270.00
c) P36,279.40
d) P34,266.68
542. If the interest rate on an account is 11.5% compounded yearly, approximately how
many years will it take to triple the amount?
a) 10 years
b) 11 years
c) 9 years
d) 12 years
543. The nominal interest rate is 4%. How much is my P10,000.00 worth in 10 years in a
continuously compounded account?
a) P14,918.25
b) P13,620.10
c) P13,650.20
d) P13,498.60
544. How much must be invested on January 1, year 1, in order to accumulate P2,000.00
on January 1, year 6 at 6%.
a) P1,495.00
b) P1,595.00
c) P1,695.00
d) P1,295.00
545. If P5000.00 shall accumulate for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly. Find the
compounded interest at the end of 10 years.
a) P6,040.20
b) P6,005.30
c) P6,000.00
d) P6,010.20
546. It is the practice of almost all banks in the Philippines that when they grant a loan,
the interest for one year is automatically deducted from the principal amount upon
release of money to a borrower. Let us therefore assume that you applied for a loan
with a bank and the P80,000.00 was approved at an interest rate of 14% of which
P11,200.00 was deducted and you were given a check of P68,800.00. Since you
have to pay the amount of P80,000.00 one year after, what then will be the effective
interest rate?
a) 16.28%
b) 16.20%
c) 16.30%
d) 15.90%
547. In year zero, you invest P10,000.00 in a 15% security for 5 years. During that time,
the average annual inflation is 6%. How much, in terms of year zero pesos, will be in
the account at the maturity?
a) P15,030.00
b) P15,386.00
c) P13,382.00
d) P6,653.00
548. A company invests P10,000 today to be repaid in five years in one lump sum at 12%
compounded annually. If the rate of inflation is 3% compounded annually, how much
profit in present day pesos is realized over five years?
a) P5,202.00
b) P3,202.00
c) P7,623.00
d) P5,626.00
549. Compute the effective rate for an interest rate of 16% compounded annually.
a) 16%
b) 16.64%
c) 16.98%
d) 17.03%
550. Compute the effective rate for an interest rate of 16% compounded quarterly.
a) 16.98%
b) 17.03%
c) 16.64%
d) 6%
551. Convert 12% compounded semi-annually to x% compounded quarterly.
a) 11.83%
b) 11.71%
c) 11.23%
d) 11.12%
552. Convert 12% compounded semi-annually to x% compounded monthly.
a) 11.71%
b) 11.83%
c) 11.23%
d) 11.12%
553. A bank is advertising 9.5% accounts that yield 9.84% annually. How often is the
interest compounded?
a) quarterly
b) bi-monthly
c) monthly
d) daily
554. What is the effective rate corresponding to 16% compounded daily? Take 1 year =
360 days.
a) 17.35%
b) 17.84%
c) 16.78%
d) 16.50%
555. Find the nominal rate that if converted quarterly could be used instead for 25%
compounded semi-annually?
a) 14.73%
b) 14.93%
c) 15.56%
d) 15.90%
556. It is defined as the motion of a rigid body in which a straight line passing through any
two of its particles always remains parallel to its initial position.
a) translation
b) rotation
c) plane motion
d) kinetics
557. Which of the following is not a vector quantity?
a) mass
b) torque
c) displacement
d) velocity
558. The product of force and the time during which it acts is known as:
a) impulse
b) momentum
c) work
d) impact
559. The property of the body which measures its resistance to changes in motion.
a) mass
b) weight
c) acceleration
d) rigidity
560. The study of motion without reference to the forces which causes motion is known
as:
a) kinematics
b) statics
c) dynamics
d) kinetics
561. A branch of physical science that deals with state of rest or motion of bodies under
the action of forces is known as:
a) mechanics
b) kinetics
c) kinematics
d) statics
562. In physics, work is defined in terms of the force acting through a distance. The rate
at which the work is done is called:
a) power
b) energy
c) force
d) momentum
563. The point through which the resultant of the disturbed gravity force passes
regardless of the orientation of the body in space is called:
a) center of gravity
b) center of inertia
c) center of attraction
d) moment of inertia
564. The specific gravity of the substance is the ratio of the density of the substance to
the density of water. Another term for specific gravity is:
a) relative density
b) unit weight
c) specific weight
d) density
565. Ivory soap floats in water because:
a) the specific gravity of ivory soap is less than that of water
b) the specific gravity of ivory soap is greater than that of water
c) the density of ivory soap is unity
d) all matter has mass
566. When two waves of the same frequency, speed and amplitude travelling in opposite
directions superimposed,
a) standing waves are produced
b) the phase difference is always zero
c) constructive interference always results
d) destructive interference always results
567. Any two points along a steamline in an ideal fluid in steady flow, the sum of the
pressure, the potential energy per unit volume, and the kinetic energy per unit
volume has the same value. This concept is known as the:
a) Bernoulli's energy theorem
b) Pascal's theorem
c) Fluid theory
d) Hydraulic theorem
568. Whenever a net force acts on a body, it produces an acceleration in the direction of
the resultant force, an acceleration which is directly proportional to the resultant
force and inversely proportional to the mass of the body. This theory is popularly
known as:
a) Newton's second law of motion
b) Faraday's law of forces
c) Newton's first law of motion
d) Hooke's law of equilibrium
569. Kinematic viscosity in SI derived unit is described as:
a) sq. m. per second
b) Pascal-second
c) watt per meter Kelvin
d) Newton per meter
570. One Joule of work is done by a force of one Newton acting through a distance of:
a) one meter
b) one foot
c) one inch
d) one centimeter
571. One mole of gas at standard temperature and pressure (STP) conditions occupies a
volume equal to:
a) 22.4 liters
b) 9.81 liters
c) 332 liters
d) 2274.5 liters
572. The resultant of the external force applied to an object composed of a system of
particles is equal to the vector summation of the effective forces acting on all
particles". This principle is known as:"
a) D'Alembert's principle
b) Bernoulli's principle
c) Archimedes's principle
d) Gauss-Jordan principle
573. The distance that the top surface is displaced in the direction of the force divided by
the thickness of the body is known as
a) shear strain
b) volume strain
c) linear strain
d) longitudinal strain
574. To maximize the horizontal range of the projectile, which of the following applies?
a) the tangent function of the angle of trajectory must be equal to one
b) maximize the angle of elevation and velocity
c) maximize velocity
d) maximize the angle of elevation
575. The hardness of steel may be increased by heating to approximately 1500deg F and
quenching in oil or water if
a) the carbon content is from 0.2% to 2.0%
b) the carbon content is above 3.0%
c) the carbon content is below 0.2%
d) the steel has been hot rolled instead of cast
576. Galvanized iron is a term referring to iron coated with:
a) zinc
b) aluminum
c) tin
d) magnesium
577. A process of welding metals in molten or in vaporous state without application of
mechanical pressure or blow. Such welding may be accomplished by the
oxyacetylene or by hydrogen flame or by electric arc. It is called:
a) fusion welding
b) TIG welding
c) MIG welding
d) cold welding
578. The impulse and momentum principle is mostly useful for problems involving;
a) force, velocity, and time
b) force, velocity, and acceleration
c) velocity, acceleration, and time
d) force, acceleration, and time
579. The recorded current value of an asset is known as:
a) book value
b) salvage value
c) scrap value
d) present worth
580. The ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and is
usually expressed as a percentage of the principal is known as:
a) interest rate
b) interest
c) nominal interest
d) investment
581. A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread over the
estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output is called:
a) straight line method
b) sinking fund method
c) declining balance method
d) SOYD method
582. The interest rate at which the present worth of cash flow on a project is zero, or the
interest earned by an investment.
a) rate of return
b) effective rate
c) nominal rate
d) yield
583. A circular steel plate must fit into an opening whose area is fifty square inches. Find
the diameter of the plate to two decimal places.
a) 7.98 in
b) 8.65 in
c) 6.45 in
d) 9.60 in
584. Find the constant of 81HP in a 3 inches cold rolled line shafting which transmitted
210 RMP.
a) 900
b) 600
c) 800
d) 500
585. A steel wire 10 m long, hanging vertically supports a tensile load of 1000 N.
Neglecting the weight of the wire, determine the required diameter if the elongation
is not to exceed 2.5 mm. Assume E = 200 Gpa
a) 5.046 mm
b) 3.596 mm
c) 4.297 mm
d) 6.382 mm
586. The moment of inertia of any plane figure can be expressed in units of length to the:
a) fourth power
b) third power
c) second power
d) first power
587. A plane dropped a bomb at an elevation of 1000m from the ground intending to hit a
target which elevation is 200 m from the ground. If the plane was flying at a velocity
of 300 kph, at what distance from the target must the bomb be dropped to hit the
target?
a) 1064 m
b) 1046 m
c) 1275 m
d) 1146 m
588. A projectile is launched from a level plane at 300 from the horizontal with an initial
velocity of 1500 ft/sec. What is the maximum height and maximum range the
projectile can reach?
a) 2663 m ; 18,449 m
b) 2266 m ; 18,994 m
c) 2727 m ; 18,885 m
d) 2772 m ; 18,500 m
589. A flywheel stops in 10 sec from a speed of 80 rpm. Compute the number of turns the
flywheel makes before it stops.
a) 6.65 rev
b) 6.96 rev
c) 5.56 rev
d) 6.56 rev
590. An elevator weighing 4000 lb attains an upward velocity of 20 fps in 5 sec with
uniform acceleration. What is the tension in the supporting cables?
a) 4497 lbs
b) 4749 lbs
c) 4974 lbs
d) 4947 lbs
591. A gun is fired horizontally at a 10 kg block of wood suspended at the end of a cord.
The block with the bullet embedded in it rises vertically by 10 cm. Mass of bullet is
40 grams. Find the velocity of the bullet just before it hit the block.
a) 351.4 m/s
b) 341.5 m/s
c) 354.1 m/s
d) 315.4 m/s
592. A body weighing 100 kg is hanging at the end of a rope 5 m long. What horizontal
force is needed to move the body a horizontal distance of 1m.
a) F = 20.4 kg
b) F = 21.4 kg
c) F = 22.4 kg
d) F = 24.1 kg
593. A light rail transit travels between two terminals 1 km apart in a minimum time of 1
min. If the LRT cart accelerates and decelerates at 3.4 m/s^2, starting from rest at
the first terminal and coming to stop at the second terminal, find the maximum speed
in km per hr.
a) 65.9 kph
b) 64.9 kph
c) 63.9 kph
d) 66.9 kph
594. A body weighing 2000 kg is suspended by a cable 20 meters and pulled 5 meters to
one side by a horizontal force. Find the tension in the cable.
a) 2066 kg
b) 2660 kg
c) 5166 kg
d) 3020 kg
595. A body weighing 350 kg rests on a plane inclined 30 deg with the horizontal. The
angle of static friction between the body and the plane is 15 degrees. What
horizontal force P is necessary to hold the body from sliding down the plane?
a) 93.7 kg
b) 73.9 kg
c) 97.3 kg
d) 119 kg
596. A 200 kg crate is on a 30 deg ramp. The coefficient of friction between the crate and
the ramp is 0.35. If a force is applied to the crate horizontally, calculate the force F to
start the crate moving up the ramp.
a) 232 kg
b) 38 kg
c) 244 kg
d) 223 kg
597. A steam pipe weighing 200 kg per meter will cross a road by suspension on a cable
anchored between supports 6 meters apart. The maximum allowable sag of the
cable is 50 cm, calculate the length of the cable.
a) 6.1 m
b) 9.5 m
c) 3.6 m
d) 2.5 m
598. A parabolic cable has a span of 400 feet. The difference in elevation of the supports
is 10 feet and the lowest point of the cable is 5 feet below the lower support. If the
load supported by the cable is 12 lbs per horizontal foot, find the maximum tension
in the cable.
a) 25,902 lbs
b) 27,857 lbs
c) 29,345 lbs
d) 34,876 lbs
599. A tripod whose legs are each 4 meters long supports a load of 1000 kg. The feet of
the tripod are the vertices of a horizontal equilateral triangle whose side is 3.5 m.
