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4. Koordinasi di dalam kegiatan pencarian dan pertolongan (Coordinate search and

rescue operations )
1. According to the IAMSAR Manual, what is the expected survival time for a person
in water of 4-10 degrees Celsius, without special protective clothing?
A. Less than 3 hours.
B. Less than 1 hour.
C. Less than 6 hours.
D. Less than 12 hours.

2. If a master initially responds to a distress but then, in special circumstances, decides

not to proceed, what must he then do?
A. Inform the appropriate search and
rescue authorities of his decision
and enter the reason in the ship's
logbook.
B. If possible, inform the casualty of
his decision and communicate his
reasons.
C. Inform his owners of his decision
and resume his passage at the earliest opportunity.
D. Contact the SAR Mission Co-ordinator and secure his written agreement to
the release of his vessel from the operation.

3. In what format will an On-Scene Co-ordinator report such information as on-scene

weather and operation progress to other parties?
A. SITREP.
B. POSREP.
C. SARREP.
D. OSCREP.

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4. It has been shown that the controlled release of oil is effective in reducing the
effects of the sea, making it possible for a rescue craft to approach survivors in the
water. How many square metres does the IAMSAR Manual suggest may be
calmed by releasing 200 litres of lubricating oil slowly through a rubber hose with
the outlet maintained just above the surface while the ship proceeds at slow speed?
A. Approx 5,000 square metres.
B. Approx 500 square metres.
C. Approx 50 square metres.
D. Approx 50,000 square metres.

5. The recommended distance between parallel tracks (track spacing) in a search for a
casualty by a surface vessel varies (amongst other factors) according to visibility
and the nature of the target in the IAMSAR Manual. These distances are then
normally adjusted for prevailing weather conditions. If visibility was 5 nautical
miles and you were looking for a six-person liferaft, what would the recommended
uncorrected track spacing be?
A. 3.6 nautical miles.
B. 2.5 nautical miles.
C. 5.0 nautical miles.
D. 0.7 nautical miles.

6. Under most circumstances, how will communication be carried out between a ship
and a SAR helicopter?
A. On VHF Ch 16.
B. On VHF Ch 70.
C. On 121.5 mhz.
D. On 410 khz.

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7. What are the three volumes of the IAMSAR Manual?

A. I Organization and Management II
Mission Co-ordination III Mobile
Facilities.
B. I Organization II Communications III
Rescue Procedures
C. A Command and Control B
Communications C Rescue
Procedures
D. I Planning and Preparation II Rescue Control III Reference

8. What is the name of the reference manual, jointly produced by the International
Maritime Organization and the International Civil Aviation Authority, which
currently outlines the organization and management of search and rescue activities
at sea?
A. The International Aeronautical and Maritime
Search and Rescue (IAMSAR) Manual.
B. The Search and Rescue (IMOSAR) Manual.
C. The Merchant Ship Search and Rescue
(MERSAR) Manual.
D. The Internation Maritime Search and Rescue
(IMARSAR) Manual.

9. What is the world-wide system operated by the US Coast Guard exclusively in

support of search and rescue operations?
A. The Automated Mutual-Assistance Vessel
Rescue (AMVER) System.
B. The International Search and Rescue
Coordination System.
C. The Worldwide Maritime Mutual
Assistance Programme (WMMAP).
D. The U.S. Command and Control Rescue (USCOMR) Service.

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10. What type of search pattern is recommended in the IAMSAR Manual as most
effective when the location of the search object is known within relatively close
limits?
A. Expanding Square Search.
B. Sector Search.
C. Track Line Search.
D. Parallel Sweep Search.

11. Where several rescue units are engaged in a search and rescue operation, one of
will be designated as the On-Scene Commander (OSC). Which of the following
descibes how this appointment will be made?
A. The OSC will always be
designated by the nearest Rescue
Coordination Centre. No other
vessel may assume the role at any
time.
B. The first rescue unit to arrive at the
scene will normally assume the
role of OSC, until the unit
appointed as OSC by the SAR
Mission Co-ordinator at the applicable RCC is in a position to take control.
C. The OSC will initially be a controlling aircraft. Once a suitable vessel is on
scene, the responsibility will be passed to them.
D. The role of OSC can only be taken by a naval ship with suitable command
and control capability. In many regions, such vessels are permanently
assigned on stand-by to assume such a role.

