Material's Engr Reviewer

MATERIALS
ENGINEER
ACCREDITATION
EXAMINATION
REVIEWER
1
SCHEDULE OF
MINIMUM TEST
REQUIREMENTS
(FREQUENCY)
2
Schedule of Minimum Testing Requirements Governing Items of Work of the
DPWH Specifications for Highways, Bridges and Airports (2004 Edition)
PART C - EARTHWORKS
ITEM 100 – CLEARING AND GRUBBING

* This item shall consist of clearing, grubbing, removing and disposing all vegetation
and debris as designated in the contract.
Tests: None
ITEM 101 – REMOVAL OF STRUCTURES AND OBSTRUCTIONS

*This item shall consist of the removal wholly or in part, and satisfactory disposal of all
buildings, fences, structures, old pavements abandoned pipelines, and any other
obstruction which are not designated or permitted to remain.
Tests: None
ITEM 102 – EXCAVATION

* This item shall consist of roadway, drainage and borrow excavation and the disposal of
materials.
Tests: Same as for Items 103, 104 and 105, whichever is applicable
ITEM 103 – STRUCTURE EXCAVATION

* This item shall consist of the necessary excavation for foundation of bridges, culverts,
under-drains, and other structures not otherwise provided in the specifications.
If the excavated materials are washed, the volume involved shall be reported so
that quality control requirements may be adjusted accordingly (submit Project
Engineer Certificate of Waste).
If the excavated materials are incorporated into the work:
Tests:
For every 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – G, Grading Test
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PL, PI)
1 – C, Laboratory Compaction Test
For every 150 mm in uncompacteddepth:
1 – D, Field Density
ITEM 104 – EMBANKMENT

* This item shall consist of the construction of embankment.
Tests:
For every 1,500m3 or fraction thereof:
3
For each 500m2 of each layer of compacted fill or fraction thereof:
At least one group of three in – situ density test. The layer shall be
placed not exceeding200 mm in loose measurement or based on
the result of compacted trials.
ITEM 105 – SUBGRADE PREPARATION

* This item shall consist of the preparation of the sub-grade for the support of overlying
structural layers.
Tests: Same as for Item 104
ITEM 106 – COMPACTION EQUIPMENT AND DENSITY CONTROL STRIPS

* This item shall be used in determining the density requirements of selected
embankments, sub-grade, bases and bituminous concrete.
Tests: Same as for Items104, 105, 200, 201, 202, 203, 204, 205, 206 and
300
ITEM 107 – OVERHAUL

* This item shall consist of authorized hauling in excess of free-haul distance.
Tests: None
PART D – SUB - BASE AND BASE COURSE
ITEM 200 – AGGREGATE SUBBASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing and compaction of aggregate sub-base
course on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion)
1 – CBR, California Bearing Test
For every layer of 150 mm of compacted depth based on the result
of compaction test trials:
At least one group of three in – situ density tests for each 500
m2 or fraction thereof
ITEM 201 – AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compaction of aggregate base course
on a prepared sub-grade.
4
Tests:

1 – CBR, California Bearing Test
ITEM 202 – CRUSHED AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, placing, and compacting crushed gravel, crushed
stone or crush rock on a prepared sub-grade.
Tests:
Same as for Item 201
1 – F, Fractured face
ITEM 203 – LIME STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate,
lime and water in proper proportions.
Amount of lime to be added:
3 – 12 mass percent of dry soil aggregates test
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
For every1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
B. MIX
1 – UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
For every layer of 150 mm compacted depth:
1 – D, Field Density Test for every 150 m or fraction thereof
1 – T, Thickness determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof
D. HYDRATED LIME
For every 100T or fraction thereof:
1 – Q, Quality Test
5
ITEM 204 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate,
Portland cement and water in proper proportions.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
B. CEMENT
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
C. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
D. MIX
1 – UC, Unconfined Compaction Test
1 – CBR, California Bearing Ratio
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof
ITEM 205 – ASPHALT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course, composed of soil aggregate
and asphaltic material in proper proportions.
Amount of asphalt to be added:
4 – 7 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
B. EMULSIFIED ASPHALT
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T of 200 drums or fraction
thereof
C. MIX
C. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
ITEM 206 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED TREATED PLANT MIX BASE

COURSE
* This item shall consist of a foundation for surface course composed of aggregate
Portland cement and water in proper proportion.
Amount of cement to be added:
6 to 10 mass of dry soil aggregate
Tests:
6
A. SOIL AGGREGATE
B. PORTLAND CEMENT
For every 2,000 bags or fraction thereof:
C. MIX
D. WATER
1 – Q, Quality Test/Project Engineer’s Certificate
E. COMPACTED BASE COURSE
1 – T, Thickness Determination for every 150 m or fraction
thereof
ITEM 207 – AGGREGATE STOCKPILE

* This item shall furnishing and placing aggregate in stockpiles at locations.
Tests:
Same as the specified Item No. of the Specification
PART E – SURFACE COURSES
ITEM 300 – AGGREGATE SURFACE COURSE

* This item shall consist of wearing of top course composed of gravel or crushed
aggregate and other binder material.
Tests:
For crushed gravel or crushed stone 1,500 m3 or fraction thereof:
ITEM 301 – BITUMINOUS PRIME COAT

* This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course.
Quantity:
1 to 2 L/m2
Test: 1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums
ITEM 302 – BITUMINOUS TACKCOAT

7
*This item shall consist of preparing and treating an existing bituminous or cement
concrete with bituminous material.
Quantity:
0.2 to 0.7 L/m2
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums
ITEM 303 – BITUMINOUS SEAL COAT

* This item shall consist of an application of bituminous material with or w/o an
application of aggregate on an existing bituminous surface course.
A. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
0.2 to 1.5 L/m2
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 40T or 200 drums
B. COVER AGGREGATES
Quantity:
5 to 14 kg/m2
Test:
For every 75 m3/200 kg or fraction thereof:
ITEM 304 – BITUMINOUS SURFACE TREATMENT

* This item shall consist of either a single application of bituminous materials followed
by a single spreading of aggregate (single surface treatment) or two applications
bituminous material each followed.
A. AGGREGATES
Quantity:
13.6 to 38 kg/m2 if using cut – back asphalt or asphalt cement
13.6 to 19.04 kg/m2 if using emulsified asphalt
Tests:
For every 75 m3/200 kg or fraction thereof:
1 – P, Plasticity Test (LL, PI)
1 – F, Fractured Face
B. BITUMINOUS MATERIALS
Quantity:
1.58 to 2.04 L/m2 if using cut – back asphalt or asphalt cement
1.58 to 2.04 L/m2 if using emulsified asphalt
ITEM 305 – BITUMINOUS PENETRATION MACADAM PAVEMENT
8
* This item shall consist of furnishing and placing one or more aggregate and one or
more application of bituminous material followed by a seal coat a with cover aggregate
constructed on a prepared base.
A. AGGREGATES
Quantity:
Using Asphalt Cement or Rapid Curing Emulsified Asphalt
Course (crushed) 80 kg/m2
Key (crushed) 24 kg/m2
Cover (crushed or screened) 8 kg/m2
Quantity:
7.2 to 11 L/m2
Test:
ITEM 306 – BITUMINOUS ROAD MIX SURFACE COURSE

* This item shall consist of constructing a bituminous road mix surface course on a
prepared base.
A. AGGREGATES
Tests:
Quantity:
Using cut – back asphalt – 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate
Using emulsified asphalt – 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate
Tests:
C. MIX
Tests:
For every 75 m3/130T or fraction thereof:
1 – Ext, Stability Test
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
E. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
For each full day’s operation:
D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken
ITEM 307 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – GENERAL
9
* This item includes general requirements that are applicable to all type of bituminous
surface courses irrespective of gradation of aggregate or kind and amount of bituminous
material.
A. AGGREGATE
Tests:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Plasticity and Abrasion, Stripping
and Bulk specific gravity)
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total dry aggregates
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums or fraction thereof
C. MIX
Tests:
1 – G. Grading Test
1 – Ext, Stability Test
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
F. COMPACTED PAVEMENT
Tests:
For each full day’s operation:
D & T (Density & Thickness Test), at least one (1) but not more
than three (3) samples shall be taken
ITEM 308 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – COLD LAID

* This item shall consist of constructing Bituminous Surface Course (Asphalt Cold Mix)
prepared in central mixing plant, laid cold on a prepared base.
A.AGGREGATE
Tests:
Quantity:
Using cut – back asphalt -- 4.5 to 7 mass % of total dry aggregate
Using emulsified asphalt – 6 to 10 mass % of total dry aggregate
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each 40T or 200 drums fraction thereof
10
C. MIX
Tests:
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
1 – G & P, Grading & Plasticity Tests (LL, PL, PI)
Tests:
ITEM 309 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX (STOCKPILE MAINTENANCE

MIXTURE)
* This item shall consist of a bituminous stockpile maintenance mixture composed of
aggregate, mineral filler, hydrated lime and bituminous material mixed in a central
plant.
A. AGGREGATE
Tests:
Quantity:
4 to 10 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
C. MIX
Tests:
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Tests:
ITEM 310 – BITUMINOUS CONCRETE SURFACE COURSE – HOT LAID

* This item shall consist of constructing a bituminous concrete surface course composed
of aggregate, mineral filler and bituminous material mixed in a central plant, constructed
and laid hot on prepared base.
A. AGGREGATES
11
Tests:
Quantity:
5 to 8 mass percent of total mix
Tests:
C. MIX
Tests:
D. HYDRATED LIME
Tests:
E. MINERAL FILLER
Tests:
Tests:
ITEM 311 – PORTLAND CEMENT CONCRETE PAVEMENT

* This item shall consist of pavement of Portland cement concrete, with or without
reinforcement, constructed on the prepared base.
A. CEMENT
Quantity:
9.0 bags/m3(40 kg/bag)
Test:
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.50 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded course aggregate
0.54 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
a.) For a source not yet tested or failed in previous quality test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Elutriation – wash, Bulk Specific
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
b.) For a source previously tested and passed quality test:
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
C. COURSE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
12
0.77 m2/m3 concrete if using rounded coarse aggregate
0.68 m2/m3 concrete if using angular or crushed coarse
aggregate
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
D. WATER
Test:
1 – Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test if
source is questionable
E. JOINT FILLER
1. Poured joint filler
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each type of ingredient for each
shipment
2. Pre – molded joint filler
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each
shipment
F. SPECIAL CURING AGENTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for each shipment
G. STEEL BARS
Test:
For every 10,000 kg or fraction thereof for each size:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Bending, Tension and Quality Analysis)
H. CONCRETE
Test:
Flexural Strength Test on concrete beam samples:
1 – Set consisting of 3 beam samples shall represent a 330 m2 of
pavement, 230 mm depth or fraction thereof placed each day
Volume of concrete not more than 75 m3
I. COMPLETED PAVEMENT
Test:
Thickness determination by concrete core drilling on a lot basis
Five (5) holes per km per lane or five (5) holes per 500 m when
two (2) lanes are poured concurrently
PART F – BRIDGE CONSTRUCTION

13
ITEM 400 - PILING
* This item shall consist of piling, furnished, driven or placed, cut and spliced.
A. TIMBER PILES
Test:
1 – Inspection Report for each size and shipment of timber
B. CONCRETE PILES
a.) Concrete
Test: Same as for Item 405
b.) Reinforcing Steel
Test: Same as for Item 404
C. STRUCTURAL PILES
Tests:
1 – IR, inspection Report
1 – Q, Quality Test or Mill Test Certificate
ITEM 401 – RAILINGS

* This item shall consist of furnishing, fabricating or placing, for bridges and other
structures of the material of combination of materials.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class C
B. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
ITEM 402 – TIMBER STRUCTURES

* This item shall consist of construction of timber structures to the dimensions, lines and
grades as shown on the plans.
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test or Manufacturer’s Certificate for each type of
material used
1 – IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of timber
ITEM 403 – METAL STRUCTURES

* This work shall consist of steel structures portions of composite structures, constructed
in reasonably close conformity with the lines, grades and dimension.
Tests:
1 – Q, Quality Test or Manufacturer’s Certificate for each type of
material used
1 – IR, Inspection Report for each type and shipment of metal
ITEM 404 – REINFORCING STEEL

* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, fabricating and placing of steel
reinforcement of the type, size, shape and grade required.
A. BAR REINFORCEMENT FOR CONCRETE
Test:
14
B. WIRE AND WIRE MESH
Test:
ITEM 405 – STRUCTURAL CONCRETE

* This item shall consist of furnishing, bending, and placing and finishing concrete in all
structures except pavements.
A. CEMENT
Quantity: (40 kg/bag)
Class A 9 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class B 8 bags/m3 of concrete – 2,400 psi/16.4 MPa
Class C 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class P 11 bags/m3 of concrete – 5,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Class Seal 9.5 bags/m3 of concrete – 3,000 psi/20.7 MPa
Test:
1 –Q, Quality Test
B. FINE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.50 0.54 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.45 0.52 m2/m3 of concrete
Class C 0.53 0.59 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.44 0.47 m2/m3 of concrete
Test:
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength, Soundness, Organic
Impurities, Unit Weight, % clay lumps and % shale)
Gravity, Absorption, Mortar Strength)
C. COARSE AGGREGATES
Quantity:
ROUNDED ANGULAR/CRUSHED
Class A 0.77 0.68 m2/m3 of concrete
Class B 0.82 0.73 m2/m3 of concrete
15
Class C 0.70 0.66 m2/m3 of concrete
Class P 0.56 0.65 m2/m3 of concrete
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption,
Abrasion, Soundness and Unit Weight)
1 – Q, Quality Test (Grading, Bulk Specific Gravity, Absorption
and Abrasion)
D. WATER
Tests:
E. PRE – MOLDED FILLER FOR EXPANSION JOINTS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test on each thickness of filler for each shipment
F. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
G. CONCRETE
Tests:
Compressive Strength Test on concrete cylinder samples, one (1)
set consisting three (3) concrete cylinder samples shall be taken
from each day’s pouring and to represent not more than 75 m3 of
concrete or fraction thereof
ITEM 406 – PRE – STRESSED CONCRETE STRUCTURES

* This item shall consist of pre-stressed concrete structures and the pre-stressed concrete
portions of composite structures.
A. CONCRETE
Tests:
Same as for Item 405, Class P
B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
C. WIRE STRAND
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 20T or fraction thereof
ITEM 407 – CONCRETE STRUCTURES

*This item shall consist of the general description of the materials, equipment,
workmanship and construction requirements of concrete structures and the concrete
portions of composite structures.
16
Tests:
Same as for Items 403, 404 and 411
Elastometric Bearing Pads will be tested to determine its quality
ITEM 408 – STEEL BRIDGES

* This item shall consist of construction of steel structure conforming to the lines, grades,
dimension and designs.
Tests:
Same as for Item 403 and 411
Painting:
1 – Q, One 20 – L can for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
ITEM 409 – WELDED STRUCTURAL STEEL

* This work shall consist of the joining of structural steel members with welds of the type.
Test:
Same as for 403 and Inspection Report
ITEM 410 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

* This item shall consist of structural timber of the specie size called on the plans either
treated or untreated as called for in the proposal.
Test:
1 – IR, Inspection report
1 – Q, Quality Test for preservatives
ITEM 411 – PAINT

* This item shall consist of furnishing and applying all paint materials including vehicles,
pigments, pastes, dryers, thinners, and mixed paints for steel and wooden structures.
Test:
ITEM 412 – ELASTOMETRIC BEARING PADS

*This item shall consist of the requirement for elastomeric bearing pads whose main
function is to transfer loads or accommodate relative movement between a bridge
superstructure and its supporting structures
ITEM 413 – PRE – MOLDED JOINT FILLER FOR CONCRETE PAVING AND
STRUCTURAL CONCRETE
* Preformed sponge rubber and rock expansion joint filler for concrete paving and
structural construction
17
PART G – DRAINAGE AND SLOPE PROTECTION STRUCTURES
ITEM 500 – PIPE CULVERTS AND STORMDRAINS

* This item shall consist of the construction or reconstruction of pipe culverts and storm
drains.
A. PIPES
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 50 pieces (Strength,
Absorption and Dimension)
Alternative Requirements:
1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3)
concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty – five (25)
pipe cast in the field
2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty – five
(25) pipes cast in the field
B. MORTAR AND JOINT FILLER
Cement, fine aggregates and water:
Test:
ITEM 501 – UNDERDRAINS

* This item shall consist of constructing under drains, using pipe and granular filter
materials, under drain pipe outlets, and blind drain using granular materials.
A. CONCRETE PIPE (NON – REINFORCED)
Test:
Quality Test for 0.5% of the number of pipes for each size but not
less than two (2) for Strength, Absorption and Dimension
Alternative requirements:
1. Compressive Strength for one (1) set consisting of three (3)
concrete cylinder samples for not more than twenty – five (25)
pipe cast in the field
2. Inspection Report for each size for not more than twenty – five
(25) pipes cast in the field
B. CLAY PIPE
Test:
Quality Test for one (1) pipe for every 200 pieces of each size,
with a minimum number of two (2) specimens for Strength,
Absorption and Dimension
ITEM 502 – MANHOLES, INLETS AND CATCHBASINS

* This item shall consist of the construction, reconstruction or adjustment of manholes,
inlets, and catch basins.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
Same as for Item 405, Class A
B. LIDS, CAST IRON FRAMES AND GRATING
18
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 503 – DRAINAGE STEEL GRATING WITH FRAME

* The steel frame clear openings of drainage grates shall be 15 mm larger than nominal
sizes of industry standard sized pits.
ITEM 504 – CLEANING AND RECONDITIONING OF EXISTING DRAINAGE

STRUCTURES
* This item shall consist of cleaning and reconditioning existing pipes and appurtenant
structures.
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 505 – RIPRAP AND GROUTED RIPRAP

* This item shall consist of the furnishing and placing riprap with or without grout as the
case maybe, with or without filter backing.
Test:
(Cement – Aggregate ratio = 1:3)
ITEM 506 – STONE MASONRY

* This item shall consist of stone masonry of minor structures, in headwalls for culverts,
in retaining walls at the toes of slopes.
A. CEMENT
Quantity:
2 bags/m3 of concrete
Test:
(Cement – Aggregate ratio = 1:2)
B. FINE AGGREGATE
Quantity:
0.17m2/m3 of concrete
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test (same as for Item 405)
C. STONE
Test:
Inspection Report
D. WATER
Test:
19
ITEM 507 – RUBBLE CONCRETE
* This item shall consist of construction of rubble concrete.
ITEM 508 – HAND – LAID ROCK EMBANKMENT

* This item shall consist of hand-laid rock embankment.
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 509 – SHEET PILES

* This item shall consist of furnishing, driving cutting off of sheet pile.
A. TIMBER SHEET PILES
Test:
Inspection Report
B. CONCRETE SHEET PILES
Test:
C. STEEL SHEET PILES
Test:
ITEM 510 – CONCRETE SLOPE PROTECTION

* This item shall consist of furnishing and placing of concrete slope protection including
all necessary excavation, a bed course and reinforced concrete to the required thickness
and extent to protect slope against erosion.
A. BED COURSE
Test:
B. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
C. CONCRETE
Test:
ITEM 511 – GABIONS

* This item shall consist of furnishing, forming wire mesh baskets, and placing rocks
installed at the location designated.
Test:
PART H – MISCELLANEOUS STRUCTURES
ITEM 600 – CURB AND GUTTER

* This item shall construction of curb and gutter either pre-cast of cast - in place made of
concrete.
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A. CONCRETE
Quantity:
0.078 m3/m (curb only)
0.092 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type A)
0.145 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type B)
0.074 m3/m (curb and gutter, Type C)
Test:
B. JOINT FILLER
Test:
ITEM 601 – SIDEWALK
* This item shall consist of construction of asphalt of Portland cement concrete sidewalk.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
B. PRE – MOLDED EXPANSION JOINT FILLER
Test:
ITEM 602 – MONUMENTS, MARKERS AND GUIDE POSTS

* This item shall consist of right-of-way monuments, maintenance marker posts,
kilometer posts and/ or guideposts.
A. CONCRETE
Test:
B. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
C. TIMBER
Test:
D. PAINT
Test:
ITEM 603 – GUARDRAIL

* This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing posts and guardrails.
A. STEEL POSTS
Test:
B. TIMBER POSTS
Test:
C. CONCRETE
Test:
D. REINFORCING STEEL
21
Test:
E. RAIL
Test:
Inspection Report
F. PAINT
Test:
ITEM 604 – FENCING

* This item shall consist of furnishing and constructing of post and barb wire or chain
link fences.
A. BARB WIRE, CHAIN LINK FABRIC
Test:
B. CONCRETE POSTS
Test:
C. STEEL REINFORCEMENT
Test:
ITEM 605 – ROAD SIGN

* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing road signs.
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 606 – PAVEMENT MARKINGS

* This item shall consist of placing markings of the finished pavement.
Test:
ITEM 607 – REFLECTIVE PAVEMENT STUDS

* This item shall consist of furnishing and installing reflective pavement studs on the
surface of the pavement.
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 608 – TOPSOIL

* This consists of topsoil furnished, transported and spread, or topsoil removed from
designated areas, haul and spread.
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 609 – SPRIGGING

* This item consists of planting sprigs of living grass plants.
22
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 610 – SODDING

* This item shall consist of furnishing and laying of live sod on the shoulders, slopes,
ditches, or other locations as designated, construction of sod ditch checks or similar
appurtenances.
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 611 – TREE PLANTING

* This item shall consist of furnishing and planting deciduous shade, flowering trees
evergreen trees less than 150 mm diameter on the areas.
Test:
Inspection Report
ITEM 612 – REFLECTIVE THERMOPLASTIC STRIPPING

* This item shall be applied to the road surface in a molten state by mechanical means
with surface application glass beads at a rate not less than 350g/L.
PART I – MATERIALS DETAILS
ITEM 700 – HYDRATED CEMENT

Test:
ITEM 701 – CONSTRUCTION LIME (HYDRATED)

Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 100T or fraction thereof
ITEM 702 – BITUMINOUS MATERIALS

Test:
Same as for Items 301, 302, 303, 306, 307, 308, 309 and 310
ITEM 703 – AGGREGATES

Test:
Same as for item of work in the Bill of Quantities
ITEM 703A – MINERAL FILLER

* This item shall consist of finely divided material mineral matter such as rock dust, slug
dust, hydrated lime, hydraulic cement, fly ash or other suitable mineral matter.
Test:
23
ITEM 704 – MASONRY UNITS
Test:
1 – Q, Quality Test for every 10,000 units or fraction thereof
ITEM 705 – JOINT MATERIALS

Test:
Same as for Items 311 and 500
ITEM 706 – CONCRETE, CLAY, PLASTIC AND FIBER PIPES

A. CONCRETE
Test:
B. CLAY AND OTHER TYPE OF PIPES
Test:
Refer to applicable requirements of AASHTO Test and Specs
ITEM 707 – METAL PIPE

Test:
ITEM 708 – CONCRETE CURING MATERIALS AND ADMIXTURE

* This item specifies the classification, sampling, testing, packing and marking of
concrete admixtures.
Test:
ITEM 709 – PAINTS

Test:
ITEM 710 – REINFORCING STEEL AND WIRE ROPE

A. REINFORCING STEEL
Test:
B.WIRE ROPE
Test:
ITEM 711 – FENCE AND GUARDRAIL

A. FENCE
Test:
B. GUARDRAIL
Test:
24
ITEM 712 – STRUCTURAL METAL
Test:
Same as for Items 403 and 406
ITEM 713 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

Test:
ITEM 714 – WATER

Test:
Certificate from Project Engineer or 1 – Q, Quality Test, if source
is questionable
ITEM 715 – GEOTEXTILES

* This item covers geotextiles fabric for use in subsurface drainage, hydraulic filter,
erosion control, sediment control, pavement superstructures as a water proofing and
stress relieving membrane, and as permeable separator to prevent mixing of dissimilar
materials.
25
TABLES
26
MINIMUM REQUIREMENTS FOR SUBMISSION OF SAMPLES
MATERIALS MNIMUM TESTING MINIMUM

REQUIREMENTS QUANTITY/VOLUME OF
MATERIALS FOR EACH
SAMPLE SUBMITTED
1. Cement 1 sample per 2000 bags 10 kg
1 sample per 40T or 200
2. Asphaltic material 5L
drums
3. Aspahlt mix 1 sample per 130T 20 kg
4. Aggregates 1 sample per 1,500 m3
a. coarse aggregate 70 kg
b. fine aggregate 50 kg
5. Soil aggregates 1 sample per 1,500 m3
a. Classification 20 kg
b. Routinary tests 50 kg
c. MDR test and CBR 50 kg
6. Non – Reinforced Concrete 2 pipes min./0.5% of no.
2 pipes
Pipes of pipes
1 sample per 50 pipes or 1 pipe (1 m length)
7. Reinforced Concrete Pipes
2% of # of pipes
1 sample per 500 lengths 2 pcs Of 100 mm long taken
8.Steel pipe (galvanized)
from both ends w/ thread
9. Concrete hollow blocks (CHB) 1 sample per 10,000 units
a. strength 3 units
b. moisture content 3 units
10. Steel bar 1 sample per 10T 1m
11. Steel sheet (galvanized) 1 sample per 100 sheets 3 pcs 60mm x 60mm
12. Wire strand 1 sample per 20T 2m
13. Gabion 1m x 2m
14. Paints 1 sample per 100 cans 1 - 4L can
15. Joint – filler (pre – molded) 1 – 400mm x 400mm
16. Curing compound 1L
17. Concrete cylinder 1 sample per 75 m3 1 set (3 cylinders)
18. Concrete beam 1 sample per 75 m3 or 1
1 set (3 cylinders)
day pouring
19. Concrete core 5 holes for every km/lane
20. Asphalt core 1 core for every 100m
21. Water
500 ml
a. Chemical analysis
500 ml
b. Sediment load analysis
22. Structural steel/sheet 1 sample per 50T Reduced section as prescribed
23. Hydrated lime 1 sample per 100T
27
COMPOSITION AND STRENGTH OF CONCRETE FOR USE IN STRUCTURE
Class of Minimum Maximum Consistency Designated Minimum

concrete cement water – range in size of compressive
content per cement ratio slump coarse strength of
cu. m aggregate 150mm x
300mm
square concrete
kg (bags) kg/kg mm (inch) opening – cylinder @
std. mm 28 days
MN/m2 (psi)
50 -100 (2 – 37. 5 – 4.75
A 360 (9) 0.53 20.7 (3000)
4) (1 ½ - No. 4)
50 -100 (2 – 50.0 – 4.75
B 320 (8.5) 0.58 16.5 (2400)
4) (2 - No. 4)
50 -100 (2 – 12. 5 – 4.75
C 380 (9.5) 0.55 20.7 (3000)
4) (½ - No. 4)
100 max ( 4 19.0 – 4.75
P 440 (11) 0.49 37. 7 (5000)
max) (3/4 - No. 4)
100 – 200 (4 25.0 – 4.75
Seal 380 (9.5) 0.58 20.7 (3000)
– 8) (1 - No. 4)
PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN

STRENGTH
Deficiency in strength of concrete Percent (%) of

pavement contract price
Percent (%) allowed
Less than 5 100
5 to less than 10 80
25 or more 0
28
PAYMENT ADJUSTMENT FOR PAVEMENT WITH DEFICIENCY IN
THICKNESS
Deficiency in the Percent (%) of

average thickness contract price
per lot(mm) per lot
0–5 100
6 – 10 95
11 – 15 85
16 – 20 70
21 – 25 50
more than 25 removed and replaced (no payment)
COMMON LABORATORY TESTS
Kind of material Type of test Test duration per sample

(min. # of days)
Cement Physical and chemical 8
Coarse aggregate Grading 3
Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Abrasion 1
Unit weight 1
Fine aggregate Grading 3

Specific gravity 3
Absorption 3
Unit weight 1
Soil aggregates mixture Grading 3

(subbase, base and surfaces
courses
Liquid limit 3
Plastic limit 3
Compaction 3
CBR 7
Abrasion 1
Asphalt Physical 4
Paint Physical and chemical 4
Concrete cylinder Compressive 1
Concrete beam Flexural 1
Concrete core Cutting of sample 1
29
LIMITATIONS/VARIATIONS
ITEM ITEM ITEM 1TEM ITEM ITEM ITEM

104 105 200 201 202 203 300
Abrasion loss 50% 50% 45% 45%
max max max max
Plastic index 6% 12% 6% 4% to 4% to
6% max
max max max 10% 9%
Liquid limit 30% 35% 25% 25% 35%
max max max max max
Permitted
variation from
+15mm,
design ±20mm ±10mm
-5mm
THICKNESS
OF LAYER
Permitted
variation from +20mm, +10mm, -5mm, - +15mm,
design LEVEL -30mm -20mm 10mm -5mm
OF SURFACE
Permitted
surface
irregularity 30mm 20mm 5mm 5mm
measured by 3-
m straight edge
Permitted
variation from
±0.5% ±0.3% ±0.2% +0.2%
design cross
fall or camber
Permitted
variation from
design
±0.1% ±0.1% ±0.1% +0.1%
longitudinal
grade over 25m
length
California 25% 80% 80% 80%
100%
Bearing Ratio min min min min
DIMESION OF PILES
Length of pile Ø (1m from the butt) Minimum

minimum maximum tip Ø
less than 12m 300mm 450mm 200mm
12m to 18m 320mm 450mm 180mm
more than 18m 350mm 500mm 150mm
30
REMOVAL OF FORMS
Scope of work Minimum time Minimum % of design

strength
Centering under girders,
14 days 80%
beams, frames or arches
Floors slabs 14 days 70%
Walls 1 day 70%
Columns 2 days 70%
Sides of beams and all other
1 day 70%
vertical surfaces
SIEVE SIZES
NO. 200 0.075mm NO. 20 0.840mm

NO. 100 0.150mm NO. 16 1.180mm
NO. 60 0.300mm NO. 12 1.700mm
NO.50 0.250mm NO. 10 2.000mm
NO. 40 0.425mm NO. 8 2.360mm
NO. 30 0.600mm NO. 4 4.750mm
DETAILS OF WELDS
Size of fillet weld Maximum thickness of part

5mm 13mm
6mm 19mm
8mm 32mm
10mm 51mm
13mm 152mm
16mm 152mm and above
MINIMUM LAP FOR SPLICING
GRADE 40 GRADE 60
Tension 24 times bar Ø 36 times bar Ø
Compression 20 times bar Ø 24 times bar Ø
31
MINERAL FILLER SHALL BE GRADE WITH IN THE FF. LIMITS (703-A)
Sieve size Mass % passing

NO. 30 100
NO. 50 95 – 100
NO. 200 70 - 100
HYDRATED LIME SHALL CONFORM TO THE FF. REQUIREMENTS (701)
Sieve size Mass % passing

NO. 20 100
NO. 200 85 - 100
MINIMUM WEIGHT OF SAMPLE FOR MOISTURECONTENT
Sieve No. (passing) Weight

NO. 40 25 grams
NO. 10 50 grams
NO. 4 200 grams
½” 300 grams
1” 500 grams
2” 1000 grams
32
MATERIALS ENGINEERS REVIEW NOTES
SET ONE
1. The standard penetration test (SPT) is an in-situ-test that measures what?

Ans. – depth of soil layer
2. Which of the ff. bituminous material is best recommended for sealing weakened plane joints?
Ans. – joint filler asphalt (commonly called hard asphalt or blown asphalt)
3. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called what?
Ans. – segregation
4. The specifications call for 1:2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the ff. amount of
water is most likely required for the mix?
Ans. - 20 liters
5. A one-lane road, with a pavement width of 3.5 meters and shoulder width of 0.5 meter on each
side of the pavement, was designed to have sub base and base courses with a combined thickness
of 300mm. If the thickness of the sub base is a 125mm, the spreading and compaction of the
subbase and base courses shall be carried out in:
Ans. – 3 layers over the full width of 4.5 m
6. As materials engineer, what is the area of the trial section that you would recommend to check the
suitability of the materials and efficiency of the equipment to be used for item 310 Bituminous
Concrete Surface Course?
Ans. – about 500 sq.m
7. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7500 cu.m. How many
grading and plasticity tests are required based on the DPWH minimum testing requirements?
Ans. – 25 grading and 25 plasticity
8. Bituminous concrete mixes contain asphalt by weight equivalent to what?

Ans. – 5 to 8 %
9. Quality of factory-produced reinforced concrete pipes may be best establishment through what?
Ans. – Test of concrete pipes samples
10. Where do we take additional cores when the measured of any core taken from the pavement is
deficient in thickness by more than 25mm?
Ans. – at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected
location
11. The results of the Immersion-Compression test conducted on an asphalt mix sample are as follows:
Dry stability = 2,000 Kpa
Wet stability = 1,000 Kpa
What is the resulting Index of Retained strength? Does it meet the specification requirement of
Item 301, Bituminous Concrete Surface Course?
Ans. –
Index of Retained Strength or IRS = Wet stability x 100
Dry stability
= (1,000 Kpa/2,000 Kpa) x 100
IRS = 50%
* No, it does not meet the specification of Item 310 since the specification
of IRS is 70% minimum while the resulting IRS here is only 50%.
12. Quality Control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_________?
Ans. – Contractor Materials Engineers
13. As materials engineers, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregate of the
course materials?
Ans. – Before the course materials be incorporated in the project.
14. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine what?

Ans. – overheating during manufacture
15. Under what climatic condition(s) do we use the lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Ans. – hot climate
16. Sampling of the freshly mixed concrete should be taken on the ______ batch discharge of the
transit mixer?
Ans. - middle
17. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of sub-grade preparation. If you were
the materials engineer assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that
you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Ans. - geotextiles
18. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6”x6”x12” beam mold be
rodded?
Ans. – 63 times
19. What is the basis for acceptance or rejection of any construction materials?
Ans. – Materials Test Reports
20. In testing concrete cylinder sample the load applied should be continuous without shock at a
constant rate within the range of _______ per second.
Ans. - 0.14 to 0.34 Mpa per second or 20 to 50 psi per second.
21. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a loading shall be permitted.
Ans. – higher rate
22. Initial rolling in bituminous mixes shall be performed with a ___________ roller.
Ans. – Pneumatic-Tire roller
23. Final rolling in bituminous mixes shall be performed with a ____________ roller.
Ans.- 3-wheel or tandem type steel wheel roller
24. Rolling of Bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive
__________or __________.
Ans.- pulverizing of the aggregate or displacement of the mixture
25. Final rolling shall be continued until roller marks are eliminated and a minimum _________ mass
percent of the density of the laboratory compacted a specimen prepared in accordance with
AASHTO T160 has been obtained.
Ans. – 95 mass percent
26. Sample from compacted bituminous mix shall be neatly cut by a saw or core drill. Each sample
shall be at least ___________.
Ans. – 150mm x 150mm x 100mm diameter full depth
27. For surface Tolerances the surface (bituminous mix) will be checked by the used of a __________
at sites selected by the engineer.
Ans. 3-m straight edge
28. If the volume of coarse aggregate intended in your project in 85 cu.m., how many grading test will
you perform?
Ans. - 1 grading test
29. What is the most common method adapted by DPWH in the determination of density of the soil in
place?
Ans. – sand cone method
30. What is the minimum sample for moisture content determination if the maximum size of particles is
50mm (2 inches)?
Ans. – 1000 grams
31. What is the minimum mass of field sample for a maximum size of fine aggregates at 4.75mm
(no.4)?
Ans. – 20 kgs.
32. What is minimum mass of field samples for coarse aggregate with a maximum nominal size of
aggregates of 50mm (2 inches)?
Ans. – 75 kgs.
33. What is the minimum mass/quality of samples for Portland cement to be tested for quality test in
the laboratory?
Ans. – 10 kgs.
34. What is the minimum mass/quality of samples for asphaltic materials?

Ans. – 5 liters
35. The minimum mass/quantity of samples for asphalt mix?

Ans. – 10 kgs.
36. The submission of any type of samples in the laboratory, what should you accomplished and to be
submitted together with the samples?
Ans. – sample card
37. If the minimum yield strength of a grade 40 steel bars is 40,000 psi, what is the equivalent
MN/m2?
Ans. – 276 Mpa
38. If the minimum yield strength of a grade 60 steel bars is 414 Mpa, what is the equivalent in PSI?
Ans. – 60,000 psi
39. How many samples for quality of steel bars grade 40 if there are 15,500 kgs. of steel bars all
25mm 0 at site?
Ans. – 2 samples @ 1 meter long
40. What is the minimum mass of yield samples for coarse aggregates with a maximum nominal size of
aggregate of 75mm (3inches)?
Ans. – 100 kgs.
41. What is the minimum mass of coarse aggregates retained on the 200mm sieve shall be set a side
for sieve analysis for 50mm (2 inches) particle size?
Ans. – 2 kgs.
42. What is the minimum average strength requirement for non load bearing concrete hollow blocks?
Ans. – 4.14 Mpa.
43. What is the minimum average strength requirement for a load bearing concrete hollow blocks?
Ans. – 6.9 Mpa.
44. What is the average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where no payment is
recommended on the project?
Ans. – more than 25 mm
45. What is the maximum average deficient thickness per lot of cores specimen where 100% payment
is recommended?
Ans, - 5 mm maximum
46. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be consider adequate if the average strength of
the cores is equal to at least ________ of the specified strength, f’c and no single core is less than
75% of f’c.
Ans. – 85% f’c
47. The weighted loss of fine aggregates subjected to 5 cycles of the sodium sulfate soundness test
should not exceed.
Ans. – 10 mass %
48. The recommended type of Portland cement to be used in concreting unless otherwise provided for
in the special provision:
Ans. – type 1
49. Portland cement maybe/shall be rejected if:

Ans. - it has partially set
- it contains lumps of cake cement
- it comes from a discarded or used bag
50. Fine aggregates shall be rejected when if fails in the ________ for organic impurities.
Ans. – colormatic test
51. Fine aggregates used for PCCP shall not contain more than ________ of materials passing the
0.075 mm (no. 200 sieve) by washing.
52. The coarse aggregate used for PCCP shall not contain more than ________ of materials passing
the 0.075 mm (no. 200 sieve) by washing.
53. The mass percent of wear or abration loss of coarse aggregate used for when by AASHTO T-96
should not exceed.
Ans. – 50%
54. The weighted loss of coarse aggregate when subjected to five (5) cycle of the sodium sulfate
soundness test should not exceed.
55. The used dowel bars used in PCCP is

Ans. – plain round bar
56. A department Order series of 1997 give supplement guidelines on the conduct of Project
assessment by the Quality assurance units Regional Office (QAU-RO)
Ans. D.O. #52
57. A Department Order series of 1997, Revised DPWH Standard specification for Elastomeric bearing
pads for bridge superstructures.
Ans. – D.O. #20
58. What is the maximum compressive strength of 150 mm x 300 mm concrete cylinder specimen at
28 days for class B concrete?
Ans. – 5000 Psi (37.7 Mpa)
59. What is the maximum compressive strength of 150 mm x 300 mm concrete cylinder specimen at
28 days for class C concrete?
Ans. – 3000 Psi (20.7 Mpa)
60. The weepholes shall be placed at the lowest points where free outlets for water can be obtained
and shall be spread not more than:
Ans. – 2 meters center to center
61. One of the most common method used in compaction test/moisture density relation test of soil is:
Ans. – AASHTO T-180
62. Which of the ff. common method used in compaction test/moisture density relation test of soil
adopted by DPWH:
Ans. – AASHTO T-99 and AASHTO T-180
63. If you are to use AASHTO T-99 method (standard proctor test) in compaction test, what is the
weight of rammer to be used?
Ans. – 2.5 kgs. (5.5 lbs.)
64. Using the standard proctor test or AASHTO T-99, what is the height of drop to a free fall above the
elevation of the soil and uniformly distributes such drops to the soil surface?
Ans. – 305 mm (12”)
65. Using the standard Proctor test or AASHTO T-99 or moisture density relation test, what is the
recommended no. of blows per layer?
Ans. – 25 blows
66. Using the modified Proctor test (AASHTO T-180) method for moisture density relation test of soil,
what is the recommended no. of blows per layer?
Ans. – 56 blows
67. Using again the modified Proctor test ( AASHTO T-180) method for moisture density relation test of
soil, what is the height of drop to a free fall above the elevation of the soil and uniformly distributes
such drops to the soil surface?
Ans. - 457 mm (18”)
68. What is the capacity or the computed volume of mold using 6” (152 mm) mold for both AASHTO T-
99 & AASHTO T-180 method?
Ans. – 0.002124 m3
69. What are the data’s needed in moisture density relation test of soil 2 most common method?
Ans. – maximum dry density (MDD)
- optimum moisture content (OMC)
70. The prime coat shall be left undisturbed for a period of at least ________ hrs. and shall not be
opened to traffic until it has penetrated and cured sufficiently so that it will not be picked up by the
wheels for passing vehicles.
Ans. - 24 hrs.
71. Concrete vibrators shall operate at maximum spacing of ________.
Ans. – 60 cm
72. Stockpiles of concrete aggregates shall be built-up in layers of not more than in thickness.
Ans. – one (1) meter
73. All washed aggregates shall be stockpiled or binned for draining at least ________ hrs. before
being batched.
Ans. – 12 hrs.
74. Concrete not in place within ________ from the time the ingredients where charged into the
mixing drum or that has developed initial set shall not be used.
Ans. – 90 minutes
75. Shall not be painted or coated with asphalt or other materials or enclosed in tubes or sleeves.
Ans. – tie bars
76. Mortar that is not used within ________ after the water has been added shall be discarded.
Ans. – 90 minutes
77. The maximum tensile strength of the wire mesh for gabions shall be
Ans. – 586.1 Mpa
78. A wire mesh made of galvanized steel used as a protection works.

Ans. – gabions
79. Minimum diameter of gabions per standard specification requirements

Ans. – 2.70 mm
80. Determines the hardness and stability of the compacted asphalt pavement
Ans. – core test
81. Sampling of PCCP/asphalt core specimens shall be taken from the pavement using:
Ans. – core drill
82. Size of asphalt core specimen for thickness and density determination:
Ans. – at least 150 mm x 150 mm
- 100 mm diameter full depth
83. The diameter of asphalt core specimens shall be at least equal to:
Ans. – one and one half times the maximum size of aggregates
84. The thickness of asphalt core specimens shall be at least equal to:
Ans. – two (2) times the maximum size of aggregates
85. Obtaining asphalt core specimens for each full days operation shall be:
Ans. – at least one but not more than three (3) core samples
86. Determining the thickness of asphalt core specimens is by:

Ans. – averaging the four sides of the core samples
87. Bituminous mixture will be measured by:

Ans. – tons
88. The average of ________ measures are made on the asphalt core specimens in determining the
thickness.
Ans. – 4
89. In bituminous mixture, ________ will not be permitted as a method of measurement.
Ans. – batch weights
90. A core shall be taken for every ________ if no core was taken at the end of each days operation.
Ans. – 100 Lm per lane
91. The average of four (4) measurements on the asphalt core specimen is to determine the
Ans. – thickness
92. The computation for the quantity of bituminous mixture area the ff.
Given:
Paving length represented, m = 120
Thickness, cm = 5.0
Width, m = 3.05
Total length of pavement, m= 380
Density, gm/cm3 = 2.221
Ans. – 40.64 tons
93. Main constituents of asphalt which is found in nature or as a residue in petroleum refining.
Ans. – bitumen
94. Asphalt is a dark ________ cementations material, solid or semi-solid consistency

Ans. – brown to black
95. Sampling bituminous mixes is one (1) sample every:

Ans. – 75 cu.m. or 130 m.t.
96. Sampling of asphalt is one (1) sample for every:

Ans. – 200 drums or 40 m.t.
97. Sampling of solid asphalt is one (1) sample for every:

Ans. – 10 lbs.
98. Representative quantity of one sample in sampling liquid asphalt is ________ sample for every:
Ans. – 1 quart to 1 gallon
99. During the breakdown rolling of asphalt mix, it is carried out by:
Ans. – pneumatic roller
100. In rolling asphalt mix, what phase of rolling is to remove the marks by the
other roller?
Ans. – final rolling
101. Ideal composition bituminous aggregates in the asphalt mix.

Ans. – 92 % to 96 %
102. The protection of hydrated lime added to the mixture by aggregate basis.
Ans. – 0.50 to 1.0 mass percent
103. The mixture of item 231 shall have a mass percent air voids with range of ________.
Ans. – 3 to 5
104. A consistency test for solid asphalt that determines the hardness of asphalt.
Ans. – Penetration
105. Determines the purity of asphalt on how much bitumen is in the asphalt.
Ans. – asphaltane
106. The properties of asphalt depend upon this ________ substance which is soluble in
petroleum solvents.
Ans. – Petrolane
107. Imparts ductility and high break point.

Ans. – resins
108. Apparatus used in the Penetration Test of asphalt.

Ans. – Penetrometer
109. Apparatus used in the Ductility Test of asphalt.

Ans. – ductility machine
110. Apparatus used in Flash Point Test of asphalt

Ans. – Cleveland Open Cup
111. The objective is to determine as economical blend between graded aggregates and asphalt
in order to produce a pavement that would meet the required specification.
Ans. – Job – mix formula
112. Asphalt cement with water and a little amount of emulsifier, usually derivatives of salt.
Ans. – Emulsified Asphalt
113. Asphalt cement mixed with kerosene, black in color and liquid and room temperature.
Ans. – Medium Curing Cut – back Asphalt
114. Test specimen required for Item 311 – Portland Cement Concrete Pavement.
Ans. – Concrete beam
115. Required slump for PCCP, if vibrated.

Ans. – 10 to 40 mm
116. Forms for PCCP shall remain in place undisturbed for not less than ________ hrs. after
concrete pouring.
Ans. – 24
117. Concrete shall be thoroughly consolidated by means of:

Ans. – vibrator
118. Flexural strength of PCCP when tested at third point.

Ans. – 3.80 Mpa
119. Transverse construction joint is also called as ________ is constructed when there is an
interruption of more than 30 minutes in the correcting works.
Ans. – cold joint
120. Mixing time of PCCP shall not be less than ________ or more than _______
Ans. – five (5) seconds, ninety (90) minutes
121. Compressive strength of PCCP tested at 14 days.

Ans. – 24.1 Mpa
122. Slumps for a workable PCCP if not vibrated

Ans. – 40 to 75 mm
123. Depth of weakened plane joints should at all times not be less than _______.
Ans. – 50 mm
124. Bars placed perpendicular to the longitudinal joint of PCCP.
Ans. – tie bars
125. Vibrators shall not be operated longer than ________ in any one location.
Ans. – 15 minutes
126. Flexural strength of PCCP when tested at mid-point.

Ans. – 4.50 Mpa
127. Sawing of joints of PCCP shall commence as soon as the concrete has hardened sufficiently,
usually ________.
Ans. – within 24 hrs.
128. The surface of the newly placed PCCP shall be cured for a period of
________.
Ans. – 72 hrs.
129. Used as load transfer device and are held in-position parallel to the centerline of the slab.
Ans. – dowels
130. Curing compound shall not be applied during ________.

Ans. – rain
131. Straw curing on PCCP shall be at least ________ thick which is measured after wetting.
Ans. – 20 cm.
132. The finished product of mixing aggregates with cement and water.
Ans. – concrete
133. Rate of increase in strength is ________ at high temperature than at low temperature.
Ans. – higher
134. Most specifications for concrete exposed to weathering require that water-cement ratio be
________ by weight.
Ans. – 0.53
135. Physical property of concrete that withstand deterioration due to exposure to weathering
action.
Ans. – durability
136. Over sanded and under sanded mixtures require more water in order to be workable, but
making it so will, only result in a sacrifice in:
Ans. – strength
137. The method commonly used to test on workability of concrete.

Ans. – ball penetration test
138. The new method used to test on workability of concrete and these tests are readily
made in the field.
Ans. – slump test
139. For rich mixes, the strength of ________ is the controlling factor.
Ans. – aggregates
140. Strength of concrete is principally dependent on the ________.

Ans. – water-cement ration
141. Class of concrete that is deposited in water.
Ans. – seal
142. Class of concrete used for pre-stressed concrete structure and its member.
Ans. – Class “P”
143. Class of concrete used in footings, missive pier shafts and unreinforced or with only a small
amount of reinforcement.
Ans. – Class “B”
144. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections like railings.

Ans. – Class “C”
145. Sampling of Portland cement should be done in accordance with AASHTO.

Ans. – T-127
146. One (1) Sieve Analysis for every ________ of concrete aggregates or a fraction thereof:
Ans. – 1,500 m3
147. A minimum weight of ________ sample shall be taken from each 2,000 bags of cement or
fraction thereof.
Ans. – 10 kg.
148. Class of concrete used to all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures.
Ans. – Class “A”
REVIEW QUESTIONAIRE:
1. What is the dividing line between coarse and fine aggregates?

Ans. – 2.00 mm sieve
2. The depth of the weakened plain joint should at all times not less than:
Ans. – 50 mm
3. Serves as load transfer device and are held in position parallel to the surface and center line of the
slab by a metal device:
Ans. – dowel
4. The depth of corrugation in the surface pavement after brooming:

Ans. – 1.5 mm
5. The width of weakened joint should not be more than:

Ans. – 6 mm
6. The flexural strength of the concrete beam sample at 14 days when tested at third point method:
Ans. – 3.8 Mpa
7. What is the weight of class “A” Riprap stones:

Ans. – 15 kgs. to a maximum of 25 kgs. with at least 50% weighing 20 kgs.
8. The proportion of mix of mortar for grouted riprap shall be:

Ans. – one part of cement to 3 parts of sand
9. The practice of artificially densifying and incorporating and incorporating definite density into the
soil mass rolling, tampering or other means:
Ans. – compaction
10. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement will occurs leading o failure:
Ans. – bearing capacity
11. Specified or selected materials of designed thickness placed as foundation for pavement.
Ans. - base
12. The materials in excavation (cuts) embankment (fills) and embankment foundation immediate
below the layer of subbase, base or pavement and to such depth as may effect the structural
design:
Ans. – sub-grade materials
13. Specified or selected materials of designed thickness placed as a foundation for base:
Ans. – subbase
14. A widely used as control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction:
Ans. – field density test
15. A sand used to measure the volume of test hole in FDT:

Ans. – calibrated sand
16. What item number is Portland Cement Concrete Pavement:

Ans. – item 311
17. What are the essential laboratory test for soil classification:
Ans. – grading plastic and liquid limit test
18. Provided along the slopes of high embankments as an erosion control measure and to improve the
stability of the side slopes;
Ans. – berm
19. What is the oven drying temperature for moisture content determination:
Ans. – 110 C + 5
20. What is the air drying temperature?

