Nursing Practice I 2010

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

NURSING PRACTICE 1 – Foundation of PROFESSIONAL Nursing


Practice
GENERAL INSTRUCTIONS:

1. This test booklet contains 100 test questions


2. Read INSTRUCTIONS TO EXAMINESS printed on your answer sheet.
3. Shade only one (1) box for each question on your answer sheets. Two or more boxes
shaded will invalidate your answer.
4. AVOID ERASURES.

INSTRUCTIONS:
1. Detach one (1) answer sheet from the bottom of your Examinee ID/Answer Sheet Set.
2. Write the subject title “Nursing Practice I” on the box provided.
3. Shade Set Box “A” on your answer sheet if your test booklet is Set A; Set Box “B” if your test
booklet is Set B.

SITUATION: Nursing ethics is an important part of the nursing profession. As the ethical situation
arises, so is the need to have an accurate and ethical decision making.

1. The purposes of having a nurses code of ethics is:

A. Delineate the scope and areas of nursing practice


B. To help the public understand professional conduct expected of nurses
C. To define the roles and functions of the health care givers, nurses, clients.
D. Identify nursing action recommended for specific health care situations.

2. The principles that govern right and proper conduct of a person regarding life biology and
the health professionals as referred to as:

A. Morality B. Religion C. Values D. Bioethics

3. According to the code of ethics, which of the following is the primary responsibility of the
nurse?

A. Assist towards peaceful death


B. Preservation of health at all cost
C. Health is a fundamental right
D. Promotion of health, prevention of illness and restoration of health

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B
4. Which of following is TRUE about the Code of Ethics of Filipino Nurses?

A. The Philippine Nurses Association for being the accredited, professional organization
was given the privilege to formulate a Code of Ethics for Nurses which the Board of Nursing
promulgated.
B. Code for Nurse was first formulated in 1982 published in the Proceedings of the Third
Annual Convention of the PNA House of the Delegates.
C. The present code utilized the Code of Good Governance for the Professions in the
Philippines.
D. Certificates of Registration of registered nurses may be revoked or suspended for
violations of any provisions of the Code of Ethics.

5. Based on the Code of Ethics for Filipino Nurses, what is regarded as the hallmark of nursing
responsibility and accountability?

A. Health, being a fundamental right for every individual


B. The privilege of being a registered professional nurses
C. Human rights of clients regardless of creed and gender
D. Accurate documentation of actions and outcomes

6. Violation of the Code of Ethics might equate to the revocation of the nursing license. Who
revokes the license?

A. PRC B. BON C. DOH D. PNA

7. Values are said to be the enduring believe about a worth of a person, ideas and belief. If
values are going to be a part of a research, this is categorized under:

A. Qualitative B. Quantitative C. Experiment D. Non-experimental

8. Subject feeling about what is right or wrong is said to be:

A. Morality B. Religion C. Values D. Bioethics

9. The most important nursing responsibility where ethical situations emerge in patient care is
to:

A. Act only when advised that the action is ethically sound


B. Be accountable for his or her own actions
C. Not takes sides, remain neutral and fair
D. Assume that ethical questions are the responsibility of the health team.

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

10. Why is there an ethical dilemma?

A. The choices involved do not appear to be clearly right or wrong

B. Decision has to be made based on societal norms


C. A clients legal right co-exist with the nurses professional obligation
D. Decision has to be made quickly, often under stressful conditions.

SITUATION; Knowledge of the acid-base disturbance and the functions of the electrolytes is
necessary to appropriate intervention and nursing actions;

11. Eddie with diabetes milletus has a blood glucose level of 844 mg/dl. The nurse interprets
that Eddie has which acid base imbalance?

A. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis


B. Respiratory alkalosis. D. Metabolic alkalosis

12. In a client in the health care clinic, arterial blood has analysis gives the following result: ph
7.48, PCO 2 32 mmHg, PO2 94 mmHg, HCO3 24 mEq/L. The nurse interprets that the
client has which acid base disturbance?

A. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis


B. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

13. Rudy has an order for ABG analysis on radial artery specimens. The nurse ensures that
which of the following has been performed or tested before the ABG specimens are drawn?