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12. Who is responsible for the ship being safely manned?

A. The master and the shipowner are responsible for the adequate manning of
the ship.
B. The General of Sea Transportation is responsible for the ship being at all
times adequately manned in accordance with National acts and regulations.
C. The shipping company shall ensure that information on the number and
composition of the crew is posted in the ship and has the sole responsibility
for the ship being adequately manne
D. The manning agent is responsible for supplying the ship with adequately
qualified seafarers.

13. How many separate means of escape from passengers and crew spaces should it be
in each zone?
A. Two
B. One
C. Three
D. Four

14. What is a passenger ship according to SOLAS regulations?

A. A ship which carries more than 12 passengers
B. A ship which is arranged and fitted for carriage of persons which are not
members of the ship's crew
C. A ship which carries passengers only
D. A purpose-built passenger ship carrying persons only on defined lines or
routes

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15. A decision support system for emergency management shall be provided on the
navigation bridge. What type of emergency situations shall as a minimum be
identified in the emergency plans?
A. Fire, Damage to ship, Pollution, Unlawful acts
threatening the safety of the ship and the
security of its passenger and crew, Pesonnel
accidents, Cargo-related accidents, Emergency
assistance to other ships
B. Fire, Evacuation, Pollution, Personnel accidents and Ship Security
C. Evacuation, Fire, Pollution and Man-Over-Board
D. Man-Over-Board, Evacuation and Fire

16. Emergency instructions in appropriate languages shall be posted in passenger

cabins. Which information shall as a minimum be included in the emergency
instructions?
A. The method of donning life-jackets, escape routes and alarm signals
B. Escape routes and alarm signals
C. Name of cabin attendant
D. Where to find thermal protective aids

17. Records of tests and inspections of a cargo vessel's fire extinguishing systems shall
be kept on board __________.
A. For 1 year
B. For 2 years
C. Until the next Coast Guard inspection
D. Until the vessel's Certificate of Inspection expires

18. You are alone and administering CPR to an adult victim. How many chest
compressions and how many inflations should you administer in each sequence?
A. 5 compressions then 1 inflation
B. 15 compressions then 2 inflations
C. 20 compressions then 3 inflations
D. 30 compressions then 4 inflations

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19. A patient in shock should NOT be placed in which position?

A. On their side if unconscious
B. Head down and feet up, no injuries to face or head
C. Flat on their back with head and feet at the same level
D. Arms above their head

20. Your liferaft is to leeward of a fire on the water and riding to its sea anchor. You
should FIRST __________.
A. Boat the sea anchor
B. Paddle away from the fire
C. Splash water over the liferaft to cool it
D. Get out of the raft and swim to safety

21. A yellow signal floating in the air from a small parachute, about 300 feet above the
water, would indicate that a submarine __________.
A. Has fired a torpedo during a drill
B. Is about to rise to periscope depth
C. Is on the bottom in distress
D. Is disabled and unable to surface

22. When giving mouth-to-mouth rescue breathing to an adult, you should breathe at
the rate of how many breaths per minute?
A. 4
B. 8
C. 12
D. 20

23. The operator of the ship's radiotelephone, if the radiotelephone is carried

voluntarily, must hold at least a __________.
A. Mate's license
B. Restricted radiotelephone operator permit
C. Second-class radio operator's license
D. Seaman's document

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24. Coast Guard regulations require that all of the following emergencies be covered at
the periodic drills on a fishing vessel EXCEPT __________.
A. Minimizing the affects of unintentional flooding
B. Fire on board
C. Rescuing an individual from the water
D. Emergency towing

25. Your ship is sinking rapidly. A container containing an inflatable liferaft has
bobbed to the surface upon functioning of the hydrostatic release. Which action
should you take?
A. Cut the painter line so it will not pull the liferaft container down.
B. Swim away from the container so you will not be in danger as it goes down.
C. Take no action because the painter will cause the liferaft to inflate and open
the container.
D. Manually open the container and inflate the liferaft with the hand pump.