Ans. – not to exceed 60ºC
21. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixture:
Ans. – job-mix formula
22. The most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete mixes:
Ans. – Marshall Stability Method
23. The most common method in determining the consistency of concrete mix:
Ans. – slump test
24. A Department Memorandum Circular, a revised method on FDT:

Ans. – DM No. 48
25. Interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken
wire:
Ans. – alligator cracks
26. A layer of an asphalt aggregate mixture of variable thickness used to eliminate irregularities in the
content of an existing surface prior to placement of an overlay:
Ans. – asphalt leveling course
27. An application of low-viscosity cutback to an absorbent surface or a mixed-in application of

emulsified asphalt. It is used only on untreated base prior to placement of an asphalt pavement.
Ans. – asphalt prime coat
28. A thin asphalt surface treatment used to waterproof and improve the texture of an asphalt wearing
surface.
Ans. - asphalt surface treatment
29. The upward movement of asphalt in an asphalt pavement resulting in the formation of a film of
asphalt on the surface.
Ans. – bleeding flushing asphalt
30. An application of asphalt materials to any type of road or pavement surface with or without a cover
of mineral aggregates that produce an increase in thickness of less than 25mm or 1 inch.
Ans. – asphalt surface treatment
31. The localized buckling or shattering of a rigid type pavement occurring usually at transverse crack
or joint.
Ans. – blow-up
32. A very light application of asphalt applied to an existing asphalt or Portland cement surface, used
to ensure a bond between the surface of being paved and the overlaying course.
Ans. – asphalt tack coat
33. A mixture of slow setting emulsified asphalt, water, aggregates and mineral filler produce to a
slurry consistency and placed on pavement surface.
Ans. – asphalt emulsion slurry seal
34. The separation of the pavement due to natural causes, traffic action or reflections from an
underlying pavement.
Ans. – crack
35. The bowl-shape holes of varying sizes in the pavement, resulting from localized disintegration.
Ans. – potholes
36. A crack in asphalt overlay that reflects the crack pattern in the pavement structure underneath.
Ans. – reflective cracks
37. The progressive separation of aggregate particles in a pavement from the surface downward or
from the edge inward.
Ans. – raveling
38. A crack sometimes crescent shaped, that point in the direction of the trust of the wheels on the
pavement surface caused by lack of bond between two pavement layer.
Ans. – slippage cracks
39. Any condition that might contribute to making a pavement slippery.

Ans. – skid hazard
40. The uniform rate of flow of concrete when poured.

Ans. – 15 to 20 cu.m. per hour
41. Used to evaluate the potential strength of soil aggregate.
Ans. – CBR
42. Test used to determine the hardness property of course aggregates.

Ans. – abrasion test
43. Test which gives an indication of clay content soil.

Ans. – plasticity index
44. The soaked CBR value for Item 200(subbase) at maximum dry density is:
Ans. – not less than 25%
45. The soaked CBR value for Item 201(base course) at maximum dry density is:
Ans. – not less than 80%
46. The mass percent of wear of course aggregates for base materials by Los Angeles Abrasion Test.
Ans. – not more than 50 %
47. The stones used for stone masonry shall have a thickness of not less than:
Ans. – 150mm
48. The rate of loading for compressive strength:

Ans. – 20-50 psi / sec.
49. The temperature for moist curing of specimen that gives the best result.
Ans. – 15.5 C to 37.5 C
50. The maximum size to course aggregates required for Item 311 (PCCP)
Ans. – 2 ½ inches (63mm)
51. A program of quality control works to be complied by the contractor is prepared by DPWH.
Ans. – quality control program
52. Prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities. The requirements specify the kind and
number of test for each item of works.
Ans. – minimum testing requirements
53. Memorandum Circular No. hereby directed that all materials men incharge in a said project keep a
logbook on materials quality control.
Ans. – MC #80
54. A department order hereby directed that only test report issued by the regional/district laboratories
of the department and other testing laboratories accredited by the DPWH shall be allowed to be
used in the acceptance or rejection of construction materials.
Ans. – D.O. # 135
55. A department order, hereby directed, no acceptance and final payment shall be made on completed
concrete and asphalt pavements unless core test for thickness determination is conducted.
Ans. – D.O. # 119
56. A number of measurements for concrete core specimen.

Ans. – 9
57. A number of measurements for asphalt core specimen.

Ans. – 4
58. A test covers the quantitative determination of bitumen in hot mixed paving mixtures and
pavement samples for specification acceptance, service evaluation, control and research.
Ans. – extraction test
59. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates subbase materials on surface
irregularity measured by a 3m straight edge.
Ans. – 20mm
60. The permitted variations in design requirements of aggregates base materials on cross fall or
camber.
Ans. – 0.20%
61. If the required thickness for subbase or base is 150mm or less, this maybe spread and compacted
in.
Ans. – 1 layer
62. The in-place-density (tested by AASHTO-T-191) of each layer should consistently.

Ans. – at least 95% of the MDD
63. The maximum sieve opening for grading requirement of aggregate base course.
Ans. 50mm
64. The bituminous prime coat materials should be applied by a pressure distributor at specified
temperature and at an application rate ranging from:
Ans. – 1 to 2 liters / sq.m.
65. The rate of application for bituminous tack coat materials (item 302) ranging from:
Ans. – 0.2 to 0.7 liters / sq.m.
66. The P.I. for mineral filler used for Hot Plant Mix Bituminous Pavement:
Ans. – not greater than 6
67. The gradation requirement used for Hot Mix Bituminous Pavement.
Ans. – grading d
68. The placing temp. for bituminous mixture measured in the truck prior to dumping.
Ans. – should not be less than 107 ºC
69. How many samples or core drilled samples be taken for each days full operation.
Ans. – at least one, but not more than 3
70. Unsuitable materials are soils with a liquid limit exceeding.

Ans. – 80
71. Unsuitable materials are soils with natural water content exceeding.
Ans. – 80
72. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic material such as grass, roots, sewerage
highly organic soils such as peat and muck.
Ans. – unsuitable materials
73. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a liquid limit of:
76. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 202 shall have a liquid limit as
determined by AASHTO T-89
77. The fraction passing the 0.425mm (No.40) sieve for Item 200 shall have a plasticity index of:
80. The coarse portion, retained on a 2.00mm (No.10) sieves for Item 201 shall have a mass percent
of wear by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests as determined by AASHTO – T96.
Ans. – not exceeding 50
of wear by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests.
82. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 202 shall have a soaked CBR value tested
according to AASHTO T-193.
Ans. – 25% minimum
83. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 201 shall have a soaked CBR value tested
according to AASHTO T-193.
84. The materials passing the 19mm sieves for Item 202 shall have a soaked CBR value of:
of wear by the Los Angeles Abrasion Tests of:
ASPHALT TECHNOLOGY
1. The primary control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixture

2. The most common used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete mixes.
Ans. – Marshall Common Method
3. A layer of an asphalt aggregate mixture of variable thickness used to eliminate irregularities in the
cement of an existing surface prior to placement of an overlay.
Ans. – asphalt leveling course
4. An application of low-viscosity cutback to an absorbent surface, or mixed in application of

emulsified asphalt. It is used only on untreated base prior to placement of an asphalt pavement.
Ans. – asphalt prime coat
5. A thin asphalt surface treatment used to waterproof and improve the texture of an asphalt wearing
surface.
Ans. – asphalt seal cost
6. The upward movement of asphalt in an asphalt pavement resulting in the information of film of
asphalt on the surface.
Ans. – bleeding of flushing asphalt
7. An application of asphalt materials to any type of road or pavement surface with or without a cover
of mineral aggregates that produce an increase in thickness of less than 25mm or 1 inch.
Ans. – asphalt surface treatment
8. The localized buckling or shattering of a rigid – type pavement, occurring usually at transverse
crack or joint.
Ans. – blow-up
9. A very light application of asphalt applied to an existing asphalt or Portland cement surface, used
to ensure a bond between the surface of being paved and the overlaying course.
Ans. – asphalt track coat
10. The separation of the pavement due to natural causes, traffic action, or reflections from an
underlaying pavement.
Ans. – crack
11. The bowl-shape holes of varying sizes in the pavement, resulting from localized disintegration.
Ans. – potholes
12. A crack in asphalt overlays that reflects the crack pattern in the pavement structure underneath.
Ans. – reflective cracks
13. The progressive separation of aggregate particles in a pavement from the surface downward of
from the edge inward.
Ans. – raveling
14. A cracks sometimes crescent shaped that point in the direction of the trust of the wheels on the
pavement surface caused by lack of bond between two pavement layers.
Ans. – slippage cracks
15. Any condition that might contribute to making a pavement slippery.

Ans. – skid hazard
16. A department Order, hereby directed, No acceptance and final payment shall be made on
completed concrete and asphalt pavement unless core test for thickness determination is
conducted.
Ans. – DO # 119
17. A number of measurements for asphalt core specimen.

Ans. – 2
18. A test covers the quantitative determination of bitumen in hot mixed paving mixtures and
pavement samples for specification acceptance, service, service evaluation, control and research.
19. The bituminous Prime Coat materials should be applied by a pressure distributor at specified
temperature and at an application rate ranging from
Ans. – 1 to 2 liters/m2
20. The rate of application for Bituminous Tack Coat materials (Item 302) ranging from
Ans. – 0.2 to 0.7 liters/m2
21. The graduation requirement used for Hot Mix Bituminous Pavement
Ans. – grading D
22. The placing temperature for Bituminous mixture measured in the truck prior to dumping
Ans. – should not be less than 107 ºC
23. How many samples or core drilled samples be taken for each days full operation
Ans. – at least one, but more than 3
24. The solvent used to test on residue from distillation at 288ºC of asphalt materials
Ans. – trichloroethylene
25. At least three (3) weeks prior to production, the contractor shall submit in writing ________ for
each mixture supported by laboratory test data
26. Determines the thickness and density of compacted asphalt pavement

Ans. – core test
27. Sampling of PCCP/asphalt core specimens shall be taken form the pavement using
Ans. – core drill
28. Size of asphalt core specimen for thickness and density determination
Ans. – at least 150mm x 150mm (6 in. x 6 in.)
100mm diameter full depth
29. The diameter of asphalt core specimens shall be at least equal to

Ans. - four (4) times the maximum size of aggregates
30. The thickness of asphalt core specimens shall be at least equal to

Ans. – one and one-half times the maximum size of aggregates
31. Obtaining asphalt core specimens for each full days operation shall be
Ans. – at least one (1) but not more than three (3) core samples
32. Determining the thickness of asphalt core specimens is by

Ans. – averaging the four sides of the core samples
33. Bituminous mixture will be measured by

Ans. – tons
34. The average of ________ measures are made on the asphalt core specimens in determining the
thickness
Ans. – four (4)
35. in bituminous mixture ________ will not be permitted as a method of measurement

Ans. – batch weights
36. The average of four measurements on the asphalt core specimen is to determine the
Ans. – thickness
37. The computation for the quantity of bituminous mixture, are the ff:
Given:
Paving length represented, m = 120.000
Thickness; cm = 5.000
Width, m = 3.050
Total length of pavement, m= 380.000
Density, gm/cm3 = 2.221
Ans. – 40.64 tons
38. Main constituents of asphalt which is found in nature or as residue in petroleum refining
Ans. – bitumen
39. Asphalt is a dark ________ cementations material, solid or semi-solid consistency.

Ans. – brown to black
40. Sampling bituminous mixes is one (1) sample for every

Ans. – 75 cu.m. or 130 m.t.
41. Sampling of asphalt is one (1) sample for every

Ans. – 200 drums or 40 m.t.
42. Sampling of solid asphalt is one (1) sample for every

Ans. – 10 lbs.
43. Representative quantity of one (1) sample in sampling liquid asphalt is ________ sample for every
Ans. – 1 quart to 1 gallon
44. During the breakdown rolling of asphalt mix, it is carried out by

Ans. – steel wheeled roller
45. In rolling asphalt mix, what phase of rolling is to remove the marks by the other rollers
Ans. – final rolling
46. A consistency test for solid asphalt that determines the hardness of asphalt
Ans. – penetration
47. The properties of asphalt depends upon this _______ substance which is soluble in petroleum
solvents as N-phases
Ans. – petrolene
48. Imparts ductility high breakpoint

Ans. – asphaltine
49. Apparatus used in Penetration Test of asphalt

Ans. – Penetrometer
50. Apparatus used in ductility Test as asphalt

Ans. – Ductility Machine
51. Apparatus used in Flash Point Test of asphalt

Ans. – Cleveland Open Cup
52. The objective is to determine as economical blend between graded aggregates and asphalt in order
to produce a pavement that would meet the required specification.
53. Asphalt cement with water and a little amount of emulsifier, usually derivatives of salt
Ans. – emulsified asphalt
54. Asphalt cement mixed with kerosene, block in color and liquid at room temperature
Ans. – medium curing cutback asphalt
55. Which kind of Emulsified Asphalt that is negatively charge

Ans. – Anionic Asphalt
56. Cutback asphalt can be classified according to each ________.

Ans. – viscosity
57. Asphalt cement can be determined or classified by their ________.

Ans. – Penetration Grade
58. What kind of asphalt used for joint fillers?

Ans. – Blown or Oxidized Asphalt
59. What kind of asphalt that is mixed with a solvent?

Ans. – cutback asphalt
60. What physical test that determines if the asphalt is overheated during production?
Ans. – spot test
61. What kind of asphalt cement that are commonly used in the Philippines?
Ans. – 60 to 70 or 85 to 100
62. What test that will determine if the asphalt is a good binder?
Ans. – ductility test
63. Which of the ff. is not an important property aggregates?

Ans. – smoothness
64. What property of mix that has the ability to resist deformation form an imposed load?
Ans. – stability
65. What property of mix that has the ability to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of
wheel load?
Ans. – fatigue resistance
66. In Marshall Stability Test, which of the criteria not included in determining the average bitumen
content?
Ans. – flow
67. Specific for Air Voids is ________.

Ans. - 3.0 to 5.0
68. Given: Maximum Stability = 6.05 Bulk Specific Gravity = 2.495 Maximum
Unit Weight = 5.55 Stability = 1.150
Flow = 5.65 Flow, 025mm = 7.20
Design Air Voids = 5.20 VFA = 75.00
Determine the Optimum Asphalt Content?

Ans. – 5.60
69. What property of mix that has the ability to offer resistance to slipping or skidding when mix?
Ans. – skid resistance
70. Given: Weight of Sample in Air = 1,188

Weight of Sample in Water = 700
Weight of Sample in Saturated Dry = 1,230
Specific Gravity of Asphalt = 2.48
Specific Gravity of Aggregates = 2.55
Determine the Bulk Specific Gravity of Mix?

Ans. – 2.24
71. Given: Specific Gravity of Asphalt = 1.01

Specific Gravity of Aggregates = 2.72
% Asphalt Content = 7%
% Air Voids = 4%
Determine the Maximum Theoretical Specific Gravity considering Air Void?

Ans. – 2.43
72. What property of mix that has the ability to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to
gradual settlement and movements of the base and sub-grade?
Ans. – flexibility
73. Mineral filler shall have a plasticity index of not greater than ________.
Ans. – 4
74. The prime coat should not be disturbed for at least ________ hrs. and should not be ________ to
traffic until it has penetrated and cured efficiency.
Ans. – 24 opened
75. Emulsified Asphalt is c colloidal dispersion of asphalt in water. It is ________ colored before use
and turns ________ when the emulsion is broken.
Ans. – chocolate, black
76. Bituminous materials should fall with what range of tolerance?

Ans. – (+/-) 0.4%
77. Temperature of mixture shall have a range of tolerance of ________.

Ans. – (+/-) 10ºC
78. Given: Dry Stability = 1,600

Wet Stability = 1,400
Saturated Stability = 1,200
Determine the Index of retained Strength.

Ans. – 87.50%
79. What is the initial load employed in stability machine?

Ans. – 150 psi
80. What is a small air space that occurs between the coated aggregates particles in a compacted mix?
Ans. – Air Voids
81. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to, or greater than, ________ mass percent of
the density of laboratory specimen prepared in accordance with the ________.
Ans. – 90- Marshall Stability Test
82. What is the measure of the resistance or measure of distortion of the specimen?
Ans. – flow index
83. Given: % of CA, FA, MF respectively = 45, 35, 20

Sp. Gr. Of CA, FA, MF respectively = 2.75, 2.56, 2.40
What is the specific gravity of aggregates?

Ans. – 2.61
84. What do you call the wearing away of the pavement surface caused by the dislodging of aggregate
particle?
Ans. – raveling
85. The upward movement in an asphalt pavement resulting in the formation of a film of asphalt on the
surface _______.
Ans. – bleeding
86. What is the longitudinal surface depression of the wheel paths?

Ans. – rutting
87. Given: Weight of original sample = 1,140 grams

Weight after Extraction = 980 grams
Original Weight of filler ring = 30 grams
Increase of Weight in filler ring = 30 grams
Determine the asphalt content?

Ans. – 5.55
88. For the same stretch of road, no core test was conducted at the end of each days operation. Thus,
cores were taken for every 100 linear meters of the completed pavement.
100 m 5.3 2.262

100 m 5.1 2.311
100 m 5.1 2.225
100 m 5.2 2.237
100 m 5.0 2.226
What is the quantity?

Ans. – 169.72
89. The specimen is tested for stability and flow at ________ ºC as specified in the standard procedure
Ans. – 30 ºC
90. In the design of Air Voids, will draw down a line at ________.
Ans. – 4.0
91. Which of the ff. is not the component of Asphalt Plant?

92. During asphalt construction, what are the controlled tests?
- stability
- grading
93. What is the apparatus used to check the temperature of asphalt mix/
Ans. – Armored Thermometer
94. What do you call the localized upward displacement of a pavement due to swelling of the sub-grade
or some portion of the pavement structure?
Ans. – upheaval
95. What do you call the slab movement under passing loads resulting in the ejection of mixtures of
water, sand, clay or silt along transverse or longitudinal joints?
Ans. – pumping
96. What is the Item number of Bit Concrete Surface Course, 1 lot laid?
Ans. - 310

SET TWO
1. The standard penetration test (SPT) is an in-situ test that measures what?
Ans. – depth of soil layer
2. Which of the ff. bituminous material is best recommended for sealing weakened plane joints?
Ans. – joint filler asphalt (commonly called hard asphalt or blown asphalt)
3. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called what?
Ans. – segregation
4. The specification call for 1:2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the ff. amount of
water is most likely required for the mix?
Ans. – 20 liters
5. A one lane road, with a pavement was designed to have subbase and base courses with a
combined thickness of 300mm. If the thickness of the subbase is a 125mm, the spreading and
compaction of the subbase and base courses shabby be earned out in:
Ans. – 3 layers over the full width of 4.5 m.
6. As materials engineer, what is the area of the trial section that you would recommend to check the
suitability of the materials and efficiency of the equipment to be used for Item 310 Bituminous
Ans. – about 500 sq.m.
7. Per program of work, the estimated volume of Item 201 materials is 7500 cu.m. How many
grading and plasticity tests are required based on the DPWH minimum testing requirements?
Ans. – 25 grading and 25 plasticity
8. Bituminous concrete mixes contain asphalt by weight equivalent to what?

Ans. – 5 to 8 %
9. Quality of factory produced reinforced concrete pipes may be best established through what?
Ans. – Test of concrete pipe samples
10. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from the pavement is
deficient in thickness by more than 25mm?
Ans. – at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction
from the affected location
11. The results of the Immersion-Compression test conducted on an asphalt mix sample are as follows:
Dry Stability = 2,000 Kpa
Wet Stability = 1,000 Kpa
What is the resulting Index of Retained strength? Does it meet the specification requirement of
Item 310, Bituminous Concrete Surface Course?
Ans. –
Index Retained Strength or IRS = Wet stability x 100
Dry stability
= (1,000 Kpa/,000 Kpa) x 100
IRS = 50%
*No, it does not meet the specification of Item 310 since the specification of IRS is 70% minimum
while the resulting IRS here is only 50%.
12. Quality Control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the ________?
Ans. – Contractor Material Engineers
13. As materials engineers, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregate of the
course materials?
Ans. – before the course materials be incorporated in the project
14. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine what?

Ans. – overheating during manufacture
15. Under what climatic conditions do we use the lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
16. Sampling of the freshly mixed concrete should be taken on the ________ batch discharge of the
transit mixer?
Ans. – middle
17. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of sub-grade preparation. If you were
the materials engineer assigned to the project, what is the most effective and cheaper method that
you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the sub base course?
Ans. – geotextiles
rodded?
Ans. – 63 times
Ans. – Materials Test Reports
constant rate within the range of ________ per second.
Ans. – 0.14 to 0.34 Mpa per second or 20 to 50 psi per second
21. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a loading shall be permitted.
Ans. – higher rate
22. Initial rolling in bituminous mixes shall be performed with a ________ roller.
Ans. – Pneumatic Tire Roller
23. Final rolling in bituminous mixes shall be performed with a ________ roller.
Ans. – 3 wheel or tandem type steel wheel roller
24. Rolling of Bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive ________
or ________.
Ans. – pulverizing of the aggregate or displacement of the mixture
25. Final rolling shall be continued until roller marks are eliminated and a minimum ________ mass
percent of the density of the laboratory compacted a specimen prepared in accordance with
AASHTO T160 has been obtained.
26. Sample from compacted bituminous mix shall be neatly cut by a saw or core drill. Each sample
shall be at least ________.
Ans. – 150mm x 150mm or 100mm diameter full depth
27. For surface tolerances the surface (bituminous mix) will be checked by the used of a ________ at
sites selected by the engineer.
Ans. – 3 –m straight edge
28. What is the sampling requirement for paving concrete for every 75 cu.m. or fraction thereof.
Ans. – one (1) set (consisting of 3 pcs.) concrete beam sample
29. In testing bituminous beam sample for Immersion-Compression Stability is soaked in water bath
for ________ days.
Ans. – 4 days or 96 hrs.
30. Given:
Wt. of dry aggregate = 950g
Wt. of asphalt = 50g
What is the % of asphalt by weight of total mix?

Ans. – Wt. of total mix = wt. of dry aggregate. + wt. of asphalt
= 950 g + 50 g
= 1,500 g
Thereof: (50 g / 1,000 g) x 100 =5%
31. Does the percent asphalt in problem #29 meet the required specification for percent asphalt in
bituminous mixes? Why?
Ans. – Yes, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous mixes
is 5% to 8%
32. If the actual percent asphalt in problem #30 is 5% and the percent asphalt in a job-mix formula is
5.6% did it pass the required tolerance? Why?
Ans. – No, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula is 1-0.4%.
33. Which is not the duty or responsibility of a materials engineer?

Ans. – quantity of construction material
34. Which is the duty or responsibility of a materials engineer?

Ans. – quality of construction material
35. Problems regarding quality of construction materials shall be reported directly by the contractor’s
materials engineer to the ________.
Ans. – DPWH Materials Engineer
36. How many concrete cylinder sample is required for a 300 pcs. Reinforced Concrete Culvert Pipes
(RCCP)?
Ans. – 12 sets (consisting of 3 pcs. cone, cylinder per set)
37. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs. culvert pipes, how many pipes shall be subjected
to test?
Ans. – 6 pcs, culvert pipes
38. What kind of test that requires calibrated sand in filling the hole in order to determine the volume
of hole?
Ans. – Field Density Test (FDT)
39. What test that is using a rammer and mold?
Ans. – Moisture-Density Relation Test or Compaction Test
40. What kind of asphalt that has a penetration grade of 0 to 30 mm?
Ans. – Blown Asphalt
41. If there is a necessary to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provide
concrete does not exceed specified slump), how many minutes after the initial time of mixing does
adding water be permitted?
Ans. – not exceeding 45 minutes and that water-cement ration is not exceeded

SET THREE
Item 310 – Bituminous Concrete Surface Course, Hot Laid
Item 310 consist of constructing a Bituminous Concrete Surface Course composed of

Aggregates, mineral filler and bituminous material mixed in a certain plant.
1. What is the % weight of aggregates (coarse, fine and mineral filler) in the mixture of Bituminous
Ans. – 92% to 95%
2. What is the percent weight of asphalt in the bituminous mixture?

Ans. – 5% to 8%
3. How can we establish the exact percentage to be used in the bituminous mixture?
4. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in bituminous concrete surface
course?
Ans. – a.) Tar – is a viscous liquid obtained from distillation of coal or wood
b.) Petroleum asphalt – are the products of the distillation of crude oil.
5. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalt products?

Ans. – a.) Asphalt Cement – produced in various viscosity grades the most common
Penetration grade are 200/300,120/150,85/100,60/70,40/50
b.) Cutback Asphalt – are asphalt mixed with solvents to reduce their viscosity
c.) Emulsified Asphalt (Asphalt emulsion) – are mixture of asphalt cement and
water with emulsifying agent.
6. What are the solvents for cutback asphalt?

Ans. – a.) gasoline for rapid curing (RC) type
b.) kerosene for medium curing (MC) type
c.) diesel fuel for slow curing (SC) type
7. Emulsified asphalts are either ________ or ________.

Ans. – a.) cationic emulsion - which work better with wet aggregates and in cold
weather.
b.) anionic emulsion – which adhere better to aggregates which have positive
charges.
8. What is the bituminous material commonly used in Item 310?

Ans. – Asphalt Cement (AC)
9. What greatly influenced the service of an asphalt pavement?

Ans. – grade and quantity of asphalt
10. What influenced primarily the grade of asphalt selected?
Ans. – climatic condition
11. The lower penetration grade or hard asphalt is used in ________?

12. The higher penetration grade or softer asphalt is used in ________?

Ans. – cold climate
13. How many weeks do a producer of asphalt mix or the contractor’s shall submit the job-mix
formula?
Ans. – three (3) weeks prior to production
14. Who will approve the job-mix formula?

Ans. – DPWH Project Engineer and Materials Engineer
15. The job-mix formula contains provisions on the ff.:

Ans. – a.) grading of aggregates
b.) percentage and type of asphalt
c.) temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d.) temperature of mixture upon delivery or a time of compaction
16. What is the primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixture?
Ans. – job-mix formula which shall conform to the ff. ranges of tolerance:
Passing No.4 and larger sieves ± 7%
Passing No.8 and No.100 sieves ± 4%
Passing No.200 sieves ± 2%
Bituminous materials ± 0.4%
Temperature of mixture ± 10 ºC
17. What is the minimum dry compressive strength of the mixture?

Ans. – 1.4 Mpa ( 200 psi )
18. The mixture shall have a mass percent air voids with the range of ________?
Ans. – 3.0%
19. What is the Index of Retained Strength of the mixture?

20. What is the most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of bituminous concrete
mixes?
Ans. – Marshall Stability Method
21. The quality control tests for asphalt mix are the ff.:
Ans. – a.) Immersion Compression Test – determines the Index of Retained Strength of
the mix.
b.) Extraction and Grading Test – determines the asphalt contains and particle
size distribution of coarse and fine aggregates
c.) Laboratory Density Test – determines the degree and compaction
22. What is the correct temperature that the mixture shall be placed as measured in the truck just
prior to dumping into the spreader?
Ans. – 107 ºC
23. When Tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed?
Ans. – 66 ºC to 107 ºC
24. When the compaction is be done in order to attain the required density?
Ans. – when the mixture is still hot and workable
25. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required
density?
Ans. – trial section
26. What control during the mixing and compaction is of great significance in the strength of the
resulting pavement?
Ans. – temperature
27. What kind of roller should be used for the initial or breakdown compaction?
Ans. – Pneumatic Tire Roller (not less than 10 tons)
28. For the final compaction and smoothing what kind of roller must be used?
Ans. – Tandem smooth wheeled roller (not less than 10 tons)
29. What is the speed of the roller?

Ans. – 5 kms./hour
30. How the rolling is be done?

Ans. – It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel toward the
road center line, each trip overlapping one half of the roller’s width.
31. After the final rolling what should be check?

Ans. – Degree of Compaction
32. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than ________?
Ans. – 95% of the laboratory compacted density
33. When the traffic is be permitted to enter the pavement?

Ans. – when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature
34. How many samples shall be taken for each full day’s operation?
Ans. – at least one but not more than three (3) core samples
35. What is the dimension of the samples taken full depth from the finished pavement for thickness
determination?
Ans. – 150mm x 150mm or 100mm diameter
36. How is the sample taken form the finished pavement?

Ans. – core drill or saw
37. How the surface level of the finished pavement is be checked?

Ans. – by the used of 3m straight edge
38. The variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight-edge between contacts with the
surface shall not exceed.
Ans. – 6mm
39. What determines the thickness and density of compacted asphalt pavement?
Ans. – core test
ITEM 311
40. What is the strength requirement (Flexural Strength) of a concrete when tested by third point
loading method?
Ans. – 3.8 Mpa (550 psi)
41. If No, 40 are tested by midpoint method what is the strength requirements?
Ans. 4.5 Mpa (650 psi)
42. What is the compressive strength of the PCCP (Portland Cement Concrete Pavement) when tested
at 14 days?
Ans. – 24.1 Mpa (3500 psi)
43. What is the slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?

Ans. – 40-75mm
*if vibrated the slump is 10-40mm
44. What kind of forms are to be used in item 311?

Ans. – steel forms and on depth equal to the thickness of the pavement
45. How long shall the forms remain undisturbed after concrete pouring?
Ans. – 24 hrs.
46. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant how many seconds is the mixing time?
Ans. – not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds
47. In transporting concrete what is the time elapsed from the time water added to the mix until the
concrete is deposited in place at the site?
Ans. – it shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non agitating trucks and 90 minutes
when hauled in truck mixers or truck agitators.
48. How is concrete consolidated?

Ans. – by the used of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically
49. How many seconds does the vibrator be operated in one location?
Ans. – 15 seconds
50. What kind of sample should be taken on a concrete pavement?

Ans. – concrete beam sample
51. How many sets of sample shall be taken from 330 sq.m. of pavement?
Ans. – 1 set consisting of 3 concrete beam tests specimens or fraction thereof
52. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of key or keyway is used?
Ans. – longitudinal construction joint
53. What kind of bars are placed perpendicular to the joint stated in no..52?
Ans. – deformed steel tie bars
54. What is the other name of transverse contraction joint?

Ans. – weaken planed joint
55. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw?
Ans. – not less than 50mm
56. The width of the weaken plane joint is ________?

Ans. – not more than 6mm
57. When is the right time to saw the weaken plane joint?
Ans. – within 24 hrs. as soon as concrete has hardened sufficiently
58. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing?
Ans. – sawing shall be omitted
59. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with ________?

Ans. – asphalt or other materials
60. What is the metal device that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to the
surface and center line of the slab of pavement?
Ans. – dowels
61. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with
_________?
Ans. – thin film of bitumen
62. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of ________?

Ans. – brooming
63. What is the depth of the corrugate produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
Ans. – 1.5mm
64. The surface of the newly placed concrete when it is sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of
________?
Ans. – 72 hrs.
65. The curing of the pavement is done on the ff.

Ans. – by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
- thoroughly wetting the pavement
- by ponding
- by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the
surface
66. When the right time is the joint be sealed?

Ans. – after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic
67. What is the Item 504 in a DPWH specification?

Ans. – Grouted Riprap
68. What is Item 505 in a DPWH specification?

Ans. – Stone Masonry
69. What is the difference between Item 504 & 505?

Ans. – placement of stone or boulders and the ration of cement and fine sand.
70. What is the ration of fine aggregates to cement number of bags for grout in Item 505 & 505?
Ans. – for Item 504, it is 1 part cement 3 parts fine sand (1:3)
- for Item 505, it is 1 part cement 2 parts fine sand (1:2)
SET FOUR
1. What is the latest state of the art equipment containing a radioactive material which is
commonly used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road construction and in the
measurement of moisture content?
Ans. – nuclear density gauge (NDG)
2. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks
and concrete? (This instrument or equipment is a non-destructive portable instrument with
dimensions of 110 x 180 x 160mm and the main uses include the determination of concrete
strength (either in-situ or pre-cast0, also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other
imperfections.)
Ans. – pundit ultrasonic concrete tester
3. What is the instrument or equipment used for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements
as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted?
Ans. – 3-meter straight-edge
4. ________ is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel
loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests are used to evaluate the structural
conditions of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity
improvements.
Ans. – Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
5. ________ is a manually-operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the

surface profile, which may be expressed in terms of International Roughness Index (IRI)
Ans. – MERLIN Road Roughness Measuring Device
6. What is the instrument that is used to pinpoint rebar’s, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals
embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?
Ans. – rebar locator
7. ________ is equipment which is used to measure differential deflections between joints of a

concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an
overlay, and to estimate the remaining life of an existing pavement.
Ans. – falling weight deflectometer
8. ________ is used for the rapid in-situ measurement of the structural properties of existing with
unbound granular materials.
Ans. – Dynamic Cone Penetration (DCP)
9. In the construction of bridge projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length
of the regular piles?
Ans. – test piling
10. What is the thinnest cut-back asphalt?

Ans. – MC-3,000

SET FIVE
1. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15mm in a 3-meter straight edge. The
concrete in the area represented by these high spots.
Ans. - shall be removed and replaced
* but if high spots being noted exceeds 3mm, but not exceeding
12mm it shall be ground down only.
2. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called:
Ans. – tie bars
3. Which of the ff. is authorized to test materials for use in DPWH projects?
Ans. – any DPWH – accredited private testing laboratory
4. To check the gradation of aggregates and the asphalt content of laid bituminous concrete mixture,
it shall be sampled and tested for:
5. For each full day’s operation, how many asphalt core samples must be taken for thickness
determination?
Ans. – at least one but not more than three core samples
6. Moisture density relation test determines:

Ans. – maximum dry density and optimum moisture content of soil
7. Thickness of in-placed sub-base coarse can be determined by:

Ans. – test pitting
8. To determine the optimum moisture content of soil

Ans. – moisture density relation test
9. Soil stabilizing agent:

Ans. – lime- for silky and clayey soil
10. Type of emulsified asphalt that works better with wet aggregates and cold weather:
Ans. – cationic emulsion
11. Water content at which passes form plastic to liquid state.

Ans. – liquid limit
12. Another name of hot asphalt.

Ans. – asphalt cement

SET SIX
1. Portland cement concrete pavement is what Item in DPWH Spec’s.?

Ans. – Item 311
2. Concrete area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength is
equal to?
Ans. – 85% of the required strength
3. Lumber is considered as well – seasoned if the moisture content is ________?

Ans. – 12 – 18%
4. Soils can be classified according to grain size and plasticity?

Ans. – yes
5. Thickness determination for 1km concrete pavement. How many cores shall be taken?
Ans. – 5/lane
6. The resistance of bituminous mix to moisture damage is determined by ________.
Ans. – Index of Retained Strength (IRS)
7. The average compressive strength of a load bearing concrete hollow blocks is ________.
Ans. – 1,000 psi
8. Bleeding of asphalt in bituminous surface course means ________.

Ans. – over asphalt mix
9. What is the result of over vibration of concrete mix?

Ans. – segregation of aggregates
10. What is the corrected measurement for 23.6mm concrete core?

Ans. – 23.5mm
11. What are the other terms for particle size analysis?
Ans. – sieve analysis
- mechanical analysis
- grading test/analysis
12. What is liquid-limit?

Ans. – it is the lowest moisture content at which the soil will flow upon the application
of a very small shearing force
13. The liquid limit is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to what number of blows?
Ans. – 25 blows
14. What is plastic limit?

Ans. – it is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be readily molded
without breaking or crumbling
15. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals?
Ans. – distilled water
16. Liquid limit brass cup with sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a
height of what?
Ans. – 10mm
17. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit device are rotated?
Ans. – 2 rotations per second
18. In doing plastic limit tests to what diameter will the soil thread will begin to break?
Ans. – 3.2mm (1/8”)
19. What is the formula for plastic limit?

Ans. – PL= (Wa – Wb) / Wb x 100
where:Wa = orig.wt. Crumbled soil thread
Wb = wt. of oven-dried crumbled soil
20. What is the Plastic Index (PI)?

Ans. – it is the difference between the liquid limit and plastic limit
or PI = LL - PL
21. What is specific gravity?

Ans. – it is used in a gravimetric-volumetric relationship in soils, (or defined as the
ratio of the wt. in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temp.)
22. What is the approximate area for density control strips?
Ans. – 335 sq.m.
23. What is the maximum depth of roadway embankments per horizontal layer in loose measurement?
Ans. – 200mm (8”)
24. What item of work is embankment?

Ans. – Item 104
25. What is the kind of material use for Item 200?

Ans. – aggregate sub-base course
26. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for topping under Item 104 (embankment)?
Ans. – all particle size will pass a sieve 75mm or 3” square openings and not more
than 15% mass will pass 0.075mm (No.200) AASHTO T-11
27. P.I. requirement for Item 104 (selected common borrow) is what?
Ans. – 6 maximum
28. LL requirements for Item 104 (selected common borrow) are what?
Ans. – 30 maximum
29. What is the LL requirement for Item 200 (aggregate sub-base course) passing sieve #40?
Ans. – 35 maximum
30. P.I. requirement of materials passing sieve #40 for Item 200?
Ans. – 12 maximum
31. Coarse portion retained on sieve #10 (2.00mm) for Item 200 shall have a mass percent of wear by
Los Angeles abrasion test of what?
Ans. – 50% maximum
32. The required CBR value for Item 200?

Ans. – 25% minimum (AASHTO T-180 method D)
33. What is the minimum % field density or degree of compaction for Item 104 (embankment)?
34. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201?
35. What is the highest point in moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or
compaction test of soil represents?
Ans. – MDD (Maximum Dry Density) and OMC (Optimum Moisture Content)
36. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for Field Density Test?
Ans. – any clean, dry, free –flowing, uncemented sand passing #10 and retained
#200 sieves
37. What is the degree of compaction of soil having a maximum dry density 2,250 kg./cu.m. and wet
density of soil from hole equivalent to 2,335 kg./cu.m. and an average moisture content of 8.85%?
% Degree of Compaction = (Dry Density) / Max Dry Density) x 100
Where:
Dry Density = Wet Density / (1+MC/100)
Wet Density = Wt. of soil filled in hole/volume of hole
% Degree of Compaction = (1,335) / [1+ (8.85 / 100)]
2.250
= (2,145.15 / 2,250) x 100
= 95.34%
38. Is the soil for No.45 passed the Item 104 requirement for % Degree of Compaction?
Ans. – Yes
39. What are the test and number of test needed for 1,800 cu.m. Item 104?
G or Grading = 2
P or Plasticity = 2
C or Compaction = 2
D or Density = three in-situ density tests/500 sq.m.
40. What are the test and number of test needed for 2,980 cu.m. Aggregates Base Course (Item 201)?
G = 10
P = 10
C=2
D = three in- situ density tests/500 sq.m.
CBR = 2 (1 test for every 2,500 cu.m. or fraction thereof)
Q=2
41. What are the apparatus/materials uses for Field Density Test?
Ans. – sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, sand weighing
scale, oven with temperature control, chisel, or digging tools, plastic bags
and labeling materials (tag name)
42. What is the standard diameter of an orifice in FDT sand cone?

Ans. – ½ inch (12.7mm)
43. CHB is tested to determine its moisture content and ________.

Ans. – strength
44. Quality of Portland cement sent to the laboratory for testing.

Ans. – 10 kg.
45. A set of three beam samples is conducted representing ________ cu.m. of concrete.
Ans. – 75
46. Two major components of concrete: select two answers

Ans. – paste and mineral aggregates
47. Regardless of use, the grading of aggregates should be:

Ans. – uniform
48. The type of Portland cement used in DPWH projects.

Ans. – type 1
49. Determines the proportion of the ingredients that will produced concrete of proper workability when
fresh and the________.
Ans. – Design Mix
50. The maximum permissible water-cement ration for strength of 3,000 psi.
Ans. – 0.58
51. The consistency of concrete mixture is determined in the field by:

Ans. – slump test
52. For every 75 cu.m. of concrete poured, a minimum of ________ cylinder sample are taken in each
day of pouring.
Ans. – 3
53. When tested at 14 days, the compressive strength of concrete is

Ans. – 3,500 psi
54. Forms of concrete pavement shall not deviate from true line by more than ________ at any point.
Ans. – 1 cm
55. When hauled in non-agitating trucks, the time elapsed from the water is added to the mix until
concrete is deposited in placed shall not exceed ________.
Ans. – 45 minutes maximum
56. The depth of the weakened plane joint should at all times not less than
Ans. – 50 mm
57. Minimum compressive strength of concrete

Ans. – 2,400 psi
58. Transverse contraction joint is also called

Ans. – weakened plane joint
59. Vibrators shall not be operated longer than ________ in any one location.
Ans. – 15 seconds
CONCRETE AGGREGATES AND CONCRETE:
60. How many hours does a fine aggregates tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in
water?
Ans. – 15 to 19 hrs.
61. How to determine if the fine aggregates reaches the saturated surface dry condition?
Ans. – it is determine by the use of cone test for surface moisture and if the molded
shape of fine aggregates slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a
surface dry condition.
62. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates?

Ans. – a.) Fine Aggregates = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit wt.
b.) Course Aggregates = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit
wt. and abrasion
Note: soundness is also tested as per request.
63. What is the maximum mass % of wear by Los Angeles Abrasion Test?
Ans. – 40% maximum
64. What is the required speed of Los Angeles Abrasion Machine per minute?
Ans. – 30 to 33 mm
65. What is the size or diameter and weight of cast-iron spheres use in abrasion?
Ans. – approximately 46.8 mm diameter and each weighing between
390-455 grams
66. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12
numbers of spheres?
Ans. – 5,000 grams ±25 grams
67. What is the significance of abrasion test?

Ans. – it evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregates
- gives an indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear
- it determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic of
rolling
68. Quality test for cement is represented by how many bags of cement?
Ans. – 2,000 bags or traction thereof
69. What is the sieve use in sieving materials form Abrasion Machine?
Ans. – sieve # 12 (1.70mm)
70. Testing machines should be calibrated once every six (6) months if possible but if it is not possible
what is the required time should the machine be calibrated?
Ans. – once a year
71. Percent tolerance of error in calibrating the machines.

Ans. - ± 1%
72. What is the sample for concrete pavement?

Ans. – concrete beam sample
73. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m. fresh concrete?
Ans. – 3 pcs. sample or 1 set sample
74. What is the sample for structural concrete?

Ans. – concrete cylinder sample
75. What is the test use to determine the consistency of concrete?

Ans. – slump test
76. How to compute for the slump of concrete?

Ans. – slump = height of slump cone – height of fresh cone after subsidence
77. How to compute for the compressive strength of concrete cylinder sample?
CS = P
A where : P = load, lbs
A = area, sq. in
A = πD2 = 28.27 in sq
4
78. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
Ans. – 14 days
79. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third Point Loading?
R = PL
A where: R = modulus of rapture
= P (16’) P = load in lbs. of tons
6”x6”x6” L = span length in inches
=P B = base in inches
12 A = depth in inches
80. What is the minimum flexural strength for third point loading test?
Ans. – 3.8 Mpa (550 psi)
81. What is the minimum flexural strength for center point loading test?
Ans. – 4.5 Mpa (650 psi)
82. How to compute for flexural strength at center point loading test?
R = 3 PL
2 bd2
= 3 P (16)
2 (6) (6)
83. Which part of the batch for fresh concrete should the sample be taken from a stationary mixers,
revolving drum truck mixers or agitators?
Ans. – two or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the batch
84. What is the size of the tamping rod use in sampling concrete?
Ans. – 16mm (5/8 inches) diameter and 610mm (24 inches) long with the tamping
end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same diameter as the rod.
OTHER CONSTRUCTION MATERIALS:
85. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subjected to test how many sample is required?
Ans. – 6 pcs. / 10,000 units * 12 pcs. if more than 10,000 units
86. What is the strength requirement for loading bearing concrete masonry units?
Ans. – individual = 5.5 Mpa (300 psi) minimum
average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 Mpa (1,000 psi) minimum
87. How about for non-load bearing concrete masonry units what is the required strength?
Ans. – individual = 3.45 Mpa (500 psi) minimum
average (for 3 samples) = 4.14 Mpa (600 psi) minimum
88. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?

Ans. – to determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation
and is used to classify the bars into grade
89. What is the required length of RSB for testing?

Ans. – 1 meter / 10,000 kgs. / size / shipment
90. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?

Ans. – to evaluate the ductile properties of RSB
91. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. Sheets?
Ans. – 60mm x 60mm (3 pcs. from one (1) sheet / 1,000 sheets
92. What is the required sample for paints?

Ans. – 1 can (gal. or pail) / 100 cans (gal. or pail)
93. What kind of paint that has a reflectance in the form of beads?
Ans. – reflectorized traffic plant
94. What is the common component of house paints?

Ans. – pigment and vehicle
95. What is this construction material that is dark brown to black cementations material in which the
predominating constituents are bitumen?
Ans. – asphalt
96. What asphalt is commonly called hot asphalt?

97. What is liquid asphalt?
Ans. – cut-back asphalt and emulsified asphalt
98. What is the use of blown asphalt or hard asphalt?

Ans. – use as joint filler or water proofing
99. SS-I or SS-IH is what kind of asphalt?

Ans. – slow setting emulsified asphalt
100. What are the three kinds of emulsified asphalt?

Ans. – rapid setting, medium setting, slow setting
101. What asphalt contains water?

Ans. – emulsified asphalt
102. What is the penetration grade for blown asphalt?

Ans. – 0 to 30
103. What is the ideal penetration grade of asphalt use in tropical regions?
Ans. – 85 to 100 (but some uses 60 to 70)
104. Tack coat is use in an existing bituminous of concrete pavement. True or false?
Ans. – true
105. What is the rate of application for bituminous tack coat?

Ans. – 0.2 to 0.7 L/m2
106. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?
Ans. – 60 mm x 60 mm (3 pcs. from one (1) sheet) / 1,000 sheets
107. What is the required sample for paints?

Ans. – reflector zed traffic paint
108. What is the common component of house paints?

Ans. – pigment and vehicle
109. What is this construction material that is dark brown to black cementations
material in which the predominating constituents are bitumen?
Ans. – asphalt
110. What asphalt is commonly called hot asphalt?

111. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat left
undisturbed?
Ans. – 24 hrs.
112. What kind of asphalt is use as prime coat?

Ans. – cut-back asphalt (medium curing or rapid curing)
113. Bituminous prime coat is use to treat the surface of base course. True or false?
Ans. – true
114. No tack coat or prime coat shall be applied when the weather is foggy or rainy.
True or false?
Ans. – true
115. What kind of asphalt is use as tack coat?

Ans. – cut-back asphalt (rapid curing) or emulsified asphalt
116. Where should the bituminous seal coat be used?

Ans. – on an existing bituminous surface course with or with out an application
of aggregates.
117. If concrete cylinder sample for RCCP is not available for compressive test, one
(1) whole piece RCCP for every 50 pieces RCCP will be submitted for quality
test. True or false?
Ans. – true
118. One set (3 pcs.) concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many
pieces of RCCP?
Ans. – 25 pieces
REVIEW FOR MATERIALS ENGINEERS ACCREDITATION
CONCRETE:
1. The most important factor affecting the strength of concrete.

Ans. – water – cement ratio
2. As work progresses in a concrete pavement construction sampling of concrete for flexural strength
test determination should be taken using:
Ans. – beam mold @ 63 strokes per layer
3. In order to determine the consistency of a concrete mixture, the most common method is:
Ans. – slump test
4. The strength level of concrete for Item 3.11 will be considered satisfactory if:
Ans. – the average of all sets of three (3) consecutive strength test results equals or
exceed the specified strength and no individual result is deficiency by 15% of
the specified strength.
5. In concrete paving a workable concrete should have a slump of:

Ans. – 40-75mm if not vibrated
6. When transporting concrete in a non-agitating truck, the time elapse from the time the water is
added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in place at site:
Ans. – shall not be exceeding 45 minutes
7. In a concrete paving, 17,680 bags of cement shall be consumed up to its completion, compute for
the number of quality test required.
Ans. – 9
8. A class B concrete requires a minimum compressive strength of:

Ans. – 2,400 psi
9. One of the most important characteristics of concrete is workability, which generally mean:
Ans. – the concrete mix could be easily placed without segregation
10. Sawing of construction joint shall be done when the concrete is sufficiently hardened usually at:
Ans. – 24 hrs.
11. A non-load bearing hollow blocks should have an individual strength requirement average of:
Ans. – at least 3.45 Mpa (500 psi), 4.14 Mpa (600 psi) minimum
12. What is Item 505?

