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CONTENT
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
PART - I (XI)
1. PERIODIC TABLE
2. S BLOCK
PART - II (XII)
1. P BLOCK
2. D & F BLOCK
3. ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
PART - I (XI)
1. NOMENCLATURE
2. ISOMERISM
3. REACTION MECHANISM
PART - II (XII)
1. HYDROCARBONS
2. BENZENE & TOLUNE
3. HALOGEN DERIVATIVES OF ALKANES
4. ALCOHOL, PHENOL & ETHER
5. ALDEHYDE, KETONE & BENZALDEHYDE
6. CARBOXYLIC ACID AND ITS DERIVATIVES
7. NITROGEN COMPOUNDS, UREA, NITROBENZENE, ANILINE
8. BIOMOLECULES
9. PURIFICATION AND CHARACTERISATION OF ORGANIC COM
POUNDS
10. SOAP & DETERGENT
11. CHEMISTRY IN ACTION
12. SYNTHETIC & NATURAL POLYMERS
PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
PART - I (XI)
1. ATOMIC STRUCTURE
2. CHEMICAL BONDING
3. MOLE CONCEPT
4. GASEOUS STATE
5. CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
6. IONIC EQUILIBRIUM & ACID BASE
7. THERMOCHEMISTRY
PART - II (XII)
1. SOLUTION
2. SOLID STATE
3. ELECTROCHEMISTRY
4. CHEMICAL KINETICS
5. SURFACE CHEMISTRY
6. NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
JEE MAIN REVISION PACKAGE
INORGANIC CHEMISTRY
PART - I (XI)
TOPIC : PERIODIC TABLE
EXERCISE # 01
1 The first ionisation potential of Na, Mg, Al and Si follow the order
(A)
(C)
Na > Mg > Al > Si
Na < Mg < Al < Si

(B)
(D)
Na < Mg > Al < Si
Na = Mg = Al > Si
e R
2 For the processes K+(g) 
(A)
I
 K(g) 
II
 K (s)
Energy is released in (I) and absorbed in (II)(B)
y s
Energy is absorbed in (I) and released in (II)
3
(C)
a l
Energy is absorbed in both the processes (D) Energy is released in both the processes
=XA –XB = 2.0 what is percent ionic character for a covalent molecule A–B
4
(A) 46
a t (B) 50 (C) 20 (D) 30
Consider the M(OH)3 formed by all the group 13 elements. The correct sequence of acidic strength of
hydroxides [M (OH)3] is
C
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
B (OH)3 < Al (OH)3 > Ga (OH)3 > In (OH)3 > Tl(OH)3
B (OH)3 > TI(OH)3 > Al (OH)3 > In (OH)3 > Ga(OH)3
Al (OH)3 > Ga (OH)3 > B (OH)3 > In (OH)3 > Tl(OH)3
B (OH)3 > Al (OH)3 > Ga (OH)3 > In (OH)3 > Tl(OH)3
5 According to Alfred and Rochow scale, the electronegativity is given by the expression
(A) First ionisation energy + First electron affinity
(B) First ionisation energy – First electron affinity
(C) 0.359 Zr–2 + 0.744 (where Z is effective nuclear charge and r is the mean radius of the orbital)
(D) None of the above
6 An increase in both atomic and ionic radii with atomic number occurs in any group of the periodic table and
in accordance with this, the ionic radii of Ti (IV) and Zr (IV) ions are 0.68 Å and 0.74 Å respectively, but for
Hf (IV) ion the ionic radius is 0.75 Å. Which is almost the same as that for Zr (IV) ion. This is due to
(A) Greater degree of covalency in compounds of Hf4
(B) Lanthanide contraction
(C) Difference in the coordination number of Zn4+ and Hf4+ in their compounds
(D) Actinide contraction
CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 1

7 Pick out the isoelectronic series form the following
I. CH3+ II. NH3 III. CH3– IV. H3O+
Correct answer is :
(A) III & IV (B) I & III (C) II, III & IV (D) III & IV
8 Which of the following oxyacids act as reducing agent
(A) H4P2O7 (B) H4P2O6 (C) H3PO4 (D) H3PO3
9 Adding electron to neutral gaseous atom usually leads to
(a)
(c)
Liberation of energy
Proton/electron ratio decreases
(b)
(d)
Formation of ion
e R
Stabilizing the species
Correct code is
(A) a, d (B) b, c, d (C)
y s
a, b, d (D) a, b, c
10
(A) Strongest reductant l

Match list - I with list - II and choose the correct answer from the code given below
List - I List- II
a
a. aurum
t
(B) Half filled d-orbital b. cerium
(C) Coinage metal c. chromium
(D) Lanthanide
Code is -
C
(A)
(B)
(A)
d
a
(B)
c
b
a (C)
a
c
(D)
b
d
d. iodide ion
(C) d a c b
(D) b c a b
11 Triad - I [N3–, O– , Na+]
Triad - II [N+ , C+, O+]
Choose the species of lowest IP from triad-I and the species of highest IP from triad - II respectively
(A) N3– , O+ (B) Na+, C+ (C) N3– , N– (D) O–, C+
12 False statement for periodic classification of elements is

(A) The properties of the elements are periodic function of their atomic numbers
(B) No. of nonmetallic elements is less than the no. of metallic elements
(C) First ionization energy of elements does not change continuously with increasing of atomic no. in a
period.
(D) d-subshell is filled by directional electron with increasing atomic no. of transition elements.
13 Element Hg has two oxidation states Hg+1 & Hg+2. The right order of radii of these ions
(A) Hg+1 > Hg+2 (B) Hg+2 > Hg+1
(C) Hg+1 = Hg+2 (D) Hg+2  Hg+1

14 Match list I with list II & then select the correct answer from the codes given below
List - I List - II
(A) Increasing atomic size (a) Cl < O < F
(B) Decreasing atomic radius (b) B > Be > Li
(C) Increasing electronegativity (c) Si < Al < Mg
(D) Decreasing effective nuclear charge (d) N > O > F
Codes
(A)
A
c
B
d
C
a
D
b (B)
A
d
B
b
C
c
e
D
a R
15
(C) a c b d (D)
y sb a d c
Element A,B,C,D belong to the same group. The basic character of their oxides will be in which order if the
l
atomic numbers of A,B,C,D are (Z–x) , (Z + 2x + 2), Z, (Z + x) respectively
(A) A<B>C<D (B) A>B>C>D (C) B>D>C>A (D) B>C>D>A
16
would be formed is
(A) M+3
t (B) a
First, second third and fourth I.P. values in e.v. of M are 5.1 , 17.9, 23.9, 120 respectively. The ion which
M+2 (C) M+4 (D) M+1 and M+2

17
C a
The electronic configuration of four elements L,P,Q and R are given below
L = 1s2 , 2s22p4
P = 1s2 , 2s22p6 , 3s1
Q = 1s2 , 2s22p6 , 3s23p5
R = 1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2
The formula of the ionic compounds that can be formed between these elements are
(A) L2P, RL, PQ, R2Q (B) LP , L , PQ, RQ
(C) P2L , RL, PQ, RQ2 (D) LP, R2L, P2Q, RQ

18 X–X bond length is 1.00 Å and C–C bond length is 1.54 Å. If electronegativities of X and C are 3.0 and 2.0
respectively the C–X bond length is likely to be
(A) 1.27 (B) 1.28 (C) 1.18 (D) 1.08
19 If a = NO2, b = K2O , c = ZnO
Arrange the above compounds in the decreasing order of basicity
(A) a , b, c (B) b , c, a (C) c,b,a (D) a , c, b
20 All elements in the same group of the periodic table have the same
(A) Number of electrons (B) Number of valence electrons
(C) Atomic weight (D) Atomic number
21 Which of the following pair have equal number of electrons in the outermost orbit
(A) N–O (B) Na–Ca (C) As –Bi (D) Pb – Sb
22 The elements increasing order of I.P are
(A) P , S , Cl , Ar (B) Ar, Cl, S, P (C) S, P , Cl, Ar (D) Ar, P, S, Cl

23 With respect to chlorine, hydrogen will be
(A) electropositive (B) Electronegative
(C) Neutral (D) None of these
24 Which of the following transition metal cation has maximum unpaired electrons
(A) Mn2+ (B) Fe2+ (C) Co2+ (D) Ni2+
–
25 In the process Cl(g) + e 
H
 Cl (g) ; H is
26
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero
General electronic configuration of the transition elements is given by
R
(D)
e
Unpredictable
s
2 1–10 2 6 1–10 1–10 6
(A) ns nd (B) ns , np , nd (C) (n–1) d np (D) (n–1) d1–10 , ns2
27 Element with electronic configuration 1s2 , 2s2,2p6, 3s2, 3p6, 3d10 , 4s2, 4p6 , 4d10 , 5s2, 5p3 belongs to be
..............group of the periodic table
(A) IIIA (B) VA
l (C)
y
VB (D) III B
a
28 In which of the following process energy is liberated
t
(A) Cl  Cl+ + e (B) HCl  H+ + Cl– (C) Cl + e  Cl– (D) O– + e  O2–
29 The element with (n–1) s2p6 d10, ns2p5 outer configuration is likely to be
30
(A)
a
Alkali metal (B) Chalcogen (C) Transition metal (D) Halogen
Z = 21, 89, 49, 5, 39, 79 in this group separate the elements belonging to the same group of the periodic
C
table
(A) 89, 21, 39 (B) 5, 49, 79 (C) 5, 21, 39 (D) None of them
31 I.P. of oxygen and nitrogen respectively would be (in eV)
(A) 13.6 , 14.6 (B) 13.6, 13.6 (C) 14.6, 13.6 (D) 14.6, 14.6
32 Electron affinity of carbon is greater than nitrogen because
(A) Carbon shows catenation property
(B) Entering electron occupies 2p orbital of carbon
(C) Carbon accept one electron and assumes (He) 2s2 2px12py12pz1 structure
(D) All the above are correct
33 Which of the following statement about transuranic elements is incorrect
(A) These are all synthetic elements
(B) These are elements of atomic number 93 and beyond
(C) elements from 90 to lawrencium are called actinones
(D) These are part of third transition series
*****

TOPIC : S-BLOCK
EXERCISE # 01
st
1 The elements of 1 group known as alkali metals because -
(A) They have one electron in their outermost orbital
(B) They have lower m.p.
(C) The solutions of all their salts are basic
2
(D) The aqueous solution of their hydroxides are much basic
The ionic conductivity of Li+ is lower, because -
e R
s
(A) The ionisation potential value is least for Li+
(B) Li+ is not a good conductor of electricity
(C)
(D)
The size of Li+ is very small
l
The degree of hydration of Li+ is more
y
a
3 Which pair of element have maximum and minimum electro positive elements respectively -
t
(A) Na, Be (B) Mg, Li (C) Ca, K (D) K, Be
4 The aqueous solution of which ion is good conductor of electricity -
6
(A)
C
(A)
Li+
Li a (B)
(B)
Mg+2
The sulphate of which metal does not form alum -
Na
The hydrolysis of which metal chloride occurs -
(C)
(C)
Ba+2
K
(D)
(D)
Cs+
Cs
(A) BeCl2 (B) MgCl2 (C) SrCl2 (D) (A) & (B) both
7 The electrolytic reduction process is used for alkali metals, because -
(A) They are strong reducing agent (B) They are weak reducing agent
(C) The are good oxidising agent (D) They are available is solid form
8 Which substance is soluble in pyridine -
(A) BaCl2 (B) KCl (C) LiCl (D) NaCl
9 Which statement is false for an element, having 2,8,8,2 electronic configuration -
(A) This element is of IInd group (B) This element is of IVth period
(C) It forms MO2 type oxide (D) It forms M2O type oxide
10 Mostly metals are hard, but metals of 1st A group are soft, because -
(A) Their metallic bond is weak (B) They have loose packing
(C) They have face-centred cubic lattice (D) Their b.p. is low
11 The normal dehydrating agent, which is used in laboratories -
(A) MgCO3 (B) CaF2 (C) MgF2 (D) CaCl2
12 What is the decreasing order of standard oxidation potential of K, Ca and Li -
(A) Ca, Li, K (B) Li, Ca, K (C) Li, K, Ca (D) K, Ca, Li

13 Which statement will be true for solution, when Ba is dissolved in ammonia -
(A) Solution becomes blue (B) Solution becomes good conductor
(C) Solution remains colourless (D) Both (A) and (B) are correct
14 Alkaline earth metals show -
(A) Divalency (B) Monovalency (C) Variable valency (D) Zero valency
15 In the periodic table, the element with atomic number 38 belongs to -
16
(A)
(C)
Period IV and group II
Period III and group IV
Ca2+ is isoelectronic with -
(B)
(D) Period V and group II
e R
Period IV and group IV
17
(A) Na (B) Mg2+
Alkali metals contains metallic lustre -
(C)
y s
Sr2+ (D) Ar
l
(A) Because of smooth surface of metal (B) Because of osscilation of free electrons
(C) Because of kernel of metal atom (D) Because ofmetallic conductivity
18
19
(A) K > Cs > Rb
t (B)
Prefix 'Alkali' denotes for -
a
In K, Rb and Cs, the decreasing order of reducing power in gaseous state is -
Cs > Rb > K (C) K < Cs < Rb (D) Rb > Cs > K
20
(A)
C
(C)
a
Silvery lustre of IA group
Active metals of I A group
Which fo the following is the weakest base -
(A) NaOH (B) Zn(OH)2
(B)
(D)
(C)
Metallic nature of IIA group
Ashes of plants for IA group
Ca(OH)2 (D) KOH

21 The correct order of density of following elements is -
(A) Be > Mg > Ca > Sr (B) Ca > Mg > Be > Sr
(C) Ca < Mg < Be < Sr (D) Mg < Ca < Sr < Be
22 Values of standard oxidation potential of elements A, B, C, D are given below -
(A) –1.50 V (B) + 2.0 V (C) + 1.10 V (D) – 2.0 V
The correct order of their oxidising nature is -
(A) D>A> C> B (B) B> C>A> D (C) C>A> B= D (D) B D>A>C
23 Identify the correct statement Elemental sodium -
(A) Is a strong oxidising agent
(B) Can be extracted by electrolysis of aqueous solution
(C) It's density is lower than K
(D) Is easily oxidised
24 On addition of metal ions, colour of liquid NH3 solutions converts into bronze, the reason is -
(A) Ammoniated electrons (B) Metal amide formation
(C) Liberation of NH3 gas (D) Cluster formation of metal ions

st nd rd
25 Correct order of 1 , 2 and 3 successive IP of alkaline earth metals is -
(A) 1st < 2nd < 3rd (B) 1st > 2nd > 3rd (C) 1st > 2nd < 3rd (D) 1st > 2nd = 3rd
26 Nitrate of an element of alkali metal group, decomposes on heating, gives brown colour gas, Nitrate and
brown colour gas are respectively -
(A) NaNO3 and NO (B) LiNO3 and NO2 (C) KNO3 and NH3 (D) NaNO3 and NO2
27 On allowing ammonia solution of s-block metals to stand for a long time, blue colour becomes fade. The
reason is -
28
(A)
(C)
Formation of NH3 gas
Cluster formation of metla ions
(B)
(D)
R
Formation of metal amide
e
Formation of metal nitrate
Which of the following s-block element reacts with NaOH to give water soluble complex -
29
(A) Al
Dolomite is -
(B) Ca (C) Be
y s (D) Li
l
(A) KCl.MgCl2.6H2O (B) CaCO3.MgCO3 (C) CaSO4.2H2O (D) MgSO4.7H2O
30 The properties of Li are similar to those of Mg. This is because of -
a
(A) Similar atomic size (B) Similar ionisation potential
(C) Both found together in nature (D) Similar ionic potential
31
32
(A) Ba
a t
Which is having least mpt. -
(B) Ca (C) Mg (D) Be
Silver bromide when dissolve in Hypo solution gives complex .......... in which oxidation state of silver is
...........
C
(A) Na3[Ag(S2O3)2], (I) (B) Na3[Ag(S2O3)3], (III)
(C) Na2[Ag(S2O3)2] , (II) (D) Na3[Ag(S2O3)4] , (I)
33 Gypsum CaSO4.2H2O on heating to about 120ºC forms plaster of paris, which has chemical composition
represented by
1 1
(A) 2CaSO4. 3H2O (B) CaSO4. H2O (C) CaSO4. HO (D) CaSO4. 1 HO
2 2 2 2
34 When Na and Li placed in dry air we get -
(A) NaOH, Na2O, Li2O (B) Na2CO3, Na2O2, Li2O
(C) Na2O, Li3N, NH3 (D) Na2O, Li2O,Li3N
35 As compared to potassium, sodium has -
(A) Greater ionic radius (B) Lower density
(C) Lower electronegativity (D) Higher ionisation potential
36 Which of the least molar solubility in H2O
(A) LiCl (B) NaCl (C) BeCl2 (D) CsCl
37 Which of the following oxide having O22  (peroxide) anion -
(A) Na2O (B) BaO2 (C) RbO2 (D) KO2
38 Mixture of MgCl2 and MgO is called -
(A) Portland cement (B) Sorrel cement
(C) Double salt (D) Plaster of paris
39 Sodium thiosulphate (Hypo) is used in photography because of its -
(A) Reducing behaviour (B) Complex formation behaviour
(C) Oxidising behaviour (D) Photosensetivity

+
40 Hydration energy of Li is larger than that of -
(A) Be+2 (B) Mg+2
(C) Na+ (D) Al+3
41 Which of the following properties of IA group metals increases as the atomic number rises :
(A) Metallic character (B) Ionic radius
(C) Melting point (D) Density (E) Ionisation potential
Correct answer is -
(A) a, b, c (B) a, b, d (C) c, d, e (D) All of these
42 –
sodium hydride is dissolved in water -

(A) H–(aq) + H2O  H3O+ (B)
–
e R
The hydride ion H is stronger base than its hydroxide ion OH . Which of the following reaction will occur if
H–(aq) + H2O  OH– + H2
s
(C) H– + H2O  H2 + O2 (D) H– + H2O  No reaction
43 Which of the following s-block metals do not impart any colour to the flame -
44
(A) Li, Be (B) Cs, Fr
l
(C) Be, Mg
The metal extracted by electrolysis of its fused salt is -
(A) Fe (B) Pb (C)
y Cu
(D)
(D)
Ba, Ra
Na
a
45 Lime stone is
(A) CaO (B) Ca(OH)2 (C) 1 & 2 both (D) None of these
46
47
(A)
(C)
a t
Be (IIA) shows different behaviour as compared to other elements of the same group the reason is
Small size and high electronegativity
Bigger size and low ionization energy
Consider the following statements -
(B)
(D)
Small size and low electronegativity
Bigger size and large ionic radius
48
C
[a]
[b]
[c]
(A)
Cs+ is more highly hydrated than the other alkali metal ion
Among the alkali metals Li, Na, K and Rb, Lithium has the highest melting point
Among the alkali metals Lithium forms a stable nitride by direct combination of these statement
a, b, c are correct (B)
In water -
a, b are correct (C) a, c are correct (D) b and c are correct
(A) Temporary hardness is due to the bicarbonates of Ca+2 and Mg+2

(B) Permanent hardness is due to chloride and sulphates of Ca+2 and Mg+2
(C) Hardness can be removed by addding bores
(D) All are correct
49 Which can not be used to generate H2
(A) Al + NaOH (B) Zn + NaOH (C) Mg + NaOH (D) LiH + H2O
50 Only those elements of s-block can produce superoxides which have -
(A) High ionisation energy (B) High electronegativity
(C) High charge density (D) Low ionisation potential
51 In the Down's method for the extraction of sodium, the melting point of the electrolyte is lowered by adding-
(A) Potassium chloride (B) Calcium chloride
(C) Potassium fluoride (D) Both calcium chloride and potassium fluoride
52 Considering greater polarisation in LiCl as compared to that in NaCl, which of the following statement is
wrong -
(A) LiCl has lower M.P. than NaCl (B) LiCl dissolves in CCl4 while NaCl does not
(C) LiCl hydrolyses less as compared to NaCl (D) LiCl is less conductive in water than NaCl
53 Which of the following carbonate will not decompose on heating
(A) BaCO3 (B) ZnCO3 (C) Na2CO3 (D) Li2CO3

54 The decomposition temperature is maximum for -
(A) BeCO3 (B) CaCO3
(C) K2CO3 (D) Li2CO3
55 Which is mismatched -
(A) Nitrolim – CaCN2 + C (B) Microcosmic salt – Na(NH4)HPO4.4H2O
(C) Soda lime – NaHCO3 (D) Fusion mixture – K2CO3 + Na2CO3
56 Metallic magnesium is prepared by -
(A) Reduction of MgO by coke
(B)
(C)
(D)
Electolysis of aqueous solution of Mg(NO3)2
Displacement of Mg by iron from MgSO4 solution
Electrolysis of molten MgCl2
e R
57 In alkali metal family caesium should be -
(A)
(C)
Least conductive in water
Least density
(B)
(D)
y s
Having low b.p. and m.p.
The most electronegative
58
(A) LiNO3 (B) NO2
a l
What is the missing product 'X' in the following reaction - (Li3N + 3H2O  3LiOH + x)
(C) NH3 (D) N2 + H2
t
59 Electrolytic reduction of alumina to aluminium by Hall-Heroult process is carried out -
(A) In the presence of NaCl
60
(B)
(C)
C
(D)
a
In the presence of fluorite
In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with lower melting temperature
In the presence of cryolite which forms a melt with high melting temperature
Alum is the name used for all double salts having the composition M12SO4.M2III(SO4)3.24H2O.Where MIII
stands for Al+3, Cr+3, Fe+3, while MI stands for -
(A) Li+, Cu+, Ag+ (B) Li+, NH4+, Na+ (C) Na+, K+, Rb+ (D) Ca+2, Mg+2, Sr+2
61 Which of the following order is not correct -
(A) LiF > LiCl > LiBr > LiI – stability
(B) NaCl > KCl > RbCl > LiCl – Melting point
(C) LiH > NaH > KH > RbH – Melting point
(D) Ca(OH)2 > Sr(OH)2 > NaOH > KOH – Basic character
62 Which valuable byproduct is obtained in the Down's process for extraction of sodium -
(A) Oxygen (B) Hydrogen (C) Chlorine (D) 1 and 2 both
63 Which does not exists in solid state -
(A) LiHCO3 (B) CaCO3 (C) NaHCO3 (D) Na2CO3
64 Alkali metals dissolve in liquid NH3 then which of the following observation is not true -
(A) It becomes paramagnetic (B) Solution turns into blue due to solvated electrons
(C) It becomes diamagnetic (D) Solution becomes conducting

65 Limestone ore when heated CO2 is released. In metallurgy this process is called -
(A) Smelting (B) Ore-dressing (C) Calcination (D) Roasting

66 Which of the following element on reacting with cold water liberates H2
(A) Be (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Fe
67 Alkali metals does not form M+2 ions. The most probable reason is -
(A) They have only one electron (B) II and III IP difference is greater than 16 eV
(C) II and I IP difference is less than 11 eV (D) II and I IP difference is greater than 16 eV
68 Which of the following oxide is most thermally stable -
69
(A)
(A)
BaO (B)
Soluble Ca(OH) is formed

MgO (C)
(B)
BeO
e R
(D)
On passing excess of CO2 in lime water, its milky appearance disappears because -
Soluble Ca(HCO3)2 is formed
CaO
70
(C) Reaction becomes reversible (D)
y s
Calcium compound is evaporated
Which of the carbide will give methane when reacts with water -
l
(A) BeC2 (B) CaC2 (C) Be2C (D) Mg2C3
EXERCISE # 02
1.
2.
(A) Ca(OH)2
t (B)
a
When CO2 is passed through lime water, milkiness appears due to
CaCO3 (C) CaHCO3
The compound which are used as raw material in Solvay process?
(D) Both (B) & (C)
3.
(A)
(C)
C a
NaCl, NH3, CaCO3
Na2CO3, NH3, Ca(HCO3)2
On hydrolysis Mg2C3 gives the hydrocarbon
(A) C3H8
(B)
(D)
(B)
NaCl, NH4Cl, Ca(OH)2
NaOH, CaO, NH3
CH3–CH3 & CH  CH
(C) CH3–C  CH (D) CH3 – CH = CH2
4. Which compound is used as flux in extraction of iron?
(A) BeO (B) Na2O (C) CaO (D) Al2O3
5. Slaked lime is
(A) Ca(OH)2 (B) CaO (C) CaHCO3 (D) CaOCl2
6. A solution of potassium in liquid ammonia is strongly reducing due to the presence of
(A) Sodium atom (B) Sodium hydride (C) Sodium amide (D) Solvated electron
7. Peroxide bond is present in
(A) MgO (B) CaO (C) Li2O (D) BaO2
8. The solubility of group-2 sulphates in water decrease down the group. This is due to decrease in
(A) Hydration energy (B) Increase in melting point
(C) Higher coordination number (D) All of these
9. A metal on heating in nitrogen gas gives nitrides. Nitride of the metal on treatment with H2O gives a
colourless gas, which when passed through CuSO4 solution gives a blue colour, metal is
(A) Mg (B) Sn (C) K (D) Na
10. Glauber's salt is
(A) CuSO4.5H2O (B) Na2SO4.10H2O (C) MgSO4.7H2O (D) FeSO4.7H2O
11. Alkaline earth metal salts are
(A) Paramagnetic (B) Diamagnetic (C) Ferromagnetic (D) All of these

12. Setting of plaster of Paris involves
(A) Dehydration (B) Combination with CO2
(C) Oxidation with atmospheric oxygen (D) Hydration to yield another hydrate
13. When NaOH is added to Al(OH)3, it dissolves, aluminium is present in
(A) Cationic part (B) Anionic part
(C) Either cationic or anionic part (D) Remains insoluble
14. Some nonmetals when treated with KOH, disproportionates. Identify them
15.
(i)
(A)
P4
Both (i), (ii)
(ii)
(B)
S8
Only (ii)
(iii)
(C)
Cl2
(ii) and (iii)
e R
(D) (i), (ii) and (iii)
Magnesium ribbon heated in atmosphere of nitrogen, upon cooling when water is added to it, a gas is
s
evolved which is
(A) Hydrogen (B) Oxygen (C) Ammonia (D) Magnesium nitride
16. Sodium thiosulphate is prepared by
(A)
(B)
Reducing Na2SO4 solution with H2S
l
Boiling Na2SO3 solution with S in alkaline medium y
(C)
(D)
a
Neutralising H2S2O3 solution with NaOH
t
Boiling Na2SO3 solution with S in acidic medium
120°C
A
17. CaSO4.2H2O
C
(A)
(C)
a 200°C
A and B are respectively

B
Plaster of Paris, dead burnt plaster

Plaster of Paris, limestone
(B)
(D)
Lime, plaster of Paris
Dead burnt plaster, lime
 H O aq.CuSO 4
18. Metal  A 2 B(gas )     blue solution. The metal is
N2 atm.
(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Cu

19. Anhydrous mixture of KF and HF contains which type of ions?
(A) K+, H+ & F– (B) [KF] + & [ HF] – (C) KH+ & F– (D) K+ & HF2–
20. The correct order of solubilities of sulphates of alkaline earth metals
(A) MgSO4 > BeSO4 > CaSO4 > BaSO4 (B) BeSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > BaSO4
(C) BaSO4 > MgSO4 > CaSO4 > BeSO4 (D) BaSO4 > CaSO4 > MgSO4 > BeSO4
*****
PART - II (XII)
TOPIC : P BLOCK
EXERCISE # 01
1 FeSO4 forms dark brown ring with
(A) NO2 (B) N2O3 (C) NO (D) N2O
2 When HNO3 is heated with P2O5, it forms
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) NO3 (D) N2O5

3 Which of the following oxide of nitrogen is the anhydride of HNO3
(A) NO (B) N2O3 (C) N3O4 (D) N2O5
4 Phosphorus is manufactured by heating in a electric furnace a mxiture of
(A) Bone ash and coke (B) Bone ash and silica
(C) Bone ash, silica and coke (D) None of the above
5 Of the following metal nitrates, the one which gives nitrous oxide by thermal decomposition is
(A) Pb(NO3)2 (B) AgNO3 (C) KNO3 (D) NH4NO3
R
6 Nitrous oxide
(A) is a mixed oxide (B) is an acidic oxide
7
(C) is highly soluble in hot water (D)
NO2 is a mixed oxide is proved by the first that with NaOH, it forms
(A) Nitrites salt (B) Nitrates salt e
supports the combustion of sulphur
s
y
(C) Mixture of nitrate and nitrite (D) Ammonia
8 Superphosphate of lime is
(A)
(B)
(C) l
A mixture of normal calcium phosphate and gypsum
a
A mixture of primary calcium phosphate and gypsum
Normal calcium phosphate
10
(D)
t
Soluble calcium phosphate
White phosphorus contains
(A)
a
P5 molecules (B) P4 molecules (C) P6 molecules (D) P2 molecules
V–A group precipitate was dissolved in HNO3 and treated with excess of NH4OH. It gives a white ppt.
11
12
C
because of
(A) Cu(OH)2 (B) Cd(OH)2 (C) Bi(OH)2
Which of the following elements of group VA does not show allotropy
(A) N (B)
Which is the most explosive
Bi (C) P
(D)
(D)
H2(OH)2
As
(A) NCl3 (B) PCl3 (C) AsCl3 (D) All the above
13 Pure N2 gas is obtained from
(A) NH3 + NaNO2 (B) NH4Cl + NaNO2 (C) N2O + Cu (D) (NH4)2CrO7
14 Which is not a ionic peroxide
(A) K2O2 (B) Na2O2 (C) PbO2 (D) BaO2
15 A substance on heating gives oxygen. Truns acidified KI solution violet and reduces acidified KMnO4
solution. Hence the substance is :
(A) SO3 (B) KNO3 (C) H2O2 (D) All the above
16 A mixture of ammonia and air at about 800ºC in the presence of Pt gauze forms
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) NH2OH (D) N2O3
17 Nitrogen is essential constituent of all
(A) Proteins (B) Fats (C) Proteins and fats (D) None of these
18 The chemical used for cooling in refrigeration is
(A) CO2 (B) NH4OH (C) NH4Cl (D) Liquid NH3
19 Phosphide ion has the electronic structure similar to that of
(A) Nitride ion (B) Fluoride ion (C) Sodium ion (D) Chloride ion

20 Red phosphorus is less reactive than yellow phosphorus because
(A) Its colour is red (B) It is highly polymerised
(C) It is hard (D) It is insoluble in C2H5OH
21 BiCl3 on hydrolysis forms a white precipitate of
(A) Bismuthic acid (B) Bismuth oxychloride
(C) Bismuth pentachloride (D) Bismuth hydroxide
22 At high temperature nitrogen combines with calcium carbide (CaC2) to give
(A) Calcium cyanide (B) Calcium cyanamide
23
(C) Calcium carbonate (D) Calcium nitride
e R
When equal weights of the two fertilizers, urea and ammonium sulphate are taken, urea contains
(A) Less nitrogen than ammonium sulphate
(B)
(C)
(D)
As much nitrogen as ammonium sulphate
s
Twice the amount of nitrogen present in ammonium sulphate
y
More than twice the amount of nitrogen present in ammonium sulphate
24 In the following reaction
P4 + 3 NaOH + 3H2O  PH3 + 3 NaH2PO2
(A) Phosphorus is oxidised
a l (B) Phosphorus is oxidised and reduced
t
(C) Phosphorus is reduced (D) Sodium is oxidised
25 Oxygen was discovered by
26
27
(A)
Na2SO4 a
Priestley (B)
(B)
Ozone is obtained from oxygen
(A)
Boyle
Na2S
By oxidation at high temperature

(C)
When oxygen is passed through a solution of Na2SO3 we get
C
(A) (C)
(B)
Scheele
NaHSO4
(D)
(D)
Cavandish
NaH
By oxidation using a catalyst