26. The galley on your cargo vessel has an area of 2,500 square feet. What would fulfill
the minimum requirements for fire protection?
A. One B-I extinguisher
B. One B-II extinguisher
C. One B-II and one C-II extinguisher
D. One B-V extinguisher

27. The rescuer can best provide an airtight seal during mouth-to-mouth resuscitation
by pinching the victim's nostrils and __________.
A. Cupping a hand around the patient's mouth
B. Keeping the head elevated
C. Applying his mouth tightly over the victim's mouth
D. Holding the jaw down firmly

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28. Inflatable liferafts are less maneuverable than lifeboats due to their __________.
A. Shape
B. Shallow draft
C. Large sail area
D. All of the above

29. Which single-letter sound signal(s) may only be made in compliance with the
Rules of the Road?
A. D
B. E
C. S
D. All of the above

30. When applying chest compressions on an adult victim during CPR, the sternum
should be depressed about __________.
A. 1/2 inch or less
B. 1/2 to 1 inch
C. 1 to 1-1/2 inches
D. 1-1/2 to 2 inches

31. If an inflatable liferaft is overturned, it may be righted by __________.

A. Filling the stabilizers on one side with water
B. Releasing the CO2 cylinder
C. Pushing up from under one end
D. Standing on the inflating cylinder and pulling on the straps on the underside
of the raft

32. On surface type offshore drilling units, each survival craft must be capable of being
launched to the water at the minimum operating draft, under unfavorable conditions
of trim and with the unit listed not less than __________.
A. 6°
B. 12°
C. 20°
D. 25°
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33. Changing rescuers while carrying out artificial respiration should be done
__________.
A. Without losing the rhythm of respiration
B. Only with the help of two other people
C. By not stopping the respiration for more than 5 minutes
D. At ten-minute intervals

34. Where on your vessel shall the recharge for each self-contained breathing
apparatus be carried?
A. Emergency gear locker
B. Bridge or pilothouse area
C. Where they can be readily found
D. The same location as the equipment it reactivates

35. You have abandoned ship and are in an inflatable raft that has just inflate You hear
a continuous hissing coming from a fitting in a buoyancy tube. What is the cause of
this?
A. The saltwater is activating the batteries of the marker lights on the canopy.
B. The inflation pump is in automatic operation to keep the tubes fully inflate
C. A deflation plug is partially open allowing the escape of CO2.
D. Excess inflation pressure is bleeding off and should soon stop.

36. The MOST important element in administering CPR is __________.

A. Having the proper equipment for the process
B. Starting the treatment quickly
C. Administering of oxygen
D. Treating for traumatic shock

37. To disengage a survival craft suspended from the cable above the water, you must
pull the safety pin and __________.
A. Pull the hook release handle
B. Pull the hook release handle and use the ratchet bar
C. Use the ratchet bar and depress the retainer
D. Pull the hook release handle and depress the retainer
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38. A liferaft which has inflated bottom-up on the water __________.

A. Should be righted by standing on the carbon dioxide cylinder, holding the
righting straps, and leaning backwards
B. Should be righted by standing on the life line, holding the righting straps,
and leaning backwards
C. Will right itself when the canopy tubes inflate
D. Must be cleared of the buoyant equipment before it will right itself

39. If you must abandon a rig in VERY HEAVY SEAS, in a survival craft, when
should you remove the safety pin and pull the hook release?
A. Immediately upon launching
B. One to three feet before first wave contact
C. Upon first wave contact
D. Only when waterborne

40. If more than one raft is manned after the vessel has sunk, you should __________.
A. Go in a different direction in search of land
B. Spread out to increase the possibility of a search aircraft finding you
C. Reduce the number of rafts by getting as many people as possible into as
few rafts as possible
D. Tie the rafts together and try to stay in a single group