Ans. – Stone Masonry
Questionnaire Correct answer
It is between liquid and plastic states and it is defined as
1 the lowest water content at which the mass has the capacity liquid limit
to flow as a liquid
It is between the plastic and semisolid states and is defined
2 as the lowest water content at which the mass can be readily plastic limit
molded without crumbling
This is between the semisolid and solid states and is
3 defined as the highest water content at which the mass shrinkage limit
attains its minimum volume but it continues to lose weight
4 This is the difference between the liquid and Plastic Limit plasticity index
5 This is the difference between plastic and shrinkage limit shrinkage index
Weight of soil sample needed for liquid limit
6 100 grams
determination
Weight of soil sample needed for Plastic limit
7 15 grams
determination
Weight of soil sample needed for Shrinkage Limit
8 30 grams
determination
It is the ratio of the weight of water in the soil to the weight
9 of the dry soil after it has been dried to constant weight at a moisture content
temperature of 105 to 1100C.
It is defined as the ratio of the weight in air of a given
10 volume of a material to the weight in air of an equal specific gravity
volume of a standard material at a stated temperature
It is the determination of particle size distribution in soil by mechanical analysis
11
sieve, hydrometer, or a combined analysis.
12 Three major groups of soil coarse grained, fined grained, organic
If the individual particles are visible to the unaided eye, the
13 coarse grained
soil considered to be
The two principal soil types that comprise the coarse
14 gravel and sand
grained soil.
15 If its individual particles are not visible to the unaided eye fine grained soil
16 The two principal soil types that comprises this group clay and silt
This type contain an appreciable amount of decayed animal
17 organic soil
and/or plant matter.
18 The limiting diameter of gravel is 3" to 10" or 75mm to 2mm
19 The limiting diameter of sand is 2mm to 0.074mm
Rock fragments w/c are coarser than the upper limiting size
20 boulders
for gravel are
21 Limiting size for silt 0.074mm to 0.005
22 Limiting size for clay 0.005mm to 0.001mm
23 Those smaller than 0.001 are called colloids
24 The drying time of 225 grams sandy materials 2 hours
The drying time of a plastic, fine grained soil of the same
25 4 hours
weight is
It shall have an even number of equal width chutes but not
26 less than a total of eight for coarse aggregate, or twelve for sample splitter
F.A. w/c discharge alternately to each side
It is widely used in the classification and identification of
soils. It is an important criteria in the classification of
27
highway subgrade materials. It is also related to
permeability and capillarity of cohesionless soil.
The size of the portion passing 2mm(#10) or 0.425mm(#40)
28
sieve shall be tested for
29 These indicates compressibility and related to permeability plasticity index
30 High PI means high degree of compressibility of soil 1
31 The higher PI, the lower permeability 1
It is performed if the soil is granular, if considerable portion
32 sieve analysis
is retained on the No. 200 sieve (0.074mm)
If the soil is fine-grained or nearly, all its particles are finer
33 hydrometer analysis
than the No.200 sieve.
For efficient compaction, the embankment materials should
34 optimum moisture content
at the time of rolling be at
For a road base coarse, the most preferable materials is one
35 0.8
with CBR value of
36 Peat and Muck are unsuitable soils
The plasticity index of aggregate base coarses (item 201)
37 6
should be not greater than
38 The natural water content of highly organic soil is more than 100%
39 The most commonly used method of soil exporation core boring
The lowest moisture content at which the soil will flow
40 liquid limit
upon the application of a very small shearing force.
The minimum moisture content at which the soil remains in
41 plastic limit
a plastic state
This is very important to achieve maximum contact between
42
particles and maximum water tightness of base materials.
In general, soils with high value of this and PI are poor as
43
engineering materials
44 Gives indication of clay content in soil
45 Use to evaluate the potential strength of soil/aggregate.
The purpose of this trial is to check the suitability of the
46 materials and the eficiency of the equipment and
construction method which is proposed to be used.
47 The behavior of soil is markedly influence by the amount of
48 It is defined as the weight/mass per unit volume.
This is widely used as a control test in embankment
49
construction to ensure adequate compaction
It involves the application of energy and addition of water
50
as lubricant
It is express as the moisture content corresponding to 25
51
blows
It increases shearing strength of aggregate of any size,
52
shape/gradation.
This is the amount of moisture that allow the compacting
53 force to overcome the frictional resistance and the maximum
density of soil mass is attained
54 Height of fall of 25kg rammer
55 Height of fall of 4.54 kg rammer
56 Moisture content of air dried soil
57 Moisture content of undisturbed soil
The value of this is use in the design and control of
58
concrete moisture
This determines the fineness of cement w/c affects the
59
strength of cement
This determines the amount of water required to prepare
60
hydraulic cement paste for testing
The purpose of this test is to established whether a cement
61
complies w/ a specification limit on setting time
This test provides an index of potential delayed expansion
62 caused by the hydration of Calcium oxide (CaO) or
Magnesium Oxide (MgO) or both
This test determines whether or not the hydrauic cement
63 under test meets the air entraining or non-air entraining
requirement of the specs
This is used to determine the compressive strength of
64
hydraulic cement that wil be used
This determines the freshness of cement and the amount of
65
moisture present in the cement
This determines the inert materials (acid insoluble material)
66
present in the cement
This determines the amount of gypsum added to the cement
67
to regulate its setting
68 This determines the soundness of cement
69 Natural Pozzolan Cement
70 Artificial pozzolan cement
71 Diameter of sphere used in abrasion test
72 Weight of cast iron spheres
73 Weight of Steel Spheres
Defined as the product obtained by burning to incipient
74 fusion a properly proportioned mixture of argilaceous
and calcareous materials.
This is burnt product w/c is used w/ Gypsum and pulverized
75
to form Portland cement
This react or combined w/ water, one that will harden
76
underwater.
This is the heat produced by the chemical reaction between
77
cement and water
This is the process in which the cement reacts or combined
78
chemically w/ water
Those materials w/c contributes silica (SIO2)
79 Alumina (Al203) and Iron Oxide (Fe2O3) to clinker, it
includes clay, shale or sand, etc.
Those materilas w/c contributes lime (CaO) and Magnesia
80 (MgO) to the clinker, it includes limestone chalk, marls,
marine oyster shells, ec.
81 These type of cement is used for General Construction
These is used where sulfate concentration in ground waters
82 are higher than normal but not severe, generate heat at a
slower rate than normal.
This type develops approximately 190% of the strength of
83
Type 1 at 3 days & 90 to 130% at 28 days
This is a special cement for use where the amount and rate
84
of heat generated must be minimized
A special cement intended to be used in structure to prevent
85 damage from severe sulfate action of soils or high alkali
content of H2O
In sub-base & base coarse, this material shall be free from
86 hard lump and shall not contain more than 15% of material
retained on the No. 4 sieve.
87 Concrete deposited in water.
The consistency of the concrete mixture should be checked
88
frequently by this test
89 Slump of Concrete deposited in water
The minimum cement content of concrete deposited in
90
water (kg/m3 of concrete)
The maximum distance of the discharge line from the point
91
of deposit by pneumatic means
The maximum time needed for consolidation/compaction
92
of structure/concrete. Using internal vibrator
The space interval of inserting vibrator that should be
93 withdrawn vertically to penetrate underlying lift for
homogeneity between lifts.
Minimum time needed for the removal of forms for beams,
94
girders, frames, or arches.
95 Minimum bar lapping for tension
96 Minimum bar lapping distance for compression
97 Minimum separation of splices when staggered

Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all
98 structures except pavement conforming to the lines, grade
and dimensions.
99 Minimum grouting pressure for bonding tensions.
The mixing time when concrete were mixed in a central
100
mixing plant.
Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is
101
delayed
When concrete pile cast in place formed by first removing
102
the soil by drilling and filling the void by concrete.
103 Maximum length of tremie pipe and its diameter.
104 Length of tremie pipe that must be submerge into concrete.
105 What is the density of Bentonite to 1 cu.m. of water

Reinforcement that consist of spiral bars coiled outside the
106
main longitudinal reinforcements.
107 The usual size of stiffening rings
The minimum spacing of steel bars on bored piles to ensure
108
108 that concrete would still flow outwards to the walls of the
bored piles.
109 Must be w/ in the limit of "water cement ratio" for concrete
110 Required revolution of concrete mixer
111 The minimum number of revolutions for each concrete mix.
112 The minimum interval of concrete pouring to avoid cold joint
Consists of all work elements carried out by the manager or
113 by those in his organization w/c contribute to the quality of
the output of some other organization.
Refers to the process of making tests to determine the
114 degree of compliance of delivered or constructed materials
w/ the specification
The main objective of this design is to determine the
proportion of the ingredients that will produce concrete of
115
the proper workability when fresh and the desired
durability and strength after it has hardened.
These are prescribed in each project based on the estimated
116 quantities, it specify the kind and number of tests for each
work items.
This is prepared by the DPWH for the contractor to comply
117
to facilitate quality control.
This should be done during the first seven days in order
that the expected development of strength will be obtained
118
and the occurrence of plastic cracks will be prevented or
minimized
This is preferable than a good PCCP road due to its lower
119
initial cost and more uniform riding surface.
The proportioning of aggregate and asphalt should be based
120
on this
This formula should be set and strictly followed in all
batches of the asphalt mixes, it should include provisions
121
on grading of aggregates percentage of asphalt and temp. of
mixture at time of compaction.
Use in measuring the thickness or height determination of
122
compacted bituminous paving mixture to the nearest 0.10 cm
Used to determine the grading of aggregates extracted from
123
bituminous mixtures.
124 A test to determine the moisture content of soil.
The amount of lime to be added in item 203 (lime Stabilized
125
Road Mix Base Coarse)
The amount of cement to be added in item 204 (Portland
126
cement Stabilized Road Mix Base Coarse)
For Item 505 (Stone Masonry) No. of bags of cement &
127
Fine aggregate / cu.m.
It is a colloidal dispersion of asphalt in water whose color is
128 chocolate-brown before use and turns black when the
emulsion is broken.
What process determines the asphalt content in asphalt
129
mixes
Minimum temperature of Bituminous Concrete when place,
130
measured in the truck prior to dumping.
Minimum temperature of tar when it is used in Bituminous
131
Concrete
132 The bituminous material commonly used in 310
This item consist of preparing and treating an aggregate
133 base coarse preparatory to the const. of the Bituminous
Surface Coarse.
This item consists of preparing and treating an existing
134 bituminous or cement concrete pavement with bituminous
materials
Consist of an application of bituminous materials w/ or w/o
135 an application of aggregate on an existing bituminous
surface coarse.
Consist of either a single application of bituminous material
followed by a single spreading of aggregate or two
application of bituminous materials each followed by a single
136
spreading of aggregate or two application of bituminous
136
materials each followed by spreading of aggregates (Double

Surface Treatment).
What determines the index of retained strength of the
137
asphalt mix.
It is the ratio of wet to dry stability of the mix (compressive
138
strength).
139 This measures the resistance to flow of asphalt.
Measures the distance that standard needle will penetrate
140
a sample at a given temperature in a specified time.
141 Measures the ability of asphalt to stretch w/o breaking
It determines the rate of loss of volatile oil of asphalt when
142 heated and the change in penetration caused by excessive
heating
143 Indicates the uniformity of product
144 Indicates the safe heating temperature of asphalt
145 Determines if asphalt is overheated during production
Determines the bitumen content in asphalt that is soluble
146
in petroleum solvent.
147 Determines the asphalt content of liquid asphalt.
Determines the presence of larger globules of asphalt
148
in the emulsion.
Determines the resistance of the emulsion to breakdown
149
on the job.
Detects the tendency of the asphalt globules in the
150
emulsion to settle during storage
It is the basic cementing material, the main constituent of all
151
oher asphalt types also known as hot asphalt
Mixture of asphalt cement, water & emulsifier usually 60%
152
asphalt & 40% water.
153 Blends of asphalt cement and petroleum solution
Asphalt cement with non volatile or slow volatile oils or
154
road oil.
155 Asphalt cement w/ kerosene
156 Asphalt cement w/ gasoline
157 Used as joint and crackfiller and for water proofing
158 Gives color and hardness
Composed of resin w/c provides stickness (adhesiveness)
159
and oil w/c influence viscosity of asphalt and in part softness
Portland-Pozzolan cement for use in general/concrete
160
construction.
Portland-Pozzolan Cement for use in concrete const.
161
where high strength at early ages are not required.
Is the solid portion of paint, the finely divided solid particles
162
used in paint.
Are inert materials w/c are added to the paint to increase
163
the volume w/o increasing in the cost.
164 Intended for use on concrete or other masonry surface
A paint made from emulsions of polymer in water as binder
165
with suitable pigment w/c is substantially free from gloss
Intended for used on wood surface, a special type of paint
166
made w/ varnish as the vehicle.
For interior use, a paint made from alkyd resin as binder
167
with suitable pigment .
For exterior use, made from alkyd resin as a binder w/
168
suitable pigment w/c has sheen, shine or luster.
A bright orange-red tetroxide, used as primary constituents
169
of anti-corrosive primers for iron or steel.
170 A pigment mainly of ferric oxide.
This kind of paint is primarily intended for use on steel
171
structure.
For zone marking, traffic lanes, should possess improve
172
visibility at night.
173 This is the liquid portion of the paint.
174 Placing of rip-rap must be
175 Placing of stone masonry must be
176 Minimum spacing of weep-holes and their diameter
A core specimen for thickness determination shall have a
177
177
diameter of
178 Minimum required temp. for asphalt compaction
179 Minimum thickness for asphalt overlay
180 Minimum dry stability compressive strength for item 310
181 Minimum asphalt content for item 310
182 Different test conducted in the field are
183 Thickness tolerance is
184 Surface tolerance for compaction of item 310
185 In casting reinforced concrete railings, the concrete used is
The required maximum dry density obtained by Lab test,
186 and degree of compaction required for aggregate sub-base
should at least.
The specified Flexural strength for paving concrete using
188
midpoint loading is
Per our present specs for hghways & bridges including
189 ammendments, it is mandatory to open PCCP to traffic
not later than
190 The slump test on concrete is a measure of
191 The fineness modulus is highest for
If concrete is continously moist cured, it will gain strength
192
beyond 180 days.
193 The quality of paving concrete is usually measured by its
Generally speaking, batching of concrete aggregate by vol.
194
is preferable than weight
If angular coarse aggregate is used in a concrete mix, it will
195
require more
196 The most favorable period for curing concrete is
197 Lower water cement ratio in concrete mixes improves
When concrete must be placed in a sloping surface, placing
198
should start at the
The maximum % abrasion loss allowed for concrete coarse
199
aggregate is
200 In casting of reinforced concrete piles, the concrete used is
What is the dead load equivalent of loose sand, earth &
201
gravel fill
202 What is the rate of application for curing compound
During coring of completed pavemen, how many cores/km/
203
lane are required as per specs?
204 What is the right proportion for stone masonry (mortar)
205 The most commonly used method of soil exporation is
The flow curved obtained when liquid limit test results are
206
plotted on a semi-log scale is in the form of
What is the effect of increasing th compaction effort in
207
compacting soil
208 The allowable smooth riding quality for PCCp is
209 Test requirement for on-going asphalt pavement.
Minimum test requirement for completed Bituminous

210
Pavement
211 Required thickness for compaction is
212 Mass % of air void of item 310
Mineral filler passing no. 200 sieve used in item 310
213
should have a plasticity index of
214 Rolling of item 310 must begin from
An excavation and utilization of approved material sources
required for the construction of embankment, or for other
215
portion of the work as shown on the plans or on the special
provision
On item 102, rock shall be excavated below sub-grade w/in
216
the limit of the road bed to a depth of
217 Test requirement for selected borrow (topping)
What is the rolling distance extended outside the base
218
coarse and surface coarse on pavement
A concrete where compression is induced before application
219 of working loads so that tension under these working
load is reduced
The system of pre-stressing wherein the steel tendons are
220 pre-tensioning
tensioned before pacing concrete
Do you want to show the rating, Y/N? y
Do you want to show the correct answer, Y/N? y
score 38
Percentage 17.27%
Correct answer
Liquid Limit
Plastic Limit
Shrinkage Limit
Plasticity Index
Shrinkage Index
100 grams
15 grams
30 grams
Moisture Content
Water Content
Specific Gravity
Grain size
Mecnaical Analysis
Coarse grained, Fine Grained, Organic
Coarse grained
Gravel and sand
Fine grained soil

Clay and silt
Organic Soil
3" to 10" or 75mm to 2mm

2mm to 0.074mm
Boulders
0.074mm to 0.005mm
0.005mm to 0.001mm
colloids
2 hours
4 hours
Sample Splitter
Plasticity Index
1
1
Sieve Analysis
Hydrometer analysis
Optimum moisture content
0.8
Unsuitable soils
6
more than 100%

core boring
Liquid limit
Plastic limit
Gradation
Liquid Limit of Fines
Plasticity Index
CBR
Trial section
Moisture Content
Density
Field density Test
Compaction of soil
Liquid Limit
Compaction
Optimum Moisture Content
12 inches or 305mm
18 inches or 457 mm
Hygroscopic Moisture content
Natural Moisture content
Specific Gravity of cement
Fineness of cement test
Normal consistency test of cement
Time of setting by Gilmore Needle
Soundness test by Patoclave expansion
Air Content Test
Mortar Strength
Loss on Ignition
Insoluble Residue test
Sulfur Trioxide Test
Magnesium oxide test

Volcanic Ash
Fly ash
46.8 mm
390 grams
455 grams
Portland Cement
Clinker
Hydraulic cement
Heat of Hydration
Hydration
Argillaceous Raw Materials
Calcareous raw Materials
Normal Cement or Type 1
Moderate Sulfate resistant or type II
High Early Strength or Type III
Low Heat of Hydration or Type 4
Sulfate resistant or Type V
Filler material
Seal Concrete
Slump test
10-20cm
400
3 meters
15 seconds
50 - 60cm
14days or 80% of design strength
24bars for grade 40 (404)
20 bars for grade 40
40 bars
structural concrete
0.6894 Mpa or 100psi
50 - 90 seconds
shrinkage cracking
Bored Pile
2.5 meters and 20 cm diameter
2- 6 m w/ bentonite
30 - 100 kg/cu.m.
Transverse reinforcements
2.5 mm
100 mm
100 mm
0.50 - 0.60
4 - 6 rpm
100 revolutions
30 minutes
Quality Assurance Work
Materials Testing
Design of the Concrete Mixture
Minimum testing requirements
Quality Control Program
Curing of concrete
Asphalt road
Laboratory Trial Mixes
Job Mix Formula
Caliper
Meachanical Analysis of Extracted Aggregates
Calcium Carbide Gas Pressure
3 - 12 mass % of dry soil aggregate
6 - 10 mass % of dry soil aggregate
2 bags/cu.m.
0.17cu.m./cu.m
Emulsified Asphalt
Extraction
1070 C
66 to 1070 C
asphalt cement
Bituminous Prime Coat
Bituminous Tack Coat
Bituminous seal Coat
Bituminous Surface Treatment

Bituminous Surface Treatment
Immersion
Compression Test
Index of retained strength
Viscosity Test
Penetration Test
Ductility test
Loss on Heating Test
Specific Gravity
Flash Point
Spot test
Solubility Test
Distillation Test
Sieve Test
Cement Mixing Test
Storage Stability Test
Asphalt cement
Emulsified Asphalt
Cutback asphalt
slow curing
medium curing
Rapid Curing
Blown or oxidized asphalt
Asphaltene
Maltene
Type IP
Type P
Pigments
Extenders
Latex Paint
Flat Latex Paint
Enamel Paint
Flat wall enamel
Gloss/semi gloss enamel
Red lead
Red Oxide
Aluminum Paint
Reflectorized traffic paint
Vehicle
perpendicular to the slope
parallel to the slope
2 meters on center & 2'' dia.
4"
4"
1070 C Tolerance +- 100 C

1 inch or 25 mm
1.4 Mpa or 200 psi
5 to 8%
FDT, Slump, T-core, SPT & Test Pit
+ 5 mm & - 25 mm
not to exceed 6 mm
Class C-1
650 psi or 4.5 Mpa
14 days after pouring
consistency
Coarse sand
Flexural strength
water & coarse aggregate
during the first few days or week

strength
bottom
0.4
C2
1.603 tons/cu.m.
0.20 liter/sq.m.
55
1:2
Core boring
straight line
Higher density
3 mm
1 but not more than 3 samples
1 sample every 100 lin.m./lane
150 mm/layer
5 - 7%
not greater than 4%
the sides
Borrow excavation
150 mm
201 PI > 6% & LL > 25
30 cm
Pre-stressed concrete
Pre-tensioning
1. In soil Engineering, the term soil includes
a. sand and gravel c. both a and b
b. mud and muck d. neither a nor b
2. Clay can be distinguished from silt by

a. dilatancy test c. either a or b
b. plasticity test d. neither a nor b
3. The particle size distribution of a sandy gravel

is determined by
a. hydrometer test c. dilatancy test
b. sieve test d. any of the preceding test
4. The Atterberg Limits Tests are performed on

the soil fraction passing sieve no.
a. 4 c. 40
b. 16 d. 200
5. Disturbed soil samples may be used for

a. sieve test c. compaction test
b. liquid limit test c. any of the preceding test
6. Optimum water content of a soil is determined by

a. compaction test c. either a or b
b. field density test d. neither a nor b
7. An undisturbed soil sample is needed for

a. consolidation test c. both a and b
b. direct shear test d. neither a nor b
8. Liquid limit is numerically

a. less than plastic limit c. either a or b
b. greater than shrikage limit d. neither a nor b
9. Moisture content of soils is generally based on

a. total weight of soil c. density
b. weight of solids d. degree of saturation
10. A-7 soils have a higher Group Index than A-1 soils
a. true c. it depends on gradation of soil
b. 0
11. Sandy soils have a higher plasticity index than clayey soils
a. 1 c. it depends on gradation of soil
b. false
12. The best soils for a road structure would have a Group Index of
a. less than 5 c. 11 to 15
b. 5 to 10 d. 16 to 20
13. The porosity of a soil which has a void ratio of one (1) is
a. 50% c. 75%
b. 80% d. 25%
14. Upon what depends the density to which any soil can be compacted
a. Moisture content c. Both a and b
b. Compactive energy d. Neither a nor b
15. Which void ratio will you prefer for a soil after compaction in the road?
a. 1/4 c. 3/4
b. 1/2 d. 1
16. The degree of compaction of a rolled subgrade is determined by

a. compaction test c. consolidation test
b. density test d. compression test
17. For a given compactive energy, the maximum density of a soil is obtained
when its water content is
a. at the optimum amount c. higher than the optimum
b. lower than the optimum d. almost zero
18. Which percent silt and clay content would you prefer for base
coarse of an asphalt road?
a. 5 c. 50
b. 25 d. 75
19. The porosity of a certain soil will increase if there is an increase

in the void ratio
a. 1 c. it depends on the moisture content
b. 0
20. If 95% of a soil passes the No. 200 sieve, its particle size distribution
is best determined by
a. hydrometer test c. either a or b
b. sieve test d. neither a nor b
21. The density of a certain soil will increase if

the void ratio decreases
a. 1 c. it depends on porosity
b. 0
22. A soil which is classified A-7 by the Highway Research Board

Method will have a subgrade rating of
a. excellent c. fair
b. good c. poor
23. Which plasticity index would you prefer for the base coarse
of a Portland Cement Concrete Pavement?
a. less than 6 c. 10 to 12
b. 6 to 9 d. more than 1
24. The standard compaction test on predominantly fine-grain soils is

performed on soil fraction passing sieve no
a. 200 c. 16
b. 40 d. 4
25. The flow curve obtained when liquid limit test results are plotted
on semi-log scale in the form of
a. straight line c. parabola
b. arc d. hyperbola
26. The soil particles remaining in suspension one hour after sedimentation
starts in hydrometer test will be predominantly
a. clay c. silty sand
b. silt d. sand
27. The opening of a No. 4 sieve is bgger than the opening of a 1/4" sieve.
a. 1 c. they are the same
b. 0
28. What is the effect of increasing the compactive effort in compacting a soil?
a. higher density c. both a and b
b. lower optimum water content d. neither a nor b
29. Sand has a greater load carrying capacity than clay

a. 1 c. it depends on water content
b. 0 d. it depends on gradation
30. The most commonly used method of soil exploration is

a. core boring c. electrical resistivity
b. plate bearing
31. A fine-grained soil will decrease in volume if water content decreases

while the soil is in the
a. plastic state c. both of the preceding
b. semi-solid state
32. The empirical number used in design is

a. plasticity index c. both of the preceding
b. group index
33. The degree of compaction of soil affects the CBR

a. 1 c. it depends on the void ratio
b. 0
34. A soil is fully saturated at optimum moisture content

a. 1 c. it depends on the void ratio
b. 0
35. Shrinkage limit is the minimum volume of a soil when dried

a. 1 c. it depends on the porosity
b. 0
36. High cohesion makes the soil more desirable for a roadbase
or subbase
a. 1 c. it depends on specific gravity
b. 0
37. Sand has a faster rate of consolidation than clay

a. 1 c. it depends on in-place density
b. 0
38. Fine-grained soils are preferable than coarse grained soils for a
construction of highway embankments.
a. 1 c. it depends on grading
b. 0
39. ______________ determines the relative amount of water

in the voids.
a. water content c. degree of saturation
b. void ratio d. porosity
40. In soil engineering the term "soil" includes

a. clay c. sand
b. gravel c. all of the preceding
41. Water content of soils is generally based on the

a. total weight of soil c. weight of solids
b. total volume of soil d. unit weight
42. A soil is fully saturated if the water content is

a. at optimum content c. more than 100%
b. 100% c. fills all the void spaces
43. Which property of soil is not to be disturbed in undisturbed

samples?
a. structure c. moisture content
b. density c. all of the preceding
44. The particle size distribution of a soil is determine by

a. liquid limit test c. sieve analysis test
b. plastic limit test d. any of the preceding test
45. _____________ soils are most suitable for the construction

of highway embankments
a. Granular c. Plastic
b. Fine-grained d. Clayey
46. The density to which the soil can be compacted is related to

a. compactive effort c. both a and b
b. water content d. neither a nor b
47. Void ratio is numerically greater than porosity

a. 1 c. It depends on water content
b. 0
48. ____________ is an asphalt formed by natural process

of evaporation.
a. Rock asphalt c. Asphalt cement
b. Asphalt emulsion d. Cut-back asphalt
49. Uncrushed aggregates are preferable than crushed aggregates

for bituminous mixtures.
a. 1 c. it depends on type of
b. 0 bituminous materials
50. The apparatus used in determining the consistency of liquid

asphalt is the
a. flowmeter c. penetrometer
b. viscometer d. pycnometer
51. ___________ is preferable for bituminous prime coat

a. Solid asphalt c. Blown Asphalt
b. Liquid Asphalt d. Hot Asphalt
52. ___________ is the test used in determining the amount

of asphalt cement in a liquid asphalt
a. Distillation c. Penetration
b. Extraction d. Solubility
53. ____________ emulsion are usually tested for extraction

a. Asphalt cement c. Asphalt mixes
b. Cut-back cement d. Asphalt emulsion
54. Extraction test is the procedure used for separating

a. the asphalt from water in emulsified asphalt
b. asphalt from mineral aggregates
c. asphalt from gasoline solvent
d. asphalt from kerosene solvent
55. ___________ indicates the safe working temperature

of the asphalt
a. Distillation c. Flashing point
b. Viscosity d. Softening point
56. The optimum asphalt content obtained in a Marshall Stabiity
Test is the average of the asphalt content of the Maximum
Stability, Maximum density and
a. Maximum Flow c. 4% Air Voids
b. Maximum Air Voids d. 4% Flow
57. ___________ are intergranuarvoid spaces between aggregate

particles.
a. VMA c. Permeable Voids
b. Air Voids
58. The main difference between a bulk measured specific gravity

of a bituminous mixtures and its maximum measured
specified gravity is the
a. weight of the voids
b. weight of the asphalt
c. volume of the voids
d. volume of the aggregates
59. ____________ is the best type of asphalt to be

used for hot mixes
a. Asphalt cement c. Rapid Curing Cut-back
b. Emusified Asphalt d. Medium curing Cut-back
60. The field density of a bituminous pavement shall not be

less than ______ of the specific density of the laboratory
compacted specimen.
a. 92% c. 98%
b. 95%
61. A bitumionus coating applied in an existing road prior to

laying of a bituminous surface overlay is
a. prime coat c. seal coat
b. tack coat
62. The distance travelled by a standard penetration needle

on a prepared sample of asphalt cement under conditions
for normal penetration is 8.6mm. The material penetration
is __________ penetration grade.
a. 40-50 c. 120-150
b. 85-100 d. 200-300
63. The maximum specific gravity of an asphalt mix containing

6% asphalt by weight of mix is 2.5. If the specific gravity of
the asphalt 1.01, the specific gravity of the aggregate is
equal to
a. 2.65 c. 2.76
b. 2.56 d. 2.70
64. A job-mix Formula provides for close control of
a. asphalt content c. both of them
b. aggregate gradation d. neither of htem
65. The desired property of fresh concrete is

a. strength c. workability
b. durability d. water tightened
66. The sieve used in the separation of aggregate after the

abrasion test is
a. 0.425mm (No. 40) c. 1.70 mm (No. 12)
b. 4.75mm (No. 4) d. 0.075 mm (No. 200)
67. Normally, concrete mix with _______ water cement ratio

will develop the lowest strength.
a. 0.75 c. 0.50
b. 0.35 d. 0.45
68. The most important single factor which affects the quality
of concrete is
a. cement content c. water-cement ratio
b. aggregate gradation d. aggregate quality
69. Paving concrete will need less _________ than that

of structure concrete.
a. sand c. coarse aggregate
b. water c. both a and b
70. Concrete specimen molded in a 6" x 6" x 21" beam mold

should be rodded _______ times per layer.
a. 60 c. 62
b. 61 c. 63
71. Quality determination of concrete coarse aggregate

sample requires.
a. abrasion test c. stability
b. sieve analysis c. both a and b
72. Concrete mix should be in place __________ after the

cement is added into the aggregate and water.
a. 100 min c. 15 min
b. 120 min c. 90 min
73. Concrete beam specimens for paving concrete

are molded in
a. 2 equal layers c. 4 equal layers
b. 3 equal layers d. 4 equla layers
74. A minimum cement factor of ______ bags per cubic meter
of concrete is required for paving concrete. (based on
94 Ib bag of cement)
a. 7.5 c. 9.5
b. 8.5 d. 10
75. The volume of the ______ can be calculted by performing

the unit weight test on the fresh concrete.
a. concrete c. air
b. cement c. all of the preceding
76. The use of manufactured fine aggregate will generally

require more
a. mixing water c. coarse aggregate
b. fine aggregate d. both a and b
77. The two major components of concrete are

a. paste and mineral aggregates
b. cement and water
c. water and coarse aggregates
78. The coarser the fine aggregate, the higher the

fineness modulus
a. yes c. depends on the grading test
b. no
79. The more the concrete is exposed, the greater the range
of movement.
a. 1 c. it depends on the type
b. 0 of cement
80. The samples of reinforcing steel bar to be submitted

for a test should be at least.
a. 20 cm c. 100 cm
b. 40 cm
81. For efficient compaction, the embankment material should

at the time of rolling be
a. dry c. at optimum moisture
b. wet content
82. __________ of 12.5mm diameter steel bar for concrete

reinforcement is the maximum quantity that a sample
can represent.
a. 15000 kg c. 5000 kg
b. 10000 kg
83. Per our present Specifications for Highway and Bridges,

including amendments, it is mandatory to open portland
cement concrete pavements to traffic not later than
a. 7 days after pouring c. 21 days after pouring
b. 14 days after pouring d. 28 days after pouring
84. For 850 cu.m. of concrete paved in one day, _______ sets of
concrete beam samples should be taken and tested for
strength (thickness of pavement is 0.23m)
a. 3 c. 12
b. 2
85. For 8050 cu.m. concrete coarse aggregate, _______ samples

should be submitted for quality test.
a. 6 c. 3
b. 5 d. 4
86. The coarse aggregate of item 201, Aggregate Base Coarse

shall have a percentage of wear not more than _______
as determined by Los Angeles Battled Test.
a. 40% c. 50%
b. 45% d. 60%
87. The rate of application of Bituminous Material used as

Bituminous Prime coat is _______ per square meter.
a. 0.5 to 1.0 L c. 1.0 to 2.0 L
b. 1.0 to 1.5 L
88. Steel bars for concrete reinforcement is tested for

its _________ properties.
a. tensile c. bending
b. compression c. both a and c
89. For 250 gallons of Red Lead Paint ______ samples

should be submitted for quality tests.
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2
90. The number samples of structural steel (reduce section)

required for 30,000 kgs is
a. 1 c. 3
b. 2
91. _________ is the method used in determining the strength

of concrete pipes.
a. Fold-point loading c. Three Edge Bearing
b. Midspan Loading
92. An aggregate base coarse of 23,750cu.m. require ________

quality test.
a. 80 c. 20
b. 50 c. 16
93. The plasticity index of aggregate base coarse should

be not greater than
a. 12 c. 10
b. 6 d. 8
94. Concrete hollow blocks are tested for its

a. compression c. tensile
b. absorption and dimension c. both a and b
95. Item 306 is called

a. Bituminous Surface Treatment
b. Bituminous Road Mix Surface Coarse
c. Bituminous Plant Mix (Stockpile Maintenance Mixtures)
d. Bituminous Penetration Macadam Pavement
96. In the preparation of asphalt design mix intended for item

310, the proportion of Bituminous material (asphalt cement)
on the basis of total dry aggregates shall be from
a. 4 to 8% c. 5 to 7%
b. 3 to 5% c. 5 to 8%
97. Item ______ includes general requirements that are

applicable to all types of Bituminous Plant Mix surface
coarses irrespectives of gradation of aggregates of kind
and amount of bituminous material.
a. 306 c. 308
b. 307 d. 310
98. ________ is the resut of asphalt layer instability of

granular base or subgrade weakness. The pavement
usually twist out of shape.
a. Disintegration c. Distortion
b. Upheaval d. Bleeding
99. __________ the localized upward displacement of a

pavement due to swelling of the subgrade or some portion
of the pavement structures.
a. Upheaval c. Ravelling
b. Edge cracking d. Depression
100. Item ______ consists of furnishing and placing one or more

coarses of graded aggregates and one or more application
of bituminous material followed by a seal coat with cover
aggregates constructed in a prepared base is
a. 303 c. 305
b. 304 d. 306
101. All asphalt cement submitted in the laboratory for quality
test should always have a corresponding
a. Job Mix Formula c. Sample Card
b. Test Report d. Minimum Testing requirement
102. The compressibility of a fine grained soil is

a. High c. It depends upon the grain size
b. Low
103. The highest moisture content in the plastic cconsistency

of fine grained soil is the
a. Liquid Limit c. Shrinkage Limit
b. Plastic Limit
104. Compaction increases the strength of a soil by

a. Expelling air from its voids
b. Forcing soil particles into more intimate contact
c. Both a and b
105. _________ indicates a range of moisture content

over which a soil is plastic
a. Plastic Limit c. Plasticity Index
b. Shrinkage Limit
106. Water content of an undisturbed soil is called

a. Optimum Moisture Content c. Natural Water Content
b. Hygroscopic Moisture Content
107. In the performance of Moisture Density Relations Test,

the equipment used is
a. Liquid Limit Device c. Rammer and Mold
b. Sand Core Apparatus d. None of the Above
108. Peat and Muck are

a. Fair subgrade soils c. Unstable soils
b. Stable soils d. Good subgrade soils
109. To prevent intrusion of soft subgrade material into the

aggregate base or subbase ______ maybe used.
a. Reinforced Earth c. Gabions
b. Rock Buttress d. Geo Textile
110. The CBR value is generally selected at _________

penetration
a. 0.10 c. 0.05
b. 0.0375 d. 0.20
111. _______ is one of the method in improving the properties

of a soil to make it suitable for a particular purpose.
a. Particle rearrangement c. Paving
b. Sodding or sprigging d. None of the preceding
112. A sample of saturated clay has a mass of 102.8 grams.

After oven drying, the same soil weighs 73.4 grams. If the
specific gravity is 2.74, its wet density g/ml is.
a. 1.829 c. 1.827
b. 1.825 d. 1.830
113. The dry density, g/ml is.

a. 1.310 c. 1.300
b. 1.306 d. 1.309
114. For item 311 PCC Pavement, Coarse Aggregates shall have
a mass percent of wear not exceeding ______ when tested
by AASHTO T-96.
a. 50% c. 35%
b. 40% d. 60%
115. Plasticity index for aggregate surface coarse is

a. Not greater than 6 c. 4 to 9
b. Not greater than 25 d. 12
116. At least one (1) set of 3 concrete cylinder sample shall

be taken from ______ cubic meter
a. 60 c. 100
b. 75 d. 150
117. Fine aggregates used in concrete pavement shall

contain not more than ______ percent of material passing
the 0.075mm sieve by washing.
a. 1 c. 3
b. 1.5 d. 4
118. The degree of compaction required for embankment is

at least _____ percent of the maximum density as
determined by AASHTO 99 Method C.
a. 100 c. 95
b. 90 d. 85
119. Requirement of Portland Cement Concrete Pavement

Construction
a. opening to traffic after 14 days the concrete was
placed
b. opening to traffic after 28 days the concrete was
placed
c. a comressive strength of 3500 psivor more
d. none of the above
120. Roadway embankment in earth material shall be placed
and compacted in horizontal layers not exceeding
_____ loose measurement, before the next layer
is placed.
a. 150 mm c. 100 mm
b. 200 mm d. 250 mm
121. Steel bars for concrete reinforced is tested for its

a. tensile c. yield
b. cmpressive c. both a and c
122. To give Bituminous Concrete Surface Course greater

resistance to water _____ hydrated lime should
be added.
a. 2 - 3% c. 1/2 - 1%
b. 1-1/2 - 2% d. 4 - 5%
123. In Aggregate Subbase Coarse, the degree of compaction

of each layer shall continue until a field density of at
least _____ percent of the maximum dry density
determined in according with the AASHTO T-180, Method.
a. 100 c. 90
b. 95
124. The maximum percentage wear allowed for Aggregate

Subbase Course in a coarse portion retained on a 2mm
(No. 10) sieve is _______ percent by Los Angeles Abasion
Test determined by AASHTO T-96.
a. 45 c. 40
b. 50 d. 55
125. In manufacture culvert pipes, the Class of concrete

used is
a. Class "C" c. Class "A"
b. Class "B" d. Class "P"
126. For Bituminous Concrete Surface Course, if Asphalt

Cement is used, the percentage based on the weight
of Aggregate should be
a. 3 - 5 % c. 6 - 10 %
b. 5 - 8 % d. 4.5 - 9%
127. Coarse Aggregate for Crushed stone, Aggregate

Surface Course should have a mass percent of not
less than _____ of the particles retained on the
4.75mm (No. 4) sieve and shall have at least
one (1) fractured face.
a. 30% c. 60%
b. 45% c. 50%
128. Before placing the asphalt pavement the gravel
base coarse should be
a. seal coated c. prime coated
b. tack coated
129. Prestressed concrete structures used concrete

of class
a. A c. C
b. B c. P
130. In concrete base course of 22,500 cu.m. will require

_____ quality test.
a. 15 c. 40
b. 72
131. An embankment to be constructed to a height of

500 mm will have a minimum number of _____ layers.
a. 4 c. 3
b. 5 d. 6
132. ______ pipes should be taken as sample to represent

225 reinforced concrete pipes.
a. 4 c. 6
b. 5
133. Aggregate base coarse with a volume of 83,000

will have a minimum number of ______ tests.
a. 75 c. 40
b. 56 d. 47
134. Soils are natural Aggregates of mineral connected by

strong & permanent cohesive forces.
a. 1 c. none of the above
b. 0
135. The boundary between sand and gravel is _____

sieve.
a. 0.425mm (No. 40) c. 2.00mm (No. 10)
b. 4.75 mm (No. 4) d. 0.075 mm (No. 200)
136. A ______ is a soil which exhibits the properties of a clay

but contains an appreciable amount of sand.
a. sandy clay c. sand clay
b. clayey sand d. none of the preceding
137. Plasticity test is done on soils passing _______ sieve.

a. 0.425 mm (No. 40) c. 0.075 mm (No. 200)
b. 2.0 mm (No. 10)
138. ______ is the process whereby soil particles are contained
more closely together through a reduction in the air
voids, generally by mechanical means.
a. Soil compaction c. In place Unit weight
b. Mechanical Analysis d. CBR
139. Soils containing more than 35% passing 0.075mm (No.200)

sieve are classified under
a. silt-clay materials c. it depends on the
b. granular materials plasticity index
140. _________ is provided for the purpose of cunteracting

moisture movement within the structure either ny
seepage or capillary action.
a. Surface drainage c. Compaction
b. Chemical admixtures c. Subsoil drainage
141. A subgrade soil with a CBR value of _____ will require

a thicker layer of subbase and base degree.
a. 5% c. 30%
b. 15% c. 3%
142. ________ is one of the methods of stabilizing

inferior soils.
a. Particle arrangement c. Paving
b. Sodding or sprigging d. Flattening
143. The physical and engineering properties of soils

may be improved by
a. compaction c. both a and b
b. stabilization d. neither a nor b

a. total weight of soil c. weight of solids
b. total volume of soil d. none of the preceding
145. The density to which a soil can be compacted is

related to
a. compactive efforts c. both a and b
b. water content d. none of the preceding
146. Disturbed samples may be used for

a. sieve test c. compaction test
b. liquid limit c. any of the preceding
147. A soil with a Group Index of 5 is stronger than

another with a Group Index of 10.
a. 1 c. it depends on the water
b. 0 content
Do you want to show your score? y/n y

Do you want to show the correct answer? y/n
Answer
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147
Materials Engineer
1. In soil Engineering the term “SOIL” includes

a. clay
b. gravel
c. sand
d. all of the preceding
2. The compressibility of a fine grained soil is

a. high
b. low
c. it depends upon the grain size
3. Sand has a greater load-carrying capacity than clay

a. true
b. false
c. it depends on gradation
d. it depends on water content
4. The highest moisture content in the plastic consistency of fine-grained soil is the
liquid limit
a. plastic limit
b. shrinkage limit
5. Compaction increases the strength of soil by

a. expelling air from its voids
b. forcing soil particles into more intimate contact
c. both a and b
6. Indicates a range of moisture content over which soil is plastic

a. plastic limit
b. shrinkage limit
c. plasticity index
7. Water content of an undisturbed soil is called

a. optimum moisture content
b. hygroscopic moisture content
c. natural water content
8. In the performance of Moisture Density Relations Test, the equipment used is

a. liquid limit device
b. sand-cone apparatus
c. rammer and mold
9. Peat and muck are

a. fair subgrade soils
b. stable soils
c. unstable soils
d. good subgrade soils
10. The particle size distribution of a soil is determined by
a. liquid limit test
b. sieve analysis test
c. plastic limit test
d. any of the preceding
11. To prevent intrustion of soft subgrade material into the aggregate base or subbase
a. reinforced earth
b. rock buttress
c. gabions
d. geotextile may be used
12. The CBR value is generally selected at

a. 0.10
b. 0.0375
c. 0.05
d. 0.20 penetration
13. One of the methods in improving the properties of a soil to make it suitable for a particular purpose
is
a. particle rearrangement
b. sodding or sprigging
c. paving
d. none of the preceding
14. A sample of saturated clay has a mass of 102.8 g. After oven drying, the same soil weighs 73.4 g. If
the specific gravity is 2.74, its wet density, g/ml is
a. 1.829
b. 1.825
c. 1.827
d. 1.830
15. The dry density, g/ml is

a. 1.310
b. 1.306
c. 1.300
d. 1.309
16. Blown Asphalt are usually used for paving

a. true
b. false
c. it depends upon its ductility
17. A mixture of asphalt cement and water with emulsifying agent is called
a. R. C. cutback
b. M. C. cutback
c. Asphalt emulsion
d. Oxidized asphalt
18. The a) Marshall Stability Test b) Immersion-Compression Test c) Job-Mix formula compares the
compressive strength of dry and wet specimens of asphalt mixes.
19. The effective asphalt content is a) lower than b) higher than c) equal to the actual asphalt content.
20. Which of the following percent air voids is most preferable in bituminous mixture
a. 0%
b. 5%
c. 8%
21. a) Viscocity b) solubility c) Flash point d) Extraction test determines the bitumen content of asphalt
cement
22. a) Distillation b) Penetration c) Viscocity d) Ductility is the consistency test on solid asphalt.
23. a) Tack coat b) Prime coat c) Seal coat is the bituminous coating applied to an old concrete
pavement to be used as base.
24. A Job-mix formula provides for close control of

a. asphalt content
b. aggregate gradation
c. both a and b
25. a) Flexibility b) Durability c) Stability d) Workability is the resistance of an asphalt pavement

against weathering.
26. The temperature of hot mixes being delivered should not be less than its
a. mixing
b. application
c. heating
d. compaction temperature
27. A Bituminous Seal Coat is usually applied with aggregate

a. true
b. false
c. it depends on the surface application
28. The maximum specific gravity of an asphalt mix containing 6.0% asphalt by weight of mix is 2.6.
If the specific gravity of an asphalt is 1.01, the specific gravity of the aggregate is equal to
a. 2.65
b. 2.56
c. 2.76
d. 2.70
29. The weight in air of a core specimen taken from asphalt pavement is 4,128 g. If its SSD weight is
4,137 g. and its weight in water is 2,237 g. Therefore, its bulk density is
a. 2.42
b. 1.72
c. 2.28
d. 2.69
30. The bulk specific gravity of a sample of bituminous pavement taken from a newly rolled section is
2.244. If the laboratory compacted specific gravity is 2.362 and the minimum compaction
requirement is 95%, the pavement is
a. satisfactorily rolled
b. over compacted
c. in need of more rolling
31. Concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam mold should be rodded
a. 60
b. 61
c. 62
d. 63 times
32. Quality determination of concrete coarse aggregate sample requires

a. abrasion test
b. sieve analysis
c. stability
d. both a and b
33. Concrete fine aggregate should be tested for

a. compaction
b. stripping
c. stability
34. Admixtures are used to

a. improve workability
b. increase strength
c. retard initial setting
35. a) Compressive strength b) Flexural strength c) Bond d) All of the preceding will improve if
water – cement ratio is lowered.
36. Angular coarse aggregate will require more

a. sand
b. water
c. both a and b
d. coarse aggregate per unit volume of concrete.
37. Slump test could be used to detect

a. increase in cement content
b. increase in water
c. increase in volume
d. increase in aggregate
38. Greatest net water is required in a concrete mix with

a. very coarse
b. coarse
c. fine
d. very fine, fine aggregate
39. If the concrete beam specimen is raptured during test outside the middle third, but within 5% of the
span length, the formula to be used in computing the stress is
a. R = PL/bd2
b. R = 3Pa/bd2
c. R = Pla/bd2
40. Concrete mix should be in placi

a. 100 min
b. 90 min
c. 15 min, after the cement is added into the aggregates and water.
41. The fineness modulus is highest for

a. coarse
b. very coarse
c. fine
d. very fine, sand.
42. In molding concrete cylinder specimen, each layer should be rodded

a. 25
b. 56
c. 60
d. 100 times.
43. Concrete cylinder sample should be molded in

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4 equal layers.
44. Maintaining the water-cement ratio, the concrete containing

a. 50.0 mm
b. 37.5 mm
c. 19.0 mm
d. 12.5 mm maximum size aggregate will develop the highest strength.
45. Paving concrete will need less

a. sand
b. water
c. coarse aggregate
d. both a & b, than that of structural concrete.
46. The maximum percentage of abrasion loss allowed for concrete coarse aggregate is
a. 40
b. 45
c. 50
47. For Bituminous Concrete Surface Course, if asphalt cement is used, the percentage based on the
weight of aggregate should be
a. 3 to 5%
b. 5 to 8%
c. 6 to 10%
48. An aggregate base course of 21,600 m3 will require

a. 14
b. 15
c. 72 quality tests.
49. Coarse aggregate for Crushed Stone Aggregate Surface Course should have not less than
a. 40
b. 45
c. 50
d. 60 with at least one fractured face
50. Crushed Gravel Base Course, Grading C, shall be compacted in layers of not more than
a. 10 cm
b. 15 cm
c. 20 cm loose thickness.
51. An embankment to be constructed to a height of 65 cm will have a minimum of

a. 4
b. 5
c. 6 layers.
52. To give Bituminous Plant Mix Base Course greater to resistance to water
a. ½ to 1%
b. 1 ½ to 2%
c. 2 – 3% hydrated lime should be added during mixing.
53. The type of Bituminous Macadam Pavement is

a. asphalt cement
b. asphalt emulsion
c. rock asphalt
d. either a or b.
54. Prestressed Concrete Structures use concrete class

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
55. a) 5 b) 9 c) 3 pipes should be taken as sample to represent 225 reinforced concrete pipes.
56. Before placing the asphalt pavement, the gravel base course should be
a. seal coated
b. tack coated
c. prime coated
57. Concrete used in reinforced concrete culvert pipe should generally have a compressive strength of a
a. 16.54 Mpa ( 2400)
b. 27.56 Mpa ( 4000)
c. 20.67 Mpa ( 3000)
d. 34.45 Mpa ( 5000)
58. Concrete railings, pipes, and piles require the use of what class of concrete?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
59. Steel bars for concrete reinforcement is tested for its

a. tensile
b. compression
c. bending
d. both a and c for properties.
60. Aggregate Base Course with a volume of 112,000m3 will have a minimum number of
a. 74
b. 75
c. 56
d. 374 quality tests.
61. Which plasticity index is most suitable for aggregate base course?
a. 5
b. 10
c. 15
d. 50 The fraction passing the 0.425 mm (No.40) shall have a liquid limit not greater than 25 and
plasticity index not greater than 6.
62. The specified flexural strength for paving concrete is

a. 350
b. 400
c. 525
d. 300
63. The sample of 12.5 mm diameter steel bar to be submitted for test should be at least
a. 20 cm
b. 40 cm
c. 100 cm
64. a) Third point loading b) Three-edge bearing test c) Mid-span loading d) none of the above is the
method used in determining the strength of concrete pipes.
65 Prestressed concrete requires the use of Class