(C) By silent electric discharge (D) By conversion at high pressure
28 Copper turnings when heated with concentrated sulphuric acid will give
(A) SO2 (B) SO3 (C) H2S (D) O2
29 A solution of sulphur dioxide in water reacts with H2S precipitating sulphur. Here sulphur dioxide acts as
(A) An oxidising agent (B) A reducing agent
(C) An acid (D) A catalyst
30 When SO2 is passed through cupric chloride solution
(A) A white precipitate is obtained
(B) The solution becomes colourless
(C) The solution becomes colourless and a withe precipitate of Cu2Cl2 is obtained
(D) No visible change takes place
31 About H2SO4 which is incorrect
(A) Reducing agent (B) Dehydrating agent
(C) Sulphonating agent (D) Highly viscous
32 In the reaction
2Ag + 2H2SO4  Ag2SO4 + 2H2O + SO2 H2SO4 acts as
(A) Reducing agent (B) Oxidising agent (C) Catalytic agent (D) Dehydrating agent

33 H2SO 4
In the reaction HCOOH   CO + H2O
H2SO4 acts as
(A) Dehydrating agent (B) Oxidising agent
(C) Reducing agent (D) All the above
34 Oxalic acid when heated with conc. H2SO4. gives out
(A) H2O and CO2 (B) CO and CO2
(C) Oxalic sulphate (D) CO2 and H2S
35
36
The acid used in lead strorage cells is
(A) Phosphoric acid (B) Nitric acid (C) Sulphuric acid
The products of the chemical reaction between Na2S2O3, Cl2 and H2O are
e R
(D) Hydrochloric acid
37
(A)
(C)
S + HCl + Na2S
S + HCl + Na2SO3
Glass is soluble in
(B)
(D)
s
S + HCl + Na2SO4
S + NaClO3 + H2O
y
38
(A) HF (B) H2SO4
l (C) HCl4
Chlorine reacts with sodium hydroxide under various condition to give
(A) Sodium chloride
a (B) Sodium hypochlorite

(D) Aqua-regia
t
(C) Sodium chlorate (D) All of the above
39 On boiling an aqueous solution of KClO3 with iodine, the following product is obtained
40
41
(A) KIO3
H2SO4 a (B)
(B)
KCIO4
Na2S
Which of the following is correct
(A) Iodine is a solid
(C)
(C)
(B)
KIO4
Na2S2O3
(D)
Colour of iodine solution is disappeared by shaking it with aqueous solution of
C
(A) (D)
KCl
Na2SO4
Chlorine is insoluble in water

(C) Iodine is more reactive than bromine (D) Bromine is more reactive than chlorine
42 Acid employed for etching glass is
(A) Aquea-regia (B) HF (C) HClO4 (D) H2SO4
43 Sea weed is employed as a source of munufacture of
(A) F (B) I (C) Br (D) Cl
44 In dark, which of the following reacts with hydrogen
(A) Br2 (B) F2 (C) I2 (D) Cl2
45 In the isolation of fluorine, a number of difficulties were encountered. Which statement is correct
(A) The potential required for the discharge of the fluoride ions is the lowest
(B) Fluorine reacts with most glass vessels
(C) Fluorine has great affinity for hydrogen
(D) Electrolysis of aqueous HF gives ozonised oxygen
46 When chlorine water is exposed to sunlight, O2 is liberated. Hence
(A) Hydrogen has little affinity of O2 (B) Hydrogen has more affinity to O2
(C) Hydrogen has more affinity to Cl2 (D) It is a reducing agent
47 Chlorine is used in water for
(A) Killing germs (B) Prevention of pollution
(C) Cleansing (D) Removing dirt

48 Chlorine cannot be used
(A) As bleaching agent (B) In sterilisation
(C) In preparation of antiseptic (D) For extraction of silver and copper
49 Chlorine acts as a bleaching agent only in presence of
(A) Dry air (B) Moisture (C) Sunlight (D) Pure oxygen
50 Euchlorine is a mixture of
(A) Cl2 and SO2 (B) Cl2 and ClO2 (C) Cl2 and CO (D) None of these
51 When chlorine is passed over dry slaked lime at room temperature, the main reaction product is
52
(A) Ca(ClO2)2 (B) CaCl2 (C) CaOCl2
Bromine is obtained commercially from sea water by adding
(A) AgNO3 solution (B) Crystals of NaBr R
(D) Ca(OCl2)2
e
s
(C) Cl2 (D) C2H4
53 A solution of HCl in water is good conductor while gaseous hydrogen chloride is not. This is due to the
y
reason that
(A) Water is a good conductor of electricity
(B)
(C)
(D)
HCl in water ionises
l
Gas can not conduct electricity but water can
None of these
a
54
55
(A)
a t
Which one below is a pseudohalide
CN–
Helium was discovered by
(A) Crooks
(B) ICl (C)
(B)
IF5
Rutherford
(D) I3–
C
(C) Frankland and Lockyer (D) Dorn
56 Which of the following has zero valency
(A) Sodium (B) Beryllium (C) Aluminium (D) Krypton
57 Precentage of Ar in air is about
(A) 1% (B) 2% (C) 3% (D) 4%
58 In which of the following pairs does the first gas bleaches flowers by reduction while the second gas does
so by oxidation
(A) CO and Cl2 (B) SO2 and Cl2 (C) H2 and Br2 (D) NH3 and SO2
59 Which element from V group, gives most basic compound with hydrogen
(A) Nitrogen (B) Bismuth (C) Arsenic (D) Phosphorus
60 KF combines with HF to form KHF2. The compound contains the species
(A) K+, F– and H+ (B) K+, F– and HF (C) K+ and [HF2]2– (D) [KHF]+ and F–
61 An element (X) forms compounds of the formula XCl3, X2O5 and Ca3X2, but does not form XCl5, which of the
following is the element X.
(A) B (B) Al (C) N (D) P
62 Which of the following properties increases on going down from F to I in group VII–A of the periodic table ?
(A) Electronegativity (B) Volatile nature (C) Ionic radius (D) Oxidising power
63 In the nitrogen family the H – M – H bond angle in the hydrides MH3 gradually becomes closer to 90º on
going from N to Sb. This show that gradually
(A) The basic strength of hydrides increases
(B) Almost pure p-orbitals are used for M – H bonding
(C) The bond energies of M – H bond increase
(D) The bond pairs of electrons become nearer to the central atom
64 Who among the following first prepared a stable compound of noble gas
(A) Rutherford (B) Rayleigh (C) Ramsay (D) Neil bartlett
65 Which one among the following non-metals liquid at 25ºC
(A) Bromine (B) Carbon (C) Phosphorus (D) Sulphur
66 The gas which shows maximum deviation from ideal behaviour is
(A) CO2 (B) O2 (C) He (D) N2
67 White enamel of our teeth is
R
(A) Ca3(PO4)2 (B) CaF2 (D) CaCl2 (D) CaBr2
68 A metal is burnt in air and the ash on moistening smells of NH3. The metal is
69
(A) Na (B) Fe
Which of the following is a cyclic phosphate
(A) H5P3O10 (B) H6P4O13
(C)
(C)
Mg
s
H5P5O15 e(D)
(D)
Al
H7P5O16
y
70 Sulphuric acid reacts with PCl5 to give
(A) Thionyl chloride (B) Sulphur monochloride
71
(C)
(A)
Sulphuryl chloride
H2S2O7 (B)
a l
Which of the following is called sulphuric anhydride
H2S2O3
(D)
(C)
Sulphur tetrachloride
SO2 (D) SO3

72
73
(A) MnO2
a t
HCl is added to the following oxides which one would give H2O2
(B) PbO2
The most efficient agent for the absorption of SO3 is
(C) BaO2 (D) None of these
C
(A) 98% H2SO4 (B) 80% H2SO4 (C) 20% oleum (D) 90% H2SO4
74 Which one of the following can be used as an anaesthetic
(A) N2O (B) NO (C) NCl3 (D) NO2
75 The compound which does not possess a peroxide linkage is :
(A) Na2O2 (B) CrO5 (C) H2SO5 (D) PbO2
76 The type of glass used in making lenses and prisms is :
(A) A flint glass (B) Jena glass (C) Pyrex glass (D) Quartz glass
77 Plumbosolvancy implies dissolution of lead in :
(A) Bases (B) Acids (C) Ordinary water (D) CuSO4 sol
78 sodium thisoulphate is used in photography :
(A) To convert metallic silver into silver salt
(B) AgBr grain is reduced to non-metallic silver
(C) To remove reduced silver
(D) To remove undecomposed AgBr in the from of
79 In laboratory silicon can be prepared by the reaction :
(A) By heating carbon in electric furnace (B) By heating potassium with potassium dichromate
(C) silica with magnesium (D) None of these
80 Silicon chloroform is prepared by :
(A) Si + HCl (B) SiCl4 + H2O (C) SiF4 + NaF (D) H2SiF6 + Cl2

81 Glass reacts with HF to produce :
(A) SiF4 (B) H2SiF6 (C) H2SiO3 (D) Na3AlF6
82 Quartz is a crystalline variety of :
(A) Silicon (B) Silica (C) Sodium silicate (D) Silicon carbide
83 In the reaction B2O3 + C + Cl2  A + CO. The A is :
(A) BCl3 (B) BCl2 (C) B2Cl2 (D) CCl4
R
84 In which of the following the inert pair effect is most prominent :
(A) C (B) Si (C) Ge (D) Pb
85
86
(A) Galium (B) Sodium (C)
Lead pipes are not suitable for drinking water because :
s
Potassium
e
Soft heavy metal melts at 30ºC and is used in making heat sensitive thermometers the metal is :
(D) Caesium
(A)
(B)
(C)
A layer of lead dioxide is depositied over pipes
l
Lead reacts with air to form litharge
Lead reacts with water containing air to from Pb(OH)2y
87
(D) Lead forms basic lead carbonate
t a
A substance X is a compound of an element of group IA the substance X gives a violet colour in flame test,
X is
88
89
(A)
C
(A)
LiCl
O
a
Which shows polymorphism
(B)
(B)
NaCl
S
Boron form covalent compound due to
(C)
(C)
KCl
Se
(D)
(D)
None
All
(A) Higher ionization energy (B) Lower ionization energy

(C) Small size (D) Both (a) and (c)
90 Aqua regia is a mixture of
(A) 3HCl + 1HNO3 (B) H3PO4 + H2SO4 (C) 3HNO3 + HCl (D) HCl + CH3COOH
91 Which metal burn in air at high temperature with the evolution of much heat
(A) Cu (B) Hg (C) Pb (D) Al
92 Tincal is
(A) Na2CO3. 10H2O (B) NaNO3 (C) NaCl (D) Na2B4O7 . 10H2O
*****
EXERCISE # 02
1. How many –OH group are present which are attached with Borons directly in borax (Na2B4O7.12H2O)?
(A) 12 (B) 0 (C) 4 (D) 2
2. Choose the correct order regarding lewis acidic character
(A) BF3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BI3 (B) BI3 > BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3
(C) BI3 > BBr3 > BCl3 > BF3 (D) BF3 > BI3 > BCl3 > BBr3

3. Which of the following is termed as inorganic benzene?
(A) BN (B) C6H6 (C) B3N3H6 (D) B3N3H12
4. How many bridging chlorine are present in Al2Cl6?
(A) Zero (B) Two (C) Four (D) Both (B) & (C)
5. Which one of the following hydride is not easily hydrolysed?
(A) PF3 (B) NF3 (C) PCl5 (D) PCl3
6. Ozone is a diamagnetic gas having .... colour
(A)
(C)
No colour
Dark blue colour
(B)
(D)
Red colour
Brown colour
e R
s
7. Which compound does not exist?
(A) SF6 (B) PbI4 (C) PbF4 (D) B2Cl4
8.
9.
The hypo solution stand for
(A) Na2S3O3 (B)
l
Na2S2O3.5H2O (C)
y
Na2S4O6
The correct sequence regarding the bond dissociation energy is
(D) Na2SO4
10.
(A)
(C)
Cl2 > Br2 > F2 > I2
t
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2
Which is the strongest acid? a (B)
(D)
F2 < Cl2 < Br2 < I2
Cl2 > Br2 > I2 > F2
11.
12.
(A)
C
(A)
H2SO4
a
Shape of XeO4 is
Tetrahedral
(B)
(B)
H3PO4
Pyramidle
(C)
(C)
Choose the correct sequence regarding acidic strength
HI
Sea-saw
(D)
(D)
HClO4
Square Planar
(A) H3PO2 > H3PO3 > H3PO4 (B) H3PO4 > H3PO3 > H3PO2
(C) H3PO4 > H3PO2 > H3PO3 (D) H3PO3 > H3PO4 > H3PO2
13. When CaC2 is treated with N2 at high temperature 1100ºC, the product will be
(A) Ca(CN)2 (B) CaNCN (C) Ca(NCN)2 (D) Ca3N2
14. Which of the following is a pseudohalogen?
(A) Cl2 (B) KI3 (C) (SCN)2 (D) Cl3–
15. Marshall’s acid is
(A) Peroxo-disulphuric acid (B) Peroxomono–sulphuric acid
(C) Dithionic acid (D) Pyrosulphuric acid
16. Conc. H2SO4 is not used to prepare HBr from KBr because
(A) HBr is reducing while H2SO4 is oxidising agent
(B) HBr is oxidising while H2SO4 is reducing agent
(C) There will be no reaction
(D) Reaction will be very slow
17. Hydrazoic acid is
(A) HNO2 (B) N3– (C) N3H (D) H2NHgOHgI

18. Possible oxidation state of boron family element is
(A) +1, +3 (B) +2, +4 (C) +3, +5 (D) +4, +6
19. Carbon shows tetravalency due to
(A) s2p2 hybridisation (B) d3p hybridisation
(C) dsp2 hybridisation (D) sp3 hybridisation
20. The correct order of bond strength
(A)
(C)
O 2  O2  O2–  O22 –
O 22  O2–  O 2  O2
(B)
(D)
e R
O 2  O 2  O2–  O22 –
O 2  O22 –  O2  O 2
21. The geometry of ClF3 is

(A)
(C)
Pentagonal bipyramidal
Octahedral
(B)
(D) s
Trigonal bipyramidal
y
Tetrahedral
22. In B2H6
(A)
a
There is direct boron-boron bond
l
t
(B) The boron atoms are linked through hydrogen bridges
(C) The structure is similar to C2H6
23.
24.
(D)
(A) Dimer a
All the atoms are in one plane
Solid PCl5 exists as
C (B) [PCl5]+ [PCl5]– (C)

Orthoboric acid behave as weak monobasic acid giving H3O+ and
(PCl3)Cl2 (D) [PCl4]+ [PCl6]–
(A) [B(OH)4]+ (B) H2BO2+ (C) [B(OH)4]– (D) H2BO2–

25. C atom of diamond and graphite is
(A) sp2, sp3 hybridized respectively (B) sp3, sp2 hybridized respectively
(C) sp3, sp3 hybridized respectively (D) sp2, sp2 hybridized respectively
26. The compound (Si H3)3N is expected to be
(A) Pyramidal and more basic than (CH3)3N (B) Planar and less basic than (CH3)3N
(C) Pyramidal and less basic than (CH3)3N (D) Planar and more basic than (CH3)3N
27. Which of the following on heating gives laughing gas?
(A) NaNO3 (B) NH4NO2 (C) NH4NO3 (D) HCOONH4
Cr2O3
X
heat CoO
28. Borax B2O3 Y
(glassy mass) NiCl2
Z
The colour of compound X, Y and Z respectively

(A) Green, blue, brown (B) Green, yellow, pink
(C) Pink, orange, brown (D) Brown, yellow, green

Cold, dil. NaOH
A + NaCl + H2O
29. Cl2
Hot, conc. NaOH
B + NaCl + H2O
Compound (A) and (B) are

(A) NaClO3, NaClO (B) NaOCl2, NaOCl (C) NaClO4, NaClO3 (D) NaOCl, NaClO3
30. COOH
|
COOH
H2SO4
H2SO4
A+B
HCOOH
Turns lime
e R
s
water milky
Gas A and B are
(A) CO, CO2
TOPIC : D & F BLOCK

(B) CO2, CO
l
(C)
yCO2, CaO (D) CO, CaO
1
(A)
t (B)
a EXERCISE # 01
All transition metals exhibit a general electronic configuration of
(n - 1) s2p6ns1 (n-1)s2p6d5ns1 (C) (n-1)s2p6ns2np1 (D) (n-1)s2p6d1–10ns0-2
2
C a
Which of the following atoms does not form interstitial compounds with transition elements?
(A) C (B) Pb (C) H (D)
To which of the following series the transition elements from Z = 39 to Z = 48 belong?
(A) 3d series (B) 4d series (C) 5d series (D)
N
6d series
4 Which oxide of manganese is acidic in nature.
(A) MnO (B) Mn2O7 (C) Mn2O3 (D) MnO2
5 Which of the following shows maximum +8 oxidation state?
(A) Re (B) Os (C) W (D) Ir
6 Which has the lowest melting point?
(A) Cs (B) Na (C) Hg (D) Sn
7 A magnetic moment of 1.73 BM will be shown by one among of the following compounds.
(A) [Cu(NH3)4]2+ (B) [Ni(CN)4]2– (C) TiCl4 (D) [CoCl6]–
8 Transition elements are frequently used as catalyst because.
(A) Of paired d-electrons (B) Of high ionic charge
(C) Free valency on the surface (D) Of their specific nature
9 Which of the following is not a property of transition elements?
(A) Colour (B) Paramagnetic (C) Fixed valency (D) Catalytic
10 Coinage metals show the properties of
(A) Typical elements (B) Normal elements
(C) Transitional elements (D) Inert elements
11 What is wrong about transition metals?
(A) Diamagnetic (B) Paramagnetic
(C) Form complexes (D) Show variable oxidation states

12 For the same transition metal ion, the colour of its compound will depend upon the
(A) Temperature of the reaction
(B) Pressure of the reaction
(C) Nature of ligands or Lewis bases attached to the metal ion.
(D) Concentration of the ligands
13 Which is the first man made element.
(A) Sc (B) Os (C) Tc (D) Zr
14 Which one of the following is not a complex compound?
(A)
(C)
[Cu(NH3)4]SO4.H2O
K2SO4.AI2(SO4)3.24H2O
(B)
(D)
[K2PtCI6]
[Co(NH3)6]CI3
e R
s
15 The addition compounds which retain their indentity in solution are called.
(A) Double salts (B) Complex compounds
16
(C) Coordination compounds
l
(D)
y (B) and (C) both

The total number of ligands attached to the central metal ion through coordination (sigma) bond is called.
(A) Valency of the metal ion (B) Oxidation state of the metal ion
17
(C)
(A) CO
t (B) a
Coordination number of metal ion
SCN–
(D)
Select bidentate or didentate ligand from the following.
(C)
None of the above
CH3COO– (D) C2O42–

18
19
20
(A)
C
aquo
a
In the nomenclatures of coordination compounds the ligand H2O is named according to new rules as.
(B) aqua (C) Aqueous
In the nomenclature of coordination compounds the ligand NO+ is named as.
(A) Nitrosonium (B) Nitronium (C) Nitrosylium
Give the name of the complex compound K3[Fe(C2O4)3] according to IUPAC system.
(D)
(D)
None of the above
Nitrosyl
(A) Potassium Ferric oxalate (B) Potassium trioxalato (III)

(C) Potassium trioxalatoferate (III) (D) None of the above
21 Give the IUPAC name of the complex compound [Co(NH3)4(H2O)Br](NO3)2
(A) Bromoaquotetraamine Cobalt (III) nitrate (B) Bromoauqotetraaminocobalt (III) nitrate
(C) Bromoaquatetraammine cobalt (III) nitrate (D) Tetraammine aquabromo cobalt (III) nitrate
22 Which of the following compounds will exhibit linkage isomerism?
(A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (B) [Co(NH3)5 NO2]Cl2
(C) [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (D) [Co(en)2Cl2]Cl
23 Which of the following complexes exhibits coordination isomerism?
(A) [Co(en)2Cl2]+ (B) [Cr(NH3)6]CI3
(C) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(CN)6] (D) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2]
24 Out of the following which complex will show geometrical isomerism?
(A) [Pt(NH3)2Cl2] (B) Ni(CO)4 (C) Na3[Ni(CN)4] (D) K[Ag(CN)2]
25 Which of the following complexes will show optical isomerism?
(A) [Cr(NH3)2]Cl2] (B) [Ni(H2O)6]2+ (C) [Pt(NH3)3Br]NO3 (D) [Cr(en)3]Cl3
26 The oxidation state of Ag in Tollen’s reagent is
(A) 0 (B) +1 (C) +1.5 (D) +2

27 The magnetic property and the shape of [Cr(NH3)]+ complex ions are:
(A) Paramagnetic, Octahedral (B) Diamagnetic, square planer
(C) Paramagnetic, tetrahedral (D) None of the above
28 Compounds which contain one or more metal carbon bonds are called:
(A) Organic compounds (B) Complex ccmpounds
(C) Metal carbides (D) Organometallic compounds
29 Which one of the following is used as a heterogeneous catalyst?
R
(A) Wilkinson’s catalyst (B) Tetraethyllead
(C) Zeigler Natta catalyst (D) Grignard’s reagent
30 The compound [Cr(H2O)]6 Cl3 and [Cr(H2O)4Cl2]Cl. H2O respresent
(A)
(C)
Linkage isomerism
Ligand isomerism.
(B)
(D)
s
Hydration isomerism
None of these e
y
31 Amongest the following ions which one has the highest paramagnetism
[Cr(H2O)6]2+ [Fe(H2O)6]3+ [Cu(H2O)6]2+ [Zn(H2O)6]2+
l
(A) (B) (C) (D)
32 The effective atomic number of Cr (atomic no. 24) in [Cr(NH3)6]CI3 is
a
(A) 35 (B) 27 (C) 33 (D) 36
33 Which one of the following will give a white precipitate with AgNO3 in aqueous medium?
34
(A)
(C)
(A)
a t
Co[(NH3)5Cl] (NO3)2
[Pt(en)Cl2]
Same as primary valency

(B)
(D)
(B)
[Pt(NH3)2 Cl2]
[Pt(NH3)4]Cl2
The co-ordination number of a metal in co-ordination compound is
Sum of primary and secondary valencies
35
36
C
(C) Same as secondary valency
Oxidation number of Ni in Ni(CO)4 is
(A) 2
Metal present in blood is
(B) 3
(D)
(C)
None of the above
1 (D) 0
(A) Al (B) Mg (C) Cu (D) Fe

37 Which of the following is an organometallic compound?
(A) Lithium methoxide (B) Lithium acetate
(C) Lithium dimethylamide (D) Methyl lithium
38 Inner orbital complexes are formed when ligand is
(A) Weak (B) Strong (C) F– (D) H2O
39 Which of the following complexes is an inner orbital complex?
(A) [CoF6]3– (B) [FeF6]3+ (C) [Cr(NH3)6]3+ (D) [Fe(H2O)6]2+
40 The maximum magnetic moment is shown by the ion with electronic configuration of
(A) 3d8 (B) 3d5 (C) 3d7 (D) 3d9
41 The most stable oxidation state of iron is :
(A) –2 (B) –3 (C) +2 (D) +3
42 Copper showing +2 oxidation state uses:
(A) One electron from 4s and one from 3d orbitals
(B) Both the electrons from 4s orbitals
(C) Both the electrons from 3d-orbitals
(D) None of these

43 Chemical formula of pyrolusite is
(A) Mn2O3 (B) MnO3 (C) MnO2 (D) Mn2O7
44 Which one of the following ions is coloured ?
(A) Sc3+. (B) Ti4+ (C) Zn2+ (D) V2+
45 The most abundant transition metal is :
(A) Cr (B) Fe (C) W (D) Zn
46 Iron (III)
47
(A)
(C)
Has a d6 configuration
Is isoelectronic with Co(ll)
In the hydrogenation of oils, the catalyst used is :
(B)
(D)
R
Has a d7 configuration
Is isoelectronic with Mn(II)
e
s
(A) Co (B) Ni (C) Pd (D) Pt
48 Permanent magnets are generally made of alloys of
49
(A)
(A)
Co
CrO
(B) Zn
l
(C)
y
Mn
Which of the following oxide of chromium is amphoteric in nature
(B) Cr2O3
(D) Pb
50
(C)
(A)
CrO3
Pt
t
Which metal has highest density ?
(B) Hg a (D)
(C)
CrO5
Os (D) Fe
51
52
C
(C)
(A)
a
Chemical Name of ‘Turn bull’s blue” is :
(A) Ferrous ferricyanide
Potassium cyanide
(B)
(B)
(D)
(C)
Potassium ferrocyanide
Potassium ferricyanide
Hexafluoro cobaltate (III) ion is found to be high spin complex, the probable hybrid state of cobalt in it, is:
dsp2 d2sp3 sp3d2 (D) sp3d
53 In the complex [Ni(H2O)2(NH3)4]+2 the magnetic moment () of Ni is :
(A) Zero (B) 2.83 BM (C) 1.73 BM (D) 3.87 BM
54 From the stability constant K (Hypothetical values) given below, predict which is strongest ligand:
(A) Cu+2 + 2C2O4–2 [Cu(C2O4)2]–2 K = 4.5 X 1011
(B) Cu + 4CN [Cu(CN)4]–2 K = 2.0 X 1027
(C) Cu2+ + 2en [Cu(en)2]2+ K = 3.0 X 1015
(D) Cu2+ + 4F [CuF4]–2 K = 9.5 X 106
55 The brown ring test for nitrites and hitrates is due to the formation of a complex ion with formula :
(A) [Fe(H2O)5NO]2+ (B) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (C) [Fe(H2O)(NO)5]2– (D) [Fe(NO)(CN)5]2+
56 In a ferric salt on adding KCN a prussian blue is obtained which is :
(A) K3[Fe(CN)6] (B) KFe[Fe(CN)6] (C) FeSO4[Fe(CN)6] (D) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
57 The formula of sodium nitropruside is :
(A) Na4[Fe(CN)5NO5] (B) Na2[Fe(CN)5NO] (C) NaFe[Fe(CN)6] (D) Na2[Fe(CN)6NO2]
58 Which of the following system has maximum number of unpaired electrones :
(A) d5 (Oetahedral, low spin) (B) d8 (Tetrahedral)
(C) d6 (Octahedral, low spin) (D) d3 (Octahedral)

59 The oxidation and coordination number of Pt in [Pt(C2H4)CI3]– is respectively :
(A) + 1, 3 (B) + 2, 4 (C) + 3, 6 (D) + 2, 5
60 Which of the following complex is anion :
(A) Fluoro pentaammine cobalt (III) (B) Trioxalato ferrate (III)
(C) Penta Carbonyl iron (o) (D) Dichloro diammine platinum
61 Oxidation state of Fe in haemoglobin is :
(A) 0 (B) +1 (C) +2 (D) +3
62
63
For which of
(A) d9 (B) d3 (C) d5
In brown ring complex compond [Fe (H2O)5NO]SO4, the oxidation state of Fe is :
e R
the dn Configuration, both low and high spin complexes are possible:
(D) d2
s
(A) +2 (B) +3 (C) +4 (D) +1
64 The wrong statement is :
65
(A)
(C)
Halide ligands forms high spin complex
[FeF6]–3 is inner orbital complex
Tollen’s reagent is :
l
(B)
(D)
y
Strong ligands from low spin complex
[NiCl4]–2 is outer orbital complex
66
(A) [Ag(NH3)2]+
t
Nessler’s reagent is :
(A) K2Hgl4
(B)
(B)
Ag2O
a
K2Hgl4 + KOH
(C)
(C)
Al (OH)2
K2HgI2 + KOH
(D)
(D)
[Au(CN)2]–
K2HgI4 + Hg
67
68
(A)
C
(C) a
A blue colouration is not obtained when :
NH4OH is added to CuSO4
FeCl3 reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6]
(B)
(D)
CuSO4 solution reacts with K4[Fe(CN)6]
Anhydrous white CuSO4 is dissolved in water
Which of the following will be able to show Cis-trans isomerism :
(A) Ma3b (B) M(AA)
2
(C) Ma
2b2
(D) M(AB)
2
The Correct answer is
(A) All (B) None (C) a and c (D) c and d
69 One among the following complex ions will not show optical activity
(A) [Ph(Br) (Cl) (I) (NO2) (C2H5N)(NH3)] (B) Cis-[CO(en)2Cl2]+
(C) [Co(en)(NH3)2Cl2]+ (D) Cr(NH3)4Cl2
70 A Planar Complex (Mabcd) gives :
(A) Two Optical isomer (B) Two geometrical isomer
(C) Three optical isomer (D) Three geometrical isomers
71 Out of the following which will not show geometrical isomerism :
(A) [Pt (NH3)2 (H2O)2]+2 (B) [Cr (NH3)5CI] Cl2
(C) [Co (en)2 Cl2]Cl (D) [Co (NH3)4Cl2] CI
72 [Co(NH3)4Cl2]NO2 and [Co(NH3)4Cl NO2]CI are
(A) Geometrical isomers (B) Optical isomers
(C) Linkage isomers (D) lonisation isomers
73 Theoritically the No. of geometrical isomers expected for octahedral complex [Mabcdef] is :
(A) Zero (B) 30 (C) 15 (D) 9
74 Which of the following has two geometrical isomers, and is also non ionisable :
(A) Pt (NH3)2Cl4 (B) Pt (NH3)3Cl4 (C) Pt(NH3)4Cl4 (D) Pt(NH3)6Cl4

75 Hypo is used in photography because it is :
(A) A strong reducing agent (B) A strong oxidising agent
(C) A strong Complexing agent (D) Photo sensitive Compound
76 The image on an exposed and developed photography film is due to :
(A) AgBr (B) [Ag(S2O3)2]3+ (C) Ag (D) Ag2O
77 The solubility of AgBr in hypo solution is due to the formation of :
(A) Ag2SO3 (B) Ag2S2O3 (C) [Ag(S2O3)]– (D) Ag(S2O3)2]3–
78
79
A compound which is used in photography is :
(A) AgCI (B) AgBr
Na2S2O3.5H2O is used in photography to :
(C) AgNO3
R
(D)
e
Ag2CO3
s
(A) Reduce AgBr to metallic Ag
(B) Remove reduced Ag
80
(C)
(D)
Remove undecomposed AgBr as a soluble complex
l
Converts metallic Ag to silver salt
y
Photo graphic films or plates have as an essential ingredient :
81
(A)
(C)
Silver oxide
t
Silver thio sulphate
a
Oxidation state of Ag in Na3[Ag(S2O3)2] is :
(B)
(D)
Silver bromide
Silver nitrate
82
83
(A)
C
(A)
(C)
+2
a
Sodium sulphate
Sodium thiosulphate
(B)
Hypo is the aqueous solution of :
-2
.
(C)
(B)
(D)
Silver halides are used in photography because they are :
0
Sodium argentate
Silver bromide
(D) +1
(A) Photosensetive (B) Soluble in hypo solution

(C) Soluble in NH4OH (D) Insoluble in acids
84 Which of the following ion in aqueous medium has orange colour :
(A) Cr2O7–2 (B) Cr+3 (C) MnO4– (D) MnO42–
85 Heat
K2Cr2O7   4K2Cr2O4+ 3O2 + X In the above reaction X is :
(A) Cr2O3 (B) CrO3 (C) Cr2O7 (D) CrO5 .
86 When a mixture of K2Cr2O7 and KCl is heated with conc.H2SO4,which of the following is produced
in the form of red vapours :- .
(A) CrO3 (B) CrO2Cl2 (C) CrCI3 (D) Cr2O3
87 When acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 is shaken with aqueous solution of FeSO4 then :
(A) Cr2O72– ion reduced to Cr+3 ions (B) Cr2O72– ion reduced to CrO72– ions
(C) Cr2O72– ion oxidised to Cr (D) Cr2O72– ion is oxidised to CrO3
88 The equilibrium Cr2O72– 2CrO42– .
(A) Exists in acidic medium (B) Exists in basic medium
(C) Exists in neutral medium (D) It does not exists.

