VER - 11

PGP-CET 2015
Question Booklet Version No. PGP-CET- 2015 Roll No. Question Booklet Sr. No.

11
Answer Sheet No.
(Write this number on your (Write this number on your
Answer Sheet) Answer Sheet)

Day and Date : Sunday, 09th August, 2015 Duration: 1 hour 30 Minutes.
Time : 10.00 a.m. to 11.30 a.m. Total Marks : 100

This is to certify that, the entries of PGP-CET Roll Number and Answer Sheet
Number have been correctly written and verified.

Candidate’s Signature Invigilator’s Signature

Instructions to Candidates

1. This question booklet contains 100 Objective Type Questions (Single Best Response
Type).
2. The question paper and answer Sheet are issued to examinees separately at the beginning
of the examination session.
3. Choice and sequence for attempting questions will be as per the convenience of the
candidate.
4. Candidate should carefully read the instructions printed on the Question Booklet and
Answer Sheet and make the correct entries on the Answer Sheet. The candidate must
sign on the Answer Sheet and Question Booklet.
5. Read each question carefully.
6. Determine the correct answer from out of the four available options given for each
question.

7. Fill the appropriate circle completely like this •, for answering a particular question, with
Black ink ball point pen in the answer sheet provided to you.
8. Each answer with correct response shall be awarded one (1) mark. There is NO Negative
Marking. If the examinee has marked two or more answers or has done scratching and
overwriting in the Answer sheet in response to any question, or has marked the circles
inappropriately, mark/s shall NOT be awarded for such answer/s.
9. Use of whitener or any other material to erase/hide the circle once filled is not permitted.
Avoid overwriting and/or striking of answers once marked.
10. Rough work should be done only on the blank space provided on the Question Booklet.
Rough work should not be done on the Answer Sheet.
11. Immediately after the prescribed examination time is over, the Question Booklet and
Answer sheet is to be returned to the Invigilator. Confirm that both the Candidate and
Invigilator have signed on question booklet and answer sheet.
12. No candidate is allowed to leave the examination hall till the examination session is over.

(1)
 VER - 11

PGP-CET 2015

1. Branch of the posterior cord of brachial plexus is…

A. Ulnar nerve B. Thoracodorsal nerve
C. Musculocutaneous nerve D. Long thoracic nerve

2. During inspiration the bucket handle movement is most evident in the …

A. Second to sixth ribs B. Sixth to tenth ribs
C. Seventh to tenth ribs D. Eighth to twelth ribs

3. Muscles which cause protrusion at temporomandibular joint are…

A. Lateral pterygoids and mylohyoid B. Temporalis and geniohyoid
C. Temporalis and masseter D. Lateral and medial pterygoids

4. The tract which carries Fibers from the facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus nerves, relays in the
…
A. Nucleus ambiguus B. Nucleus solitarius
C. Nucleus cuneatus D. Pontine nuclei

5. Duration of spinal shock in humans is…

A. 2 – 3 hours B. 2 – 3 days
C. 2 – 3 weeks D. 2 – 3 months

6. Fibres carrying pain sensation terminate in all of the following areas EXCEPT
A. Brain stem B. Hypothalamus
C. Limbic cortex D. Cerebellum

7. Skeletal muscle strength can be best increased by…

A. Isotonic exercise B. Aerobic isotonic exercise
C. Isometric exercise D. Electrical stimulation

8. The type of nerve fiber most susceptible to local anesthetics is…

A. C type B. B type
C. A α type D. A γ type

9. The compound acting as high energy carrier in muscle is…

A. Creatine B. Carnitine
C. Creatinine D. Carnosine

10. The pathway involved in elimination of two waste products is…

A. Kreb’s cycle B. Kreb’s Henseleit cycle
C. Polyol pathway D. Salvage pathway

11. In a single movable pulley, if the effect of friction is omitted & the weight to be lifted is 6 kg &
the tension required in each of 2 supported ropes is 3 kg. Then the mechanical advantage is…
A. 1 B. 2
C. 3 D. 4

12. This type of muscle work is most economical in respect of physiological cost…
A. Isometeic B. Isokinetic
C. Concentric D. Eccentric

13. This order of lever is called lever of power…

A. 1st order B. 2nd order
rd
C. 3 order D. C&A

14. 10 RM is approximately …… % of 1 RM.