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D concrete
66. If an asphalt pavement will be constructed over an old existing concrete pavement
a. prime coat
b. tack coat
c. seal coat
d. mortar coat should be applied to the concrete pavement.
67. For bituminous concrete mixes, the asphalt material may either be asphalt cement or asphalt
emulsion
a. true
b. false
68. Coarse Aggregate for Bituminous Macadam Pavement should be

a. crushed gravel or stone
b. natural gravel
c. both a and b
69/70. Tests for coarse aggregate include

a. abrasion
b. mortar strength
c. absorption
71/72. Tests for fine aggregate for concrete include

a. gradation
b. mortar strength
c. abrasion
73. Unless otherwise specified in the special provision, the type of portland cement used in paving
concrete shall be
a. Type I
b. Type II
c. Type III
d. Type IV
74. During construction of a road project, if all the materials to be used are tested for quality, inspection
is no longer required
a. true
b. false
75. The degree of compaction of an embankment in our present Specifications is based on

a. CBR method
b. Unconfined compression test
c. AASHTO Designation T-180
d. Bulk Specific Gravity
76/77. Under Excavation for Structure, Item 106, the backfilling operation shall be done in 20 cm loose
layer and compacted to at least 95 Percent.
78. Soils are natural aggregates of minerals connected by strong and permanent cohesive forces
a. true
b. false
79. The boundary between sand and gravel is

a. 0.425 mm (#40)
b. 4.750 mm (#4)
c. 2.00 mm (#10)
d. 0.075 mm (#200)
80. A a) sandy clay b) clayey sand c) sand clay d) none of the preceding is a soil which exhibits the
properties of a clay but contains an appreciable amount of sand.
81. Plasticity test is done on soils passing

a. 0.425 mm (#40)
b. 2.00 mm (#10)
c. 0.075 mm (#200) sieve.
82. a) Soil compaction b) mechanical analysis c) In-place unit weight d) CBR is the process whereby
soil particles are contained more closely together through a reduction in the air voids, generally by
mechanical means.
83. Soils containing more than 35% passing 0.075mm (#200) sieve are classified under
a. silt-clay materials
b. granular materials
c. it depends on the plasticity index
84. a) Surface drainage b) chemical admixtures c) compaction d) subsoil drainage is provided for the
purpose of counteracting moisture movement within the structure either by seepage or capillary
action.
85. A subgrade soil with a CBR value of a) 5% b) 15% c) 30% d) 3% will require a thicker layer of
subbase and base course.
86. a) Particle arrangement b) sodding or sprigging c) paving d) flattening is one of the methods of
stabilizing inferior soils.
87. The physical and engineering properties of soils may be improved by

a. compaction
b. stabilization
c. both a and b
d. neither a nor b.

a. total weight of soil
b. total volume of soil
c. weight of solids
89. The density to which a soil can be compacted is related to

a. compactive efforts
b. water content
c. both a and b
90. Disturbed samples may be used for

a. sieve test
b. liquid limit
c. compaction test
91. A soil with a Group Index of 5 is stronger than another with a Group Index of 10
a. true
b. false
c. it depends on the water content
92. a) Water content b) void ratio c) degree of saturation d) porosity determines the relative amount of
water in the voids.
93 a) Rock asphalt b) Asphalt emulsion c) asphalt cement d) cutback asphalt is an asphalt formed
by natural process of evaporation.
94. Uncrushed aggregates are preferable than crushed aggregates for bituminous mixtures
a. true
b. false
c. it depends on the type of bituminous material
95. The apparatus used in determining the consistency of liquid asphalt is the
a. flowmeter
b. viscometer
c. penetrometer
d. pycnometer
96. a) Solid b) liquid c) Blown d) hot asphalt is preferable for bituminous prime coat.
97. a) Distillation b) Extraction c) Penetration d) Solubility is the test used in determining amount of
asphalt cement in a liquid asphalt.
98. a) Asphalt cement b) cut-back asphalt c) asphalt mixes d) asphalt emulsion are usually tested for
extraction.

c. asphalt from kerosene solvent
d. asphalt from gasoline solvent
100. The optimum asphalt content obtained in a Marshall Stability test is the average of the asphalt content
of the Maximum Stability, Maximum density and
a. Maximum flow
b. Maximum air voids
c. 4% air voids
d. 4% flow
101. a) VMA b) Air voids c) Permeable voids are intergranular void spaces between aggregate particles.
102. The main difference between a bulk measured specific gravity of a bituminous mixtures and its
maximum measured specific gravity is the
a. weight of the voids
b. weight of the asphalt
c. volume of the voids
d. volume of the aggregates
103. a) Asphalt cement b) emulsified asphalt c) Rapid curing d) medium curing cut-back is the
best type of asphalt to be used for hot mixes.
104. A bituminous coating applied in an existing road prior to laying of a bituminous surface overlay is
a. prime coat
b tack coat
d. seal coat
105. The distance traveled by a standard penetration needle on a prepared sample of asphalt under
conditions for normal penetration is 8.6 mm. The material is
a. 40 – 50
b. 85 – 100
c. 120 – 150
d. 200 – 300 penetration grade
106. The maximum specific gravity of an asphalt mix containing 6.0% asphalt by weight of mix is 2.5.
if the specific gravity of the asphalt is 1.01, the specific gravity of the aggregate is equal to
a. 2.65
b. 2.56
c. 2.76
d. 2.70
107. A job-mix formula provides for close control of
a. aggregate gradation
b. asphalt content
c. both of them
d. neither of them
108. The desired property of fresh concrete is

a. strength
b. durability
c. workability
d. water tightness
109. The sieve used in the separation of aggregates after the abrasion test is
a. 1.70mm ( No. 12 )
b. 0.425mm ( No. 40 )
c. 4.75mm ( No. 4 )
d. 0.075mm ( No. 200 )
110. Normally, concrete mix with a) 0.75 b) 0.35 c) 0.50 d) 0.45 water-cement ratio will develop the
lowest strength.
111. The most important single factor which affects the quality of concrete is
a. cement content
c. water-cement ratio
d. aggregate quality
112. Paving concrete will need less

a. sand
b. water
c. coarse aggregate
d. both a and b than that of structure concrete.
113. Concrete specimen molded in a 6”x6”x21” beam should be rodded

a. 60
b. 61
c. 62
d. 63
114. Quality determination of concrete coarse aggregate sample requires

a. abrasion test
b. sieve analysis
c. stability
d. both a and b
115. Concrete mix should be in place

a. 100 minute
b. 120
c. 15
d. 90 after the cement is added into the aggregate and water.
116. Concrete beam specimens for paving concrete are molded in
a. 2 equal layers
b. 3 equal layers
c. 4 equal layers
117. A minimum cement factor of

a. 7.5
b. 8.5
c. 9.5
d. 10.0 bags/cubic meter of concrete is required for paving concrete (Based on the 94 lbs. Bag of
cement)
118. The volume of the

a. concrete
b. cement
c. air
d. all of the preceding can be calculated by performing the unit weight test on the fresh concrete.
119. The used of manufactured fine aggregate will generally require more
a. mixing water
b. fine aggregate
c. coarse aggregate
d. both a and b.
120. The two (2) major components of concrete are

a. paste and mineral aggregates
b. cement and water
c. water and coarse aggregates
121. The coarser the fine aggregate, the higher the fineness modulus
a. yes
b. no
c. depends on grading test
122. The more the concrete is exposed, the greater the range of movement is
a. true
b. false
c. it depends upon the type of cement
123. The samples of RSB to be submitted for test should be at least

a. 20 cm
b. 40 cm
c. 100 cm
124. The efficient compaction, the embankment material should at the time of rolling be
a. dry
b. wet
c. at optimum moisture content
125. a) 15,000 kg b) 10,000 kg c) 5,000kg of 12.5mm diameter steel bar for concrete reinforcement is
the maximum quantity that a sample can represent.
126 a) Rock asphalt b) asphalt emulsion c) Asphalt cement d) Cut-back asphalt is an
asphalt formed by natural process of evaporation.
127. Uncrushed aggregates are preferable than crushed aggregates for bituminous mixtures
a. true
b. false
c. it depends on the type of bituminous material.
128. The apparatus used in determining the consistency of liquid asphalt is the
a. flowmeter
b. viscometer
c. penetrometer
d. pycnometer
129. a) Solid b) liquid c) blown d) hot asphalt is preferable for bituminous prime coat.
130. a) Distillation b) Extraction c) Penetration d) solubility is the test used in determining the amount of
asphalt cement in a liquid asphalt.
131 . a) Asphalt cement b) Cut-back asphalt c)Asphalt mixes d) Asphalt emulsion are
usually tested for extraction.

c. asphalt from gasoline solvent
d. asphalt from kerosene solvent.
133. a) Distillation b) Viscosity c) Flash point d) Softening point indicated the safe working
temperature of the asphalt.
134. The optimum asphalt content obtained in a Marshall Stability Test is the average of the asphalt
content of the Maximum stability, maximum density and
a. maximum flow
b. maximum air voids
c. 4% air voids
d. 45 flow
135. a) VMA b) Air voids c) Permeable voids are intergranular void spaces between aggregate particles.
136 . a) Asphalt cement b) Emulsified asphalt c) rapid curing cut-back d) medium curing cut-
back is the best type of asphalt to be used for hot mixes.
137. The field density of a bituminous pavement shall not be less than
a. 92 %
b. 95 %
c. 98 % of the specific gravity of the laboratory compacted specimen.
138. For ITEM 311 PCC pavement, coarse aggregate shall have a mass percent of wear not exceding
a. 50 %
b. 40 %
c. 45 %
d. 60 % when tested by AASHTO T- 96.
139. Plasticity Index for Aggregate Surface Course is
a. not greater than 6
b. not greater than 25
c. 4 to 9
d. 12.
140. At least one (1) set of 3 concrete cylinder samples shall be taken from
a. 50
b. 75
c. 100
d. 150 cubic meter of each class of concrete or fraction thereof, placed each day.
141. Fine aggregates used in concrete pavement shall contain not more than
a. 1.5
b. 3
c. 4
d. 1 percent of material passing the 0.075mm sieve by washing.
142. The degree of compaction required for embankment is at least

a. 100
b. 90
c. 95
d. 85 percent of the maximum density as determined by AASHTO T-90 Method.
143. Requirement of PCCP Construction

a. opening to traffic after 14 days the concrete was placed
b. opening to traffic after 28 days the concrete was placed
c. a compressive strength of 25.08 Mpa or more
d. none of the above.
144. Roadway embankment in earth material shall be placed and compacted in horizontal layers not
exceding
a. 150 mm
b. 200 mm
c. 100 mm
d. 250 mm loose requirement, before the next layer is placed.
145. Steel bars for concrete reinforced is tested for its

a. tensile
b. compressive
c. yield
d. both a and c.
146. To give Bituminous Concrete Surface Course greater resistance to water

a. 2 - 3 %
b. 1 ½ - 2 %
c. ½ - 1 %
d. 4 – 5 % hydrated lime should be added.
147. In Aggregate Subbase Course, the degree of compaction of each layer shall continue until a field
density of at least
a. 100
b. 95
c. 90 percent of the maximum dry density determined in accordance with AASHTO T-180,
Method D has been attained.
148. The maximum percentage wear allowed for Aggregate Subbase Course in a coarse portion retained
on a 2.00mm (No. 10) sieve is
a. 45
b. 50
c. 40
d. 55 percent by Los Angeles Abrasion Test determined by AASHTO T-96.
149. In manufacture of culvert pipes, the class of concrete used is

a. Class “C”
b. Class “B”
c. Class “A”
d. Class “P”
150. For Bituminous Concrete Surface Course, if Asphalt cement is used, the percentage based on the
weight of aggregate should be
a. 3 to 5 %
b. 5 to 8 %
c. 6 to 10 %
d. 4.5 to 8 %
151. Coarse aggregate for Crushed stone Aggregate Surface Course should have a mass percent of not
more than
a. 40 %
b. 45 %
c. 60 %
d. 50 % of the particle retained on the 4.75mm (No.4) sieve and shall have at least one (1)
fractured face.
152. Before placing the asphalt pavement, the gravel base course should be
a. seal coated
b. tack coated
c. prime coated
153. Prestressed Concrete structures uses concrete of class

a. A
b. B
c. C
d. P
154. An aggregate base course of 21,600m3 will require

a. 14
b. 25
c. 72 ?
d. 40
155. An embankment to be constructed to a height of 600mm will have a minimum number of

a. 4
b. 5
c. 3
d. 6 layers.
156. Aggregate base course with a volume of 112,000 m3 will have a minimum number of
a. 74
b. 75
c. 56
d. 62 quality tests.
157. A portland cement concrete pavement, 6.5m wide and 23 cm. thick will be constructed for a total
paved area of 165,000 m3. Angular coarse aggregate will be used. If pavement will be opened to
traffic 14 days.
a. how many bags of cement will be required for Class “A” concrete?
b. How many quality tests are required for the cement?
c. How many quality and grading tests each are required for the coarse and fine aggregates?
d. How many sets of concrete beam samples will be required?
Vconcrete = 165000 x 0.23 = 37,950 m3
a. cement = 37950 x 9.1 = 345,345 bags

b QT of cement = 345,345/2000 = 173
c. VFA = 37950 x 0.54 = 20493 ; QFA = 20493/1500 = 14 ; GFA = 20493/75 = 274
VCA = 37950 x .68 = 25,886 ; QCA = 25806/1500 = 18 ; GCA = 25806/75 = 345
d. 37950/75 = 506 sets
158. Per our present Specifications for Highways and Bridges, including amendments, it is mandatiry to
open PCCP to traffic not later than
a. 14 days after pouring
b. 21 days after pouring
c. 7 days after pouring
d. 28 days after pouring
159. For 850 m3 of concrete paved in one day

a. 3
b. 2
c. 1 sets of concrete beam samples should be taken and tested for strength (thickness of pavement
= 0.23 m).
160. For 4050 m3 concrete coarse aggregate

a. 6
b. 5
c. 3
d. 4 samples should be submitted for quality tests.
161. The coarse aggregate of Item 201, Aggregate Base Course shall have a percentage of wear of not
more than
a. 40 %
b. 45 %
c. 50 %
d. 60 % as determined by Los Angeles Rattler Test.
162. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as bituminous prime coat is
a. 0.5 to 1.0 liter
b. 1.0 to 1.5 liter
c. 1.5 to 2.0 liter per square meter.
163. Steel bars for concrete reinforcement is tested for its
a. tensile
b. compression
c. bending
d. both a and c properties.
164. For 250 gallons of Red Lead Paint

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 samples should be submitted for quality test.
165. The number of samples of structural steel (reduced section) required for 38,000 kg. Is
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
166. a.) Third - point loading b.) mid – span loading c.) three – edge bearing is the method used in
determining the strength of concrete pipes.
167. An aggregate base course of 23750 m3 will require

a. 50
b. 20
c. 16 quality tests.
168. The Plasticity Index of aggregate base course should not be greater than
a. 12
b. 6
c. 10
d. 8
169. Concrete Hollow Blocks are tested for its

a. compression
b. absorption and dimension
c. tensile
d. both a and b.
170. Item 306 is called

a. Bituminous Surface Treatment
b. Bituminous Road Mix Surface Course
c. Bituminous Plant Mix (Stockpile Maintenance mixture)
d. Bituminous Penetration Macadam Pavement
171. In the preparation of an asphalt design mix intended for Item 310, the proportion of bituminous
material (asphalt cement) on the basis of total dry aggregates shall be from:
a. 4 to 8 %
b. 3 to 5 %
c. 5 to 7 %
d. 5 to 8 %
172. Item -------- includes general requirements that are applicable to all types of bituminous plant mix
surface courses irrespective of gradation of aggregates or kind and amount of bituminous material.
a. Item 306
b. Item 307
c. Item 308
d. Item 310
173. ---------- is the result of asphalt layer instability or granular base or subgrade weakness. The
pavement usually twist out of shape.
a. disintegration
b. upheaval
c. distortion
d. bleeding
174. ---------- the localized upward displacement if a pavement due to swelling of the subgrade or some
portion of the pavement structure.
a. upheaval
b. edge cracking
c. raveling
d. depression
175 Item ---------- consist of furnishing and placing one or more courses of graded aggregates
and one or more application of bituminous material followed by a seal coat with cover aggregates
constructed in a prepare base is:
a. 303
b. 304
c. 305
d. 306
176. An asphalt cement submitted in the laboratory for quality test should always have a
corresponding
a. Job mix formula
b. Test report
c. Sample card
d. Minimum testing requirements
177. If an asphalt pavement will be constructed over an old existing concrete pavement, ----------
should be applied to the pavement.
a. tack coat
b. prime coat
c. seal coat
d. mortar coat
178. The amount of emulsified asphalt to be added in a Bituminous Plant-Mix Surface Course, Cold
Laid (Item 308) shall be ------------ mass percent, total dry aggregate basis:
a. 4 to 8
b. 5 to 10 NOTE: If MC is used the proportion of bituminous material on the basis of
c. 6 to 10 total dry aggregate shall be from 4.5 to 7.0 %.
d. 7 to 12
179. ------------ test is measure by the distance to which it will elongate before breaking when two (2)
ends of a briquet with specimen are pulled apart at a specified speed and temperature.
a. penetration
b. solubility
c. ductility
d. viscosity
180. Another name for hot asphalt is -----------

a. bituminous asphalt
b. asphalt cement
c. emulsified asphalt
d. blown asphalt
181. In cutback asphalt, medium curing type is a combination of the following

a. asphalt cement and road oils
b. asphalt cement and kerosene
c. asphalt cement and gasoline
d. asphalt cement and emulsifier
182. ------------ test determines the amount of asphalt present in a bituminous mix
a. distillation
b. extraction
c. solubility
d. compression
183. The softness and hardness of an asphaltic material can be determined by -------- test.
a. softening point
b. loss on heating
c. penetration
d. distillation
184. The temperature of bituminous hot mix delivered in the project site should not be less than its -------
temperature.
a. mixing
b. compaction
c. molding
d. spreading
184. Resistance to deformation of bituminous mixture is measured by -----------

a. flow index
b. index of retained strength
c. ductility test
d. extraction test
185. The apparatus used in determining the grade of asphalt cement is:
a. hydrometer
b. penetromanometer
c. petronmeter
d. penetrometer
186. In an Immersion-Compression test, molding of specimen is done into ------- layer/s.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3 NOTE: In Marshall Stability, molding of specimen is done into
d. 4 one (1) layer.
187. The actual cementing power in asphalt is called the ------------

a. petrolene
b. asphaltene
c. bitumen
d. resin
188. ------------- test indicates the temperature in which an asphalt cement may be heated without the
danger of catching fire. It is used as criterion in eliminating fire hazards.
a. softening point
b. flash point
c. laser point
d. heating point
189. An asphalt pavement needs sufficient -------- to avoid flushing or bleeding.

a. compaction
b. air voids
c. binder
d. mineral filler
190. A job – mix formula provides for close control of:

a. asphalt content
c. temperature of asphalt, aggregate and mix
d. all of the above
191. The thinnest and most fluid grade of medium curing cutback asphalt is:
a. MC – 800
b. MC – 250
c. MC – 70 NOTE: For MC, the higher the grade the thicker
d. MC – 30
192. The amount of asphalt in a typical asphalt emulsion is:

a. 40 %
b. 50 % NOTE: After distillation the amount of asphalt (residual) retained should
c. 60 % at least 60 %.
d. 70 %
193. Another name for joint filler is:

a. asphalt cement
b. cutback asphalt
c. mineral filler
d. blown asphalt
194. The type of asphaltic material that is usually classified by its viscosity is:
a. liquid asphalt
b. blown asphalt
c. rock asphalt
d. lake asphalt
195. Item 310, Bituminous Surface Course, Hot Laid provides an air voids between:
a. 3–5%
b. 5–7%
c. 5–8%
d. 8 – 10 %
196. Emulsified asphalt that has a positive charge particle is usually classified:
a. anionic
b. cationic
c. pozzolanic
d. ultrasonic
197. The characteristics of a bituminous mix that indicates resistance to disintegration is called:
a. stability
b. flexibility
c. durability
d. integrity
198. The coarse aggregates used in bituminous mix are those retained at sieve No.
a. 8
b. 10
c. 30
d. 200
199. ---------- test compares the compressive strength of dry and wet specimen of bituminous mix
a. marshall stability
b. immersion-compression
c. extraction
d. bulk specific gravity
200. In item 310, bituminous Surface Course, Hot laid requires 70% minimum index of retained
strength (IRS). In the immersion-compression test, the dry stability is about 900 psi. Based on
the data, the wet stability should be at least ------- psi
a. 270
b. 630 Wet stability
c. 1286 NOTE: IRS = ----------------- X 100
d. 1500 Dry stability
201. A compacted bituminous pavement shall have a minimum density of equal to or greater than --
a. 85 %
b. 90 % NOTE: The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to, or greater than 95
c. 95 % mass percent of the density of a laboratory specimen.
d. 100 %
202. The rate of application of emulsified asphalt used as tack coat, should be within the range of
a. 0.2 – 0.5 liter/ m2
b. 0.2 – 0.7 NOTE: The rate of application of either the Rapid Curing or the
c. 0.15 – 0.7 Emulsified asphalt shall be within the range of 0.2 to 0.7
d. 1.0 – 2.0 liter/m2, the exact rate as determined by the Engineer.
203. The type of asphaltic material that is being referred to by penetration grade is:
a. emulsified asphalt
b. cutback asphalt
c. asphalt cement
d. mastic asphalt
204. The optimum asphalt content obtained in a marshall stability test is the average of the asphalt
content of maximum stability, maximum density and
a. minimum flow index
b. maximum VMA
c. 4 % or designed air voids
d. maximum VFA
205. The service performance of an asphalt pavement is greatly influenced by:
a. grade of asphalt
b. quantity of asphalt
c. a and b
206. In bituminous mixture, aggregates account for 92 % to 95 % of the weight of the mixture, while
asphalt ( the binder of the aggregates ) accounts for ---------------
a. 3–5%
b. 5–8% NOTE: The proportion of bituminous material on the basis of total
c. 5 – 10 % dry aggregate, shall be from 5.0 to 8.0 mass percent.
d. 7 – 10 %
207. In asphalt pavement, prior to acceptance, a sample of full depth, 150mm x 150mm or 100mm
diameter shall be taken by a saw or core drill for -------- test
a. thickness determination
b. density
c. stability
d. a and b
208. In an asphalt pavement construction, after spreading bituminous mix, compaction will follow
where rolling shall begin at the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel toward the road
centerline, each trip overlapping ------- of the roller width, gradually progressing to the crown of
the road
a. ½
b. 1
c. 1½
d. 2.0
209. The control of temperature during the mixing and compaction is of great significance in the ----
of the resulting pavement
a. strength
b. skid resistance
c. flexibility
d. all of the above
210. based on the minimum testing requirements for Item 309, Bituminous Plant Mix, General, one
quality test for asphaltic material requires for every ------ tonnes or fraction thereof.
a. 40
b. 50
c. 60
d. 70
211. The test in emulsified asphalt which determines the resistance of the emulsion to break when
mixed with mineral aggregates
a. solubility
b. sieve test
c. cement mixing
d. storage stability
212. What Item in the DPWH standards and specification is Bituminous Tack Coat?
a. 301
b. 302
c. 303
d. 304
213. In identifying project location intended for asphalt pavement, which of the following criteria is
not appropriate to recommend?
a. drainage facilities is well-maintained
b. location is not a typhoon belt area
c. existing base course is stable
d. flood-prone section
214. An asphalt cement can be a good bituminous binder material for Item:
a. 301
b. 302
c. 308
d. 310
215. Which of the following bituminous material is best recommended for sealing weakened plane
and construction joints of the PCCP.
a. asphalt cement
b. emulsified asphalt
c. cutback asphalt
d. joint filler asphalt
216. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mixtures which will have a
high degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirements is called:
a. marshall stability test
b. job mix formula
c. immersion – compression stability test
d. a and b
217. When a completed asphalt pavement exhibits too much voids, it is usually caused by the
following except of:
a. rolling the mixture below the temperature requirements
b. too much coarse aggregates
c. too little binder
d. too much fine aggregates
218. Test results from specimen taken from a recently rolled asphalt pavement showed that its total
asphalt content is 5.45 % by weight of mix. If the asphalt absorbed by the aggregate is 0.95 %,
the effective asphalt content by weight of mix is:
a. 4.8 % Pba
b. 4.552 % NOTE: Pbe = ----- x Ps
c. 5.10 % 100
d. 5.50 %
Where: Pbe = effective asphalt content, percent by total weight of mixture

Pba = absorbed asphalt, percent by weight of aggregate
Pb = asphalt content, percent by total weight of mixture
Ps = aggregate content, percent by total weight of mixture
219. An asphalt mix prepared in the laboratory used 30 %, 50 %, 20 % by weight of coarse aggregate
(CA), fine aggregate (FA) and mineral filler (MF), respectively. If the specific gravity of CA,
FA, and MF are 2.50, 2.65 and 2.50, respectively, the overall specific gravity of composite
aggregates is:
a. 2.58 30 + 50 + 20
b. 2.45 SG oa = ---------------------------------
c. 2.66 30/2.5 + 50/2.65 + 20/2.5
d. 2.77
220. If 95 % of the aggregates in question no. 45 is mixed with 5 % asphalt by weight of mix, the
specific gravity of the mix (if it is voidless) is: specific gravity of asphalt is 1.01.
a. 2.45
b. 2.23 100
c. 2.39 Gmm = Gmb = -------------------------
d. 2.18 ( voidless) 95/2.58 + 5/1.01
221. If the bituminous mix in No.46 has a 5 % air voids, the bulk specific gravity (Gmb) can be
computed as:
a. 2.51 Gmm - Gmb
b. 2.27 % Air Voids = ----------------- x 100
c. 2.39 Gmm
d. 2.41
2.39 - Gmb
5/100 = ------------------
2.39
222. If the dry stability of a bituminous mix is 3,950 lbs. And its wet stability is 2,830 lbs., the Index
of Retained Strength (IRS) is:
a. 50.20 %
b. 71.60 % Wet Stability
c. 73.20 % IRS = ----------------- x 100
d. 61.10 % Dry Stability
223. The voids in the mineral aggregate (VMA) is:

a. the sum of the air voids and the volume of the mix
b. the difference between the volume of the mix and the volume of aggregate
c. the sum of the air voids and volume of aggregate
d. the difference between the volume of mix and volume of asphalt
224. The distance travelled by a standard penetration needle on a prepared sample of asphalt cement
under condition for normal penetration is 9.0 mm ( the penetration scale has 1/10 mm
calibration). Asphalt cement is classified as --------- penetration grade.
a. 60 – 70
b. 85 – 100
c. 120 – 150
d. 200 - 300
CONCRETE
1. Scales for weighing aggregates and cement shall be accurate within ____ % throughout the
range of use. Scales shall be inspected and sealed as often as the Engineer may deem necessary
to assure their continued accuracy.
a) 1.0 % c) 0.5 %
b) 1.5 % d) 2.0 %
2. When cement is placed in contact with the aggregate, batches may be rejected unless mixed
within _____ hours of such contact.
a) 1.5 hours c) 0.5 hours
b) 2.0 hours d) 2.5 hours
3. When mixed at the site or in a central mixing plant, the mixing time shall not be less than
______ nor more than ____ unless mixer performance test prove adequate mixing of concrete
in a shorter time period.
a) 30 seconds nor more than 90 seconds
b) 50 seconds nor more than 90 seconds
c) 60 seconds nor more than 120 seconds
d) 90 seconds nor more than 120 seconds
4. The flow of water shall be uniform and all water should be in the drum by the end of the first
____ seconds of the mixing period.
a) 45 seconds c) 15 seconds
b) 30 seconds d) 20 seconds
5. Concrete not place within ____ minutes from the time the ingredients were charged into the
mixing drum shall be used.
a) 120 minutes c) 60 minutes
b) 150 minutes d) 90 minutes
6. When concrete is delivered in truck mixers, additional water may be added to the batch and
additional mixing performed to increase the slump to meet the specified requirement if
permitted by the Engineer, provided all these operation are performed within ____ after the
initial mixing operation and the water and cement ratio is not exceeded.
7. The concrete samples should be stored in a moist conditioned temperature within the range of
____ until the time of test.
a) 18* C to 24* C c) 14* C to 24* C
b) 15* C to 18* C d) 18* C to 28* C
8. Cast in place concrete shall not be post – tensioned until at least ____ and until the
compressive strength has reached the strength specified.
a) 7 days c) 14 days
b) 10 days d) 20 days
9. The specific gravity of Sodium Sulfate used in soundness test for aggregate should be with in
the range of ____.
a) 1.510 to 1.174 c) 1.051 to 1.154
b) 1.250 to 1.178 d) 1.058 to 1.184
10. The specific gravity magnesium sulfate solution used in soundness test for aggregate should be
within the range of ____ .
a) 1.280 to 1.408 c) 1.295 to 1.174
b) 1.180 to 1.308 d) 1.195 to 1.318
11. The solution used in the soundness test of aggregate shall be cooled to a temperature of 21 +or
– 1* C and maintain at that temperature for at least _____.
a) 24 hours c) 48 hours
b) 36 hours d) 18 hours
12. A concrete core sample having a maximum height of less than _____ of its diameter before
capping or height less than its diameter after capping shall not be tested.
a) 93 % c) 95 %
b) 94 % d) 96 %
13. In concrete acceptance, core will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is
equal to what?
a) 80% of specified strength & if no single core is less than 75% of specified strength
b) 90% of specified strength & if no single core is less than 80% of specified strength
c) 85% of specified strength & if no single core is less than 75% of specified strength
14. Batching tolerance for Sand and Aggregate is ____.

a) 1 % c) 3 %
b) 2 % d) 4 %
15. Between stage of curing, concrete shall not be exposed for more than how many hours?
a) 24 hours c) ½ hour
16. As a Materials Engineer, what will you do with major honeycombed area that is considered as
defective work?
a) Plaster
b) Payment of the concrete will be made an adjustment
c) Removed and replaced at the expensed of the contractor
17. If the strength of control specimen does not meet the requirement and not feasible to obtain
cores due to structural consideration, as a Materials Engineer what will be your decision?
a) Removed and replaced
b) Area will not be paid
c) Payment will be made at an adjusted price
18. After concrete has been placed, it is advisable to maintain fully welted and in position for how
many hours?
a) 14 hours c) 72 hours
b) 24 hours d) 15 – 18 hours
19. The depth of the weakened joints must not be less than ____ and a width of ___.
a) 40 mm & 6 mm c) 40 mm & 5 mm
b) 50 mm & 5 mm d) 50 mm & 6 mm
20. Submission of sample for testing for cement is _____.

a) 10 kg c) 15 kg
b) 20 kg d) 40 kg
21. _______ is the rate of loading for concrete cylinder sample subject to compression test
a) 20 - 40 psi/sec c) 15 – 40 psi/sec
b) 20 - 50 psi/sec d) 15 – 40 psi/sec
22. What is the rate of loading for concrete beam tested for flexural stress?
a) 110 – 150 psi/sec c) 125 – 175 psi/sec
b) 115 – 150 psi/sec d) 130 - 175 psi/sec
23. In concrete sampling paste shall be of normal consistency of _____ when the rod settles to a
point below the original surface in 30 secs.
a) 10 +/- 1 mm c) 15 +/- 1mm
b) 11 +/- 1 mm d) 20 +/- 1 mm
24. What is the temperature of a concrete sample?

a) 10 – 15 * C c) 15 – 18* C
b) 18 – 24 * C
25. What is the wash loss of fine aggregates in the no. 200 sieve?
a) 1 % c) 3 %
b) 2 % d) 4 %
26. In the absence of beam mold in site, cylinder mold is allowed by specification. What is the
required strength?
a) 2,500 psi c) 3,500 psi
b) 3,000 psi d) 4,000 psi
27. ________ is the slump of workable concrete if vibrated.

a) 10 – 20 mm c) 40 – 50 mm
b) 10 – 40 mm d) 40 – 75 mm
28. A burnt product which is combined with gypsum and pulverized to form Portland Cement.
a) Hydraulic cement c) Fly Ash
b) Clinker d) Volcanic Ash
29. Percent passing loose for coarse aggregates when tested for clay lump is _____.
a) 0.1 mass percent c) 0.8 mass percent
b) 0.25 mass percent d) 1.0 mass percent
30. The allowable mass percent passing loose for PCCP coarse aggregates soft fragment is ____.
a) 0.10 c) 3.5
b) 0.25 d) 1.00
31. Mass percent loose for fine aggregates when tested in Clay lumps is _____.
a) 0.10 c) 0.80
b) 0.25 d) 1.0
32. _________ is a type of cement which shall be transferred to an elevated, air tight and weather
proof bins storage.
a) Portland Cement c) Bulk Cement
b) Pozzolan Cemenr d) None of the above
33. Scales for weighing aggregates and cement shall be accurate within _____.
a) 0.1% c) 0.5%
b) 0.25% d) 1.9%
34. _____________ is an instrument used for rapid in – site measurement of the structural
properties of existing road pavement.
a) Pundit Ultra Sonic Concrete Tester
b) Dynamic Core Penetrometer
c) Falling Weight Deflectometer
d) Core Test
35. When mixed at the site or a in central mixing plant, the mixing time shall not be less than ___
seconds nor more than ____ seconds unless mixer performance test prove adequate mixing of
the concrete in a shorter time period.
a) 50 sec and 90 sec c) 40 sec and 100 sec
b) 60 sec and 90 sec d) 50 sec and 100 sec
36. The batches shall be so charged into the drum that a portion of the mixing water shall enter in
advance of the cement and aggregate. The flow of water shall be uniform and all water should
be in the drum by the end of the ____ seconds of the mixing period
a) 12 seconds c) 15 seconds
b) 16 seconds d) 20 seconds
37. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited at the
site shall not exceed ____ minutes when concrete is hauled in the truck.
a) 90 c) 100
b) 120 d) 60
38. When concrete is delivered in truck mixers, additional water may be added to the batch and
additional mixing performed to increase the slump to meet the specified requirement if
permitted by the Engineer, provided all these operation are performed within ____ minutes
after the initial mixing operation and the water and cement ratio is not exceeded
a) 50 c) 45
b) 60 d) 120
39. Concrete not placed within ____ minutes from the time the ingredients were charge into the
mixing drum should not be use.
a) 120 c) 100
b) 90 d) 30
40. The completed pavement shall be accepted on a lot basis. A lot shall be considered as ____
linear meter double lane
a) 1000 c) 1500
b) 100 d) 500
41. Each PCCP lot shall be divided into _5_ equal segment and one core will be obtained from
each segment in accordance with AASHTO T24.
a) 4 c) 5
b) 6 d) 7
42. Cast in place concrete shall not be post-tensioned until at least _10_ days and until the
compressive strength has reached the strength specified
a) 10 c) 14
b) 7 d) 28
43. This is the characteristic generally used for calculation of the volume occupied by the
aggregate in various mixture containing aggregates including Portland Cement concrete,
bituminous concrete, and other mixtures that are proportioned or analyzed on an absolute
volume basis:
a) Bulk Specific Gravity c) Apparent Specific Gravity
b) Dry Specific Gravity d) Wet Specific Gravity
44. It pertains to the relative density of the soil material making up the constituents particle not
including the pore space within the particles that is accessible to water.
a) Bulk Specific Gravity c) Apparent Specific Gravity
b) Dry Specific Gravity d) Wet Specific Gravity
45. The pour point of concrete joint sealer shall be at least 11*C (20*F) lower than the safe
heating temperature, which is the maximum temperature to which the material may be heated
without exceeding the permitted flow.
a) 11 ºC c) 15 ºC
b) 2 ºC d) 10 ºC
46. The penetration of concrete joint sealer, Hot Poured Elastic Type shall not exceed_90_
a) 100 c) 80
b) 45 d) 90
47. The bearing blocks of the compression machine should be at least _____ greater than the
diameter of the specimen.
a) 5% c) 3%
b) 6% d) 2%
48. The bottom bearing block shall be at least _____ thick when new
a) 2” c) 1”
b) 4” d) 3”
49. The bottom bearing block shall be at least _______ thick after any resurfacing operations.
a) 0.9” c) 1.0”
b) 1.2” d) 0.8”
50. The concrete shall not be left exposed for more than ____ between stages of curing or during
the curing period.
51. The number of specimen samples in testing concrete hollow block is _____.
a) 6 pcs./20,000 units (3 for absorption test and 3 for strength test )
b) 4 pcs./20,000 units
c) 8 pcs./20,000 units
52. Is it really necessary to cure concrete specimen?

a) Yes c) No
b) None of the two
53. The kind of test that determines the consistency of concrete is _____.
a) Slump test c) Abrasion test
b) Specific Gravity
54. What is the dimension of concrete cylindrical sample?

a) 6” dia. And 12” high c) 8” dia. And 14 high
b) 4” dia and 8” high
55. In the absence of concrete beam mold at the project site, are concrete cylindrical molds
allowed by the specification to be used in sampler for item 311 – PCCP?
a) Yes b) may be
c) No
56. The minimum compressive strength for class A concrete is ________.
a) 3,000 psi. ( 20.7 MN/sq. m )
b) 2,400 psi. ( 16.7 MN/sq. m. )
c) 5,000 psi. ( 37.7 MN/sq. m. )
57. A tie bar should be ______

a) deformed bar b) round bar c) flat bar
58. A dowel bar should be ____________.

59. The mortar for masonry shall consist of ________.

a) one part Portland Cement and 2 parts of sand
b) one part Portland Cement and 3 parts of sand
c) one part Portland Cement and 4 parts of sand
60. Joint filler in concrete pavement is a __________.

a) Blown Asphalt b) Hot asphalt c) Liquid asphalt
61. __________ is the type of cement to be used in the DPWH infrastructure project as indicated
in the Blue Book.
a) Portland Cement Type I b) Pozzolan Cement Portland Cement Type II
62. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the
weighted loss shall not exceed ___________
a) 10 mass percent b) 5 mass percent c) 3 mass percent
63. If the coarse aggregate are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the
weighted loss shall not exceed____________.
a) 12 mass percent b) 15 mass percent 10 mass percent
64. The design of concrete mix specified by the blue book is based on ________________.
a) Absolute Volume Method b) Area Method c) American Method
65. The minimum flexural strength requirement of beam sample when tested by third point loading
method is ____________.
a) 3.5 Mpa b) 3.8 Mpa c) 4.0 Mpa
66. The minimum flexural strength requirement of beam sample when tested by midpoint method
is ____________.
a) 4.5 Mpa b) 3.5 Mpa c) 5.0 Mpa
67. ____________ are additives used in mixing concrete.

a) sodium chloride b) admixtures c) curing agent
68. ____________ determines the consistency of concrete.
a) Slump Test b) consolidation test c) viscosity
69. Equipment used in the consolidation of fresh concrete.

a) jack hammer b) vibrator c) drilling machine
70. The prescribed forms to be used in concrete paving is called ____________

a) steel forms b) wooden c) combination of steel and wood
71. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than _________________.
a) 30 min. b) 60 min. c) 90 min d) 45 min.
72. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement is called __________.
a) Ottawa Sand b) Beach Sand c) River Sand
73. The apparatus used in determining the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability is
__________ .
a) Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
b) Sieve No. 200
c) Gillmore
d) Vicat Apparatus
74. A mixture of cement and water is called ____________.

a) cement paste b) mortar paste c) concrete paste
75. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of cement in the laboratory is
_________.
a) Gillmore needles b) Bailey needle c) Vicat apparatus
76. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave
expansion.______________.
a) crumble b) shiny c) changes color
77. The dimension of beam sample for paving concrete is ___________.

a) 6” x 6” x 21” b) 6” x 6” x 24” c) 4” x 4” x218”
78. The critical number of days of curing concrete is ____________.

a) first seven days b) first 10 days c) 28 days
79. The standard dimension of concrete cylindrical sample is ___________.

a) 6” dia. and 12” tall b) 6” dia. and 6” tall c) 6” dia. and 8” tall
80. There are two layers in performing sampling of beam samples. How many number of blows
are required per layer?
a) 63 blows b) 75 blows c) 50 blows
81. The formula which determines the proportion of the mix which can meet the desired strength
requirement of concrete is called____________.
a) design of concrete mix b) Boyle’s Formula c) Bernouli’s Formula
82. The minimum testing requirement for every project is indicated in a duly approved________.
a) Quality Control Program
b) Program of Work
c) Work Schedule
83. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number
of test for each item of work.
a) Minimum number of work
b) Minimum Testing Requirement
c) Work Schedule
84. There is 1 – Q of cement required for every _________________.

a) 4,000 bags or fraction thereof
b) 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
c) 10,000 bags
85. How many set of beam samples taken for every 75 cu. m. of concrete poured per day?
a) one ( 1 ) set b) two ( 2 ) sets c) three ( 3 ) sets
86. In a completed pavement, what is the minimum core samples required before payment is
effected? (Assuming that the thickness is 23 cm. )
a) Five holes per km per lane b) One hole per 500m c) P.E. Certificate
87. For pipe culverts and storm drains, the minimum test is 1 – Pipe for every 50 pipes. What is the
alternative requirement?
a) 1 – set consisting of 3 concrete cylinder samples for not more than 25 pipes cast in the field
and 1 – inspection report for each size for not more than 25 pipes cast in the field.
b) inspection report is enough
c) Mill Certificate
88. The minimum test requirement for water used in concrete for a questionable source is ______.
a) P.E. Certificate b) 1 – Quality Test c) Inspection Report
89. Per our present Specification for Highways and Bridges including amendments, it is mandatory
to open PCCP to traffic not later than ___________.
a) 7 days after pouring b) 21 days after pouring
c) 14 days after pouring d) 28 days after pouring
90. In casting reinforced concrete railings, the concrete used is _____________.

a) Class A1 c) Class C1
b) Class A2 d) any of the preceding classes
91. The slump test on concrete is a measure ______________
a) strength c) consistency
b) unit weight d) durability
92. The fineness modulus is highest of _________________.

a) fine sand c) very coarse sand
b) very fine sand d) coarse sand
93. If concrete is continuously moist cured, it will gain strength beyond 180 days.
a) True c) it depends on curing temperature
b) False
94. The quality of paying concrete is usually measured by its _____________.

a) compressive c) flexural
b) tensile d) bond strength
95. Generally speaking, batching of concrete aggregates by volume is preferable than weight.
a) True c) False
b) they are the same
96. If angular coarse aggregate is used in a concrete mix, it will require more ________________
a) water c) water and fine aggregates
b) fine aggregates d) neither a and b
97. The most favorable period for curing concrete is ______________.

a) during the first few days or week
b) after 3 days
c) after one week
d) before 28 days
98. Lower water content ratio in concrete mixes improves ________________.
a) strength c) water tightness
b) durability d) all of the preceding
99. When concrete must be placed in a sloping surface, placing should start at the __________.
a) bottom c) can be top or bottom
b) top
100. The maximum percent abrasion loss allowed for concrete coarse aggregate is __________.
a) 30% c) 45%
b) 40% d) 50%
101. In casting of reinforced concrete pile, the concrete used is ____________.

a) A1 c) C1
b) D d) C2
102. Rate of application for curing compound is _______________.
a) 0.29 li/sq. m. c) 0.15 li/sq. m.
b) 0.20 li/sq. m. d) 0.10 li/sq. m.
103. During coring of completed pavement, how many cores /km/lane is required as per
specification?
a) 4 c) 6
b) 5 d) 7
104. What is the correct proportion for concrete masonry work?

a) 1: 2 c) 1: 4
b) 1: 3 d) 1 : 5
105. The opening of No. 4 sieve is bigger than the opening of a ¼ sieve.
a) true b) false c) they are the same
106. The corrugation produce by brooming is _____________.

a) 1.5 mm. c) 2.5 mm.
b) 2.0 mm. d) 1.0 mm.
107. The required thickness of the thermoplastic paint in PCCP is ____0.33L/sq.m______.

a) 3.2 to 4.8 mm. c) 3.3 to 3.8 mm.
b) 3.0 to 4.5 mm. d) 3.2 to 4.0 mm
108. Quality of factor – produced reinforced concrete pipes may be best established through what?
a) compressive strength test
b) flexural strength test
c) core test
d) crushing strength test
109. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing of materials to be
incorporated into the work?
a) before final payment b) before start of work items c) before first partial payment
110. What is the basis for rejection or acceptance of any construction materials?
a) Certificate of Billing c) Statement of work accomplished
b) Materials Test Report d) none of the abcve
111. Problems regarding quality of construction materials shall be reported directly by the
Contractor’s Materials Engineer to the ____________.
a) DPWH Materials Engineer c) Contractor’s Project Engineer
b) Contractor d) none of the above
112. How many concrete cylinder samples are required for 3,500 pcs. of reinforced concrete pipes?
a) 14 sets of 3 c) 75 sets of 3
b) 140 sets of 3 d) none of the above
113. What method is used in determining the strength of concrete pipes?
a) third point loading method
b) center point loading method
c) three edge bearing method
114. For 250 gallons of Reflectorized Traffic Paint, how many samples are required to be submitted
for Quality Testing?
a) 3 samples b) 2 samples c) 4 samples
115. Traffic paint shall be applied to the pavement at the rate of 0.33 li/sq. m. and shall dry
sufficiently to be free it from cracking from ___________.
a) 25 to 30 mins c) 20 to 25 mins
b) 10 to 15 mins d) 15 to 30 mins
116. This is the only class of riprap that may consist of round natural stones.
a) Class C Riprap c) Class D Riprap
b) Class A Riprap d) Class E Riprap
117. The surface of riprap shall not vary from the theoretical surface by more than ______ mm at
any point.
a) 150 mm c) 200 mm
b) 300 mm d) 100 mm
118. Fine aggregates of masonry shall all passes the ______ mm. sieve.
a) 2.36 c) 19
b) 0.595 d) 12.7
119. Mortar that is not used within ______ minutes after the water has been added shall be
discarded.
120. Maximum projection of rock faces beyond the pitch lines shall not be more than _____.
a) 50 mm. b) 60 mm
b) 70 mm d) 100 mm
121. In hot or dry weather, the masonry shall be satisfactory protected from the sun and shall be
kept wet for a period at least _________ after completion.
b) 7 days d) 3 days
122. For pavement markings, the composition of white paint shall be _______ pigment and ______
% of vehicle a)
40 – 50 % pigment; 50 – 60% vehicle c) 45 – 55 % pigment; 55 – 60% vehicle
b) 42 – 45 % pigment; 53 – 55% vehicle d) 40 – 45 % pigment; 50 – 55% vehicle
123. The composition of yellow paint shall be _______ pigment and ______ vehicle.
a) 40% pigment and 77% vehicle c) 23% pigment and 77% vehicle
b) 29% pigment and 77% vehicle d) 26% pigment and 77% vehicle
124. The __________ material shall be of such quality that it will not darken or become yellow
when a thin section is exposed to sunlight.
a) non-volatile c) deleterious
b) coarse d) solvent
125. ___________ is a reflector which shall be the short base type having a maximum base area of
180 mm x 140 mm.
a) Flash surface reflective stud c) Brinnell
b) Traffic Cone d) Vicat
126. Expansion joint filler having a nominal thickness of less than ________ mm. shall not be
subject to a requirement for water absorption.
a) 10 mm c) 18 mm
b) 15 mm d) 9.5 mm
127. Expansion joint filler having a nominal thickness of less than ________ mm. shall not be
subject to a requirement for compaction.
a) 15 mm c) 13 mm
b) 20 mm d) 12 mm
128. Strip of the joint filler that do not conform to the specified dimension within the permissible
variation of ______ mm. thickness ________ in depth shall be reflected.
a) +/- 1.6 to – 0 thickness ; +/- 3mm. in depth
b) +/- 1.9 to – 0 thickness ; +/- 3mm. in depth
c) +/- 2.6 to – 0 thickness ; +/- 3mm. in depth
d) +/- 3.6 to – 0 thickness ; +/- 3mm. in depth
129. These are finely divided residue that result from the combustion of ground or powdered coal.
a) Silica Fume c) Flyash
b) Carbon d) Ground Granulated Blast Furnace Slag
130. The glass beads shall have a minimum refractive index of ______ .
a) 1.80-1.85 c) 1.50-1.55
b) 1.60-1.65 d) 1.40-1.45
131. The white thermoplastic material shall not exceed a yellowish index of ______.
a) 0.17 c) 0.16
b) 0.15 d) 0.12
132. The thermoplastic material shall have a maximum percent residue of _____ after heating at 8
+/- 0.5 hours at 218 +/- 2*C
a) 28% c) 30%
b) 35% d) 65%
133. The softening point of thermoplastic paint should be _______.

a) 106.5+/-9.5*C b) 120.5+/-9.5*C
b) 102.5+/-9.5*C d) 100.5+/-9.5*C
134. As construction progresses, you noticed that the materials delivered at the project site are
different from the one tested and passed the requirement, as Materials Engineer what would
you do?
a) Authorize the use of the materials
b) Conduct immediate retesting of the materials for verification purposes
c) Reject materials
d) Replace the materials
135. What is the test criteria for RCPC test with three ( 3 ) Edge Bearing Test?
a) 0.3 mm. c) 0.5 mm.
b) 0.4 mm. d) 0.6 mm.
136. Who should take samples of materials and bring them to the laboratory for acceptance
purposes?
a) DPWH Materials Engineer c) Contractor’s Project Engineer
b) Contractor’s Materials Engineer d) DPWH Project Engineer
137. Cement which has been in storage for so long period that there is already doubt as to its quality
should be _____________.
a) retested prior to use c) authorized to use
b) not to used
138. In abrasion test, a sample of 5,000 grams was subjected to abrasion, a 2,000 grams sample was
retained in no. 12 sieve after washing, what is the abrasion loss?
a) 50 c) 60
b) 40 d) 30
139. Different brand of cement should not be allowed because _____________.

a) different in texture c) varies in strength
b) different in color when dried
140. PH value of water used in concrete is ___________.