89 Which of the following compound is used as the starting material for the preparation of potassium
dichromates:
(A) K2SO4Cr2 (SO4)3.24H2O (Chrome alum) (B) PbCrO4 (Chrome yellow)
(C) FeCr2O4 (Chromite) (D) PbCrO4PbO(Chrome red)
90 The blue colour produced on adding H2O2 to acidified K2Cr2O7 is due to the formation of ;
(A) CrO5 (B) Cr2O3 (C) CrO72– (D) CrO3
91 Which of the following oxide of chromium is amphoteric in nature :
R
(A) CrO3 (B) Cr2O3 (C) CrO3 (D) CrO5
92 The yellow colour of chromates changes to orange on acidification due to the formation of :
93
(A) Cr+3 (B) Cr2O3
CrO3 dissolves in aqueous NaOH to give :
(A) CrO42– (B) Cr(OH)2
(C)
(C)
Cr2O72–
s
Cr2O72– e
(D)
(D)
CrO4–
Cr(OH)3
94
95
The equilibrium
(A)
Cr2O72–
An acidic medium (B)
l
A basic medium
Which of the following statement is wrong :
(C)
y
2CrO42– is shified to back is :
A neutral medium (D) It does not exists.
(A)
(B)
(C) a
An acidified solution of K2Cr2O7 liberates iodine from iodides.
t
In acidic solution dichromates ions are converted to Chromate ions.
Ammonium dichromate on heating undergo exothermic decomposition to give Cr2O3
96
97
(D)
C
(A) +5 a
Potassium dichromate is used as a titrant for Fe+2 ions.
Chromium has most stable oxidation state is :
(B) +3 (C) +4 (D) +2
Acidified K2Cr2O7 is treated with H2S. In the reaction the oxidation number of chromium :
(A) Increases from + 3 to + 6 (B) Decreases from + 6 to + 3
(C) Remains unchanged (D) Decreased from + 6 to + 2
98 Acidified solution of chromic acid on treatment with H2O2 yeilds :
(A) CrO3 + H2O + O2 (B) Cr2O3 + H2O + O2
(C) CrOs + H2O (D) H2Cr2O7 + H2O + O2
99 The formula of blue perchromate is :
(A) CrO3 (B) Cr2O3 (C) CrO5 (D) None
100 The elements from thorium (At.No. 90) to lawrencium (At No. 103) in which 5f energy levels are filled up are
called
(A) lanthanides (B) rare earths (C) actinides (D) transuranics
101 Which of the two have almost similar size:
(A) 22Ti, 40Zr (B) 41Nb, 73Ta (C) 39Y, 57La (D) 20Ca, 38Sr
102 Select the element in the following which does not show +4 oxidation state:
(A) Ti (B) Zr (C) La (D) Pt
103 With increase in atomic number the ionic radii or actinides:
(A) contract slightly (B) increase gradually (C) show no change (D) change irregularly
104 The general electronic configuration of lathanide is :
(A) [Xe] 4f 1-14 5d0–1 6s2 (B) [Xe] 4f 0–14 5d1–2 6s1
(C) [Xe] 4f 0-14 5d0–1 6s1–2 (D) None of these

105 Cerium can show the oxidation state of +4 because:
(A) it resemble alkali metals
(B) it has very low value of I.E.
(C) of its tendency to attain noble gas configuration of xenon
(D) of its tendency to attain 4f7 configuration
106 The elements from cerium (At No. 58) to lutetium (At No. 71) in which 4f energy levels are filled up are
called:
(A) lanthanides (B) rare earths (C) lanthanones (D) all the above
107
108
The actinides showing + 7 oxidation state are :
(A) U, Np
In aqueus solution Eu+2
(B) Pu, Am
acts as :
(C) Np, Pu
e R
(D) None of these
109
(A)
(C)
an oxidising agent
can act either ot these
(B)
(D)
s
reducing agent
can act as redox agent
y
Give the ions having 4f145do6so outer electronic configuration:
l
(A) Yb2+ (B) Lu3+ (C) Yb3+ (D) Both (A) and (B)
110 The maximum oxidation state shown by actinides is :
a
(A) +6 (B) +7 (C) +5 (D) +4
111 Which of the following is a lanthanide:
112
113
(A) Ta
a t (B) Rh (C) Th
The outer electronic configuration of gadolinium (At. No. 64) is :
(A) 4f 75d16s2 (B) 4f 85d06s2 (C) 4f 85d16s1
The outer electronic configuration of the element No (Nobelium. At. No. 102) is
(D)
(D)
Gd
4f 75d06s2
114
115
C
(A)
(A)
(C)
5f 146d07s2
representative element
lanthanide
(B) 5f 136d17s2 (C)
(B)
(D)
The most characteristic oxidation state of lanthanides is :
5f 146d17s1
The element with the electronic configura ion [Xe]54 4f 14 5d16s2 is a
transition element
actinide
(D) none of the above
(A) +2 (B) +3 (C) +4 (D) None of these
*****
EXERCISE # 02
1. Ore of copper is
(A) Calamine (B) Dolomite (C) Malachite (D) Horn silver
2. Lunar caustic is the name of
(A) Silver chloride (B) Silver nitrate (C) Sodium nitrate (D) Potassium nitrate
3. Which of the following species have highest magnetic moment?
(A) Cu+2 (B) Fe+3 (C) Mn+3 (D) Cr+3
4. Monds process belong with extraction of
(A) Ti (B) Ni (C) Mo (D) Fe
5. Actinide series contains
(A) 6 elements (B) 8 elements (C) 10 elements (D) 14 elements

6. The number of unpaired electron in Mn2+ is
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5
7. Transition metal does not exhibit the property of
(A) Formation of coloured salt (B) Variable oxidation states
(C) Inert pair effect (D) Catalytic activity
8. Which of the following exhibits largest number of oxidation states?
(A) Zr (B) V (C) Mn (D) Ni
R
9. KMnO4 act as oxidising agent in
(A) Acidic medium only (B) Neutral and acidic medium only
10.
(C) Neutral and alkaline medium only (D)
e
Neutral, acidic and alkaline medium
s
The equivalent mass of K2Cr2O7, when it acts as oxidising agent in acidic medium is equal to
M M M M
y
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 6 5
11.
12.
(A) Cu2SO3 (B)
a l
Heating the mixture of Cu2O and Cu2S will give
CuO + CuS (C)
Calomel (Hg2Cl2) on reaction with ammonium hydroxide gives
Cu + SO3 (D) Cu + SO2
13.
(A) HgO
t
In dichromate di-anion
(A)
(C)
a
(B) Hg2O
4 Cr – O bonds are equivalent

All Cr – O bonds are equivalent
(C)
(B)
(D)
Hg(NH2)Cl · Hg (D) HgNH2Cl
6 Cr – O bonds are equivalent

All Cr – O bonds are non equivalent
14.
15. C
Which of the following does not form coloured complexes?
(A) Ni(II) (B) Cu(I)
The stability of ferric ion is due to
(A)
(C)
Completely filled d-orbitals
Half filled f-orbitals
(C)
(B)
(D)
Fe(II) (D)
Half filled d-orbitals

Cr(IV)
Completely filled f and d orbitals

16. Number of shells which are partially filled in inner transition elements?
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 2 (D) 1
17. The reaction MnO 4  e   MnO 24 takes place in
(A) Basic medium (B) Acidic medium

(C) Neutral medium (D) Both acidic and basic medium
18. Equivalent mass of KMnO4 in acidic, neutral and alkaline medium will be respectively
(M = Molar Mass of KMnO4).
M M M M M M M M M M M M
(A) , , (B) , , (C) , , (D) , ,
5 3 1 5 1 3 3 1 5 1 3 3
19. Dichromate and chromate ions exist in equilibrium. Which are interconvertible by changing the pH of
the solution
2– 2–
2CrO4 Cr2O7
The colour of solution pH < 5 and pH > 10 medium will be respectively
(A) Orange, yellow (B) Yellow, orange (C) Orange, orange (D) Yellow, yellow

3
20. Fe 2  Fe (CN)6   A
4
Fe3   Fe (CN)6   B
A and B are respectively
(A) Prussian blue, Turnbull’s blue (B) Turnbull’s blue, Prussian blue
(C) Ferric thiocyanate, Ferric ferrocyanide (D) Ferrocyanide, Ferric ferrocyanide
TOPIC : ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY

EXERCISE # 01
e R
s
1 A mixture when heated with conc. H2SO4 with MnO2 brown fumes are formed due to
(A) Br– (B) NO3– (C) Cl– (D) I–
y
2 Which of the following precipitate does not dissolve even in large excess of NH4OH
(A) AgCl (B) AgBr (C) AgI (D) None of these
3
tains
(A) Cl (B) I–
a l
When Cl2 water is added to a salt solution containing chloroform, chloroform layer turns violet. Salt con-
(C) NO3– (D) S2–

4
5
(A) Violet
a t
Phosphate radical with ammonium molybdate gives precipitate of which colour
(B) Pink (C) Canary yellow (D) Green
A mixture when heated with dil. H2SO4 gives vapours which turn starch iodide paper blue. This is a test for
the radical
C
(A) Nitrite (B) Iodide (C) Nitrate (D) Nitrite and Iodide
6 Mark the gas which turns lime water milky
(A) H2S (B) SO2 (C) Cl2 (D) None of these
7 Starch-iodide paper is used for the test of
(A) Iodine (B) Iodide ion (C) Oxidising agent (D) Reducing agent
8 In the test of sulphate radical, the white precipitate of sulphate is soluble in
(A) Conc. HCl (B) Conc. H2SO4 (C) Conc. HNO3 (D) None of these
9 Which of the following pairs of ions. when mixed in dilute solutions may give precipitate
(A) Na+, SO42– (B) NH4+, CO32– (C) Na+, S2– (D) Fe3+, PO43–
10 A solution prepared in conc. HCl sometimes gives white turbidity even in the absence of 1 st group, when
water is added to it. It is due to the presence of
(A) Hg2+ (B) Sb3+ (C) Ag3+ (D) Sb3+ or Bi3+ or both
11 A precipitate of calcium oxalate will not dissolve in
(A) HCl (B) HNO3 (C) Aqua-regia (D) Acetic acid
12 A salt gives bright red colour to the flame. This colour indicates the presence of
(A) Ba2+ (B) Sr2+ (C) Ca2+ (D) Cr3+
13 Which of the following give white precipitate when HCl is added to its aqueous solution
(A) Hg+ (B) Mg+ + (C) Zn++ (D) Cd++
14 When H2S is passed through in II group some times solution becomes milky. It indicates the presence of
(A) Acidic salt (B) An oxidising agent
(C) Thiosulphate (D) A reducing agent
15 Which one of the following salt give green coloured flame when the salt is tested by Pt wire
(A) Barium salt (B) Calcium salt (C) Borate (D) Lead salt

16 Reagent used in the qualitative analysis of IVth group is
(A) HCl (B) H2S(alkaline) (C) (NH4)2 S (D) None of these
17 Sodium sulphite on heating with dilute HCl liberates a gas which
(A) Turns lead acetate paper black (B) Turns acidified potassium dichromate paper green
(C) Burns with a blue flame (D) Smells like vinegar
18 When concentrated H2SO4 is added to dry KNO3, brown fumes evolve. These fumes are
(A) SO2 (B) SO3 (C) NO (D) NO2
R
19 A reagent that can distinguish between a chloride and a peroxide is
(A) Water (B) Dil. H2SO4 (C) KOH solution (D) NaCl
e
20 A 0.3 M HCl solution contains the following ions Hg++, Cd++, Sr++, Fe++, Cu++. The addition of H2S to above
solution will precipitate
21
(A) Cd, Cu and Hg (B) Cd, Fe and Sr (C)
sHg. Cu and Fe
Which of the following will not produce a precipitate with AgNO3 solution
(A) F– (B) Br – (C)
y CO3–2
(D)
(D)
Cu, Sr and Fe
PO43–
22
(C) HBr
a l
When KBr is treated with conc. H2SO4 a reddish brown gas is evolved. The evolved gas is
(A) Bromine (B)
(D) NO2
Mixture of bromine and HBr
t
23 Mark the compound which turns black with NH4OH
(A) Lead chloride (B) Mercurous chloride
a
(C) Mercuric chloride (D) Silver chloride
24 A brown ring appears in the test for
(A) Nitrate (B) Nitrite (C) Bromide (D) Iron
25
26
27
C
The ion that cannot be precipitated by both HCl and H2S is
(A) Pb+2 (B) Cu+
The metal that does not give the borax bead test is
(A) Cr (B) Ni
(C) Ag+
(C) Na
(D) Sn2+
(D) Mn
Addition of solution of oxalate to an aqueous solution of mixture of Ba , Sr++, and Ca++ will precipitate
++
(A) Ca++ (B) Ca++ and Sr++ (C) Ba++ and Sr++ (D) All the three
28 Distinguishing reagent between silver and lead salts is
(A) H2S gas (B) Hot dilute HCl solution
(C) NH4Cl(solid) + NH4OH solution (D) NH4Cl(solid) + (NH4)CO3 solution
29 Nessler’s reagent is used to detect
(A) CrO42– (B) PO43– (C) MnO4– (D) NH4+
30 Which gives violet coloured bead in borax bead test
(A) Fe2+ (B) Ni2+ (C) Co2+ (D) Mn2+
31 In fifth group, (NH4)2 CO3 is added to precipitate out the carbonates. We do not add Na2CO3 because
(A) CaCO3 is soluble in Na2CO3
(B) Na2CO3 increases the solubility of fifth group carbonates
(C) MgCO3will be precipitated out in fifth gruop
(D) None of these
32 The composition of ‘Golden spangles’ is
(A) PbCrO4 (B) PbI2 (C) As2S 3 (D) BaCrO4

33 On adding excess of ammonium hydroxide to a copper sulphate solution
(A) Blue precipitate of copper hydroxide is obtained
(B) Black precipitate of copper oxide is obtained
(C) A deep blue solution is obtained
(D) No change is observed
34 Nessler’s reagent is
(A) KHgI4 (B) K2HgI4 + NH4OH (C) K2HgI4 + KOH (D) KHgI4+ NH4OH
35 Lead sulphate is soluble
36
(A) In conc. nitric acid
(C) In a solution of ammonium acetate (D) In water
e R
(B) In conc. hydrochloric acid
A white solid ‘A’ on heating gives off a gas which turns lime water milky. The residue is yellow when hot but
s
turns white on cooling. This solid ‘A’ is
(A) Zinc sulphate (B) Zinc carbonate (C) Lead sulphate (D) Lead carbonate
y
37 The colour of CuCr2O7 solution in water is green because
(A) Cr2O72–ions are green (B) Cu++ ions are green
38
(C) Both ions are green
BaSO4 (b) CuS l (D) Cu++ ions are blue and Cr2O72– ions are yellow
Which of the following substances are soluble in concentrated HNO3
(a)
a (c) PbS (d) HgS
t
Correct answer is
(A) a, b, c (B) b,c,d (C) a, c, d, (D) All
39
40
41
(A)
C
Fe3+
a
Which of the following cannot give iodometric titrations
(B) Cu2+ (C) Pb2+
Which of the following reactions with H2S does not produce metallic sulphide
(A) ZnCl2 (B) CdCl2 (C) COCl2
(D)
(D)
H2S is passed through an acidified solution of Ag, Cu and Zn. Which forms precipitate
Ag+
CuCl2
(A) Ag (B) Zn (C) Cu (D) None of these

42 Br2 vapour turns starch + KI paper to
(A) Blue (B) Brown (C) Red (D) None
43 Fe2+ ion can be distinguished by Fe3+ ion by
(A) NH4SCN (B) AgNO3 (C) BaCl2 (D) None of these
44 Concentrated sodium hydroxide can separate a mixture of
(A) Zn2+ and Pb2+ (B) Al3+ and Zn3+ (C) Cr3+ and Fe3+ (D) Al3+ and Cr3+
45 Which of the following compounds is brown coloured
(A) Fe[Fe(CN)4] (B) Fe[Fe(CN)6] (C) Fe4[Fe(CN)6] (D) K2Fe[Fe(CN)6]
46 An aqueous solution of an inorganic salt on treatment with HCl gives a white precipitate. This solution
contains.
(A) Hg2+2 (B) Hg2+ (C) Zn2+ (D) Cd2+
47 On performing a borax-bead test with a given inorganic mixture for qualitative analysis, the colour of the
bead was found be be emerald green both in oxidising and reducing flame. It indicates the possiblity of the
presence of
(A) Co+2 (B) Ni+2 (C) Cr+3 (D) Cu+2
48 Which reagent is used to remove SO4– and Cl–
(A) BaSO4 (B) NaOH (C) Pb(NO3)2 (D) KOH

49 When H2S is passed through a mixture containing Cu+2, Ni+2, Zn+2 in acidic solution then ion will precipi-
tate
(A) Co+2, Ni+2 (B) Ni+2 (C) Cu+2, Zn+2 (D) Cu+2
50 Mark the correct statement
(A) I group basic radicals precipitate as chlorides
(B) IV group basic radicals precipitate as sulphides
(C) V group basic radicals precipitate as carbonates
(D) All the above statement are correct
51 Group reagent for analytic group IV is
(A)
(C)
NH4Cl + NH4OH
NH4OH + (NH4)2CO3
(B)
(D)
NH4Cl + NH4OH + H2S
HCI + H2S
e R
52
53
When H2S is passed through Hg2S we get
(A) HgS (B) HgS + Hg2S (C)
How do we differentiate between Fe3+ and Cr3+ in group III s
Hg2S + Hg
y
(D) Hg2S
54
(A)
(C)
By taking excess of NH4OH solution
a l
By decreasing OH– ion concentration
(B)
(D)
By increasing NH4+ ion concentration
Both (B) and (C)
In borax bead test, which of the following compound is formed
t
(A) Meta borate (B) Tetra borate (C) Double oxide (D) Ortho borate
55 The brown ring test for NO2 and NO3 is due to the formation of complex ion with the formula
a
(A) [Fe(H2O)6]2+ (B) [Fe(NO) (CN)5]2+ (C) [Fe(H2OH)5NO]2+ (D) [Fe(H2O) (NO)5]2+
56 A red solid is insoluble in water. However it becomes soluble if some KI is added to water. Heating the !ed
solid in a test tube results in liberation of some violet coloured fumes and droplets of a metal appear on the
57 C
cooler parts of the test tube. The red solid is
(A) (NH4)2Cr2O7 (B) HgI2 (C)
[X] + H2SO4  [Y] a colourless gas with irritating smell
[Y] + K2Cr2O7 + H2SO4  green solution
[X] and [Y] is
HgO (D) Pb3O4
(A) SO32–, SO2 (B) Cl–, HCI (C) S2–, H2S (D) CO32–, CO2
58 In the analysis of basic radicals. the group reagent H2S gas is generally used in the groups
(A) I and II groups (B) II and III groups (C) III and V groups (D) II and IV groups
59 Addition of SnCl2 to HgCl2 gives ppt
(A) White turning to red (B) White turning to gray
(C) Black turning to white (D) None of these
60 Heamoglobin is a complex of
(A) Fe3+ (B) Fe2+ (C) Fe4+ (D) Cu2+
61 The potassium fericyanide produces on ionization
(A) 2 ions (B) 1 ion (C) 3 ions (D) 4 ions
62 Precipitate of group IV cations takes place when H2S is
(A) Highly ionised (B) Less ionised (C) Not ionised (D) None of these
63 A solution of a salt in dilute sulphuric acid imparts deep blue colour with starch iodine solution it confirms
the presence of which of the following
(A) NO2– (B) I– (C) NO3– (D) CH3COO–

64 An aqueous solution of a salt gives black ppt upon treament with KI solution. The ppt dissolves in excess
of KI giving orange coloured soluton. Hence cation of the salt is
(A) Hg2+ (B) Cu2+ (C) Pb2+ (D) Bi3+
*****
e R
y s
a l
a t
C

ANSWER KEY
PART - I (XI)
PERIODIC TABLE
EXERCISE # 01
R
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. (B) (D) (A) (D) (C) (B) (C) (D) (D) (A)
e
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. (A) (C) (A) (A) (C) (A) (C) (C) (B) (B)
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
21
(C)
31
22
(C)
32
23
(A)
33
24
(A)
25
(B)
26
(D)
y s
27
(B)
28
(C)
29
(D)
30
(A)
Ans.
S BLOCK
(A) (C) (D)
a l
Qus.
Ans.
1
(D)
a t
2
(D)
3
(D)
4
(D)
EXERCISE # 01
5
(A)
6
(D)
7
(A)
8
(C)
9
(D)
10
(A)
C
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
11
(D)
21
(C)
31
12
(C)
22
(A)
32
13
(D)
23
(D)
33
14
(A)
24
(D)
34
15
(D)
25
(A)
35
16
(D)
26
(B)
36
17
(B)
27
(B)
37
18
(B)
28
(C)
38
19
(D)
29
(B)
39
20
(B)
30
(D)
40
Ans. (C) (A) (C) (D) (D) (C) (B) (B) (B) (C)
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. (B) (B) (C) (D) (D) (A) (D) (D) (C) (D)
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. (D) (C) (C) (C) (C) (D) (B) (C) (C) (C)
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. (D) (C) (A) (C) (C) (C) (D) (B) (B) (C)
EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. (B) (A) (C) (C) (A) (D) (D) (A) (A) (B)
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. (B) (D) (B) (D) (C) (B) (A) (B) (D) (B)

PART - I (XII)
P BLOCK
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. (C) (D) (D) (C) (D) (D) (C) (B) (B) (C)
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
(B)
21
(B)
31
(A)
22
(B)
32
(B)
23
(D)
33
(C)
24
(B)
34
(C)
25
(A)
35
(B)
26
(A)
36
(A)
27
(C)
37
(D)
28
(A)
38
29
e R
(D)
(A)
39
(B)
30
(C)
40
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
(A)
41
(A)
(B)
42
(B)
(A)
43
(B)
(B)
44
(B)
(C)
45
(A)
(B)
46
(C)
y s(C)
47
(A)
(D)
48
(D)
(A)
49
(B)
(C)
50
(B)
l
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. (C) (C) (B) (A) (C) (D) (A) (B) (A) (C)
a
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. (C) (C) (D) (D) (A) (A) (B) (C) (C) (C)
t
Qus. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. (D) (C) (A) (A) (D) (A) (C) (A) (C) (A)
a
Qus. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. (A) (B) (A) (D) (A) (C) (C) (D) (D) (A)
Qus. 91 92
C
Ans. (D) (D)
EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. (C) (C) (C) (B) (B) (C) (B) (B) (A) (D)
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. (A) (A) (B) (C) (A) (A) (C) (A) (D) (B)
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. (B) (B) (D) (C) (B) (B) (C) (A) (D) (A)

D & F BLOCK
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. (D) (B) (B) (B) (B) (C) (A) (C) (C) (C)
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. (A) (C) (C) (C) (D) (C) (D) (B) (A) (C)
R
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. (D) (B) (C) (A) (D) (B) (A) (D) (C) (B)
e
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. (B) (C) (D) (C) (D) (D) (D) (B) (C) (B)
s
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. (D) (A) (C) (D) (B) (D) (B) (A) (B) (C)
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
(A)
61
(C)
(C)
62
(C)
(B)
63
(B)
(B)
64
(C)
l
(A)
65
(A)
(D)
66
(B)
y (B)
67
(B)
(D)
68
(D)
(B)
69
(D)
(B)
70
(D)
a
Qus. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. (B) (D) (C) (A) (C) (C) (D) (B) (C) (B)
t
Qus. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
Ans. (D) (C) (A) (A) (A) (B) (A) (B) (C) (A)
a
Qus. 91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
Ans. (B) (C) (A) (A) (B) (B) (B) (C) (C) (C)
Qus. 101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
C
Ans. (B) (C) (A) (A) (C) (D) (C) (B) (D) (B)
Qus. 111 112 113 114 115
Ans. (D) (A) (A) (C) (B)
ANALYTICAL CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. (A) (C) (B) (C) (A) (B) (A) (D) (D) (D)
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. (D) (B) (A) (B) (A) (B) (B) (D) (B) (A)
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. (A) (A) (B) (A) (B) (C) (D) (B) (D) (D)
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. (C) (B) (C) (C) (A) (B) (D) (B) (C) (C)
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. (C) (A) (A) (C) (B) (A) (C) (C) (D) (D)
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. (D) (C) (D) (A) (C) (B) (C) (D) (B) (B)
Qus. 61 62 63 64
Ans. (D) (D) (D) (D)

ORGANIC CHEMISTRY
PART - I (XI)
TOPIC : NOMENCLATURE
EXERCISE #01
1. IUPAC name of HCOOCH3 is
(A) Methoxy methanal (B) Ethanoic acid (C) Methyl methanoate (D) Methoxy methane
R
2. The IUPAC name of the following compound is
s e
(A) 3-Ethyl-4-methyl hex-5-en-2-ol
(C) 3-Methyl-4-ethyl hex-1-en-5-ol
l y
(B) 4-Ethyl-3-methyl hex-1-en-5-ol
(D) 4-Methyl-3-ethyl hex-5-en-2-ol
a
3. The principal functional group of the following compound is
(A) – OH
a t HOCH2CHCH2  C  CH2CHO
|
Cl
(B) – Cl
O
||
(C) – CHO (D) – CO –
4.
C
The structure of 2-methoxy-2-methyl propane is
CH3
|
(A) H3 C  CH  O  CH3
CH3
|
(B) H3 C  C  O  CH3
|
CH3
(C) CH3 – O – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (D) CH3 – CH2 – O – CH2 – CH3
5. The IUPAC name of the compound, CH C – CH2 – CH2 – COOH is

(A) 1-pentyn-4-oic acid (B) Pentyn-1-oic acid (C) 5-pentyn-1-oic acid (D) Pent-4-yn-1-oic acid
6. The compound is named in IUPAC as
(A) 6-Octene -2-yne (B) 1, 6-Dimethyl hex-1-en-4-yne

(C) 7-methyl 2-octene-6- yne (D) oct-2-en-6-yne
7. The IUPAC name of CH2 = CH – CH = CH – C  CH, is

(A) 3, 5-hexadiene-5-yne (B) 1, 2-hexadiene-1-yne (C) 1, 3-hexadiene-5-yne (D) 3, 5-hexadiene-1-yne
8. Urea is named in IUPAC as

(A) Amino acetamide (B) diamino ketone (C) Amino methanamide (D) 1-Amino ethanamide

9. The IUPAC name of compound is
(A) 3, 4-dimethyl-2-buten-4-ol (B) 1, 2-dimethyl-2-butenol

(C) 3-methyl pent-3-en-2-ol (D) 2, 3-dimethyl-3-pentenol
10. The IUPAC name of the compound CH3  CH  C CH  CH2  C  CH is
R
| |
Cl CH3
11.
(A) 5-chloro 4-methyl hept-5-en-1-yne
(C) 3-chloro 4-methyl hept-2-en-6-yne
The IUPAC name of the compound CBr3CH2CH2CHO is

e
(B) 5-chloro 4-methyl hept-1-en-5-yne
s
(D) 3-chloro 4-methyl hept-6-en-2-yne
(A) 4, 4, 4-tri bromobutanal

(C) 3, 3, 3-tri bromo butanaldehyde
l y
(B) 3, 3, 3-tri bromobutanal
(D) 4, 4, 4-tri bromo butanaldehyde
12.
CN CN CN
| | | a
What is the IUPAC name of compound having following structure ?
t
a
CH2  CH  CH2
(A) 1, 2, 3-Cyanopropane (B) 1, 2, 3-Tricyanopropane
13.
C
(C) Propane-1, 2, 3-tricarbonitrile (D) 3-Cyano-1, 5 pentane dinitrile
The correct IUPAC name of compound having structural formula CH3 – CH(OH)–COOH is
(A) Lactic acid
(C) -hydroxy propanoic acid
(B) 2-hydroxy propanoic acid
(D) carboxypropanol
COOH
|
14. The correct IUPAC name of the compound HOOC  CH  COOH is
(A) propane 1, 2, 3-tricarboxylic acid (B) propane 1, 2, 3-trioic acid

(C) 2-carboxypropane dioic acid (D) methane tricarboxylic acid
O
||
15. The compound OHC  C  OH will be named in IUPAC as
(A) Glyoxalic acid (B) Formyl methanoic acid

(C) 2-ketoethanoic acid (D) All these are correct
16. The correct IUPAC name of the compound CH3CH(OH)CH2C(OH)(CH3)2 is
(A) 2-methylpentane-2, 4-diol (B) 4-methyl-2, 4-pentane-2, 4-diol
(C) 1, 1-dimethyl-1, 3-butanediol (D) 1, 3, 3-trimethyl-1, 3-propanediol

17. Choose the correct IUPAC name of the following compound
Me
|
H3 C  N  C  Et
| |
Me CH2CH3
(A) N-Dimethyl 1-methyl-1-ethyl propane (B) 3-Methyl-3-(N, N-dimethyl amino) pentane

(C) N-Dimethyl amino-3-methyl pentane
O R
(D) N, N, 3-tri methyl pentane amine
e
s
||
H2C  C  OH
18. The correct IUPAC name of the compound | is
H2C  C  OH
l O
||
y
a
(A) succinic acid (B) Butane dicarboxylate
(C) Butane-1, 4-dioic acid (D) 1, 2-dicarboxy ethane
19.
a t
The IUPAC name of the compound
(A) 2, 4, 6-heptatriene (B) 2, 4, 5-triheptene
is
(C) 2, 4, 6-triheptene (D) hepta-1, 3, 5-triene
20.
C
(A) N,N-dimethyl formamide

H3 C
/
H3 CO
\ N ||
\ is
H
(B) N,N-dimethyl amino methanol

(C) N,N-dimethyl formamine (D) N,N-dimethyl methanamide
21. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
(A) 7-nitro-4 (carboxymethyl) heptanoic acid (B) 6-nitro-3 (carboxy ethyl) hexanoic acid
(C) 4-(3 nitro propyl) hexane-1, 6-dioic acid (D) 3-(-3 nitro propyl) hexane-1, 6-dioic acid
22. The IUPAC name of the compound is
(A) 1, 2, 3-tri-formyl propane (B) 3-formyl-1, 5-pentane dial

(C) Propane-1, 2, 3-trial (D) Propane-1, 2, 3-tricarbaldehyde

23. The correct IUPAC name of the following compound is
(A) 7-ethyl-2, 4, 5, 6-tetra methyl deca-1, 8-diene (B) 4-ethyl-5, 6, 7, 9-tetra methyl deca-2, 9-diene
(C) 2, 4, 5, 6-tetramethyl-7-ethyl deca-1, 7-diene (D) None of these
24.
O OH NO 2
|| | |
The IUPAC of the compound H3 C  C CH CH  CO 2H is
e R
s
(A) 2-nitro-3-hydroxy-4-oxopentanoic acid (B) 2-nitro-3-hydroxy-4-pentanon-1-oic acid
(C) 2-amino-3-hydroxy-2-oxopentanoic acid (D) 3-Hydroxy-2-nitro-4-oxopentanoic acid
CH3
|
l O
|| y
a
25. The IUPAC name of the compound H2C  C  CH2 C  OC 2H5 is
t
(A) Ethyl aceto ethanoate (B) Ethyl methyl butenoate
(C) Ethyl acrylate (D) Ethyl 3-methylbut-3-en-oate
26.
C a
(A) 1, 2-dicyano ethene

is
(B) but -2-ene-1, 4-dinitrile

(C) di-but-2-en-1, 4-nitrile (D) none of these
27. The IUPAC name of the compound NH2  CH  CH2OH is

|
COOH
(A) 1-amino-2-hydroxy propanoic acid (B) 2-amino-2-carboxy pentanol

(C) 2-amino-3-hydroxy propanoic acid (D) 1-hydroxy-2-amino-3 propanoic acid
28. IUPAC name of is
(A) Bicyclo [4.2.0] octane (B) Bicyclo [4.2.2] octane