A. Guthrie test B. Allen’s test C. Romberg’s test D. Weber’s test

14. A nurse is reviewing that arterial blood gas values of client and notes that the pH is 7.31
PCO2 is 50 mmHg, and the bicarbonate is 27mEg/l. The nurse concludes that which acid
base disturbance is present in this client?

A. Respiratory acidosis C. Metabolic acidosis


B. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

15. Gerry’s test checks the patency of the:

A. Ulnar artery B. Radial artery C. Carotid artery D. Brachial artery

SITUATION: Beth G. Valencia, 45 years old is admitted to the hospital with diagnosis of renal
calculi. She is experiencing severe flank pain with a temperature of 39 C.

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

16. Where would the nurse taps Beth G. Valencia indwelling catheter in order to reduce urethral
irritation?

A. To the patient inner thigh C. To the patient buttocks


B. To the patient lower thigh D. To the patient’s lower abdomen

17. How will you prevent ascending infection to Beth G. Valencia who has an indwelling
catheter?

A. See to it that the drainage tubing touches the level of the urine
B. See to it that the drainage tubing does not touch the level of the urine
C. Change the catheter every eight hours
D. Clean catheter may be used since urethral meatus is not a sterile area.

18. Given the above assessment date, the most immediate goal of the nurse would be which of
the following?

A. Prevent urinary complication C. Alleviating nausea


B. Maintains fluid and electrolytes D. Alleviate pain

19. After IVP a renal was confirmed, a left nephrectomy was done. Her post operative order
includes, “daily urine specimen to be sent to the laboratory”. Beth G. Valencia has a foley
catheter attached to a urinary drainage system. How will you collect the urine specimen?

A. Disconnect the drainage from the collecting bag and allow the urine to flow from catheter
into the specimen container
B. Empty a sample urine from the collecting bag into the specimen container
C. Remove urine from drainage tube with sterile needle and syringe and empty urine from
the syringe into the specimen container
D. Disconnect the drainage tube from the indwelling catheter and allow urine to flow from
catheter into the specimen container

20. Which of the following menu is appropriate for one with low sodium diet?

A. Canned soup, potato salad and diet soda


B. Ham and cheese sandwich, fresh fruits and vegetables
C. White chicken sandwich, vegetables salad and tea
D. Instant noodles, fresh fruits and ice tea

SITUATION; Health care delivery system affects the health status of every Filipino. As a nurse,
knowledge of this system is expected to ensure quality of life.

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

21. Which makes nursing dynamic?

A. Every patient is a unique physical, emotional, social and spiritual being.


B. The health status of the patient is constantly changing and the nurse must be cognisant
and responsive to these changes.
C. Nursing practice is expanding in the light of modern development that takes place
D. The patient participation in the over all nursing care plan

22. When should rehabilitation commence.

A. The day before discharge C. When the patient desires


B. 24 hours after discharge D. Upon admission

23. This form of health insurance provides comprehensive prepaid health services to enrollees
for a periodic payment.

A. Health Maintenance Organization C. Philippine Health Insurance Act


B. Hospital Maintenance Organization D. Medicare

24. What exemplified the preventive and promotive programs in the hospital?

A. Program for alcoholic and drug addicts


B. Hospital as a center to prevent & control infection
C. Program for smokers
D. Hospital wellness center

25. Prevention is an important responsibility of the nurse in:

A. Community B. Hospital C. Workplace D. All of the above

SITUATION; Recognition of normal values is vital in assessment of clients with various disorders.

26. As a nurse is reviewing the laboratory test result for a client with a diagnosis of severe
dehydration. The nurse would expect the hematocrit level for this client to be which of the
following?

A. 60% B. 32% C. 45% D. 47%

27. Which of the following laboratory test result indicate presence of an infectious process?

A. Iron 90 g/100ml C. Erythrocyte sedimentary rate is 12mm/hr


B. White blood cells 18,000/mm D. Neutrophils 67%

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

28. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte results of an assigned client and notes that the
potassium level is 5.6mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the
ECG as a result of this laboratory value?

A. ST Depression C. Prominent U wave


B. Inverted T wave D. Tall peaked wave

29. A nurse is reviewing the electrolyte result of an assigned client and notes that the potassium
level is 3.2 mEq/L. Which of the following would the nurse expect to note on the ECG as a
result of this laboratory value?