Determine the load on each leg.
a) 386 kg
b) 256 kg
c) 296 kg
d) 458 kg
600. Two cars A and B accelerate from a stationary start. The acceleration of A is 4
ft/sec^2 and that of B is 5 ft/sec^2. If B was originally 20 feet behind A , how long will
it take B to overtake A.
a) 6.32 sec
b) 12.5 sec
c) 10 sec
d) 18.6 sec
601. In a 25 storey office building, the elevator starting from rest at first floor, is
accelerated at 0.8 m/sec^2 for 5 seconds then continues at constant velocity for 10
seconds more and is stopped in 3 seconds with constant deceleration. If the floors
are 4 meters apart, at what floor does the elevator stop?
a) 15th floor
b) 10th floor
c) 14th floor
d) 12th floor
602. A stone is dropped from a cliff into the ocean. The sound of the impact of the stone
on the ocean surface is heard 5 seconds after it is dropped. The velocity of sound is
1100 fps. How high is the cliff?
a) 352.5 ft
b) 255.5 ft
c) 325.5 ft
d) 335.5 ft
603. Water drips from a faucet at a rate of 8 drops per second. The faucet is 18 cm above
the sink. When one drop strikes the sink, how far is the next drop above the sink?
a) 15.8 cm
b) 12.5 cm
c) 18.5 cm
d) 25.6 cm
604. A weight is dropped from a helicopter that is rising vertically with a velocity of 6
m/sec. If the weight reaches the ground in 15 seconds, how high above the ground
was the helicopter when the weight was dropped?
a) 1013 m
b) 1100 m
c) 1580 m
d) 1130 m
605. A bomber flying at a horizontal speed of 800 kph drops a bomb. If the bomb hits the
ground in 20 seconds, calculate the vertical velocity of the bomb as it hit the ground.
a) 196 m/sec
b) 169 m/sec
c) 175 m/sec
d) 260 m/sec
606. A flywheel starting from rest develops a speed of 400 rpm in 30 seconds. How many
revolutions did the flywheel make in 30 seconds it took to attain 400 rpm.
a) 100 rev
b) 150 rev
c) 120 rev
d) 360 rev
607. What drawbar pull is required to change the speed of a 120,000 lb car from 15 mph
to 30 mph on a half mile while the car is going up a 1.5% upgrade? Car resistance is
10 lb/ton.
a) 3425 lbs
b) 3542 lbs
c) 3245 lbs
d) 4325 lbs
608. A body weighing 200 kg is being dragged along a rough horizontal plane by a force
of 45 kg. If the coefficient of friction is assumed to be 1/12 and the line pull makes an
angle of 18 deg with the horizontal, what is the velocity acquired from rest in the first
3 meters.
a) 2.8 m/sec
b) 3.1 m/sec
c) 3.5 m/sec
d) 4.9 m/sec
609. A 50 kN Diesel Electric Locomotive (DEL) has its speed increased from 30 kph to
120 kph in a distance of 1 km while ascending a 3% grade. What constant trust
(drawbar pull) parallel to the surface of the railway must be exerted by the wheel?
The total frictional resistance is 30 N/kN of DEL weight.
a) 5.655 kN
b) 7.889 kN
c) 6.556 kN
d) 7.996 kN
610. Water is flowing through a cast iron pipe at the rate 3500 GPM. The inside diameter
of pipe is 6 in. Find the flow velocity?
a) 12.1 m/s
b) 32.5 m/s
c) 39.7 m/s
d) 17.84 m/s
611. Find the water pressure reading if manometer is 0.45 m Hg. Mercury is 13.6 times
heavier than water.
a) 60 kPa
b) 50 kPa
c) 70 kPa
d) 65 kPa
612. Determine the velocity of the fluid in a tank at the exit, given that surface h1 = 1m
and h2 = 100 cm
a) 4.2 m/s
b) 3.9 m/s
c) 4.8 m/s
d) 5.6 m/s
613. Water is flowing at a rate of 3500 GPM. The inside radius is 8cm and coefficient of
friction is 0.0181. What is the pressure drop over a length of 50 m?
a) 341 kPa
b) 301 kPa
c) 317 kPa
d) 386 kPa
614. The unit of kinematic viscosity in SI is described as:
a) Sq. m per sec
b) Pascal second
c) Watt per meter
d) Newton per meter
615. Which of the following is not a unit of viscosity?
a) Dyne
b) stoke
c) Poise
d) Pa-sec
616. Water is flowing in a pipe with radius of 30 cm at a velocity of 12 m/s. The density
and viscosity of water are: Density = 1000 kg/m^3 ; Viscosity = 1.12 Pa-s. What is
the Reynold?s number?
a) 6428
b) 6386
c) 4534
d) 2187
617. What is the density of a solid that weights 194 N (43.9 lbf) in air and 130 N (29.4 lbf)
in water?
a) 3031.25 kg/m^3
b) 2989.34 kg/m^3
c) 3235.96 kg/m^3
d) 3534.50 kg/m^3
618. What is the buoyant force of a body that weighs 100 kg in air and 70 kg in water?
a) 294.3 N
b) 285.6 N
c) 329.68 N
d) 234.17 N
619. A venturi meter with a 15 cm throat is installed in a 20 cm pipe which inclined
upward at an angle of 30 deg to the horizontal. If the distance between pressure
tape along the pipe is 1 m, the differential pressure is 65 kPA. What is the discharge
of water in m^3/s? Assume coefficient of 0.995.
a) 0.233 m^3/s
b) 0.536 m^3/s
c) 0.109 m^3/s
d) 0.0123 m^3/s
620. Steam with an enthalpy of 700 kcal/kg enters a nozzle and leaves with an enthalpy
of 650 kcal/kg. Find the initial velocity if steam leaves with a velocity of 700 m/s,
assuming the nozzle is horizontal and disregarding heat losses.
a) 267 m/s
b) 376 m/s
c) 296 m/s
d) 276 m/s
621. The flow of water through a cast iron pipe is 6000 GPM. The pipe is 1 1/2 ft nominal
diameter. What is the velocity of water?
a) 7.56 ft/sec
b) 8.56 ft/sec
c) 6.56 ft/sec
d) 5.56 ft/sec
622. A perfect venturi with throat diameter of 2 in is placed horizontally in a pipe with a 2
inches is placed horizontally in a pipe with a 6 inches inside diameter. What is the
difference between the pipe and venturi throat static pressure if the mass flow rate of
water is 100 lb/sec.
a) 35.8 lb/in^2
b) 37.8 lb/in^2
c) 36.8 lb/in^2
d) 38.8 lb/in^2
623. What is the origin of the energy conservation equation used in flow system?
a) First Law of Thermodynamics
b) Newton's Second Law of Motion
c) Newton's First Law of Motion
d) Second Law of Thermodynamics
624. A volume of 560 cc of air is measured at a pressure of 10 mm Hg vacuum and a
temperature of 20 degC. What will be the volume at standard pressure and 0 deg C?
a) 535.5 cc
b) 437.5 cc
c) 1071 cc
d) 6.9 cc
625. What is the specific weight of a liquid substance if it specific weight relative to water
is 8.77 and the specific weight of water is 62.4 lb per cubic foot?
a) 86.03 kN/m^3
b) 82.20 kN/m^3
c) 102.56 kN/m^3
d) 89.90 kN/m^3
626. Steam at a pressure of 12.5 MPa has a specific volume of 1160 x 10^-6 m^3 per kg
and a specific enthalpy of 2560 kJ/kg. Find the internal energy per mass of steam.
a) 2545.5 kJ per kg
b) 2574.5 kJ per kg
c) 2634.17 kJ per kg
d) 2560.50 kJ per kg
627. A heat engine (Carnot cycle) has its intake and exhaust temperature of 210 deg C
and 120 deg C respectively. What is its efficiency?
a) 18.63%
b) 16.34%
c) 34.85%
d) 42.86%
628. A pressure reading of 35 psi in kPa abs is:
a) 342.72
b) 273.4
c) 724
d) 427.3
629. What conditions exists in a adiabatic throttling process?
a) Enthalpy is constant
b) Enthalpy is variable
c) Entropy is constant
d) Volume is constant
630. The specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of:
a) water
b) air
c) gas
d) mercury
631. What do you call the weight of the column of air above the earth?s surface?
a) atmospheric pressure
b) wind pressure
c) aerostatic pressure
d) air pressure
632. Gas being heated at constant volume is undergoing the process:
a) isometric
b) adiabatic
c) isentropic
d) isobaric
633. What is the required heating energy in raising the temperature of a given amount of
water when the energy applied is 1000 kw-hr with heat losses at 25%?
a) 1333
b) 1250
c) 1500
d) 1000
634. What is the process that has no heat transfer?
a) adiabatic
b) polytropic
c) isothermal
d) reversible
635. Heat normally flowing from a high temperature body to a low temperature body
where in it is impossible to convert heat without other effects is called the:
a) Second Law of Thermodynamics
b) First Law of Thermodynamics
c) Third Law of Thermodynamics
d) Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics
636. Form of energy associated with kinetic energy of the random motion of large number
of molecules:
a) heat
b) heat of fusion
c) kinetic energy
d) internal energy
637. Steam flows into a turbine at a rate of 20 kg/s and 21 kw of heat/ are lost from the
turbine. Ignoring elevation and other energy effects, calculate the power output from
the turbine if the energy input is 2850 kJ/kg and energy output is 2410 kJ/kg.
a) 8779 kw
b) 8800 kw
c) 8821 kw
d) 8634 kw
638. What pressure of water is a column of 100 cm high equivalent to:
a) 9807 N/m^2
b) 9807 dynes/cm^2
c) 0.1 bar
d) 100 kPa
639. An engine has an efficiency of 26%. It uses 2 gallons of gasoline per hour. Gasoline
has heating value of 20,500 Btu/lb and a specific gravity of 0.80. What is the power
output of the engine?