A. 25% B. 50%
C. 75% D. 100%

(2)
 VER - 11

15. In sitting, the muscles which prevent the tendency to slump the most are…
A. Abdominals B. Back Extensors
C. Hip Flexors D. Hip Extensors

16. Which radiation is produced by the movement of electrons within the atom…
A. Ultraviolet B. Infrared
C. Electromagnetic D. Electric

17. Identify the following diagram…

A. Resistance in parallel B. Resistance in series

C. Rheostat in series D. Rheostat parallel

18. Acceleration of chemical action is stated by …… law.

A. Joules Law B. Ohm’s Law
C. Vant Hoff’s Law D. Lenz’s Law

19. Interferential Therapy utilizes …

A. Low frequency current B. High frequency current
C. Mixed frequency current D. Medium frequency current

20. In the case of water, 1 gm of ice at 00c requires ……… joules of energy to convert it to 1 gm of
water at 00c …
A. 300 J B. 350 J
C. 30 J D. 336 J

21. Which enzyme is inhibited by entacapone ?

A. MAO – A B. COMT
C. DOPA decarboxylase D. MAO – B

22. Which of the following drug causes gum hypertrophy?

A. Phenobarbitone B. Phenytoin
C. Carbamazepine D. Sodium valproate

23. Curschmann Spirals in sputum are pathognomic of…

A. Emphysema B. Chronic Bronchitis
C. Bronchial Asthma D. Bronchiectasis

24. Most common site of occlusive arterial thrombi is…

A. Iliac B. Coronary
C. Cerebral D. Femoral

25. All of the following are auto-immune diseases EXCEPT.

A. Rheumatoid arthritis B. Pernicious anemia
C. Toxic shock syndrome D. Sjogren’s syndrome

26. The causative agent of gas gangrene is…

A. Clostridium tetani B. Clostridium perfringens
C. Corynebacterium diphtheriae D. Bacillus anthracis

27. The main method used by the structuralists to discover these elementary units of mind was…
A. Introversion B. Internalization
C. Interposition D. Introspection

(3)
 VER - 11
28. Impairment of memory without global disturbance of function, consciousness and attention is…
A. Dementia B. Delirium
C. Amnesia D. Mental Retardation

29. E4 dose in UVR is given for the treatment of…

A. Rickets B. Acne
C. Psoriasis D. Infected wound

30. The process of movement of ions across biological membrane, by means of an electric current,
for therapeutic purpose is called…
A. Phonophoresis B. Eletrophoresis
C. Magnetophoresis D. Iontophoresis

31. Possible therapeutic mechanism for pulsed shortwave diathermy is all EXCEPT.
A. Electromagnetic energy leads to B. Increase in body temperature
general increase in intra cellular &
intercellular activities
C. Series of high energy pulses exceeds D. Reduces risk of burns
some threshold is produce cellular
effect

32. Strong surged faradic current is useful to …

A. Reduce edema B. Increase edema
C. Sensitize edema D. Desensititze edema

33. LASER therapy is contraindicated in…

A. Trigger points B. Neoplastic pain
C. Myofascial pain D. Wound healing

34. The following is an absolute contraindication to therapeutic ultrasound …

A. Vascular conditions B. Recent soft tissue injury
C. Scar tissue D. Chronic edema

35. High frequency currents are routinely used for …

A. Iontophoresis B. Stimulating nerves
C. Producing heating effect D. Contracting denervated muscles

36. If one’s elbow is placed on the table with the forearm in a vertical position & the hand is
allowed to drop forward into wrist flexion, fingers tend to extend “This pheumenon is due to…..
A. Active insufficiency of finger flexors B. Passive insufficiency of finger flexors
C. Active insufficiency of flexor D. Passive insufficiency of finger extensors
extensions

37. In a weight bearing position, combination of calcaneal inversion, talar abduction, talar
dorsiflexion and tibiofibular lateral rotation is called …………
A. Ankle dorsiflexion B. Ankle plantarflexion
C. Subtalar supination D. Subtalar pronation