A. U waves B. Absent P wave C. Elevated wav D. Elevated ST segment

30. Erik, was underwent diagnostic test and the result of the blood examination are back. On
reviewing the result the nurse notices which of the following as abnormal finding?

A. Iron 75 mg/100ml C. Erthrocyte sedimentary rate is 39mm/hr


B. Neutrophils 60% D. White blood cells (WBC) 9000/mm

SITUATION: Pleural effusion is the accumulation of fluid in the pleural space. Questions 31 to 35
refer to this.

31. Which of the following is a finding that the nurse will be able to asses in a client with Pleural
effusion?

A. Reduced or absent breath sound at the base of the lungs, dyspnea, tachypnea and
shortness of breath.
B. Hypoxemia, hypercapnea and respiratory acidosis
C. Noisy respiration, crackles, stridor and wheezing
D. Tracheal deviation towards the affected side, increased fremitus and loud breath sounds

32. Thoracentesis is performed to the client with effusion. The nurse knows that the removal of
fluid should be slow. Rapid removal of fluid in thoracentisis might cause:

A. Pneumothorax C. Cardiovascular collapse


B. Pleurisy or Pleuritis D. Hypertension

33. 3 days after thoracentesis, the client again exhibited respiratory distress. The nurse will
know that pleural effusion has reoccurred when she noticed a sharp stabbing pain during
inspiration. The physician ordered a closed tube thoracotomy for the client, the nurse knows
that the primary function of the chest tube is to:

A. To visualize the intrathoracic content


B. Restore negative intrathoracic pressure
C. Restore positive intrathoracic pressure

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B
D. As a method of air administration via ventilator

34. The test tube is functioning properly if:

A. There is an oscillation
B. There is a continuous bubbling in the waterseal
C. The sunction control bottle has a continuous bubbling
D. There is no bubbling in the drainage bottle

35. In a client with pleural effusion the nurse is instructing appropriate breathing technique.
Which of the following is included in the teaching?

A. Hold the breath after each inspiration for 1 full minute


B. Breath normally
C. Practice abdominal breathing
D. Inhale slowly and hold the breath for 3 to e seconds

SITUATION: Documentation and reporting are just important as providing patient care. As such,
the nurse must be punctual and accurate to sure quality documentation and reporting.

36. Health care reports have different purposes. The availability of patients record to all health
team members demonstrates which of the following purposes:

A. Legal documentation C. Education


B. Research D. Vehicle for communication

37. When a nurse commits medication error, she should accurately document client’s response
and her corresponding action. This is very important for which of the following purposes:

A. Nursing audit C. Legal documentation


B. Research D. Vehicle for communication

38. POMR has been widely used in many teaching hospitals. One of its unique features is
SOAPIE charting. The P in SOAPIE charting should include;

A. Patient’s perception of one’s illness


B. Plan of care for patient
C. Prescription of the doctor to the patient’s illness
D. Nursing problem and nursing diagnosis

39. The medical records that are organizes into separate section from doctors or nurses has
more disadvantages than advantages. This is classified as what type of recording?

A. POMR B. SOAPIE C. Modified POMR D. SOMR

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

40. Which of the following is an advantage of SOMR or traditional recording?

A. Increase efficiency in data gathering


B. The care giver can easily locate proper section for making charting entries
C. Reinforces the use of nursing process
D. Enhances effective communication among health care members

SITUATION: Carl John Cruz is a 24 year old client with symptoms of dyspnea, absent breath
sounds on the right lung and chest x-ray revealed pleural effusion. The physician will perform
thoracentesis.

41. Thoracenhesis is useful in treating all of the following pulmonary disorder except:

A. Hydrothorax B. Tuberculosis C. Hemothorax D. Empyema

42. Before thoracentesis, the legal consideration you must check is:

A. Consent is sign by the client C. Medicine preparation is correct


B. Position of the client is correct D. Consent signed by relative & physician

43. Which of the following anaesthetics drug is used for thoracentesis?

A. Procaine 2% B. Valium 250mg C. Demerol 75% D. Phenobarbital 50mg

44. Which of the following psychological preparation is not relevant for him?

A. Telling him to keep still during the procedure to facilitate the insertion of the needle in the
correct place
B. Telling him that the gauge of the needle and anesthesia to be used
C. Allow Carl to express his feelings and concerns
D. Physician’s explanation on the purpose of the procedure and how it will be done.