a) 20.8 kw
b) 26.0 kw
c) 0.33 kw
d) 41.7 kw
640. A thermodynamic system which undergoes a cyclic process during a positive
amount of work done by the system:
a) heat engine
b) reversible-irreversible process
c) heat pump
d) reversed Rankine cycle
641. If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half of its original volume
and to twice its original temperature, the pressure:
a) quadruples
b) doubles
c) remains constant
d) halves
642. (u + pv) is a quantity called:
a) enthalpy
b) shaft work
c) flow energy
d) internal energy
643. What horsepower is required to isothermally compress 800 ft^3 per minute of air
from 14.7 psia to 120 psia?
a) 108 HP
b) 256 HP
c) 28 HP
d) 13,800 HP
644. A pressure of one bar is equivalent to:
a) 1,000,000 dynes/cm^2
b) 720 mm Hg
c) 14 psi
d) 110 kPa
645. A pressure reading of 4.5 kg/cm^2 is equal to:
a) 542.72 kPa
b) 582.92 kPa
c) 451.60 kPa
d) 441.40 kPa
646. A boiler installed where the atmospheric pressure is 752 mm Hg has a pressure of
12 kg/cm^2. What is the absolute pressure in MPa?
a) 1.277 MPa
b) 1.772 MPa
c) 2.177 MPa
d) 3.771 MPa
647. A pressure tank for a water pump system contains 2/3 water by volume when the
pressure is 10 kg/cm^2 gauge. What is the absolute pressure at the bottom of the
tank if the water is 2 meters depth?
a) 1102 kPa
b) 1080 kPa
c) 1201 kPa
d) 1012 kPa
648. The radiator of a heating system was filled with dry and saturated steam at 0.15
MPa after which the valves on the radiator were closed. As a result of heat transfer
to the room, the pressure drops to 0.10 MPa. What percentage of steam has
condensed?
a) 31.60%
b) 25.40%
c) 36.10%
d) 45.70%
649. A throttling calorimeter receives a sample of steam from a steam main in which the
pressure is 1 MPa. After throttling, the steam is at 100 kPa and 120 degC. What is
the quality of steam in the steam main?
a) 96.90%
b) 95.50%
c) 99.60%
d) 92.40%
650. Steam at 2.5 MPa and 320 degC expands through a nozzle to 1.5 MPa at the rate of
10,000 kg/hr. If the process occurs isentropically and the initial velocity is low,
calculate the exit area of the nozzle.
a) 853 x 10^-6 m^2
b) 358 x 10^-6 m^2
c) 835 x 10^-6 m^2
d) 583 x 10^-6 m^2
651. Water at a pressure of 10 MPa and the temperature of 230 degC is throttled to a
pressure of 1 MPa in an adiabatic process. What is the quality after throttling?
a) 11.30%
b) 12.50%
c) 14.50%
d) 19.30%
652. At the suction of an air compressor, in which the conditions are 97.9 kPa and 27
degC, the air flow rate is 10.3 m^3/min. What is the volume flow rate at the free air
conditions of 100 kPa and 20 degC?
a) 9.848 m^3/min
b) 6.590 m^3/min
c) 7.635 m^3/min
d) 3.568 m^3/min
653. Steam at 5 MPa and 3500C enters a turbine and expands isentropically to 0.01
MPa. If the steam flow rate is 100,000 kg/hr, determine the turbine power.
a) 28.5 kw
b) 22.5 kw
c) 25.8 kw
d) 33.8 kw
654. The temperature at which mercury starts to freeze is 35 deg C. What is the
temperature in degrees Fahreheit at which a mercury cannot be used?
a) -31 deg F
b) 67 deg F
c) -35 deg F
d) -5.4 deg F
655. A piece of stone weighs 0.05 pounds. When it is submerged in a graduated cylinder
containing 50 ml of H2O, the level rose to 60 ml. What is the density of the stone in
g/ml?
a) 2.27
b) 2.72
c) 7.22
d) 7.27
656. A swimming pool 25m wide, 100m long and 3m deep is filled with water up to a
height of 2m. How many kilograms of water have been placed inside the pool? (The
density of water is 100 kg/m3.)
a) 5 million
b) 7.5 million
c) 10 million
d) 12.5 million
657. Which of the following is not an example a compound?
a) ash
b) sugar
c) salt
d) water
658. If two pure substances have different melting points, then
a) the two samples are certainly different pure substances
b) the two substances will surely have different densities
c) the two substances are certain to have identical chemical formulas
d) the two substances are certain to be compounds and not elements
659. Which of the following is a compound?
a) water
b) wine
c) soil
d) mercury
660. Which of the following processes is an example of a chemical change?
a) rusting of iron
b) evaporation of seawater to form salt
c) melting of an ice cube
d) filtering of paper pulp from a liquid slurry using a sleve tray
661. We know that air is a Homogeneous mixture and not a compound because
a) its composition can vary
b) it has no definite shape
c) it has no definite volume
d) it can be compressed
662. What do you call a substance that is composed of two or more elements bounded
chemically?
a) a compound
b) an isotope
c) an element
d) a mixture
663. Which of the following examples is a physical change?
a) crystallization of sugar from sugar can juice
b) fermenting of ethanol to form wine
c) burning of a piece of candle
d) clotting of blood
664. Which of the following cannot be further decomposed by ordinary chemical means?
a) silver
b) water
c) sugar
d) air
665. Which of the following is not a manifestation of a chemical change?
a) separation of the molecules in a mixture
b) reaction of a compound and an element to form a new compound and an
element
c) breaking down of compound into elements
d) combining of atoms of elements to form a molecule
666. What do you call a nuclear reaction resulting from the interaction of two nuclei to
form a bigger nucleus and an accompanying release of energy?
a) nuclear fusion
b) nuclear fission
c) alpha emission
d) natural radioactive decay
667. Which of the following materials cannot be subjected to carbon dating to determine
age?
a) a sword
b) a trunk of wood
c) a smear of blood on a piece of cloth
d) an ancient Egyptian scroll
668. What law states that the pressure of a gas is directly proportional to its absolute
temperature at constant volume?
a) Gay-Lussac's Law
b) Charles' law
c) Boyle's Law
d) Dalton's Law
669. To what conditions does a gas behave like an ideal gas?
a) high temperature and low pressure
b) low temperature and low pressure
c) low temperature and high pressure
d) high temperature and high pressure
670. What Law states that the pressure of gas is inversely proportional to its volume at
constant temperature?
a) Boyle's Law
b) Charles' law
c) Gay-Lussac's Law
d) Dalton's Law
671. Which of the following best describes heat?
a) An energy transfer due to temperature difference
b) The capacity to do work
c) Forces times distances
d) Sum of thermal and chemical energy
672. What happens to water when it begins to vaporize?
a) no change in temperature
b) it increases in temperature
c) it decreases in temperature
d) no change in thermal energy
673. Burning of Gasoline initially requires heat before it burns spontaneously. Which of
the following does not give a good explanation of this phenomenon?
a) the enthalpy of reactants is lower than the enthalpy of products.
b) the initial heat rises the enthalpy of the reactant
c) the initial heat lowers the activation of energy of the reactants
d) The enthalpy of the product is lower than the enthalpy of the reactant
674. Which of the following is an endothermic process?
a) melting of ice
b) burning of paper
c) neutralization of a strong acid and a strong base
d) violent reaction of sodium metal with water
675. Which of the following events is heat exchange involved?
a) when the gas expands adiabatically
b) when there is a phase change
c) when there is a chemical reaction
d) when there is difference in temperature
676. Who first predicted the wave-particle dual property of electrons?
a) De Broglie
b) Hund
c) Heisenberg
d) Schrodinger
677. Who postulated the wave equation that describes the properties of electrons in an
atom?
a) Schrodinger
b) Bohr
c) Heisenberg
d) Pauli
678. Atoms of nonmetals generally reacts with a toms of metals by
a) gaining electrons to form ionic compounds
b) gaining electrons to form covalent compounds
c) sharing electrons to form ionic compounds
d) sharing electrons to form covalent compounds.
679. The addition of a nonvolatile solute to a solvent will cause
a) the vapor pressure of the solvent to decrease
b) the vapor pressure of the solvent to increase
c) the vapor pressure of the solvent to remain unchanged
d) the vapor pressure of the solute to remain unchanged
680. Which of the following factors does not affect the rate of reaction?
a) the number of products formed
b) the nature of reactants
c) temperature
d) concentration of reactants
681. Which of the following statements about the catalyst is not true?
a) they may become new substances after the reaction
b) they may slow down the reaction
c) they may speed up the reaction
d) they are present in living substances
682. Which of the following statements about equilibrium is TRUE?
a) it exists between a liquid and its vapor in a closed system at uniform temperature
b) it exists in a closed system at varying temperature
c) it exists in an open system
d) it may exist between a solid and a liquid.
683. According to the Bronsted-Lowry theory, an acid is
a) a proton donor
b) a proton acceptor
c) a proton donor and a proton acceptor
d) neither a proton donor nor a proton acceptor
684. Which is not true of bases?
a) they always contain OH ions
b) they neutralize acid
c) the PH of their solution is greater than 7
d) they react with H3O ions
685. Organic Chemistry is the chemistry of compounds containing the element
a) carbon
b) hydrogen
c) oxygen
d) nitrogen
686. What is the mass in grams of 1 liter of carbon monoxide (CO), at standard
temperature and pressure (STP)? Note: the molecular weight (MW) of CO is
28g/mole, and at STP, ! mole of any gas occupies a volume of 22.4 liters.
a) 1.25
b) 1.2
c) 1.35
d) 1.45
687. Two thirds of the atom in a molecule of water is Hydrogen. What Percentage weight
of a water molecule if the weight of two hydrogen atoms? The atomic weight of
hydrogen is 1.008 g/mol and oxygen is 16.00 g/mole.
a) 11.19
b) 19.12
c) 19.11
d) 12.19
688. How many protons (P) and neutrons are there in the nucleus are present in a Pb
nucleus of atomic mass of 206?
a) P = 82. N = 124
b) P = 92, N = 156
c) P = 85, N = 160
d) P = 90. N = 150
689. A 0.064 kg of octane vapor (MW = 114) is mixed with 0.91 kg of air (MW = 29.0) in
the manifold of an Engine. The total pressure in the manifold is 86.1 kPa, and a
temperature is 290 K. assume octane behaves ideally. What is the partial pressure
of the air in the mixture in KPa?
a) 84.6
b) 46.8
c) 48.6
d) 64.8
690. Hydrogen Peroxide solution for hair bleaching is usually prepared mixing 5 grams of
hydrogen peroxide (H202). Molecular weight = 34g/ mole) per 100 ml solution. What
is the molarity of this solution?
a) 1.5 M
b) 1.0 M
c) 1.95 M
d) 1.8 M
691. A cylinder contains oxygen at a pressure of 10 atm and a temperature of 300 K. The
volume of the cylinder is 10 liters. What is the mass of the oxygen in grams?