(C) Bicyclo [6.2.0] octane (D) Bicyclo [4.2.2] octane
CH3
29. The IUPAC name of the compound, is
(A) 2-Methyl spiro [4.5] dec-1-ene (B) 2-Methyl spiro [5.4] dec-1-ene
(C) 2-Methyl spiro [4.5] dec-2-ene (D) 2-Methyl spiro [5.4] dec-2-ene

OH
30. The IUPAC name of the compound is

OH
(A) 1, 2-dimethyl cyclo 3, 4-butenen-di-ol (B) 1, 2-dihydroxy 3, 4-dimethyl cyclo but -3-ene
(C) 2, 3-dimethyl cyclo but -2-ene-1, 4-diol (D) 3, 4-dimethyl cyclo but-3-ene-1, 2-diol
O
31. The IUPAC name of the compound
(A) Tetra methyl propylene oxide

is
e R
(B) 1, 1, 2, 3-tetramethyl oxopropane
s
(C) 1, 1, 2, 2-tetramethyl epoxy propane (D) 2, 3-Dimethyl-2, 3-epoxybutane
32.
l
What is correct IUPAC name of the compound is
y
a
(A) Cumene (B) Isopropyl benzene (C) Phenyl isopropane (D) 2-Phenyl propane
33.
a t
The correct IUPAC name of the compound
H3C
CH3
CH3
is
C
(A) 2, 4, 6-trimethyl cyclohexanone
(C) Trimethyl cyclobutanone
O
(B) 1, 3, 5-trimethyl benzophenone

(D) 2,4,6- trimethylcyclohexanone
H3C CH3
34. The IUPAC name of the compound having following structure is

H3C CH3
(A) 1, 2, 3, 4-tetramethyl cyclo but 1-ene (B) 1, 2, 3, 4-tetramethyl-2- cyclobutene

(C) 1, 2, 3, 4-tetramethylene cyclobutane (D) None of the above
Cl HOOC
35. The IUPAC name of given strucutre is
COOH Cl
(A) Dichloro dicabroxyl biphenyl (B) 2, 2’-dicarboxy diphenyl-6, 6’-dichlorine

(C) 6, 6’-dichlorobiphenyl-2, 2’-dicarboxylic acid (D) None of the above

36. Cyclohexyl alcohol has which of the following structural formula
CH2OH OH
H
O
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
e R
37. The correct IUPAC name of the compound C
y s is
(A) Tetra phenyl methane
a l (B) neophenyl
38.
a t
(C) 3,3-diphenyl dodecane

O
(D) none of these
is
C
OH
(A) Cinnamic acid (B) 2-methyl-prop-2-enoic acid

(C) 2-phenyl-prop-2-enoic acid (D) 3-phenyl-prop-2-enoic acid
39. The IUPAC name of the following compound is

H
(A) 2-cyclopropyl butane (B) 1-methyl-1-cyclopropyl propane

(C) 2-propyl butane (D) propenyl butane
40. The compound has been named in IUPAC as
OH
(A) 2-hydroxy cyclopentene (B) cyclopent-2-en-1-ol

(C) hydroxy cyclopentene (D) cyclopentene-1-ol

O O
41. The compound has been named in IUPAC as
(A) Bicyclo (1, 2, 1)-octane-2, 6-dione (B) Bicyclo (1, 2, 2) - octane-2, 6-dione
(C) Bicyclo (2, 2, 2) - octane-2, 6-dione (D) Bicyclo (1, 1, 1) - octane-2, 6-dione
42. The compound O
C2H5
has been named in IUPAC as
e R
O O
(A) 2-carbethoxy cyclopentane-1-one
y s
(B) 2 ethoxy carbonyl cyclo pentane 1-one
(C) ethyl 2-oxo cyclo-pentane carboxylate
a l (D) All of these
t
Cl
CH3
a
43. The IUPAC name of
CH3
C
(A) 4-chloro-meta-xylene
(C) 1-chloro-2, 4-dimethyl benzene
(B) 4-Chloro-1, 3-dimethyl benzene
(D) 4-chloro-1, 3-methyl toluene
44. What of the following is Cumene ?
(A) (B) (C) (D)
45. The IUPAC name of
(A) 2--butane (B) 2-butyl cyclopropane

(C) 2-cyclopropyl butane (D) none of these

46. The correct IUPAC name of the compound is
(A) 2-cyclohexylbutane (B) 3-cyclohexylbutane (C) 2-phenylbutane (D) 3-phenylbutane

47. Give the IUPAC name of the following compound
e R
(A) Octyl benzene (B) Octyl cyclo hexane
y s
(C) 3-cyclohexyl octane (D) 3-phenyl octane
48.
(A) Tri-isopropylcarbinol
a l
The correct IUPAC name of CH3 2 CH3 COH is
(B) 2,4-Dimethyl-3-isopropylpentan-3-ol
49.
a t
(C) 2,4-Dimethyl-3-(1-methylethyl) pentan-3-ol
The IUPAC name of Br2CH  CH  CH  CBr3

| |
C 2H5 C 2H5
(D) Tri-isopropylmethanol
C
(A) 3-(Dibromomethyl)-4-(tribromomethyl) hexane
(C) 4-(Dibromomethyl)-3-(tribromomethyl) hexane
(B) 1,1,1,4,4-Pentabromo-2,3-diethylbutane
(D) 1,1,4,4,4-Pentachloro-2,3-diethyl butane
(A) 1,2,3,4,5,6-Hexahydroxybenzene (B) Benzene-1,2,3,4,5,6-hexanol

(C) Benzenehexanol (D) None of these
51. The IUPAC name of the compound BrCH2 CHCl  CH  CH  CHBrCH2Cl is

| |
CH3  CH2  CH2 CH2  CH2  CH3
(A) 4-(1-Bromo-2-chloroethyl)-5-(2-bromo-1-chloroethyl)octane
(B) 1,5-Dibromo-2,6-dichloro-3,4-dipropylhexane
(C) 2,6-Dibromo-1,5-dichloro-3,4-dipropyl hexane
(D) None of these

52. The correct IUPAC name of the compound HOCH2 CH2O 2 CH  COOH is
(A) 4-Carboxy-3,5-dioxaheptane-1,7-diol (B) 2,2-Bis (2-hydroxyethoxy) ethanoic acid

(C) 4-Carboxy-3,5-dioxoheptane-1,7-diol (D) None of these
53. The correct IUPAC name of is
(A) 4-(2-Oxobutyl)cyclohexane-1-one
(C) 1-(2-Oxocyclohexyl)butan-3-one
e R
(B) 2-(3-Oxobutyl)cyclohexane-1-one
(D) 4-(2-Oxocyclohexyl)butan-2-one
54.
CH3 CH3
| |
y s
The IUPAC name of the compound CH3  CH  CH  CHCH2 CH2 CH2CH3 2 is
(A) 4-Butyl-2,3-dimethyloctane
(C) 2,4-Dibutyl-3,3-dimethylbutane
a l (B) 1,1-Dibutyl-2,3-dimethylbutane
(D) None of these
55.
a t
The correct IUPAC name of is
56.
C
(A) Ethyl 2-methyl-2-(3-nitrophenyl) propanoate
(C) Ethyl 2-methyl-2-(3-nitrophenyl) propionate

(B) Ethyl-2-methyl-2-(3-nitrophenyl) propanoic acid
(D) None of these
is
(A) 3,3’-Dichloro-1,1’-bicyclobutane (B) 1,6-Dichlorocyclo (dibutane)

(C) bis (1-Chlorocyclobutane) (D) 1-Chloro-3-(3’-chloro) cyclobutane
57. The IUPAC name of the well known terpene camphor having the structure is
(A) 6-Oxo-1,2,2-trimethylbicyclo[2.2.1] heptane (B) 1,7,7-Trimethyl bicyclo[2.2.1]heptan-2-one

(C) 1,5,5-Trimethylbicyclo[2.1.1] hexan-2-one (D) 1,7,7-Trimethylbicyclo[2.1.2]heptan-2-one
(A) Cyclohexane ethanoic anhydride (B) Cyclohexane dicarboxylic anhydride

(C) Tetrahydrophthalic anhydride (D) Cyclohexane carboxylic-1,2-anhydride
59. The correct IUPAC name of is
(A) cyclohexenone (B) cycloheptenone

(C) cyclohexylidene methanone (D) cycloketene
60. The IUPAC name of compound is
R
(A) 1-carboxybenzene-4-thiol (B) 4-thiolyl benzoic acid
(C) 4-(Thioformyl) benzoic acid (D) 4-Carboxylic benzene thioaldehyde
61. The IUPAC name of is
s e
(A) 6,6’-Dinitrodiphenic acid
l y
(B) 6,6’-Dinitrodiphenyl-2,2’-dicarboxylic acid
a
(C) 2,2’-Dinitrodiphenyl-6,6’-dicarboxylic acid (D) 2,2’-Dinitrodiphenic acid
62.
a t
The IUPAC name of the spiro compound,
(A) 2-Methylspiro[5,4] deca-1,6-diene

(C) 8-Methylspiro [4,5]deca-1,7-diene
is
(B) 2-Methylspiro[4,5] deca-1,6-diene

(D) 3-Methylspiro [5,4]deca-3,7-diene
63.
C
Systematic nomenclature of CH2  CH2  CH  CH3 is
(A) 2-methylbutyl
|
CH3
(B) 3-methylbutyl (C) isopentyl (D). s-pentyl
64. C 5H12 on chlorination gives only one type of C 5H11Cl . Hence, IUPAC name of C 5H12 is
(A) n-pentane (B) 2-methyl butane (C) 2,2-dimethylpropane (D) isopentane

65. IUPAC name of crotonic acid is
(A) trans-2-butenoic acid (B) cis-2-butenoic acid
(C)  -methyl acrylic acid (D)  -methyl acrylic acid
66. C 8H18 A  on chlorination gives only one type of C 8H17 Cl . Hence, (A) is
(A) isooctane (B) 2,3 dimethyl hexane

(C) 2,2,3,3 tetramethylbutane (D) 3,4 dimethylhexane
67. An alkane with the formula C 6H14 can be prepared by the hydrogenation of only two alkenes C 6H12  .
IUPAC name of the alkane is

(A) 2,2-dimethylbutane (B) 2,3-dimethylbutane (C) 2-methyl-pentane (D) n-hexane

68. Consider following IUPAC nomenclatures
O O
|| ||
CH3  CH  CH3 H  C  C  OH
|
CN
I
2-cyanopropane
II
2-oxo-ethanoic acid
III
2-buten-1,4-dioicacid
e R
s
of these correct nomenclatures are of
(A) I, II, III (B) II, III (C) II (D) None
69. is names as (IUPAC)

(A) vinyl acetylene
l
(B) 1-butene-3-yne y
(C) 1-butyne-3-ene (D) Both 2 and 3
70.
(A) 2, 2, 3-trimethyl pentane a

10 ,20 ,3 0 and 40 carbon atoms are present in
t (B) 2,3,4-trimethyl pentane

(C) both
C
TOPIC : ISOMERISM
1
a EXERCISE #01
The instrument used for measuring specific rotation is -
(D) None of these
(A) Spectrometer (B) Polarimeter (C) Lactometer (D) Ammeter

2 Which of the following is responsible for the inability of meso compound to show optical activity -
(A) Absence of chirality centre (B) Presence of more than one chirality centres
(C) Dissymmetric nature of its structure (D) Internal compensation.
3 The term isomers was given by-
(A) Faraday (B) Berzelius (C) kekule (D) vont Hoff
4 Isomers have similar-
(A) Structural formula (B) Molecular formula (C) Chemical properties (D) Physical properties
5 Total possible number of alcohols for molecular formula C5H12O would be -
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 5
6 All alkane forming isomers if the number of least carbon atom is -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
7 Only one monochloro derivative is possible for -
(A) n-Butane (B) Isobutane (C) Neo-pentane (D) n-Pentane
8 The total number of isomeric tolyl groups are -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4

9 How many aliphatic carbonyl compounds are possible having the molecular formula C5H10O -
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
10 How many chain isomers can be obtained from the alkane C6H14 -
(A) 4 (B) 5 (C) 6 (D) 7
11 The total possible number of chain isomers for the molecular formula C5H12 would be -
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 4 (D) 5
12 Butan-1-ol & ter alcohol of 4C atoms are called -
(A) Position isomers (B) Functional isomers (C) Chain isomers (D) All the above
13
14
1-Hexene & cyclo-hexane are -
(A) Chain isomers (B) Ring chain isomers (C) Tautomers
The total position isomers for molecular formula C4H8Cl2 would be - R
(D) Geometrical isomers
e
s
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 5
15 &
(A) Position isomers

are called as -
l
(B) Chain isomers
y
(C) Functional isomers (D) Ring chain isomers
a
16 CH3-CH2-CHO & CH2=CH–CH2OH are -
(A) Functional isomers (B) Tautomers (C) Position isomers (D) Metameres
17
18
(A) Tautomers
&
a t are -
(B) Functional isomers

O-Cresol & benzyl alcohol are -
(C) Position isomers (D) All the above
C
(A) Functional isomers (B) Position isomers (C) Chain isomers (D) All the above
19 CH3CONH2 & HCONHCH3 are called -
(A) Position isomers (B) Chain isomers (C) Tautomers (D) Functional isomers
20 & show isomerism -
(A) Chain (B) Position (C) Functional (D) None of these

21 Glucose exhibit type of isomerism -
(A) Position (B) Functional (C) Tautomerism (D) No isomerism
22 Which of the following compounds can exhibit tautomerism -
CHO COCH3 NO2

CH3—CH—CH3
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NO2
23 Tautomerism is exhibited by -
(A) CH=CH—OH (B)
(C) (D) All the above

24 The total number of structural isomers possible for hydrocarbon C3H8 is -
(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 1 (D) 6
25 The following compound can exhibit -
CH3 H
C=C H
CH3 C
CH3 COOH
R
(A) Geometrical isomerism (B) Geometrical and optical isomerisms
(C) Optical isomerism (D) Tautomerism
26 Structural isomers possible for C4H8Br2 are -
(A) 9
CH3—C—Cl
(B) 8 (C) 7
s e
(D) 6
27
Cl—C—Br
(A) Trans
is -
(B) Z
l y
(C) Both are correct (D) None is correct
28 Geometrical isomerism is due to -
t a
(A) The restricted rotation about a double bond
(C) The presence of CH(OH) group
(B) The presence of keto group
(D) The presence of an asymmetric carbon
29
Me
C
Et.
H
OH
a
it has chiral centre (*). It is -
(A) R (B) S (C) Both (D) None

30 The number of optically active isomers possible for -
CH3—CH—CH—CH—CH2OH is
OH OH OH
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8
31 How many asymmetric carbon atoms are present in -
(A) 1,2-dimethyl cyclohexane (B) 3-methyl cyclopentene (C) 3-methyl cyclohexene
(A) 2, 1, 1 (B) 1, 1, 1 (C) 2, 0, 2 (D) 2, 0, 1
32 The priority of groups OH, COOH, CHO, OCH3 attached to chiral carbon is in order -
(A) OH > COOH > CHO > OCH3 (B) OCH3 > OH > CHO > COOH
(C) OCH3 > OH > COOH > CHO (D) OCH3 > COOH > CHO > OH
33 Which of the following compounds can not exist as enantiomers -
(A) CH3—CH(OH)COOH (B) CH3—CH2—CH—CH2OH
CH3
(C) C6H5CH2—CH3 (D) C6H5CHClCH3

34 Which compound would exhibit optical isomers -
CH3
COOH NO2
(A) (B) C
OH
NO2
COOH H3C COOH
HOOC H
O
C
(C)
H
C
COOH
(D)
C
e R
35 Which of the following compound is optical active -
(A)
N
y s
(B) (C2H5)2C(OH)CN
l
H CH3 C2H5
O
CH2 CH2
t
CH2
a C3H7
CH3
N C2H5
+
Cl-
a
(C) C (D)
H CH3 H
36 HC CH3
C2H5
SN 2 aq. KOH
Cl     Product (2-butanol) -
(A) Product is  (B) Product is racemic mixture

(C) Product is d (D) None is correct
37 Number of optically active isomers of tartaric acid is -
CH (OH)COOH
CH (OH)COOH
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4 (D) 5

38 How many conformations does ethane have -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) Infinite
39 The eclipsed and staggered conformation of ethane is due to -
(A) Free rotation about C-C single bond (B) Restricted rotation about C-C single bond
(C) Absence of rotation about C-C bond (D) None of the above
40 A compound can be divided into two equal halves & contains even 'n' asymmetric carbon atoms. The
number of optical isomer is -
(A) 2n (B) 2(n-1) (C) 2(n/2-1) (D) 2n-1 + 2(n/2-1)

41 The correct stereochemical name of -
CH3 H
C=C H
H
CH — C
2
C — CH3
COOCH3
R
(A) Methyl 2-methylhepta (2E, 5E) dienoate (B) Methyl 2-methylhepta (2Z, 5Z) dienoate
(C) Methyl 2-methylhepta (2E, 5Z) dienoate (D) Methyl 2-methylhepta (2Z, 5E) dienoate
42
43
The maximum number of alkene with molecular formula C4H8 is -
(A) 2 (B) 3 (C) 4
s
Ordinary light can be converted into plane polarized light with the help of a - e
(D) 5
44
(A) Nickel prism (B) Nicol prism
l y
(C) Diffraction grating
Isomers which can be inter converted through rotation around a single bond are -
(A) Conformers (B) Diastereomers (C) Enantiomers
(D) Quartz cell
(D) Position isomers

45
46 a
Which of the following compounds will exhibit geometrical isomerism -
(A) 1-Phenyl-2-butene
t (B) 3-Phenyl-1-butene (C) 2-Phenyl-1-butene (D) 1, 1-Diphenyl-1-propene

The phenomenon involving the migration of a proton to give two structural isomers in equilibrium with each
47
48
other is known as -
(A) Metamerism
C a (B) Tautomerism (C) Cis trans isomerism

The number of isomers for the aromatic compounds of the formula C7H8O is -
(A) 2 (B) 3
An isomer of 1-propanol is -
(C) 4
(D) Stereo isomerism
(D) 5
(A) Propanal (B) 2-Propanal (C) Ethanol (D) Ethyl methyl ether
49 Maleic acid and fumaric acid are -
(A) Position isomers (B) Functional isomers (C) Geometrical isomers (D) Optical isomers
50 In the reaction (CH3)2C = CH2 + HOCl, the major product is -
(A) (CH3)2 C—CH3 (B) (CH3)2 C—CH2Cl (C) (CH3)2 C—CH2OH (D)
OCl OH Cl
51 The formula C4H8O represents -
(A) Only an acid (B) Only an ether
(C) Only an alcohol (D) Both cyclic ether and unsaturated alcohol
52 Meso form of tartaric acid is -
(A) Dextrorotatory
(B) Leavorotatory
(C) Neither Leavo nor dextro rotatory due to internal compensation
(D) A mixture of equal quantities of dextro and leavo rotatory forms

53 Following two isomer are -
COOH COOH
H Cl H Cl
Cl H H Cl
COOH COOH
(A) Enantiomers (B) Mesomers (C) Diastereomers (D) Position isomer

54 Optical activity is expected for -
(A) 2-methyl propanoic acid
(C) Methyl 2-chloro propanoate
e R
(B) Methyl 2-methyl propanoate
(D) Propanoic acid
55 Ethyl acetate and methyl propionate are -
(A) Chain isomers (B) Metamers
y s
(C) Tautomers (D) None of the above
l
56 The process of separation of racemic modifications into d and  enantiomer is called -
(A) Resolution (B) Dehydration (C) Revolution (D) Dehydrohalogenation
57
(A) CH3CH = CH2

t a
Which of the following will show geometrical isomerism -
Br Br
(B) CH3—C = C—CH2CH3
58
C a
(C) CH3CH2CH2CH=CH2
Compound which shows optical activity, is -
CH3
(D) CH2=CH—CH2—CH3
(A) CH3 —CHOH—CH3 (B) CHCH2CH3 (C) CH3—CHClCH2CH3 (D) CH3—CCl2—CH2CH3

CH3
59 Which of the following molecules has an asymmetric carbon atom -

(A) CH3CH2COOH (B) ClCH2CH2COOH (C) Cl2CHCOOH (D) CH3CHClCOOH
60 Molecular formula of an optically active organic compound is C4H10O. Its structure is -
(A) C2H5OC2H5 (B) CH3OC3H7 (C) CH3CH2CH2OH (D) CH3CHOHCH2CH3
61 Number of possible metamers of triethylamine is -
(A) 3 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 0
62 Optical rotation of a racemic mixture is always -
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Can not be predicted
63 Methyl propyl thioether and isopropyl methyl thioether are -
(A) Metamers (B) Position isomers
(C) Chain isomers (D) metamers and position both
64 Ethylethanoate and -methyl propionic acid are -
(A) Chain isomers (B) functional isomers (C) Geometrical isomers (D) Optical isomers
65 An isomer of pentane gives only one monochloropentane on chlorination at 3000C. This pentane is -
(A) Isopentane (B) Neopentane (C) n-Pentane (D) None of the above

66 Those compounds show metamerism in which -
(A) Two alkyl groups are present on a monovalent functional group or atom
(B) Two alkyl groups are present on polyvalent functional group or atom
(C) Functional group is not present
67 Which of the following compounds can exist as geometrical isomers -
(A) CH2Cl2 (B) CH2Cl—CH2Cl (C) CHBr = CHCl (D) CH2Cl—CH2Br
R
68 What is true for 1,2-pentadiene -
(A) It is functional isomer of pentyne (B) It is position isomer of pentyne
69
(C) It is chain isomer of 3-methyl-1-butyne
Possible number of disubstituted benzene isomers is -
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 e
(D) It is metamer of cyclopentene
s (D) 4
70
71
The compound having asymmetric carbon atom is -
(A) CH3CHOHCH3
l
(B) (CH3)2C(C2H5)2
y
(C) C2H5CHClCH3
How many structural isomers are possible for pentane, C5H12 is -
(D) C2H5CH(CH3)CH2CH3
72
(A) 2
t
(B) 5
a
The number of isomers of nitro phenol is -
(C) 4
(A) No isomerism (only one compound is possible.) (B) Two isomers

(D) 3
73
74
(C) Three isomers
a
Which of the following starred C- atom is asymmetric -
C
(A) CH3CH2C*HCH3CH2OH
(C) CH3C*H2CHCH3CH2OH
Which of the following will show optical isomerism -
(D) Four isomers
(B) CH3CH2CHC*H3CH2OH
(D) CH3CH2CH3C*H2OH
(A) 1-Butanol (B) 2-Butanol (C) 3-Pentanol (D) 4-Heptanol

75 The total number of optically active isomer for CH2OH(CHOH)3 CHO is -
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 8 (D) 12
TOPIC : REACTION MECHANISM

EXERCISE #01
1 In which of the following compounds not all the atoms show zero formal charge :
(A) CH3–CN (B) CH3–NC (C) (CH3)3N (D) CH3–ONO
2 CH3– CH CH–CH3 is the anhydride of
O
(A) 1,4–Butane diol (B) 1,2-Butane diol (C) 2,3–Butane diol (D) 1,3,–Butane diol
3 What is the geometry of the product of CH3CHO and HCN :
(A) Plane triangle (B) Trigonal pyramidal (C) Tetrahedral (D) Linear
4 Which one is Lewis acid :
(A) Mercaptide ion (B) Isopropyl carbanion (C) Diethyl sulphide (D) Ferric chloride

5 How many primary, secondary and tertiary free radicals can be written for C4H9 
P S T
(A) 1 1 2
(B) 2 1 1
(C) 2 0 1
(D) 1 2 1
6 Proton donation tendency becomes minimum if E in the E–COOH is replaced by
7
(A) –CHCl2
Singlet methylene is
(A) Lewis base
(B) –CH2Cl
(B) Diamagnetic
(C) –CCl3
(C) Nucleophile
e R
(D) –CHF2
(D) Paramagnetic
8
9
A group or atom exhibits inductive effect through
(A) -Electrons (B) -Electrons
s
(C)  and  electrons
y
Which of the following reactions is classified as substitution reactions
Reactant
(A) OH
Reagent
H2Cr2O7
a l Product
10
(B) CH3–CHO
(C) (CH3)3C–OH
a t NH2NH2
H2SO4
CH3CH=N.NH2
(CH3)2C=CH2
Which of the following mechanistic step does not involve for the reaction
C
CH3 CH
OH
CH3
C
CH3
CH3
HCl
CH3 CH
CH3 CH3
Cl
C CH3
(A) Protonation of OH (B) Elimination of water molecule

–
(C) Attack of Cl on the carbocation formed (D) Attack of Cl– on the rearranged carbocation
11 Maximum resonating structure can be formulated for the free radical [Where  = C6H5]
   
(A)   CH   (B) CH2=CH– CH2 (C)   CH2 (D)   CH –CH3
12 Number of  and  bonds in the following compounds would be :

NH2
H2N
(A) 19  and 3 (B) 19  and 2 (C) 18  and 2 (D) 17  and 2
13 Number of -electrons present in the species :
and would be :
+ O
(A) 2, 4 (B) 1, 4 (C) 2,6 (D) 1, 6

14 Even on addition of proton the hybridisation state of central atom remains unaltered :
(A) OH– (B) NH2– (C) CH3– (D) All of these
15 Which of the following acids has the smallest dissociation constant ?
(A) CH3CHFCOOH (B) FCH2CH2COOH (C) BrCH2CH2COOH (D) CH3CHBrCOOH
16 Formic acid is considered as a resonance hybrid of the four structures
O O O O+

H– C –OH  H– C = OH  H– C –O–H  H– C –O–H
R
+
I II III IV
17
Which of the following order is correct for the stability of the four contributing structures.
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) I > II > IV > III (C) I > III > II > IV
s e
(D) I > IV > III > II
Examine the followings two structures for the anilinium ion and choose the correct statement from the ones
y
given below
l
+ +
NH3 NH3
+
t
I
a II
(A) II is not an acceptable canonical structure because carbonium ions are less stable than ammonium ion
(B) II is not an acceptable canonical structure because it is non-aromatic
18
a
(C) II is not an acceptable canonical structure because the nitrogen has 10 valence electrons
(D) II is an acceptable canonical structure
C
A nucleophile must necessarily have
(A) an overall positive charge (B) an overall negative charge
(C) an unpaired electron (D) a lone pair of electrons
19 Which of the following should exert greater hyperconjugative effect than the remaining three
(A) CH3– (B) (CH3)3C– (C) (CH3)2CH– (D) C2H5–
20 Which of the following reactions does not involve nucleophile addition
H H H HO
(A) C =O + NH2–NH2  C =N–NH2+H2O (B) C =O + [O]  C =O
CH3 CH3 CH3 CH3
H H OH H H OH
(C) C =O + NaHSO3  C (D) C =O + HCN  C
CH3 CH3 SO3 Na CH3 CH3 CN
21 Which of the following is the process of cleavage of the covalent bond in Kolbe electrolytic synthesis
(A) Heterolysis (B) Free radical fission (C) Hydrolysis (D) Ionization
22 Which of the following is the reactive intermediate species formed during Markownikoff addition of HCl on
ethylene
(A) Vinyl chloride (B) Ethyl cation (C) Ethyl free radical (D) Ethyl carbanion
23 Which of the following should be more favourable condition for unimolecular nucleophilic substitution
mechanism
(A) Presence of a primary alkyl halide substrate (B) Presence of a polar medium
(C) Presence of a peroxide (D) Presence of a neutral nucleophile

24 Formation of propanenitrile by the reaction of potassium cyanide on ethyl chloride is an example of the
following reaction mechanism
(A) SN1 (B) E2 (B) SN2 (D) E1
25 Select the set of the substituent groups, which exert M and negative inductive effects
(A) –CCl3, –COOH, –CN (B) –CH3, –Cl, –F (C) –SO3H, –OCH3, –CHO (D) –NO2, –COCl, –NH2
26 Which of the following species sulphonates the benzene ring ?
(A) SO3–2 (B) SO2 (C) SO3 (D) SO4
R
27 How does hydrobromic acid react with propene in the presence of small amount of oxygen
(A) Through alkyl free radical intermediate (B) According to Markownikoff rule
28
(C) Through ionic mechanism
e
(D) Through free radical mechanism
s
Which of the following is the decreasing order of the ease of SN2 mechanism in the alkyl halides given below
(I) (CH3)3C–Cl (II) CH3–Cl (III) CH3CH2–Cl (IV) (CH3)2CH–Cl
29
(A) I > III > II > IV (B) III > IV > II > I
Which of the following is not properly matched

l y
(C) II > III > IV > I (D) II > I > III > IV
a
(A) (CH3)3CBr 
OH
 (CH3)3 C–OH SNI Reaction
t
(B) C6H6 + RX 
AlCl3
 C6H5–R Electrophilic addition
a
peroxide
(C) CH2 CH3 CH2 CH3 Free radical addition
+HBr
CH=CH2 CH2 -CH2Br
30
C
(D) CH3CH2CH3 
+Cl2
h CH3– CH–CH3
Cl
Free radical substitution
Which of the following reactions can be used to convert an alkyl halide to an alkanol
(A) Elimination (B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Dehydrohalogenation (D) Nucleophilic addition
31 Formation of an alcohol by the reaction of aqueous caustic alkali on ter-butyl bromide is an example of
(A) bimolecular nucleophilic substitution (B) nucleophilic addition
(C) unimolecular nucleophilic substitution (D) electrophilic substitution
32 Carbanion can be formed by
(A) homolytic fission of carbon-carbon bond
(B) heterolytic fission of carbon-metal covalent bond
(C) heterolytic fission of carbon-halogen covalent bond
(D) abstraction of hydride ion from carbon-hydrogen bond
33 Which of the following pairs of names depicts the type of representative reaction of carbonyl compounds and
the type of reagent that first attacks the carbonyl group respectively
(A) Substitution, electrophile (B) Addition, nucleophile
(C) Addition, electrophile (D) Substitution, nucleophile
34 Which of the following compounds should have lower rate of nucleophilic addition than the remaining three
(A) Methanal (B) Ethanal (C) Propanone (D) Propanal

35 Addition of HI on propene in the presence of a peroxide takes place by the following mechanism
(A) Free radical addition (B) Electrophilic substitution
(C) Electrophilic addition (D) Nucleophilic addition
36 Addition of hydrochloric acid on vinyl chloride undergoes the following mechanism
(A) Electrophilic addition (B) Peroxide effect
(C) Markownikoff’s first rule (D) Nucleophilic addition
37 What is the cause of the experimental value of molecular weight of acetic acid being twice the value calcu-
R
lated for one molecule
(A) Intramolecular bonding (B) Molecular rearrangement
38
(C) Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
s
When a hydrogen atom of ammonia is substituted by a methyl group, there is
(A) a decrease in steric hindrance effect e
(D) Condensation polymerization
(B) a change in the type of hybridization on nitrogen atom

(C) an increase in the base strength
(D) an increase in the acid strength
l y
39 Acetamide is neutral to litmus due to
t a
(A) positive inductive effect of methyl group
(B) formation of weak acid and weak base by hydrolysis
40
C a
(C) resonance which decreases proton-donor as well as proton-acceptor capacity
(D) its formation by reaction of acetic acid and ammonia
Which of the following is the basic cause of electrophilic substitution on benzene ring
(A) Presence of an electrophile attracting aromatic sextet
(B) Saturation of the ring
(C) Presence of three double bonds
(D) Presence of three pi bonds
41 Benzene can be converted to toluene by the attack of the following species
 
(A) –CH3 (B) CH3 (C) CH3  (D) : CH3
42 Both the species of which of the following pairs do not exhibit electrophilic behaviour
   
(A) H3 O ,NH4 (B) BF3 , Cl (C) AlCl3, SO3 (D) RNH2, CH3
43 The reaction of Grignard reagent on formaldehyde substrate is of the following type

(A) Nucleophilic addition (B) Electrophilic addition
(C) Electrophilic substitution (D) Free radical substitution
44 Which of the following mechanism is not possible for the reactions of chlorine on toluene under different
condition
(A) Free radical addition (B) Electrophilic addition
(C) Electrophilic substitution (D) Free radical substitution

45 Both the species of which of the following pairs cannot behave as electrophiles
(A) Nitronium ion, bromonium ion (B) Sulphur trioxide, formyl cation
(C) Anilinium ion, hydroxonium ion (D) Ethyl carbocation, acetyl carbocation
46 Which of the following is more stable alkene than the remaining three towards electrophilic addition
(A) Ethylene (B) Methylethylene (C) trans -butylene (D) cis -butylene
47 Which of the following is not properly matched
 
(A) CH3CO– N :  CH3N = C=O Hofmann bromide reaction
(B) CH3CH2CH2CH3  CH3– CH –CH3
CH3
Isomerisation
e R

(C) CH3CH2CH2 CH2  CH3 CH CH2CH3
NHOH NH2
 
s
H Transfer
y
(D)
H OH
a l Intramolecular rearrangement
48
t
Which of the following is the most appropriate reason for the boiling points of ethanoic acid and ethyl
ethanoate being 118° and 77°, respectively
a
(A) Difference in resonance stabilization
(B) Difference in crystal lattice energy
C
(C) Difference in molecular weight
(D) Difference in intermolecular H-Bonding and ionization
EXERCISE #02
Choose the correct answer :
1. Which of the following is not polar?
(A) Carbon tetrachloride (B) Trans-2, 3 dichloro but-2-ene
(C) Trans butene-2 (D) All of these
2. Which of the following can’t have no bond resonance?
 