a) 4 to 6 c) 6 to 10
b) 6 to 8 d) 3 to 5
141. The request for recoring shall be made by the contractor within _________ weeks after the
official result of the coring test has been released if the structure failed to meet strength
requirement.
a) one ( 1 ) c) three ( 3 )
b) two ( 2 ) d) four ( 4 )
142. The use of Fly Ash concrete mix as mineral admixture in PCCP and as ______ % replaces the
Portland cement in concrete mix.
a) 15 c) 25
b) 20 d)10
143. This is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel
loading. The results of the elastic deformation test are used to evaluate the structural condition
of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening measure and road capacity
improvement
a) Dynamic Cone Penetrator
b) Falling Weight Deflectometer
c) Three ( 3 ) Meter Straight Edge
d) Benkelman Beam
144. This an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a
concrete pavement to determine the modulus of the existing slabs for use in the design of an
overlay.
a) Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
b) Falling Weight Deflectometer
c) Benkelman Beam
d) Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device
145. Vibrator shall not be operated longer than ______ seconds in any one location.
a) 10 c) 20
b) 15 d) 25
146. When placing concrete, what is the required temperature of concrete?

a) less than 29*C c) less than 30*C
b) less than 28*C d) less than 31*C
147. In PCCP coring, what is the specified thickness of an individual measurement that shall not be
included in the average?
a) less than 20 mm. c) less than 25 mm.
b) more than 20 mm. d) more than 25 mm.
148. __________ is the wearing away of the pavement surface caused by the dislodging of
aggregate particles.
a) Rutting c) Shoving
b) Raveling d) Corrugation
149. What is the meaning of ASTM?
a) American Standard for Testing Materials
b) American Standard for Testing and Materials
c) American Society for Testing Materials
d) American Society for Testing and Materials
150. A tremie shall consist of a tube having a diameter of not less than ______ mm. constructed in
section s having flanged couplings fitted with gasket with a hopper at the top.
a) 200 c) 250
b) 300 d) 150
151. The fine aggregate used in stone masonry mortar shall all pass No.____ sieve.
a) 40 c) 30
b) 8 d) 3/8
152. For small projects where the quantity of steel bars is less than 10,000 kgs. What may be
required as a basis of acceptance.
a) P.E. Certificate c) Inspection Report
b) Mill Certificate d) All of the above
153. The set of cylinders for each project shall be numbered consecutively beginning with 1 and
three specimens should be identified as A, B, and C. At the early stage of pouring, the
laboratory should be requested to break the “A” cylinders at 7 days to check what?
a) If the structure should be put in service at early stage
b) to check the mix design
c) To check if there is unusual development when admixture is used
d) All of the above
154. The field specimen should be cured from 4 to 7 days at the project under moist conditions
obtained by __________.
a) covering with wet sand
b) covering with saw-dust
c) covering with palay-straw
d) all of the above
155. The cured cylindrical samples shall be transported to the Regional Laboratory or any testing
laboratory accredited by the DPWH in ________________.
a) on top of sand
b) carefully packed and crated surrounded with damp sawdust or palay straw
c) on boxes with sand surrounding the cylinders
d) all of the above
156. What is the allowable smooth riding quality of PCCP?

a) 5.00 mm. c) 3.00 mm.
b) 8.00 mm. d) 6.00 mm.
157. What is the weight boulders required for class A grouted riprap?
a) 10 to 25 kgs c) 15 to 30 kgs.
b) 15 to 25 kgs. d) 20 to 30 kgs.
158. For a rich mixture of cement in concrete, what determines the flexural strength of the concrete?
a) Mortar strength c) both a & b
b) the strength of aggregate d) the water/cement ratio
159. As per guidelines on submission of samples, laboratory trial mixes should be made on
aggregates which are proposed tube used for the first time, in this case what is the weight of
fine aggregates to be submitted for testing?
a) 100 kgs. c) 50 kgs.
b) 70 kgs. d) 80 kgs
160. A type of cement that sets and hardens by chemical interaction with water and is capable of
doing so underwater.
a) Portland Cement c) Hydraulic Cement
b) Air-Retaining Portland Cement d) All of the above
161. The spacing center to center of circumferential reinforcement of all pipes shall not exceed its
wall thickness and shall in no case exceed _______________.
a) 150 mm. c) 200 mm.
b) 100 mm. d) 250 mm.
162. Oversanded and undersanded concrete mixtures require more water in order to be workable but
will only result to ______________.
a) good surface texture c) water tightens
d) weak strength d) all of the above
163. For every lean mixes or low cement content of the mixture, What determines the flexural
strength of the concrete.
a) The strength of aggregate c) The mortar strength
b) The water cement ratio d) All of the above
164. How many hours does a fine aggregates tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in
water?
a) 15 to 19 hrs c) 35 to 20 hrs
b) 20 to 24 hrs d) 18 to 24 hrs
165. What is the maximum mass % of wear by Los Angeles Abrasion Test?
a) 40% maximum c) 30% maximum
b) 20% maximum d) 10% maximum
166. What is the required speed of Los Angeles Abrasion Machine per minute?
a) 30 to 33 rpm c) 20 to 25 rpm
b) 40 to 60 rpm d) 100 to 120 rpm
167. What is the size or diameter and weight of cast-iron spheres use in abrasion?
a) Approximately 43.8 mm dia. and weighing between 390-455 grams
b) Approximately 68.8 mm dia. and weighing between 390-455 grams
c) Approximately 46.8 mm dia. and weighing between 390-455 grams
d) Approximately 50.8 mm dia. and weighing between 390-455 grams
168. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate grading A with 12
number of sphere?
a) 9,000 grams +/- 25 grams c) 7,000 grams +/- 25 grams
b) 6,000 grams +/- 25 grams d) 5,000 grams +/- 25 grams

a) It evaluate the structural strength of coarse aggregates
b) gives an indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and wear
c) it determines whether the aggregate will have degradation during traffic or rolling
d) All of the above
a) 3,000 bags or fraction thereof c) 4,000 bags or fraction thereof
b) 2,000 bags or fraction thereof d) 1,000 bags or fraction thereof
171. What is the sieve use in sieving materials from Abrasion Machine?
a) Sieve # 12 (1.70 mm.) c) Sieve # 200 (0.074 mm.)
b) Sieve # 10 (2.10 mm.) d) Sieve # 50 (0.297 mm.)
172. Testing machine should be calibrated once every six (6) months if possible but if it not possible
what is the required time should the machine be calibrated?
a) Once a year c) Every two years
b) Every three years d) Every three years
173. What is the percent tolerance of error in calibrating the machine?

a) +/- 1.5% c) +/- 2%
b) +/- 1% d) +/- 0.5%
174. What do you call a sample for concrete pavement?

a) Concrete bar sample c) Concrete cylinder sample
b) Concrete bar sample d) Concrete beam sample
175. How many sample should be taken for every 75 cu, m. of fresh concrete?
a) 3 pcs. sample per set c) 2 pcs. sample per set
b) 4 pcs. sample per set d) 4 pcs. Sample per set

a) J- ring test c) Flow test
b) Viscosity test d) Slump test
a) Slump = ht. of slump cone – ht. of fresh concrete before subsidence
b) Slump = ht. of tamping rod – ht. of fresh concrete after subsidence
c) Slump = ht. of tamping rod – ht. of slump cone
d) Slump = ht. of slump cone – ht. of fresh concrete after subsidence
178. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test?
a) 4 days c) 3 days
b) 5 days d) 7 days
179. How to compute the flexural strength for third point loading test?
a) PL³ / BD² c) PL / BD²
b) PL² / BD² d) 3PL / BD²
a) 3.8 Mpa (550 psi) c) 4.5 Mpa (650 psi)
b) 28 Mpa (4000 psi) d) 24.14 Mpa (3500Psi)
a) 3.8 Mpa (550 psi) c) 4.5 Mpa (650 psi)
b) 28 Mpa (4000 psi) d) 24.14 Mpa (3500Psi)
182. How to compute for flexural strength at center point loading?

a) R = PL / bd² c) R = 3PL / bd²
b) R = 4PL / bd² d) R = 2PL / bd²
183. Which part of the batch for fresh concrete should the sample be taken from a stationary mixers,
revolving drum truck mixers or agitators?
a) two or more regular intervals during discharge of the beginning portion of the batch
b) two or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the batch
c) two or more regular intervals during discharge of upper portion of the batch
d) two or more regular intervals during discharge of later portion of the batch
184. What is the size of tamping rod use in sampling concrete?

a) 16 mm. (5/8 inches) diameter and 610 mm. (24 inches) long
b) 610 mm. (24 inches) diameter and 610 mm. (24 inches) long
c) 30 mm. (12 inches) diameter and 610 mm. (24 inches) long
d) 16 mm. (5/8 inches) diameter and 610 mm. (24 inches) long
185. Concrete Masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many sample is required?
a) 6 pcs./10,000 units b) 4 pcs./10,000 units
b) 12 pcs./10,000 units d) 3 pcs./10,000 units
186. What kind of paint had reflectance in the form of beads?

a) Reflectorized Traffic Paint c) Red Oxide Primer
b) Epoxy Paint d) Quick Drying Enamel
187. What is the other term for blown asphalt?
a) Hard asphalt c) Medium curing asphalt
b) Tube asphalt d) Emulsified asphalt
188. If concrete cylinder sample for RCP is not available for compression test one (1) whole piece
RCP for every 50 pcs. RCP will be submitted for quality test.
a) False b) True
189. One set (3 pcs ) concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCP?
a) 15 pcs. c) 50 pcs.
b) 75 pcs. d) 25 pcs.
190. In submitting samples for testing, what particular form is being accomplished?
a) calibration report c) mill certificate
b) time card d) sample card
191. As a Materials Engineer of the project what is the report accomplished every week?
a) Quality Control Assurance Report
b) Work Methodology
c) Mill Certification
d) Calibration Report
192. What do you call the report to be submitted by Materials Engineer at end of the month?
a) Certificate of Completion
b) Monthly Materials Report
c) Accomplishment Report
d) Material Summary Report
193. How to determine the thickness of pavement?

a) by visual inspection
b) by dynamic cone penetrometer
c) by concrete coring
d) by spectrometer
194. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather etc. are
recorded in a ________.
a) Materials Log Book
b) Materials Field Book
c) Quality Control Record
d) Quality Control Log Book
195. The main quality problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is_____.
a) Segregation c) Ravelling
b) Deformation d) Honeycomb
196. The specification call for 1:2:3 concrete mix. In one bagger mixer, which of the following
amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
a) 10 liters c) 50 liters
b) 30 liters d) 20 liters
197. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from the
pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
a) At no less than 4 meters intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the
affected location
b) At no less than 15 meters intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the
affected location
c) At no less than 10 meters intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the
affected location
d) At no less than 5 meters intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the
affected location
198. Quality Control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the ___________.
a) DPWH and Contractor’s Materials Engineers
b) QC Head
c) Project Manager
d) Project Engineer
199. As Material Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates of the
coarse materials?
a) at the completion of the project
b) after the course materials be incorporated in the project
c) before the course materials be incorporated in the project
d) during the course materials be incorporated in the project
200. Sampling of the freshly mixed concrete should be taken on the _______ batch discharge of the
transit mixer.
a) lower c) first
b) middle d) end
rodded?
a) 63 times c) 25 times
b) 30 times d) 12 times
a) Materials Test Report c) Calibration Report
b) Mill Certificate d) Sample Card
constant rate within the range of _______ per second.
a) 0.54 to 0.34 Mpa per second or 20 to 50 psi per second
b) 0.34 to 0.44 Mpa per second or 20 to 50 psi per second
c) 0.25 to 0.35 Mpa per second or 20 to 50 psi per second
d) 0.14 to 0.34 Mpa per second or 20 to 50 psi per second
204. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _______ rate of loading shall be
permitted.
a) same c) lower
b) higher d) both a & b
205. Which is not the duty or responsibility of Materials Engineer?
a) quantity of construction materials
b) quality of construction materials
c) testing of construction materials
d) both b & c
206. Problem regarding quality of construction materials shall be reported directly by the
contractor’s Materials Engineer to the __________.
a) DPWH Materials Engineer c) Project Engineer
b) Project Manager d) DPWH Secretary
207. How many concrete cylinder is required for a 3,000 pcs. reinforced concrete pipe culvert?
a) 120 sets (consisting of 2 pcs. concrete cylinder per set)
b) 120 sets (consisting of 3 pcs. concrete cylinder per set)
c) 60 sets (consisting of 3 pcs. concrete cylinder per set)
d) 60 sets ((consisting of 2 pcs. concrete cylinder per set)
208. If the concrete cylinder is not available for a 3,000 pcs. culvert pipes, how many pipes shall be
subjected to crushing test?
a) 30 pcs. culvert pipes c) 60 pcs. culvert pipes
b) 40 pcs. culvert pipes d) 50 pcs. culvert pipes
209. How is the sample taken from the finished pavement?

a) by means of impulse breaker
b) by means of grinder
c) by means of core drill or saw
d) by means of jack hammer
210. What is the slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?

a) 40 – 75 mm, when vibrated the slump is 10 to 40 mm
b) 50 – 85 mm, when vibrated the slump is 20 to 50 mm
c) 60 – 85 mm, when vibrated the slump is 50 to 70 mm
d) 30 – 85 mm, when vibrated the slump is 20 to 50 mm
a) 24 hrs. c) 18 hrs.
b) 36 hrs. d) 12 hrs.
212. Retempering of concrete or mortar, which has partially hardened, will be permitted with the
addition of cement, aggregate or water.
a) yes b) no
c) it depends on the condition of concrete d) check the slump
213. What is the minimum number of representative cores that shall be taken from each member
area of concrete in place that is considered deficient?
a) 3 cores
b) 4 cores
c) 5 cores
d) core must be taken at 5 meter interval backward & forward of the designed sta.
214. the strength level of concrete will be considered satisfactory if the average of all sets of three
consecutive strength test result equal or exceed the specified strength and no individual
strength test result is deficient by more than how many percent?
a) 25% c) 20%
b) 15% d) 10%
215. For major interchanges and busy intersection, PCCP will be allowed to open on the -----------
to minimize occurrence of road congestion.
a) 14th day c) 10th day
th
b) 12 day d) 7th day
216. The width of the weaken plane joint is __________.

a) not more than 6 mm. b) not more than 7 mm.
b) not more than 4 mm d) not more than 5 mm
217. When is the right time to saw the weaken plane joint?
a) within 24 hrs. as soon as concrete has hardened sufficiently
b) within 3 hrs. while concrete is still in plastic state
c) within 2 hrs. as soon as concrete has hardened sufficiently
d) within 24 hrs. while concrete is still in plastic state
218. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with asphalt or other materials
a) True b) False
219. What are the metal device that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to the
surface and centerline of the slab of pavement?
a) tie wires b) tie bars
c) clips d) dowels
220. To protect dowel from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with
_________.
a) epoxy paint c) form oil
b) thin film of bitumen d) plastic
221. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of ____________.

a) brooming c) sawing
b) chipping d) patching
222. What is the depth of corrugation produce by brooming in the surface of the pavement?
a) 2mm c) 1.5 mm.
b) 3 mm d) 4 mm
223. The surface of the newly placed concrete when it is sufficiently set shall be cured for a period
of _________.
a) 24 hrs. c) 72 hrs.
b) 36 hrs d) 48 hrs
224. The curing of the pavement are done on the following:
Ans.
a) by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b) by ponding
c) by applying curing compound after finishing of the surface
d) all of the above
225. When is the right time the joint be sealed?