SITUATION: ENTEROSTOMAL THERAPY is now considered a specialty in nursing. You are


participating in the OSTOMY CARE CLASS.

45. The nurse is teaching a client how to irrigate his stoma, which action indicates that the client
needs more teaching?

A. Filling the irrigation bag with 500 to 1,000 ml of lukewarm water.


B. Washing hands with soap and water when finished
C. Stopping irrigation for cramps and clamping the tubing until cramps pass
D. Hanging the irrigation bag 24” to 36” (60 to 90 cm) above the sloma.

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

46. During colostomy irrigation the client complains of a cramping sensation with the fluid was
introduce. Which of the following is a correct nursing action?

A. Clamp the irrigating tube


B. Pinch or kink the irrigating tube temporarily
C. Continue the irrigation
D. Temporarily stop the irrigation

47. The client ask the nurse, when is the best time to perform irrigation? The nurse would
answer.

A. Early morning before meals


B. Early morning before meals upon arising
C. Early morning after meals
D. Early morning

48. When observing a return demonstration of a colostomy irrigation, you know that more
teaching is required if :

A. Clamps of the flow of fluid when filling uncomfortable


B. Lubricates the tip of the catheter prior to inserting into the stoma
C. Hangs the irrigating bag on the bathroom door cloth, hook during fluid insertion
D. Discontinues the insertion of fluid after 500ml of fluid has been instilled.

49. You are aware that teaching about colostomy care is understood when client states,” I will
contact my physician and report:

A. If I have any difficulty inserting the irrigating tub into the stoma
B. If I noticed a loss of sensation to touch in the stoma tissue
C. The expulsion of flatus while the irrigating fluid is running out
D. When mucus is passed from the stoma between the irrigation

50. The physician orders a stool culture to help diagnose a client with prolonged diarrhea. The
nurse who obtains the stool specimen from the colostomy stoma should:

A. Take the specimen to the laboratory immediately


B. Collect the specimen in a sterile container
C. Collect the specimen in a clean container
D. Perform a midstream clean catch collection

SITUATION: Lady Manahan is rush to the emergency room and you are his attending nurse. You
are performing a vital sign assessment

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

51. All of the following are correct methods in assessment of the blood pressure: EXCEPT

A. Take the blood pressure reading on both arms for comparison


B. Observe procedures for infection control
C. Pump the cuff to around 50 mmHg above the point where the pulse is obliterated
D. Listen to and identify the phrases of korotkoffs sound

52. You attached a pulse oximeter to the client. you know that the purpose is to:

A. Check level of client’s tissue perfusion


B. Detect oxygen saturation of arterial blood before symptoms of hypoxemia develops
C. Measure the efficacy of the client’s anti-hypertensive medication
D. Determine if the client’s hemoglobin level is low & if she needs blood transfusion

53. After a few hours in the Emergency Room, Lady Manahan is admitted to the ward with an
order of hourly monitoring of blood pressure. The nurse finds that the cuff is too narrow and
this will cause the blood pressure reading to be:

A. Inconsistent C. Higher than what the reading should be


B. Low systolic and high diastolic D. Lower than what the reading should be

54. Through Lady’s health history you gather that Lady smokes and drinks coffee. When taking
the blood pressure of Lady who recently smoked or drank coffee, how long should the nurse
wait before taking Christine’s blood pressure for accurate reading?

A. 15 minutes B. 30 minutes C. 15 seconds D. 1 to 2 minutes

55. While Lady Manahan has pulse oximeter on his fingertip, you notice that the sunlight is
shining on the area where is the oximeter. Your action will be to:

A. Change the location of the sensor every four hours


B. Set and turn on the alarm of the oximeter
C. Cover the fingertip sensor with a towel or bed sheet
D. Do nothing since there is no identified problem

56. The nurse finds it necessary to recheck the blood pressure reading. In case of such
reassessment, the nurse should wait for a period of:

A. 15 seconds B. 1 to 2 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 15 minutes

57. If the alarm is said to be elevated when taking the blood pressure reading, it will create:

A. True false reading C. Indeterminate


B. False low reading D. False high reading

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

58. You are to assessed the temperature of Lady Manahan, the next morning and found out that
she ate ice cream. How many minutes should wait before assessing Christine oral
temperature?