(A) [(CH3)2(CH)]3C (B) (CH3 )2 CH (C) C H3 (D)
3. The most stable carbocation among the following is

  CH2 
: :
(A) CH2 (B) CH2 OCH3 (C) (D) CH2 NO2

O–CH3

4. Which structure should not be a cannonical form?
O  O
N
: :
(A) CH3–CH2–O–CH2 (B) (C) (D) R O
R
5. Choose the incorrect match
Reaction Intermediate
(A)
(B)
Addition of HCl on
alkene
Carbylamine reaction
–
–
Carbocation
s
Dichlorocarbene e
y
(C) Hydroboration-oxidation – Free radical
l
of alkene
(D) Sulphonation of benzene – SO3
6. Choose the correct statement about carbene
(A)
(C)
t
Singlet carbene is sp hybride
a
Single carbene has 2 unpaired electrons
(B)
(D)
Triplet carbene is sp2 hybride
Triplet carbene is paramagnetic
a
7. The kind of delocalization involving sigma bond orbitals is called
(A) Hybridization (B) Conjugation (C) Hyperconjugation (D) Conformation
C
8. Which of the following is strongest acid?
(A) F-CH2COOH (B) Cl–CH2COOH (C) Br–CH2COOH (D) I–CH2COOH
9. Which of the following ions is aromatic?
(A) (B) (C) (D)


H  H
10. C–Cl bond of chloro benzene in comparison to C–Cl bond in methyl chloride is
(A) Longer and weaker (B) Shorter and weaker
(C) Shorter and stronger (D) Longer and stronger
11. Which of the following is having lowest Dipole moment?
(A) Cis-2,3-dichloro-2-butene (B) Cis-1,2-dichloroethene
(C) Cis-1,2-dibromo-1,2-dichloroethene (D) Trans-1,2-dichloroethene
12. The compound having molecular formula C4H8O cannot show
(A) Metamerism (B) Positional isomerism
(C) Geometrical isomerism (D) Optical isomerism
13. The number of stereoisomers of 2, 3-Butane diol is
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Six
14. The most stable carbonium is present in
(A) CH2 CH (B) (C) CH2 (D) MeCH2

15. Keto enol tautomerism is observed in
O O O O
(A) C6H5 C H (B) C6H5 C CH3 (C) C6H5 C C6H5 (D)
16. Which of the following compounds will show cis trans isomerism?
R
(A) (H3C)2C = CH – CH3 (B) H2C = CCl2
(C) (C6H5)2C = CH – CH3 (D) H3C – CH = CBr(CH3)
17. Which of the following has highest nucleophilicity?
(A) F (B) OH (C)
s
CH3
e
(D) NH2
y
18. Which of the following has least value of dipole moment?
(A) CH3F (B) CH3Cl (C) CH3I (D) CH3Br
19.
l
Which of the following represents the correct order of stability of given carbocation?
CH2
a
20.
(A) III > I > II
a t (B)
I
I > III > II
II
Which of the following is having most acidic -hydrogen?

(C)
III
III > II > I (D) II > III > I
C
(A) CH3NO2 (B) CH 2 NO2
NO2
(C) NO2 CH
NO2
NO 2 (D)
O
O
21. Which of the following groups show +I effect?
(A) –OCH3 (B) –O– (C) – NH2 (D) –COOH
22. Which of the following is an electrophile?
(A) H2O (B) :CN– (C) :CH2 (D) RNH2
23. The number of isomers for the aromatic compounds having molecular formula C7H8O is
(A) Two (B) Three (C) Four (D) Five
24. Which of the following would be optically active?
(A) Tertiary-butanol (B) Sec-butanol
(C) n-butanol (D) 4-chloro-1-hydroxy butane
25. Isomers which can be interconverted through rotation around a single bond are
(A) Conformers (B) Diastereo isomers (C) Enantiomers (D) Positional isomers

PART - II (XII)
TOPIC : HYDROCARBONS
EXERCISE #01
1. Product of the reaction is
C2H5OD
CH3 – CH – MgBr Product
C2H5
R
C2H5
(A) CH3 – CH – Br (B) CH3 – CH – OC2H5 (C) CH3 – CH – D (D) CH3 – C – OH
2.
C2H5
Corey-House synthesis is used for preparation of

C2H5
s
C2H5
e C2H5
y
(A) Alkane (B) Alkene (C) Alkyne (D) Alkyl halide
l
3. What happens when (CH3)3 C–MgCl reacts with (CH3)3N?
(A) (CH3)3–C–NH2 is formed (B) CH3 – CH – NH2 is formed
CH3
t a C2H5
4.
(C)
C
Identify ‘A’
a
CH3 — C — CH2 is formed
CH3 NH2
electrolysis
(D) No reaction
KOOC COOK A
H2O
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5. Which is the better method to produce 2-pentene?
Br
CH3OK
I. CH3OK II. CH3OH
CH3OH
Br
(A) I (B) II
(C) Both have same yield (D) Pentene cannot be prepared by either method
6. Unknown species x is
KMnO4/H+
CH3 – CH = CH – CH3 x
OH
(A) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3 (B) CH3 – CH – CH – CH3
OH OH OH
(C) CH3 – COOH (D) CH3COOH + CH3 – CHO

H3O+
7. + A B , identify B.
CN
(A) (B) (C) (D)

COOH CH3 CH2NH2 COOH
8. Identify A and B
Ag-powder Butadiene
2CHCl3 A B
R

e
(A) CHCH and (B) CHCH and
9.
(C) CHCH and (D)
s
CH CH and
y
The intermediate formed during addition of HBr to propene in presence of organic peroxide is
10.
(A) Free radical
CH=CH2 + HBr  P
(B)
a l
Carbocation (C) Carbanion (D) Carbene
Product P is
(A)
Br
a
CH–CH3
t (B) CH2–CH2Br (C) CH=CH2 (D) CH=CH2
C
Br Br
11. Ethylene reacts with a dilute alkaline KMnO4 solution to give
(A) HCHO (B) Oxalic acid (C) Glycol (D) Ethyl alcohol
12. The major product obtained by the treatment of propyne with aqueous H2SO4 in the presence of HgSO4
is
(A) Propanal (B) Acetone (C) Propanol (D) Propyl hydrogen
13. Which of the following will not react with an ammonical silver nitrate solution?
(A) CH3C  CH (B) (CH3)2CH — CCH (C) CH3C  CCH3 (D) HC  CH
14. The conversion of ethylene into ethane can be effected by
(A) Nascent hydrogen (B) Zn + HCl
(C) Raney nickel and hydrogen (D) Clemmenson reduction
15. The peroxide effect in antimarkownikov addition involves
(A) The heterolytic fission of the double bond (B) Nucleophilic substitution mechanism
(C) A free radical mechanism (D) An ionic mechanism
16. Which reagent is used to distinguish 1-butyne from 2-butyne?
(A) HCl (B) Br2/CCl4
(C) Baeyer’s reagent (D) Ammonical cuprous chloride
17. The compound having only sp2 hybridised carbon atoms is
(A) 1-butene (B) 2-butene (C) Propene (D) 1-3, butadiene

18. In which of the following reactions the attacking electrophile is not a charged species?
(A) Halogenation of benzene (B) Nitration of benzene
(C) Sulphonation of benzene (D) Friedel Crafts alkylation
19. + HBr(1eq)  P
Product P is
Br Br
Br Br
R
(A) (B) (C) (D)
20.
s e
Which of the following set of reagents will give
(A)
Cl
(anhydrous AlCl3)
l y
as the only product of reaction?
(B) (i) CH3CH2CH2COCl (anhydrous AlCl3)

(ii) Zn/Hg, HCl
t a
a
(C) (i) Cl2/h
Cl
(ii) in Na ether
21.
C
(D) (i) CH3CH2COCl (anhydrous AlCl3)
(ii) Zn/Hg, HCl
Anti-markownikov’s addition of HBr is not observed in
(A) Propene (B) 1-butene (C) 2-butene (D) 2-pentene
22. n-propyl bromide on treating with ethanolic potassium hydroxide produces
(A) Propane (B) Propene (C) Propyne (D) Propanol
23. The reaction of propene with HOCl proceeds via the addition of
(A) H+ in the first step (B) Cl+ in the first step
(C) OH– in the first step (D) Cl+ and OH– in a single step
24. The treatment of R MgBr with RC  CH produces an alkane
(A) RH (B) RH (C) R–R (D) R–R
25. Which one of the following compounds will react with two moles of CH3MgBr?
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH3–C  C–CH3 (C) HC  C–CH2OH (D) CH3CH2COOH
26. Propyne and propene can be distinguish by
(A) Conc. H2SO4 (B) Br2 in CCl4 (C) Dil. KMnO4 (D) AgNO3 in ammonia

27. Bromination of an alkane as compared to chlorination proceeds
(A) At a slower rate
(B) At a faster rate
(C) With equal rate
(D) With equal or different rate depending upon the temperature
28. An organic compound C4H6 on ozonolysis gives formaldehyde and glyoxal. The organic compound is
29.
(A) CH3–C  C–CH3 (B) CH2=CH–CH=CH2 (C)
Wurtz reaction converts alkyl halide into alkane when it is made to react with
R
(D)
e
CH3
s
(A) Na in alcohol (B) Na in dry ether (C) Zn in alcohol (D) Zn in dry ether
30. Which of the following radicals has least stability?
(A) 3°
TOPIC : BENZENE & TOLUNE

(B) 2°
l
(C)
y
Vinyl (D) Benzyl
t a EXERCISE #01
The correct structure of benzene was suggested by :
(A) Faraday (B) Devy (C) Kekule (D) Wohler
2
C a
A mixture of benzene and benzoic acid is separated by the following reagent :
(A) Toluene (B) NaHCO3
Which of the following is not a correct statement ?
(C) HCl
(A) SO3 is the active electrophile in the sulphonation of benzene

(D) Diethyl ether
(B) Nitronium ion is the active electrophile in the nitration of benzene

(C) Bromide ion is the active electrophile in the bromination of benzene
(D) Alkyl carbocation is the active electrophile in the alkylation of benzene
?
4 Benzene 
100º
 1,3,5–Trinitrobenzene
The reagent in this case is :

(A) Conc. HNO3 (B) dil HNO3
(C) Nitrogen dioxide dissolved in conc. HNO3 (D) Acetyl nitrate
 
H , Ag , HOCl
5 The product of the reaction : Benzene   ? is :
OH
(A) C6H5Cl, H2O (B) C6H4 , H2O (C) C6H5OH, AgCl (D) None of the above
Cl(p)

6 Identify the correct products A and B in the sequence :

NO
2 SnCl2 / HCl 2 NaNO / HCl
C6H6  A   B 
0ºC


(A) Nitrobenzene, Nitrosobenzene (B) Nitrobenzene, phenylhydroxylamine

(C) Nitrobenzene, benzene diazonium chloride (D) Nitrobenzene, phenol
7 Benzene vapour mixed with air passed over vanadium pentaoxide, the product is :
R
(A) Dicarboxylic acid (B) Anhydride of monocarboxylic acid
(C) Anhydride of unsaturated dicarboxylic acid (D) Anhydride of unsaturated monocarboxylic acid
8 Ozonolysis, of benzene and subsequent hydrolysis gives :
(A) Glycol (B) Glycolic acid
s
(C) Glycine
e (D) Glyoxal
y
9 Wrong statement for benzene is :
(A) Stable to permanganate (B) Gives substitution reaction
10
(C) Does not form sandwich compound
a l (D) Unreactive to H2SO 4 at 0ºC

Choose the pair, where members differ in molecular formula :
t
(A) Lindane and triple six (B) Glycine and aminoacetic acid
(C) Aniline and oil of mirbane (D) Urotropine and aminoform
11
12
C a
Benzene and cyclohexene can be distinguished by :
(A) Br2 water solution (B) H2 gas + Ni (C) Cl 2 in dark , cold, Fe (D) None of these
Which of the following reactions is not shown by benzene :
(A) Addition (B) Oxidation
(C) Side chain substitution (D) Complex formation
13 Choose the wrong statement
(A) The dipole moment of benzene is zero .
(B) The properties of benzene resembles with alkene.
(C) C–C(six) bonds in benzene are of equal length
(D) Benzene is a planar molecule with bond angle of 120º
14 The source of benzene is :
(A) Coal tar (B) Gasoline (C) Raschig process (D) None
15 Which of the following saturated group deactivate the benzene ring :
(A) –CH=CH2 (B) –NO2 (C) –CCl3 (D) –OH
16 Reduction of benzene in alcohol by [Sodium + liquid ammonia] is called
(A) Clemmenson reduction (B) Wolf-Kishner reduction
(C) Birch reduction (D) Mendius reaction

17 Cumene or isopropyl benzene is formed in the reaction :
AlCl3
(A) C6H6 + CH2 = CH–CH3  AlCl3
(B) C6H6+CH3–CH2–CH2Cl 
 
(C) Both the above (D) None of the above

18 Acetylene  benzene  cyclohexane. In the above sequence the hybridised carbon changes as :
sp  sp2  sp3
In this change, the angle of hybridised orbitals :
R
(A) Remains unaltered (B) Increases continuously
(C) Decreases continuously (D) First increases then decreases
19
20
BHC contains predominantly its following isomer :
(A)  (B) 
Which of the following group is divalent :
(C) 
s e(D) 
y
(A) Benzoyl (B) Benzyl (C) Benzal (D) p-Tolyl
l
21 C–C Bond length in benzene is .......... then [CC] and [C=C] bond length but ...... than [C–C] bond
length in alkane.
a
(A) Greater, smaller (B) Smaller, smaller (C) Smaller, greater (D) Greater, greater
22 Benzene with ethanol
23
(A) Is insoluble
t
(C) Forms ternary mixture
a
(B) Forms azeortropic mixture
Toluene reacts with chlorine in presence of ferric chloride to give :
(A) Benzyl chloride (B) Benzal chloride (C) Benzotrichloride (D) o and p chlorotoluene
24
25 C
A hydrocarbon contains 10.5 gm carbon per gm of hydrogen. Its empirical formula would be :
(A) C6H6 (B) C7H8 (D) C6H7
Chlorination of toluene would lead to the formation of :
(A) o–Chlorotoluene
(C) o– and p– Chlorotoluene
(B) p–Chlorotoluene
(D) m–Chlorotoluene
[(D) C6H8
26 The main product formed by the reaction of toluene with chlorine in the presence of ferric chloride is :
(A) Benzoyl chloride (B) Benzyl chloride (C) Benzotrichloride (D) o– and p–chlorotoluene
27 Toluene is used in the preparation of :
(A) Saccharin (B) T.N.T (C) Chloramine–T (D) All of the above
28 The product obtained by the chlorination of toluene in the presence of light and heat is hydrolysed with
aqu. NaOH to form :
(A) o–Cresol (B) p–Cresol
(C) 2,4–Dihydroxy toluene (D) Benzoic acid
TOPIC : HALOGEN DERIVATIVES OF ALKANES

EXERCISE #01
1 An organic compound contains about 7.7% carbon. Its acidic sodium extract gives a white precipitate with
AgNO3. This precipitate is soluble in the excess of ammonia. The compound is
(A) CHCl3 (B) CHBr3 (C) CHI3 (D) CCl4

2 Match the following and pick up the correct answer
Compound Use
A CHCl3 (i) Refrigerant
B CCl4 (ii) Fire extinguisher
C CF2Cl2 (iii) Anaesthetic
The correct answer is
(A) A–(i), B–(ii), C–(iii) (B) A–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i) (C) A–(iii), B–(i), C–(ii) (D) None of the above
3
4
Ethylidene bromide can be prepared by the following reaction
(A) Acetone with PBr3 (B) Acetone with PBr5 (C) Ethene with HBr
e R
(D) Ethyne with HBr
A compound (A) is formed by the reaction of ethylene with bromine which on reacting with aqueous KOH
(A) Baeyer’s reagent
y s
gives a compound (B). The compound (B) can also be prepared by the reaction of ethylene with the following
(B) Oxygen in the pesence of silver catalyst and then acidic hydrolysis
(D) All of the above
a l
(C) performic acid and the product undergoes acidic hyrolysis
t
5 The product of the reaction of methyl magnesium bromide with methanol can also be prepared by the
following reaction
7
a
(A) Reduction of methyl bromide
(C) Reduction of methyl alcohol
C
(B) Decarboxylation of sodium ethanoate
The product of the reaction of sodium acetylide with alkyl halide is
(A) A terminal alkyne (B) A terminal alkene
Carbon tetrachloride can be prepared by the following reaction
(C) A non terminal alkyne (D) (A) and (C) both
(A) CS2 with Cl2 in the presence of I2 (B) CS2 with S2Cl2 in the presence of I2
(C) CHCl3 with Cl2 in the presence of I2 (D) All of the above
8 The adduct of which of the following compounds with Grignard’s reagent does not form a primary alcohol on
hydrolysis
(A) O2 (B) Oxirane (C) Methanal (D) Ethanal
9 For the preparation of -butylene from methyl magnesium chloride, it will be reacted with
(A) Propene (B) Propyl chloride (C) 3–Chloro propene (D) 2–Chloro propene
10 The vapour density of an organic compound is 23.0. It contains 52.17% C and 13% H. It gives iodoform test.
The compound is
(A) Ethanol (B) dimethyl ether (C) Acetone (D) Methanol
11 Identify Z in the following reaction
Na / C2H5OH HNO2 
CH3CN  KMnO4 , H
 X   Y  Z
(A) CH3CHO (B) CH3CONH2 (C) CH3COOH (D) CH3CH2NHOH

12 Which of the following is a correct statement
(A) C2H5Br reacts with alcoholic KOH to give C2H5OH
(B) Reaction of C2H5Br with metallic Na gives ethane
(C) C2H5 Br reacts with sodium ethoxide to give ether
(D) C2H5Br reacts with AgCN to give ethyl cyanide
13 The product of the reaction of chloromethane with sodium sulphide is
(A) Dimethyl sulphide (B) Methanethiol
14
(C) Mixture of both the above
The compound with highest boiling point is -
(A) Ethylene bromide (B) Ethylene chloride
(C) Ethylidene bromide
e R
(D) Ethylidene chloride
15
sodium carbonate, is
(A) Ethyl bromide (B) Bromoform
y s
The main product obtained by the electrolysis of the aqueous ethanolic solution of potassium bromide and
l
(C) Ethylene bromide (D) Ethylidene bromide
16 Which of the following is Swart’s reaction

(A) C2H5Cl + AgF   C2H5F + AgCl
t
(C) 2CHCl3 + 6Ag  CH  CH + 6AgCl
a (B) 2C2H5Br + 2Zn  (C2H5)2Zn + ZnBr2
(D) C2H5Br + NaI  C2H5I + NaBr
a
17 The chloroform exposed to air and sunlight gives white precipitate with AgNO3 solution because it contains
(A) Phosgene (B) Hydrogen chloride (C) Chlorine (D) Mixture of all the above
C
18 The following type of compounds are obtained by the reaction of a carboxylic acid with lead tetra acetate and
lithium chloride in benzene
(A) Alkyl halides (B) Acid chlorides (C) CO2 + H2O (D) None of the above
19 Which of the following reactions is more suitable than the remaining three for obtaining iodobenzene ?
(A) N2Cl + KI (B) N2Cl + HI
(C) OH + HI (D) Cl + NaI
20 The reaction of chlorobenzene with which of the following reagents is not an example of electrophilic
substitution reaction ?
(A) Cl 2 + Fe powder (B) Conc. H2SO 4
(C) Conc. HNO 3 + Conc. H2SO 4 (D) CCl3CHO + Conc. H2SO 4
21 At the time of preparation of chlorobenzene from benzene, which of the following can be used as a
halogen carrier ?
(A) A lewis acid (B) Elements like iron, iodine etc
(C) A tertiary amine base (D) All of the above
22 Which of the following can be obtained by Balz–Schiemann reaction ?
(A) Fluorobenzene (B) Chlororbenzene (C) Bromobenzene (D) Iodobenzene

23 Which of the following reactions can be used to obtain chlorobenzene from benzenediazonium chloride ?
(A) Sandmeyer reaction (B) Balz–Schemann reaction
(C) Rashing process (D) Gattermann reaction
(A) A and B (B) A, B and C (C) A, C and D (D) C and D
24 Which of the following catalysts is used in the preparation of chlorobenzene by Gattermann reaction ?
(A) CuSO4 (B) CuCl2 (C) Cu2Cl2 (D) Cu
25 Which of the following catalysts is used in the preparation of chlorobenzene by Sandmeyer’s reaction ?
26
(A) CuCl2 (B) Cu2Cl2 (C) CuSO4
R
(D) Cu
e
Which of the following compounds is obtained by Borodine–Hunsdiecker reaction of silver benzoate ?
(A) Fluorobenzene (B) Chlorobenzene (C) Bromobenzene (D) Iodobenzene
27
(A) Zinc dust (B) Soda lime
s
Which of the following reagents is used for obtaining chlorobenzne from p–chlorophenol ?
y
(C) Sodamide (D) Copper powder
l
28 All of the following properties are exhibited by chlorobenzene, except :
(A) Almond-like faint smell (B) Volatility
29
(C) Influammability
t a (D) Nonpoisonous nature

In Dow process, chlorobenzene is reacted with which of the following reagents ?
(A) O2 + HCl (B) NaOH (C) H2O (D) Na2CO3
30
(A) A and C
a (B) A and D (C) B and C (D) B and D

Condensation of chlorobenzene and chloral hydrate is carried out in the presence of concentrated sulphuric
C
acid for obtaining ?
(A) D.D.T. (B) Chloropicrin (C) B.H.C (D) Dichlorodiphenylethane
31 The best method for the preparation of chlorobenzene is :
(A) FeCl3
+ Cl 2  –Cl (B) –OH + PCl 5  –Cl + POCl 3 + HCl

(C) hv
+ Cl 2  –Cl (D) hv
–OH + Cl2  –Cl
 
32 Highest yield of chlorobenzene is obtained in the reaction :
2 Cl 2 Cl
(A) C6H6 
FeCl
 PCl5
(B) Phenol  (C) C6H6 
h
 (D) All the above
3
33 Chlorobenzene is :
(A) Nearly as reactive as methyl chloride (B) More reactive than ethyl bromide
(C) Less reactive than benzyl chloride (D) More reactive than isopropyl chloride

EXERCISE #02
CH3
Anhy.AlCl3
1. In the following reaction ‘A’ is C6H6 + CH3–CH–CH2–Cl A
(Major)
(A) C 6H 5–CH 2–CH–CH 3 (B) C 6H 5–CH–CH 3

CH3 CH3
(C)
CH3
C6H5–C–CH3 (D)
CH3
C6H5–CH–CH2–CH3
e R
s
CH3
2. Identify A & B
CH3
l
KMnO4
A y
HNO3 (Conc.)
B
a
 H2SO4 (Conc.)
(A)
(B)
A = Benzene
B = Nitrobenzene
A = Benzene
a
B = Benzoic acid
t
C
(C) A = Benzoic acid
B = p-nitrobenzoic acid
(D) A = Benzoic acid
B = m-nitro benzoic acid
3. Choose the correct order of reactivity towards electrophilic substitution for the following reactants
C6H5NO 2 C6H5CH2NO 2 C6H5–CH2–CH2NO 2
(I) (II) (III)
(A) I > II > III (B) II > III > I (C) III > II > I (D) I > III > II
4. Ter-butyl chloride reacts with sodium ethoxide to give
(A) Alkane (B) Alkene (C) Alkyl halide (D) Ether

5. Which member of each of the following pairs hydrolyses at the faster rate?
Br Br
(a) &
(I) (II)
Br
(b)
(III)
Br
&
(IV)
e R
6.
(A) I & III (B) I & IV
Which of the following can participate in haloform reaction?

(C)
s
II & IV
y
(D) II & III
7.
(A) Formaldehyde
aq.KOH
In the reaction CH3CHCl 2   X.
(B)
a l
Benzaldelyde (C) Ethylene dichloride (D) Ethyl alcohol
t
Compound X is
(A) CH3CH2OH (B) (CH3)2CO (C) CH 2 CH2 (D) CH3CHO
8.
9.
(A) a
The reactivity of halogenation of alkanes decreases in order
C F2 > Cl2 > Br2 > I2 (B)

(CH3)3 CMgCl on reaction with D2O produces
I2 > Br2 > Cl2 > F2 (C)
OH OH
Cl2 > F2 > I2 > Br2 (D) F2 > Br2 > I2 > Cl2
(A) (CH3)3 CD (B) (CH3)3COD (C) (CD3)3CD (D) (CD3)3COD

10. In the addition of HBr to propene in the absence of peroxides, the first step involves the addition of
(A) Br – (B) H+ (C) H (D) Br
11. The order of reactivities of the following alkyl halides for a SN2 reaction is
(A) RF > RCl > RBr > RI (B) RF > RBr > RCl > RI
(C) RCl > RBr > RF > RI (D) RI > RBr > RCl > RF
(1) KCN
12. C3H6Cl2 + CH3 CHCOOH. Hence (A) is
(2) H3O
(A) (3) 
CH3
(A) 1, 1 dichloro propane (B) 1, 2 dichloro propane

(C) 2, 2 dichloro propane (D) 1, 3 dichloro propane

+–
N2Cl
13. CuCl / HCl
   X NaOH
  Y.
High temp. & Press.
Product Y is
+ –
– + + –
N2Cl
ONa OH N2OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
14. Reactants for preparation of DDT is
e R OH
(A)
(B)
(C) s
Chloral with chlorobenzene in presence of conc. sulphuric acid
Chloral dihydrate with chlorobenzene in presence of conc. HNO3
y
Chloral with chlorobenzene in presence of conc. HNO3
15.
(D) Chloral dihydrate with conc. H2SO4
a l
Which of the following reagent can be used to distinguish between
t
CH3–CH=CHCl and CH2 = CH–CH2Cl ?
(A) Br2 (gas) (B) Br2 (water) (C) AgNO3 (D) Iodoform
16.
C
(A)
(C)
a
The reaction conditions leading to the best yields of C2H5Cl are
UV light
C 2H6 (excess )  Cl 2   
UV light
C 2H6  Cl2 (excess )   
(B)
(D)
dark
C 2H6  Cl2   
room temperature
UV light
C 2H6  Cl2  
17. A mixture of two organic compounds was treated with sodium metal in ether solution, Isobutane was
obtained as one of the product. The two possible chlorine compounds are
(A) Methyl chloride and propyl chloride (B) Methyl chloride and ethyl chloride
(C) Isopropyl chloride and methyl chloride (D) Isopropyl chloride and ethyl chloride
18. An organic compound A is with molecular formula C6H5Cl, does not give any addition reaction and
instead undergoes electrophilic substitution. If A undergoes following reaction
CuCN / 475 k H / H O
A  
 B 2 C
pyridine
then the product C is
CONH2 COOH COCl

(A) (B) (C) (D)

19. In the reaction
HgSO LiAIH P / Br
CH  CH  
4
 X  
4
 Y  
2
 Z,
H2SO 4
Z is
(A) Ethylidene bromide (B) Ethyl bromide (C) Ethylene dibromide (D) Ethanoyl bromide
20. How many enantiomeric pairs can be formed by mono bromination of neopentane?
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) Zero
R
CH Cl Cl (Fe)
aq.KOH
21.
3
   A 2 B   C
Anhyd. AlCl3
Which of the following statement is correct regarding transformation of B  C?