a) during the curing period or before it is opened to traffic
b) after 12 hours
c) after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic
d) before the curing period
1. What is the sample for compressive strength determination of a structural concrete? Answer: concrete cylinder sample
2. What is the test to determine the consistency of concrete? Ans: Slump test
3. What is the length required for RSB sample for quality test? Ans: 1.0 m/10,000 kg/size/shipment
4. How many samples should be taken for every 75 cu.m fresh concrete? Ans: 1 set consist of 3-pcs sample
5. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets? Ans: 3 pcs-60 mm in 1 sht/100 sheets
6. What kind of paint that has a reflectance or beads? Ans: Reflectorized Paint
7. What is that construction material that has a property of being a dark brown to black cementitious material in which the predominating substance is
bitumen? Ans: asphalt
8. For how long or how many hours shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed? Ans: 24 hours
9. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat? Ans: 0.2 to 0.7 L/sq.m
10. What is the penetration grade of blown asphalt? Ans: 0 to 30 penetration grade
11. What kind of sample is taken for flexural test? Ans: Concrete beam sample
12. What are the tests needed for the 2.650 cu.m Item 201 (Aggregate Base Course)? Ans: CBR, abrasion, GPCD
13. How many grading tests are required for a 3,200 cu.m selected borrow topping (Item 104)? Ans: 3 grading tests
14. As a materials Engineer, what will you recommend if you find out that the materials to be used as Item 200 if finer than the required materials?
Ans: blend Item 200 with coarser materials
15. What is the standard specification for LL and PI of Item 201? Ans: maximum of 25% and maximum of 6% respectively
16. What is the CBR requirement for Item 201? Ans: 80% maximum
17. What asphalt is used for sealing weaken plane joint of concrete pavement? Ans: Blown Asphalt
18. What is Item 311 of the DPWH Specification (Blue Book)? Ans: Portland Cement Concrete Pavement
19. What is the machine used for abrasion test? Ans: Los Angeles Abrasion Machine
20. How to determine the degree of compaction of Items 104, 200, & 201? Ans: by Field Density Test
21. What is the formula in obtaining the value of PI? Ans: Liquid Limit minus Plastic Limit
22. What are the other terms for sieve analysis? Ans: Grading Test, Particle Size Distribution Test, Mechanical Analysis
23. What is the degree of compaction of the soil if the wet density is 2,200 kg/m3, with an actual moisture content of 10.2% and a maximum dry density of
1,960 kg/m3? Ans: 101.23%
24. How many concrete cores shall be taken for one (1) kilometer concrete pavement? Ans: 5 holes/km/lane
25. What is the moisture content of the soil having an original weight of 162.5 grams and an oven – dried weight of 138.2 grams? Ans: 17.58%
26. If the group index of a soil is high, what indication does it mean? Ans: the soil is clayey
27. As a Materials Engineer, how can you determine that the sample placed in the oven is already oven – dried?
Ans: if the sample reaches its constant weight
o
28. In oven drying a sample for test, what temperature shall be maintained? Ans: 110 ± 5 C
29. Why is it that cooling an oven dried sample before weighing is advisable? Ans: because it can affect its weight
30. What is the difference between hygroscopic moisture content from natural moisture content?
Ans: hygroscopic moisture content is the moisture content of an air- dried sample while natural moisture content is the moisture content of the
original sample from the field.
31. For how many bags of cement does a 10 kgs. sample represents? Ans: 2000 bags
32. For 15, 000 kgs RSB, how many samples shall be submitted for Quality Test? Ans: 2 pcs – 1 m sample
33. An admixture is being introduced to the fresh concrete mixture for heavily reinforced concrete structure using a pumpcrete to pump out the fresh concrete
mix, what admixture should it be? Ans: Superplasticizer
34. What is the use of blown asphalt? Ans: as joint filler and water proofing
35. What asphalt is commonly known as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt? Ans: Asphalt Cement
36. How many days does the sample for Immersion – Compression Test be soaked in water? Ans: 4 days @ 50 oC
37. If ductility test is for asphalt, _____ is for cement? Consistency Ans: Magnesium Oxide, Insoluble Residue, Loss on Ignition
38. Paint is composed of _____ Ans: 35% vehicle, 50% pigment, 15% beads
39. What is the size of tamping rod used in tamping concrete sample? Ans: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with hemispherical tip
40. What is the temperature to be maintained when curing sample after its initial curing? Ans: 23o C ± 1.7o C
41. Concrete cylinders are cured and ready for test. Temperature between 63°F to 85°F are permitted for a period not to exceed _____ hours immediately
prior to test if free moisture is maintained on the surface of the specimen at all times. Ans: three (3)
42. The molds of specimen not to be transported shall be removed after initial curing of _____ hours and should be cured to the standard curing temperature
of 73.4 °F ± 3°F Ans: Twenty-four (24)
43. High plasticity index means _____ of a soil? Ans: high degree of compressibility
44. Sample to be used for liquid limit and plastic limit tests should pass to what sieve? Ans: No. 40 (0.425 mm)
45. What compaction rammer shall used if the specs given for Moisture – Density Relation Test (MDR) is T – 180? Ans: 4.54 kg with 457 mm drop
46. A bean mold measuring 6” x 6” x 20 is to be used for sampling concrete, how many blows/tamps per layer shall be applied? Ans: 60 blows/layer
47. If asphalt mix having a weight of 3,020g and an aggregate weighing 2,865.98g, what is the % asphalt by weight of mix? Ans: 5.10%
48. What is the material used for Bituminous Prime Coat? Ans: Cut-back asphalt
49. In Item 303, application of cover aggregates shall be evenly spread over the surface at the rate of approximately _____? Ans: 0.004 to 0.007 m3/m2
50. Applying the tolerance of 0.4% for asphalt content to your answer in prob. 47, what is the acceptable range of asphalt content? Ans: 4.7% to 5.5%
51. An embankment having a PI of 30%, LL of 40% and GI of 0, what is the degree of compaction for this kind of soil? Ans: 95% degree of compaction
52. The minimum cement factor for concrete Class “A” is 9 bags/cu.m, how about for concrete Class “B”? Ans: 8 bags/ cu.m
53. Quality control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the_____? Ans: Contractor
54. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing aggregates? Ans: Once the source is identified
55. The minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “P” is 5,000 psi, what is the minimum compressive strength for concrete Class “C”? Ans: 3000 psi
56. The volume of concrete mixer per batch shall not exceed the mixer’s nominal capacity in cu.m as shown on the manufacturer’s standard plate on the
mixer, except that an overload up to _____ percent above the mixer’s nominal capacity may be permitted provided concrete test data for strength,
segregation, and uniform consistency are satisfactory, and provided that no spillage of concrete takes place. Answer: Ten (10)
57. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken from pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm?
Answer: at no less than 5 meter intervals parallel to the centerline in each direction from the affected location
58. Under what climatic condition do we use lower penetration grade or hard asphalt?
Answer: hot climate (cold climate – higher penetration grade or soft asphalt)
59. What is the basis for the acceptance or rejection of any construction material? Answer: Materials test results/reports
60. Penetration test is for asphalt: cement is to _____? Answer: consistency
61. Slump test is a very important test in fresh concrete to determine _____? Answer: consistency of concrete
62. How many samples should be taken for an asphalt mix for each full day’s operation? Answer: at least one but not to exceed three samples
63. The thickness of asphalt core using a caliper is based on how many measurements? Answer: four (4)
64. The thickness of concrete core using a caliper is based on how many measurements? Answer: nine (9)
65. Failed samples do not necessarily mean that the structure it represents is defective, why? Answer: may be the sampling is incorrect
66. The specification calls for a 1: 2:4 concrete mix. In a one bagger mixer, which of the following amount of water is most likely required for the mix?
Answer: 20 liters
67. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine ______. Answer: overheating during the process of manufacture
68. How many samples shall be submitted for test if 315 pails of flat wall enamel paint are to be used in the project? Answer: four (4) pails
69. Aggregate Sub – base course has a volume of 5, 000 cu.m and to be laid in a 15cm compacted depth. How many samples shall be submitted for CBR test
and for sieve analysis? Answer: 2 samples for CBR and 17 samples for sieve analysis
70. How many samples shall be submitted for quality test if 60 tons of Bituminous Prime Coat is to be used in the project? Answer: Two (2) samples
71. How many compaction tests shall be conducted for Item 201 having a volume of 8,250 cu.m? Answer: Six (6) compaction tests
72. What composed of Materials Quality Control Monthly Reports? Answer: Summary of field tests and status of test
73. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 505 (Stone Masonry)? Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
74. What is the required mixing of mortar for Item 500 (Pipe Culverts and Storm Drains)?
Answer: 1 part cement and 2 parts sand by volume with sufficient water
75. Before the project starts, the materials Engineer or the technician must have a program on how many samples for each item of work should be tested
based on the minimum testing requirements. What program or report is this? Answer: Quality Control Program
76. If sample splitter is not available for use in reducing samples for test, what is the alternative way of reducing sample for testing size?
Answer: apply quartering method and get two opposite sides as sample
77. The road will not be opened to traffic until test specimens molded and cured have attained the minimum strength requirements. If such tests are not
conducted prior to the specified age the pavement shall not be operated to traffic until _____ days after the concrete was placed. Answer: Fourteen (14)
78. As the work progresses, the Materials Engineer should know how many sample has been submitted and tested and how many samples are to be
submitted, in other words the ME must refer to what report so that he/she may be updated on the balance and on file quality test of the construction
materials being used in the project? Answer: Status of Test
79. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be molded without breaking or crumbling up to 1/8” (3.2 mm). Answer: Plastic Limit
80. The _____ is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to 25 blows. Answer: Liquid Limit
81. The concrete has been tested for consistency by the use of a slump cone with base and tamping rod. After the test, the height of concrete measured is 178
mm. what is the slump of the concrete? Answer: 127 mm
82. What is the rate of revolution per minute of an abrasion Machine used for testing the mass percent of wear? Answer: 30 – 33 rpm
83. If the design of concrete mix has the following corrected batch weights: cement = 40 kgs, fine aggregates = 65 kgs, coarse aggregate = 115 kgs, and water
= 15 liters. What is your actual batch weights for 1 cu.m Class “A” concrete?
Answer: 360 bags of cement; 585 kgs of fine aggregates; 1035 kgs coarse aggregates; 130 liters water
84. After the soil has been tested in an Abrasion Machine, the mass % of wear computed is equal to 21%. If this material is for Item 201, does it pass the
DPWH specs? Answer: Yes, because the specs is 50% maximum
85. Quality Control Assurance Report should be submitted every _____? Answer: week
86. One of the duties of Materials Engineer is to see to it that all the construction materials be tested: Answer: before it is incorporated into work
87. What is the maximum depth or roadway embankment per horizontal layer in loose measurement? Answer: 200 mm loose measurement
88. Why is it that 6 samples are needed for quality test of concrete masonry?
Answer: 3 samples for compressive strength and 3 samples for absorption
89. Sample submitted for test should have a tag bearing the name of the project, the quantity represented, kind of sample, original source, who sampled and
who submitted it, the date sampled and date submitted and etc. What is the common name of that tag for you as Materials Engineer?
Answer: Sample Card
90. If course aggregate like embankment is to be placed in layers, how many layers should a 40 cm thick Aggregate Base Course is placed?
Answer: Three (3)
91. The ME should always be alert of his schedule with regards to the number of days of a quality test that takes place. Since not all construction materials
can be tested just for a day or even a week so, what is the lead time should he consider for a quality test of a cement sample? Answer: One (1) month
92. CBR Sample for test has been compacted but it should be soaked for how many days before testing? Answer: Four (4)
93. If sieve analysis and plasticity test are used for Soil Classification, what test that its result be used in field density test?
Answer: Compaction Test or Moisture Density Relation Test
94. Heavy rains occur the night before prior to your scheduled field density test, are you going to pursue your schedule? Why?
Answer: No, because the moisture content is high and can affect the result
95. Checking the gradation of composite aggregates and asphalt content of asphalt mix can be done by what test? Answer: Extraction Test
96. What is the device used in testing for liquid limit test? Answer: liquid limit device with grooving tool
97. What apparatus is used in plastic limit test? Answer: glass plate
98. How long does a vibrator be inserted in a concrete mix? Answer: not to exceed 15 seconds at 50 – 60 cm interval
99. Along the slope of high embankment _____ is provided as an erosion control measures and also to improve the stability of the slope.
Answer: Berm
100. In soil and sub – surface explorations for flood control design of foundation condition, a soil sample was taken for field and laboratory tests. The test
required for soil was taken, except
Answer: specific gravity, abrasion, water content, Atterberg Limits, gradation, compaction, relative density
101. Structure crossing above such covered underground drainage conduit shall be laid at least _____ above the top of the conduit.
Answer: 1.0 m, 0.5 m, 1.5 m, 2.0 m
102. Class of stones for riprap ranging from 30 kgs to a maximum of 70 kgs with at least 50% of the stones weighing more than 50 kgs.
Answer: Class B
Answer: Class A
Answer: Class C
Answer: Class D
106. The maximum size of stone for stone masonry. Answer: 150 mm
107. The maximum size of aggregate for item 300. Answer: 1 inch
108. Required maximum liquid limit for Item 300. Answer: 35%
109. Required plasticity index range on Item 300. Answer: 4% to 9%
110. Range of sand size. Answer: 2.0 mm to 0.050 mm Ø
111. The ratio of the volume of voids to volume of solids Answer: void ratio
112. The ratio of the weight of water to the weight of solids Answer: moisture content
113. Significance of grading test are, except
Answer: Gives particle size distribution, measures permeability, capillarity, measures the potential cohesion of soil
114. Significance of plasticity index are, except
Answer: indicates compressibility, permeability, indicates the clay fraction of a binder material, measures the shearing resistance of soil
115. Properties of concrete are, except Answer: workability, strength, durability, cracking
116. In roadway construction test on sub grade, the following will determine the economical thickness, except
Answer: embankment, base, surfacing, sub-base
117. The relative consistency of a cohesive soil in natural state. Answer: Liquidity Index
118. In Atterberg limit, the following are determined, except Answer: shrinkage limit, liquid limit, plastic limit, group index
119. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for centering under girders, beam, frames and arches.
Answer: 14 days (minimum % of design strength – 80%)
120. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for floor slabs.
121. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for walls.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
122. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for columns.
123. Minimum time for removal of forms and false works for side of beams and all other vertical surfaces.
Answer: 1 day (minimum % of design strength – 70%)
124. Amass of solid reinforced concrete cast around the head of a group of piles to ensure that act as a unit to support the imposed load
Answer: Pile cap
125: An embankment shall be compacted layer by layer. Answer: 150 mm
126. Class of concrete deposited in water. Answer: Class Seal
127. Class of concrete used in all superstructures and heavily reinforced substructures. The important parts of the structure included are slabs, beams, girders,
columns, arch ribs, box culverts, reinforced abutments, retaining walls, and reinforced footings. Answer: Class A
128. Class of concrete used in footings, pedestal, massive pier shafts, pipe bedding and gravity walls, unreinforced or w/ only a small amount of
reinforcement. Answer: Class B
129. Class of concrete used in thin reinforced sections, railings, pre-cast piles, cribbing, and for filler in steel grid floors. Answer: Class C
130. Class of concrete used in pre – stressed concrete structures and members. Answer: Class P
131. Height of dropping concrete to the point of deposit Answer: 1.50 m
132. Reflectorized Thermoplastic Pavement Markings Answer: Item 612
133. Permitted variation from the design thickness of layer for Item 300 Answer: + 15 mm and – 5 mm
134. Item 310 shall have a mass percent of air voids with range of _____ Answer: 3% to 5 %
135. Dowel bars for PCCP shall be _____ Answer: plain bars
136. Concrete beam sample when tested by Third – Point Method shall have a flexural strength of _____ when tested in 14 days. Answer: 3.80 MPa
137. When the required thickness of Item 200 is more than 150 mm, the aggregate sub – base shall spread and compacted in ____
` Answer: two or more layers
138. Item 202 shall have a minimum soaked CBR value of _____ Answer: 80%
139. Permitted variation from design thickness of layer for Item 201. Answer: ± 10 mm
140. Sieve designation standard (in mm) for 0.425 mm to alternate US standard Answer: No. 40
141. If slag is used as course aggregate for Item 311, the minimum density is _____ Answer: 1,120 kg/m3
142. Minimum price allowed of contract for deficiency in strength of concrete specimens for PCCP which 10% to less than 15% Answer: 70%
143. This joint is also called cold joint. It is constructed when there is an interruption of more than 30 minutes in the concreting operation
Answer: Transverse Construction Joint
144. Minimum variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight edge between contacts with the surface in Item 310 Answer: 6.0 mm
145. Portland Cement Treated Plant Mix Base Course after the completion of the final rolling, the surface will be treated with bituminous curing seal, how
much is the rate of application? Answer: 0.5 L/m2 to 1.0 L/m2
146. In Item 201, the volume required in the project is 10,000 cu.m. The required number of CBR test is _____ Answer: four (4)
147. Slump test of concrete determines the following, except Answer: workability, fluidity, consistency, job density
148. The significance of liquid limit are the ff., except
Answer: measures the shearing resistance of soil, measures the potential cohesion of soil, fineness and shape of grain, Atterberg limits
149. In soil classification, 35% or less passing No. 200 sieve are the ff., except
Answer: A-1, A-2, A-3, A-4
150. To evaluate the performance quality of a soil as a highway subgrade material Answer: Group Index
151. If the paving of concrete pavement will be done at the rate 200 ln.m, half width per paving day, how many sets of concrete beam samples shall be
required. Given: A = 115,000 sq.m, width = 6.50 m, thickness = 230 mm Answer: 353 sets
152. The required liquid limit for selected borrow toppings Answer: 30%
153. The maximum plastic limit for selected borrow toppings Answer: 6%
154. Soil is considered unsuitable material when the liquid limit and plastic limit exceeds Answer: 80% and 55% respectively
155. Soil is considered unsuitable when the material density is Answer: 800 kg/cu.m or lower
156. The plasticity index is determined in accordance with Answer: AASHTO T 90
157. The liquid limit is determined in accordance with Answer: AASHTO T 89
158. The required compaction of embankment, layer by layer Answer: 95%
159. The minimum compaction trial of embankment Answer: 10 m wide by 50 m long
160. At least how many in – situ density tests should be carried out for each 500 m2 of each layer of compacted fill? Answer: three (3)
161. Maximum plasticity index for Item 200 Answer: 12%
162. Maximum liquid limit for Item 200 Answer: 35%
163. Maximum size of grading requirement for Item 200 Answer: 2”
164. The Los Angeles Abrasion Test for aggregate sub-base course is determined in accordance with Answer: AASHTO T 96
165. The required abrasion loss for Item 200 Answer: 50%
166. The minimum CBR required for Item 200 Answer: 25%
167. The required soaked CBR for aggregate sub-base course is determined by Answer: AASHTO T 193
168. Minimum required percent compaction of each layer of aggregate sub-base course Answer: 100%
169. In – place density determination of aggregate sub-base course material shall be made in accordance with Answer: AASHTO T 191
170. In some areas where the conventional base course materials are scarce or non – available, the use _____ allowable percent weathered limestone (anapog)
blended with crushed stones or gravel. Answer: 40% (60% - crushed stones or gravel)
171. Maximum size of aggregate for base course material under grading B Answer: 1 ½ inch
172. Maximum required percent abrasion loss for Item 202 Answer: 45%
173. Maximum required mass percent shall have at least one (1) fractured face of Item 202 Answer: 50%
174. Minimum required soaked CBR for Item 202 Answer: 80%
175. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading A Answer: 1 ½ inch
176. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 201 under grading A Answer: 2”
177. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 202 under grading B Answer: 1 inch
178. This item consists of a foundation for surface course composed of soil aggregate, lime, water in proper proportion, road – mixed and constructed on a
prepared subgrade/subbase. Answer: Lime Stabilized Road Mix Base Course (Item 203)
179. The required plasticity index for Item 203 Answer: 4% to 10%
180. Maximum required mass percent of wear for the aggregate on Item 203 Answer: 50%
181. Maximum size of aggregate for Item 203 under grading A and B Answer: 2”
182. Item number for water? Answer: Item 714
183. In Item 203, how much is the required mass percent of lime to be added to the soil aggregate? Answer: 3% to 12%
184. Minimum soaked CBR for Item 203 Answer: 100%
185. Required percent compaction for Item 203 Answer: 100%
186. Equipment to be used for initial rolling Answer: Pneumatic tire roller
187. Equipment to be used for final rolling Answer: 3 – wheel tandem type steel wheel roller
188. The test on asphalt cement consisting of heating the asphalt in an open cup and passing a small test flame Answer: flash point
189. It is a manually – operated device for deriving a measurement of roughness from the surface profile which may be expressed in terms of International
Roughness Index. Answer: Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device
190. It is used for the rapid in – situ measurement of the structural properties of existing pavement with unbound granular properties.
Answer: Dynamic Cone Penetrometer
191. What is the thinnest cut – back asphalt? Answer: MC – 3000
192. In the construction of bridges projects, what is the method used to determine the casting length of the regular piles? Answer: Test Pitting
193. It is an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between joints of a concrete pavement, to determine the modulus of the existing slabs
for use in the design of an overlay, and to determine the remaining life of existing pavement. Answer: Falling Weight Deflectometer
194. What is the equipment used to pinpoint rebars, conduits, pipes, nails and other metals embedded in concrete before cutting or drilling?
Answer: Rebar Locator
195. What is the instrument or equipment used to measure for surface test of concrete and asphalt pavements as soon as he concrete has hardened sufficiently
or as soon as the asphalt mix has been initially compacted? Answer: 3 – meter straight edge
196. What is the latest state of the art equipment consuming radioactive material which is commonly used in the compaction control of earth and asphalt road
construction and in the measurement of moisture content? Answer: Nuclear Density Gauge
197. It is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from vehicle wheel loadings. The results of the elastic deformation tests are used to
evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design of road strengthening measures and road capacity improvement.
Answer: Benkelman Beam and Deflection Logger
198. What is the instrument that is used for examining the quality of rigid materials such as rocks and concrete? This instrument is a non – destructive
portable instrument with dimensions of 110 mm x 180 mm x 160 mm and its main uses includes the determination of concrete strength (either in – situ
or pre – cast),also to determine the presence of voids, cracks and other imperfections. Answer: Pundit Ultrasonic Concrete Tester
199. Soil stabilizing agent Answer: Lime – for silty and clayey soil
Cement – for sandy soil
200. Water content at which soil passes from plastic to liquid state. Answer: LIQUID LIMIT
201. Water content at which soil passes from semi – solid to plastic state. Answer: PLASTIC LIMIT
202. Water content at which soil passes from solid to semi – solid. Answer: SHRINKAGE LIMIT
203. Steel bars placed along longitudinal joints to hold the adjoining slabs together are called _____ Answer: tie bars
204. The concrete pavement surface shows high spots of 15 mm in a 3 – m straight edge. The concrete in the area represented by these high spots _____
Answer: shall be removed and replaced (but if high spots being noted exceeds 3 mm but not exceeding 12 mm, it shall be ground down only.
205. The calibration of the Universal testing machine is conducted _____ Answer: Once a year
206. What is the sampling requirement of bituminous mixture? Answer: 1 sample per 130 tonnes
207. What is the depth of the thermometer inserted in the bituminous mixture? Answer: 2”
208. In the design of bituminous mix, the design criteria for stability under the Marshall Stability Method for heavy traffic is ____ Answer: 1800 lbs
209. The stability criteria of the Marshall Stability Method is the maximum load resistance that a specimen will develop at _____ Answer: 60°
210. Bituminous mix specimens are compacted at how many blows at each end for a heavy traffic design under the Marshall Stability Method?
Answer: 75 blows
211. In a penetration test, if the penetration is 9. What is the grade of the asphalt? Answer: 85 – 100
212. In case of scarcity or non – availability of Type I Portland cement, what type of pozzolan shall be used?
Answer: Portland Pozzolan Cement Type 1P
213. The required flexural strength of concrete beam sample of Item 311 when tested by the midpoint method. Answer: 4.50 MPa
214. The required forms to be used in concrete pavement are _____ Answer: Steel forms of an approved section
215. Sowing of the weakened plane joints shall be done usually at _____ Answer: Within 24 hours
216. Removal of forms of concrete pavement Answer: 24 hours
217. The required slump of concrete using slip – form method of paving is _____ Answer: 1 ½ inches
218. Deficiency in strength of concrete specimen wherein no payment of contract price allowed is _____ Answer: 25% or more
219. What is the length of a lot of pavement when a single traffic lane is poured? Answer: 1,000 ln.m
220. What is the length of a lot of pavement when two lanes lane are poured concurrently? Answer: 500 ln. m
221. What is the required size of concrete beam sample? Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm x 525 mm
222. What is the required number of set of concrete beam specimens to be taken from each 330 sq. m of pavement of fraction thereof placed each day?
Answer: 1 set
223. What is the required compressive strength that concrete piles be moved? Answer: 80% of the designed 28 – day compressive strength
224. The required circular pin diameter used to bend 10 – 20 mm Ø reinforcing steel.
Answer: 6d (20 mm – 25 mm Ø = 8d: 28 mm Ø and above = 10d)
225. The mixing speed of the transit mixer during batching. Answer: 4 to 6 rpm
226. What is the slump of concrete Class A deposited in water? Answer: 10 to 20 cm
227. This item shall consist of preparing and treating an aggregate base course preparatory to the construction of a bituminous surface course.
Answer: Prime Coat
228. What item no. is Bituminous Surface Treatment? Answer: Item 304
229. What is the required tolerance for bituminous material in job – mix formula for Item 310? Answer: ± 0.4%
230. This item consists of an application of bituminous material with or without the application of aggregate on existing bituminous surface?
Answer: Seal Coat
231. Job – mix tolerance for temperature in the mixture for Item 310. Answer: ± 10°C
232. What is the size of the sample in Item 310 taken for each full day’s operation? Answer: 150 mm x 150 mm or 100 mm Ø
233. What is the required temperature of mix in item 310 when placed? Answer: 107°C
234. The required speed in rolling in Item 310. Answer: 5 kph
235. It is the resulting difference in elevation across a joint or crack. Answer: faulting
236. In core specimen asphalt mix thickness determination, it shall have a diameter of at least ______ Answer: 100 mm
237. In batching concrete mix, the accuracy of cement content shall be _____ Answer: ± 1.0 mass %
238. Minimum thickness measured perpendicular to the slope using Class D stones for riprap.
Answer: 800 mm (Class A – 300 mm; Class B – 500 mm; Class C – 600 mm)
239. This item shall consist of preparing and bearing an existing bituminous or cement concrete surface with bituminous materials preparatory to the
construction of bituminous surface course. Answer: Tack Coat
240. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using asphalt cement? Answer: 0.9 to 1.8 lit/m2
241. What is the rate of application of bituminous seal coat using cut – back asphalt? Answer: 1.5 to 3.0 lit/m2
242. What is the maximum tolerance of the variation of the surface of Item 310 from the testing edge of the straight edge between any two contacts with
the surface? Answer: 6 mm
243. What is the minimum dry compressive of Item 310? Answer: 1.40 MPa
244. What is the required Index of Retained Strength of Item 310 when tested by AASHTO T 65? Answer: 70% minimum
245. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 4 and larger sieve. Answer: ±7
246. Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No 8 to No. 100 (inclusive). Answer: ±4
247. .Job – mix tolerance in Item 310 for grading, passing No. 200 sieve. Answer: ±2
248. The property of asphalt mix to resist deformation from imposed load. Answer: stability
249. The property of asphalt mix to resist the detrimental effects of air, water, temperature and traffic. Answer: durability
250. The property of asphalt mix to withstand repeated flexing caused by the passage of wheel loads. Answer: fatigue resistance
251. The property of asphalt mix to bend slightly without cracking and to conform to gradual settlements and moments of the base and subgrade.
Answer: flexibility
252. The range of aggregates composition in Item 310. Answer: 92% to 95%
253. What is the test on asphalt in order to determine the effect of water on the cohesion of the mix? Answer: Immersion – Compression Test
254. In temperate countries like the Philippines, what is the most commonly used grade of asphalt cement? Answer: 60 – 70 and 85 – 100
255. To determine the thickness _____ of asphalt, Immersion – Compression Test is performed. Answer: stability
256. Percent air voids will _____ as percent asphalt increases in Marshall Stability. Answer: decrease
257. To determine the temperature of delivered asphalt mix, what apparatus is used? Answer: armored thermometer
258. Peat and muck soils are considered as: Answer: highly organic soils
259. Why is it that a trial section is conducted in sub – base or base course construction?
Answer: to check the suitability of materials, efficiency of the equipment used and the construction method.
260. What does it mean when there is bleeding in a newly paved asphalt road? Answer: excessive asphalt content
261. A good subgrade soil should have the following: Answer: low liquid limit and low plastic limit
262. Concrete samples may be tested at an earlier stage in order to _____ Answer: determine the trend of its strength development
263. What is the test criterion for reinforced concrete pipe tested in a three – edge bearing test machine? Answer: 0.3 mm crack
264. In testing concrete cylinder sample, the applied load should be continuous without shock at a constant rate within the range of _____
Answer: 20 to 50 psi/second (compression); 125 – 175 psi/second (flexural)
265. Cement which has been in storage for a long period of time and that there is already doubt as to its quality should: Answer: be retested prior to use
266. It is a process of improving the properties of soil to make it more suitable for a particular purpose. Answer: Stabilization
267. Two tests are done in one lot sample. The test differs from each other, third test is taken. What will be this test? Answer: referee test
268. If no beam sample taken to determine the strength of concrete pavement, is it allowed in DPWH specs to use core samples to determine the strength.
What is the required compressive strength? Answer: Yes, 3,500 psi at 14 days
269. Tact coat must be at what condition prior to the application of asphalt mix? Answer: tacky
270. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete may _____ Answer: induce risk of corrosion in reinforcing steel
271. Subgrade having a CBR value of 2% or less is considered _____ Answer: weak subgrade
272. Subgrade having a CBR value of 15% or more is considered _____ Answer: very stable
273. Subgrade other than those defined in the two above categories is considered ___ Answer: normal
274. What are the three (3) major groups of soil? Answer: granular soil, fine grained soil, organic soil
275. What is the significance of field density test?
Answer: to determine the degree of compaction of soil. It is also a control test in embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction.
276. Weighing hot sample is not advisable because it affects the accuracy of the result. True or false? Answer: true
277. How to prepare or to come up with an air – dried sample? Answer: air dry the sample under the heat of the sun
278. If it is impossible to air – dry the sample under the heat of the sun, what alternative should be used? Answer: oven – dry the sample @ 60°C
279. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve size? Answer: Method A & B – use sample passing No. 4
Method C & D – use sample passing ¾ inch
280. What is the difference between T – 99 and T – 180 compaction test method?
Answer: T – 99 uses 2.5kg (5.5lbs) rammer with a 12” drop while T – 180 uses 4.54 kg (10lbs) rammer with an 18” drop.
281. What is particle size analysis?
Answer: It is the determination of particle size distribution in soils by sieve, hydrometer or a combined analysis
282. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with chemicals? Answer: distilled water
283. Liquid limit brass cup w/ sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on the base through a height of _____? Answer: 10 mm
284. How many rotations per second will the crank of a liquid limit be rotated? Answer: 2 rps
285. In doing a plastic limit test, to what Ø will the soil thread begin to break? Answer: 3.2 mm (1/8”)
286. What is specific gravity? Answer; It is used in a gravimetric – volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio of the wt. in air of an
equal volume of water at a stated temperature)
287. What is the approximate area for density control strips? Answer: 335 sq. m
288. What Item of work is embankment? Answer: Item 104
289. What kind of material for Item 200? Answer: Aggregate sub – base course
290. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for toppings under Item 104?
Answer: All particle size will pass sieve 75 mm or 3” openings and not more than 15 mass % will pass 0.075 mm. (AASHTO T 11)
291. What is the minimum degree of compaction for Item 200 and 201? Answer: 100%
292. What is the highest point in the moisture density curve of the moisture density relation test or compaction test?
Answer: Maximum dry density (MDD) and Optimum moisture content (OMC)
293. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for field density test (FDT)?
Answer: Any clean, dry, free – flowing, uncemented sand passing No. 10 and retained No. 200 sieve
294. What is the standard diameter of an orifice of an FDT sand cone? Answer: ½ inch (12.7 mm)
295. What are the apparatus used in FDT? Answer: sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate, moisture cans, calibrated sand, weighing scale, oven
with temperature control, chisel or digging tool, plastic bags and labeling materials (tag name)
296. How many hours does a fine aggregate tested for specific gravity and absorption be soaked in water? Answer: 15 to 19 hours
297. How to determine if the fine aggregate reaches the saturated dry condition? Answer: It is determined by the use of cone test for surface
moisture. If the molded shape of fine aggregate slumps slightly, it indicates that it has reached a surface dry condition
298. What are the tests required for concrete aggregates? Answer: Fine aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight: Coarse
aggregate = grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit weight an d abrasion
Note: Soundness test is also performed as per request
299. What are the size or diameter and weight of cast – iron spheres used in abrasion test?
Answer: Approximately 46.8 mm Ø and each weighing between 390 – 455 grams
300. What is the required total weight of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate, grading A with 12 as number of spheres?
Answer: 5,000 grams ± 25 grams
301. What is significance of abrasion test? Answer: It evaluates the structural strength of coarse aggregate. It gives an indication of quality as
determined by resistance to impact and wear. It also determines whether the aggregates will have degradation during traffic or rolling.
302. What is the sieve used in sieving materials for abrasion test? Answer: No. 12 (1.70 mm)
303. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test? Answer: 14 days
304. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at third point?
Answer: R = PL
bd2
305. How to compute the flexural strength of concrete beam sample tested at center point?
Answer: R = 3PL
2bd2
306. What is the size of the tamping rod used is sampling concrete?
Answer: 16 mm Ø and 610 mm long with the tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same Ø as the rod.
307. Concrete masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many samples are required?
Answer: 6 pcs/10,000 units (12 pcs if more than 10,000 units)
308. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 5.5 MPa (800 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 6.9 MPa (1000 psi) minimum
309. What is the strength requirement for non – load bearing concrete masonry units?
Answer:
Individual = 3.45 MPa (500 psi) minimum
Average (for 3 samples) = 4.5 MPa (600 psi) minimum
310. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
Answer: To determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade.
311. What is the significance of bending test for RSB? Answer: To evaluate the ductile properties of RSB
312. What is the required testing requirement for paints? Answer: 1 can (gal or pail)/ 100 cans (gal or pail)
313. SS – l or SS – lh is what kind of asphalt? Answer: slow – setting emulsified asphalt
314. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat be left undisturbed? Answer: 24 hours
315. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat? Answer: cut – back asphalt
316. One (1) set of concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many pieces of RCCP? Answer: 25 pieces
317. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement? Answer: thickness and density of pavement
318. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities, weather, etc. are recorded in a _____ Answer: Materials logbook
319. The Standard Penetration Test (SPT) is an in – situ test that measures what? Answer: depth of soil layer
320. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is called _____ Answer: segregation
321. A one – lane road with a pavement width of 3.5 m and shoulder width of 0.5 m on each side of the pavement was designed to have subbase and base
courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the subbase is 125 mm, the spreading and compaction of the base and subbase
courses shall be carried out in _____? Answer: three (3) layers over the full width of 4.5 m
322. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _____ rate of loading shall be permitted? Answer: higher
323. Quality of factory – produced RCCP may be best established through what? Answer: Test of concrete pipe samples
324. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade preparation. If you were the ME assigned to the project, what is the most
effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to stabilize the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course? Answer: geotextiles
325. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6” x 6” x 21” beam mold be rodded? Answer: 63 blows/layer
326. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discontinued whenever it begins to produce excessive _______ or _______.
Answer: pulverizing of the aggregate, displacement of the mixture
327. In placing concrete, the required temperature should be less than ____ Answer: 29ºC
328. How many concrete cylinder samples is required for a 300 pcs RCCP? Answer: 12 sets
329. If concrete cylinder is not available for a 300 pcs RCCP, how many pipes shall be subjected to test? Answer: 6 pcs RCCP
330. If there is a necessity to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase its workability (provided concrete does not excced specified slump), how
many minutes after the initial time of mixing does adding water be permitted?
Answer: not exceeding 45 minutes and that water – cement ratio is not exceeded.
331. What are the two (2) types of bitumen that are commonly used in the bituminous mixture?
Answer:
TAR – is a viscous liquid obtained from the distillation of coal or wood.
PETROLEUM ASPHALT – are the products of the distillation of crude oil.
332. What are the three (3) major petroleum asphalts? Answer: Asphalt cement, cut – back asphalt, emulsified asphalt
333. What are the solvents of cut – back asphalts?
Answer:
GASOLINE – for rapid – curing type
KEROSENE – for medium curing type
DIESEL – for slow curing type
334. Emulsified asphalts are either _____ or _____.
Answer:
CATIONIC EMULSION – works better with wet aggregates and in cold weather. It is a positively charge electron.
ANIONIC EMULSION - adheres better to aggregates which have positive charge. It is a negatively charge electron.
335. What is the bituminous material used in Item 310? Answer: asphalt cement
336. What greatly affects the service of asphalt cement? Answer: grade and quantity of asphalt
337. What influences primarily the grade of asphalt selected? Answer: climatic condition
338. How many weeks do the producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall submit the job – mix formula? Answer: three (3) weeks
339. Who will approve the job – mix formula? Answer: DPWH PE and ME
340. The job – mix formula contains provisions the following:
Answer:
a. grading of aggregates
b. percentage and type of asphalt
c. temperature of aggregates and asphalt
d. temperature of mixture upon delivery or time of compaction
341. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed? Answer: 66ºC to 107ºC
342. When is the right time to compact in order to attain the required density? Answer: when the mixture is still hot and workable
343. What is to be done in order to determine the number of passes that would attain the required density? Answer: trial section
344. What needs to be controlled during the mixing and compaction and is of great significance in the strength of the resulting pavement?
Answer: temperature
345. In Item 310, how is rolling be done? Answer: It should begin from the sides and proceed longitudinally parallel towards the center line, each
trip overlapping one half the roller’s width.
346. After the final rolling, what will be checked? Answer: degree of compaction
347. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than _____ Answer: 95% of the laboratory compacted density
348. When will the traffic be permitted to utilize the pavement? Answer: when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature
349. How do we take sample from the finish pavement? Answer: by the use of core drill or saw
350. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated? Answer: 40 mm – 75 mm
351. What is the allowable slump of a workable concrete if vibrated? Answer: 10 mm – 40 mm
352. When concrete is mixed in a central mixing plant, what is the time of mixing? Answer: not less than 50 seconds or more than 90 seconds
353. In transporting concrete, what is the time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete is deposited in – place at the site?
Answer: It shall not exceed 45 minutes if hauled in non – agitating trucks and 90 minutes if hauled in truck mixers or agitators
354. How is concrete consolidated? Answer: by the use of vibrator inserted in the concrete vertically
355. If the lanes are concreted separately, what kind of joint in a form of a keyway is used? Answer: longitudinal construction joint
356. What kind of bar is placed perpendicular to the joint stated in the preceding problem? Answer: deformed steel tie bars
357. What is the depth of the weaken plane joint when sawed with a concrete saw? Answer: not less than 50 mm
358. The width of the weaken plane joint is _____ Answer: not less than 6 mm
359. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of sawing? Answer: sawing shall be omitted
360. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with _____ Answer: asphalt or other materials
361. What is the material that is used as a load transfer device held in a position parallel to the surface and center line of the slab of pavement?
Answer: dowel
362. To protect dowels from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be coated with _____ Answer: thin film of bitumen
363. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of _____ Answer: brooming
364. What is the depth of corrugation produced by brooming in the surface of the pavement? Answer: 1.5 mm
365. The surface of a newly put concrete when has sufficiently set shall be cured for a period of _____ Answer: 72 hours
366. The curing of the pavement is done by means of the following:
Answer:
a. by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b. by thoroughly wetting the pavement
c. by ponding
d. by applying curing compound immediately after finishing of the surface
367. When is the right time to seal the joints? Answer: after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic
368. What is the difference between Item 504 and Item 505 (bluebook ’95)?
Answer: the placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand
369. The ME of the contractor is directly under the supervision of the _____? Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
370. The requisites in transporting samples of the laboratory is _____ Answer: Well packed in durable containers to avoid damages in transit,
accompanied by a sample card filled up in detail and duly signed by the ME
371. Who has the power to recommend the acceptance or rejection of construction materials for use in the project based on test results?
Answer: Materials Engineer of the DPWH
372. It is a chemical composition of asphalt that gives color and hardness. Answer: asphaltene
373. The mineral filler which is used in the bituminous mix is passing sieve? Answer: No. 200
374. Cold mix asphalt is used in _____ Answer: pothole patching
375. VMA means Answer: Voids in Mineral Aggregates
376. The compaction temperature in molding the bituminous mixture specimen Answer: 124ºC
377. The mixing temperature of bituminous mix is Answer: 163ºC
378. The heating temperature of bituminous mix is Answer: 121ºC - 188ºC
379. The heating temperature of aggregates ranges from Answer: 177ºC - 191ºC
380. The maximum absorption content of CHB Answer: 240 kg/m3
381. The maximum moisture content of CHB Answer: 45%
382. SPT means Answer: Standard Penetration Test
383. A tube sampler is used in sampling undisturbed sample Answer: Shelby tube
384. Used in sealing undisturbed sample Answer: wax
385. A tube sampler used in sampling disturbed sample Answer: split spoon sampler
386. It is a dynamic test used in the field to obtain rapid empirical results which can be used to estimate shear strength and bearing capacity
Answer: Standard Penetration Test
387. A type of coring bit used in rock coring Answer: diamond bit
388. CQCA means Answer: Certificate of Quality Control Assurance (submitted weekly)
389. The specific gravity of asphalt ranges from Answer: 1.01 – 1.04
390. The type of electron present in rapid curing emulsified asphalt? Answer: cationic
391. How many group of three in – situ densities are required if the compacted volume of embankment laid was estimated to be 1,500 cu. m with a thickness
of 200 mm/layer? Answer: fifteen (15)
392. The allowable % variation in mass of deformed reinforcing steel is Answer: 6% maximum under nominal stress
393. The maximum allowable % phosphorous content of a deformed and plain billet steel bar is Answer: 0.06%
394. Tensile and yield strengths of steel bars?
Answer:
TENSILE STRENGTH YIELD POINT
GRADE 40 483 MPa 276 MPa
395. Plasticity index is an indication of percent Answer: clay content
396. The condition of the soil to be tested in the laboratory compaction test is Answer: air – dried condition
397. The method in the determination of density of soil in – place Answer: Sand cone method
398. Air –dry sand used in the density apparatus is passing Answer: sieve No. 10 retained No. 200
399. Which of the following items does not need CBR?
Answer:
a. subbase materials
b. surfacing materials
c. base course materials
400. In abrasion test, the abrasive charge shall consist of cast – iron spheres or steel spheres.
Answer:
GRADING A – 12 spheres
GRADING B – 11 spheres
GRADING C – 8 spheres
GRADING D – 6 spheres
401. In truck mixing, the minimum number of revolutions after all ingredients including water is in the drum is Answer: 100 rpm
402. A maximum time of _____ shall be permitted for wet mixing, lay down and finishing when this method is used (Item 206) Answer: two (2) hours
403. Traffic shall be prohibited from traveling at the speeds in excess of _____ until the asphaltic material has set. Answer: 40 kph
404. Mortar shall be used within _____ after its preparation Answer: 90 minutes
405. In placing concrete for slab, using buggies, the correct method that should be followed is
Answer: concrete should be dumped into the face of the previously placed concrete.
406. There is a failure of flexural strength in the pavement, if you are the ME of your firm, what will you recommend? Answer: conduct recoring
407. When loads have been arriving at the spreader with the material peaked or doomed up and a load suddenly appears in which the material lies flat, it
indicates Answer: excessive asphalt
408. Where and when was the first use of Portland cement? Answer: Bellafontaine, Ohio (1893)
409. The curve in the logarithmic scale where the 25th blow is projected in order to determine the liquid limit of the soil. Answer: Flow curve
410. Percentage of wear represents the value of _____ Answer: abrasion loss
411. In the design of concrete mix, what is the volume of water in the concrete mix that produces a slump of 76.2 mm? Answer: 24.7 liters
412. The standard fineness modulus of sand is about _____ Answer: 2.75
413. The standard packaging weight of cement Answer: 40 kg/bag
414. It is an impervious membrane applied to concrete pavement before its initial setting that prevents rapid evaporation of water from the mix.
Answer: curing compound
415. The type of paint that is used for zone marking, traffic lanes and parking spaces which is rapid drying, resistant to abrasion and weather conditions and
possess improved visibility at night. Answer: reflectorized paint
416. An ingredient in the paint that gives reflection during night time. Answer: glass beads
417. The paint which is used on concrete or masonry units. Answer: Latex
418. The average loss in weight of three specimens in zinc coating test. Answer: Triple spot test
419. One the three specimens in the triple spot test with lightest coating. Answer: Single spot test
420. The type of paint that is used in wood surfaces. It is a special type of paint made with varnish as the vehicle. Answer: Enamel
421. Group index is an empirical number ranging from 0 to 20 under average conditions of good drainage and adequate compaction. The supporting value of
a material as subgrade may be assumed as an inverse ratio to its group index, that is a group index of zero indicates
Answer: good subgrade material
422. It determines the target density which is constructed at the beginning of the work on each course of material to be compacted.
Answer: Control strips
423. The instrument used in placing concrete in water in a compact mass in its fina position. Answer: tremie with 250 mm Ø
424. The maximum specific gravity of thermoplastic paint. Answer: 2.15
425. The softening point of a thermoplastic paint. Answer: 102.5ºC
426. The maximum drying time of thermoplastic paint. Answer: 10 minutes
427. The rate of application of traffic paint. Answer: 0.33 lit/m2
428. The maximum drying time of traffic paint. Answer: 15 – 30 minutes
429. The minimum weight of sample for reflectorized paint. Answer: 10 kg
430. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted bituminous paving mixture. Answer: vernier caliper
431. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture of the degree of compaction of the asphalt pavement.
Answer: Bulk specific gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated surface dry specimens.
432. The solvent in the extraction of bitumen. Answer: gasoline
433. The percent of bitumen is computed based on Answer: mass of dry aggregates
434. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from bituminous mixture.
Answer: Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregates
435. A device used to determine the relative hardness of asphalt. Answer: penetrometer
436. Volatization test which measures the relative proportion of asphalt to oil. Answer: Distillation
437. The measurement wherein the asphalt begins to melt. Answer: Softening point
438. The Index of Retained Strength (IRS) is computed through the formula Answer: (Wet Stability/Dry Stability) x 100%
439. The temperature requirement in initial rolling for Item 310. Answer: 200˚F to 225˚F
440. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcooked? Answer: yellowish brown
441. How many gradation ranges for Hot Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book? Answer: seven (7)
442. How many gradation ranges for Cold Plant Mix bituminous pavement are there in the blue book? Answer: two (2)
443. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at Answer: approximately quarter points
444. Too much asphalt in the bituminous mixes causes Answer: bleeding
445. What is the plasticity index of mineral filler? Answer: not greater than 4
446. The wearing away of pavement surface caused by dislodging of aggregate particle. Answer: raveling
447. The interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an alligator’s skin or chicken wire. Answer: alligator cracking
448. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the kind and number of test of each item of work.
Answer: Minimum Testing Requirements
449. If the coarse aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed Answer: 10 mass %
450. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed Answer: 12 mass %
451. Additives used in concrete mixing. Answer: admixtures
452. The test that determines the resistance of aggregates to disintegration by saturated solutions of sodium sulfate or magnesium sulfate.
Answer: Soundness test
453. The design of concrete mix specified in the bluebook is based on Answer: Absolute Design Method
454. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than Answer: 45 minutes
455. The final setting time of Portland cement Answer: 10 hours
456. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement Answer: Ottawa sand
457. The apparatus used to determine the fineness of Portland cement by air permeability Answer: Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
458. A mixture of cement and water is Answer: cement paste
459. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of Portland cement in the laboratory. Answer: Gillmore needle
460. The compressive strength of cement mortar samples in 7 days is Answer: 19.3 MPa
461. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the autoclave? Answer: crumbled
462. The critical number of days of curing of concrete Answer: first seven (7) days
463. It is the equally as important as testing, and the sampler shall sue every precaution to obtain samples that will show the nature and condition of the
materials which they represent. Answer: sampling
464. A soil sample received from the field for subsequent tests by reducing aggregations of particles into sizes which will pass certain sieves.
Answer: disturbed samples
465. A procedure to recover relatively undisturbed soil samples suitable laboratory tests of structural properties. Answer: thin – walled tube sampling
467. The representative who will witness the testing of materials in an accredited laboratory. Answer: government
468. Samples obtained from the field with minimum disturbance by using any drilling equipment that provides clean hole before insertion of thin – walled
tubes that is, both the natural density and moisture content are preserved as much as practicable. Answer: undisturbed samples
469. The type of additive that is used to delay the setting of fresh concrete. Answer: retarder
470. The type of additive that is used to attain maximum early compressive strength of concrete. Answer: accelerator
471. The best enemy of construction. Answer: water
472. The following are considered unsuitable materials:
Answer:
a. Materials containing detrimental quantities of organic materials such as grass, roots and sewage
b. Highly organic soils such as peat and muck
c. Soils with LL exceeding 80% and/or PL exceeding 55%
d. Soils with a natural moisture content exceeding 100%
e. Soils with very low natural density, 800kg/m3
f. Soils that cannot be properly compacted as determined by the engineer
473. What is the spec of mass % passing in sieve No. 200, grading A for aggregate base course? Answer: 0 – 12%
474. The rate of application of special curing agent Answer: 4 liter per 14 sq. m
475. The method of measurement for determining the depth of the river channel. Answer: sounding
476. If the type of soil in Item 200 is non – plastic, what Atterberg limit test can be performed? Answer: Liquid limit test
477. The minimum penetration of the preservatives into the surface of timber is Answer: 20mm
478. The engineer shall be notified at least _____ before the treating process of timber. Answer: 10 days
479. All grout shall pass through a screen with a _____ maximum clear opening. Answer: 2mm
480. The allowable height of fall in driving piles to avoid injury using gravity hammer. Answer: 2.5m – 3.5 (concrete) 4.5m (timber)
481. This increases the shearing strength of aggregates of any size, shape and gradation. Answer: Compaction
482. In general, soils high value of this and plasticity index are poor as engineering materials. Answer: liquid limit of fines
483. The recommended thickness of Hot Mix asphalt overlay depending on the expected traffic and the modulus of the cracked and seated pavement
section. Answer: 3” to 5”
484. Stabilization and under sealing are recommended if the mean deflection is ____ or the differential deflection is ____.
Answer: greater than 0.14”, greater than 0.002”
485. Super plasticizers can reduce the water content by _____ and increase the 24 – hour strength by _____.
Answer: 25% to 35%, 50% to 70%
486. Loose material is removed from all joints, cracks and areas that have previously patched by asphalt by _____ with nominal _____ air pressure.
Answer: power sweeping and air blowing, 100 psi
487. Admixtures which can help incorporate a controlled amount of air on the form moist in concrete during mixing without significantly altering the
setting or the rate of characteristic of concrete. Answer: air entraining admixtures
488. It is the activity of monitoring planned scheduled against actual and by speed task to make – up for the past or future loss of time.
Answer: Delivery control
489. Bowl – shaped holes of various sizes in the pavement surface. Answer: potholes
490. A form of plastic movement typified by ripples (surface waves) across the pavement. Answer: corrugation
491. A form of plastic movement resulting in localized bulging of the pavement. Answer: shoving
492. Longitudinal surface depression in the wheel paths. Answer: rutting
492. It is the chief load – bearing of gravel road? Answer: base or subbase course
493. The maximum distance of the discharge point from the point of deposit by pneumatic means. Answer: 3 meters
494. It reduces the vertical compressive stress induced by traffic in the subbase and subgrade. Answer: base course
495. Minimum separation of splices when staggered. Answer: 40 times bar Ø
496. Consist of furnishing, placing and finishing concrete in all structures except pavements conforming to the lines, grade and dimension.
Answer: Structural concrete
497. Minimum grouting pressure of bonding tendons. Answer: 0.6984 MPa (100 psi)
498. The main cross member of Bailey bridge that carry the roadway structure. Answer: transom
499. Coring sampling shall be done at _____ interval by using split spoon sampler and the depth needed is _____. Answer: one (1) meter, 30m
500. What is the diameter of split spoon sampler? Answer: 50mm
501. The uniform sampling run in core drilling. Answer: 1.50m length
502. The initial diameter of bore hole. Answer: 76mm
503. What is the core bit diameter? Answer: 67mm
504. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for 300 VPD traffic. Answer: 250m (1.5m below subgrade)
505. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline of roads for less than 300 VPD traffic. Answer: 500m (along centerline)
506. The required spacing of bore holes along centerline for new road on swampy or marshy ground.
Answer: 100m (2m along the centerline of new road)
507. The required spacing of bore holes for bridge project
Answer:
1 deep drill for each abutment (30m run)
1 boring for each pier for multi – span (3m into the bed rocks)
508. The required spacing and depth of bore holes over foundation area of dam.
Answer: 60m spacing, 30m intermediate along centerline
Depth = ½ times base width
509. For ports and harbors projects: Answer: 30m to 150m; 1m below dredged bottom (12m minimum for piers & wharves)
510. For buildings (large area – greater than 930 m2):
Answer: 1 bore hole at each corner of the structure and one on the interior (9m below lowest foundation)
511. For buildings less than 930 m2 Answer: two (2) boring at opposite corners
512. This reflector shall be the short type having a minimum base area of 180mm x 140mm. Answer: Flush Surface Reflector
513. Occurs on PCCP when the cutting of weakened plane is delayed. Answer: shrinkage cracking
514. What is the primary purpose in establishing design criteria in design? Answer: consistency
515. Positional tolerance of duct tubes during casting operations. Answer: ± 4mm
516. This method is usually adopted when there is no visible evidence of termite infestation. Answer: Cordoning
517. This method is used when soil shows termite infestation. Answer: Drenching
518. Moisture content of rough lumber should not exceed _____ Answer: 22%
519. Moisture content of dressed lumber should not exceed _____ Answer: 14%
520. Design pressure of glass in glazed position. Answer: 244 kg/m2
521. The minimum pressure of testing water tank. Answer: 1,033.50 KPa
522. The minimum energy per blow of diesel hammer on concrete/steel pile at each stroke. Answer: 831.48 kg/m
523. The minimum distance allowed for the top portion of the splice below ground line or seabed. Answer: 2.5 meters
524. Consist of the excavation of river beds, bottom of creeks or esteros and other bodies of water. Answer: dredging
525. The slope of batter piles Answer: 1:6
526. Longitudinal gutter grades shall not be flatter than ____ Answer: 0.12%
527. Allowance for sediments or debris provided in design Answer: 20%
528. It is the digging of soil after the final marking of the building outline has been established on the ground. Answer: Minor excavation
529. It requires wide excavation of total extraction bearing capacity. Answer: footing
530. This shall be conducted for buildings three (3) storey and above. Answer: Boring test
531. The minimum depth of CHB wall footing of other minor structure on the ground. Answer: 700mm
532. The minimum depth of footing on a well compacted fill. Answer: 100mm
533. Typically a plain or reinforced concrete that is usually provided to support a column. Answer: Spread footing
534. Gabion dimensions are subject to tolerance limit of _____ of the manufactured state. Answer: ± 3%
535. A field density result of 88% degree of compaction obtained on the subgrade indicates that
Answer: compaction of the subgrade fails the compaction specs and needs additional compaction
536. Liquid limit is usually Answer: greater than plastic limit
537. The blue book requires that the base course be compacted at least Answer: 100% modified proctor
538. As construction work progresses, you noticed that the delivered materials are different from the on tested passed. If you are in doubt, what will you
do? Answer: conduct immediate re – testing for verification
539. Which of the following is not the responsibility of the Materials Engineer?
Answer:
a. sampling of material
b. analysis of test result of material
c. scheduling of delivery of materials
d. design of concrete mix
540. Measure of construction materials for concrete structure shall be Answer: volume
541. The moisture density curve if different from each soil. Which of the ff statement is true?
Answer:
a. granular, well graded soil generally have fairly high maximum density at low optimum moisture content
b. clay soil have lower densities at OMC than granular, well graded soil
c. granular, well graded soil have greater densities than uniform soil at OMC
542. What should be done on the subbase course with existing moisture content of 10% higher than the optimum moisture content?
Answer: dry out to reduce moisture, spread to the required thickness and compact
543. The DPWH specs provide _____ tolerance for asphalt pavement thickness Answer: - 5mm
544. Geosynthetics may be used for Answer: filtration or drainage, reinforcement, erosion control
545. Which of the ff. is not included in determining moisture content?
Answer:
a. beam balance
b. oven
c. moisture can
d. extruder
546. Steel bars are considered undersize if Answer: its nominal diameter as determined by caliper doesn’t meet the manufactured size
547. Samples of aggregates for base course when tested for quality the requirements
except grading. What will you recommend? Answer: reprocess the materials by blending
548. Concrete curing refers to Answer: procedure done to maximize concrete strength
549. What is the most inferior type of soil as to its engineering properties? Answer: organic
550. What is the testing soil that involves the application of energy and addition of water as lubricant? Answer: Moisture – Density relation test
551. The dividing line between gravel and sand in concrete pavement is Answer: No. 10
552. What is the volume of the mold using 6” for AASHTO T – 180 D method in compaction test? Answer: 0.002124 m3
553. A material resulting from the disintegration, grinding or crushing of rock and which will pass 2.00mm sieve and be retained on the 0.075mm sieve
Answer: sand
554. What is ASTM? Answer: American Society for Testing & Materials
555. What is AASHTO? Answer: American Association of State Highway & Transportation Officials
556. DPWH thru Bureau of Research & Standards has prepared a revised laboratory testing procedure manual, in order to have be consistent with the latest
methods as prescribed under Answer: ASTM & AASHTO
557. What is the category of contractor that are required by DPWH to have laboratory equipments or apparatus in pre – bidding qualifications?
Answer: large
558. What is the maximum size of aggregate used in Item 104?
Answer: ½ of the thickness
559. What kind of material that passes .001mm sieve? Answer: colloids
560. In soaking sample for CBR, the water should at least _____ above the specimen Answer: 25mm
561. A natural or prepared mixture consisting predominantly of stone, gravel or sand and containing silt – clay materials Answer: soil aggregates
562. A rock fragment usually rounded or semi – rounded with an average dimension between 75mm – 305mm Answer: boulders
563. The process of cutting the branches around a tree on the roadside to make them denser and grow straight. Answer: Pruning
564. The road near or abutting a bridge. Answer: Approach
565. Settlement of right of way problems should be done Answer: before the construction work
566. Material that has the greatest load carrying capacity Answer: sand and gravel
567. In hydrographic survey, sounding joints should be made at a maximum interval of Answer: 20 meters
568. The use of geofabric material to increase the strength of the subgrade material for road construction is classified as
Answer: Soil Reinforcement Method
569. What to recommend if the surface test of newly asphalted which showed a lump
Answer: remove and replace the pavement area with irregularity
570. Controlled Density Method in embankment construction involves
Answer: Depositing and spreading materials in layers of not more than 225mm depth, loose materials and extending to the full width of the
embankment
571. What type of cracks will appear on concrete if it was not cured immediately after final placement especially during the first seven days?
Answer: Plastic shrinkage cracks
572. What is commonly used as curing media for fresh concrete? Answer: Liquid membrane forming
573. What is the work sequence on cylinder specimen?
Answer: cylinder shall be prepared, cured and tested at the specified date
574. When to remove the false work of continuous structure?
Answer: when the 1st and 2nd adjoining span on each side have reached the specified strength
575. It is generally either a soft soil composed largely of silt, clay, organic deposit or loose sand having high void rather and usually not high water content
Answer: Weak Subgrade
576. What is Twelve – Inch Layer Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be deposited and spread in layers not more than 300 mm in depth (12”) loose measure, parallel to the finished
grade and extending to the full width of the embankment
577. What is Rock Embankment Method?
Answer: the material shall be deposited on the fill and push over the end of the fill by means of bulldozer. This method is only applicable to fill
≥ 1.2 m in depth. It shall not be placed within 600 mm of the other grade
578. What is Hydraulic Fill Method Embankment?
Answer: the material shall be taken from borrow locations and shall be deposited so as to form the grade and cross section and shall be
thoroughly compacted
579. What is the principal factor used in determining the thickness of the pavement?
Answer: STRENGTH OF SUBGRADE (deterioration due to frustration move also be considered)
580. What is Placing and Removing Surcharge Method Embankment?
Answer: were unsuitable material is present under the embankment corrective work consists of placing a surcharge constructed to the full
width of the road bed. The surcharge shall remain in place until the embankment has reached stability or the required settlement
581. What is Hydraulic Construction Method Embankment?
Answer: this involves the introduction of water into the embankment to accelerate consideration
582. Mixture of fine – grained aggregates, bituminous binder and water for surface sealing Answer: slurry seal (bituminous slurry)
583. What is the formula for percentage of wear?
Answer:
Percentage of wear, % = (orig wt. – wt. retained @ sieve # 12) x 100
original wt.
584. Free bitumen on the surface of the pavement which creates a shiny, glass – like reflecting surface that usually becomes quite sticky
Answer: bleeding
585. Occurring usually at the transverse cracks joint caused by excessive expansion of the slabs during hot weather Answer: buckling
586. The splitting of concrete surface material from the concrete pavement Answer: crushing
587. The authorized hauling of materials in excess of the of the free haul distance Answer: Overhaul
588. If slurry (wet) lime is employed, what is the typical slurry ratio? Answer: 1 tonne lime : 2 cubic meter of water
589. What is the amount of cement to be added to the soil aggregates in Item 204? Answer: 6 – 10 mass % of the dry soil
590. Who is the father of Soil Mechanics? Answer: Dr. Karl Terzhagi
591. What is quality? Answer: It the degree of excellence
592. What is control? Answer: Is to regulate
593. What is quality control? Answer: It is conformance to requirements
594. What is assurance? Answer: it the degree of certainty
595. What are the two kinds of control activities? Answer: Inspection and Testing
596. What is the minimum distance of water table from subgrade level? Answer: 4 – 5 feet
597. What is the process of combining two or more soil in suitable properties to produce good grading on gravel, sand, silt and clay?
Answer: Mechanic Stabilization
598. What is the common material employed in stabilizing the moisture content of soil or liquid and hydroscope in nature? It is an aid in the compaction
process by slowing the rate of evaporation of moisture from the soil Answer: Calcium chloride or rock salt
599. When do clay and granular soils become unstable?
Answer: Clay soil becomes unstable if moisture content increases. Granular material becomes unstable if it has dried
600. Why do liquid asphalt was introduced in road construction aside from asphalt cement?
Answer: It was introduced in order to save heating costs and from convenience in road – mixing or priming
601. The theory of concrete design mix is to Answer: Optimize aggregate packing and optimizes properties of cement mortar
602. To optimize the properties of the cement mortar, one has to depend on Answer: cement type, cement content and water content
603. What type of cement is the Ordinary Portland Cement (OPC)? Answer: Type I
604. What type of cement is the Moderate Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement? Answer: Type II
605. What type of cement is the Rapid Hardening Portland Cement? Answer: Type III
606. What type of cement is the Low Heat Portland Cement? Answer: Type IV
607. What type of cement is the High Sulphate Resistant Portland Cement? Answer: Type V
608. What type of cement is the Portland Blast Furnace Slag Cement? Answer: Type 1S
609. What type of cement is the Portland Pozzolan Cement? Answer: Type 1P
610. Type I is for general use such as Answer: pavements & sidewalks, buildings & bridges and tanks & water pipes
611. Type III cement is used for Answer: early stripping of forms & high early strength
612. Type IV is used for Answer: massive structures such as dams
613. Type V cement is used for Answer: when sulphate content of groundwater is very high
614. The inventor of Portland cement was Answer: Joseph Aspdin
615. Portland cement is composed of blended materials containing Answer: calcium, alumina, iron and silica
616. The simple recipe of Portland cement is
Answer: 2 parts of crushed limestone, 1 part clay/pulverized shale, 1 pinch of iron ore, then 1 pinch of gypsum added to clinker
617. Pozzolan cement is composed of a raw material called Answer: volcanic earth
618. The 75% compressive strength of Portland cement is composed of Answer: C3S and C2S
619. The 25% setting time of Portland cement is controlled by Answer: C3A and C4AF
620. When water is added to Portland cement, _____ process is developed Answer: hydration
621. Calcium Silicate Gel (C–S–H) and lime [Ca(OH)2] are developed when _____ is added to Portland cement Answer: water
622. When Portland cement contains a low C3A, it means Answer: the setting time is larger
623. Surplus lime [Ca(OH)2] in Portland cement when mixed with water takes care of the concrete’s Answer: alkalinity
624. Coarse aggregates can be taken from Answer: crushed rock, slags and river gravel
625. The water required for concrete mix should be Answer: fresh water
626. Sea water is deleterious to concrete mix unless on admixture is added because it contains Answer: chloride
627. The entrapped air in concrete is Answer: accidental and unwanted
628. The entrained air in concrete is Answer: deliberate and desirable
629. We use aggregate in concrete as Answer: filler materials in concrete
630. Aggregates are important in concrete because they strongly influence:
Answer: the properties of concrete, its mix proportion and its economy
631. Which of the following is not deleterious material to concrete?
Answer:
a. calcium
b. chloride
c. coal
d. sulphate
632. Over sanded and under sanded mixture require more water to be workable, but making it so will only result to sacrifice in
Answer: strength
633. Concrete in the area represented by the cores will be considered adequate if the average strength of the cores is equal to or at least _____ of the
specified strength, fc’ and no single core is less than _____ Answer: 85% of f’c, 75% of f’c
634. Fine aggregate shall be rejected when it fails in the _____ for organic impurities Answer: Colormatic Test
635. Portland cement may be/shall be rejected if:
Answer: it has partially set, it contains lumps of cake cement and it comes from a discarded or used bag
636. A measurement of the coarseness or fineness of aggregates Answer: fineness modulus
637. An excess water needed for absorption of coarse aggregates Answer: free water
638. What do you mean by SSD? Answer: Saturated Surface Dry
639. A general term relating to the character of a mix with respect to its fluidity Answer: consistency
640. More silt and clay content to fine aggregates is Answer: objectionable
641. Type A admixture is classified by ASTM C494 as Answer: Water – reducing admixture
642. For core specimens, each lot will be divided into how many equal segments? Answer: five (5)
643. The unit pressure greater than which progressive settlement occur leading to failure Answer: bearing capacity
644. The recommended thickness of hot mixed asphalt overlay Answer: 2”
645. In the test to determine the moisture content of samples, the beam balance should be sensitive up to Answer: 0.1g
646. If a sample can not be weighed within the prescribed time after being removed from the oven, it will placed inside a Answer: dessicator
647. Plastic and finely grain soil will require at least how many hours to dry ay constant weight/mass Answer: 4 hours
648. A sample may be cooled at room humidity and must be weighed after it has been removed from the oven within Answer: 1 hour
649. Drying the material sample in the oven to constant weight at a prescribe temperature; the drying time depends on the kind of soil and size of sample.
A 25-gram sample of sandy material will be dried in about Answer: 2 hours
650. Test conducted for buildings 3 storeys and above Answer: Boring Test
651. A test to determine the moisture content of soil Answer: calcium tri – chloride
652. The aggregate crushing value of strong aggregate is Answer: low
653. The kind of asphalt used in overlaying seated pavement Answer: hot – mix asphalt
654. The minimum width of paved sidewalk Answer: 1.5 m
655. The limit of water – cement ratio of concrete Answer: 0.50 – 0.60
656. A cement which has a cementitious effect Answer: Portland cement
657. A concrete where compression is induced before the application of working load so that tension under these loads is reduced
Answer: Pre – stressing
658. What laboratory test is used in determining the phosphorus content of steel materials? Answer: Phospho - molydate
659. What chemical property in the composition of steel material that will cause brittleness or cold shortness when its content goes beyond 0.05% to 0.10%
Answer: phosphorous
660. Base or sub base is extended beyond each edge of proposed concrete pavement Answer: 0.60 m
661. If you want to adjust the slump and the air content, how do you it?
Answer:
± 10 mm slump = ± 2 kg/m3 from (water)
± air entrapment = ± 3 kg/ m3 of average (water)
662. In non – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained? Answer: 3% - 0.2% (small – bigger aggregates)
663. In air – entrained concrete, what is the range of % air entrained? Answer: 8% - 3% (small – bigger aggregates)
664. For a constant water – cement ratio, what will happen if air content is involved? Answer: the strength of concrete is reduced
665. What will happen if you lower the water – cement ratio and maintaining other values of its ingredients? Answer: it will acquire strength
666. What is the mixing time of concrete?
Answer:
1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 60 seconds
Above1.5 m3 capacity mixer, T ≥ 90 seconds
667. When cement is in contact with moist aggregates, batch made by mix will be disallowed beyond ____ Answer: 1 ½ hours
668. How many hours should an aggregate be washed and stockpiled before batching starts?
Answer: 12 hours prior to batching shall be stockpiled or binned for draining
669. When will truck mixing start?
Answer: mixing shall begin within 30 minutes upon cement has due added
15 minutes when wet aggregates is used, as 32ºC temperature is present
670. Concrete delivered by agitation of truck mixer must be discharged within 1 hour or 250 revolutions of the drum or loader. Why?
Answer: to avoid over mixing and initial setting of concrete
671. In final computation of concrete in road to be paid, what is the maximum size of pipe that is negligible in the volume computation?
Answer: pipes with Ø of 4” or less
Materials Engineer Test Reviewer asphalt by weight of mix? a) 5.2
% c) 5.4 %
1. Scales for weighing aggregates and cement shall be accurate within ____ % b) 5.0 % d) 4.8%
throughout the range of use. Scales shall be inspected and sealed as often as
the Engineer may deem necessary to assure their continued accuracy. 8. The minimum penetration of the preservative with the surface of the timber
a) 1.0 % c) 0.5 % piles shall be ____
b) 1.5 % d) 2.0 % a) 150 mm c) 250 mm
b) 200 mm d) 100 mm
2. When cement is placed in contact with the aggregate, batches may be
rejected unless mixed within _____ hours of such contact. 9. The contractor shall submit in writing a job-mix formula for the mixture
a) 1.5 hours c) 0.5 hours supported by laboratory test data along with samples of resources of
b) 2.0 hours d) 2.5 hours components and viscosity – temperature relationships to the Engineer for
testing and approval at least ____.
3. When mixed at the site or in a central mixing plant, the mixing time shall not a) two weeks c) one week
be less than ______ nor more than ____ unless mixer performance test prove b) three weeks d) four weeks
adequate mixing of concrete in a shorter time period.
a) 30 seconds nor more than 90 seconds 10.The concrete samples should be stored in a moist conditioned temperature
b) 50 seconds nor more than 90 seconds within the range of ____ until the time of test.
c) 60 seconds nor more than 120 seconds a) 18* C to 24* C c) 14* C to 24* C
d) 90 seconds nor more than 120 seconds b) 15* C to 18* C d) 18* C to 28* C
4. The flow of water shall be uniform and all water should be in the drum by the 11.This is used in soil stabilized road surface due to its high ____ property, that is,
end of the first ____ seconds of the mixing period. it absorb and retain water.
a) 45 seconds c) 15 seconds a) Potassium Chloride c) Magnesium Chloride
b) 30 seconds d) 20 seconds b) Calcium Chloride d) Sodium Chloride
5. Concrete not place within ____ minutes from the time the ingredients were 12.The mass % wear of soil aggregate used in cement/lime proportions should
charged into the mixing drum shall be used. not be more than ____ .
a) 120 minutes c) 60 minutes a) 40 % c) 45 %
b) 150 minutes d) 90 minutes b) 50 % d) 55 %
6. When concrete is delivered in truck mixers, additional water may be added to 13.The uniform rate at which the movable head of the CBR machine travel is
the batch and additional mixing performed to increase the slump to meet the _____ . a) 0.05 in /
specified requirement if permitted by the Engineer, provided all these min c) 0.08 in /min
operation are performed within ____ after the initial mixing operation and the b) 0.10 in /min d) 0.09 in /min
water and cement ratio is not exceeded.
a) 30 minutes c) 45 minutes 14.Cast in place concrete shall not be post – tensioned until at least ____ and until
b) 15 minutes d) 60 minutes the compressive strength has reached the strength specified.
7. A sample from a bituminous mix weighs 1000 grams. At extraction, it was b) 10 days d) 20 days
found out that the dry aggregate weighed 950 grams. What is the % of
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15.The penetration test is an indication of the ____ of asphalt. a) 2 inches c) 4 inches
a) Consistency c) Hardness b) 6 inches d) 6.0 mm
b) Softness d) Flash Point
24._____ is applied on existing bit, or cement concrete surface with bituminous
16. Specification requires one (1) Quality test for every ____ of asphalt materials. a) Bituminous Prime
a) 20 tons c) 50 tons Coat c) Bituminous Seal Coat b)
b) 200 tons d) 40 tons Bituminous Tack Coat d) Bituminous Surface Treatment
17.The ____ is the most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of 25.The solution used in the soundness test of aggregate shall be cooled to a
bituminous concrete mixes. temperature of 21 +or – 1* C and maintain at that temperature for at least
a) Job mix formula c) Marshall Stability _____. a) 24 hours
b) Design mix d) Extraction c) 48 hours b) 36
hours d) 18 hours
18.Vibration shall operate a frequency of 8,300 to 9,600 impulses per minute
under load at a maximum spacing of ____ cm. 26.Proper compaction of the fill materials is very important, as it will ______.
a) 30 cm c) 60 cm a) Increase the shear strength
b) 50 cm d) 40 cm b) Decrease permeability
c) Minimize compressibility
19.The specific gravity of Sodium Sulfate used in soundness test for aggregate d) All of the above
should be with in the range of ____.
a) 1.151 to 1.174 c) 1.051 to 1.154 27.In which DPWH item is emulsified asphalt not suitable?
b) 1.250 to 1.178 d) 1.058 to 1.184 a) Item 301 c) Item 304
b) Item302 d) Item 308
20.The specific gravity magnesium sulfate solution used in soundness test for
aggregate should be within the range of ____ . 28.Unconfined compressive strength test is usually performed on ______.
a) 1.280 to 1.408 c) 1.295 to 1.308 a) Sandy soils c) Organic soils
b) 1.180 to 1.308 d) 1.195 to 1.318 b) Silty soils d) Clayey soils
21.Aggregate accounts for 92 – 95 % of the weight of the bituminous mixture 29.Consolidation test is usually performed on ____ samples
asphalt accounts for 5 – 8 % of the weight of the mix. The exact percentage to a) Disturbed c) Consolidated
be used is determined by the _____ b) Undisturbed d) both a & b
a) Trial mix c) Job mix
b) Design mix d) Job order 30.A concrete core sample having a maximum height of less than _____ of its
diameter before capping or height less than its diameter after capping shall
22._____ is an indication that the asphalt mix is overheated. not be tested.
a) Blue smoke c) Rising steam a) 93 % c) 95 %
b) Stiff appearance d) Mix slumps in truck b) 94 % d) 96 %
23. In checking the temperature of the mix, the thermometer should 31.The cohesion and internal friction of soil is tested by
be inserted into the mix at least ____. a) Tri axial shear test c) Bearing test
b) Direct shear test d) All of the above
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b) Area will not be paid
32.In concrete acceptance, core will be considered adequate if the average c) Payment will be made at an adjusted price
strength of the cores is equal to what?
a) 80% of specified strength & if no single core is less than 75% of specified 40.After concrete has been placed, it is advisable to maintain fully welted and in
strength b) 90% of specified strength & if no single core is less position for how many hours?
than 80% of specified strength c) 85% of specified strength & a) 14 hours c) 72 hours
if no single core is less than 75% of specified strength b) 24 hours d) 15 – 18 hours
33.Before the cement is to be used, sampling must be done at least _____ before 41.Rock shall be excavated to a depth ____ below sub grade within the limit of the
use. roadbed a) 100 mm
a) one week c) two weeks c) 200 mm b) 150
b) 14 days d) 12 days mm
34.Asphalt cement shall not be used while it is foaming nor shall be heated at 42.Minimum penetration of all piles shall be ____.
____ at anytime after delivery. a) 3 meter c) 7 meter
a) 107* c) 120* b) 6 meter d) 4.5 meter
b) 159*
43. Piles shall not be driven within 7 meters of concrete less than _____ old.
35.Moisture content of aggregate in bit mix shall not exceed ____ of the time it is a) 7 days c) 28 days
introduce into the mixing unit. b) 14 day
a) 1.5 mass % c) 1 mass %
b) 2.0 mass % 44.Paint contains _____ of pigment and _____ vehicle.
a) 20 % & 80 % c) 79 % & 21 %
36.Batching tolerance for Sand and Aggregate is ____. b) 21 % & 79 % d) 80 % & 20 %
a) 1 % c) 3 %
b) 2 % 45.Minimum thickness of bedding materials beneath the pipe is _____.
a) 100 mm c) 200 mm
37.Between stage of curing, concrete shall not be exposed for more than how b) 150 mm
many hours? a) 24 hours c) ½ hour
b) 3 hours d) 72 hours 46.Tolerance of gabion dimension is _________________.
a) +/- 1% c) +/- 3 %
38.As a Materials Engineer, what will you do with major honeycombed area that b) +/- 2 % d) +/- 4 %
is considered as defective work?
a) Plaster 47.Minimum size of galvanized wire mesh is ____________.
b) Payment of the concrete will be made an adjustment a) 2.0 mm c) 2.7 mm
c) Removed and replaced at the expensed of the contractor b) 2.2 mm d) 3.4 mm
39.If the strength of control specimen does not meet the requirement and not 48.Minimum density of gabions is ___________.
feasible to obtain cores due to structural consideration, as a Materials a) 1,000 kg/cu. m c) 1,400 kg/cu. m
Engineer what will be your decision? a) b) 1,200 kg/cu. m d) 1,500 kg/cu. m
Removed and replaced
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49.Soundness loss of field gabions is __________________.
a) 9 % after 5 cycles c) 11 % after 5 cycles 58.Submission of sample for testing for cement is _____.
b) 10 % after 5 cycles d) 12 % after 5 cycles a) 10 kg c) 15 kg
b) 20 kg d) 40 kg
50.The heating temperature of reflector zed thermoplastic material during
application is _____ 59.The length of Shelby Tube of an undisturbed sample is _____.
a) 130 +/- 7* C c) 200 +/- 7* C a) 10” long c) 20” long
b) 150 +/- 7* C d) 211 +/- 7* C b) 18” long
51.Submission of sample minimum quantity of material for asphalt cement is 60.For small project where quantity of steel bars is 10,000 kg or less, what is the
-------. a) 5 kg basis for acceptance of material?
c) 20 kg b) 10 kg a) No testing c) Mill certificate
d) 100 kg b) P.E, certificate
52.For how many years does the small Contractor given to procure necessary 61.______ determine the best combination of the material that will produce a
testing equipment? a) 2 potentially stable & durable mixture.
years c) 5 years a) Job mix formula c) Design of bituminous mix
b) 4 years d) 6 years b) Marshall formula
53.The depth of the weakened joints must not be less than ____ and a width of 62._______ is the rate of loading for concrete cylinder sample subject to
___. a) 40 mm & 6 compression test a) 20 - 40 psi/sec c) 15 – 40
mm c) 40 mm & 5 mm psi/sec b) 20 - 50 psi/sec
b) 50 mm & 5 mm d) 50 mm & 6 mm d) 15 – 40 psi/sec
54.Used of bituminous cold mix for potholes patching during rainy/ wet period is
acceptable a) false b) true
63.I n a soil exploration, if the characteristic of rock is questionable, the minimum
55.In soil, all boring shall be carried to a depth of at least ____ below the depth of boring into the bedrock should be _______.
proposed grade line. a) 1.5 m c) 2.5 m
a) 0.50 m c) 1.5 m b) 2.0 m d) 3.0 m
b) 1.0 m d) 1.8 m
64.Determine soil bearing capacity by loading a steel plate usually 30” diameter.
56.The test that determine pile bearing capacity by loading one or more pile and a) Vane shear test c) Pile load test
measuring settlement under load is _____. b) Plate bearing test d) None of the above
a) Vane shear test c) Pile load test
b) Plate bearing test 65.How many hours do aggregate stockpile or binned for draining before being
batch? a) 1 hour
57.The weight of disturbed samples from hard auger or split spoon shall be at c) 12 hours b)
least ____. a) 1 kg 6 hours d) 24 hours
c) 10 kg b) 20
kg d) 100 kg
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66.What is the relative strength of mortar at 7 & 28 days of fine aggregates,
when tested for the effect of organic impurities, which is higher than the 75._________ Number of measurement taken in a core sample for thickness
standard? a) not less determination of the finish asphalt pavement
than 90 % c) not less than 95 % a) 3 c) 5
b) not less than 80 % d) not less than 98 % b) 4 d) 8
67.What is the rate of loading for concrete beam tested for flexural stress? 76.In the absence of beam mold in site, cylinder mold is allowed by specification.
a) 110 – 150 psi/sec c) 125 – 175 psi/sec What is the required strength?
b) 115 – 150 psi/sec d) 130 - 175 psi/sec a) 2,500 psi c) b) 3,000 psi d) 4,000 psi
68.In concrete sampling paste shall be of normal consistency of _____ when the 77.Prime coat shall be left undisturbed for at least _____.
rod settles to a point below the original surface in 30 secs. a) 6 hours c) 24 hours
a) 10 +/- 1 mm c) 15 +/- 1mm b) 12 hours
b) 11 +/- 1 mm d) 20 +/- 1 mm
78.The first phase of rolling the spread bituminous mix is called breakdown
69.What the temperature of a concrete sample? rolling which is carried out by pneumatic roller, temperature requirement
a) 10 – 15 * C c) 15 – 18* C must be _____. a) 200 –
b) 18 – 24 * C 225* F c) 160 – 180* F
b) 190 – 199* F d)150 – 185* F
70.What is the wash loss of fine aggregates in the no. 200 sieve?
a) 1 % c) 3 % 79.How many gradation ranges for hot plant mix bituminous pavement are there
b) 2 % d) 4 % in the blue book?
a) 5 c) 7
71.Retarder can delay the setting time of concrete up to how many hours? b) 6 d) 8
a) 1 hour c) 4 hours
b) 2 hours d) 8 hours 80.What is the plasticity index of mineral filler?
a) not greater than 4 c) not greater than 8
72.Super plasticizer can increase the strength of concrete up to how many b) not greater than 6 d) zero
percent? a) 40 – 60
% c) 50 – 70 % 81.If no core had been taken at the end of each day of operation and the project
b) 50 – 60 % d) 60 – 70 % has already been completed, a core shall be taken ________.
a) for every 75 l.m,/lane c) for every 100 l.m/lane
73.___________ is the moisture in an air – dried soil b) for every 150 l.m/lane d) for every 1,000 l.m/lane
a) Moisture Content
b) Natural Moisture Content 82.________ is the slump of workable concrete if vibrated.
c) Hygroscopic Moisture Content a) 10 – 20 mm c) 40 – 50 mm
d) Hydrometer Moisture Content b) 10 – 40 mm d) 40 – 75 mm
74._________ is the tolerance of mix in bituminous. 83.________ Burnt product which is used by Gypsum and pulverized to form
a) 10* C c) 15* C Portland Cement.
b) 12* C d) 18* C
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a) Hydraulic cement c) Fly Ash 92._______ is an empirical number used in evaluation for G.I.
b) Clinker d) Volcanic Ash a) 0 – 15 c) 0 – 20
b) 5 – 20 d) 0 – 25
84.When group index = 0, what is the grade of soil?
a) weak soil c) good soil 93.It indicates good subbase materials when G.I. is equal to _____.
b) poor soil a) 0 c) 10
b) 5 d) 20
85.______ is a process of breaking down of rocks into small pieces of various size
that can range from large boulders to very small clay particles. 94.It indicates very poor subbase materials when G.I. is equal to _____.
a) Consolidation c) Weathering a) 0 c) 10
b) Unconsolidation b) 5 d) 20
86.________ is the limit were further loss of water due to evaporation which will 95.______ indicates the composition of soil.
not result in reduction of volume. a) Atterberg Limit b) Plasticity Index
a) Plastic limit c) Shrinkage limit
b) Liquid limit 96.The higher the value of PI of the soil, the weaker will be the soil performance
as a _____.
87.________ a classification of soil which 35% or less the particles pass through a) True c) Depend
no. 200 sieve. b) False d) None of the above
a) Grain size soil c) Silty clay materials
b) Granular materials d) Clayey materials 97._______ the Plasticity Index of group of soil
a) 0 c) 10
88.________ a classification of soil which 35% or more of the particles pass b) 6 d) 11
through no. 200 sieve
a) Course Sand Soil c) Silty-Clay Materials 98._______ is the minimum percent of A-6 group classification of soil.
b) Granular Materials d) Clayey Materials a) 0 % c) 35 %
b) 25 % d) 36 %
89.It evaluate the quality of soil as highway subgrade material.
a) Atterberg Limit c) Group Index 99._______ is the maximum of G.I. of Silty Clay Materials
b) Plasticity Index d) Liquid Limit a) 0 c) 20
b) 25 d) 35
90.When soil has plasticity index value of 10, what is the criteria of the material?
a) Coarse grain c) Clayey 100. When the value of G.I. is negative, what will be the soil performance?
b) Sandy d) Silty a) Poor Subgrade c) Good subgrade
b) Very good subgrade d) None of the above
91.When plasticity index is equal
a) Coarse grain c) Clayey 101. The weight of Sandy soil for Hydrometer Analysis is ______.
b) Sandy d) Silty a) 10 grams c) 50 grams
b) 25 grams d) 100 grams
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102. The weight of Clayey or Silty soil for Hydrometer Analysis is ______. a) Portland Cement c) Bulk Cement
a) 10 grams c) 50 grams b) Pozzolan Cemenr d) None of the above
b) 25 grams d) 100 grams
112. Scales for weighing aggregates and cement shall be accurate within _____.
103. A 25 grams fine grained soil can be dried in about ______. a) 0.1% c) 0.5%
a) 1 hour c) 3 hours b) 0.25% d) 1.9%
113. The minimum thickness of conventional concrete as the surface course in
104. A 25 grams sandy soil can be dried in about ______. monolithic pavement is _____.
a) 1 hour c) 3 hours a) 50 mm c) 100 mm
b) 2 hours d) 4 hours b) 75 mm d) 150 mm
105. ________ is a type of soil in which most of the soil grains are of the same size. 114. _____________ determines the resistance of the emulsion to break when mixed
a) Poorly graded c) Gap graded with mineral aggregate.
b) Well graded d) Non of the above a) Viscosity Test c) Spot test
b) Distillation Test d) Cement Mixing
106. The soil grained are force apart by the water added, thus the grain is reduced,
what is the method used? 115. _____________ is an instrument used for rapid in – site measurement of the
a) Lubrication c) Swelling structural properties of existing road pavement.
b) Welting d) Saturation a) Pundit Ultra Sonic Concrete Tester
b) Dynamic Core Penetrometer
107. Percent passing loose for coarse aggregates when tested for clay lump is c) Falling Weight Deflectometer
_____. a) 0.1 mass d) Core Test
percent c) 0.8 mass percent
b) 0.25 mass percent d) 1.0 mass percent 116. How many days does the emulsified asphalt must be tested after delivery at
temperature 40*F(4.5*C).
108. The mass percent passing loose for coarse aggregates when tested in soft a) 10 days c) 14 days
fragment is ____. b) 12 days d) 16 days
a) 0.10 c) 3.5
b) 0.25 d) 1.00 117. In bituminous mixture asphalt content is 5 – 8% and 92 - 95% aggregates,
what will be the amount of additives?
109. If slag is used, the density of coarse aggregate is ______. a) not more than 2% c) more than 2%
a) 30 – 100 kg/cu. m c) 1,120 kg/cu. m b) not more than 3% d) more than 4%
b) 150 kg /cu. m d) 1,400 kg/cu. m
118. ___________ determines the effect of water on the cohesion of the mixture
110. Mass percent loose for fine aggregates when tested in Clay lumps is _____. a) Stability Test c) Distillation
a) 0.10 c) 0.80 b) Solubility d) Immersion-Comprssion Test
b) 0.25 d) 1.0
119. The distance of the sample by grooving before rotating the brass cup is _____.
111. _________ is a type of cement which shall be transferred to an elevated, air a) ¼” c) ¾”
tight and weather proof bins storage. b) ½” d) 1”
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129. Aggregate account for 92 – 95% of the weight of the bituminous mix while
120. The most common method of assessing strength and stiffness of both asphalts for 5 – 8% of the weight of the mix. The exact percentage to be used
subgrade and pavement is _______. is determine by the _Trial Mix_.
a) FDT c) SPT
b) CBR d)Non of the above 130. _Blue smoke_ is an indication that the asphalt is over heated
121. How many days do the specimen for CBR soaked? 131. The penetrator test is an indication of the _Consistancy_ of the asphalt
a) 1 day c) 3 days
b) 2 days d) 4 days 132. _Marshall Stability Test_is the most common used method in the design and
evaluation of bituminous concrete mixes
122. When mixed at the site or a in central mixing plant, the mixing time shall not
be less than _50__ seconds nor more than _90_ seconds unless mixer 133. _Extraction Test_ determines the asphalt content in the bituminous mixes.
performance test prove adequate mixing of the concrete in a shorter time
period. 134. Cast in place concrete shall not be post-tensioned until at least _10_ days and
until the compressive strength has reached the strength specified
123. The batches shall be so charged into the drum that a portion of the mixing
water shall enter in advance of the cement and aggregate. The flow of water 135. This is the characteristic generally used for calculation of the volume occupied
shall be uniform and all water should be in the drum by the end of the _15_ by the aggregate in various mixture containing aggregates including Portland
seconds of the mixing period Cement concrete, bituminous concrete, and other mixtures that are
proportioned or analyzed on an absolute volume basis. Answere: Bulk Specific
124. The time elapsed from the time water is added to the mix until the concrete Gravity
is deposited at the site shall not exceed _90_ minutes when concrete is hauled
in the truck. 136. _Apparent Specific Gravity_ pertains to the relative density of the soil material
making up the constituents particle not including the pore space within the
125. When concrete is delivered in truck mixers, additional water may be added to particles that is accessible to water.
the batch and additional mixing performed to increase the slump to meet the
specified requirement if permitted by the Engineer, provided all these 137. Weight of sandy soil needed for Hydrometer test is _100 grams_
operation are performed within _45_ minutes after the initial mixing operation
and the water and cement ratio is not exceeded 138. Weight of silty or clayey soil needed for Hydrometer test is _50 grams_
126. Concrete not placed within _90_ minutes from the time the ingredients were 139. These are widely used to control the characteristics of soil which are to be
charge into the mixing drum should not be use. incorporated in roadway. Ans. Liquid and Plastic Limits
127. The completed pavement shall be accepted on a lot basis. A lot shall be 140. This is defined as the highest moisture content of which the mass attains its
considered as _500_ linear meter double lane minimum volume but continues to lose weight /mass. Ans. Shrinkage Limit
128. Each lot shall be divided into _5_ equal segment and one core will be 141. _Le Chattelier Flask___ is an apparatus used in determination of specific
obtained from each segment in accordance with AASHTO T24. gravity of Hydraulic Cement.
142. _Autoclave Machine_ is an equipment used in determination of soundness of