Molecular weight (MW) of oxygen is 32g/mole?
a) 130.08
b) 125.02
c) 135.05
d) 120.04
692. What is equivalent weight of Sulfuric Acid?
a) 49
b) 98
c) 23
d) 100
693. What type of bond results in form the sharing of electrons by two atoms?
a) covalent bond
b) atomic bond
c) metallic bond
d) ionic bond
694. What do you call a substance that disassociates in solutions to produce positive and
negative ions?
a) electrolyte
b) base
c) acid
d) solute
695. During the complete or partial neutralization of acids. What is the ionic compound
formed?
a) salt
b) sugar
c) potassium
d) sulfur
696. Which of the following are found in the nucleus of an atom?
a) protons and neutrons
b) electrons and protons
c) electrons and neutrons
d) electrons, protons and neutrons
697. Which of the following elements and compounds is unstable in its pure form?
a) Sodium
b) Helium
c) Neon
d) Carbon Dioxide
698. What refers to the negatively charge component of an atom?
a) electron
b) proton
c) neutron
d) ion
699. What element is known as the lightest metal?
a) Lithium
b) Aluminum
c) Manganese
d) Magnesium
700. Halogens fall under what group in the periodic table?
a) group VIIA
b) group VIA
c) group VA
d) group IVA
701. Which of the following is added to the drinking water distribution system for
disinfection?
a) Chlorine
b) Soda Ash
c) Lime
d) Iodine
702. What refers to the number of gram equivalent weights of solute per liter of solution?
a) normality
b) molarity
c) molality
d) formality
703. It is the attraction between like molecules
a) cohesion
b) absorption
c) diffusion
d) adhesion
704. What do you call a substance that cannot be decomposed any further by a chemical
reaction?
a) element
b) ion
c) molecule
d) atom
705. Which of the following is the strongest type of bonds?
a) Covalent
b) Van de Waals
c) Metallic
706. Ionic How are materials containing atoms with less than valence electrons
classified?
a) A conductor
b) An insulator
c) A semi conductor
d) A compound
707. Which of the following has the characteristics of both metals and non-metals?
a) metalloids
b) conductors
c) insulators
d) meteors
708. How are elements numbered 58 to 71 in the periodic table called?
a) Lanthanons
b) Actinons
c) Earth metals
d) Noble gas
709. What type of bonding in which electrostatic attraction is predominant?
a) Ionic bonding
b) Metallic bonding
c) Covalent bonding
d) Van der Waals bonding
710. What term refers to the passage of an electric current by way of an oxidation-
reduction reaction?
a) electrolysis
b) electrochemical action
c) electrolyte
d) piezoelectric effect
711. When all atoms of a molecule are the same, the substance is called
a) A compound
b) A chemical
c) An element
d) An ion
712. Which of the following refers to the measure of the amount of negative ions in the
water?
a) alkalinity
b) acidity
c) turbidity
d) molarity
713. What is the maximum number of electrons that can be accommodated in the
valence shell of an atom?
a) 8
b) 6
c) 10
d) 12
714. Which component of an atom has no electric charge?
a) neutron
b) proton
c) coulomb
d) electron
715. What is formed when acids will react with active metals?
a) hydrogen
b) sulfur
c) oxygen
d) chloride
716. How much is the pH content of an acid?
a) Between 0 and 7
b) Between 4 and 6
c) Between 2 and 7
d) Between 1 and 5
717. The term used to express the series of uniform payments occurring at equal interval
of time is;
a) annuity
b) compound interest
c) perpetuity
d) depreciation
718. The profit derived from a project or business enterprise without consideration og
obligations to financial contributors and claims of others based on profit is known as;
a) economic return
b) yield
c) earning value
d) expected yield
719. As applied to capitalized asset, the distribution of the initial cost by periodic changes
to operation as in depreciation or the reduction of the depth by either periodic or
irregular prearranged program is called
a) amortization
b) annuity
c) depreciation
d) capital recovery
720. Those funds that are required to make the enterprise or project going conc
a) working capital
b) banking
c) accumulated amount
d) principal or present worth
721. These are product or services that are desired by humans and will be purchased if
money is available after the required necessities have been obtained
a) luxuries
b) utilities
c) necessities
d) producer good and services
722. These are product or services that are required to support human life and activities,
that will be purchased in some what the same quantity even thought the price varies
considerably.
a) necessities
b) utilities
c) luxuries
d) producers goods and services
723. A condition where only a few individuals produce a certain product and that any
action of one will lead to almost the same action of the others.
a) oligopoly
b) semi-monopoly
c) monopoly
d) perfect competition
724. This occurs in a situation where a commodity or service is supplied by a number of
vendors and there is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market.
a) perfect competition
b) monopoly
c) oligopoly
d) elastic demand
725. It is the amount that a willing buyer will pay to a willing seller for a property where
each has equal advantage and is under no compulsion to buy or sell.
a) market value
b) fair value
c) use value
d) book value
726. It is defined to be the capacity of a commodity to satisfy human want.
a) utility
b) discount
c) luxuries
d) necessity
727. A form a summary of assets, liabilities and net worth;
a) balance sheet
b) balance method
c) break-even point
d) production
728. The worth of a property, which is equal to the original cost less depreciation, is
known as;
a) book value
b) earning value
c) scrap value
d) face value
729. When using net present worth calculation to compare two projects, which of the
following could invalidated the calculations?
a) evaluation over different periods
b) mutually exclusive projects
c) non-conventional cash flows
d) difference in the magnitude of the projects
730. What must two investments with the same present worth and unequal lives have?
a) identical equivalent uniform annual cash flows
b) identical salvage value
c) different salvage value
d) different equivalent annual cash flows
731. The amount received from the sale of an additional unit of a product is termed as:
a) marginal revenue
b) marginal cost
c) marginal utility
d) marginal unit
732. An accounting book where the original record of all transaction is ordinarily recorded.
a) journal
b) credit entry
c) debit entry
d) transaction record
733. An interest-earning fund in which equal deposits are made at equal intervals of time
for the purpose of gradually accumulating a specific sum of money required at some
future date.
a) sinking fund
b) amortization
c) annuity
d) capitalized cost
734. What is work-in-process classified as?
a) an asset
b) liability
c) an expense
d) owner's equity
735. The decrease in value of a physical property due to the passage of time;
a) depreciation
b) inflation
c) depletion
d) recession
736. We may classify an interest rate, which specifies the actual rate an interest on the
principal for one year as:
a) Effective rate
b) Nominal rate
c) Rate of return
d) Exact interest rate
737. This law states that 'When the use of one of the factors of production is limited,
either in increasing cost or by absolute quantity, a point will be reached beyond
which an increase in the variable factors will result in less than proportionate
increase in output.'
a) Law of diminishing Utility
b) Law of Supply and Demand
c) Law of Diminishing Return
d) Law of Gravity
738. The difference between the present worth and the worth at some future time is:
a) Discount
b) Profit
c) Credit
d) Debit
739. The act of charging two or more buyers or sellers different prices for the same
product where the elasticities of supply or demand at each price level differ among
market is known as:
a) Price discrimination
b) Price optimization
c) Price manipulation
d) Price war
740. A formal organization of producers within an industry forming a perfect collision
purposely formed to increase profit and block newcomers from the industry, is
termed as;
a) Cartel
b) Oligopoly
c) Monopoly
d) Corporation
741. A situation in which rival firms drive prices down through attempts to undercut each
other's price is called;
a) Price war
b) Price discrimination price
c) Price Leadership
d) Oligopolistic monopoly
742. The price that the quantity per unit time that the buyers want to buy is just equal to
the quantity the sellers want to sell is called;
a) Equilibrium price
b) Break-even price
c) Minimum price
d) Maximum price
743. The length of time during which a property is capable of performing the function for
which it was designed and manufactured is termed as;
a) Physical life
b) economic life
c) Life span
d) Eternal life
744. It is a distinct legal entity, separate from individuals who own it and which can
engage in pratically any business transaction which real person can do.
a) Partnership
b) Single proprietorship
c) Eternal Life
d) Physical life
745. A market whereby there is only one buyer of an item for which there are no goods
substitute.
a) Monopsony
b) Monopoly
c) Oligopoly
d) Oligopsony
746. This form of business ownership is a legal entity possessing many of the legal
powers of individuals. It can hold title to property, sue and be sued in its own name.
It is called:
a) corporation
b) company
c) general partnership
d) individual proprietorship
747. The balance sheet is a statement showing the financial status of the company at any
given time. Which of the statements is not a part of the balance sheet.
a) cost of goods sold
b) liabilities
c) assets
d) net worth
748. Refers to cost of merchandise which excludes freight and insurance cost;
a) book value
b) freight-on-board
c) sunk cost
d) debentures
749. A fund into which annual deposits of A are made in order to accumulate fund F at n
years in the future.
a) Sinking fund
b) Amortization
c) Annuity
d) Depreciation
750. Cash money credit necessary to establish and operate an enterprise.
a) capital
b) funds
c) liabilities
d) assets
751. the worth of property which is equal to the original cost less depreciation;
a) book value
b) scrap value
c) earning value
d) face value
752. Intangible assets of a corporation or company
a) patents
b) dacion-en-pago
c) investment
d) equity
753. additional information to prospective bidders on contract documents issued to
bidding date;
a) bid bulletin
b) escalatory clause
c) delicts
d) technological assessments
754. A civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person or his
property or reputation;
a) tort
b) negligence
c) material breach
d) fraud
755. What is an annuity?
a) A series of equal payments at equal time periods.
b) The cost of manufacturing a product
c) An investment that yields an equal amount of interest each year
d) The overhead cost per unit of production
756. Consist of the actual counting or determination of the actual quantity of the materials
on hands as of a given date;
a) Physical inventory
b) Technological assessment
c) Material update
d) Material count
757. An artificial expense that spreads the purchase price of an assets or other property
over a number of years
a) Depreciation amnesty
b) Sinking fund
c) Bond
d) Material Count
758. estimated value at the end of the useful life;
a) salvage value
b) economic life
c) balance sheet
d) compounded annually
759. The recorded current value of an asset is known as :
a) book value
b) scrap value
c) salvage value
d) present worth
760. The ratio of the interest payment to the principal for a given unit of time and is
usually expressed as percentage of the principal is known as:
a) interest rate
b) investment
c) nominal interest
d) interest
761. A method of depreciation whereby the amount to recover is spread over the
estimated life of the asset in terms of the periods or units of output is called
a) Straight line method
b) SOYD method
c) Declining balance method
d) Sinking fund method
762. The interest rate at which the present worth of cash flow of a project is zero, or the
interest earned by an investment.
a) Rate of return
b) Effective rate
c) Nominal rate
d) Yield
763. The interest earned by the principal competed at the end of the investment period, it
varies directly with time.
a) Simple interest
b) Compound interest
c) Annuity
d) Perpetuity
764. The interest is completed every end of each interest period and the interest earned
for the period is added to the principal.
a) Compound interest
b) Simple interest
c) Annuity
d) Perpetuity
765. It is rate quoted in describing a given variety of compound interest
a) nominal rate
b) effective rate
c) simple rate
d) compound rate
766. It is the actual interest earned in one year period.
a) Effective rate
b) Nominal rate
c) Simple rate
d) Compound rate
767. a series of uniform payments made at equal intervals of time .
a) annuity
b) perpetuity
c) interest
d) rate
768. An annuity where the payments periods extend forever or the periodic payments
continue indefinitely.