(A)
(B)
Reaction takes place in presence of light
2 isomers of C are obtained as a result of the reaction
s e
22.
(C) Reactive intermediate is carbocation
For the reaction,
l y
(D) Reaction is not possible without extraordinary drastic conditions
X
Alcoholic KOH
a
CH3 C H  CH2CH3        CH3  CH  CH  CH3
|
t  CH  CH  CH  CH
2 2 3
(A)
(B)
C
(C)
(D)
a
CH3  CH  CH  CH3 predominates always
CH2  CH  CH2  CH3 predominates always

Both are formed in equal amounts
The product ratio is dependent on the halogen atom
23. Following halide doesnot give precipitate with alcoholic silver nitrate
(A) Ethyl iodide (B) Tert butyl chloride (C) Vinyl chloride (D) n-propyl iodide
24. Which one of the following will react fastest with aq. NaOH?
CH3
CH3 CH2Cl CH2Cl
(A) (B) (C) (D)

Cl
CH3
25. Which of the following C4H9Cl compound will be optically active?
CH3
|
(A) CH3CH2CH2CH2Cl (B) CH3CH2–CH–CH3 (C) CH3–C–CH3 (D) CH3–CH–CH2Cl
| | |
Cl Cl CH3

TOPIC : ALCOHOL, PHENOL & ETHER
EXERCISE #01
1 Glycerol reacts with nitric acid to form an explosive compound called nitroglycerine having the structure
(A) CH2OH (B) CH2OH (C) CH2–O–NO2 (D) CH2–O–NO2

| | | |
CHOH CH–O–NO2 CH–O–NO2 CH–O–NO2
| | | |
CH2–O–NO2 CH2OH CH2–O–NO2 CH2OH
2 Crotyl alcohol has the structure :

(A) CH2=CH–CH2OH (B) CH2=CH(OH)–CH3
e R
s
(C) CH3–CH=CH–CH2–OH (D) CH(OH)=CH–CH3
3 The missing structures A and B in the reaction sequence :
R–CH2–CH2OH 
350ºC
Al O
2 3
R–CH=CH2 
(ii) Zn. H O
l

(i) O3
 RCHO + A
3
y Reduce
B
a
are given by the set :
(A) CH3OH, RCOOH (B) Methanal, RCH2OH (C) Ethanal, RCOOH (D) Methanal, RCHOHR’
4
CH3–CH=CH2 t
The missing structures A and B in the reaction sequence :
aB2H6
  A
H2 O2  NaOH

(A) CH3–CH2–CH2–BH2, CH3–CH2–CH2OH

 B are given by the set :
(B) (CH3CHCH)2BH, CH3–CH2–CH2OH
5
C
(C) (CH3)2CH–CH2–BH2, CH3–CH(OH)–CH
Dil. H2 SO4
(A) C2H5–O–C2H5   C2H5OH
(D) (CH3–CH2–CH2)3 B, CH3–CH2–CH2OH
Which of the following reactions is an example of hydrogenolysis :
(B) CH3COOC2H5 

Na 
C2H5 OH C2H5OH

LiAlH4 2H
(C) CH3COOH   C2H5OH (D) CH3CHO   C2H5OH
6 The compounds A, B and C in the reaction sequence :
(i) CH3CHO
HBr Mg (ii) H3O
CH3CH2OH   A    B   C are given by the set :
(A) CH3CH2Br, CH3CH2MgBr, (CH3)3C–OH

(B) CH3CH2Br, (CH3CH2)2Mg, (CH3)2CHCH2OH
(C) CH3CH2Br, CH3CH2MgBr, CH3CH(OH)CH2CH3
(D) CH3CHBr2, CH3CH(MgBr)2, CH3CH(OH)CH3
7 A primary alcohol on oxidation :
(A) Loses only one –hydrogen
(B) Loses no –hydrogen
(C) Can lose both –hydrogens
(D) Can lose one –hydrogen or both –hydrogen atoms

8 which of the following is not a common oxidant for alkanols :
(A) Heptavalent manganese (B) Hexavalent chromium
(C) Tetravalant manganese (D) Chromium trioxide in acetic acid
9 In the industrial preparation of ethanol from starch by fermentation processes, a small amount of inferior
liquor called “fusel oil” is obtained, This is chemically a mixture of :
(A) Propyl alcohol, isobutyl alcohol active amyl alcohol and excess of isopentyl alcohol
(B) Propyl alcohol, ispropyl alcohol and isopentyl alcohol
10
(C) Methanol, ethanol and 1–propanol
(D) Methanal + ethanal + propanal
Which of the following statements is not true :
e R
11
(A) Pure phenol is a colourless crystalline solid
(C) Phenol has a very low boiling point
Select the wrong statement :
s
(B) Phenol has a low melting point
y
(D) Phenol turns pink on exposure to air
(A) Ka of phenol is of the order of 10–10
a l
(C) Acetic acid is stronger acid than C6H5OH
(B) Phenol is stronger acid than CH3COOH
(D) Sodium phenate is soluble in water
t
12 The reaction
OH
a
120ºC +
O Na+ + CO 2 
7 atmospheres
 COO Na
is called :
13 C
(A) Elbs persulphate oxidation
(C) Reimer–Tiemann reaction
(B) Kolbe reaction
(D) Lederer–Manasse reaction
Sodium phenate on heating with CO2 under presssure gives mainly :
(A) o–hydroxybenzaldehyde (B) o–hydroxybenzyl alcohol
(C) o–hydroxybenzoic aicd (D) o–hydroxyphenol
14 Nitration of phenol with conc. nitric acid gives :
(A) o–nitrophenol (B) m–nitrophenol (C) p–nitrophenol (D) 2,4,6–trinitrophenol
15 Phenol reacts with benzenediazonium chloride solution to from a compound of the structure :
(A) HO N=N Cl (B) N=N OH
(C) N–N (D) N=N Cl

| |
OH Cl
16 Which of the following sets of groups activates the ortho and para positions in electrophilic aromatic
substitutions
O
(A) –OH, –NO2, –CHO (B) –NH2, –NO2, –C–O–H
(C) –OH, O–, –OR (D) –OR, –CN, –Cl

17 Deoxygenation of phenol can be achieved by distillation with :
(A) Raney nickel (B) Lithium aluminium hydride
(C) Sodium borohydride (D) Zinc dust
18 Phenol and benzoic acid are distinguished by :
(A) Lucas reagent (B) Victor Meyer test (C) Caustic soda (D) Sodium bicarbonate
19 Phenol is distinguished from ethanol by the reaction with :
(A) Red litmus (B) Aqueous ferric chloride
20
(C) Alkaline –naphthol
NaNO
Phenol  2
conc. H2SO4
H2O
 Green product  NaOH
 red product   Blue product :
e R
(D) Sodium bicarbonate solution
this reaction is associated with the name of :

(A) Gattermann (B) Hofmann
y s
(C) Liebermann (D) Reimer–Tiemann
l
21 The sulphur analogue of phenol is not called :
(A) Phenyl mercaptan (B) thiophenol
22
(C) Phenyl hydrogen sulphide
t a
Which of the following is not correctly matched :
(A) Phenol + CHCl 3 + NaOH Heat
(D) Benzenethiol
— Salicylaldehyde
a
 
Heat
(B) Phenol + Phthalic anhydride 
H2SO4
 — Phenetole
23
C
(C) Phenol Br2 water
 
(D) Sodium phenate + CO 2

In the reaction sequence :
SO 3Na
NaOH

— Tribromophenol
 A
Heat, Pr essure

CH3I
B
—
HI
Salicylic acid
C+D
   
350ºC
A, B, C and D are given by the set :

(A) Sodium phenate, anisole, C6H5I, CH3OH (B) Sodium phenate, phenetole, C2H5I, C6H5OH
(C) Sodium phenate, anisole, C6H5OH, CH3I (D) Sodium phenate, phenetole, C6H5I, C2H5OH
24 Anisole does not react with HI to from C6H5I and CH3OH because :
(A) C6H5 is less stable (B) C6H5I has high molecular weight
(C) Aromatic carbon–oxygen bond is stronger (D) CH3OH is more volatile than CH3I
25 Which of the following is a schotten–baumann reaction :
(A) C6H5OH + CH3COCl  C6H5OCOCH3 + HCl
(B) C6H5OH + C6H5COCl  C6H5COOC6H5 + HCl
(C) 3C6H5OH + PCl 5 + H2O  (C6H5)3PO4 + 5HCl
(D) C6H5OH + (CH3CO)2O  C6H5OCOCH3 + CH3COOH
26 The methoxy groups in natural compounds are estimated by reaction with :
(A) H2SO 4 (B) HF (C) HI (D) BF3

HBr C2H5 ONa
27 In the reaction sequence A   B   Ethoxyethane A and B are :
(A) C2H6, C2H5Br (B) CH4, CH3Br (C) CH2=CH2, C2H5Br (D) CHCH, CH2=CH–Br
28 Oxonium salt of ether has the structure :
+ +
(A) C2H5–O–CH–O –H (B) CH3–CH2–O –CH2–CH3
| | |
CH3 H H
R
+
(C) (C2H5)2O  O (D) CH3–CH2–O–CH2–CH2–O–O –H
|
H
29 In the Williamson synthesis of ethers given by the general equation :

R–X + R’ONa
s
R–O–R’ the yield from R–X follows the sequence :
e
y
(A) CH3 > 1º > 2º > 3º (B) CH3 < 1º < 2º < 3º
(D) CH3 < 1º < 2º > 3º (D) CH3 > 1º < 2º < 3º
30
(A) Phenol and ethyl bromide
a l
On Boiling with conc. HBr ethyl phenyl ether yields :
(B) Bromobenzene and ethanol
t
(C) Phenol and ethane (D) Bromobenzene and ethane
31 Which enzyme is used in the reaction :
32
C6H12O 6
(A) Zymase
C a2C2H5OH + 2CO 2
(B) Invertase
Which of the following property is not shown by C2H5–O–C2H5
(A) Iodoform test
(C) Action of HI
(C) Diastase (D) Maltase
(B) Reaction with CH3–COCl

(D) Action of AgNO3
Correct answer is :
(A) b, c (B) a, d (C) a, b & c (D) c, d
300ºC
33 The product of the reaction CH3CH2OH + Cu   is :
(A) C6H6 (B) CH3COCH3 (C) CH3CHO (D) CH3COOH
673 K, 300 atm

34 Reaction : CO + H2 (water gas) + H2 
Cr2O3 – ZnO
?
may be used for manufacture of :

(A) HCHO (B) HCOOH (C) CH3OH (D) C2H5OH
35 When ethanol vapours are passed through heated alumina (250ºC). The compound formed is :
(A) CH2=CH2 (B) CH2———CH2 (C) CH3–CH2–O–CH2CH3 (D) CH3–CH=CH2

O
36 When the vapours of alcohol is passed over copper or zinc oxide then the following compound has no
chances to be formed :
(A) Alkanal (B) Alkyne (C) Alkene (D) Alkanone

37 For industrial method to produce methanol we choose :
(A) CO + H2 (B) CH4 + H2O (C) HCHO + H2 (D) None
38 –OH group of ethyl alcohol is neutral whereas acetic acid is acidic because :
(A) Ethyl alcohol molecule undergoes association
(B) Ethyl alcohol is covalent compound
(C) Acetic acid is an electrovalent compound
R
(D) In acetic acid OH group is attached to electronegative carbonyl group
39 Lucas reagent is :
40
(A) Conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2
(C) Conc. HNO3 and hydrous ZnCl2
e
(B) Conc. HCl and hydrous ZnCl2
s
(D) Conc. HNO3 and anhydrous ZnCl2
Isopropyl alcohol is heated at 300ºC in presence of Cu catalyst to give :
41
(A) Acetone (B) Dimethyl ether
l
Which statement is incorrect for C2H5OC2H5 is :
y
(C) Acetaldehyde (D) Ethane
a
(A) It is an extracting solvent (B) It is an anaesthetic
t
(C) It is more reactive than alcohol (D) It shows dipole moment
42 C2H5–O–C2H5 with cold HI forms :
43
(A) Only C2H5OH
a (B) Only C2H5I (C) Both the above (D) None of the above
When ethanol is refluxed with conc. H2SO 4 at 150–170ºC the resulting compound is :
C
(A) Ethylene
(C) Diethyl ether
(B) Ethyl hydrogen sulphate
(D) Acetaldehyde
44 The high boiling point of ethanol (78.2ºC) compared to dimethyl ether (–23.6ºC) though both having the
same molecular formula C2H6O is due to :
(A) Hydrogen bonding (B) Ionic bonding
(C) Co–ordinate Co–valent bonding (D) Resonance
45 With which of the following compounds the grignard reagent should be treated in order to produce secondary
alcohol :
(A) CH3COCH3 (B) CH3CHO (C) CO2 (D) HCHO
46 C2H5OH can be differentiated from CH3OH by :
(A) Reaction with HCl (B) Reaction with NH3 (C) By iodoform test (D) By solubility in water
47 The reaction between an alcohol and an acid is called :
(A) Esterification (B) Sponification (C) Hydrolysis (D) Hydrogenation
48 How does alcohol react to litmus :
(A) Colour changes from red to blue (B) Colour changes from blue to red
(C) Colour is not effected (D) Not possible to predict

49 When wine is put in air it becomes sour due to :
(A) Oxidation of C2H5OH (B) Reduction of C2H5OH
(C) Formation of C2H5NH2 (D) Dissolution of CO2
50 Absolute alcohol can not be obtained by simple fractional distillation because :
(A) Pure C2H5OH is unstable
(B) C2H5OH forms H–bonding with water
R
(C) Boiling point of C2H5OH is very close to that of water
(D) Constant boiling azeotropic mixture is formed with water
51
alcohol is :
(A) Tertiary (B) Primary (C) Secondary e
When vapours of an alcohol are passed over hot reduced copper, alcohol is converted into alkene, the
s (D) None
52 Absolute alcohol is prepared from rectified spirit by :
(A) Steam distillation
l y
(B) Azeotropic distillation
a
(C) Simple distillation (D) Fractional distillation
t
53 When glycerol is heated with KHSO 4, which is formed :
(A) Glyceric acid (B) Acrolein (C) glyceraldehyde (D) Dihydroxy acetone
54
55
C
(A) Glyoxal
a
Ethylene glycol on oxidation with periodic acid give :
(B) Oxalic acid (C) Formaldehyde
23 gms of sodium of reaction with methyl alcohol gives :
(A) Half mole of H2 (B) One mole of H2 (C) One mole of O2

(D) Glycolic acid
(D) none
56 Diethyl ether is prepared by passing ethyl alcohol vapours over a catalyst under high pressure and
temperature. The catalyst is :
(A) SiO2 (B) CuO (C) Al2O3 (D) Ag2O
57 Phenol is :
(A) A base weaker than ammonia (B) An acid stronger than carbonic acid
(C) An acid weaker than carbonic acid (D) A Neutral compound
TOPIC : ALDEHYDE, KETONE & BENZALDEHYDE

EXERCISE #01
1 Formaldehyde reduces :
(A) Ag(NH3)2+1 (B) CuO (C) HgCl2 (D) All
2 Pentane–2–one differs from pentane–3 one in that :
(A) Pentane–2–one does not give iodoform test (B) Pentane–2–one gives iodoform test
(C) Pentane–3–one gives iodoform test (D) Pentane–2–one does not react with NaHSO3
3 Aldehydic group can occur :
(A) Any where in the carbon chain (B) In the middle of the carbon test
(C) Only at the second carbon atom of the chain (D) Only at the end carbon atom of the carbon chain

4 When propyne is teated with aqueous sulphuric acid in the presence of mercuric sulphate, the major
product is :
(A) Propanal (B) Propyl hydrogen sulphate
(C) Propanol (D) Acetone
5 Paraldehyde is :
(A) A trimer of formaldehyde (B) A trimer of acetaldehyde
(C) A hexamer of formaldehyde (D) A hexamer of acetaldehyde
6 Which one of the following aldehyde will not form an aldol when treated with dilute NaOH :
7
(A) CH3CHO (B) CH3CH2CHO (C) (CH3)3CCHO
e R
(D) C6H5CH2CHO
Compound (A) C5H10O forms a phenyl hydrazone and gives negative Tollen’s and iodoform tests. Compound
(A) on reduction gives n–pentane. Compound (A) is :
s
(A) A primary alcohol (B) An aldehyde (C) A ketone (D) A secondary alcohol
8 The structural formula of chloral hydrate is :
9
(A) CCl3CH
OH
OH
(B) HCCl2CH
l
OH
OH
y
(C) CCl3CH2(OH) (D) None
An organic liquid which reduces tollen’s reagent gives one semicarbazone derivative in which 36.47%
a
Nitrogen is present. The liquid would be :
t
(A) CH3CHO (B) CH3CH2CHO (C) CH3– CH –CHO (D) CH3CH2CH2CHO
|
CH3
10
11
CH3CHO 
C

Alc KOH
A 
4KMnO
(A) CH3COOC2H5
A 
H
Br2
B 
a
PCl3
 C 
NaNH
CH3 COONa
 B   C, (C) is :
(B) CH3COCl
Alc. KOH
 D 
dil. H SO
2
Hg2
NH2 OH
 E 
2
(C) CH3COOH
 (CH3)2C = NOH (A) is :

4
(D) (CH3CO)2O
(A) CH3CH2Br (B) CH3CH2CH2Br (C) CH3CHBr2 (D) CH3CH2CHBr2

12 Formaldehyde when treated with conc. KOH gives :
(A) CH3CHO (B) C2H4 (C) CH3OH, HCOOK (D) CH3OH, CH3CHO
13 Acetone on heating with ammonia produces :
(A) Acetaldimine (B) Diacetone alcohol (C) Diacetone amine (D) Hydrobenzamide
14 The product of the reaction between diethyl cadimium and acetylchloride is :
(A) CH3COCH3 (B) C2H5COC2H5 (C) CH3CHO (D) CH3COC2H5
15 Acetone + X Oxamino acetone; Acetone + Y Diacetone amine
X and Y are :
(A) NH2OH, NH3 (B) HNO2, NH3 (C) H2SO4, NH3 (D) None
2  Cl 6 5 C H Cl
16 Acetaldehyde 
SbCl3 A 
Con. H2SO4
 (B), (B) is :
(A) Chloroform (B) Chloral (C) DDT (D) TNB

17 Formaldoxime on hydrolysis gives product, which on further reaction with baryta water gives
(A) Paraldehyde (B) Metaldehyde (C) Trioxane (D) Formose
18 The oxidation of RCH2COCH3 with acidic potassium dichromate produces :
(A) A mixture of RCOOH and CH3COOH (B) A mixture of RCH2COOH and HCOOH
(C) CH3COOH only (D) RCOOH only

19 Two molecules of an aldehyde reacts with a concentrated solution of NaOH and produces one molecule of an
alcohol and acid each, which one is the aldehyde :
(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Formaldehyde (C) Propionaldehyde (D) Butyraldehyde
20 Which of the following compounds will give a mixed ketone on oxidation :
(A) (CH3)3COH (B) CH3CH2CH2OH (C) CH3CH2CH(OH)CH3 (D) (CH3)2CHCH2OH
21 Magenta is :
(A) Alkaline phenolphthalein (B) Red litums
R
(C) p-rosaniline hydrochloride (D) Methyl red
22 An organic compound C5H10O forms phenyl hydrazone, gives positive iodoform test and undergoes Wolf-
23
Kishner reaction to give isopentane. It is :
(A) Pentanol (B) Pentan-2-one (C) Pentan-3-one
s e
(D) 3-methylbutan-2-one
Which of the following is the mechanism of representative reactions of carbonyl compounds
y
(A) Neucleophilic substitution (B) Electrophilic substitution
l
(C) Neucleophilic addition (D) Electrophilic addition
24 In the aqueous solution of which of the following compounds forms the compounds belonging to carbo
a
hydrate family on keeping it in the aqueous solution of barium hydroxide :
(A) Benzaldehyde (B) Formaldehyde (C) Acetaldehye (D) Acetone
25
26 t
What happens on adding concentrated caustic alkali to an aldehyde containing -hydrogen :
a
(A) Resinification (B) Saccharification (C) Tischenko reaction (D) Cannizzaro’s reaction
Which of the following reactions may be used for obtaining an unsaturated aldehyde containing more carbon
atoms than the parent alkanal :
27
28
C
(A) Aldol condensation
oxide at 300º :
(A) Acetaldehyde
(B) Polymerisation
(B) Ethyl acetate

(C) Tischenko reaction
(C) Acetone
Oximinoacetone is formed by the reaction of which of the following :
(D) Cannizzaro’s reaction
Which of the following is formed on heating the representative member of alkanoic acid family with manganous
(D) Manganous acetate
(A) Propanal + HNO2 (B) Methylamine + Acetone

(C) HNO2 + Propanone (D) Acetone + NH2OH
29 Hypnotic drugs named sulphonals can be manufactured by which of the following reactions :
[O]
(A) Carbonyl compound + alcohol A  
[O]
(B) Carbonyl compound + Thioalcohol A  
(C) Ketone + Phenylhydrazien
(D) Aldehyde + Baryta water
30 Which of the following compounds is formed on heating acetone with a weak alkali like baryta water :
(A) Phorone (B) 3-Methyl-2-penten-2-one
(C) Mesitylene (D) Mesityl oxide
31 Tetramethylethylene glycol is obtained on the reduction of which of the following compounds by Hg/Mg in
benzene
(A) Butanone (B) Ethanal (C) Propanal (D) Propanone

32 Formamint, the medicine for throat infections, is a mixture of which of the following compounds :
(A) Acetaldehyde + Lactose (B) HCHO + Lactose
(C) C6H5CHO + Glucose (D) CH3CHO + Fructose
33 A mixture of the simplest members of alkanone and alkanal families is formed on ozonolysis of which of the
following compounds
(A) Propyne (B) Isobutylene (C) -Butylene (D) 3-Pentaone
34 Which of the following compounds reacts with acidified dichromate to form a carboxylic acid having less
number of carbon atoms :
35
(A) Acetaldehyde (B) Ethyl methyl ketone (C) Isobutyraldehyde
e R(D) n-Butyraldehyde
Which of the following products should be formed on the reactions of formaldehyde with concentrated NaOH
solution :
36
(A) Ethanol + sodium formate
(C) Methanol + sodium acetate
s
(B) Methanol + sodium methanoate
y
(D) Ethanol + sodium acetate
An organic compound having molecular formula C3H6O, does not give any precipitate with 2,4-
(A) CH3 – CH2 – CHO

l
dinitrophenylhydrazine and also does not react with metallic sodium. It can be :
a
(B) CH2 = CH – CH2OH (C) (CH3)2CO (D) CH2 = CH – O – CH3
t
dil
37 CH3CHO + CH3CHO 
OH–1
 CH CH(OH)CH CHO
3 2
which of the following is the principal intermediate of the above reaction :
38
(A) A carbanion
A) Bakelite
(A) ABC
a (B) A carbocation
B) Metaldehyde
(B) ABE
C) Urotropine
(C) A carbene
Which of the following compounds can be formed from simplest aldehyde :
C D) Formamint
(C) ACD
E) Paraldehyde
(D) ADE
39 Which of the following will be in gaseous state, if room temperature is 25ºC :
(A) Actaldehyde (B) Butanone (C) Acetone (D) Formalin
40 [(CH3)2C=CH]2 C = O is :
(A) Ketone (B) Trimer of acetone (C) Unsaturated aldehyde(D) Dimer of acetone
41 >C=O + 2RSH  >C(SR)2 + H2O, the product is called :
(A) Mercaptan (B) Thioketal (C) Thiacetal (D) All
42 Phenyl–hydrazone derivative of an aldehyde contains 20.9% Nitrogen. Then the Aldehyde is :
(A) Propionaldehyde (B) Butyraldehyde (C) Isobutyraldehyde (D) Acetaldehydes
43 C6H5CHO + PCl5, the product is :
(A) Benzyl chloride (B) Benzotrichloride (C) Benzal chloride (D) Triphenyl phosphate
44 Benzaldehyde and formaldehyde give a common reaction :
(A) Cannizzaro’s reaction (B) Benzoin condensation
(C) Claisen condensation (D) Perkin’s reaction
Cl2
45 C6H5CHO   A + HCl; The product A when reacts with the following compounds the reaction is
known as Schotten Baumann reaction
(A) C6H5NH2 (B) C6H5CH2OH (C) C6H5OH (D) All of these

46 HCHO and C6H5CHO can be distinguished by :
(A) Fehling solution (B) Tollen’s reagent (C) KMnO4 (D) All of these
47 Benzaldehyde is used in all except :
(A) In the manufature of perfuming agents (B) An an oxidising agent
(C) In the manufacture of dyes (D) In the manufacture of cosmetics
48 Benzylidene acetone is the product of the reaction of an orgnaic compound (A) with acetone in the presence
of ethanolic sodium hydroxide. The organic compounds (A) is :
49
(A) Benzylalcohol (B) Benzaldehyde
Which of the following is most stable :
(A) C6H5COO– (B) CH3COO–
(C) Benzoic acid
(C) C6H5COOH
R
(D) Acetophenone
e
(D) CH3COOH
50
(A) C6H5CHO/2H (B) C6H5CHO/H2N–NH2
s
Replacement of carbonylic oxygen is observed in the reaction :
y
(C) C6H5COOH/PCl5 (D) C6H5CHO/HCN
l
51 Use is made of the following reagent to convert benzaldehyde to benzoyl chloride :
(A) Phosphorus pentachloride (B) Thionyl chloride
52
t
Benzyl phenyl ketone is :
(A) C6H5COC6H5 a
(C) Reaction with chlorine in presence of AlCl3 (D) Reaction with Cl2
(B) C6H5–CO–CO–C6H5
53
54
(A) Benzoic acid a
(C) C6H5CH2–CO–C6H5
(B) Benzyl acetate

(D) C6H5CH2–CO–CH2–C6H5
The following compound is obtained on refluxing benzaldehyde with aqueous ethanolic potassium cyanide :
C (C) Cinnamic acid

An organic compound contains 40% C and 6.66% H. Its empirical formula is :
(D) Benzoin
(A) CH2 (B) CH2O (C) CHO (D) CHO2

55 Choose the wrong statement :
(A) Smell of benzaldehyde and mirbane oil is not different
(B) Benzaldehyde undergoes Tischenko reaction
(C) Benzaldehyde reduces Fehling’s solution
(D) Dry distillation of calcium benzoate gives a ketonic compound
56 Etard reaction in the following is :
(A) Oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by chromychloride
(B) Oxidation of toluene to benzaldehyde by alkaline KMnO4
(C) Dry distillation of calcium benzoate
(D) Reaction of benzene with Cl2 in the presence of ultra violet light
57 Aromatic aldehydes react with primary amines to form the following :
(A) Urea (B) Amide (C) Schiff’s base (D) Oxime
58 Which aldehyde is used in the manufacture of perfumes :
(A) Cinnamaldehyde (B) Benzaldehyde (C) Propionaldehyde (D) Acryaldehyde

EXERCISE #02(MIX, O CONTAINING COMPONDS)
1. Epoxy ethane reacts with methyl magnesium chloride followed by acidic hydrolysis to give
(A) Ethanol (B) Propanol
(C) Isopropyl alcohol (D) Methanol
2. Product of the reaction is
(i) BH3, THF

(ii) H2O2, OH–
(A) (B) OH (C)
e R
(D)
s
OH OH
OH CH3 OH
y
3. Rate of esterification for alcohol is
(A) 1° > 3° < 2° (B) 3° > 2° > 1°
l
(C) 2° > 1° > 3° (D) 1° > 2° > 3°
4. Choose the incorrect statement
(A)
(B)
(C)
2° alcohol gives Lucas test
Oxidation of 1° alcohol gives aldehyde a
1° alcohols give aldehyde when heated with copper
t
5.
(D)
h
a
3° alcohol can participate in haloform reaction
Identify the final product
C Cl2 (1 eq)
A
Aq. KOH
B
Cu

C
OH O OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
HO
6. Pentan 2, 3, 4-triol, on oxidation with periodic acid gives

(A) CH3CHO (B) HCOOH (C) Both (A) & (B) (D) CH3COOH
7. Saturated alcohol shows functional group isomerisation with
(A) Acid (B) Aldehyde (C) Ketone (D) Ether
8. Pinacol-pinacolone rearrangement is one of the most popular and important rearrangement. Pinacolone is
CH3
(A) CH3 C CH3 (B) CH3 CH C CH3
O O
CH3 CH3
(C) CH3 C CO CH3 (D) CH3 C CH2 OH
CH3 CH3

9. Which one of following alcohol when heated with copper at 300°C shows different behaviour?
OH CH3
(A) CH3CH2OH (B) CH 3–CH–CH 3 (C) CH3–C–OH (D) CH3–CH–CH2OH
CH3
CH3 CH3
HNO3/H2SO4 Sn/HCl NaNO2-HCl

A B C
10. H2O, 
R
D
CH3 CH3
CH2NO2 CH2OH
(A)
OH
(B)
NH2
(C)
s e(D)
y
(i) BH3/THF
11. – Product , the product of this reaction is
(ii) H 2O 2, OH
12.
(A)
CH2=CH2
Pentan-1-ol
Hypochlorous acid
(B)
X Y
a l
Pentan-2-ol
CH2OH
(C) Pentan-1-al (D) Pentan-2-one
X and Y are
(A)
X
CH2 Cl
a t Y
NaHCO3
CH2OH
(B)
X
CH2 OH
Y
H2SO4
C
CH2 OH CH2 OH
CH2Cl CH3
(C) KOH (aq) (D) KOH (aq)
CH2Cl CH2Cl
13. Rosenmund’s reduction is used to prepare
(A) Aromatic ketones only (B) Aliphatic ketones only
(C) Aliphatic and aromatic ketones (D) Aliphatic and aromatic aldehydes
14. Optimum pH range for the following reaction
CH3
C O + NH 2OH CH3 CH N OH
H
(A) 4-4.5 (B) 7 (C) 8-10 (D) Any pH range
15. Which one of the following can reduce Tollen’s reagent?
(A) HCHO (B) HCOOH (C) C6H5CHO (D) All of these
16. Product of Wolff-Kishner reduction is
(A) Alkene (B) Alkyl amine (C) Alkane (D) Aldehyde
17. A mixture of benzaldehyde and formaldehyde is treated with conc. NaOH to give
(A) Benzoic acid + formic acid (B) Benzyl alcohol + methyl alcohol
(C) Benzyl alcohol + sodium formate (D) Phenol + sodium formate
18. Which is most reactive?
CH 3 CH3 C 2H 5 CH3
(A) C=O (B) C=O (C) C=O (D) C =O
CH 3 C 2H 5 C2 H5 H

19. Which will give Fehling solution test?
O
O H
CH3 C
C
CH 3 CH3
(A) C=O (B) (C) (D) C =O
CH 3 H
20. Which is most acidic?
R
COOH
COOH COOH COOH
e
NO2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
s
NO2 NO2
y
21. Benzoyl chloride is prepared from benzoic acid
(A) Cl2, H2 (B) SO2Cl2 (C) SOCl2 (D) Cl2, H2O
22.
a l
Which alcohol is most reactive towards Luca's reagent?
CH3
|
t
(A) CH3CH2–OH (B) CH3–CH–CH2OH (C) (CH3)3C–OH (D) CH3–CH–CH2CH3
|
OH
23.
24.
C a
Which of the following reagent with Grignard reagent / followed by hydrolysis will yield primary alcohol?
(A) Aldehyde
HBr reacts fastest with
(A)
(C)
2-methyl propan-2-ol
Propan-1-ol
(B) Ketones (C)
(B)
(D)
Ester
Propan-2-ol
2-methylpropan-1-ol
(D) Epoxides
25. Phenol is
(A) A base weaker than ammonia (B) An acid stronger than carbonic acid
(C) An acid weaker than carbonic acid (D) A neutral compound
26. The ether O when treated with HI produces
(A) CH2I (B) CH2OH (C) OH (D) Both (A) & (C)
27. An organic compound X on treatment with acidified K2Cr2O7 gives a compound Y which reacts with I2
and sodium carbonate to form triodomethane. The compound X is
(A) CH3OH (B) CH3COCH3 (C) CH3CHOHCH3 (D) CH3CHO

28. OH
X
(low temperature)
+ H2SO4(SO3)
Y
(high temperature)
X and Y respectively are
OH OH OH
R
OH
SO3H SO3H
(A) and (B) and
SO3 H SO3H
s
OH
e
y
OH
SO3H
(C) (both) (D) (both)
29. The ether
a l SO3H
when heated with HI produces
(A)
(C)
a t
OH + I
OH + IO
(B)
(D)
I+
No reaction
I
30. B
C NaBH4
A and B are
CH=CH–CHO
H2/Pt
A
(A) CH2CH2CHO, CH=CH–CH2OH
(B) CH2–CH2–CH2OH, CH=CH–CH2OH
(C) CH=CH–CH2OH in both cases
(D) CH2CH2CH2OH in both cases
31. The structure of the compound that gives a tribromo derivative on treatment with Br2 water is
CH3 CH2OH CH3 OH

OH
(A) (B) (C) (D)
OH
CH3

32. CH3CH2CH2OH and CH3CH(OH)CH3 can be distinguished by
(A) Oxidation with acidic pottasium dichromate followed by reaction with Fehling solution
(B) Oxidation with alkaline KMnO4 followed by reaction with Tollen's reagent
(C) Oxidation by heating copper followed by reaction with Fehling solution
(D) Oxidation with Fehling solution
33. Which of the following will not give D.N.P. test?
CHO
R
(A) CH3–CHO (B) CH3–CO–CH3 (C) CH3–O–CH3 (D)
34. In Cannizzaro reaction, aldehyde molecules undergo
35.
(A)
(C)
Oxidation only
Self oxidation and reduction both
Which compound gives Iodoform reaction?
(B)
(D)
Reduction only
s
Decomposition
e
(A)
O
CH3–C–CH3
||
(B)
O
||
l
Cl–C–CH3 (C)
y O
||
H 2N–C–CH 3 (D) All of these
a
36. Benzaldehyde reacts with acetic anhydride in presence of sodium acetate at 180ºC then the product
formed is
37.
(A) Butanoic acid
a t
CH3 – C – H + 2[Ag(NH3)2]
(B)
+ KOH
Cinnamic acid
A
electrolysis
(C)
B
Crotonic acid (D) Acrylic acid
C
B is ?
O O
– +
(A) CH3 – CH3 (B) CH 3 – C – OH (C) CH3 – C – OK (D) CH4
38. When ethyl acetate is reacted with excess of CH3MgBr followed by hydrolysis to give
(A) Acetone (B) Tertiary butyl alcohol
(C) Propanol-2 (D) Acetaldehyde
OH ONa+
39. +CHCl3+NaOH 

CHO
The electrophile in the above reaction is

(A) Dichloromethyl cation (CH Cl2 ) (B) Dichloro carbene (:CCl2)
– 
(C) Trichloromethyl anion (C Cl3 ) (D) Formyl cation (C HO)
40. The increasing order or rate of HCN addition to compound A  D is

(A) HCHO (B) CH3COCH3 (C) PhCOCH3 (D) PhCOPh
(A) A<B<C<D (B) D<B<C<A (C) D<C<B<A (D) C<D<B<A

TOPIC : CARBOXYLIC ACIDS AND ITS DERIVATIVES
EXERCISE #01
1 The general molecular formula of acid anhydrides is
(A) CnH2n–1 O3 (B) CnH2n+2O3 (C) CnH2n–2O3 (D) CnH2n+1O3
2 An aliphatic carboxylic acid of molecular formula C2H4O2 on reaction with PCl5 gives a compound Y. Y when
heated with sodium salt of the acetic acid produces
(A) Ethyl acetate (B) Ethyl acetoacetate (C) Methyl methanoate (D) Ethanoic anhydride
3
(A) CH3COOH (B) CH2 COOH (C) C6H5OH
e R
One mole of each of the following compounds is heated with water in a sealed test tube, the lowest pH will
be shown by
(D) CH3COCI
s
|
Cl
4 Hydrolysis of an amide with alkali involves
(B) Deamination of the amide

(C) Dehydration ofthe amide
l y
(A) Nucleophilic attack of the hydroxide ion on acyl carbon
5
(D) Slow decarboxylation of the amide
t a
Following reagent is capable of converting ethyl acetate to ethanol
(A) Zn-Cu/H2O (B) P/HI (C) LiAIH4 (D) None of these
6
C a
On heating sodium methoxide and CO the compound formed is
(A) Methyl acetate (B) Ether (C) Sodium acetate
Amides are dehydrated to alkyl cyanides by heating with
(A) PCI5 only (B) SOCI2 only (C) POCI3 only
(D) Sodium methanoate
(D) PCI5 /SOCI2 /POCI3

8 Except one all other names represent the same compound
(A) Ethyl acetoacetete (B) Acetoacetic ester
(C) Ethyl- 3 - oxobutanoate (D) Ethyl- 2 - ketobutanoate
9 Acetic anhydride is capable of reacting with the following triad
(A) > C = O, –CHO, –COOH (B) –OH, > NH, > C = O
(C) > N–, > C = O, –NH2 (D) > C = C<, > O, –NH
10 Acetic anhydride reacts with nitrogen pentoxide to form
(A) Nirtoacetic acid (B) Acetonitrile (C) Acetyl nitrate (D) Acyl nitrene
11 The electronegativity order of Y in R  C  Y is-
||
O
(A) –OR’ > –NH2 > –CI > OCOR (B) –OCOR > – CI > OR’ > –NH2
(C) –OCOR > –OR’ > –CI > –NH2 (D) –CI > –OCOR > –OR’ > –NH2
12 Which of the following is a correct statement
(A) Ethyl acetate has an odour of pineapple
(B) Acetamide has an odour of fish
(C) Acetic anhydride can be prepared by heating acetic acid with P2O5
(D) Acetyl chloride is a gas at ordinary temperature in a tropical country like India

13 Detaching H atom from the carboxylic acid, the remainder portion is called
(A) Acyl group (B) Acetyl group (C) Acyl oxy group (D) None ofthese
14 Match list I with list II and then select the correct answer from the codes given below the lists
List I List II
(A) Organic acid + alcohol  (a) Irreversible reaction
(B) RCOOH + Diazomethane  (b) Preparation of ethyl acetate
R
(C) RCOCI + H2O  (c) Reversible Reaction
Al(OC H )
2 5 3
e
(D) CH3CHO  (d) Preparation of methyl esters
Code A B C D
(A) c
(B) c
(C) c
(D) d
d
b
a
b
a
a
b
c
y s b
d
d
a
15
(C) Butanone + CO2
a l
Hydrolysis and decarboxylation of ethylacetoacetate gives
(A) Methyl ketone + formic acid (B) Acetone + dry ice
(D) Acetic acid + dry ice
16
t
Pick up the incorrect statement
(A) Amides (RCONH2) are reduced by sodium and ethanol into primary amines (RCH2NH2)
a
(B) Amides are dehydrated with PCl5 into alkanenitriles
(C) Amide on treatment with nitrous acid evolve CO2
17
18
C
(D) Amides are formed by heating ammonium carboxylates
–
CH3COOCH3 + Br –  CH3COBr + OCH3. The above reaction is
(A) Possible (B) Not possible
Which of the following statements is incorrect
(C) Difficult to predict
(A) Acetyl chloride is a colourless fuming liquid with irritating odour.