38. This muscle plays an important role in initiating unlocking of the knee…
A. Gracilis B. Sartorius
C. Pes anserinus D. Popliteus

39. In erect upright posture, the line of gravity passes …….. to the axis of hip joint.
A. Anterior B. Posterior
C. Through D. Lateral

40. This muscle acts as a steerer & offsets anterior dislocation forces in case of shoulder arm
complex …
A. Supraspinatus B. Infraspinatus
C. Teres minor D. Subscapularis

(4)
 VER - 11

41. Slow reversals technique is based on…

A. Autogenic inhibition B. Reciprocal inhibition
C. Successive induction D. Recurrent inhibition

42. Laura Mitchell’s technique of Relaxation is based on this physiological principle…

A. Autogenic Inhibition B. Reciprocal Inhibition
C. Recurrent Inhibition D. Reflex Inhibition

43. The characteristics of wound healing by primary intention are following EXCEPT.
A. Wound edges are opposed B. Normal healing
C. Minimal scar D. Poor scar

44. The following breast lump is also called ‘breast mouse’

A. Cystosarcoma phylloids B. Lobular carcinoma of breast
C. Fibroadenoma D. Fibroadenosis

45. The ideal treatment for Pleomorphic Adenoma is…

A. Superficial Parotidectomy B. Excision of the adenoma
C. Total Parotidectomy D. Enucleation

46. Which of the following test is used for diagnosis of Anterior cruciate ligament rupture in the
knee…
A. Mc Murray’s Test B. Anterior drawer’s Test
C. Patellar tap D. Thomas Test

47. The ideal length of stump for standard trans-tibial BK amputation is approximately
A. 1 cm B. 5 cm
C. 12.5 cm D. 30 cm

48. Distal end radius fracture gives rise to the following deformity…
A. Dinner fork B. Gun stock
C. Swan neck D. Kyphus

49. Arthritis mutilans is seen in…

A. SLE B. Rheumatoid Arthritis
C. Ankylosing Spondylitis D. Psoriatic Arthritis

50. Weil’s disease is severe …

A. Leptospirosis B. Malaria
C. Dengue D. Swine flue

51. Atrial fibrillation is a feature of…

A. Acromegaly B. Cushing’s syndrome
C. Hypothyroidism D. Hyperthyroidism

52. P R prolongation on ECG is a type of ………….. heart block.

A. 10 (1st degree) B. 20 (2nd degree)
C. 30 (3rd degree) D. 40 (4th degree)
53. Clubbing is not a feature of…
A. Bronchiectasis B. Bronchogenic Carcinoma
C. Bronchial Asthma D. Lung Abscess
54. ‘Paralysis Agitans’ is the other name of …
A. Alzheimer’s disease B. Idiopathic Parkinson’s disease
C. Creutzfeldt – Jakob disease D. Motor neuron disease
55. All are supports of uterus EXCEPT
A. Round ligament B. Uterosacral ligament
C. Cardinal ligament D. Levator ani

(5)
 VER - 11

56. Menopause is defined as time of final menstrual period followed by ………. months of
amenorrhoea.
A. 6 Months B. 9 Months
C. 12 Months D. 18 Months

57. Active management of third stage of labor starts at delivery of…

A. Anterior shoulder B. Posterior shoulder
C. Entire baby D. Placenta

58. During mobilization, grade III gliding techniques should incorporate …

A. Grade I distraction B. Grade II distraction
C. Grade I comprenion D. Grade II compression

59. The sacro-Iliac rocking test is also called as stress test of…
A. Sacrotuberous ligament B. Sacrococcygeal ligament
C. Iliofemoral ligament D. Ischiofemoral ligament

60. In ordinary untrained subject during the following type of exercise, the mean value for maximal
oxygen uptake is highest …
A. Running uphill B. Upright cycling

C. Swimming D. Supine cycling

61. Post synaptic neuronal hypersensitivity is also called as…

A. Innervation supersensitivity B. Innervation senstitvity
C. Denervation supersensitivity D. Denervtion senritivity

62. Radiological findings of homogenous opacity in right lower zone, with obliteration of right
costophrenic angle and shift of the mediastinum to the left is suggestive of …
A. Left lower lobe collapse B. Right lower lobe collapse
C. Right sided pneumothorax D. Right sided pleural effusion