A. 20 minutes B. 10 minutes C. 30 minutes D. 15 minutes

59. When auscultating the Lady’s blood pressure the nurse hears the following. From 150
mmHg to 130 mmHg. Silence, then thumping sounds continuing down to 100 mmHg,
muffled sound, continuing down to 80 mmHg and then silence. What is the Christine’s blood
pressure?

A. 130/80 B. 150/100 C. 100/80 D. 130/100


.
60. In a client with a previous blood pressure of 130/80, 4 hours ago. How long will it take to
release the blood pressure cuff to obtain an accurate reading?

A. 30-45 seconds B. 10-20 seconds C. 1-1.5 minutes D. 3-3.5 minutes

SITUATION: As a profession, nursing is dynamic and its practice’s directed by various theoretical
models. To demonstrate caring behavior, the nurse applies various nursing models in providing
quality nursing care.

61. When you clean the bedside in it and regularly attend to the personal hygiene of the patient
as well as in washing your hands before and after a procedure and it between patients, you
intend to facilitate the body’s reparative process. Which of the following nursing theory are
you applying in the above nursing action?

A. Virginia Henderson C. Hildegard Peplau


B. Dorothea Orem D. Florence Nightingale

62. A communication skills is one of the important competencies expected of a nurse.


Interpersonal process is viewed as human to human relationship. The statement is an
application of whose nursing model?

A. Callista Roy B. Joyce Travelbee C. Martha Rogers D. Imogene King

63. The statement,” the health status of an individual is constantly changing and the nurse must
be cognizant and responsive to these changes” best explains which of the following facts
about nursing?

A. Dynamic B. Client centered C. Holistic D. Art

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

64. Virginia Henderson professes that the goal of nursing is to work interdependently with other
health care working in assisting the patient to gain interdependence as quickly as possible.
Which of the following nursing actions best demonstrates this theory in taking care of a 94
year old client with dementia who is totally immobile?

A. Feeds the patient, brushes the teeth, gives the sponges bath
B. Put the patient in semi fowler’s position, set the over bed table so the patient can eat by
himself, brush his teeth and sponge himself
C. Supervise the watcher in rendering patient his morning care
D. Assist the patient to turn to his sides and allow him to brush and feed himself only when
he feels ready

65. In the self care deficit theory by Dorothea Orem, nursing care becomes necessary when a
patient is unable to fulfill his psychological and social needs. A pregnant client needing
prenatal check is classified as:

A. Partially compensatory C. Supportive Educative


B. Wholly compensatory. D. Non-compensatory

SITUATION: The nurse has been asked to administer an injection via Z-track technique. Questions
17 to 21 refer to this.

66. The nurse prepares an IM injection for an adult client using Z-track technique, 4 ml of
medication is to be administered to the client. which of the following site will be use?

A. Rectus femoris B. Deltoid C. Ventrogluteal D. Vastus lateralis

67. In infants 1 year old and below, which of the following is the site of choice for intramuscular
injection?

A. Rectus femoris B. Deltoid C. Ventrogluteal D. Vastus lateralis

68. In order to decrease discomfort in Z-track technique, which of the following is applicable?

A. Pierce the skin quickly and smoothly at a 90 degree angle


B. Pierce the skin slowly and carefully at 90 degree angle
C. Inject the medication steadily at around 10 minutes per milliliter
D. Pull back the plunger and aspirate for 4 minutes to make sure that the needles did not hit
a blood vessel

69. The rationale in using the Z-track technique in an intramuscular injection is:

A. In decreases the leakage of discolouring and irritating medication into the subcutaneous
tissues
B. It allow a faster absorption of the medication

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B
C. The Z-track technique prevent irritation of the muscles
D. It is much more convenient for the nurse

70. After injection using Z-track technique, the nurse should know that needs to wait for a few
seconds before withdrawing the needle and this is to allow the medication to disperse into
the muscle tissue, thus decreasing the client’s discomfort. How many seconds should the
nurse wait before withdrawing the needle?