(D) None of these
(B) AcOH, Ac2O and AcCI respectively represent acetic acid, acetic anhydride and acetyl chloride.
(C) Amides of the structure RCO–NH–CO–R are called tertiary amides. .
(D) Dimethylformamide is a very good solvent for polar and non~polar compounds.
19 Select the wrong statement. Amides are hydrolysed
(A) Slowly by water (B) Rapidly by acids
(C) Far more rapidly by alkalis (D) Very slowly by acids or alkalis.
CCl4
20 RCOOAg + Br2 

 R – Br + AgBr + CO2 This reaction is called
(A) Wurtz reaction (B) Hunsdiecker reaction (C) Friedel- Craft reaction (D) Kolbe reaction
21 Which is incorrect in regard to the formation of ester –
(A) It can be obtained by heating silver acetate and ethyl bromide
(B) It can be obtained by the action of ethyl alcohol on CH3COCI or acetic anhydride
(C) It can be obtained by heating CH3CHO in presence of aluminium ethoxide
(D) None ofthese

22 When acetic acid reacts with ethylene in presence of BF3 we get
(A) Ethyl acetate (B) Acetic anhydride (C) Methyl alcohol (D) Ethyl alcohol
23 Arrange acetyl chloride (I), ethyl acetate (II), acetamide (IlI) and acetic anhydride (IV) in order of reactivity
towards nucleophilic acyl substitution -
(A) I > IV> II > IlI (B) I > II > IlI > IV (C) 1lI > II > IV> I (D) IV> III > II > I
24 Reaction between CH2 = C = O and C2H5OH forms
R
(A) Methyl acetate (B) Methyl formate (C) Ethyl acetate (D) Acetic acid
25 Synthetic flavours contain -
26
(A) Unsaturated acids (B) Esters
Ethyl acetate reacts with hydrazine forming-
(C) Dicarboxylic acids
s e
(D) Hydroxy acid
y
(A) Acetamide (B) Acid hydrazide (C) Acid anhydride (D) Hydrazoic acid
l
Na  C2H5OH
27 The reaction, CH3COOC2H5 4[H]
 C2H5OH + CH3CH2OH, is called
28
(A) Claisen reduction
t
(C) Bouveault-Blanc reduction
a (B) Claisen condensation
(D) Tischenko reduction
The reaction of acetaldehyde in the presence of AI(OC2H5)3 produces
29
30
C
(A) Dimethyl sulphate
a
(A) CH3CH(OH)CH2CHO (B) CH3CH = CH–CHO
Which of the following is not an inorganic acid ester
(B) Ethyl nitrate
(C) CH3COOC2H5
(C) Nitroglycerine
(D) No reaction
(D) Ethyl orthoformate

Which of the following test is not carried out to examin the presence of -COOH groups
(A) Litmus test (B) Sodium bicarbonate test
(C) Ester test (D) Bromine water test
31 Acetic acid can be prepared by heating methyl cyanide with
(A) Dilute NaOH solution (B) P2O5
(C) Sodium and alcohol (D) All of these
32 Manufacture of acetic acid by fermentation process is called
(A) Wood distillation method (B) Pyroligneous acid method
(C) Quick vinegar method (D) None of the above
33 Decarboxylation of monocarboxylic acids to give alkanes is acheived by
(A) Heating sodium salts of acids with soda lime (B) EIectrolysis of potassium salts
(C) Dry distillation of calcium salts (D) Heating ammonium salts
34 While naming the organic compound under Geneva system it is usual practice to count the carbon atom of
the following functional group except -
(A) Cyanides (B) Carboxylic acids (C) Carbylamines (D) Carbinols

35 Formic acid decolorises an acidic solution of potassium dichromate because it
O
||
(A) Has a – C – OH group (B) It is stronger acid than acetic acid
(C) Reduces Tollen’s reagent (D) It readily oxidised to CO2

36 Which of the following statement are correct
R
(A) The two carbon-oxygen bond lengths in formic acid are different
(B) The two carbon-oxygen bond length in sodium formate are equal.
(C) Very partial resonance is there in formic acid
s e
y
37 Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of acidity
l
CICH2CH2CH2COOH CH3CHCICH2COOH CH3CH2CHCICOOH
I II III
38
(A) I > II > Ill
t a
(B) Ill > II > I
Reaction of a fat or oil with alkali is called -
(C) I > Ill > II (D) Ill > I > II
a
(A) Esterification (B) Saponification (C) Etherification (D) Epoxidation
39 Arrange the following compounds in decreasing order of acidity
C
ICH2COOH BrCH2COOH CICH2COOH FCH2COOH
I II III IV
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I (C) Ill > IV > I > II (D) I > II > IV > III
40 Arrange the following carboxylic acids in decreasing order of acidity
Oxalic acid Malonic acid Succinic acid.
I II III
(A)I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) I > III > II (D) II > III > I
41 Formic acid and acetic acid can be distinguished by
(A) P2O5 (B) C2H5OH (C) NaHCO3 (D) KMnO4 + H2SO4
42 Succinic acid is a functional group isomer of
(A) Tartaric acid (B) Lactic acid (C) Glycol diacetate (D) Dimethyl oxalate
43 Arrange HOCH2COOH (I), HOCH2CH2COOH (II) and CH3COOH (III) in order of acidity
(A) I > II > III (B) III > II > I (C) I > III > II (D) II > III > I
44 H
R– C –OH + R’OH   RCOOR’ + H2O. The rate of the above reaction will be maximum if R is
(A) H (B) CH3 (C) (CH3)2CH (D) None

45 The rate of esterfication of acetic acid with methyl alcohol (I), ethyl alcohol (II) , isopropyl alcohol (III) and tert.
butyl alcohol (IV) follows in the order
(A) I > II > III > IV (B) IV > III > II > I (C) II > I > IV > III (D) Ill > IV > I > III
46 The reaction of chlorine on carboxylic acids to form alpha chloro acids is called
(A) Hunsdiecker reaction (B) Hell-Volhard-Zelinsky reaction
(C) Hoffmann mustard oil reaction (D) Rosenmund reaction
R
47 The rate of esterfication of HCOOH (I), CH3COOH (II), (CH3)2CHCOOH (III) and (CH3)3CCOOH (IV) with
ethanol follows in the order
48
(A) IV > III > II > I (B) I > II > III > IV
H3 O
X and Y in the reaction sequence R–C  N 
(C)II>I> IV> III
diazomethane
 X 
s e(D) III > IV > I > II
 Y, are given by the set -
(A) Carboxamide, Carbonitrile

(C) RCOOH, RCOOCH3
l y
(B) Carboxylic acid, Carbonitrile
(D) RCONH2, RCOCH3
49
50
(B) PCl5
a
Which of the following reagent attacks the carbonyl group of carboxylic acid -
(A) P2O5
t
(C) LiAIH4 (D) NaOH + CaO
In the electrolysis of the aqueous solution of CH3CH2COONa, anion goes to anode the possibility of formation
51
C
(C) CH3CH2COOC2H5
a
of following compounds takes place –
(A) CH3 –CH2 –CH2 –CH3 (B) CH2 = CH2, CH3 –CH3
(D) All the above
Which of the following will liberate hydrogen when treated with a monocarboxylic acid
(A) NaOH (B) Sodium (C) NaHCO3 (D) Na2CO3
52 In esterification conc. H2SO4 acts as
(A) Dehydrating agent (B) Catalyst
(C) Both catalyst and dehydrating agent (D) Hydrolysing agent
53 Which of the following organic acid decolourises bromine water as well as forms anhydride
(A) HOOC–COOH (B) HOOC–CH2–COOH
H  C  COOH H  C  COOH
(C) || (D) ||
H  C  COOH HOOC  C  H
54 Aqueous formic acid solution cannot be fractionated beacuse formic acid

(A) Is miscible with water in all proportion (B) Forms azeotrope with water
(C) Boils at 100.5°C (D) Is a pungent corrosive liquid
55 The general formula of dicarboxylic acid is
(A) (COOH)2 (B) (CH2)n(COOH)2
(C) (CH2)n–2 (COOH)2 (D) (CH2)n–1 (COOH)2

56 The product A, B andC in the reaction sequence
 NaOH Heat
(H– C –O)2Ca   A   B 
360ºC
 C are
||
O
(A) HCHO, HCOONa, CH3OH (B) HCHO, Na2CO3, NaHCO3

(C) HCHO, HCOONa, (COONa)2 (D) HCHO, HCOONa, Na2CO3
57
58
(B) IV > III > II> I (C) I > II > IV > III
R
Arrange formic acid (I), benzoic acid (II), acetic acid (III) and phenylacetic acid (IV) in order of acidity
(A) I > II > III > IV
e
(D) III > IV > II > I
A compound with molecular formula C4H10O4 on acylation with acetic anhydride gives a compound with
(A) One (B) Two

s
molecular formula C12H18O8. How many hydroxyl groups are present in the compound -
y
(C) Three (D) Four
a l
TOPIC : NITROGEN COMPOUNDS, UREA, NITROBENZENE, ANILINE
EXERCISE I
1
2
t
Urea does not produce ammonia gas if heated with the reagent :-
(A) Nitrous acid
a
Chloroplatinic acid is a :-
(B) dil. base (C) Urease (D) Hydrazine
C
(A) Dibasic acid (B) Monobasic acid (C) Tribasic acid (D) None of these
3 CH3CONH2, Br2 & KOH give CH3NH2 as the product. The intermediates of the reaction are:
O O Br
|| ||
(A) CH3– C –NHBr (B) CH3–N=C–O (C) CH3NHBr (D) CH3– C –N
Br
The correct answer is :
(A) a, b (B) a, c (C) b, d (D) c, d
4 Gabriel phthalimide reaction is used in the preparation of:-
(A) Secondary amine (B) Primary aliphatic amine
(C) Primary aromatic amine (D) Tertiary amine
5 Which compound does not react with Br2 :-
(A) Propene (B) Phenyl amine (C) Phenol (D) Chloroform
6 An organic compound was found to contain C = 38.8%, H = 16.0%, N = 45.2%. The formula of the compound
is:
(A) CH3NH2 (B) CH3CN (C) C2H5CN (D) CH2(NH2)2
7 (CH3)4NOH is basic than NH4OH :-
(A) More (B) Less (C) Both the above (D) None of the above
8 RCOOH + H2NPh RCONHPh. The class name of the products :
(A) Anilide (B) Anils (C) Amine (D). None of these
9 Formation, of urea oxalate (NH2CONH2)2(COOH)2. proves that urea is a -
(A) Diacid base (B) Mono acid base (C) Both the above (D) None of these

POCl3
10 Oxalic acid + Urea 
2H2 O
 Cyclic compound Number of sp2 hybridised carbon in the cyclic compound
are:
(A) 2 (B) 5 (C) 3 (D) 1
11 This compound does not respond to carbylamine reaction :
(A) lsopropylamine (B) -Diethylamine (C) t-Butylamine (D) Sec-Butylamine
12 A + CS2 + HgCI2 gives C2H5-N=C–S. Thus compound A is :
(A) C2H5NH2 (B) C2H5NHC2H5 (C) CH3–CH=NOH (D) CH3CH2NO2
13 Ammonolysis of alkyl halide gives :
(A) Primary amine
(C) Tertiary amine
(B) Secondary amine
e
.
R
(D) Mixture of amines and quaternary compound
14
15
Which compound on hydrolysis yields primary amine :-
(A) Nitroparaffin (B) Alkylcyanide
Blue litmus can be turned to red by the compound-: s
(C) Oxime
y
(D) Alkyl isocyanide
16
(A) ROH (B) RNH2
In which case alkylamine is not formed :
(A) R–X + NH3 
a l (C) RN+H3OH–
Na
(B) R-CH=NOH + [H]  
(D) RN+H3Cl–
t
alc.
H
(C) R–CN + H2O  LiAlH4
(D) RCONH2 + 4[H] 
a
 
17 Keeping aside one reaction, all other reaction are connected with the name of one scientist onIy:
C
KOH
(A) Reaction-1, CH3CONH2 
Br2
 x
(B) Reaction-2, A   CH3-NH–COC6H5
Y Z 
(C) Reaction-3, A 
P Q
 CH3–N=C=S (D) Reaction–4, A  CH3–N  C
18 Nitration of nitrobenzene in presence of fuming nitric acid will generate a :

(A) Solid product (B) Gaseous product
(C) Semi-solid product (D) Liquid product
SnCl2 / HCl NaNO2 / HCl
19 C6H5NO2   A   B  Benzene, In the above sequence B  Benzene is suitably
o 0
obtained by using :
(A) Ethanol (B) H3PO2 (C) Both the above (D) Methanol
20 The presence of nitro group in nitrobenzene is ascertained by :
(A) Schiff’s test (B) Mulliken and Barker’s test
21 Nitrobenzene and CH3CI in presence of anhydrous AICl3 gives :
(A) o-Nitrotoluene (B) p-Nitrotoluene (C) Both the above (D) Reaction will not occur
22 Nitration of which of the following compound is difficult :
(A) Benzene (B) Nitrobenzene (C) Toluene (D) Phenol
23 Reaction of nitrobenzene with methyl chloride in presence of anhydrous aluminium chloride
the compound formed is :-
(A) m-Nitrotoluene (B) o-Nitrotoluene . (C) p-Nitrotoluene (D) None

24 When nitrobenzene is heated with -fuming HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 the product would be :-
(A) T.N.T. (B) T.N.B. (C) D.D.T. (D) T.E.L.
25 In the nitration of benzene conc. HNO3 and conc. H2SO4 are taken. Here the function of conc. H2SO4 is :-
(A) As a dehydrating agent (B) As an oxidant
(C) As a producer of nucleophile NO2– (D) As a producer of electrophile NO2+
26 Which of the following has the maximum value of dipolemoment :-
Cl NO2 Cl NO2
(A)
Cl
(B)
NO2
(C)
Cl
R
(D)
e NO2
27
(A) Alkylation (B) Acetylation
s
Before proceeding for the nitration of aminobenzene, the NH2 group is first protected by:
y
(C) Formylation (D) Chloromethylation
l
28 Benzylamine and aminobenzene differs by :
(A) CH (B) C2H2 (C) CH2 (D) CH3
a
29 Aniline is purified by :
(A) Azeotropic distillation (B) Steam distillation
30
a t
(C) distillation in presence of magnesium
Aniline can be obtained by :-
(A) Benzoyl chloride and ammonia
(C) Phenol and ammonia in presence of ZnCl2
(D) Fractional crystallisation
(B) Reduction of benzamide

(D) Benzoic anhydride and ammonia
31
32
C
Select the reaction in which diphenyl thiourea is formed as the product :
(A) C6H5NH2 + S
(C) C6H5NH2 + CS2
Aniline is manufactured by :
(A) C6H5NO2, Fe, H2O, HCI
(B) C6H5NH2 + K2S
(D) C6H5NH2 + NH4HS
(B) C6H5Cl, NH3, Cu2O

(C) C5H5NO2, Zn, NaOH (D) C6H5NO2, SnCl2, HCl
33 With NaOCI aniline gives the colour :
(A) Green (B) Blue (C) Purple (D) Orange
34 With carbonyl chloride, aniline forms the product :-.
(A) (C6H5NH)2CO (B) C6H5NC (C) C6H5CN (D) C6H5CNO
35 Reagent and condition to form (SO3H)C6H4NH2(Para) from aniline would be :
(A) H2SO4-180°C (B) dil. H2SO4-5º C (C) Na2SO4–180°C (D) H2SO3–100°C
36 When -OCH3 group is introduced at para position in- aniline, it will cause its basic character to :
(A) Increase (B) Decrease (C) Remain unchanged (D) None of the above
37 Reaction of methylamine and acetyl chloride is similar to the reaction of aniline with :
(A) Carbonyl chloride (B) Methyl chloride (C) Bromine water (D) Acetic anhydride
38 C6H5NH2, CHCl3 and KOH give the main product :
(A) Phenyl cyanide (B) Benzyl cyanide (C) Benzyl carbylamine (D) Phenyl isonitrile
39 Aniline on direct nitration produces :
(A) o-Nitroaniline (B) m-Nitroaniline (C) p-Nitroaniline (D) 1 & 3 are correct

40 Which one of the following is not an azo compound :-
(A) Methyl orange (B) Benzenediazonium chloride
(C) Phenolphthalein (D) p-hydroxyazobenzene
41 Schotten-Baumann reaction is not possible with :
(A) CH3NH2 (B) C6H5NH2 (C) C2H5NH2 (D) C6H5CONH2
42 Which one of the following group is not meta directing :
(A) –CHO (B) –NO2 (C) –SO3H (D) –NH2
R
43 A low temperature reaction of aniline with HNO2 and subsequent treatment with alkaline –naphthol solution
produces a precipitate whose colour would be :-
e
(A) Black (B) Purple (C) White (D) Orange
44 Nitration of acetanilide followed by hydrolysis gives :
45
(A) o-Nitroaniline
COCl2
I  C2H5MgI
 Aniline 
(B) p-Nitroaniline
 II. Products I and II are :

s
(C) o & p-Nitroaniline
y
(D) o-Nitroanilinium ion
l
(A) Diphenylurea, ethane (B) Diphenylurea, C6H5MgI
(C) Diphenlamine, ethane (D) Diphenylamine, benzene
46
2
C6H5NH2 
NaNO / HCl
0 5º
t a
 A Which is the incorrect structure of the product ‘A’ :–
  
a
(A) C6H5–N=N–Cl (B) [C6H5 N 2] Cl (C) [C6H5– N N] Cl (D) None of the above
47 A crystalline compound is formed by the reaction of aniline and chloroplatinic acid. The compound on ignition
gives :-
48
49
C
(A) [C6H5NH3]Cl
(A) Acidic
(B) [C6H5NH2]2, H2PtCI
(B) Neutral

(C) Pt
Reaction C6H5NH2 + HAuCI4  [C6H5N+H3]Au Cl 4 shows ... behaviour of aniline :
(C) Basic
Aniline on treatment with bromine water yields white precipitate of :
(D) PtCl6
(D) Amphoteric
(A) o-Bromoaniline . (B) p-Bromonaniline

(C) 2, 4, 6- Tribromoaniline (D) m-Bromoaniline
50 Benzoylation of hydroxy and amino compounds as :
6 5 C H COCl
C6H5NH2 
NaOH
 C H NHCOC H + NaCI + H O
6 5 6 5 2
C6H5COCl
C6H5OH   C6H5OCOC6H5 + HCl shows :
(A) Schmidt reaction (B) Schotten-:Baumann reaction
(C) Claisen reaction (D) Lossen reaction
2 NaNO / HCl
51 C6H5NH2 
 A preservation of –N=N-group in compound A will occur with the reagent:
0o
(A) Water +  (B) Ethanol +  (C) Cu2Br2 + Br2 (D) Aniline

52 Nitration of aniline is carried out after acylation, because :
(A) Oxidation can be avoided
(B) Reaction becomes manageable
(C) o and p-nitroanilines are obtained in good amount
(D) All the above .
53 Nitration of aniline comes under :
   
(A) N u-addition (B) N u-substitution (C) E -addition (D) E -substitution
54 CH3I + C6H5NH2 leads to :-
(A) 1° amine only
(C) 3° amine only
(B) 2° amine only
e
(D) 2° amine + 3° amine + quaternary ammonium compound
R
55 Tertiary butylamine is a :
(A) 1 ° Amine (B) 2° Amine
y s
(C) 3° Amine (D) Quaternary salt
l
56 reduction
–CONH2   –CH2NH2 Hybridisation state of carbon changes from :
(A) sp  sp2 (B) sp  sp3 (C) sp2  sp3 (D) sp2  sp
57
58 a
Which of the following amine does not react with Hinsberg reagent :
(A) Neopentyl amine
t (B) Isopropyl amine (C) Triethyl amine (D) Ethyl methyl amine
Which gas will be evolved out when [CH3CH2NH2 + (CH3)2CHNH2] is treated with sodium nitrite and HCl :
59
60
(A) Chlorine
AgCN
Bromo ethane 
a H3 O
 A 
(B) Ammonia
(B) Acylation of RNH2
 HCOOH + B;
(C) Nitrogen
Which one of following reaction is Schotten-Baumann reaction :
C
(A) Acetylation of RNH2 (C) Alkylation of RNH2
(D) NO2
(D) Benzoylation of RNH2
CHCl
3 Re duction
B 
KOH
A  C
A. B, C respectively in the above sequence are :
(A) Ethane amine, methane nitrile and diethyl amine
(B) Carbyl amino ethane, ethane amine and secondary amine
(C) Ethyl isocyanide, ethyl amine and methyl isocyanate
(D) Carbylamino ethane, ethane amine and ethyl methyl amine
chloroform
61 RNH2 
caustic soda
A
True statement for the compound A is :

(A) It does not undergo alkaline hydrolysis (B) It can also produced by RBr and KCN
(C) It gives primary amine on reduction (D) It gives secondary amine on acidic hydrolysis
62 When I-propane amine is treated with NaNO2 and HCI the products will be :
(A) I-propanol, 2-propanol (B) Propene
(C) 2-Chloropropane, 1-chloropropane (D) All of these
63 Basic character of organic compound is due to the presence of :
(A) CHO (B) –OH (C) > C = O (D) –NH2
64 Nitrile group is present in :
(A) Primary amine (B) Secondary amine (C) Tertiary amine (D) None of these

 CaCO3 CH3NH2
65 CH2(COOH)2 
 CO2
 A 

 B  C

Compound C in the above sequence is :

(A) (CH3)2C = NCH3 (B) CH3CH = NCH3 (C) (CH3)3C = NCH3 (D) All of these
66 Benzyl amine is ........ basic than aniline while ethane amine is ....... basic than diethyl amine
(A) More, less (B) Less, more (C) Both (D) None
67 Urethanes are esters of –
R
(A) Carbamic acid (B) Citric acid (C) Malonic acid (D) Succinic acid
68 Which of the following on Hofmann, hypobromite reaction does not give RNH2–
69
(A) Isobutyramide (B) Carbamide (C) Ethan amide
Which of the following on acidic hydrolysis gives primary amine :
(A) CH3CN (B) CH3NO2
s
(C) CH3CNO e(D) Benzamide
(D) CH3NC
y
70 All classes of amines react with :
(A) Water (B) Acids (C) Alkylhalides (D) All the above
71
a l 300  400
Ammonolysis of alcohols, i.e. : CH3OH + yNH3 
Al O / ThO
2 3
o
 products
2
t
(A) CH3NH2 (B) (CH3)2 NH (C) (CH3)3N (D) A mixture of amines
72 A
CH3COCI  NaOH
 CH3CONH2   CH3COONa + A
73
COCl2
B 
C
CO2
 A 
a
B
A and B respectively are :
(A) NH3, Na2CO3 (B) NH3, NaCl (C) NH3, carbamide
In which of the following reactions N2 is not liberated :
(D) None
(A) NH2CONH2 + NaOBr (B) C2H5NH2 + NOCI (C) (C2H5)2NH + HNO2 (D) CH3CONH2 + HNO2
74 On reduction of Schiff’s base we get :
(A) Primary amine (B) Secondary amine (C) Anils (D) Anilide
75 Amine not showing Hofmann’s mustard oil reaction is :
(A) 1-Butaneamine (B) 2-Butaneamine
(C) 2-Methyl-1-propaneamine (D) N-Methyl-1-propaneamine
76 CH2N2 shows different type of reaction with which one of the following substracts :
(A) CH3OH (B) CH3CH2NH2 (C) CH2=CH–CH3 (D) CH3–CH2–CH2–CH3
77 Minimum boiling point would be of :
(A) Ethylmethyl amine (B) Ethylamine (C) n-Propyl amine (D) Trimethylamine
78 Reduction of :-
CH3
C=NOH by Na and EtOH yields
CH3
The compound :-
(A) s-Amine (B) p-Amine (C) t-Amine (D) None of these

79 (A) NH3, (B) RNH2, (C) R2NH and (D) R3N

Show the order of basic character [if R=CH3]:
(A) c > b > d > a (B) a > b > c > d (C) b > a > c > d (D) c > a > b > d
80 Choose the wrong statement :-
(A) 1º Amine gives mustard oil-reaction (B) 1º Amine forms salt with H2PtCi6
(C) 1º Amine gives hydrogen with sodium (D) 1º Amine gives alcohol by hydrolysis
81 Urea is insoluble in ether, because :
82
(A) Urea shows polar character
(C) Urea is a neutral compound (D) None of the above
Reaction not connected with the name of a scientist is : R
(B) Urea shows non-polar character
e
Na / EtOH
(A) –CN   CH2NH2
NaNO2 / HCl
(C) –CH2CH2NH2   –CH2 –CH2OH
y s NaNO2 / Br2
(B) –CONH2 
(D) –COOH 3 N H

 – NH
 – NH2

l
H2 SO4 2
83 Which of the following reagent gives nitrogen gas when treated with primary amine :
84
(A) Nitrous acid
t a
(B) Nitric acid (C) Hypobromite
Which of the following is used as a solvent inthe Friedel-Crafts reaction :
(A) Toluene (B) Nitrobenzene (C) Benzene
(D) 1 and 3
(D) Aniline
a
85 Match list I with II and choose the correct answer from the codes given below :
List I List II
(A) Aniline a. Used in making azo dyes
C
(B)
(C)
(D)
Nitrobenzene,
Sulphanilamide
Trinitrotoluene
Code is
A B
b.
c.
d.
C
Sulpha drug
Solvent in the Friedel Crafts reaction
Used as explosive
D
(A) a c b d
(B) a b c d
(C) c d a b
(D) d c b a
86 Reduction of nitrobenzene with zinc and methanolic alkali gives mainly
(A) Aniline (B) p-Aminophenol (C) Azoxybenzene (D) Azobenzene
87 Nitration of m-dinitro benzene gives :
NO2 NO2 NO2 NO2
(A) NO2 (B) (C) (D) O2N

NO2 NO2 O2N NO2 NO2
NO2
Cu Water
88 Ph – X 
HNO2
 C H N Cl 
6 5 2 
 Ph–Y. In the above sequence X and Y respectively are :
(A) o, p and m directing (B) o,p and o, p directing

(C) m and m directing (D) m and o, p directing

89 Which of the following compounds gives an explosive on decarboxylation :
(A) 2,4, 6-Trinitrobenzoic acid (B) 2, 4-Dinitrobenzoic acid
(C) o-Aminobenzoic acid (D) o-Hydroxy benzoic acid
90 Choose the fIase statement :
(A) All the activating groups are o– & p–directing
(B) Halogens although deactivating’ to some extent are o, p directing
(C) Groups more deactivating than halogens are m-directing
(D) Nitration of t-butyl benzene is easier as compared to toluene
91 Intramolecular H-bonding is possible in :
(A) p-Nitrophenol
N2BF4
(B) o-Nitrophenol (C) p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
e R (D) p-chlorophenol
92
NaNO2

Cu, 
 Product. The product is :
y s
93
(A) Nitrobenzene
l
(B) Fluorobenzene
The order of stability of aniline and anilinium ion is :
a
(C) o-Di flourobenzene

(D) m-Dinitrobenzene
t
(A) C6H5NH2 = C6H5 N H3 (B) C6H5NH2 < C6H5 N H3
a
(C) C6H5NH2 > C6H5 N H3 (D) None of the above
94 Tertiary amine is obtained in the reaction :
C
CH3I
(A) Aniline  CH3I CH3I
(B) Aniline 
   