Portland Cement
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157. ______ is the viscosity used to grade asphalt cement . Ans. 149
143. Asphalt shall be homogeneous, free from water, and shall not foam when F ( 60*C )
heated to _175* C(347* F)_
158. The coarse aggregate used in asphalt mix is ____ . Ans. Retained by 2.36mm
144. _Cement Mixing Test of Asphalt_ indicate the rate at which the asphalt (no 8 sieve)
emulsion will break when mix with aggregate .
159. The application temperature of emulsified asphalt range from ____. Ans. 10-
145. The lost in weight of rock used in gabions when tested to sodium sulfate, 71*C
soundness loss shall not exceeds__9%__
160. When the tar is used for seal coats, it shall be heated to free flowing but not
146. Gabions dimentions are subject to a tolerance limit of _+/- 3%_ to exceed ___________. Ans. 149*C
147. The pour point of concrete joint sealer shall be at least 11*C (20*F) lower 161. _______ is used to determine the soil strength parameter. Ans. Unconfined and
than the safe heating temperature, which is the maximum temperature to Tri-Axial Compression Test
which the material may be heated without exceeding the permitted flow.
162. ________ is used to determine the settlement characteristic of soil. Ans.
148. The penetration of concrete joint sealer, Hot Poured Elastic Type shall not Consolidation
exceed_90_
163. The weight of disturbed samples from hard auger or split spoon shall be at
149. The CBR is generally selected at _2.54 mm (0.10 in)_ penetration. least__________ Ans. 1.0 kg
150. If the ratio at 5.08 mm (0.21 in ) penetration is greater, the should be _Rerun_ 164. The
undisturbed samples from Shellby Tube shall be at least______. Ans..
151. If the check test gives a similar result, the ratio at 5.08 mm penetration shall 18” long
be__adopted or used__
165. _______ determines the pile bearing capacity by loading one or more piles and
152. The penetration piston of CBR machine should have a uniform penetration at a measuring settlement under load. Ans. Pile Load Test
rate of __1.30 mm/min__
166. ________ determines the in-site shear strength of soft to medium clay. Ans.
153. During soaking maintain the water level in the mold and the soaking tank is Vane Shear Test
approximately __25.40 mm ( 1.0 in )__ above the top of the specimen
167. _______ determine the soil bearing capacity by loading a steel plate usually 30
154. Soak the specimen for _96 hours ( 4days )__ inches in diameter. Ans. Plate Bearing Test
155. The diameter of penetration piston is ____ . Ans. 49.63 +/- 0.23 mm ( 1935 cu 168. Laboratory which measures, examines, calibrate or otherwise determine the
m) characteristic or performance materials or products. Ans.. Testing Laboratory
156. The temperature of the asphalt cement delivered to the mixer shall be as 169. Standard technical procedure to determine one or more specified
required to achieve a kinetic viscosity in the range of ______. Ans. characteristic of material product is called___. Ans. Test Method
150 to 300 cu m/s or 150 to 300 centistokes
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170. A document which prevents the test results and other information relevant to
test is called _____ Ans.. Test Report 181. This is a process tomeasure the consistency of liquid asphaltic materials to
determine their fluidity or resistance to flow.
171. __________ is a document signed by the Director of BRS issued to Testing Ans.. Viscosity Test
laboratory authorizing them to perform the required test in behalf of DPWH.
Ans. Certificate of Accreditation 182. _________ was developed in order to differentiate bituminous materials with
respect to hardening characteristic.
172. This test have been developed to measure the loss of cohesion as a result of Ans.. Thin Film Oven Test
water action on the compacted bituminous mixture.
Ans. Film Stripping & Immersion – Compression Test 183. Plant-mixed bituminous mixtures should be sampled in accordance with the
Standard Method of Sampling Bituminous Mixture. A sample not less than
173. This mean porosity or perviousness of the mixture, a dense grade mix prevent ______ kg is taken and place in sample bag that would insure against
water from entering the base through the surface. contamination. This is taken every 75 cu m or 130 tons of mix.
Ans.. Permeability Ans.. 10 kgs
174. This is used in classifying liquid asphalt into grades. It is useful as a measure 184. The bearing
to control of consistency, particularly when run at the temperature of intended blocks of the compression machine should be at least _____ greater
application Ans… Viscosity Test than the diameter of the specimen.
Ans.. 3.0 %
175. This test determines the total bitumen content of a asphaltic materials, which
is the actual cementing constituent of the asphalt. 185. The bottom bearing block shall be at least _____ thick when new
Ans.. Solubility Test Ans. 1.0” ( 22.50 mm )
176. This is an accelerated test to show the loss of volatiles when the sample is 186. The bottom bearing block shall be at least _______ thick after any resurfacing
heated at 163*C for five hours and the loss due to volatilization is determined. operations.. Ans. 0.9” ( 22.50 mm )
Ans… Loss on Heating
187. The curing temperature of a specimen before testing is ______.
177. This test classifies the different asphalt into types and the different types into Ans. 18*C to 24*C
grade. Ans.. Consistency Test
188. The apparatus used to determine the flash point of asphaltic material is called
178. For liquid asphaltic materials, this test is run on the residue after distillation.. ____ Ans. Cleveland Open Cup
Ans.. Quality Test
189. The asphalt samples for ductility and penetration test should be subjected to
179. This is one of water bath at a temperature of 25*C for ____.
the most important engineering properties of soil. It is defined as its Ans.. 11/2 hours
ability to resist sliding along internal surface within the mass..
Ans.. Shearing Strength of Soil 190. The concrete shall not be left exposed for more than ____ hour between
stages of curing or during the curing period.
180. This is an arbitrary measurement of consistency and is the basis of Ans.. ½ hour
classification of all solid and semi-solid asphalt.
Ans.. Penetration Test of Asphalt
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191. The rate of application of bituminous prime coat is ____. a) 5.5 lb. (2.5 kg) with 12 in drop c) 10 lb. (4.5 kg) in weight with 18 in drop
a) 1-2L/sq. m. c) 0.2-1.5L/sq. m. b) 8 lb. (3.6 kg) in weight with 16 in drop
b) 0.2-0.7L/sq. m. d) 0.5-2L/sq. m.
201. What is the specification of mass present passing in sieve 0.075 mm (No.
192. Another name for asphalt joint filler is_______. 200 ) grading “A” for aggregate base course.
a) asphalt cement c) blown asphalt a) 20-14 c) 0 – 6
b) rock asphalt d) cutback asphalt b) 0 – 12
193. In asphalting work, there are _______ phase of rolling 202. The number of specimen samples in testing concrete hollow block is _____.
a) 2 c)1 a) 6 pcs./20,000 units (3 for absorption test and 3 for strength test )
b) 3 d) 4 b) 4 pcs./20,000 units
c) 8 pcs./20,000 units
194. The _____ test determines the asphalt content in the bituminous mix.
a) Grading c)Extraction 203. Is it really necessary to cure concrete specimen?
b)Bulk Specific Gravity d) Absorption a) Yes c) No
b) None of the two
195. In a bituminous mix, there are 3 kinds of aggregate. What kind of passes the
no. 200 sieve? 204. The kind of test that determines the consistency of concrete is _____.
a) Coarse c) Mineral Filler a) Slump test c) Abrasion test
b) Fine d) Admixture b) Specific Gravity
196. Liquid asphalt is also called ___________. 205. What is the dimension of concrete cylindrical sample?
a) Cutback asphalt c) Blown asphalt a) 6” dia. And 12” high c) 8” dia. And 14 high
b) Emulsion d) Asphalt cement b) 4” dia and 8” high
197. The different test for soil classification are: 206. In the absence of concrete beam mold at the project site, are concrete
a) compaction and FDT cylindrical molds allowed by the specification to be used in sampler for item
b) Hydrometer test and moisture content 311 – PCCP? a) Yes b) may be
c) Grading, LL and PL test c) No
198. The apparatus/equipment used in the liquid limit and plastic limit test is 207. The minimum percent compaction for embankment is _______.
called___ . a) sieves and chisel c) mortar and pestle a) 92% c) 95%
b) Atterberg Device and glass plate c) 97%
199. _________ is a method of laboratory sampling. 208. The minimum percent compaction for base of the road is ______.
a) Mixing c) Proportioning a) 100% b)110%
b) Using mechanical splitter/quartering c) 105%
200. In laboratory compaction test/moisture density relation test, what is the 209. The CBR value of aggregate base course is not less than ____.
specification of rammer? a) 80% b) 90%
c) 85%
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evaluation, control and research.
210. The CBR value of aggregate subbase course is not less than ____. a) Extraction b) Spot Test Flash Point
a) 25% b)35%
c) 30% 219. The solvent used in extraction of bitumen is _____.
a) Diesel oil b) Gasoline c) Water
211. The minimum compressive strength for class A concrete is ________.
a) 3,000 psi. ( 20.7 MN/sq. m ) 220. The percent of bitumen content is computed based on ______.
b) 2,400 psi. ( 16.7 MN/sq. m. ) a) mass of raw sample b) mass of dry aggregate c)mass of
c) 5,000 psi. ( 37.7 MN/sq. m. ) asphalt
212. What is the significance of determination of the tensile properties of 221. The method used to determine the grading of aggregate extracted from
reinforcing steel bars? a) This method is intended to determine the bituminous mixture is ____.
yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its elongation, and is used to a) Mechanical analysis of extracted aggregate
classify the bars into grade b) b) Stability Test
This method is intended to evaluate the ductile properties of the reinforcing c) Viscosity
bars c) None of the above
222. The drying temperature of sample is ________
213. A tie bar should be ______ a) 110 +/- 5*C b) 100 +/- 5*C c)100*C
223. _______ is a solid asphalt which is a basic constituent of all other asphalt
214. A dowel bar should be ____________. called as hot asphalt or penetration grade asphalt.
a) deformed bar b) round bar c) flat bar a) Asphalt Cement b) Emulsified Asphalt c)
Cutback Asphalt
215. The mortar for masonry shall consist of ________.
a) one part Portland Cement and 2 parts of sand 224. ________ is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and
b) one part Portland Cement and 3 parts of sand kerosene. a) Medium
c) one part Portland Cement and 4 parts of sand Curing Cutback
b) Asphalt Cement
216. The apparatus used to measure the thickness or height of compacted c) Rapid Curing Cutback
bituminous paving mixture.
a) Ruler b) Vernier Califer c) Steel Tape 225. ________ is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and
oil. a) Slow Curing Cutback
217. It is used in calculating the unit weight of the mixture and the degree of b) Emulsified Asphalt
compaction of the asphalt pavement. c) Blown Asphalt
a) Bulk Specific Gravity of compacted bituminous mixtures using saturated
surface dry specimen. 226. ________ is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and
b) Dry unit weight of compacted bituminous mixtures gasoline a) rapid Curing Cutback
c) Mass of specimen in water b) Blown Asphalt
c) Joint Filler
218. The test which covers the quantitative determination of bitumen in hot- mixed
paving mixtures and pavement samples for specification acceptance, service
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227. Asphalt is defined as _________. 237. It is a period wherein the asphalt begins to melt.
a) A petroleum product a) Softening Point b)Boiling Point c)Fire Point
b) A dark brown to black cementitious materials whose consistency range s
from solid to semi-solid and whose main constituent is called bitumen which 238. The sampling requirement of asphalt is _____ .
is either found in nature or as a residue in petroleum refining. a) 1 sample for every 200 drums or 40 metric tons
c) None of the above b) 1 sample for every 100 drums
c) 1 sample for every shipment
228. It is a kind of liquid asphalt which is a mixture of asphalt cement and water
with emulsified with pungent odor. 239. The component of bituminous mixes which range from 92 to 96% is called
a) Emulsified Asphalt b) Asphalt Cement c) Rapid Curing __________. a) Bituminous Blended Aggregate
Asphalt b) Concrete Aggregate
c) Sand
229. Joint filler in concrete pavement is a __________.
a) Blown Asphalt b) Hot asphalt c) Liquid asphalt 240. ____________ is a property of bituminous mixes in pavement to resist
deformation or displacement due to impose load or repeated loading.
230. A device used to measure the relative hardness of asphalt is __________. a) Stability b)Flexibility c)Tensile
a) Penetrometer b) Spectometer c) Vicat
Apparatus 241. ____________ is a property of bituminous mixes in pavement to resist
disintegration or deterioration due to the action of water, traffic and changing
231. A property of asphalt cement to stretch without breaking is called________. climate a)
a) Ductility b) Durability c)Tensile Durability b) Flexibility c)Ductility
232. It is a point where the volatile components of asphalt will evaporate. 242. ____________ is a property of bituminous mixes in pavement adjust itself to
a) Fire Point b) Flash Point c) Center settlement a) Flexibility b) Rigidity
Point Hardness
233. It determines whether asphalt is over heated or not during the process of 243. These are the factor affecting the workability of bituminous mixes
manufacture. a) Spot Test b) Boil Test a) Gradation of aggregate, quality of asphalt, and temperature of mix
c) Extraction Test b) Surface texture and temperature mix
c) Quantity of aggregates and asphalt content
234. An apparatus used to determine the specific gravity of asphalt is called ______.
a) Metal Pycnometer b) Glass Pycnometer c) any bottle 244. The dry molded asphalt sample in the immersion compression test is
submerged in water for ____.
235. Consistency test for asphalt is called___________. a) 4 days b) 4 hours c) 2 days
a) Viscosity b) Slump test c) Loss in
ting 245. The percent index retention is computed in the formula ___________.
a) Wet Stability/Dry Stability x 100
236. A process of volatilization test which measures the relative proportion of b) Dry Stability/Wet Stability x 100
asphalt to oil. a) Distillation b) Extraction c) Wet Stability – Dry Stability/Dry Stability x 100
c)Float Test
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246. The sampling requirement of bituminous mixes is _____. b) To produce a desirable characteristic of pavement which are stable,
a) 1 sample for every 75 cu. m. durable, flexible and skid resistance.
b) 1 sample for every 150 cu. m. C) All of the above
c) 1 sample per delivery per day
256. The percent asphalt content in hot laid bituminous mixture range from ______
247. The application of liquid asphaltic material on a prepared untreated base is a) 5-8% b) 4-6% c) 5-10%
_____. a) Prime
Coating 257. The placing temperature for bituminous mixture measured in the truck prior to
b) Seal Coating dumping is ______.
c) Tack Coating a) at least 107*C b) at least 120*C c) at least 150*C
248. The application of liquid asphaltic material to an existing surface is ____ . 258. The second phase of rolling the spread bituminous mixture is called
a) Tack Coating c) Prime Coating breakdown rolling which is the one responsible to attain the maximum
b) Seal Coating density. This rolling is carried out by the use of ______.
a) pneumatic roller b) steel roller c) sheepfoot roller
249. The application of asphaltic material and aggregate to an existing surface for
the purpose of sealing it against the infiltration of water or surface moisture is 259. The significance of final rolling is to remove the roller marks to previous rolling
called ____ a) Seal Coating b) Tack Coating in order to have a good finish pavement with a temperature of 160*F.
c) Prime Coating a) True b) False c) Maybe
250. The rate of application of prime coating using cutback asphalt is ______. 260. The proper way of rolling should begin at _____________________.
a) 1-2 liters/sq. m b) 0.5-1 liter/ sq. m c) 2-3 liters/sq. m a) the sides and proceeds longitudinally towards the roads center, each strip
overlapping on half the roller width, gradually progressing the crown of the
251. The rate of application of tack coating using liquid or emulsified asphalt is road b) the center
__________. a) 0.2-0.7 and proceeding longitudinally toward the side of the road
li/sq.m b) 0.1-0.5 li/sq. m c) 2 li/sq. m. c) any part of the road provided each strip overlapping on half the roller width
252. The rate of application of seal coat using asphalt cement is ________. 261. What is the minimum degree of compaction of asphalt pavement?
a) 0.9-1.8 li/sq. m b) 10-11 li/sq. m c) 8-9 li/sq. m a) not lee than 97% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimen
b) not less than 100% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimen
253. The rate of application of seal coat using cutback asphalt is ________. c) not less than 85% of the density of the laboratory compacted specimen
a) 1.5-3.0li/sq. m b) 2.0-3.0 li/sq. m c) 1-2 li/sq .m
262. What is the color of asphalt when it is overcook?
254. The primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt mies a) yellowish brown b) black c)gray
with high degree of uniformity that will satisfy job requirement is
________________. a) Job mix 263. _____________ determines the thickness and density of compacted asphalt
formula b) Quality control formula c) Assurance pavement. a) Core test
b) FDT c) X-ray
255. The objective of designing the asphalt mixture is determination of ______.
a) Type and grade of asphalt, proportion of coarse, fine and mineral filler, if 264. The cored sample of asphalt pavement is measured at ______________.
used and asphalt content. a) approximately quarter points
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b) three points
c) two points 275. ____________ are additives used in mixing concrete.
a) sodium chloride b) admixtures c) curing agent
265. Too much asphalt content in the bituminous mixes causes ____________ .
a) bleeding b) potholes c) cracks 276. ____________ determines the consistency of concrete.
a) Slump Test b) consolidation test c) viscosity
266. The wearing away of the pavement surface caused by the dislodging of
aggregate particle is called ______________. 277. Equipment used in the consolidation of fresh concrete.
a) raveling b) alligator crack c) rutting a) jack hammer b) vibrator c) drilling
machine
267. Interconnected cracks forming a series of small blocks resembling an
alligator’s skin or chicken wire is called ____________. 278. The prescribed forms to be used in concrete paving is called ____________
a) alligator cracking b) reflection cracking c) bleeding a) steel forms b) wooden c) combination of
steel and wood
268. __________ is the type of cement to be used in the DPWH infrastructure project
as indicated in the Blue Book. 279. The initial setting time of Portland cement is not less than _________________.
a) Portland Cement Type I b) Pozzolan Cement Portland Cement Type II a) 30 min. b) 60 min. c) 90 min.
269. If the fine aggregates are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate soundness 280. The final setting time of Portland cement Type I is _____________.
test, the weighted loss shall not exceed ___________ a) 10 hrs. b) 24 hrs. c) 36 hrs.
a) 10 mass percent b) 5 mass percent c) 3 mass percent
281. The standard sand used in testing the mortar strength of Portland cement is
270. If the coarse aggregate are subjected to five cycles of sodium sulfate called __________.
soundness test, the weighted loss shall not exceed____________. a) Ottawa Sand b) Beach Sand c) River Sand
a) 12 mass percent b) 15 mass percent 10 mass percent
282. The apparatus used in determining the fineness of Portland cement by air
271. The mass percent of wear of coarse aggregates for item 311 when tested by permeability is __________ .
AASHTO 96 is not greater than ____________. a) Blaine Air Permeability Apparatus
a) 40% b) 45% c) 50% b) Sieve No. 200
c) Gillmore
272. The design of concrete mix specified by the blue book is based on
________________. a) Absolute 283. A mixture of cement and water is called ____________.
Volume Method b) Area Method c) American Method a) cement paste b) mortar paste c) concrete
paste
273. The minimum flexural strength requirement of beam sample when tested by
third point loading method is ____________. 284. The apparatus used to determine the initial and final setting of cement in the
a) 3.5 Mpa b) 3.8 Mpa c) 4.0 Mpa laboratory is _________.
a) Gillmore needles b) Bailey needle c) Vicat apparatus
274. The minimum flexural strength requirement of beam sample when tested by
midpoint method is ____________.
a) 4.5 Mpa b) 3.5 Mpa c) 5.0 Mpa
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285. The compressive strength of cement mortar sample in seven days is not less 295. Embankment materials delivered at the job site was about 12,000 cu. m. The
than _________. minimum test requirement calls for 1 – G, P, C for every 1,500 cu. m.
a) 19.3 MN/sq. m b) 20 MN/sq. m c) 24 MN/sq. m a) 10 – G, P, C b) 8 – G, P, C c) 6 – G, P, C
286. What is the appearance of the molded cement paste which fails to meet the 296. of There is 1 – Q cement required for every _________________.
autoclave expansion.______________. a) 4,000 bags or fraction thereof
a) crumble b) shiny c) changes color b) 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
c) 10,000 bags
287. The dimension of beam sample for paving concrete is ___________.
a) 6” x 6” x 21” b) 6” x 6” x 24” c) 4” x 4” x218” 297. There is – Q of cement required for every ____________________.
a) 20,000 kg or fraction thereof
288. The critical number of days of curing concrete is ____________. b) 10,000 kg or fraction thereof
a) first seven days b) first 10 days c) 28 days c)115,000 kg or fraction thereof
289. The standard dimension of concrete cylindrical sample is ___________. 298. How many set of beam samples taken for every 75 cu. m. of concrete poured
a) 6” dia. and 12” tall b) 6” dia. and 6” tall c) 6” dia. and 8” tall per day? a) one ( 1 ) set
b) two ( 2 ) sets c) three ( 3 ) sets
290. There are two layers in performing sampling of beam samples. How many
number of blows are required per layer? 299. In a completed pavement, what is the minimum core samples required before
a) 63 blows b) 75 blows c) 50 blows payment is effected? (Assuming that the thickness is 23 cm. )
a) Five holes per km per lane b) One hole per 500m c) P.E.
291. There are three layers in performing sampling of concrete cylinder. How many Certificate
blows are required per layer?
a) 25 blows b) 30 blows c ) 35 blows 300. In a Barangay road, what is the minimum requirement for thickness
determination of its completed pavement?
292. The formula which determines the proportion of the mix which can meet the a) Five holes per km per lane b) P.E. Certificate c) One hole
desired strength requirement of concrete is called____________.
a) design of concrete mix b) Boyle’s Formula c) Bernouli’s 301. A qulity test is one of the minimum requirement for item 200 – aggregate
Formula subbase course. a) True b) False
c)optional
293. The minimum testing requirement for every project is indicated in a duly
approved________. a) Quality Control Program 302. There is no CBR test for item 300 – aggregate surface course.
b) Program of Work a) True b) False c) optional
c) Work Schedule
303. In item 311 and 405, grading is perform _______________.
294. It is prescribed in each project based on estimated quantities and specifies the a) for every 75 cu. m.
kind and number of test for each item of work. b) for every 300 cu. m.
a) Minimum number of work c) none
b) Minimum Testing Requirement
c) Work Schedule 304. For pipe culverts and storm drains, the minimum test is 1 – Pipe for every 50
pipes. What is the alternative requirement?
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a) 1 – set consisting of 3 concrete cylinder samples for not more than 25 pipes 312. Peat and muck are ______________.
cast in the field and 1 – inspection report for each size for not more than 25 a) fair subgrade spoil c) unstable soil
pipes cast in the field. b) stable soil d) good subgrade soil
b) inspection report is enough
c) Mill Certificate 313. The slump test on concrete is a measure ______________
a) strength c) consistency
305. The minimum test requirement for paint is ______________. b) unit weight d) durability
a) 1 – sample for every 100 cans or fraction thereof
b) 1 – sample for every 50 cans or fraction thereof 314. The fineness modulus is highest of _________________.
c) Mill Certificate a) fine sand c) very coarse sand
b) very fine sand d) coarse sand
306. The minimum test requirement for water used in concrete for a questionable
source is ______. a) P.E. Certificate 315. If concrete is continuously moist cured, it will gain strength beyond 180 days.
b) 1 – Quality Test c) Inspection Report a) True c) it depends on curing temperature
b) False
307. Based on the maximum dry density obtained by laboratory test, the degree of
compaction required for aggregate subbase should be at least 316. The quality of paying concrete is usually measured by its _____________.
_______________________. a) a) compressive c) flexural
95% c) 100% b) tensile d) bond strength
b) 98% d) none of the above
317. Generally speaking, batching of concrete aggregates by volume is preferable
308. Per our present Specification for Highways and Bridges including than weight. a) True
amendments, it is mandatory to open PCCP to traffic not later than c) False b) they
___________. a) 7 are the same
days after pouring b) 21 days after pouring
c) 14 days after pouring d) 28 days after pouring 318. If angular coarse aggregate is used in a concrete mix, it will require more
________________
309. In casting reinforced concrete railings, the concrete used is _____________. a) water c) water and fine aggregates
a) Class A1 c) Class C1 b) fine aggregates d) neither a and b
b) Class A2 d) any of the preceding classes
319. The most favorable period for curing concrete is ______________.
310. For efficient compaction, the embankment materials should at the time of a) during the first few days or week
rolling be ______. b) after 3 days
a) dry c) at optimum moisture content c) after one week
b) wet d) at maximum moisture content d) before 28 days
311. For a road base course the most preferable material is one with CBR of 320. Lower water content ratio in concrete mixes improves ________________.
____________. a) 60 a) strength c) water tightness
c) 50 b) 30 b) durability d) all of the preceding
d) 80
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321. When concrete must be placed in a sloping surface, placing should start at the 330. The opening of No. 4 sieve is bigger than the opening of a ¼ sieve.
__________. a) true b) false c) they are the same
a) bottom c) can be top or bottom
b) top 331. The standard compaction test on predominantly fine grained soils is
performed on soil fraction passing sieve no. ___________.
322. The maximum percent abrasion loss allowed for concrete coarse aggregate is a) 200 c) 16
__________. b) 40 d) 4
a) 30% c) 45%
b) 40% d) 50% 332. Which plasticity index would you prefer for the base course of PCCP?
a) less than 6 c) 10 to 12
323. The plasticity index of aggregate base course should be not greater than b) 6 to 9 d) more than 12
___________. a) 6 c)10
b) 8 d) 12 333. A soil which is classified A-7 by the highway research board method will have
a subgrade rating of __________.
324. In casting of reinforced concrete pile, the concrete used is ____________. a) excellent c) fair
a) A1 c) C1 b) good d) poor
b) D d) C2
334. The empirical number used in design is ____________.
325. The natural water content of highly organic soil is __________. a) plasticity index b) group index c)
a) less than 20 c) between 50 and 100 both of the preceding
b) between 20 and 50 d) more than 100%
335. Soil is fully saturated at optimum moisture content.
326. Which of the following dead load is equivalent for loose sand, earth and gravel a) true b) false c) it depends on void
fill? a) 2,403 tons/cu. ratio
m. c) 1,603 tons/cu. m.
b) 1,922 tons/cu. m. d) 2,150 tons/cu. m. 336. Water content of soil is generally base on ____________.
a) total weight of soil c) weight of solids
327. Rate of application for curing compound is _______________. b) total volume of soil d) unit weight test
a) 0.30 li/sq. m. c) 0.15 li/sq. m.
b) 0.20 li/sq. m. d) 0.10 li/sq. m. 337. Optimum water content of soil is determined by ______________.
a) field density test c) compaction test
328. During coring of completed pavement, how many cores /km/lane is required b) liquid limit test d) unit weight test
as per specification?
a) 4 c) 6 338. The particle size distribution of soil is determined by __________________.
b) 5 d) 7 a) liquid limit granular c) sieve analysis test
b) plastic limit test d) any of the preceding test
329. What is the correct proportion for concrete masonry work?
a) 1: 2 c) 1: 4 339. Which of the following are most suitable for construction of highway
b) 1: 3 d) 1 : 5 embankments? a) granular
c) plastic b) fine-
grained d) clayey
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349. The viscosity of the asphalt during mixing and lay down is ____________.
340. The particle size distribution of sandy gravel is determined by ________. a) viscosity at 135*C c) viscosity at 60*C
a) hydrometer test c) dilantacy test b) viscosity at 125*C d) viscosity at 163*C
b) sieve test d) any of the preceding test
350. The trial section for compaction for each type of fill materials and type of
341. The best soil for a road subgrade would behave a group index of ___________ equipment to be used in the work should have an area of__________.
a) less than 3 c) 11 to 15 a) 500 sq. m. c) 600 sq. m.
b) 5 to 10 d) 16 to 20 b) 335 sq. m. d) 400 sq. m.
342. The highest moisture content in the plastic state of fine grained soil is the 351. Control slip shall have an area of approximately ____________.
___________. a) liquid limit b) plastic limit a) 500 sq. m. c) 600 sq. m.
b) 335 sq. m. d) 400 sq. m.
343. Which of the following is characterizes unsuitable materials?
a) soil with liquid limit exceeding 80 352. Fine aggregate used in asphalt mix is the one ________________.
b) plasticity index exceeding 55 a) passing the no. 8 sieve
c) soil with natural water content exceeding 100% b) passing the no. 30 sieve
d) all of the above c) passing the no. 200 sieve
d) returned the no. 8 sieve
344. Shringkage factor test is _______________.
a) test to determine pay volume 353. The corrugation produce by brooming is _____________.
b) test to determine strength characteristic a) 1.5 mm. c) 2.5 mm.
c) test to determine volume change b) 2.0 mm. d) 1.0 mm.
d) test to determine maximum density
354. The higher the ________, the lower the penetration.
345. Soil is fully saturated if the water content is ______________. a) specific gravity c) durability
a) at optimum amount c) more than 100&% b) viscosity d) solubility
b) 100% d) none of the peceeding
355. The required thickness of the thermoplastic paint in PCCP is __________.
346. The density to which a soil can be compacted is related to ____________. a) 3.2 to 4.8 mm. c) 3.3 to 3.8 mm.
a) compactive effort c) both a and b b) 3.0 to 4.5 mm. d) 3.2 to 4.0 mm
b) water content d) neither a or b
356. What percent of hydrated lime shall be added to the mixture during mixing
347. Specification require 1 quality test every ___________ of asphalt mix. operation of asphalt mix?
a) 40 ton c) 50 tons a) 0.5 to 1.0 mass % c) 0.75 to 1.2 mass %
b) 130 tons d) 150 tons b) 1.0 to 1.5 mass % d) 0.2 to 0.7 mass %
348. All asphalt are _______, they became harder as temperature decreases and 357. As Materials Engineer, what would you recommend in order to check the
softer as their temperature increases. suitability and efficiency of the equipment to used prior to subbase
a) thermoplastic c) brittle construction for item 310, Bituminous Concrete Surface Course?
b) hyrophobic d) none of the above a) make a trial section c) make trial mix
b) establish control strips d) none of the above
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366. In abituminous mix sample, what is the % of asphalt by a) weight of aggregate
358. Quality of factor – produced reinforced concrete pipes may be best and by b) weight of mix? Given the following data: Weight of dry aggregates
established through what? a) (after extraction) = 950 grams: Weight of Mix = 1010.
compressive strength test A. a) 6.32% b)5.50% c) 6.0% d) none of the above
b) flexural strength test B. a) 5.50% b) 6.32% c) 6.0% d) 5.94%
c) core test
d) crushing strength test 367. What grade of asphalt has a penetration grade of 0 – 30?
a) emulsified asphalt c) blown asphalt
359. Result of Immersion – Compression test conducted on a bituminous mix b) asphalt cement d) none of the above
sample are as follow: Dry stability + 2,000 Kpa, Wet stability = 1,000 Kpa,
What is the resulting Index of Retained Strength? 368. Problems regarding quality of construction materials shall be reported directly
a) 60% c) 50% by the Contractor’s Materials Engineer to the ____________.
b) 55% d) 70% a) DPWH Materials Engineer c) Contractor’s Project Engineer
b) Contractor d) none of the above
360. In DPWH Contract Projects, Quality Control is the sole responsibility of
___________. a) the 369. If the RC pipes in the forgoing problem is not cast in the field, how many pipes
DPWH project personnel will be required to be subjected to the Crushing Strength test?
b) the government’s Materials Engineer a) 75 pcs. b) 70 pcs. c) 100 pcs
c) the Contractor
370. How many concrete cylinder samples are required for 3,500 pcs. of reinforced
361. As Materials Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing of concrete pipes? a) 14 sets of 3 c) 75 sets of 3
materials to be incorporated into the work? b) 140 sets of 3 d) none of the above
a) before final payment b) before start of work items c)
before first partial payment 371. What is the bitumen obtained from the distillation coal or wood?
a) rock asphalt c) emulsion
362. The Spot Test on asphalt is used to determine what? b) tar d) none of the above
a) cleanliness c) safe working temperature
b)overheating during manufacture d) viscosity of the mix 372. How do you reduce the viscosity of Medium – Curing Cutback Asphalt? By
mixing it with _______.
363. Under what climate conditions do we use higher penetration grade asphalt a) gasoline c) kerosene
cement? a) hot climate c) cold climate b) diesel d) emulsion
b) rainy weather d) none of the above
373. What establish the exact percent of aggregates and asphalt content in a
364. What is the basis for rejection or acceptance of any construction materials? bituminous mix _______.
a) Certificate of Billing c) Statement of work accomplished a) design mix c) job mix formula
b) Materials Test Report d) none of the abcve b) job order d) extraction formula
365. Initial rolling of bituminous mixes shall be performed with a ______ roller. 374. What greatly influence the serviceability of an asphalt pavement?
a) vibrator c) sheepfoot a) quality of aggregates and climate
b) pneumatic d) none of the above b) penetration grade and quantity of asphalt
c) density and compaction of completed pavement
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384. How is the consistency of liquid asphalt determined?
375. In asphalt pavement construction, how is the surface level of the completed a) viscometer b) Tag open cup c) penetrometer
pavement check? a) by T – core test b) by density test
c) by the use of 3 meter straight edge 385. The Optimum Asphalt Content obtained in Marshall Stability Test is the
average asphalt content of the Maximum Stability, Maximum Bulk Specific
376. What primarily influence the grade of asphalt to be selected? Gravity, and _________________. a) 4% Air Voids b) 2 mm flow
a) penetration c) climate c) 5% mineral content
b) class of aggregate d) temperature
386. What test determines the safe working temperature of the asphalt?
377. Who will approve the Job Mix Formula? a) Ductility test b) Flash Point Test c) Stability Test
a) DPWH Project/Materials Engineer
b) Contractor 387. _________________ are usually tested for extraction.
c) Contractor’s Materials Engineer a) Asphalt Mixes b) emulsions c) asphalt cement
378. What control during the mixing and compaction of the bituminous pavement is 388. Steel bars for the concrete reinforcement are tested for their __________
of great significance in the resulting pavement? properties. a) tensile and bending b) compressive
a) compaction c) grading of aggregates c) crushing
b) density d) temperature
389. What method is used in determining the strength of concrete pipes?
379. In asphalt pavement construction, there are three phases of rolling; what kind a) third point loading method
of roller is required to be used for the final compaction and smoothing? b) center point loading method
a) pneumatic roller b) sheepfoot roller c) tandem- smooth wheeled roller c) three edge bearing method
380. What is the maximum speed of the roller in compaction of asphalt pavement? 390. How many units shall be tested for strength, moisture and absorption in a lot
a) 4 kph c) 8 kph of 120,000 CHB Ans.. 18 units
b) 5 kph d) 6 kph
391. For 250 gallons of Reflectorized Traffic Paint, how many samples are required
381. What shall be checked after final rolling? to be submitted for Quality Testing?
a) degree of compaction b) optimum asphalt content c) quantity a) 3 samples b) 2 samples c) 4 samples
of aggregates
392. The bituminous mix should have a mass % of air voids within the range of
382. When is the completed asphalt pavement opened to traffic? __________. a) 2 to 3% b) 1 to 4% c) 3 to
a) when the asphalt has cooled to atmospheric temperature 5%
b) when the asphalt has cooled to +/- 10*C of the spreading temperature
c) when asphalt is still hot 393. Traffic paint shall be applied to the pavement at the rate of 0.33 li/sq. m. and
shall dry sufficiently to be free it from cracking from ___________.
383. The apparatus used in determining the consistency of asphalt cement is Ans. 150to 30 mins.
___________. a) penetrometer b) viscometer c)
thermometer 394. This is the only class of riprap that may consist of round natural stones.
Ans.. Class A Riprap
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395. The surface of riprap shall not vary from the theoretical surface by more than 406. The reflectors shall have the minimum specific intensity value expressed as
_________ mm. ay any point. ______ of illumination.
Ans.. 100 mm. Ans.. Candle power per foot candle
396. Fine aggregates of masonry shall all passes the ________ mm. sieve. 407. The reflector shall support a vertical load of _____ when tested.
Ans.. 2.36 mm (No. 8 sieve ) Ans. 10 KN
397. Mortar that is not used within ______ minutes after the water has been added 408. When raised profile type reflector are specified the approved _______ epoxy
shall be discarded. adhesive shall be used .
Ans. 90 minutes Ans. Two ( 2 ) parts
398. Maximum projection of rock faces beyond the pitch lines shall not be more 409. Expansion joint filler having a nominal thickness of less than ________ mm.
than _____. Ans.. 50 mm. shall not be subject to a requirement for water absorption.
Ans. 9.5 mm
399. In hot or dry weather, the masonry shall be satisfactory protected from the
sun and shall be kept wet for a period at least _________ after completion. 410. Expansion joint filler having a nominal thickness of less than ________ mm.
Ans.. Three ( 3 ) days shall not be subject to a requirement for compaction.
Ans.. 13 mm.
400. For pavement markings, the composition of white paint shall be _______
pigment and ______% of vehicle 411. Strip of the joint filler that do not conform to the specified dimension within
Ans.. 42 – 45 % pigment ; 53 – 55% vehicle the permissible variation of ______ mm. thickness ________ in depth shall be
reflected. Ans. +/- 1.6 to – 0 thickness ;
401. The composition of yellow paint shall be _______ pigment and ______ vehicle. +/- 3mm. in depth
Ans.. 23% pigment and 77% vehicle
412. These are finely divided residue that result from the combustion of ground or
402. The __________ material shall be of such quality that it will not darken or powdered coal. Ans. Fly Ash
become yellow when a thin section is exposed to sunlight.
Ans.. Non volatile material 413. A light spray application of asphalt to an existing pavement as a seal to inhibit
raveling, or seal the surface or both.
403. ___________ consist of beads of good quality, optically clear, lead free glass Ans.. Fog Seal
with not less than 90% reasonably spherical and free from flows.
Ans. Ballotini for reflective road paint 414. A light application of bituminous material for the express purpose of laying
and bonding loose dust.
404. ___________ is a reflector which shall be the short base type having a maximum Ans.. Dust Binder
base area of 180 mm x 140 mm.
Ans. Flash surface reflective stud 415. The aggregate that is graded from the maximum size, down to and including
filler, with the object of obtaining a bituminous mix with a controlled void
405. The pads shall be highly resilient and durable rubber reinforced with canvas content and high stability is called. Ans. Dense – graded aggregate
and shall have a design life of at least ____________.
Ans. Five ( 5 ) years 416. The bituminous material used to fill and seal cracks in existing pavement is
called______. Ans. Crack filler
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417. The application of sprayed bituminous coatings not involving the use of 426. __________ is a combination of bituminous material and mineral aggregate
aggregate is called_____. applied at ambient temperature for use in patching holes, depression and
Ans. Bituminous application distress area in existing pavement. Ans. Maintenance Mix
418. A mixture of bituminous material and mineral aggregate usually prepared in a 427. __________ is a pavement construction using essentially one-size aggregate
conventional hot – mix plant or drum mixer at a temperature of not more than which penetrated in place by an application of high viscosity bituminous
______ and spread and compacted at the job site at a temperature above material followed by an application of smaller size course aggregate and
_______. Ans. 260*F thoroughly rolled, Ans.
(127*C)/200*F (93*C) Penetration Macadam
419. __________ is an application of low viscosity bituminous material to an 428. The glass beads used in traffic paint shall have a minimum of ______ % true
absorptive surface designed to penetrate, bond, and stabilize this existing spheres. Ans. 70%
surface and to promote adhesion between it and the new super-impose
construction. Ans. Prime Coat 429. The glass beads shall have a minimum refractive index of ______ .
Ans. 1.50
420. A uniform application of a mixture of emulsified asphalt, fine aggregate,
mineral filler, and water to an existing pavement , single or multiple 430. The white thermoplastic material shall not exceed a yellowish index of ______.
application may be used. Ans. Slurry Seal Ans. 0.12
421. _____________ is an application of bituminous material applied for an existing, 431. The thermoplastic material shall have a maximum percent residue of _____
relatively non-absorbent surface to provide a thorough bond between old and after heating at 8 +/- 0.5 hours at 218 +/- 2*C
new surfacing. Ans. Tack Coat Ans. 28%
422. ____________ is a bituminous aggregate application to any type of road or 432. The softening point of thermoplastic paint should be _______.
pavement surface for the purpose of providing a wearing course, or surface Ans. 102.5+/-9.5*C
seal or both. Ans.
Treatment and Seals 433. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with
chemical? Ans. Distilled Water
423. ___________ is a bituminous-sand application to an existing pavement to seal
the surface and to function as a light – wearing course. 434. Liquid limit brass cup with a sample is raised and allowed to drop sharply on
Ans. Sand Seal the base through a height of what?
Ans. 10 mm.
424. ___________ is a spray application of bituminous material used to temporarily
stabilize a recently seeded area. The bituminous material can be applied to 435. How many rotation per second will the crank of a liquid limit device be
the soil or to a straw or hay mulch as a tie down. rotated? Ans. 2 rotation per seconds
Ans. Mulch treatment
436. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for FDT ?
425. ___________ is a combination of bituminous material and aggregate that is Ans. Any clean, dry, free- flowing, uncemented and passing # 10 and retained
physically mixed by mechanical means, spread on the job site and compacted. # 200 sieve
Ans. Bituminous Aggregate Mixtures
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437. What is the degree of compaction of soil having a maximum dry density of c) decrease permeability
2,250 kg/cu. m. and wet density of soil from hole is equivalent to 2,335 kg/cu. d) all of the above
m. and average moisture content of 8.85%?
Ans. % degree of compaction = (dry density/Max. dry density ) x 100 445. Asphalt construction, compaction must be completed before the mixture cools
= [2,335/(1+8.85/100)] / 2,250 x 100 to _______.
= ( 2,145.15/2,250 ) x 100 a) 165*F ( 60*C ) c) 185*F ( 71*C )
= 9.34% b) 175*F ( 65*C ) d) 195*F ( 76*C )
438. What is the standard diameter of an orifice in FDT sand cone? 446. Which contractor are required by DPWH to own the minimum material testing
Ans. ½” ( 12.7 mm ) equipment for pre-qualification purposes?
a) small c) large
439. Soil properties can be improved by ____________. b) medium d) all of the above
a) Adequate compaction c) Maximizing water content
b) Additional binder d) Stabilization 447. As percent asphalt increases in Marshall stability test, the % Air
voids____________. a) increases c) remains constant
440. As construction progresses, you noticed that the materials delivered at the b) decreases d) a or b
project site are different from the one tested and passed the requirement, as
Materials Engineer what would you do? 448. The aggregate component contribute to shear strength and stability of
a) Authorize the use of the materials bituminous mixture . The desirable shape and surface texture of aggregate is
b) Conduct immediate retesting of the materials for verification purposes _________. a) round and smooth surface
c) Reject materials c) round and rough texture b) angular and smooth
d) Replace the materials surface d) angular and rough texture
441. What is the test criteria for RCPC test with three ( 3 ) Edge Bearing Test? 449. You can classify a soil sample in accordance to AASHTO through _________.
a) 0.3 mm. c) 0.5 mm. a) Grain size analysis c) both a and b
b) 0.4 mm. d) 0.6 mm. b) Atterberg limit d) none of the above
442. The Immersion – Compression test is prepared to determine_________. 450. Who should take samples of materials and bring them to the laboratory for
a) ductility c) stability acceptance purposes?
b) solubility d) flexibility a) DPWH Materials Engineer c) Contractor’s Project Engineer
b) Contractor’s Materials Engineer d) DPWH Project Engineer
443. The use of sea water in reinforced concrete is not allowed due to ____________.
a) no effect 451. How do you determine the diameter of RSB?
b) cause of reduction in ultimate strength of concrete a) by Vernier Caliper b) by unit weight
c) induce corrosion of R.S.B
d) b and c 452. Cement which has been in storage for so long period that there is already
doubt as to its quality should be _____________.
444. If the soil is properly compacted at MDD it will __________. a) retested prior to use c) authorized to use
a) increase stability/strength b) not to used
b) minimize future settlement
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453. In abrasion test, a sample of 5,000 grams was subjected to abrasion, a 2,000 c) Wet unit weight over 1 + MC/100
grams sample was retained in no. 12 sieve after washing, what is the abrasion d) Dry unit weight over MDD x 100
loss? a) 50
c) 60 b) 40 462. What is the average compressive strength of the load bearing concrete hollow
d) 30 blocks? a) 1,000 psi c) 600 psi
b) 800 psi d) 1,200 psi
454. Different brand of cement should not be allowed because _____________.
a) different in texture c) varies in strength 463. The surface condition of tack coat before the next course should be applied is
b) different in color when dried _______. a) wet c) dry
b) sticky d) plastic
455. An apparatus used for field density test is called ___________.
a) Sand cone c) Nuclear density meter 464. The contractor shall give the Engineer at least _______ days notice prior to the
b) Rubber balloon d) all of the above beginning of work at the mill or shop where the metal structure has been
manufactured or fabricated, so that the required inspection may be made.
456. Thickness tolerance in the construction of subbase course is ____________. a) 14 c) 21
a) +/- 10 mm. c) +/- 5 mm. b) 17 d) 15
b) +/- 20 mm. d) +/- 15 mm.
465. The request for recoring shall be made by the contractor within _________
457. PH value of water used in concrete is ___________. weeks after the official result of the coring test has been released if the
a) 4 to 6 c) 6 to 10 structure failed to meet strength requirement.
b) 6 to 8 d) 3 to 5 a) one ( 1 ) c) three ( 3 )
b) two ( 2 ) d) four ( 4 )
458. In what item of work emulsified asphalt and cut back asphalt used?
a) Tack Coat c) Seal Coat 466. A revised design strength for concrete works was set forth from 14 days to 7
b) Prime Coat d) Bituminous Surface Course Hot- Laid days for concrete pavement for national roads and _____ days for major
interchanges and busy intersection thus minimizing occurrence of road
459. What is the boundary between Coarse and Fine aggregates used in congestion. a) seven (
concreting. a) passing No. 3/8 sieve c) 7) c) six ( 6 )
passing No. 6 sieve b) passing No. 4 b) three ( 3 ) d) four ( 4 )
sieve d) passing No. 8 sieve
467. Compressive strength for mortar samples test at 3 days and 7 seven days
460. The purpose of trial section is to check ___________________. can be considered for acceptance provided the strength of the samples at 7
a) the suitability of materials days is not less than ________ Mpa which is 85% of the compressive strength
b) the efficiency of the equipment for 28 days a) 22.08
c) the construction method proposed to be used c) 23.45 b) 24.84
d) all of the above d) 21.53
461. In FDT, the volume of hole is determined by what? 468. The use of Fly Ash concrete mix as mineral admixture in PCCP and as ______ %
a) Sand to fill hole over unit weight of dry sand replaces the Portland cement in concrete mix.
b) Total material taken from hole over volume of hole a) 15 c) 25
b) 20 d)10
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c) passing sieve No. 10 retained No. 200
469. This is an instrument used to measure pavement deflections resulting from d) None of the above
vehicle wheel loading. The results of the elastic deformation test are used to 475. When placing concrete, what is the required temperature of concrete?
evaluate the structural condition of roads, and to help in the design of road a) less than 29*C c) less than 30*C
strengthening measure and road capacity improvement b) less than 28*C d) less than 31*C
a) Dynamic Cone Penetrator 476. In PCCP coring, what is the specified thickness of an individual measurement
b) Falling Weight Deflectometer that shall not be included in the average?
c) Three ( 3 ) Meter Straight Edge a) less than 20 mm. c) less than 25 mm.
d) Benkelman Beam b) more than 20 mm. d) more than 25 mm.
477. __________ is the wearing away of the pavement surface caused by the
470. This an equipment which is used to measure differential deflection between dislodging of aggregate particles.
joints of a concrete pavement to determine the modulus of the existing slabs a) Rutting c) Shoving
for use in the design of an overlay. b) Raveling d) Corrugation
a) Dynamic Cone Penetrometer 478. This is the stage in compaction in which all free air is expelled and replaced by
b) Falling Weight Deflectometer water, if further pressure is applied to the soil mass, the tendency is to reduce
c) Benkelman Beam its volume. a) wetting stage c)
d) Merlin Road Roughness Measuring Device saturation stage b) swelling
stage d) none of the above
471. In the foregoing illustration determine the average thickness of PCCP. 479. In this stage, additional water replaces some of the entrapped air and the soil
Position Actual Measurement particles move closer together with a resulting increase in density.
1 23.4 a) wetting stage c) lubricating stage
2 23.5 b) swelling stage d) all of the above
3 23.6 480. All boring during soil exploration survey shall generally be carried to a depth
4 23.6 of at least ______ meter below the proposed grade line.
5 23.4 a) one ( 1 ) c) 0.30
6 23.3 b) two and half ( 2 ½ ) d) 0.50
7 23.3 481. What is the factor that will influence the construction of stabilized road?
8 23.4 a) Depletion of the supply of economically available materials
9 23.4 b) High cost involved in the construction of the conventional types of road
a) 23.433 b) 23.43 c) 23.4 d) 23.4333 c) If the road structure may be built by stages, and a properly designed road
472. Vibrator shall not be operated longer than ______ seconds in any one location. might function briefly as a wearing course
a) 10 c) 20 d) All of the above
b) 15 d) 25 482. What is the meaning of ASTM?
473. How many rotation per second will the crank of a liquid limit device be a) American Standard for Testing Materials
rotated? a) three ( 3 ) rotations per second b) American Standard for Testing and Materials
b) two and a half (2 ½ ) rotations per second c) American Society for Testing Materials
c) two ( 2 ) rotations per second American Society for Testing and Materials
d) one and a half ( 1 ½ ) rotations per second 483. In sampling bituminous materials, the composite samples taken from a
474. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for FDT? number of drums should have a size sufficient for testing and should not be
a) passing sieve No. 30 retained No. 200 less _____ as called for in the guidelines on the submission of samples.
b) passing sieve No. 20 retained No. 200
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a) 5 liters c) 10 liters 494. The coarse aggregate used in Bituminous Concrete is _________.
b) 4 liters d) 6 liters a) retained on a 2.36 mm. ( No. 8 sieve )
484. For semi solid materials, samples should be taken at the center of the b) retained on a 4.75 mm (No. 4 sieve )
containers at least _____ mm. below the surface and 75 mm. from the sides c) retained on a 19.00 mm. ( No. ¾ sieve )
with the aid of a clean hatcher or patty knife. a) 100 c) 75 d) both a and b
b) 85 d) 50 495. As Materials Engineer, will you permit the use of salvage soil aggregate for lie
485. __________ test classify the different asphalts into types and the different types stabilized road mix base course?
into grades. a) Quality test c) Ductility test a) Yes c) It depends
b) Consistency test d) All of the above b) No d) Let the DPWH Project Engineer to decide
486. This is the most important volatilization test on liquid asphalt products, its 496. Is the accredited private testing laboratories owned by companies involved in
gives information as to the actual amount of constituents remove at definite the supply of construction materials for DPWH project be allowed to test their
temperature. a) Extraction test own products? a) Yes c) It
c) Evaporation test b) depends b) No
Distillation test d) Softening test d) Either a or c
487. This test indicate the purity of asphalt. 497. For small projects where the quantity of steel bars is less than 10,000 kgs.
a) Specific Gravity c) Solubility What may be required as a basis of acceptance.
b) Viscosity d) Ductility a) P.E. Certificate c) Inspection Report
488. This is the most important factor which influence the stability of bituminous b) Mill Certificate d) All of the above
mixture. a) Gradation of mineral aggregate 498. Lumber is considered well seasoned when its moisture content is between
b) Shape and surface texture of aggregate _________. a) 10 to 16% c) 10 to 14%
c) Hardness of aggregate particles b) 14 to 18% d) 15 to 20%
d) All of the above 499. Flushing of bitumen to the surface after belting or screeding the hot mixture
489. The principal factor that effect the flexibility of bituminous mixture is _______. denotes rich mixture.
a) the quality of bituminous binder a) true b) false neither of the two
b)the quality of mineral filler 500. Unsuitable materials are those materials containing detrimental quantities of
c) temperature susceptibility of the binder organic materials, such as grass, roots, and sewerage and those that is
d) all of the above _____________. a) high
490. The application temperature of emulsified asphalt ranges from ___________. organic soils
a) 66* to 107*C c) 20* to 66*C b) soils with liquid limit exceeding 80 and / or PI > 55
b) 10* to 71*C d) 15* to 66*C c) soils with very low density, 800kg/cu. m. or below
491. Concrete deposited in water shall be Class “A” concrete with a minimum d) all of the above
cement factor of _______ per cubic meter of concrete. 501. The set of cylinders for each project shall be numbered consecutively
a) 12 bags per cu. m. c) 11 bags per cu. m. beginning with 1 and three specimens should be identified as A, B, and C. At
b) 10 bags per cu. m. d) 9 bags per cu. m. the early stage of pouring, the laboratory should be requested to break the
492. A tremie shall consist of a tube having a diameter of not less than ______ mm. “A” cylinders at 7 days to check what? a) If the structure
constructed in section s having flanged couplings fitted with gasket with a should be put in service at early stage
hopper at the top. a) 200 c) 250 b) to check the mix design
b) 300 d) 150 c) To check if there is unusual development when admixture is used
493. The fine aggregate used in stone masonry mortar shall all pass No.____ sieve. d) All of the above
a) 40 c) 30 502. The field specimen should be cured from 4 to 7 days at the project under
b) 8 d) 3/8 moist conditions obtained by __________.
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a) covering with wet sand 511. What is the allowable smooth riding quality of PCCP?
b) covering with saw-dust a) 5.00 mm. c) 3.00 mm.
c) covering with palay-strw b) 8.00 mm. d) 6.00 mm.
d) all of the above
503. The cured cylindrical samples shall be transported to the Regional Laboratory 512. What is the penetration grade of bitumen prime coat?
or any testing laboratory accredited by the DPWH in ________________. a) 60 – 70 c) 85 – 100
a) on top of sand b 120 – 150 d) none of the above
b) carefully packed and crated surrounded with damp sawdust or palay straw
c) on boxes with sand surrounding the cylinders 513. The spraying application temperature of all grades of asphalt cement should
d) all of the above not be more than ________.
504. The penetration grade of concrete joint sealer, hot poured elastic type is a) 211*C c) 135*C
_________ a) 80 - 100 c) 100 - 120 b) 159*C d) 204*C
b) below 90 d) 40 – 60
505. The CBR is generally selected at what penetration? 514. What is the rate of application of bituminous prime coat using cut back
a) 5.08 mm. c) 2.54 mm. asphalt? a) 0.5 to 0.7 liters/sq. m. c) 1.0 to 1.1
b) 3.1 mm. d) 3.50 mm. liters/sq. m. b) 1.0 to 2.0
506. A soil aggregate that has a CBR value of 20 means that in the condition liters/sq. m. d) 1.10 to 2.0 liters/sq.m.
tested, the resistance to penetration of the standard piston was ______ of the
standard resistance of a compacted soil or aggregate. 515. What is the weight boulders required for class A grouted riprap?
a) 40% c) 10% a) 10 to 25 kgs c) 15 to 30 kgs.
b) 20% d) 80% b) 15 to 25 kgs. d) 20 to 30 kgs.
507. For liquid asphaltic materials, these are run on the residue after distillation.
a) consistency test c) ductility test 516. Based on the maximum dry density obtained by laboratory test, the degree of
b) quality test d) cement mixing test compaction required for aggregate subbase should be at least _____________.
508. The basic aim of compaction is to produce a soil mass that will satisfy what a) 95% c) 100%
criteria? a) settlement c) permeability b) 98% d) 90%
b) stability d) all of the above
509. When do the embankment become friable in dry weather , ravel at the edges 517. Where to determine the amount of mixing water to use when compacting the
and abrade severely under traffic and will become dusty in service and much soil in the field to attain maximum density.
of the binder soil is simply blown away during the dry season. a) Trial Section c) Control Strip
a) the embankment is non- plastic b) Field Density Test d) Lab. Compaction Test
b) the embankment lacks compaction
518. For soil classification purposes as in AASHTO M45, what is not required?
c) materials fails CBR test
a) combined sieve and mechanical analysis
d) none of the above
b) sieve analysis
510. When the embankment tends to soften in wet weather, and PCCP constructed
c) the wash test
of such material develop ruts under traffic an d may shift and shove to
d) none of the above
develop a wash board surface, the plasticity index of such material is
____________. a) P.I. is too
519. This is widely used to control the characteristics of soil which are to be
high c) P.I. is too low
incorporated in roadways.
b) neither a & b d) both a & b
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a) The Limit Test c) The Group Index 526. As per guidelines on submission of samples, laboratory trial mixes should be
b) The soil classification d) all of the above made on aggregates which are proposed tube used for the first time, in this
case what is the weight of fine aggregates to be submitted for testing?
520. In direct shear test, the soil is sheared to failure by moving one part of the soil a) 100 kgs. c) 50 kgs.
sample relatively to the other part along a pre-determined plane. When b) 70 kgs. d) 80 kgs.
several test are made on a soil under different normal loads and the results
are plotted in arithmetic scales, the resulting line is made in the form of 527. The phosphorous content of reinforcing steel bars bigger than 9.0 mm shall
____________. not exceed _______.
a) straight line c) parabola a) 0.18% b) 0.06%
b) hyperbola d) semi-elliptical c) 0.08% d) 0.05%
521. In conducting soil exploration survey, what equipment you will use in 528. The permissible variation of reinforcing steel bars bigger than 9.0 mm. shall
obtaining undisturbed samples. not exceed _____. a) 10% b) 5%
a) split spoon sampler c)screw type soil auger sampler c) 8% d) 6%
b) thin-walled sampler d) Post-hole auger sampler
529. A type of cement that sets and hardens by chemical interaction with water
522. Bituminous stabilization in the process of mixing intimately pulverized soil and and is capable of doing so underwater.
bituminous material. What is the minimum bearing capacity (soaked CBR ) of a) Portland Cement b) Hydraulic Cement
the mixture? a) 80% c) 98% c) Air-Retaining Portland Cement d) All of the above
b) 100% d) 95%
530. The spacing center to center of circumferential reinforcement of all pipes shall
523. Portland cement stabilization roadmix base course is an intimate mixture of not exceed its wall thickness and shall in no case exceed _______________.
pulverized soil, Portland cement and water which is thoroughly compacted a) 150 mm. b) 200 mm.
while in a moist condition to form a structural road material when the cement c) 100 mm. d) 250 mm.
hydrates and crystallizes. What is the mass percent wear of soil aggregate
used in this stabilization? 531. Oversanded and undersanded concrete mixtures require more water in order
a) 40% c) not more than 40% to be workable but will only result to ______________.
b) 45% d) 50% a) good surface texture b) water tightens
c) weak strength d) all of the above
524. For a rich mixture of cement in concrete, what determines the flexural
strength of the concrete? a) Mortar strength c) both a & b 532. For every lean mixes or low cement content of the mixture, What determines
b) the strength of aggregate d) the water/cement ratio the flexural strength of the concrete.
a) The strength of aggregate b) The mortar strength
525. This is a new method of soil stabilization being introduced to improved the c) The water cement ratio d) All of the above
properties of soil which is effective and at the same time cheaper.
a) Stabilization by the use of Geotextiles 533. This is a method of determining in-place density of soil that can be used
b) Cement stabilization satisfactorily in moist, cohesive fine grained material only. The sample is
c) Bituminous stabilization obtained by forcing a small thin walled cylinder into the material with a driving
d) Lime stabilization head and hammer or other suitable apparatus. Ans. Drive
Cylinder Method
29 -
534. This method of test is intended to determine the density of cohesive soil and 544. What are the methods use in reducing samples from the field to testing size?
stabilized soil by measuring the weight and volume of undisturbed samples. Ans. 1) sample splitter 2) quartering
Ans. Block, Chunk or Core Sampling
545. What is the required temperature for oven drying the soil sample?
535. This method covers the determination of the density in-place of compacted or Ans. 110*C +/- 5*C
firmly bonded soil by using a flexible membrane and liquid that can be used to
measure the volume of a test hole soil with an accuracy within 1.0%. 546. How can you determine if the soil sample is already oven dried?
Ans. By Rubber Balloon Method Ans. dried if it reached its constant weight
536. This method covers the determination of the total or wet density of soil and 547. How to prepare or to come up with air-dried soil sample?
soil aggregate in-place by the attenuation of gamma rays, where the gamma Ans. air dry the sample under the heat of the sun
detector, or both, remains at or near the surface.
Ans. Nuclear Method 548. If impossible to air-dry the sample under the heat of the sun what alternative
should be used? Ans. oven dry the sample at 60*C
537. What are the three major groups of soil?
Ans. 1) granular 2) fine grained 3) organic 549. Sample for compaction test should pass to what sieve?
Ans. method A & B use sample passing sieve #4; method C & D use sample
538. What are the common laboratory test required for soil? passing #3/4
Ans. a) sieve analysis b) plastic and liquid limit test c) compaction test
(moisture-density relation) d) CBR e) Abrasion Test (Mass percent of Wear) 550. What is the difference between T-99 and T-180 compaction test method?
f) Unit weight g) Moisture Content Ans. T-99 uses 2.5kg.(5.5lbs.) rammer with a drop of 12” height, while T-180
uses 4.54kg.(10 lbs.) rammer with a drop of 18” height
539. What are the common field test?
Ans. To determine the degree of compaction of soil or it is a control test in 551. What are the particle size analysis?
embankment construction to ensure adequate compaction Ans. It is the determination of particle size distribution in soil by sieve,
hydrometer, or combined analysis
540. What is moisture content?
Ans. It is the amount of water present in the soil 552. What are the other terms or particles size analysis?
Ans. 1) sieve analysis 2) mechanical analysis 3) grading test/analysis
541. What is the different between natural moisture content with hydroscopic
moisture content? Ans. Natural moisture content is the moisture of 553. What is the liquid limit?
undisturbed soil sample while hydroscopic moisture content is the moisture of Ans. it is the lowest moisture content at which the soil will flow upon the
air-dried soil sample. application of a very small shearing force.
542. What is the formula used for moisture content determination? 554. The liquid limit is expressed as the moisture content corresponding to what
Ans. Moisture Content = (wt. Of water/wt. Of oven dried sample) x 100 number of blows? Ans. 25 blows
543. Weighing hot sample is not advisable as it affects the accuracy of result. 555. What test are used in soil classification?
Ans. True Ans. 1) grading or sieve analysis 2) plastic and liquid limit
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556. What is plastic limit? 567. What is the kind of material used for item 200?
Ans. It is the minimum moisture content at which the soil can be readily Ans. Aggregate subbase course
molded without breaking or crumbling
568. What is the required particle size for selected borrow for topping under item
557. What kind of water shall be used in laboratory test especially if it deals with 104 (embankment)?
chemicals? Ans. Distilled water Ans. All particle size will pass a sieve 75 mm. or 3” square opening and not
more than 15% will pass 0.075 mm. (No. 20) AASHTO 11
558. Liquid limit brass cup with sample is raised allowed to drop sharply on the
base through a height of what? 569. P.I. requirement for item 104 (selected common borrow) is __________.
Ans. 10 mm. Ans. 6 maximum
559. How many rotation per second will the crank of a liquid limit device be 570. L.L. requirement for item 104 (selected common borrow) is ____________.
rotated? Ans. 2 rotations per second Ans. 30 maximum
560. In doing a plastic limit test, to what diameter shall the soil thread began to 571. What is the LL requirement for item 200 (aggregate subbase course) passing
break? Ans. 3.2 mm. ( 1/8” ) sieve # 40? Ans. 12 maximum
561. What is the formula for plastic limit? 572. Coarse portion retained on sieve # 10 (2.00 mm.) of item 200 shall have a
Ans. PL = (Wa – Wb)/Wb x 100 mass percent of wear by Los Angeles Abrasion test of _______________.
Where: Wa = original wt of crumbled soil thread Ans. 50% maximum
Wb = wt of oven dried crumbled soil
573. The required CBR value for item 300?
562. What is Plastic Index (PI)? Ans. 25% minimum (AASHTO T 180 method D)
Ans. It is the difference between the liquid limit and the plastic limit; PI = LL-
PL 574. What is the minimum percent field density or degree of compaction for item
104 (embankment)?
563. What is specific gravity? Ans. 95% minimum
Ans. It is a gravimetric-volumetric relationship in soils (or defined as the ratio
of the wt in air of an equal volume of water at a stated temp.) 575. What is the minimum degree of compaction for item 200 and 201?
Ans. 100% minimum
564. What is the approximate area for density control strip?
Ans. 335 sq. m. 576. What is the highest point in moisture density curve of the moisture density
relation test or compaction test of soil represent?
565. What is the maximum depth of roadway embankment per horizontal layer in Ans. MDD(Maximum Dry Density) and OMC (Optimum Moisture Content)
loose measurement?
Ans. 200 mm. ( 8” ) 577. What is the required size of calibrated sand used for FDT?
Ans. Any clean, dry, free-flowing uncemented sand passing # 10 and retained
566. What item of work is embankment? # 200 sieves
Ans. Item 104
578. What is the degree of compaction of soil having a maximum dry density
2,250kg/cu. m. and wet density of soil from hole equivalent to 2,335kg/cu. m.
31 -
and an average moisture content of 8.85%? 587. What is the size or diameter and weight of cast-iron spheres use in abrasion?
Ans. % Degree of Compaction = (Dry density/Max. dry density) x 100 Ans. Approximately 46.8 mm dia. and weighing between 390-455 grams
Where ; Dry density = Wet density/(1+MC/100)
Wet density = wt of soil filled in a hole/volume of hole 588. What is the required total wt. of sample for abrasion test of coarse aggregate
% degree of compaction = {(2,335)/[1+(8.85/100)] x 100}/2,250 grading A with 12 number of sphere?
= (2,145.15/2,250) x 100 Ans. 5,000 grams +/- 25 grams
= 95.34%
579. Is the soil for No.45 passed the item 104 requirement for % degree of Ans. It evaluate the structural strength of coarse aggregates
compaction? Ans. G or Grading = 2 - gives an indication of quality as determined by resistance to impact and
P or Plasticity = 2 wear - it determines whether the aggregate will
C or Compaction = 2 have degradation during traffic or rolling
D or Density = three in-site density test/500 sq. m.
580. What are the test and number of test needed for 2,960 cu. m. Aggregate Base Ans. 2,000 bags or fraction thereof
Course? Ans. sand cone, jug (at least 4 liters), guide plate,
moisture cans, sand, weighing scale, oven with temperature control, chisel or 591. What is the sieve use in sieving materials from Abrasion Machine?
digging tools, plastic bags and labeling materials (tag number) Ans. Sieve # 12 (1.70 mm.)
581. What is the standard diameter of an orifice in FDT sand cone? 592. Testing machine should be calibrated once every six (6) months if possible but
Ans. ½ inch (12.7 mm.) if it not possible what is the required time should the machine be calibrated?
Ans. Once a year
582. How many hours does a fine aggregates tested for specific gravity and
absorption be soaked in water? 593. What is the percent tolerance of error in calibrating the machine?
Ans. 15 to 19 hrs. Ans. +/- 1%
583. How will you determine if the fine aggregates reaches the saturated surface 594. What do you call a sample for concrete pavement?
dry condition? Ans. It is determine by the use of cone test for surface Ans. Concrete beam sample
moisture and if the molded shape of fine aggregate slump slightly it indicates
that it has reached a surface-dry condition. 595. How many sample should be taken for every 75 cu, m. of fresh concrete?
Ans. 3 pcs. sample or 1 set sample
584. What are the test required for concrete aggregates?
Ans. 1) Fine Agg: Grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit wt. 596. What do you call the sample for structural concrete?
2) Coarse Agg: grading, specific gravity, absorption, dry unit wt, and abrasion Ans. Concrete cylinder sample
Note: soundness is also tested as per request
585. What is the maximum mass % of wear by Los Angeles Abrasion Test? Ans. Slump test
Ans. 40% maximum
586. What is the required speed of Los Angeles Abrasion Machine per minute? Ans. Slump = Ht. Of slump cone – ht. Of fresh concrete after subsidence
Ans. 30 to 33 rpm
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599. How to compute for the compressive strength of concrete cylinder sample? 609. What is the significance of testing reinforcing steel bars?
Ans. CS = P/A where: P = loads, lbs. A = area, sq. m. Ans. to determine the yield and tensile strength of the bar as well as its
A = [rD(sq)] / 4 = 28.27 sq. m elongation and is used to classify the bars into grade
600. At what age should a concrete beam sample be tested for flexural test? 610. What is the required length of RSB for testing?
Ans. 4 days Ans. 1 meter/10,000 kgs./size/shipment
601. How to compute the flexural strength for third point loading test? 611. What is the significance of bending test for RSB?
Ans. R = (PL)/(bxdxd) = P(18”)/(6” x 6” x 6”) = P/12 Ans. to evaluate the ductile properties of RSB
where: R = modulus of rupture
P = Load in lbs. or tons 612. What is the required size of test specimen for G.I. sheets?
L = span length in inches Ans. 60 mm. x 60 mm. ( 3pcs. from one sheet/100 sheets
b = base in inches
d = depth in inches 613. What is the required sample for paint?
Ans. 1 can ( gal. or pail )/100 cans (gal. or pail )
Ans. 3.8 Mpa (550 psi) 614. What kind of paint had reflectance in the form of beads?
Ans. Reflectorized Traffic Paint
Ans. 4.5 Mpa (650 psi) 615. What is the common components of house paint?
Ans. pigment and vehicle
604. How to compute for flexural strength at center point loading?
Ans. R = (3PL)/(bxdxd) = 3P(18)/2x9x6x6 616. What is this construction material that is dark brown to black cementatious
material in which the predominating constituent are bitumen?
605. Which part of the batch for fresh concrete should the sample be taken from a Ans. Asphalt
stationary mixers, revolving drum truck mixers or agitators?
Ans. two or more regular intervals during discharge of middle portion of the 617. What asphalt is commonly called hot asphalt?
batch Ans. Asphalt cement
606. What is the size of tamping rod use in sampling concrete? 618. What are liquid asphalt?
Ans. 16 mm. (5/8 inches) diameter and 610 mm. (24 inches) long with the Ans. Cut-back asphalt and Emulsified Asphalt
tamping end rounded to a hemispherical tip of the same dia. as the rod
619. What is the use of blown asphalt or hard asphalt?
607. Concrete Masonry (hollow blocks) if subject to test, how many sample is Ans. Use as joint filler or water proofing
required? Ans. 6 pcs./10,000 units 12 pcs. if more
than 10,000 units 620. SS-1 or SS-1h is what kind of asphalt?
Ans. Slow Setting Emulsified Asphalt
608. What is the strength requirement for load bearing concrete masonry units?
Ans. individual = 5.5 Mpa (800 psi) minimum 621. What are the three (3) kinds of Emulsified Asphalt?
Average(for 3 samples) = 4.14 Mpa (600 psi) minimum Ans. Rapid Setting, Medium Setting and Slow Setting
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622. What asphalt contains water? 635. One set (3 pcs ) concrete cylinder sample shall be taken for every how many
Ans. Emulsified Asphalt pieces of RCP? Ans. 25 pcs.
623. What is the penetration grade for blown asphalt? 636. In submitting samples for testing, what particular form is being accomplished?
Ans. 0 to 30 Ans. sample card
624. What is the ideal penetration grade of asphalt use in Tropical Region? 637. as a Materials Engineer of the project what is the report accomplished every
Ans. 85 to 100 (but some uses 60 to 70) week? Ans. Quality Control Assurance Report
625. Tack coat is used in an existing bituminous or concrete pavement. 638. What do you call the report to be submitted at end of the month?
Ans. True Ans. Monthly Materials Report
626. What is the rate of application of bituminous tack coat? 639. How to determine the proportion of cement , water, fine aggregates and
Ans. 0.2 to 0.7 liter/ sq. m. coarse aggregates? Ans. by means of Concrete Design Mix
627. What is the rate of application of bituminous prime coat? 640. How to determine the thickness of pavement?
Ans. 1 to 2 liters/sq.m. Ans. by means of concrete core
628. For how many hours or how long shall a bituminous prime coat left 641. How to determine the asphalt content of bituminous mix?
undisturbed? Ans. 24 hrs. Ans. by means of extraction test
629. What kind of asphalt is used as prime coat? 642. In an extraction test, aside from the asphalt what other materials being
Ans. Cut-back asphalt (medium curing or rapid curing) extracted? Ans. Aggregates or composite aggregates
( minerals of fine & coarse aggregates)
630. Bituminous prime coat is use to treat surface of base course.
Ans. True 643. What is being determined in a core sample from asphalt pavement/
Ans. thickness of pavement and density of pavement
631. No tack coat or prime coat shall be applied when the weather is foggy or
rainy. Ans. True 644. All records regarding quality control such as accomplishment, daily activities,
weather etc. are recorded in a ________.
632. What kind of asphalt is used as tack coat? Ans. Materials Log Book
Ans. cut-back asphalt (rapid curing) or emulsified asphalt
645. The standard penetration test (SPT) is an in-site test that measures what?
633. Where should the bituminous seal coat be used? Ans. depth of soil layer
Ans. on an existing bituminous surface course with or without an application
of aggregates 646. Which of the following bituminous material is best recommended for sealing
weakened plane joints?
634. If concrete cylinder sample for RCP is not available for compression test one Ans. Joint Filler Asphalt (commonly called hard asphalt)
(1) whole piece RCP for every 50 pcs. RCP will be submitted for quality test.
Ans. True 647. The main problem associated with wrong practice of conveying concrete is
called ______. Ans. Segregation
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648. The specification call for 1:2:3 concrete mix. In one bagger mixer, which of the 656. Quality Control testing in a DPWH project is the responsibility of the
following amount of water is most likely required for the mix? ___________. Ans. DPWH and Contractor’s Materials Engineers
Ans. 20 i\liters
657. As Material Engineer, when is the right time to start sampling and testing
649. A one lane road, with a pavement width of 3.5 meters and shoulder width of aggregates of the course materials?
0.5 meter on each side of the pavement, was designed to have subbase and Ans. before the course materials be incorporated in the project
base courses with a combined thickness of 300 mm. If the thickness of the
subbase is a 125 mm. the spreading and compaction of the subbase and base 658. The spot test on asphalt is used to determine what?
course shall be carried out in ______. Ans. 3 layer Ans. overheating during manufacture
over the full width of 4.5 m.
659. Under what climatic condition(s) do we use the lower penetration grades or
650. as Material Engineer, what is the area of trial section that you would hard asphalt? Ans. hot climate
recommend to check the suitability of the materials and efficiency of the
equipment to be used for item 310, Bituminous Concrete Surface course? 660. Sampling of the freshly mixed concrete should be taken on the _______ batch
Ans. about 500 sq. m. discharge of the transit mixer.
Ans. middle
651. Per program of work, the estimated volume of item 201 materials is 7,500 cu.
m. How many grading and plasticity test are required based on the DPWH 661. Soft and unstable soils were encountered during the course of subgrade
minimum testing requirements? Ans. 25 grading and 25 plasticity preparation. If you were the Materials Engineer assigned to the project, what
is the most effective and cheaper method that you would recommend to
652. Bituminous concrete mixes contain asphalt by weight equivalent to what? stabilized the soil prior to the construction of the subbase course?
Ans. 5 to 8% Ans. Geotextiles
653. Quality of factory-produced reinforced concrete pipes may be best established 662. How many times per layer should a concrete specimen molded in a 6”x6”x21”
through what? Ans. Test of concrete pipe samples beam mold be rodded?
Ans. 63 times
654. Where do we take additional cores when the measurement of any core taken
from the pavement is deficient in thickness by more than 25 mm? 663. What is the basis for acceptance or rejection of any construction materials?
Ans. At no less than 5 meters intervals parallel to the centerline in each Ans. Materials Test Report
direction from the affected location
664. In testing concrete cylinder sample the load applied should be continuous
655. The results of Immersion-Compression test conducted on an asphalt mix without shock at a constant rate within the range of _______ per second.
sample are as follows: Dry stability = 2,000 Kpa Ans. 0.14 to 0.34 Mpa per second or 20 to 50 psi per second
Wet stability = 1,000 Kpa
What is the resulting index of retained strength? Does it meet the 665. During the application of the first half of the anticipated load a _______ rate of
specification requirement of item 310 Bituminous Concrete Course? loading shall be permitted.
Ans. Index of Retained strength = (Wet stability/Dry stability) x 100 Ans. higher rate
= (1,000 Kpa/2,000 Kpa) x 100
= 50% 666. Initial rolling in bituminous mixes shall be perform with a _____ roller.
No it does not meet the specification of item 310 since the specification of IRS Ans. Pneumatic Tire Roller
is 70% minimum while the resulting IRS is only 50%
35 -
667. Final rolling in bituminous mixes shall be perform with a _________ roller. 676. If the actual percent asphalt in the problem above is 5% and the percent
Ans. 3-wheel or Tandem type steel wheel roller asphalt in a job-mix 5.6% did it pass the required tolerance? Why?
Ans. No, because the required tolerance for % asphalt in a job-mix formula is
668. Rolling of bituminous mix shall be discounted whenever it begins to produce +/-0.4%
excessive ______ or ________.
Ans. pulverizing of the aggregate or displacement of the mixture 677. Which is not the duty or responsibility of Materials Engineer?
Ans. quantity of construction materials
669. Final rolling shall be continued until roller marks are eliminated and a
minimum of _____ mass percent of the density of the laboratory compacted 678. Which is the duty or responsibility of a Materials engineer?
specimens prepared in accordance with AASHTO T160 has been obtained. Ans. quality of construction materials
Ans. 95 mass percent
679. Problem regarding quality of construction materials shall be reported directly
670. sample from compacted bituminous mix shall be neatly cut by saw or core by the contractor’s Materials Engineer to the __________.
drill. Each sample shall be at least ____________. Ans. DPWH Materials Engineer
Ans. 150 mm. x 150 mm. or 100mm diameter full depth
680. How many concrete cylinder is required for a 3,000 pcs. reinforced concrete
671. For surface tolerance the surface (bituminous mix) will be check by the use of pipe culvert? Ans. 120 sets (consisting of 3 pcs. concrete cylinder per
a _____ at sites selected by the Engineer. set)
Ans. 3 meter straight edge
681. If the concrete cylinder is not available for a 3,000 pcs. culvert pipes, how
672. What is the sample requirement for paving concrete for every 75 cu. m. or many pipes shall be subjected to test?
fraction thereof? Ans. One (1) set (consisting of 3 pcs.) concrete beam Ans. 60 pcs. culvert pipes
sample
682. What kind of test that requires calibrated sand in filling the hole in order to
673. In testing bituminous mix sample for Immersion-Compression Stability the determine the volume of hole?
sample is soaked in water bath for ______ days. Ans. Field Density Test (FDT)
Ans. four (4)
683. What do you call the test using a rammer and a mold?
674. Given: Wt. of dry aggregate = 950 grams Ans. Moisture Density Relation Test or Compaction Test
Wt. of asphalt = 50 grams
What is the total % of asphalt weight of total mix 684. What kind of asphalt has a penetration grade of 0 to 30 mm.?
Ans. Wt. of total mix = wt. of dry agg. + wt. of asphalt Ans. Blown Asphalt
= 950 + 50 = 1,000 grams
therefore: (50grams/1,000grams) x 100 = 5% 685. If there is a necessary to add water to the concrete mix in order to increase is
workability (provided concrete does not exceed specified slump). How many
675. Does the percent asphalt in problem above meet the required specification for minutes after the initial of the mixing does adding of water be permitted?
percent asphalt in bituminous mixes? Why? Ans. not exceeding 45 minutes and that water cement ratio is not exceeded
Ans. yes, because standard specification for percent asphalt in bituminous
mixes is 5 to 8% 686. What is the percent weight of aggregates (coarse, fine and mineral filler) in
the mixture of bituminous concrete surface coarse?
Ans. 92 to 95%
36 -
687. What is the percent weight of asphalt in the bituminous mixture? 697. The higher penetration grade or softer asphalt is used in____________.
Ans. 5 to 8% Ans. cold climate
688. How can we establish the exact percentage to be used in the bituminous 698. How many weeks does a producer of asphalt mix or the contractor shall
mixture? Ans. Job-mix formula submit the job-mix formula?
Ans. three (3) weeks prior to production
689. What are the two types of bitumen that are commonly used in bituminous
concrete surface course? 699. Who will approved the job –mix formula?
Ans. 1) Tar- is viscous liquid obtained from distillation of coal or wood Ans. DPWH Project Engineer and Materials Engineer
2) Petroleum Asphalt – are the product of the distillation of crude oil
700. The job-mix formula contains provisions on the following:
690. What are the three major petroleum asphalt product? Ans. 1) grading 2) percentage and type of asphalt 3) temp. of agg. and
Ans. 1) Asphalt cement – produced in various viscosity grade, the most asphalt 4) temp. of mixture upon delivery or at time of
common penetration grade are, 200/300, 120/150, 85/100, 40/50 compaction
2) Cut-back asphalt – are asphalt mixed with solvents to reduce their viscosity
3) Emulsified Asphalt – are mixture of asphalt cement and water with 701. What is the primary quality control mechanism for the production of asphalt
emulsifying agent mixture? Ans. Job-mix formula which shall conform to the
following ranges of tolerance: Passing No. 4 and larger
691. What are the solvents for cut back asphalt? sieves +/- 7%
Ans. 1) gasoline – for rapid curing type Passing No. 8 to No. 100 sieves +/- 4%
2) kerosene – for medium curing type Passing No. 200 +/- 2%
3) diesel fuel – for slow curing type Bituminous Materials +/- 0.4%
Temperature of mixture +/- 10*C
692. Emulsified asphalt are either _____ and _________.
Ans. 1) cationic emulsion – which work better with wet agg. And in cold 702. What is the minimum dry compressive strength of the mixture?
weather 2) anionic emulsion – which adhere better to Ans. 1.4 Mpa (200 psi)
agg. Which have positive charges
703. The mixture shall have a mass percent air voids with the range of _________.
693. What is the bituminous material commonly used in item 310? Ans. 3.0% - 5%
Ans. Asphalt cement (AC)
704. What is the Index of Retained Strength of the mixture?
694. What greatly influence the service of an asphalt pavement? Ans. 70%
Ans. grade and quantity of asphalt
705. What is the most commonly used method in the design and evaluation of
695. What influence primarily the grade of asphalt selected? bituminous concrete mixes?
Ans. Climatic condition Ans. Marshall Stability Method
696. The lower penetration grade or hard asphalt is used in ____________. 706. The quality control test for asphalt mix are the following:
Ans. hot climate Ans.
1) Immersion-Compression Test – determines the index of retained strength of
the mix 2) Extraction and Grading Test –
37 -
determines the asphalt content and particles size distribution of coarse and 718. How many samples shall be taken for each full days operation?
fine aggregates Ans. at least one but not more than three (3) core samples
3) Laboratory density test – determines the degree of compaction
719. What is the dimension of the samples taken full depth from the finish
707. What is the correct temperature that the mixture shall be placed as measured pavement for thickness determination?
in the truck just prior to dumping into the spreader? Ans. 150 mm. or 100 mm diameter
Ans. 107*C
720. How is the sample taken from the finished pavement?
708. When tar is used, what is the temperature that the mixture shall be placed? Ans. by means of core drill or saw
Ans. 66*C to 107*C
721. How is the surface level of the finished pavement being check?
709. When shall the compaction be done in order to attain the required density? Ans. by the use of 3 meters straight edge
Ans. when the mixture is still hot and workable
722. The variation of the surface from the testing edge of the straight between
710. How to determine the number of passes that would attain the required contacts with the surface shall not exceed ________..
density? Ans. trial section Ans. 6 mm.
711. What control during the mixing and compaction is of great significance in the 723. What determine the thickness and density of compacted asphalt pavement?
strength of the resulting pavement? Ans. core test
Ans. temperature
724. What is the strength requirement (flexural strength) of a concrete when tested
712. What kind of roller should be used for the initial or breakdown compaction? by third point loading method?
Ans. Pneumatic smooth wheeled roller (not less than 10 tons) Ans. 3.8 Mpa (550 psi)
713. What is the speed of the roller? 725. What is the compressive strength of the PCCP when rested at 14 days?
Ans. 5 km/hr Ans. 24.1 Mpa (3500 psi)
714. How is the rolling be done? 726. What is the slump of a workable concrete if not vibrated?
Ans. It should begin from the side and proceed longitudinally parallel toward Ans. 40 – 75 mm, when vibrated the slump is 10 to 40 mm
the road centerline, each trip overlapping one half the rollers width
727. What kind of form used in item 311?
715. After the final rolling what should be checked? Ans. steel forms and a depth equal to the thickness of the pavement
Ans. degree of compaction
716. The compacted pavement shall have a density equal to or greater than Ans. 24 hrs.
___________. Ans. 97% of the laboratory compacted density
729. What is the difference between item 504 and item 505?
717. When is the traffic be permitted to enter the pavement? Ans. placement of stone or boulders and the ratio of cement and fine sand
Ans. when the pavement has cooled to atmospheric temperature
730. What is the ratio of fine aggregates to number of bags of cement for grout in
item 504 and 505? Ans. for item 504 its one part cement to three part
38 -
fine sand (1:3) for item 505 its one part 739. When is the right time to saw the weaken plane joint?
cement to two parts fine sand (1:2) Ans. within 24 hrs. as soon as concrete has hardened sufficiently
731. Penetration and ductility test of asphalt are done in __________ temperature. 740. What shall be done if cracks appear at or near the joint prior to the time of
a) 60*C b) 25*C sawing? Ans. sawing shall be omitted
c) 50*C d) 10*C
741. Tie bars shall not be coated or painted with ____________.
732. This is the most fluidest and lightest of all the grade of Medium Curing Cut- Ans. asphalt or other materials
back Asphalt. a) MC – 30 b) MC – 70
c) MC – 800 d) MC – 300 742. What is the metal device that are used as a load transfer device held in a
position parallel to the surface and centerline of the slab of pavement?
733. The only kind of asphalt that can be used in all bituminous item of work. Ans. dowels
a) Asphalt Cement b) Cut-back Asphalt
c) Emulsified Asphalt d) All of the above 743. To protect dowel from corrosion and to facilitate sliding in concrete, it shall be
coated with _________.
734. Retempering of concrete or mortar, which has partially hardened, will be Ans. thin film of bitumen
permitted with the addition of cement, aggregate or water.
a) yes b) no 744. The surface of the pavement shall be roughened by means of ____________.
c) it depends on the condition of concrete d) check the slump Ans. brooming
735. What is the minimum number of representative cores that shall be taken from 745. What is the depth of corrugation produce by brooming in the surface of the
each member area of concrete in place that is considered deficient? pavement? Ans. 1.5 mm.
a) 3 cores b) 4 cores
c) 5 cores d) core must be taken at 5 meter interval 746. The surface of the newly placed concrete when it is sufficiently set shall be
backward & forward of the designed sta. cured for a period of _________.
Ans. 72 hrs.
736. the strength level of concrete will be considered satisfactory if the average of
all sets of three consecutive strength test result equal or exceed the specified 747. The curing of the pavement are done on the following:
strength and no individual strength test result is deficient by more than how Ans.
many percent? a) 25% 1) by covering the concrete with mats saturated with water
b) 20% c) 15% 2) thoroughly wetting the pavement
d) 10% 3) by ponding
4) by applying curing compound after finishing of the surface
737. For major interchanges and busy intersection, PCCP will be allowed to open on
the ----------- to minimize occurrence of road congestion. 748. When the right time is the joint be sealed?
a) 14th day b) 10 th day Ans. after the curing period or before it is opened to traffic
th
c) 12 day d) 7 th day
749. What is item 504 in DPWH specification?
738. The width of the weaken plane joint is __________. Ans. Grouted Riprap
Ans. not more than 6 mm.
39 -
750. What is item 505 in DPWH specifications?
Ans. Stone Masonry
751. This is the empirical indicator of the clay fraction of a binder material in a
stabilized soil mixture.
a) Group Index b) Liquid Limit
c) Plasticity Index d) Plastic Limit
752. When water is added to the mixture to bring the slump within required limit, it
shall be injected into the mixer under such pressure and direction of flow that
the requirement for uniformity and desired slump of concrete are met. The
drum shall be turned on additional _______ revolution or more.
a) 10 revolutions b) 45 revolutions
c) 30 revolutions d) 15 revolutions
753. Job-mix formula submitted for approval shall propose definite single values
for, except _____. a) % of aggregate passing each specified sieve
b) temperature of the mixture delivered on the road
c) Percent of bituminous materials to be added
d) mixing time of the mixture in the batching plant
754. For small contract project of the DPWH located in remote areas where the
quality of cement to be used is too small and where there are no accessible
testing laboratory to check the quality of materials, exception in the
requirements for performance of laboratory test in cement prior to use may be
allowed provided that the trial mixes be done for every ___________.
a) deformation characteristic of soil
b) Engineering properties of the underlying soils
c) Arrangement of soil strata
d) Field Density of soil
755. How many days shall the Engineer be notified in advance of the date that the
treating process will be performed in order that the untreated lumber, the
treatment process and the finished treatment timber may all be inspected?
a) 15 days b) 10 days
c) 21 days d) 7 days
40 -