A. 2 seconds B. 5 seconds C. 10 seconds D. 15 seconds

SITUATION: Oral care is an important part of hygienic practices and promoting client comfort.

71. An elderly client, 85 years old, is unconscious. Assessment of the mouth reveals excessive
dryness and presence of sores. Which of the following is BEST to use for oral care?

A. Mineral oil C. Lemon Glycerine


B. Hydrogen peroxide D. Normal saline solution

72. When performing oral care to an unconscious client, which of the following is a special
consideration to prevent aspiration of fluids into the lungs?

A. Wash hands and observe appropriate infection control


B. Keep the client dry by placing towel under the chin
C. Put the client on a side lying position with head of bed lowered
D. Clean mouth with oral swabs in a careful and an orderly progression

73. The advantages of oral care for a client include all of the following, EXCEPT

A. Improves client ‘s appearance and self confidence


B. Decreases bacteria in the mouth and teeth
C. Reduces need to use commercial mouthwash which irritate buccal mucosa
D. Improves appetite and taste of food

74. A possible problem while providing oral care to unconscious client is the risk of fluid
aspiration to lungs. This can be avoided by:

A. Use fingers wrapped with wet cotton wash cloth to rub inside the cheeks, tongue, lips
and gums
B. Swabbing the inside of the cheeks and lips, tongue and gums with dry cotton.
C. Cleaning teeth and mouth with cotton swabs soaked with mouth wash to avoid rinsing
the buccal cavity
D. Suctioning as needed while cleaning the buccal cavity

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

75. Your client has difficult of breathing and is mouth breathing most of the time. This causes
dryness of the mouth with unpleasant odor. Oral hygiene is recommended for the client and
in addition, you will keep the mouth moistened by using:

A. Salt solution B. Water C. Petroleum jelly D. Mentholated ointment

SITUATION: Ensuring safety before, during and after a diagnostic procedure is an important
responsibility of the nurse.

76. To help Charlemagne better tolerate the bronchoscopy, you should instruct him to practice ,
which of the following prior to the procedure?

A. Holding his breath periodically for 30 seconds


B. Tensing the shoulder muscles while lying on his back
C. Breathing in and out through the nose with his mouth open
D. Cleansing his fist every 2 minutes

77. Right after thoracentesis, which of the following is most appropriate intervention?

A. Place an ice pack to the puncture site


B. Observe for symptoms of tightness of chest or bleeding
C. Instruct the patient not to cough or deep breath for two hours
D. Remove the dressing to check for bleeding

78. Following a bronchoscopy, which of the following complains to Charlemagne should be


noted as possible complication:

A. Blood tinged sputum and coughing


B. Shortness of breath and laryngeal stridor
C. Sore throat and hoarseness
D. Nausea and vomiting

79. Immediately after bronchoscopy, you instructed Charlemagne to:

A. Exercise the neck muscles C. Breath deeply


B. Refrain from coughing and taking D. Clear hi throat

80. Thoracentesis may be performed for cytologic study of pleural fluid. As a nurse your most
important function during the procedure is to:

A. Open and close three-way stopcock


B. Keep the sterile equipment from contamination
C. Assist the physician
D. Observe the patient’s vital sign

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

SITUATION: As a nurse, you are aware that proper documentation in the patient chart is your
responsibility.

81. Which of the following is not a legally binding documents but nevertheless very important in
the care of all patients in any health care setting?

A. Board of nursing resolution adopting the code of ethics


B. Bill of rights as provided in the Philippines constitution
C. Scope of nursing practice as defined by RA 9173
D. Patient’s bill of rights

82. Delegation is the process of assigning tasks that can be performed by subordinates. The RN
should always be accountable and should not lose the accountability. Which of the following
is a role included in delegation?

A. The RN is responsible and accountable for the delegated task in adjunct with the
delegates
B. After a task has been delegated, it is no longer a responsibility of the RN.
C. Follow up with a delegated task is necessary only if the assistive personnel not
trustworthy.
D. The RN must supervise all delegated task.

83. A nurse gives a wrong medication to the client, another nurse employed by the same
hospital as a risk manager will expected to receive, which of the following communication?