41. If, for any reason, it is necessary to abandon ship while far out at sea, it is
important that the crew members should __________.
A. Separate from each other as this will increase the chances of being rescued
B. Get away from the area because sharks will be attracted to the vessel
C. Immediately head for the nearest land
D. Remain together in the area because rescuers will start searching at the
vessel's last known position

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42. You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If
possible, you should __________.
A. Put the vessel's stern into the wind
B. Abandon ship to windward
C. Call for assistance
D. Keep going at half speed

43. You have just abandoned ship and boarded a raft. After the raft is completely
inflated you hear a whistling noise coming from a safety valve. You should
__________.
A. Not become alarmed unless it continues for a long period of time
B. Plug the safety valve
C. Unscrew the deflation plugs
D. Remove the safety valve and replace it with a soft patch

44. You hear air escaping from the liferaft just after it has inflate You should
__________.
A. Quickly hunt for the hole before the raft deflates
B. Check the sea anchor line attachment for a tear if the seas are rough
C. Check the painter line attachment for a tear caused by the initial opening
D. Not panic since the safety valves allow excess pressure to escape

45. If you are in urgent need of a helicopter, which signal code should you send?
A. BR
B. BS
C. BT1
D. BZ

46. Which is TRUE concerning immersion suits and their use?

A. Only a light layer of clothing may be worn underneath.
B. They provide sufficient flotation to do away with the necessity of wearing a
life jacket.
C. They should be tight fitting.
D. A puncture in the suit will not appreciably reduce its value.
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47. If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should __________.
A. Remain in the immediate vicinity
B. Head for the nearest land
C. Head for the closest sea-lanes
D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

48. Which emergency is required to be covered at the required periodic drills on a

fishing vessel?
A. Recovering an individual from the water
B. Steering casualty
C. Emergency towing
D. Loss of propulsion power

49. Marine Operators, when calling a ship on VHF-FM radiotelephone, normally call
on channel __________.
A. 13
B. 16
C. 19
D. 23

50. According to the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act", your

radiotelephone log must contain __________.
A. A record of all routine calls
B. A record of your transmissions only
C. The home address of the vessel's Master or owner
D. A summary of all distress calls and messages

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51. Which statement about transmitting distress messages by radiotelephone is

INCORRECT?
A. It is advisable to follow a distress message on 2182 khz by two dashes of
10 to 15 seconds duration.
B. Channel 16 (156.8 mhz) may be used for distress messages.
C. If no answer is received on the designated distress frequencies, repeat the
distress call on any frequency available.
D. Distress messages should first be transmitted on 2182 khz.

52. Which is the required location of the radiotelephone station aboard a vessel to
which the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act" applies?
A. On the bridge or in the wheelhouse
B. In a separate radio compartment
C. Adjacent to the main power source
D. As high as possible on the vessel

53. Each small passenger vessel that operates on the high seas, or beyond 3 miles from
the coastline of the Great Lakes must have a Category 1 406 mhz EPIRB that
__________.
A. Is in good operating condition and is stowed near its charger
B. Will float free and clear of a sinking vessel and automatically activate
C. Is protected against all physical hazards
D. All of the above

54. You are making ship-to-shore telephone calls on VHF. You should use the
__________.
A. VHF-FM service
B. Coastal harbor service
C. High seas service
D. Emergency broadcast service

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55. The radiotelephone required by the "Vessel Bridge-to-Bridge Radiotelephone Act"

is for the exclusive use of __________.
A. The Master or person in charge of the vessel
B. A person designated by the Master
C. A person on board to pilot the vessel
D. All of the above

56. Which statement relating to AMVER (Automated Mutual-assistance Vessel

Rescue) is TRUE?
A. There is no cost to the ship or owner for messages sent within the AMVER
system.
B. An AMVER participant is under greater obligation to render assistance to
a vessel in distress than a non-participant.
C. An AMVER participant is not relieved of the obligation to give 24 hour
advance notice to the U.S. Coast Guard before entering a U.S. port from
offshore.
D. The AMVER system does not reduce the time lost for vessels responding
to calls for assistance.