63. According to Rood’s approach, the sensory input for light pattern of muscle work is…
A. Semicircular canals B. Utricle and saccule
C. Muscle spindle D. Golgi Tendon

64. Motor function evaluation that uses a 3 point scale to score the domains of pain, range of
motion, sensation, volitional movement and balance is…
A. Fugl Meyer Test B. TEMPA scale
C. Jebson Test of Hand function D. Motor Assessment Scale

65. Treatment strategy is which reflexive movement is NOT used as a precursor for volitional
movement is…
A. Rood’s therapy B. Brunnstrom Approach
C. Proprioceptive Neuromuscular D. Neuro developmental therapy
facilitation

66. Which clinical finding is not indicative of a ruptured Achilles tendon…

A. Negative Thompson test B. Lack of toe off during gait
C. Absent achilles reflex D. Limping gait

67. The most common mechanism for an anterior talofibular ligament sprain is…
A. Inversion & dorsiflexion B. Inversion & plantar flexion
C. Inversion D. Pronation, eversion & dorsiflexion

68. The movement of the patella is influenced and controlled by all of the following EXCEPT
A. Medical meniscus B. Medical patellofemoral ligament
C. Height of patella D. Vastus medialis obliqus

(6)
 VER - 11
69. The following statement concerning the anterior cruciate ligament is NOT TRUE
A. It is maximally taut b/w 0- 20 & 70 – B. It resists posterior displacement of tibia
90 degree of knee flexion
C. It inserts on the medial femoral D. It inserts on the lateral femoral
intercondylar notch intercondylar notch
70. Which anatomical alignment is associated with pronation in standing …
A. Hind foot pronation & fore foot B. Hind foot supination & fore foot pronation
supination
C. Hind foot varus & fore foot varus D. Toe out
71. In which direction should a mobilizing force be applied at the gleno humeral joint…
A. In the same direction as the limitation B. In the opposite direction as the limitation
C. In all directions regardless of the D. As per the physiotherapist preference
limitation
72. A patient with a left A K amputation is gait training. You note that the patient vaults with left
swing phase & occasionally circumducts the involved leg. What is the most likely cause of
these gait deviations?
A. The prosthesis is too short B. The prosthesis is too long
C. Weak plantar flexors in the right D. There is decreased toe-out on the left

73. A degenerative process beginning with irritation and fragmentation of the hyaline cartilage on
the patella is termed …
A. Osgood – Schlatter disease B. Retropatellar syndrome
C. Chondromalacia patellae D. Plica syndrome

74. Which of the following statement concerning myositis ossificans is NOT TRUE?
A. it occurs when part of a hacmatoma is B. it can be recognized on plain radiograph
replaced with bone
C. it usually results from a single injury D. it is believed to be caused by periosteal
& not repetitive trauma cells invading the heamatoma following
injury

75. Which pattern of limitation is typically considered to be a capsular pattern with regards to hip
joint : Gross limitation in…
A. Medial rotation - flexion – abduction B. Medial rotation – extension – abduction –
– lateral rotation lateral rotation
C. Lateral rotation – flexion – abduction D. Lateral rotation – extension – abduction –
– medial rotation medial rotation

76. Sustained twisting deformity that may last for several minutes or permanently is called…
A. Decorticate rigidity B. Decerebrate rigidity
C. Spasticity D. Dystonic posturing

77. The practice order in which repeated practice of a task or a group of tasks is performed is
called…
A. Blocked order B. Serial order
C. Random order D. Closed order

78. A patient of Multiple Sclerosis who complains of monoparesis, moderate ataxia, moderate
disability and is fully ambulatory, is graded as per kurtzke Disability scale as
A. 2 B. 3
C. 4 D. 5

79. In a child suffering form Meningomyelocoele with level of paralysis below L3, the ambulatory
support required is…
A. Thoracic lumber spine orthosis with B. Thoracic lumber spine orthosis
knee Ankle foot orthosis (TLSO)
(TLSO with KAFO)
C. Knee Ankle foot orthosis (KAFO) D. Ankle foot orthosis (AFO)