a) Perpetuity
b) Interest
c) Rate
d) Annuity
769. The payment is made at the end of each perio starting from the first period.
a) Ordinary annuity
b) Deferred annuity
c) Annuity due
d) Perpetuity
770. The first payment is deferred a certain number of periods after the first.
a) Deffered annuity
b) Ordinary annuity
c) Annuity due
d) Perpetuity
771. It is an application of perpetuity.
a) Capitalized cost
b) Machine cost
c) Manpower cost
d) Equipment cost
772. The most common method used in computing depreciation;
a) Straight line depreciation
b) Sinking fund method
c) Sum of the years digit method
d) Declining balance method
773. The depreciation charge in this method is assumed to vary directly to the number of
years and inversely to the sum of the year's digit.
a) Sum of the year's digit method
b) Straight line depreciation
c) Sinking fund method
774. It is invested yearly at a rate of I to amount to (FC - SV) at the end of the life to the
property.
a) Sinking fund method
b) Straight line depreciation
c) Sum of the years digit method
775. A written contract to pay a certain redemption value on a specified redemption date
and to pay equal dividends periodically
a) Bond
b) Capital
c) Interest
d) Annuity
776. A method of determining when cost exactly equal to revenue.
a) Break-even method
b) Experimental method
c) Break-add method
d) None of the above
777. Find the interest on P6,800.00 for 3 years at 11% simple interest.
a) P 2,244.00
b) P 1,875.00
c) P 1,987.00
d) P 2,144.00
778. A man borrowed P10,000.00 from his friend and agrees to pay at the end of 90 days
under 8% simple interest rate. What is the required amount?
a) P 10,200.00
b) P 11,500.00
c) P 9,500.00
d) P 10,700.00
779. Annie buys a television set from a merchant who offers P25,000.00 at the end of 60
days. Annie wished to pay immediately and the merchant offers to compute the
required amount on the assumption that the money is worth 14% simple interest.
What is the required amount?
a) P 24,429.97
b) P 20,234.87
c) P 19,222.67
d) P 28,456.23
780. What is the principal amount if trhe amount of interes at the end of 21/2 year is
P4,500.00 for a simple interest of 6% per annum?
a) P 30,000.00
b) P 35,000.00
c) P 40,000.00
d) P 45,000.00
781. How long must a P40,000 note bearing 4% simple interest run to amount to
P41,350.00?
a) 304 days
b) 340 days
c) 403 days
d) 430 days
782. A man lends P6,000 at 6% simple interest for 4 years. At the end of this time he
invest the entire amount (principal plus interest) at 5% compounded annually for 12
years. How much will he have at the end of the 16-year period.?
P 13,361.20
a) P 13,633.20
b) P 13,333.20
c) P 16,323.20
783. 78, A time deposit of P110,000 for 31 days earns P890.39 on maturity date after
deducting the 20% withholding tax on interest income. Find interest per annum.
a) 11.75%
b) 12.50%
c) 11.95%
d) 12.25%
784. A bank charges 12% simple interest on a P300.00 loan. How much will be repaid if
the loan is paid back in one lump sum after three years.
a) P 408.00
b) P 551.00
c) P 415.00
d) P 450.00
785. A tag price of a certain commodity is for 100 days. If paid in 31 days, there is 3%
discount. What is the simple interest paid.?
a) 16.14%
b) 12.50%
c) 6.25%
d) 22.32%
786. Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded quarterly.
a) P 11,040.20
b) P 12,456.20
c) P 13,876.50
d) P 10,345.80
787. Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded semi-annually.
a) P 10,955.61
b) P 10,233.67
c) P 9,455.67
d) P 11,876.34
788. Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded monthly
a) P 11,102.61
b) P 15,456.75
c) P 10,955.61
d) P 10,955.61
789. Accumulate P5,000.00 for 10 years at 8% compounded annually.
a) P 10,794.62
b) P 8,567.97
c) P 10,987.90
d) P 7,876.87
790. How long it will take P1,000 to amount to P1,346 if invested at 6% compounded
quarterly.
a) 5 years
b) 3 years
c) 4 years
d) 6 years
791. How long will it take for an investment to double its amount if invested at an interest
rate of 6% compounded bi-monthly
a) 12 years
b) 10 years
c) 13 years
d) 14 years
792. If the compound interest on P3,000.00 in years is P500.00 then the compound
interest on P3,000.00 in 4 years is:
a) P 1,083.00
b) P 956.00
c) P 1,125.00
d) P 1,526.00
793. The salary of Mr. Cruz is increased by 30% every 2 years beginning January 1,
1982. Counting from that date, at what year will his salary just exceed twice his
original salary?
a) 1988
b) 1989
c) 1990
d) 1991
794. If you borrowed P10,000 from the bank with 18% interest per annum, what is the
total amount to be repaid at the end of one year.
a) P 11,800.00
b) P 19,000.00
c) P 28,000.00
d) P 10,180.00
795. What is the effective rate for an inteerest rate at 12% compounded continously?
a) 12.75%
b) 12.01%
c) 12.89%
d) 12.42%
796. How long it will take for an investment to fivefold its amount if money is worth 14%
compounded semiannually.
a) 12
b) 11
c) 13
d) 14
797. An interest of 8% compounded semiannually is how many percent if compounded
quarterly?
a) 7.92%
b) 7.81%
c) 7.85%
d) 8.01%
798. A man is expecting to receive P450,000.00 at the end of 7 years. If money is
worth14% compounded quarterly how much is it worth at present?
a) P 171,744.44
b) P 125,458.36
c) P 147,456.36
d) P 162,455.63
799. A man has a will of P650,000.00 from his father. If his father deposited an amount of
P450,000 in a trust fund earning 8% compounded annually, after how many years
will the man receive his will?
a) 4.77 years
b) 4.55 years
c) 5.11 years
d) 5.33 years
800. Mr. Adam deposited P120,000.00 in a bank who offers 8% interest compounded
quarterly. If the interest is subject to a 14% tax, how much will he receive after 5
years?
a) P 170,149.77
b) P 178,313.69
c) P 153,349.77
d) P 175,343.77
801. What interest compounded monthly is equivalent to an interest rate of 14%
compounded quarterly
a) 13.84%
b) 1.15%
c) 10.03%
d) 11.52%
802. What is the worth of two P100,000 payments at the end of the third and the fourth
year? The annual interest rate is 8%.
a) P 152.87
b) P 112.34
c) P 187.98
d) P 176.67
803. A firm borrows P2,000.00 for 6 years at 8%. At the end of 6 years, it renews the loan
for the amount due plus P2,000 more for 2 years at 8%. What is the lump sum due.
a) P 6,034.66
b) P 5,679.67
c) P 6,789.98
d) P 5,888.77
804. At an annual rate of return of 8%, what is the future worth of P1,000 at the end of 4
years?
a) P 1,360.50
b) P 1,388.90
c) P 1,234.56
d) P 1,765.56
805. A student has money given by his grandfather in the amount of P20,000.00. How
much money in the form of interest will he get if the money is put in a bank that
offers 8% rate compounded annually at the end of 7 years?
a) P 34,276.48
b) P 34,270.00
c) P 36,276.40
d) P 34,266.68
806. The rendition of service by a duly licensed professional by virtue of his technical
education, training, experience and competence.
a) Professional practice
b) Professional service
c) Legal practice and service
d) Professional consultation
807. A code is defined as:
a) an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony
b) a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules
c) a system of non-statutory, non- mandatory rules on personal conduct
d) a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation
808. A rule is defined as:
a) a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation
b) a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules
c) a system of non-statutory, non- mandatory rules on personal conduct
d) an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony
809. A canon is defined as:
a) a fundamental belief that usually encompasses several rules
b) a system of non-statutory, non- mandatory rules on personal conduct
c) an oath taken by an individual in a ceremony
d) a guide for conduct and action in a certain situation
810. Refers to a statement or an oath, often religious in nature, agreed by an individual in
ceremonies.
a) creed
b) canon
c) code
d) rule
811. The tort law is concerned with
a) compensation for injury
b) imprisonment
c) fine
d) punishment
812. A civil wrong committed by one person causing damage to another person of his
property, emotional well-being, or reputation.
a) tort
b) consequential damage
c) fraud
d) punitive damage
813. The condition in a contract between two parties, that only the parties to a contract
may sue under it and that any third party names in that contract or who benefit from
that contract cannot sue or be sued under that contract.
a) privity of contract
b) doctrine of contract
c) party policy of contract
d) equity of contract
814. A non-performance that results in the injured party receiving something substantially
less than or different from what the contract is intended.
a) material breach
b) willful breach
c) unintentional breach
d) intentional breach
815. Another term for 'punitive damages'.
a) exemplary damages
b) liquidated damages
c) compensatory damages
d) nominal damages
816. One possible cause for an abrupt frequency variation in one self-excited transmitter
oscillator circuit resulting to poor frequency stability to hold a constant oscillation.
a) poor soldered connection
b) heating of capacitor in an oscillator
c) DC and RF AC heating of resistors which cause change in values
d) Aging, which causes change in the condition of the characteristics of parts
817. A device that diverts high transient voltage to the ground and away from the
equipment being protected.
a) arrester
b) alpeth
c) anchor
d) alarm
818. The maximum number of lines for any building other than a one- or two-storey
residential building to be required a service entrance facility under the ECE building
code.
a) three lines
b) two lines
c) five lines
d) not required
819. Refers to the terminal where riser cable pairs are terminated to serve a portion or an
entire floor of a building.
a) Riser Terminal
b) Floor Terminal distribution area
c) Raceway terminal
d) Floor distribution terminal
820. Part of the housing system in the ECE code that is a circular opening through the
floor structure to allow the passage of a cable or wire.
a) Sleeve
b) Insert
c) Raceway
d) Slot
821. In cable facilities for a building communications service, this is referred to as the
physical cable within a building or series of buildings which may include both main
cable pairs and house cable pairs but not station wiring cable.
a) building cable
b) entrance cable
c) floor distribution cable
d) house cable
822. A telephone company's cable entering a building from telephone cable feeder to the
main, cross-connecting a point within the building.
a) Entrance cable
b) Telephone cable
c) Connecting cable
d) Building cable
823. This is a non-combustible tubing which encases the riser cable between an enclosed
type metallic terminal cabinets or boxes.
a) Riser conduit
b) Raceway
c) Riser shaft
d) Entrance cable
824. A series of closets connected by slots or short conduit sleeves between floors or
open shaft of the building.
a) Riser shaft
b) Service fitting
c) Raceway
d) Riser conduit
825. This is referred to as a linkage by wire, radio, satellite, or other means, of two or
more telecommunications carrier or operators with one another for the purpose of
allowing or enabling the subscriber of one carrier or operator to access or reach the
subscribers of other carriers or operators.
a) interconnection
b) toll patching
c) gateway
d) outside plant sharing
826. One of the major components required under the global maritime distress and safety
system is the:
a) provision of Radiotelegraph Operator
b) provision of Morse Code
c) provision of facsimile
d) provision of radio personnel
827. Which one of the following is NOT the major components required on board ship
under the global maritime distress and safety system?
a) Radio operator telegraphy onboard
b) On board radio facilities
c) Shore base facilities
d) Radio personnel onboard
828. At what position does a maritime ship main antenna have, when it is open circuited
and that auxiliary antenna is/are connected to the main receiver?
a) Direction finder
b) AA
c) Emergency transmitter
d) Ground
829. What position of maritime ship main antenna have, when the radio watch is secured
or when the ship is in electrical storm?
a) Grounded
b) AA
c) Main transmitter
d) HF
830. What are the two legislative functions of the International Telecommunications Union
in its international conference issues on orbital resources?
a) Allocates frequency bands for the services and determine the principle of
distribution of the orbit/spectrum resources distribution and assignment of
frequencies
b) Assign frequencies and organized conferences
c) Determine principles of spectrum distribution and assignment of frequencies
d) Conduct conferences and allocation of orbital slots
831. A person or entity intending to register as VoIP service provider is required to post a
performance bond of .
a) 5 million
b) 1 million
c) 3 million
d) 10 million
832. One of the mnemonic management tool used is the SMEAC. What does the
acronym SMEAC stands for?
a) Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
b) Situation, Mission, Execution, Administration, Coordination
c) Situation, Mission, Execution, Application, Communication
d) Strategy, Mission, Execution, Administration, Communication
833. In the management tool, SMEAC, where A stands for administration, which question
is appropriate for the to manager ask?
a) What do we need to get it done?
b) What are we aiming to do?
c) How are we going to do it?
d) What is the operation environment?