57. Why are lifeboats usually double-enders?

A. They are more seaworthy and less likely to be swamped or broach to.
B. They can go forward and backward more easily.
C. They require less space for stowing aboard ship.
D. There is no particular reason for this.

58. An unconscious person should NOT be __________.

A. Placed in a position with the head lower than the body
B. Given an inhalation stimulant
C. Given something to drink
D. Treated for injuries until conscious

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59. While underway, if you are required to have a radiotelephone, you must maintain a
continuous listening watch on channel __________.
A. 6 (156.3 mhz)
B. 12 (156.6 mhz)
C. 14 (156.7 mhz)
D. 16 (156.8 mhz)

60. You hear on the radiotelephone the word "Securite" spoken three times. This
indicates that __________.
A. A message about the safety of navigation will follow
B. Message of an urgent nature about the safety of a ship will follow
C. The sender is in distress and requests immediate assistance
D. You should secure your radiotelephone

61. The VHF radiotelephone calling/safety/distress frequency is __________.

A. 156.8 mhz (channel 16)
B. 156.7 mhz (channel 14)
C. 156.65 mhz (channel 13)
D. 156.6 mhz (channel 12)

62. Your vessel has been damaged and is taking on water, but you do not require
immediate assistance. You would preface a message advising other vessels of your
situation with __________.
A. Mayday-Mayday-Mayday
B. Pan-Pan (3 times)
C. Securite-Securite-Securite
D. SOS-SOS-SOS

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63. In radiotelephone communications, the prefix PAN-PAN indicates that

__________.
A. A ship is threatened by grave and imminent danger and requests immediate
assistance
B. A calling station has an urgent message about the safety of a person
C. The message following the prefix will be about the safety of navigation
D. The message following is a meteorological warning

64. The length of the steering oar in a lifeboat is __________.

A. Shorter than the rowing oars
B. The same length as the rowing oars
C. Longer than the rowing oars
D. Unrelated to the length of the rowing oars

65. How should signal flares be used after you have abandoned ship and are adrift in a
liferaft?
A. Immediately use all the signals at once.
B. Use all the signals during the first night.
C. Employ a signal every hour after abandoning ship until they are gone.
D. Use them only when you are aware of a ship or plane in the are

66. A motor lifeboat shall carry sufficient fuel to operate continuously for a period of
__________.
A. 12 hours
B. 18 hours
C. 24 hours
D. 36 hours

67. Which item of lifeboat equipment would be most suitable for night signaling to a
ship on the horizon?
A. A red parachute flare
B. A red hand-held flare
C. A flashlight
D. A lantern
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68. Which word is an international distress signal when transmitted by radiotelephone?

A. Securite
B. Mayday
C. Breaker
D. Pan

69. On every vessel, distress signals must be stowed __________.

A. On or near the navigating bridge
B. On the flying bridge not closer than 15 feet to any bulkhead
C. Above the freeboard deck away from heat
D. In an enclosed space below the freeboard deck away from heat

70. A vessel is described as a two compartment vessel when it __________.

A. Has no more than two compartments
B. Has two compartments in addition to the engine room
C. Will sink if any two compartments are flooded
D. Will float if any two adjacent compartments are flooded

71. You are approaching another vessel and see that she has the signal flag "F" hoiste
What should you do?
A. Continue on your present course since the vessel is signaling for a pilot.
B. Attempt to call the vessel on VHF radiotelephone because she is disable
C. Stop your vessel instantly.
D. Change course to keep clear of the vessel because she is maneuvering
with difficulty.