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MATERIALS

ITEM 100 – CLEARING AND GRUBBING

ITEM 101 – REMOVAL OF STRUCTURES AND OBSTRUCTIONS

ITEM 102 – EXCAVATION

ITEM 103 – STRUCTURE EXCAVATION

ITEM 104 – EMBANKMENT

ITEM 105 – SUBGRADE PREPARATION

ITEM 106 – COMPACTION EQUIPMENT AND DENSITY CONTROL STRIPS

ITEM 107 – OVERHAUL

PART D – SUB - BASE AND BASE COURSE

ITEM 200 – AGGREGATE SUBBASE COURSE

ITEM 201 – AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

For every 300 m3 or fraction thereof:

ITEM 202 – CRUSHED AGGREGATE BASE COURSE

ITEM 203 – LIME STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

ITEM 205 – ASPHALT STABILIZED ROAD MIX BASE COURSE

ITEM 206 – PORTLAND CEMENT STABILIZED TREATED PLANT MIX BASE

ITEM 207 – AGGREGATE STOCKPILE

PART E – SURFACE COURSES

ITEM 300 – AGGREGATE SURFACE COURSE

ITEM 301 – BITUMINOUS PRIME COAT

ITEM 302 – BITUMINOUS TACKCOAT

ITEM 303 – BITUMINOUS SEAL COAT

ITEM 304 – BITUMINOUS SURFACE TREATMENT

ITEM 305 – BITUMINOUS PENETRATION MACADAM PAVEMENT

ITEM 306 – BITUMINOUS ROAD MIX SURFACE COURSE

ITEM 307 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – GENERAL

ITEM 308 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX SURFACE COURSE – COLD LAID

ITEM 309 – BITUMINOUS PLANT – MIX (STOCKPILE MAINTENANCE

ITEM 310 – BITUMINOUS CONCRETE SURFACE COURSE – HOT LAID

ITEM 311 – PORTLAND CEMENT CONCRETE PAVEMENT

PART F – BRIDGE CONSTRUCTION

ITEM 401 – RAILINGS

ITEM 402 – TIMBER STRUCTURES

ITEM 403 – METAL STRUCTURES

ITEM 404 – REINFORCING STEEL

ITEM 405 – STRUCTURAL CONCRETE

ITEM 406 – PRE – STRESSED CONCRETE STRUCTURES

ITEM 407 – CONCRETE STRUCTURES

ITEM 408 – STEEL BRIDGES

ITEM 409 – WELDED STRUCTURAL STEEL

ITEM 410 – TREATED AND UNTREATED TIMBER

ITEM 411 – PAINT

ITEM 412 – ELASTOMETRIC BEARING PADS

ITEM 500 – PIPE CULVERTS AND STORMDRAINS

ITEM 501 – UNDERDRAINS

ITEM 502 – MANHOLES, INLETS AND CATCHBASINS

ITEM 503 – DRAINAGE STEEL GRATING WITH FRAME

ITEM 504 – CLEANING AND RECONDITIONING OF EXISTING DRAINAGE

ITEM 505 – RIPRAP AND GROUTED RIPRAP

ITEM 506 – STONE MASONRY

ITEM 508 – HAND – LAID ROCK EMBANKMENT

ITEM 509 – SHEET PILES

ITEM 510 – CONCRETE SLOPE PROTECTION

ITEM 511 – GABIONS

PART H – MISCELLANEOUS STRUCTURES

ITEM 600 – CURB AND GUTTER

ITEM 602 – MONUMENTS, MARKERS AND GUIDE POSTS

ITEM 603 – GUARDRAIL