834. In project management, what is usually the first step underlying in the process of
performing a project?
a) Identify a need for a product or service.
b) Select appropriate performance measures.
c) Define the goals of the project and their relative importance.
d) Develop a technological concept.
835. In the process of performing a project, after the need for a product or service is
identified, what is usually the next step?
a) Define the goals of the project and relative importance.
b) Develop a budget.
c) Develop schedule.
d) Develop the technological concept.
836. What is usually the last step in the process of performing a project?
a) Evaluate project success.
b) Select appropriate performance measures
c) Implement the plan
d) Monitor and control the project.
837. To consider the consequence of uncertainty on project management, laws on project
management are developed. One of which is 'A careless planned project will take
times longer to complete than expected'.
a) Three
b) Four
c) Two
d) Two and a half
838. In the typical functional organization hierarchy, the chief engineer is under the
a) general manager
b) finance manager
c) manufacturing manager
d) marketing manager
839. A diagram of the organization's official positions and formal lines of authority.
a) Organizational chart
b) Authority chart
c) Policy chart
d) Control chart
840. What is defined as the process of identifying and choosing alternative courses of
action in a manner appropriate to the demands of the situations?
a) Decision-Making
b) Sampling Theory
c) Alternative Analysis
d) Problem-solving
841. What refers to the activity of incorporating the technical know how with the ability to
organize and coordinate workforce, materials, equipment and all other resources
including money?
a) Engineering Management
b) Engineering Technology
c) Technical Management
d) General Management
842. In a telephone switchboard, 100 pairs of cable can be made of either enameled wire
or tinned wire. There will be 400 soldered connections. The cost of soldering a
connection on the enameled wire will be P 1.65, while on the tinned wire, it will be
P1.15. A 100-pair cable made of enameled wire costs P 0.55 per linear foot and the
one that is made of tinned wire costs P 0.75 per linear foot. Determine the length of
the cable run, in feet, so that the cost of each installation would be the same.
a) 1,000 ft
b) 1,040 ft
c) 1,100 ft
d) 1,120 ft
843. A leading shoe manufacturer produces a pair of Lebron James signature shoes at a
labor cost of P 900.00 a pair, at a material cost of P 800.00 a pair. The fixed charge
on the business is P 5,000,000.00 a month and the variable cost is P 400.00 a pair.
Royalty to Lebron James is P 1,000.00 per pair of shoes sold. If the shoes sell at P
5,000.00 a pair, how many pairs must be produced each month for the manufacturer
to break-even?
a) 2,632
b) 2,590
c) 2,712
d) 2,890
844. Felicito wishes to bequeath to his son, Rey, the amount of P20,000 10 years from
now. What amount should he invest now if it will earn interest of 8% compounded
annually during the first 5 years and 12% compounded quarterly during the next 5
years.
a) 7,536.45
b) 7,635.45
c) 7,653.45
d) 7,365.45
845. Efren deposits P10,000 in a fund for his son when he starts college to provide him
with a fixed income at the end of each month during his 5 years studying an
engineering course. Find the monthly income of the boy if the money is invested at
12% compounded monthly.
a) P222.44
b) P224.24
c) P242.42
d) P422.22
846. Alfredo has a debt of P50,000. It is to be amortized by means of 20 uniform quarterly
payments with an interest of 8% compounded quarterly. Determine periodic payment
if first payment is made 15 months after loan is granted.
a) 3,309.90
b) 3,093.90
c) 3,903.30
d) 3,930.30
847. The product of mass and its velocity.
a) Momentum
b) Impulse
c) Power
d) Energy
848. Internal force that acts against distortion.
a) Strain
b) Stress
c) Shear
d) Elasticity
849. The capacity to satisfy human wants.
a) Utility
b) Luxuries
c) Discount
d) Necessity
850. What is the effective rate corresponding to 16% compounded daily if one year is
considered at 360 days?
a) 17.35%
b) 17.84%
c) 16.78%
d) 13.75%
851. It is a measure of the resistance that a body's mass and distribution of its mass
about the axis of rotation. This property is known as .
a) Moment of inertia
b) Friction
c) Torsion
d) Angular acceleration
852. A man in a hot-air balloon drops an apple at a height of 150 meters. If the balloon is
rising at 15 m/s, find the highest point reached by the apple.
a) 161.15 m
b) 141.15 m
c) 171.15 m
d) 151.15 m
853. The reciprocal of bulk modulus of any fluid is called .
a) Compressibility
b) Volume stress
c) Shape elasticity
d) Volume strain
854. The property by virtue of which a body tends to return to its original size and shape
after a deformation and when the deforming forces have been removed.
a) Elasticity
b) Malleability
c) Ductility
d) Plasticity
855. It is the ability of a material to be elongated
a) Plasticity
b) Flexibility
c) Elasticity
d) Malleability
856. RA 9292 is known as
a) Electronics Engineering Law of 2004
b) Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of the Philippines
c) Electronics and Communications Engineering Law of 2004
d) Electronics Engineering Law of the Philippines
857. The science dealing with the development and application of devices and systems
involving the flow of electrons or other carriers of electric charge, in a vacuum, in
gaseous media, in plasma, in semiconductors, in solid-state and/or in similar
devices, including, but not limited to, applications involving optical, electromagnetic
and other energy forms when transduced or converted into electronic signals.
a) Electronics
b) Communications
c) Electricity
d) Physics
858. A person who is qualified to hold himself/herself out as a duly registered/licensed
Professional Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the
letters 'PECE'.
a) Professional Electronics Engineer
b) Professional Electronics and Communications Engineer
c) Electronics Engineer
d) Electronics and Communications Engineer
Electronics Engineer under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters 'ECE'.
a) Electronics Engineer
c) Professional Electronics Engineer
d) Electronics and Communications Engineer
Electronics Technician under RA 9292 and to affix to his/her name the letters 'ECT'.
a) Electronics Technician
d) Electronics Engineer
Electronics and Communications Engineer under Republic Act No. 5734.
a) Electronics and Communications Engineer
d) Electronics Engineer
862. Any of a variety of electronic devices that is capable of accepting data, programs
and/or instructions, executing programs and/or instructions to process the data and
presenting the results.
a) Computer
b) ICT
c) ATM
d) Laptop
863. The acquisition, production, transformation, storage and transmission/reception of
data and information by electronic means in forms such as vocal, pictorial, textual,
numeric or the like; also refers to the theoretical and practical applications and
processes utilizing such data and information.
a) Information and Communications Technology
b) Communications
c) Telecommunications
d) Information Technology
864. The process of sending and/or receiving information, data, signals and/or messages
between two (2) or more points by radio, cable, optical wave guides or other devices
and wired or wireless medium.
a) Communications
b) Information and Communications Technology
c) Telecommunications
865. Any transmission, emission or reception of voice, data, electronic messages, text,
written or printed matter, fixed or moving pictures or images, words, music or visible
or audible signals or sounds, or any information, intelligence and/or control signals of
any design/or format and for any purpose, by wire, radio, spectral,
visual/optical/light, or other electronic, electromagnetic and technological means.
a) Telecommunications
b) Information and Communications Technology
c) Communications
866. An undertaking the object of which is to transmit audio, video, text, images or other
signals or messages for reception of a broad audience in a geographical area via
wired or wireless means.
a) Broadcasting
b) Communications
c) Transmission
d) Paging
867. Includes all a manufacturing establishments and other business endeavors where
electronic or electronically-controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or
being used, sold, maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
a) Industrial Plant
b) Commercial Establishment
c) Production Area
d) Power Plant
868. Shall include but not be limited to office buildings, hotels, motels, hospitals,
condominiums, stores, apartments, supermarkets, schools, stadia, parking areas,
memorial chapels/parks, watercraft and aircraft used for business or profit, and any
other building/s or area/s for business purposes, where electronic or electronically-
controlled machinery or equipment are installed and/or are being used, sold,
maintained, assembled, manufactured or operated.
a) Commercial Establishment
b) Industrial Plant
c) Production Area
d) Power Plant
869. Shall include services requiring adequate technical expertise, experience and
professional capability in undertaking advisory and review, pre-investment or
feasibility studies, design, planning, construction, supervision, management and
related services, and other technical studies or special studies in the field of
electronics engineering.
a) Consulting services
b) Primary services
c) Secondary services
d) Technical services
870. The integrated and accredited national organization of Professional Electronics
Engineers, Electronics Engineers and Electronics Technician.
a) Accredited Professional Organization
b) IECEP
c) PIECEP
d) Organization of PECE
871. To be qualified as a Member of the Board, he/she must be a citizen and a resident of
the Philippines for at least __________ consecutive years prior to his/her
appointment.
a) 5 years
b) 7 years
c) 10 years
d) 3 years
872. The members of the board shall hold office for a term of __________ years from
date of appointment or until their successors shall have been appointed and
qualified and may be re-appointed once for another term.
a) 3
b) 7
c) 10
d) 5
873. To pass the licensure examination, a candidate for Electronics Engineer or
Electronics Technician must obtain a passing rating of in each subject given during
the examination:
a) 70%
b) 50%
c) 60%
d) 80%
874. One shall be allowed to take one removal examination on the subject/s where
he/she has failed to obtain the passing rating. Provided, however, that a candidate
who obtains a passing rating in the majority of the subjects but obtains a rating in the
other subject/s.
a) Below 70% but not lower than 60%
b) Below 70% but not lower than 50%
c) Below 60% but not lower than 50%
d) Below 75% but not lower than 60%
875. Certified experience record of active self-practice and/or employment either in
government service or in the private sector, in the format to be prescribed by the
Board, indicating the inclusive dates, companies worked for, description of specific
responsibilities, relevant accomplishments and name, position of immediate
supervisors for a period of at least __________ years (inclusive and/or aggregate),
at least ___________ years of which are in responsible charge of significant
engineering work, from the date applicant took his/her oath as an Electronics and
Communications Engineer or Electronics Engineer.