72. Which statement is TRUE concerning distress signals in a lifeboat?

A. Hand held flares and orange smoke signals are require
B. If hand-held rocket-propelled parachute flares are provided, they are the
only distress signals require
C. Two hand-held smoke signals shall be provide
D. A Very pistol with twelve flares is require

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73. An inflatable liferaft equipped with a SOLAS B pack must be stowed __________.
A. So as to float free
B. With the vessel's emergency equipment
C. Near the wheelhouse
D. As far forward as possible

74. An oiler was badly burned and you are communicating with a passenger ship that
has a doctor and hospital on boar You want to rendezvous in a certain position so
the oiler can be evacuated for medical treatment. Which code should your message
contain?
A. MAF
B. MAB
C. MAA
D. MAE

75. The abandon ship signal on the ship's whistle is __________.

A. 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
B. More than 6 short blasts
C. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast
D. 1 long blast of at least 10 seconds

76. You have an AB who has become violently ill, and you are requesting urgent
medical advice. Your message should contain which code?
A. MAB
B. MAD
C. MAA
D. MAF
77. On small passenger vessels electrical equipment in spaces that contain gasoline
powered machinery must be __________.
A. Explosion-proof
B. Intrinsically safe
C. Ignition protected for use in a gasoline atmosphere
D. All of the above

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78. You hear the general alarm and ship's whistle sound for over 10 seconds.
Traditionally, this is the signal for __________.
A. Abandon ship
B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C. Fire and emergency
D. Man overboard

79. Traditionally, the signal for fire aboard ship is __________.

A. More than 6 short blasts and 1 long blast on the whistle, and the same
signal on the general alarm
B. Continuous sounding of the ship's whistle and the general alarm for at
least 10 seconds
C. 1 short blast on the whistle
D. Alternating short and long blasts on the ship's whistle

80. You receive a medical message that contains the code MSJ. This means "_____."
A. Place patient in hot bath
B. The wound should be stitched
C. You should pass a stomach tube
D. The wound should not be stitched

81. While reading the muster list you see that "3 short blasts on the whistle and 3 short
rings on the general alarm bells" is the signal for __________.
A. Abandon ship
B. Dismissal from fire and emergency stations
C. Fire and emergency
D. Man overboard

82. After sending a message describing the symptoms of an ill crew member, you
receive a message containing the code MRL. This means "_______".
A. Apply ice-cold compress and renew every 4 hours
B. Commence artificial respiration immediately
C. Give enema
D. Pass catheter into bladder
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83. If a crew member that was ill has died, which code should your message contain?
A. MPO
B. MPR
C. MPK
D. MPJ

84. If you reach shore in a liferaft, the first thing to do is __________.

A. Drag the raft ashore and lash it down for a shelter
B. Find some wood for a fire
C. Get the provisions out of the raft
D. Set the raft back out to sea so someone may spot it

85. The Coast Guard determines how many passengers are permitted on a "T-Boat" by
applying the __________.
A. "Length of Rail" criteria, allowing 30 inches of rail space along the vessel's
sides and transom for each passenger
B. "Deck Area" criteria that permits one passenger for every 10 square feet of
deck space available for passenger use
C. "Fixed Seating" criteria that allocates 18 inches of space for each passenger
to rest his/her buttocks upon
D. Any or a combination of the above criteria

86. You are at sea in an inflatable liferaft. In high latitudes, the greatest danger is
__________.
A. Asphyxiation due to keeping the canopy closed
B. Hypothermia caused by cold temperature
C. Collapse of the raft due to cold temperatures
D. Starvation

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87. In any major injury to a person, first aid includes the treatment for the injury and
__________.
A. Application of CPR
B. Removal of any foreign objects
C. Administration of oxygen
D. For traumatic shock

88. The primary concern in aiding a back injury patient is __________.

A. Relieving the patient's pain by giving aspirin or stronger medication
B. Avoiding possible injury to the spinal cord by incorrect handling
C. Preventing convulsions and muscle spasms caused by the pain
D. Providing enough fluids to prevent dehydration

89. All OSV personnel should be familiar with survival craft __________.
A. Boarding and operating procedures
B. Maintenance schedule
C. Navigational systems
D. Fuel consumption rates

90. Provided every effort is used to produce, as well as preserve body moisture content
by avoiding perspiration, how long is it normally possible to survive without stored
quantities of water?
A. Up to 3 days
B. 8 to 14 days
C. 15 to 20 days
D. 25 to 30 days

91. If help has not arrived in 10-12 hours after having abandoned an OSV in a survival
craft, you should __________.
A. Go in one direction until the fuel runs out
B. Plot course for the nearest land
C. Take a vote on the direction in which to go
D. Shutdown the engines and put out the sea anchor