A. Incident report B. Oral report C. Nursing kardex D. Complain report

84. Performing a procedure on a client in the absence of an informed concent can lead to which
of the following charges?

A. Harrasment B. Fraud C. Assault & battery D. Breach of confidentiality

85. Which of the following is the essence of informed concent?

A. It should have coverage from an insurance company


B. It should respect the client’s freedom from coercion
C. It should have a durable power of attorney
D. It should disclose previous diagnosis, prognosis and alternative treatments available for
the client.

SITUATION: Baby S. Singson, a staff nurse supervisor requests all the staff nurses to brainstorm
and learn ways to instruct diabetic clients on administration of insulin. She wants to ensure that
there are nurses available daily to do health education classes.

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

86. The plan of the nurse supervisor is an example of:

A. Increasing human resources


B. Efficient management of human resources
C. In service education process
D. Primary prevention

87. When Baby S. Singson, a nurse delegates aspects of the client’s care to the nurse aide,
who is unlicensed staff, Mrs. Baby S. Singson

A. Is assigning the responsibility to the aide but not the accountability for those task
B. Makes the assignment to teach the staff member
C. Does not have to supervise or evaluate the aide
D. Most know how to perform task delegated

88. Liza P. Guevarra, the new nurse appears tired and sluggist and lacks the enthusiasm, she
had six weeks ago when she started the job. The nurse supervisor should:

A. Emphatize with the nurse and listen to her


B. Discuss how she is adjusting to her new job
C. Tell her to take the day off
D. Ask about her family life

89. Process of formal negotiations of working conditions between a group of registered nurses
and employee is:

A. Arbitration B. Grievance C. Collective bargaining D. Strike

90. You are attending a certification on cardio pulmonary resuscitation (CPR) offered and
required by the hospital employee only. This is

A. Professional course towards credit C. Advance training


B. In-service education D. Continuing education

SITUATION: Hormones are secreted by the various glands in the body. Basic knowledge of the
endocrine system is necessary.

91. Somatocrinin or the Growth hormone, releasing hormone is secreted by the:

A. Posterior pituitary gland C. Anterior pituitary gland


B. Hypothalamus D. Tyroid gland

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B

92. All of the following are secreted by the anterior pituitary gland EXCEPT:

A. Somatotropin / Growth hormone


B. Follicle stimulating hormone
C. Thyroid stimulating hormone
D. Gonadotropin hormone releasing hormone

93. Calcitonin, a hormone necessary for calcium regulation is secreted in the:

A. Thyroid gland B. Hypothalamus C. Parathyroid gland D. Anterior pituitary gland

94. While Parathormone, a hormone that negates the effect of calcitonin is secreted by the:

A. Thyroid gland B. Hypothalamus C. Parathyroid gland D. Anterior pituitary

95. All of the following hormones secreted by the Posterior pituitary gland EXCEPT:

A. Vasopressin B. Oxytocins C. Anti-diuretic hormone D. Growth hormone

SITUATION: When creating your lesson plan for cerebro vascular disease or STROKE. It is
important to include the risk factor of stroke.

96. The most important risk factor of stroke is:

A. Cigarette smoking B. Hypertension C. Binge drinking D. Heredity

97. Part of your lesson plan is to talk about etiology or cause of stroke. The types of stroke
based on cause are the following EXCEPT:

A. Embolic stroke B. Hemorrhagic stroke C. Diabetic stroke D. Thrombotic stroke

98. A participant in the STROKE class asks what is a risk factor of stroke. Your best response is:

A. Increased RBC count in linked to high cholesterol


B. More red blood cell increases hemoglobin content
C. More red blood cell thicken blood and make clots more possible
D. High RBC count increases blood pressure

99. The nurse emphasizes the intravenous drug abuse carrie a high risk of stroke. Your best
response is:

A. Amphetamines B. Cocaine C. Shabu D. Demerol

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NURSING PRACTICE I – SET B
100. Hemorrhagic stroke occurs suddenly usually when person is active. All are causes of
hemorrhage, EXCEPT:

A. Damage to blood vessel B. Trauma C. Phlebitis D. Aneurysm

SUBMIT THIS TEST BOOKLET TOGETHER WITH THE ANSWER SHEET TO


YOUR WATCHERS. BRINGING THE TEST BOOKLET OUT OF THE ROOM WILL
BE A GROUND FOR CANCELLATION OF YOUR EXAMINATION.

***END***

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