(7)
 VER - 11
80. Body schema impairment is also termed as …
A. Somatognosia B. Agnosia
C. Autopagnosia D. Arosognosia

81. Treatment techniques for figure – ground discrimination include all EXCEPT
A. Patient should examine objects slowly B. Place red tape velcro strap on shoe or
and systematically orthosis
C. Rub cloth should be rubbed on dorsal D. Items should be placed and replaced in
surface of hand exact position in drawer

82. The theory which states that motor control is the result of co-operative action of many
interacting systems to accommodate the demands of a specific task, is called…
A. Reflex theory B. Systems theory
C. Hierarchical theory D. Motor programming theory

83. All are physiotherapy strategies to improve mobility EXCEPT.

A. Active Assisted Movement B. Rhythmic Initiation
C. Hold Relax Active Motion D. Slow Reversal Hold

84. Shoes recommended for hemiplegic patient should have all EXCEPT
A. Leather sole B. Flat shoe with no heel
C. Heel covered with non-slip material D. Broad heel and sole of shoe

85. Movement taking place in a changing environment is called…

A. Open skill B. Closed skill
C. Static skill D. Dynamic skill

86. Class III compression garments with 40 – 50 mmHg pressure is used for…
A. Varicose veins B. Mild lymphoedema
C. Moderate lymphoedema D. Severe lymphoedema

87. In the oxyhaemoglobin dissociation curve, right sided shift is in all the following conditions
EXCEPT
A. Reduced pH B. Increased temperature
C. Increased diphosphoglycerate D. Reduced pCo2
(2, 3 DPG)

88. In which of the following conditions, will you find an increased Reid’s Index…
A. COPD B. Cystic Fibrosis
C. Silicosis D. ILD

89. ‘Pink Puffers’ refers to

A. Asthma B. Bronchiectasis
C. Chronic bronchitis D. Emphysema

90. Mr. Sinha was given a valve taken from an animal cadaver. Thus, the graft he is using is…
A. Xenograft B. Allograft
C. Homograft D. Heterograft

91. All are the physiological effects of prone position EXCEPT

A. Increased urine output B. Decreased sympathetic activity
C. Increased arterial oxygen tension D. Increased dynamic lung compliance

92. Identify the condition if,

pH = 7.25
PCO2 = 36 lt.mm.Hg.
PO2 =80
HCO3 = 32 mmol / Lt.
A. Respiratory Acidosis B. Metabolic acidosis
C. Respiratory alkalosis D. Metabolic alkalosis

(8)
 VER - 11

93. Normal pulmonary artery systemic pressure is…

A. Upto 20 mmHg B. 20 – 40 mmHg
C. 40 – 60 mmHg D. 60 – 80 mmHg

94. When a patient assumes sitting position from supine position, the onset of dyspnoea is called …
A. Orthopnoea B. Platypnoea
C. Trepopnoea D. Dyspnoea

95. The concept of autogenic drainage or self – drainage was first introduced by…
A. Thompson B. Webber
C. Pryor D. Chevaillier

96. All of the following is True with regards to geriatric population EXCEPT
A. Immobilization should only be B. Immobilization should continue for as
resorted to only when absolutely brief a period as possible
necessary
C. Weight - bearing casts should be used D. Once immobilization is no longer
if the injury permits necessary, gradual physiotherapy should
not be started

97. The combined & co-ordinated use of medical, social, educational and vocational measure for
training & retraining the individual to the highest possible level of functional ability is referred
as…
A. Rehabilitation B. Restoration
C. Remediation D. Resuscitation

98. Abdominal colic, constipation, loss of appctile, red cell stippling, anaemia, wrist drop, foot drop
are symptoms of…
A. Inorganic lead exposure B. Organic lead exposure
C. Cotton fiber dust exposure D. Asbestos exposure

99. The best suited exercise for an obese individual who has pain in the knees is…
A. Running B. Jogging
C. Cycling D. Walking

100. All are complications common to pregnancy EXCEPT

A. Constipation B. Diastasis recti
C. Decreased blood volume D. Anemia

***** *****

(9)
 VER - 11
ROUGH WORK

(10)