a) 7 years; 2 years
b) 10 years; 3 years
c) 5 years; 2 years
d) 10 years; 2 years
876. RA 9292 is a consolidation of House Bill No. __________ and Senate Bill No.
_______.
a) 5224; 2683
b) 5447; 458
c) 5734; 109
d) 5533; 4552
877. RA 9292 was finally passed by the House of Representatives and the Senate on
a) 2-Feb-04
b) 2-Mar-07
c) April 17,2004
d) 5-Mar-05
878. RA 9292 was approved on
a) 17-Apr-04
b) 27-Apr-04
c) 17-Mar-05
d) 27-Mar-04
879. The effectivity of RA 9292 was on
a) 24-May-04
b) 17-Apr-04
c) 27-Apr-04
d) 28-May-04
880. To qualify in the registration to be PECE, one must provide __________
certification/s signed by __________ PECEs attesting that the experience record
submitted by the applicant is factual.
a) 3; 3
b) 1; 3
c) 1; 2
d) 2; 2
881. Under the exception proviso stipulated in the particular Section 18, Article III of RA
No. 9292 those who have been registered and licensed as Electronics and
Communications Engineer under Republic Act No.5734 for at least __________
years upon the effectivity of RA No. 9292 are qualified to register as PECE.
a) 7
b) 5
c) 10
d) 3
882. Registration with and without Examination for Electronics Technicians (ECT) will
start within __________ years from the effectivity of RA No. 9292.
a) 5
b) 3
c) 10
d) 7
883. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT), he/she must have rendered at least
___________ years (inclusive or aggregate) of active self-practice and/ or
employment either in the Government or private sector.
a) 7
b) 5
c) 3
d) 10
884. To register for Electronics Technicians (ECT),one must provide individual
certification/s from at least __________ registered PECEs vouching for the integrity,
technical capability and good moral character of the applicant in a format to be
prescribed by the Board.
a) 3
b) 5
c) 10
d) 7
885. The Board may, __________ years after the revocation of a Certificate of
Registration and Professional Identification Card, upon application of the party
concerned and for reasons deemed proper and sufficient, reinstate the validity of a
revoked Certificate of Registration and Professional Identification Card, subject to
compliance with the applicable requirements of the Commission and the Board.
a) 3
b) 1
c) 2
d) 4
886. Exemptions for examination and registration can be possibly given to
a) A foreign national that are PECEs, ECEs or ECTs and equivalent who are
temporarily employed by the Philippine Government or by private firms in the
Philippines
b) A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 20 years of experience in the
Philippines
c) A Filipino PECEs, ECEs or ECTs with at least 25 years of experience abroad
d) A foreign national with at least 20 years of experience in ECE field here in the
Philippines
887. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two
concentric circles, with the outside circle measuring __________ in diameter.
a) 48 mm
b) 28 mm
c) 45 mm
d) 32 mm
888. The official seal/logo of the Board which is circular in shape, consisting two
concentric circles, with the inner circle measuring __________ in diameter.
a) 28 mm
b) 45 mm
c) 48 mm
d) 32 mm
889. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the upper part of the annular space bear the
words
a) BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
b) PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
c) NAME OF THE MEMBER
d) LICENSE NO.
890. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the lower half part of the annular space bear the
words
a) PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
b) BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
c) NAME OF THE MEMBER
d) LICENSE NO.
891. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner circle space has the symbol of a/an
a) atom
b) electron
c) radar transceiver
d) computer
892. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
a) 2 electrons
b) 1 electron
c) 3 electrons
d) 4 electrons
893. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom symbol contains
a) 1 nucleus
b) 2 nuclei
c) 3 nuclei
d) 4 nuclei
894. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the outer and inner ring is filled with
a) orange with boundaries in navy color
b) grey with boundaries in black color
c) white with boundaries in black color
d) yellow with boundaries in black color
895. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the text is
a) black with white background
b) white with black background
c) black with grey background
d) white with grey background
896. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the inner ring is filled with
a) navy blue background
b) orange background
c) black background
d) white background
897. In the official seal/logo of the Board, the atom is colored with ___________ and the
nucleus and electrons in __________ color.
a) White; red
b) Black ; red
c) White; orange
d) Black; orange
898. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV
of RA No. 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with
the outer circle measuring __________ in diameter.
a) 48 mm
b) 28 mm
c) 45 mm
d) 32 mm
899. The seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV
of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal consisting of two concentric circles with the
inner circle measuring ___________ in diameter.
a) 32 mm
b) 28 mm
c) 35 mm
d) 48 mm
900. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV
of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal containing the appearance of ___________
in the upper part of the inner circle
a) atom
b) electron
c) radar transceiver
d) computer
901. The Seal of Professional Electronics Engineer as provided by Section 29, Article IV
of RA 9292 shall be, a dry circular seal with a horizontal space bearing the word
a) LICENSE NO.
b) BOARD OF ELECTRONICS ENGINEERING
c) PROFESSIONAL REGULATION COMMISSION
d) NAME OF THE MEMBER
902. When one of the factors of production is fixed in quantity or is difficult to increase,
increasing the other factors of production will result in a less than proportionate
increase in output. This law is
a) Law of diminishing Return
b) Law of Diminishing Utility
c) Law of Supply
d) Law of Demand
903. It occurs when the mathematical product of price and volume of sales remains
constant regardless of any change in price
a) Inelastic demand
b) Elastic demand
c) Unitary demand
d) Utility
904. It exists when a certain product or service is offered by many suppliers and there is
no restriction against other suppliers from entering the market. This is
a) Oligopoly
b) Monopoly
c) Competition
d) Anomaly
905. It is an annuity where the payment period extends forever or in which the periodic
payment continue indefinitely
a) Perpetuity
b) Ordinary annuity
c) Annuity due
d) Deferred annuity
906. A jeepney worth P 318 650 cash could also be purchased with a down payment of P
127 460 and 24 monthly installments of P11, 320 at the end of each month.
Determine the nominal rate of interest
a) 36.3% compounded monthly
b) 30.5% compounded monthly
c) 25.15% compounded monthly
d) 32.5% compounded monthly
907. A businessperson bought a communication equipment costing P25000 payable in 10
semiannual payments, each installment payable at the beginning of each period. If
rate of interest is 26% compounded semi-annually, what is the amount of each
installment?
a) P 4077.20
b) P 4777.20
c) P 4770.20
d) P 4277.70
908. It is the span of life of an equipment during which it produces the product it is
designed to produce a profit
a) Economic life
b) Write off period
c) Physical life
d) Perpetual life
909. It includes the original purchase price, freight and transportation charges, installation
expenses, initial taxes and permits to operate and all other expenses needed to put
the equipment into operation
a) First cost
b) Depreciation cost
c) Salvage cost
d) Scrap cost
910. It is a depreciation method whereby the decrease in value of the unit is constant
each year
a) Straight Line method
b) Matheson Formula
c) SYD Method
d) Sinking Fund Method
911. A certain company makes it a policy that for any pieces of equipment, the annual
depreciation cost should not exceed 10% of the original cost at any time with no
salvage value. Determine the length of the service life necessary if the depreciation
method is straight line
a) 10 yrs
b) 8 yrs
c) 12 yrs
d) 6 yrs
912. A certain annuity pays P100 at the end of each interest per period. If the present
value of the annuity is P 2, 000, and the accumulated amount is P3500. Find the
nominal rate of interest if it compounds quarterly
a) 8.56%
b) 6.45%
c) 12.50%
d) 10.50%
913. It is a distinct legal entity separate from the individual who own it which can engage
in practically any business transaction which a real person can do
a) Corporation
b) Sole proprietorship
c) Partnership
d) Partnership or Corporation
914. A 100 kg block of ice is released at the top of a 30 degrees incline plane 10 m above
the ground. If the slight melting of the ice renders the surface frictionless, calculate
the velocity at the foot of the incline plane
a) 14.1 m/s
b) 16.5 m/s
c) 9.64 m/s
d) 12.8 m/s
915. It is the study of the changes in the motion of rigid bodies produced by an
unbalanced force system, and of the means of determining the forces required to
produce any desired change in its motion
a) Kinetics
b) Kinematics
c) Statics
d) Robotics
916. A branch of mechanics which deals with the study of motion without consideration of
the forces causing the motion
a) Kinematics
b) Statics
c) Kinetics
d) Robotics
917. This law states that in every action there is an opposite and equal reaction
a) Newton's 3rd law
b) Newton's 2nd law
c) Varignon's theorem
d) D'Alembert's Principles
918. These are system of forces whereby all forces don't meet even of they are extended
along their line of axes
a) Parallel forces
b) Concurrent forces
c) Forces in space
d) Non-concurrent forces
919. These are two or more forces which has the same effect as that of a single force
a) Component
b) Resultant
c) Equilibrant
d) Parallel
920. Which of the following is not a characteristic of a force couple
a) The force couple must be going on the same direction
b) The resultant force of a couple is zero
c) The moment of a couple is independent of its distance from the moment axis
d) The force couple must always be parallel with one another
921. It is the product of the mass of a body and its instantaneous velocity
a) Momentum
b) Impulse
c) Centroid
d) Moment
922. When the force is divided by the resisting area parallel to it
a) Shearing stress
b) Normal stress
c) Axial stress
d) Bearing stress
923. A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground.
How long will it take the body to return to the ground?