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92. If you have to abandon ship, and enter a liferaft, your main course of action should
be to __________.
A. Remain in the vicinity of the sinking vessel
B. Head for the closest land
C. Head for the closest sea-lanes
D. Get a majority opinion

93. When abandoning an OSV, following the launching of the survival craft you should
__________.
A. Plot a course for the nearest land
B. Take a vote on the direction in which to go
C. Stay in the immediate area
D. Go in one direction until fuel runs out

94. If you are forced to abandon ship in a rescue boat, you should __________.
A. Remain in the immediate vicinity
B. Head for the nearest land
C. Head for the closest sea-lanes
D. Vote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision

95. To keep injured survivors warm in the water after abandoning an OSV, when no
rescue craft is in sight, they should __________.
A. Be placed in the middle of a small circle formed by the other survivors in
the water
B. Float on their backs with their arms extended for maximum exposure to the
air
C. Remove their life jackets and hold on to uninjured survivors
D. Sip seawater at intervals of fifteen minutes

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96. If there are a number of survivors in the water after abandoning an OSV and no
rescue craft are in sight, they should __________.
A. Tie themselves to the unit to avoid drifting with the current
B. Group to form a small circle of survivors to create a warmer pocket of water
in the center of the circle
C. Send the strongest swimmer to shore for assistance
D. From a raft by lashing their life jackets together

97. Once the daily ration of drinking water in a survival situation has been established,
the drinking routine should include __________.
A. Small sips at regular intervals during the day
B. A complete daily ration at one time during the day
C. One-third the daily ration three times during the day
D. Small sips only after sunset

98. The rescue boat on an OSV shall carry a tow line strong enough to tow the vessel's
largest loaded liferaft at a speed of at least __________.
A. 1 knot
B. 2 knot
C. 5 knot
D. 10 knot

99. Immediately after abandoning a vessel, lookouts should be posted aboard liferafts to
look for __________.
A. Survivors in the water
B. Food and water
C. Land
D. Bad weather

100. What is one of the FIRST things you would do on boarding an inflatable liferaft?
A. Open equipment pack.
B. Post a lookout.
C. Issue anti-seasickness medicine.
D. Pick up other survivors.
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101. You have abandoned your vessel. You are in a liferaft and have cleared away from
your vessel. One of your FIRST actions should be to __________.
A. Take measures to maintain morale
B. Prepare and use radio equipment
C. Identify the person in charge of liferaft
D. Search for survivors

102. The bridge wheelman has not reported for duty and there is a suspected "Man
Overboard" situation on your vessel. The ship has been searched and there is one
seaman missing? The vessel turns round and retraces the course back, calling for
assistance from other vessels in the vicinity. What should be the focal point for any
search pattern to be established?
A. Determine when the seaman was
last sighted and concentrate the
search round the course line
between the last sighting and
present position, taking into account
any prevailing current.
B. The focus of the search should be
from the present position as he
probably went overboard when proceeding to the bridge for his watch.
C. Determine the drift and leeway of own ship and take this deviation from
track into account on the return course. The search should focus around this
return track back to the last sighted position
D. The last sighted position should be the focal point of any search pattern and
all ships should keep a good lookout in that vicinity, moving outwards to the
present position.

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103. You are Sen.Off.Deck onboard a merchant vessel. During the night you have been
in a collision with a sail boat and there are no signs of life in the water. What would
you do?
A. Alarm the rescue centre and commence searching for any survivors
B. Leave the position as fast as possible
C. Do nothing and wait for assistance
D. Call the company, explain the situation and ask for orders

104. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 6 knots on course 133°T,
and bears 042°T, 105 miles from you. What is the time to intercept if you make 10
knots?
A. 12h 30m
B. 12h 44m
C. 12h 58m
D. 13h 22m

105. You are enroute to assist vessel Vessel A is underway at 5.5 knots on course
033°T, and bears 284°T at 43 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 16
knots to intercept vessel A?
A. 284°
B. 303°
C. 329°
D. 342°

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