a) 10.2 seconds
b) 7.85 seconds
c) 12.5 seconds
d) 5.1 seconds
924. It is a beam where one end is fixed or restrained and the other end is simply
supported
a) Propped beam
b) Simple beam
c) Cantilever beam
d) Overhanging beam
925. The point on the beam where the shear is zero
a) Maximum moment reaction
b) Point of inflection
c) Maximum shear
d) Reaction
926. A solid circular shaft is subjected to a torsion of 4775 N-m when transmitting power
at 200 rpm. The transmitted power is
a) 100 kW
b) 20 kW
c) 200 kW
d) 10 kW
927. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This law is
a) Hooke's Law
b) Guy Lussac's Law
c) Van der Wall's Law
d) Charles' Law
928. A load consists of a triangle placed on a beam. The area of the moment diagram is
a) 3rd degree
b) Rectangle
c) Triangle
d) 2nd degree
929. At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity
every time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius
a) 9.97 rpm
b) 8 rpm
c) 12 rpm
d) 10.6 rpm
930. It is a quantity whereby it has a magnitude and sense of direction
a) Vector quantity
b) Scalar quantity
c) Product
d) Difference
931. Turbines are driven by water from a dam through a 60 cm diameter penstock at a
total head of 100m. The available power from each tribune is
a) 12.286 mW
b) 18.62 mW
c) 16.82 mW
d) 20.56 mW
932. How long will it take for a 2 Hp pump to fill a cylindrical tank with water if the radius
of the tank is 4 m and height is 6 m. water is pumped thru the bottom from a source
12 from the base of the tank
a) 8.26 hrs
b) 5.5 hrs
c) 6.45 hrs
d) 7.6 hrs
933. The energy involved due to the motion of the body is
a) Kinetic energy
b) Potential energy
c) Work energy
d) Power
934. The frictional force on a body is dependent on the following except
a) Area of contract surface
b) Degree of roughness of contract surface
c) Normal force
d) Weight of body
935. It represents the ownership of stockholder who has residual claim on the assets of
the corporation after all the claims have been settled
a) Common stock
b) Preferred stock
c) Bond
d) Capital
936. This bond is without security behind it except a promise to pay by the issuing
corporation
a) Debenture bond
b) Joint bond
c) Lien bond
d) Mortgage bond
937. These are costs which remain relatively constant regardless of any changes in
operation or policy which is made
a) Fixed cost
b) Increment cost
c) Differential cost
d) Variable cost
938. When free competition exists the price of a product will be that value where supply is
equal to the demand this is
a) Law of supply and demand
b) Law of supply
c) Law of diminishing return
d) Law of demand
939. It occurs when there are few suppliers of the product pr service and any action taken
by anyone of them will definitely affect the course of action of the others
a) Oligopoly
b) Monopoly
c) Competition
d) Utility
940. It is that element of value which a business has earned through the favorable
consideration and the patronage of its customers arising from its well known and
well conducted policies and operations
a) Good-will value
b) Salvage value
c) Fair value
d) Book value
941. It is the sum of its cost and present worth of all costs for the replacement, operating
and maintenance for a long time or forever
a) Capitalized cost
b) First cost
c) Original cost
d) Fair Value
942. It is an annuity where the payment periods extend forever or in which the periodic
payments continue indefinitely
a) Perpetuity
b) Deferred annuity
c) Ordinary annuity
d) Annuity due
943. The basic assumption for this method of depreciation is that the annual cost of
depreciation is constant percentage of the salvage value at the beginning of the year
a) Matheson Formula
b) Straight Line Method
c) Sinking Fund method
d) SYD Method
944. The rate of time at which the original cost or capital used to purchase a unit have
already been recovered is
a) Write-off period
b) Economic life
c) Physical life
d) Salvage life
945. It is a legal distinct entity, separate from the individuals who own it, and which can
engage in practically any business transaction which a real person can do
a) Corporation
b) Partnership
c) Conglomerate
d) Proprietorship
946. This is the level of production whereby the total income is just equal to the total
expenses resulting in no profit
a) Break-even point
b) Kelvin's law
c) Unhealthy point
d) Minimum cost Analysis
947. A certain annuity pays P80 at the end of every quarter. If the resent value of the
annuity is P1200 and the accumulated amount is P2000, determine the nominal rate
of interest
a) 10.67 percent
b) 11.35 percent
c) 9.37 percent
d) 12.6 percent
948. A machine has a first cost of P 130,000 and an estimated life of 15 years with a
salvage value of P10, 000. Using the straight line method, find the annual
depreciation charge
a) P 8,000
b) P 9,000
c) P 7,000
d) P 6,000
949. How many years will it take a unit deposit to triple if interest is 18% compounded
daily
a) 6.1 yrs
b) 6.5 yrs
c) 5.8 yrs
d) 7.2 yrs
950. It is a decrease in value due to some factors, like new models have been
manufactured and shift of population
a) Functional depreciation
b) Physical depreciation
c) Depletion
d) Deflation
951. It is the distance from its moment of inertia axis at which the entire area can be
considered as being concentrated without changing its moment of inertia
a) Radius of gyration
b) Centroid
c) Center of gravity
d) Neutral axis
952. A process of joining two or more parts by depositing fused metal from a slender rod
along the joint between them and allowing it to cool, the heat of fusion being applied
either by an electric arc or by an oxyacetylene torch
a) Welding
b) Riveting
c) Soldering
d) Welding or soldering
953. It is the stress developed on a body when the force acting it os divided by the
resisting area parallel to it
a) Shearing stress
b) Axial stress
c) Bearing stress
d) Compressive stress
954. A beam carrier a 20 kN/m uniform load throughout its length. It is 30 cm wide and 40
cm deep. If it is 8 m long and neglecting its own weight, the maximum flexural stress
developed is
a) 20 MPa
b) 25 MPa
c) 30 MPa
d) 18 MPa
955. A 6 m long beam carries a 60 kN concentrated load applied at its midspan. If bam is
simply supported the maximum moment is
a) 90 kN-m
b) 80 kN-m
c) 120 kN-m
d) 70 kN-m
956. It is a physical quantity that possesses both the magnitude and direction
a) Vector quantity
b) Scalar quantity
c) Resultant
d) Displacement
957. The product of a force and moment which tends to produce rotational motion
a) Torque
b) Resultant
c) Equilibrant
d) Couple
958. The velocity which an object needs to overcome the gravitational force of a planet
a) Escape velocity
b) Orbiting velocity
c) Angular velocity
d) Linear velocity
959. It is the force that opposes the relative motion of body at rest or in motion
a) Frictional force
b) Centrifugal force
c) Centripetal force
d) Resultant force
960. It is a thermodynamic process where there is no change in temperature
a) Isothermal process
b) Isobaric process
c) Adiabatic process
d) Isentropic process
961. It is the product of the force and the time during which it acts on a body
a) Impulse
b) Momentum
c) Work
d) Power
962. The force between point charges is proportional to the product of the charges and
inversely proportional with the square of the distance between them
a) Coulombs' Law
b) Ohm's Law
c) Avogadro's Law
d) Faraday's Law
963. Which of the following is a vector quantity
a) Electric field intensity
b) Entropy
c) Kinetic energy
d) Charge
964. Refers to the continuous emission of energy from the surface of all bodies
a) Radiation
b) Convection
c) Emission
d) Conduction
965. It is the ratio of the change in velocity that occurs within the time interval to that time
interval
a) Average acceleration
b) Instantaneous acceleration
c) Constant acceleration
d) Speed
966. It is a single force whose magnitude is equal to the resultant but oppositely directed
a) Equivalent force
b) Co-planar
c) Concurrent force
d) Equilibrant force
967. The discount of one unit of principal for one unit of time
a) Rate discount
b) Nominal discount
c) Actual discount
d) Sales discount
968. An annuity whereby the payment is postponed for a certain period of time is
a) Deferred annuity
b) Ordinary annuity
c) Suspended annuity
d) Annuity due
969. The actual interest earned by a given principal is known as
a) Effective interest
b) Compounded interest
c) Nominal interest
d) Simple interest
970. A bond where the security behind it are the equipment of the issuing corporation
a) Lien
b) Debenture
c) Mortgage
d) Collateral
971. Characterized by a few supplies of a product/services that the action by one will
almost inevitably result in the similar action by the other
a) Oligopoly
b) Monopoly
c) Competition
d) Necessity
972. It is the worth of a property as shown on the accounting records
a) Book value
b) Resale value
c) Face value
d) Written value
973. The decrease in the value of a property due to gradual extraction of its contents
a) Depletion
b) Depreciation
c) Devaluation
d) Deviation
974. It is usually determined by a disinterested third party to establish a price good
enough to both the seller and the buyer
a) Fair value
b) Market value
c) Common value
d) Safe value
975. The exclusive right of a company to provide a specific product or services in a given
region of the country
a) Franchise
b) Outlet
c) Branch
d) Extension
976. It is the sum of the first cost and the present worth of all costs or replacement,
operation and maintenance
a) Capitalized cost
b) Total cost
c) Initial cost
d) Variable cost
977. A certificate of indebtedness of a corporation usually for a period not less than 10
years and guaranteed by a mortgage on certain assets of the corporation or its
subsidiaries
a) Bond
b) Collateral
c) Mortgage
d) Contract
978. What the property is worth to the owner as an operating unit
a) Utility value
b) Present value
c) Salvage value
d) Resale value
979. Occurs when a commodity or service is supplied by a number of vendors and there
is nothing to prevent additional vendors entering the market
a) Perfect competition
b) Free market
c) Open market
d) Law of supply and demand
980. In making economy studies a minimum required profit on the invested capital is
included as a cost. A method called as
a) Annual cost pattern
b) Rate of return
c) Present worth pattern
d) Capital cost
981. A boat can go 12 kph in still water. Going full sped it goes 25 km upstream in the
same time it takes it to go 35 km downstream. What is the rate of the current?
a) 2.5 kph
b) 1.5 kph
c) 2 kph
d) 2.75 kph
982. Which of the following is NOT a measure of central tendency?
a) Range
b) Arithmetic mean
c) Median
d) Root mean square
983. Find the standard deviation of 11, 13, 16, 18, 20 and 22
a) 3.82
b) 3.72
c) 3.52
d) 3.62
984. In statistics, the standard deviation means?
a) Dispersion
b) Central tendency
c) Distribution
d) Frequency
985. If the supplement of an angle is 5/2 of its compliment, find the angle
a) 30 degrees
b) 25 degrees
c) 20 degrees
d) 15 degrees
986. The point of concurrency of the perpendicular bisector of the sides of a triangle is
called the
a) Circumcenter
b) Incenter
c) Centroid
d) Orthocenter
987. What is the apothem of a regular polygon having an area of 225 and perimeter of 60
a) 7.5
b) 8.5
c) 6.5
d) 5.5
988. At what rpm is the ferris wheel turning when the rider feels weightless or zero gravity
every time each rider is at the topmost part of the wheel 9 m in radius
a) 9.97 rpm
b) 7.99 rpm
c) 10.97 rpm
d) 8.99 rpm
989. A body was fired vertically upward with an initial velocity of 500 m/s from the ground.
How long will it take the body to return to the ground?
a) 10.2 sec
b) 5.1 sec
c) 7.8 sec
d) 12.2 sec
990. If the eccentricity of a conic is less than 1, then it is
a) An ellipse
b) A circle
c) A parabola
d) A hyperbola
991. Within elastic limit, stress is directly proportional to the strain. This is otherwise
known as
a) Hooke's Law
b) Guy Lussac's Law
c) Charles' Law
d) L.A. Law
992. It is a beam where one end is fixed and the other end is simply supported
a) Propped beam
b) Simple beam
c) Cantilever beam
d) Overhanging beam
993. What are found in the nucleus of an atom?
a) Protons and Neutrons
b) Electrions and Protons
c) Cations and Anions
d) Electrons and Neutrons
994. What is the negatively charged particle of an atom?
a) Electrons
b) Protons
c) Neutron
d) Molecule
995. What is the positively charged particle of an atom?
a) Protons
b) Electrons
c) Neutron
d) Molecule
996. The word 'atom' comes from Greek 'Atomos' which means
a) Indivisible
b) Extremely Small
c) Invisible
d) Microscopic
997. Who was the first person to propose that atoms have weights?
a) John Dalton
b) Ernest Rutherford
c) Democritus
d) Joseph John Thomson
998. Who discovered the electron?
a) Joseph John Thomson
b) John Dalton
c) Humphrey Davy
d) Ernest Rutherford
999. Who discovered the proton?
a) Ernest Rutherford
b) Eugene Goldstein
c) Pierre Curie
d) Michael Faraday
1000. Who discovered the neutron?
a) James Chadwick
b) Eugene Goldstein
c) Niels Bohr
d) Julius Lothar Meyer

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