Sn / HCl
(C) Nitrobenzene  (D) None of the above

H2SO4
95 C6H5NH2 
180ºC
 H NC H (SO H) (Para). The true statement about the product is –
2 6 4 3
(A) It does not exist as zwitter ion (B) –NH2 displays a powerful basic character
(C) It does not act as inner salt (D) –SO3H diminishes the basic character of -NH2
H2SO4
96 Aniline 
180ºC
 Product, The product is –
(A) Sulphonal (B) Dithionic acid (C) Sulphanilic acid (D) None of the above
97 Benzamide on heating with bromine and alkali forms an aromatic amine. This aromatic amine couples with
benzaldehyde to give the product :-
(A) N-Phenylbenzamide (B) Benzylidene aniline (C) Benzoylaniline (D) N-Phenylacetamide
98 PCl5
C6H5CONH2   C6H5CN. The reaction is named as :
(A) Dinitrosation (B) Deoxygenation (C) Dehydration (D) None of the above
99 The reaction of aniline with benzoyl chloride to give phenyl benzoate is named as :
(A) Skraup synthesis (B) Schotten-Baumann reaction
(C) Swoden-Fisher synthesis (D) Stephen’s reaction
Br2 / CCl4
100 C6H5NH2   The product is :
(A) Only o-bromoaniline (B) 2, 4, 6-triboromoaniline
(C) o-and p-bromoaniline (D) Only p-bromoaniline

101 Which one of the following compound is expected to be least soluble :
(A) CH3NH2 (B) (CH3)2NH (C) C6H5NH2 (D) (CH3)3N
102 Mononitroaniline is prepared in good yield by aniline and :
(A) dil. HNO3 (B) conc. HNO3 (C) conc. HNO3 + conc. H2SO4 (D) None of them
103 ......... does not form azo dyes with benzene diazonium chloride :
(A) Phenol (B) Aniline (C) Chlorobenzene (D) -Naphthol
104 Aniline can be prepared by
(A) Schmidt reaction (B) Wurtz process
(C) Hofmann bromamide reaction
Code is :
(A) Only a (B) a, b and d
(D) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
(C) b, c and d
e R
(D) a, band c
s
105 Chloroform and ethanolic KOH is used as a reagent in the following reaction :
(A) Hofmann carbylamine reaction (B) Hofmann degradation reaction
(C) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
Code is:
(A) Only for a
l
(B) Only for a and b
y
(D) Hofmann mustard oil reaction
(C) Only for b and d (D) Only for a and c
a
106 In the Sandmeyer’s reaction, –N=N–X group of diazonium salt is replaced by :
(A) Halide group (B) Nitro group (C) –OH group (D) –NHNH2 group
107
108
a t
Formation of p-aminoazobenzene from aniline and benzene diazonium chloride is an example of :
(A) Coupling reaction
(C) Free radical addition
Mustard oil reaction will be given by :
(B) Nucleophilic addition
(D) Electrophilic addition
109
110
C
(A) Aniline
(A) 3 Mole
(B) N-Methylaniline
(B) 1 Mole
In which case aromatic hydrocarbon is obtained :
(A) o-Toluic acid + sodalime + 
(C) N,N-Dimethylaniline
Number of moles of oxygen present in one mole of sulphanilic acid are:
(C) 0.5 Mole
(D) All the above
(D) 1.5 Mole
(B) Salicylic acid + Sodalime + 

(C) o-Amino benzoic acid + sodalime +  (D) Benzoic acid + hydrazoic acid + 
111 In sulphanilic acid, the elements of low and high atomic number are respectively :
(A) H and N (B) N and S (C) C and N (D) H and S
CH=N
112 is not a/an :
(A) Benzylidene aniline (B) Anil (C) Schiff’s base (D) N-Phenyl acetaldimine
113 Which compound does not show diazo reaction :
(A) Aniline (B) p- Toluidine (C) p-Nitroaniline (D) Benzylamine
114 When diazonium compound shows Gattermann reaction then N2 is replaced by :
(A) H-atom (B) OH-group (C) Nitro group (D) Halogen atom
115 Reaction of benzenediazonium chloride with alkaline -napthol gives an azo dye. This is an example of :-
(A) Electrophilic substitution (B) Nucleophilic substitution
(C) Oxidative coupling (D) A free radical reaction

116 Which cation is stable :
(A) Aryl diazonium cation (B) Propyl diazonium cation
117 Which of the following is most basic :
(A) Aniline (B) o–Nitroaniline (C) m-Nitroaniline (D) p-Nitroaniline
118 Benzoylation of which of the following compounds cannot be termed as Schotten-Baumann reaction:
(A) Benzene (B) Phenol (C) Aniline (D) Benzylalcohol
119 The minimum value of -logKb, will be for the compound :
120
(A) o-Nitroaniline (B) p-Nitroaniline
The order of basic strength of aromatic amines is :
(A) 3° > 2° > 1° > NH3 (B) 3° < 2° < 1° < NH3
(C) p-Chloroaniline
(C) 2° < 3° < 1° < NH3
e R
(D) p-Methoxyaniline
(D) None
1. Aniline cannot be prepared by

EXERCISE #02
y s
(A)
(B)
(C)
Reduction of nitrobenzene
l
Reaction of benzamide with Br2 in the presence of KOH
Both (A) & (B)
a
2.
(D)
(A)
(B)
a t
Mendius method
Choose the incorrect statement
Acetonitrile has acidic -hydrogen
CN– & NO2– are ambident nucleophile
3. C
(C)
(D)
Stephen’s reduction is partial reduction of cyanide
Isocyanides are hydrolysed by alkalies
Which of the following reaction is not used for preparation of 1° amines?
(A) Reduction of oxime (B) Reduction of amide
(C) Gabriel pthalimide reaction (D) Reduction of isocyanides
4. In non-aqueous solvent, the basicity order of aliphatic amines is
(A) 3° > 2° > 1° > NH3 (B) 1° > 2° > 3° > NH3 (C) 2° > 1° > 3° > NH3 (D) 3° > 1° > NH3 > 2°
5. Reaction intermediate of carbylamine reaction is
(A) Dichlorocarbene (B) Chloroform (C) Carbocation (D) Carbanion
6. Which is the product of the following series of reaction?
NH2
Cl
NaNO2.HCl CuCN (i) CH3 MgBr
A B C . C is
H2O.0°C (ii) H2O.H+
O CH3 O HO
O CH3 CH3
C C CH CH2CN
Cl Cl Cl
Cl
(A) (B) (C) (D)

7. Identify final product
CHCl /KOH H /Pd HNO
C 6H5NH2  3  A 2  B  
2
C
(A) C6H5 – NH – CH3 (B) C6H5 – NH – COOH
(C) C6H5 NH CH3 (D) C 6H 5 N CH3
NO2 NO
8. Methyl isocyanide on hydrolysis in acidic medium gives
(A) Methyl amine and Ethanoic acid (B) Methyl amine and Methanoic acid
9.
(C) Ethanoic acid and Ammonium salt
dry ether
CH3 – CN + CH3 – MgBr  H3O
 A   B
(1 eq.)
(D) Methanoic acid and Ammonium salt

e R
What is B?
(A) (B) (C)
y s O
||
CH3–C – NH2 (D)
O
||
l
CH3–C=NMgBr CH3–C=O CH3–C–OCH3
| |
CH3 CH3
a
10. The amine which does not react with acetyl chloride is
(A) CH3–NH2 (B) (CH3)2NH (C) (CH3)3N (D) CH3CH2–NH2
11.
12.
(A) C6H5NO2
a t
Which nitro compound can show tautomerism?
(B) (CH3)3CNO2 (C) CH3–CH2–NO2
The final product (III) obtained in the reaction sequence
NH2
(D) All of these
C
Br Br
(1) HONO Sn / HCl (1) HONO
(I) (II) (III)
(2) CuCl (2) H3PO2
NO2
Cl
Br Br Br Br
(A) (B) (C) Br Br (D) Br Br
Cl NO2
13. Reaction of an aliphatic amine with nitrous acid in cold leads to the formation of
(A) A nitrile (B) An alcohol (C) A secondary amine (D) A diazonium salt
N3H
14. RCOOH  Product (P) and name the reaction
H2SO4
(A) RNH2, Schmidt (B) RCONH2, Schmidt (C) RCONH2, Hoffman (D) RNH2, Hoffman
Br /aq NaNO /HCl (1) HBF
15. Aniline 2
 X 
2
 Y  
 4
Z
(2) heat
In this sequence, Z is
(A) p-bromofluoro benzene (B) p-bromoaniline
(C) 1, 3, 5-tribromo benzene (D) 2, 4, 6-tribromo-1- fluoro benzene

16. Which of the following arylamine is most reactive towards diazotisation ?
NH2 NH2
NH2 NH2
(A) (B) (C) (D)

CN
CH3 OCH3 Cl
17. Identify the final product [Z] in the following sequence of reactions
CH3–NH2
(A) (CH3)3N
CH3I
excess
[X] AgOH (aq.)
(B)
[Y]

[Z] + CH3–OH
CH3–CH2–CH2–NH2 (C) (CH3)2NH
e R
(D)

(CH3)4 N OH
18.
be used is
(A) PBr3, KCN, H3O+ (B) PBr3, KCN, Ni/H2 (C)
y s
R–CH2–CH2–OH is to be converted into R–CH2–CH2–COOH the correct sequence of the reagent should
HCN, PBr3, H+ (D) KCN, H3O+

19.
NH
a l
The correct decreasing order of basicities of following compound is
t
(I) CH3–C (II) CH3–CH2–NH2 (III) (CH3)2 NH (IV) CH3–C–NH2
NH2
(A) II > I > III > IV (B) I > III > II > IV (C) III > II > I > IV (D) I > II > III > IV
20.
C 2H5 CONH2   
C
(A) Ethyl cyanide
a
What is the end product in the following sequence of reaction?
Na OH /Br2
O
HNO 2
 B 
 A  
(B)
5
 C  D
KCN
Ethyl amine
PCl
(C) Propylamine (D) Ethyl methylamine
21. The reaction of R– C -NH2 with a mixture of Br2 and KOH gives R-NH2 as a product. The intermediate
involved in this reaction is
O
Br
(A) R–NHBr (B) R–N=C=O (C) R– C –N (D) All of these
Br
22. Compound giving offensive smell on treatment with chloroform and alkali is
(A) Primary amine (B) Amide (C) Haloform (D) Isocyanide
23. Which compound will liberate CO2 from aqueous solution of NaHCO3?
 –
(A) CH3OH (B) CH3NH2 (C) (CH3)4N+ OH– (D) CH3NH3Cl
24. Activation of benzene ring by –NH2 in aniline can be reduced by treating with
(A) Dilute HCl (B) Ethyl alcohol (C) Zinc sulphate (D) Acetyl chloride
25. Nitrous acid reacts with amines. The reactive species is
(A) NO– (B) NO2– (C) NO3– (D) NO+

TOPIC : BIOMOLECULES
EXERCISE #01
1 The disaccharide present in milk is :
(A) Maltose (B) Lactose (C) Sucrose (D) Cellobiose
2 Insulin is :
(A) An amino acid (B) Protein (C) A carbohydrate (D) A lipid
3 Glucose when heated with CH3OH in presence of dry HCl gas gives  and –methyl glucosides because it
contains :
4
(A) An aldehyde group (B) A–CH2OH group
The commonest disaccharide has the molecular formula :
(A) C10H18O9 (B) C10H20O10
(C) A ring structure
(C) C18H22O11
e R
(D) Five hydroxyl groups
(D) C22H22O11
s
5 It is best to carry out reactions with sugars in neutral or acid medium and not in alkaline medium. This is
because in alkaline medium sugars undergo one of the following changes :
y
(A) Racemisation (B) Decomposition (C) Inversion (D) None of these
l
6 Proteins when heated with conc. HNO3 give a yellow colour. This is :
(A) Oxidising test (B) Xanthoprotic test (C) Hoppe’s test (D) Acid–base test
a
7 Which of the following statements about ribose is incorrect :
(A) It is a polyhydroxy compound (B) It is an aldehyde sugar
9
(A) Glucose t
(C) It has six carbon atoms
Starch is a polymer of :
a (B) Fructose
(D) It exhibits optical activity
(C) Both (A) and (B)

Which one of the following proteins transports oxygen in the blood stream :
10
11
C
(A) Myoglobin
(A) Carbohydrates
(B) Insulin
(B) Proteins
(C) Albumin
The most important food reserves of animals and plants are :
(C) Vitamins
Which of the following statement about proteins is not true :
(A) Amino acid residues join with formula protein molecule
(D) Haemoglobin
(D) Fats
(B) Proteins are polymers with fromula (C6H10O5)n

(C) Eggs are rich in protein
(D) Pulses are good source of proteins
12 The reagent which forms crystalline osazone derivative when reacted with glucose, is :
(A) Fehling solution (B) Phenylhydrazine (C) Benedict solution (D) Hydroxylamine
13 Which of the following gives maximum energy in metabolic processes :
(A) Proteins (B) Carbohydrates (C) Lipids (D) Vitamins
14 Which carbohydrate is used in silvering of mirrors :
(A) sucrose (B) Starch (C) Glucose (D) Fructose
15 To become a carbohydrate a compound must contain at least :
(A) 2 carbons (B) 3 carbons (C) 4 carbons (D) 6 carbons
16 The substance that forms the plant cell walls is or Which carbhydrates is an essential constituents of plant
cells
(A) Cellulose (B) Sucrose (C) Vitamins (D) Starch
17 The base adenine occurs in :
(A) DNA only (B) RNA only (C) DNA and RNA both (D) Protein

18 The protein which maintains blood sugar level in the human body :
(A) Haemoglobin (B) Oxytocin (C) Insulin (D) Ptyalin
19 Beri–beri is a disease caused by the deficiency of vitamin :
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
20 For –amino acids having the structure
R–CH–CO2H
|
NH2
R
Which of the following statements are true :
(A) Water solubility is maximum at a pH when concentrations of anions and cations are equal
(B) They give ninhydrin test
(C) On reacting with nitrous acid give off N2
(A) All (B) B and C
s
(C) A and B e (D) A
y
21 The linkage present in proteins and pepties is :
l
O O O O
(A) –C–O–C– (B) –C–O (C) –NH– (D) –C–NH–
22
its
t
(A) Size of hemiacetal ring a
–D–glucose and –D–glucose differ from each other due to difference in one of the carbons with respect to
(B) Number of OH groups
a
(C) Configuration (D) Conformation
23 Secondary structure of a protein refers to :
(A) Mainly denatured proteins and structures of prosthetic groups
24
C
(B)
(C)
(D)
Three dimensional structure, specially the bond between amino acid residue that are distant from each
other in the polypeptide chain
Linear sequence of amino acid residues in the polypeptide chain
Regular folding patterns of continusous portions of the polypeptide chain
Of the following statment about enzymes which ones are true :
[i] Enzymes lack in nucleophilic groups
[ii] Enzymes are highly specific both in binding chiral substrates and in catalyzing their reactions
[iii] Enzymes catalyse chemical reactions by lowering the activation energy
[iv] Pepsin is a proteolytic enzyme
(A) [i] and [iv] (B) [i] and [iii] (C) [ii], [iii] and [iv] (D) [i]
25 Oxidation of glucose is one of the most important reactions in a living cell. What is the number of ATP
molecules generated in cells from one molecule of glucose :
(A) 38 (B) 12 (C) 18 (D) 28
26 Which of the following is sweetest sugar :
(A) Glucose (B) Fructose (C) Lactose (D) Sucrose
27 Vitamin A is present in :
(A) Cod liver oil (B) Carrot (C) Milk (D) In all the above
28 Maltose is made of :
(A) Two molecules of glucose (B) Two molecules of fructose
(C) Glucose and fructose molecules (D) Two molecules of sucrose

29 Which of the following is not a constituent of RNA :
(A) Ribose (B) Phosphate (C) Adenine (D) Pyridine
30 The number of atoms in the cyclic structure of D–fructose is :
(A) 5 (B) 6 (C) 4 (D) 7
31 Which substance is not present in nucleic acid :
(A) Cytosine (B) Adenine (C) Thymine (D) Guanidine
32 Which of the following is not an amino acid :
(A) Glycine (B) Alanine (C) Histidine (D) Benzidine
33 Enzymes in the living systems :
(A) Provide energy
(C) Transport oxygen
(B) Provide immunity
e R
(D) Catalyse biological processes
34
35
The deficiency of vitamin B1 causes :
(A) Beri–beri (B) Scurvy
Amino acids are the building blocks of : s
(C) Rickets
y
(D) Anaemia
36
(A) Carbohydrates
Enzymes :
(B) Vitamins
(A) Accelerate biochemical reactions
a l (C) Fats (D) Proteins
(B) Have optimum activity at body temperature
t
(C) Consist of amino acids (D) Have all these properties
37 In nucleic acids, the sequence is :
38
39
a
(A) Base–phosphate–sugar
(C) Sugar–base–phosphate
C
Amino acids are produced on hydrolysis of :
(A) Nucleic acid (B) Carbohydrates
(B) Phosphate–base–sugar
(D) Base–sugar–phosphate
(C) Fats
Which of the following does not show any reducing test of aldehyde :
(D) Proteins
(A) Sucrose (B) Fructose (C) Maltose (D) Lactose

40 Metal present in blood is :
(A) Al (B) Mg (C) Cu (D) Fe
41 Vitamin B12 contains metal :
(A) Ca(II) (B) Zn (II) (C) Fe (II) (D) Co (III)
42 Haemoglobin is :
(A) An enzyme (B) A globular protein (C) A vitamin (D) A carbohydrate
43 In DNA, the complementary bases are :
(A) Uracil and adenine; cytosin and guanine (B) Adenine and thymine; guanine and cytosin
(C) Adenine and thymine; guanine and uracil (D) Adenine and guanine; thymine and cytosin
44 The number of molecules of ATP produced in the lipid metablism of a molecule of palmitic acid is :
(A) 130 (B) 36 (C) 56 (D) 86
45 Albumin proteins are most abundant in :
(A) Meat (B) Milk (C) Egg (D) Soyabean
46 Dialysis can separate :
(A) Glucose and fructose (B) Glucose and sucrose
(C) Glucose and NaCl (D) Glucose and proteins
47 Galactose is converted into glucose in :
(A) Mouth (B) Stomach (C) Liver (D) Intestine

48 Which among the following is the simplest :
(A) Glucose (B) Cellulose (C) Starch (D) None of these
49 Schweitzer’s reagent used for dissolving cellulose in the manufacture of artificial silk is :
(A) CuSO4.5H2O (B) CuI (C) [Cu(NH3)4]SO4 (D) Cu(CH3COO)2.Cu(OH)2
50 A gene is segment of a molecules of :
(A) DNA (B) m–RNA (C) t–RNA (D) Protein
51 Energy is stored in our body in the form of :
(A) ATP (B) ADP (C) Fats (D) Carbohydrates
52
53
The 10% energy transfer law of food chain was given by :
(A) Stanley (B) Weismann
Which of the following is a conjugated protein :
(C) Lindemann
e R
(D) Tansley
54
(A) Glycoprotein (B) Phosphoprotein
Acquired immune deficiency syndroms (AIDS) is characterised :
(A) Killer T–cells
y s
(C) Chromoprotein (D) All of these
(B) Reduction in number of helper T–cells
55
(C) An autoimmune disease
Assertion (A) : Insulin is a globular protein
a l (D) Inability of body to produce interferons
Reason (R) : Gum is polymer of more than one type of nonosaccharides :
t
(A) Both A and R are ture and R is a correct explanation of A
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not a correct explanation of A
56
57
C
(A) B1
An invert sugar is :
a
(C) A is ture but R is flase
(D) Both A and R are flase
Scurvy is caused due to the deficiency of vitamin :
(B) C (C) K (D) D
(A) Isorotatory (B) Dextrorotatory (C) Laevorotatory (D) Optically inactive

58 Yeast cell derive their energy from glucose by :
(A) Glycolysis (B) Respiration formation
(C) Formation (D) None of these
59 Which  amino acid can cross link peptide chains :
(A) Serine (B) Cysteine (C) Glutamine (D) Tyrosine
60 Which of the following protein destroys the antigen when it enters in body cell :
(A) Antibodies (B) Insulin (C) Chromoprotein (D) Phosphoprotein
61 Which of the following is not true about vitamins :
(A) They are vital for life (B) They help in digestion
(C) They were named by “Funic” (D) Their deficiency causes diseases
62 Blood calcium level can be increased by the administration of :
(A) Glucogon (B) Calcitonin (C) Thyroxine (D) Paratharmone
63 An antibiotic with a broad spectrum :
(A) Kills the antibodies (B) Acts on a specific antigen
(C) Acts on different antigents (D) Acts on both the antigens and antibodies
64 Which of the following is correct statement :
(A) Troleins are amino acid (B) –hydrogen is present in fructose
(C) Starch is polymer of –glucose (D) Amylose is compound of cellulose

65 Antibodies are :
(A) Carbohydrate (B) Globular protein (C) Immunoglobulins (D) Celluslose compounds
66 Excess of Na+ ions in our system causes :
(A) High B.P. (B) Low B.P. (C) Diabetes (D) Anaemia
67 The first harmone chemically synthesised in the laboratory is :
(A) Cortisone (B) Insulin (C) Adrenaline (D) Estrone
68 Enzymes are made up of :
(A) Carbohydrates (B) Edible proteins
69
(C) Nitrogen containing carbohydrates
RNA is different from DNA because RNA contains :
(A) Ribose sugar and thymine R
(D) Protein with specific structure
e
(B) Ribose sugar and uracil
70
(C) Deoxyribose sugar and thymine
(A) –COOH group (B) –NH2 group
y s
(D) Deoxyribose sugar and uracil
The functional group, which is found in amino acid is :
(C) –CH3, group (D) Both (A) and (B)
l
71 Chlorophyll contains :
(A) Fe (B) Na (C) Mg (D) Zn
a
72 Proteins contains mainly :
(A) C, H and O (B) C, H, O and N (C) C, H and N (D) N, H and O
73
74
(A) Vitamin–D
(A) 2
a t
Deficiency of which vitamin causes rickets :
(B) Vitamin–B
Subunits present in haemoglobin are :
(B) 3
(C) Vitamin–A
(C) 4
(D) Vitamin–K
(D) 5
C
75 Among the following, the achiral amino acid is :
(A) 2–Ethylalanine (B) 2–Methylglycine
(C) 2–Hydroxymethyl serine (D) Tryptophan
76 Phospholipids are esters of glycerol with :
(A) Three phosphate groups
(B) Three carboxylic acid residues
(C) Two carboxylic acid residues and one phosphate group
(D) One carboxylic acid residue two phosphate groups
77 Glycolysis is :
(A) Conversion of glucose to heam (B) Oxidation of glucose to glutamate
(C) Conversion of pyruvate to citrate (D) Oxidation of glucose to pyruvate
78 Chargaff’s rule states that in an organsim :
(A) Amount of all bases are equal
(B) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to thymine (T) and the amount of guanine (G) is equal to cytosine (C)
(C) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to guanine (G) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to cytosine (C)
(D) Amount of adenine (A) is equal to cytosine (C) and the amount of thymine (T) is equal to guanine (G)
79 Which of the following could act as a propellant of rockets :
(A) Liquid hydrogen + Liquid nitrogen (B) Liquid oxygen + Liquid argon
(C) Liquid hydrogen + Liquid oxygen (D) Liquid nitrogen + Liquid oxygen

80 The reason for double helical structure of DNA is operation of :
(A) Vander Waal’s forces (B) Diple–dipole interaction
(C) Hydrogen bonding (D) Electrostatic attractions
81 Rate of physiorption increases with :
(A) Decreases in temperature (B) Increases in temperature
(C) Decrease in pressure (D) Decrease in surface area
82 Which amino acid has aromatic ring :
(A) Alamine (B) Glycine (C) Tyrosine (D) Lysine
R
83 Oils and fats are jointly called :
(A) Lipids (B) Soaps (C) Proteins (D) Polymer
84
85
The safest and the most common alternative of sugar is :
(A) Glucose
(A) + 19º
(B) Aspartame
(B) + 112º
(C) Saccharin
s e
The specific rotation of equilibrium mixture of –D–glucose and –D–glucose is :
(C) + 52º
(D) Cyclodextrin
(D) + 100º
86
belongs to which of the following categories ?
(A) An antibotic (B) A hormone y
Insulin production and its action in human body are responsible for the level of diabetes. This compound
l (C) An enzyme (D) A co–enzyme

87
88
a
Which base is present in RNA but not in DNA?
(A) Thymine
t
(B) Cytosine (C) Guanine (D) Uracil
Coordination compounds have great importance in biological systems. In this context which of the following
statements is incorrect ?
89
a
(A) Carboxypeptidase – A is an enzyme and contains zinc
(B) Haemoglobin is the red pigment of blood and contains iron
C
(C) Cyanocobalamin is B12 and contains cobalt
(D) Chlorophylls are given pigments in plants and contain calcium
Identify the correct statement regarding enzymes :
(A) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that possess well–defined active sites
(B) Enzymes are normally heterogeneous catalysts that are very specific in their action
(C) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that cannot be poisoned
(D) Enzymes are specific biological catalysts that can normally function at very high temperature (T ~
1000K)
90 In both DNA and RNA, heterocylic base and phosphate ester linkages are at
(A) C2 and C5 respectively of the suger molecule (B) C5 and C2 respectively of the suger molecule
(C) C5 and C1 respectively of the suger molecule (D) C1 and C5 respectively of the suger molecule
91 The pyrimidine bases present in DNA are -
(A) cytosine and guanine (B) cytosine and thymine (C) cytosine and uracil (D) cytosine and adenine
92 The term anomers of glucose refers to -
(A) a mixture of (D)–g glucose and (L)–glucose
(B) enantiomers of glucose
(C) isomers of glucose that differ in configuration at carbon one (C–1)
(D) isomers of glucose that differ in configurations at carbons one and four (C–1 and C–4)
93 The secondary structure of a protein refers to -
(A) -helical backbone (B) hydrophobic interactions
(C) sequency of -amino acids (D) fixed configuration of the polypeptide backbone

EXERCISE #02
1. The sweetest sugar is
(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose (C) Galactose (D) Fructose
2. Glucose and fructose are
(A) Optical isomer (B) Position isomer (C) Chain isomer (D) Functional isomer
3. Which of the following vitamins is not soluble in water?
R
(A) C (B) B1 (C) B2 (D) D
4. Which of the following is not a carbohydrate?
5.
(A) C2(H2O)2 (B) C5(H2O)5
Which of the following has peptide bond?
(A) Starch (B) Proteins
(C)
(C)
C6(H2O)6
s
Glucose
e
(D)
(D)
C12(H2O)11
Sucrose
6. Glucose with excess of phenyl hydrazine forms
(A) Fructasozone
l (B)
y
Glucosazone
7.
(C) Phenyl hydrazone of glucosazone
t
Sucrose on hydrolysis gives
(A) L-Glucose and L-Fructose a (D)
(B)
Glucose phenyl hydrazone
L-Glucose and L-Glucose
8.
(C)
(A)
(C)
a
D-Glucose and D-Fructose
D-Glucose & D-Mannose

D-Glucose, D-Mannose, D-Fructose
(D)
(B)
(D)
D-Glucose and L-Fructose
Lobry de Bruyn-van Ekenstein rearrangement is the equilibrium between
C D-Mannose and D-Fructose

D-Mannose, D-Fructose
Ag O HNO
9. 2
(B)    Glucose  
3
( A )
(A) and (B) respectively are

(A) Saccharic acid and Gluconic acid (B) Gluconic acid and Saccharic acid
(C) Both Saccharic acid (D) Both Gluconic acid
10. D-glucose reacts with phenyl-hydrazine to give (A) and with excess of phenyl-hydrazine gives (B). Structure
of (B) is
CH=NNHC6H5 CH=NNHC6H5 CHO

| | |
C=NNHC6H5 C=NNHC6H5 CHO
H–C–OH |
| | |
(C=NNHC6H5)3
(A) (CHOH)3 (B) (CHOH)3 (C) (CHOH)3 (D) |
| | | CH2OH
CH2OH CH2OH CH2OH
11. The peptide linkage is
O O O O O
|| || || || ||
(A) –C–NH– (B) –C–O–NH (C) –NH2–C–NH2 (D) –O–C–NH2–C–O–

12. Glucose cyanohydrin is obtained when
(A) Glucose is reacted with HI (B) Glucose is reacted with HCN
(C) Glucose is reacted with (CH3CO)2O (D) Glucose is reacted with Ag2O
13. D-glucose reacts with phenylhydrazine to make osazone. How many molecules of phenylhydrazine are used for
this reaction per molecule of D-glucose?
(A) One (B) Two (C) Three (D) Four
14. During mutarotation of -D-glucose in aqueous solution angle of optical rotation
(A)
(B)
(C)
Remains constant value of + 111°
Remains constant value of + 19.2°
Changes from an angle of +112° to a constant value of +52.5°
e R
15.
(D)
y s
Changes from an angle of +19.2° to a constant value of +52.5°
On treating glucose with Fehling’s solution we get a precipitate whose colour is
l
(A) Yellow (B) Red (C) Black (D) White
16. If a native protein is subjected to physical or chemical treatment which may disrupt its higher structure
a
without affecting primary structure then this process is called
t
(A) Inversion of protein (B) Denaturation of protein
(C) Renaturation of protein (D) Fermentation
17. HOH / H
(X) 
(Y) 
C
(Z) 

a
 glucose + fructose
HOH / H
 glucose + glucose

HOH / H
 glucose + galactose
The disaccharides (Z), (Y) & (X) respectively are
(A) Lactose, Maltose, Sucrose (B) Maltose, Lactose, Sucrose
(C) Sucrose, Maltose, Lactose (D) Sucrose, Lactose, Maltose
18. Fehlings test is given by
(A) Alkaline solution of fructose (B) Glucose
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) Starch
19. On hydrolysis, which of the following carbohydrate gives only glucose?
(A) Sucrose (B) Lactose (C) Maltose (D) Galactose
20. Proteins are detected by
(A) Molisch’s test (B) Biurett test (C) Benedict’s test (D) Beilstein test
TOPIC : PURIFICATION AND CHARACTERISATION & ORGANIC

COMPOUNDS
EXERCISE #01
1 A compound contains C= 90% and H= 10% empirical formula of the compound is :
(A) C3H10 (B) C15H30 (C) C15H10 (D) C15H20
2 Cl.CH2COOH is heated with fuming HNO3 in presence of AgNO3 in carius tube. After filtration and washing,
a white precipitate is obtained. This precipitate is nothing but :
(A) AgNO3 (B) Ag2SO4 (C) AgCl (D) ClCH2COOAg

3 An organic compound on analysis gave C = 39.9% = 6.7%, H and O = 53.4% its empirical formula is :
(A) CHO (B) CHO2 (C) CH2O2 (D) CH2O
4 Empirical formula of an organic compound is CH2 Mass of one mole of it is 42g. What is molecular formula
of the compound :
(A) CH2 (B) C2H2 (C) C3H6 (D) C3H8
5 An organic compound on analysis gave C = 48%, H = 8% and N = 56%. Volume of 1.0g of compound was
found to be 200 ml at NTP. Molecular formula of the compound is :
(A) C2H4N2 (B) C4H8N4 (C) C12H24N12 (D) C16H32N16
6
(A) 12.5 and 36.6 (B) 25 and 36.6 (C) 25 and 73.3
e R
0.24g of an organic compound gave 0.22 g CO2 on complete combustion. It is contains 1.66% hydrogen then
the percentage of C and O will be :
(D) 25 and 80
s
7 An organic compound contains C = 74.0%, H = 8.65% and N = 17.3% its empirical formula is :
(A) C5H8N (B) C10H12N (C) C5H7N (D) C10H14N
y
8 An organic compound on analysis gave the following results C = 54.5%, O = 36.4%, H = 9.1% the empirical
formula of the compound is :
9
(A) CH3O (B) C2H4O
a l
Distillation under reduced prressure is empolyed for :
(A) C6H6
(C) C3H4O
(B) Petrol
(D) C4H8O
10
(C) CH2OHCHOHCH2OH
is
(A) CH2O
a t (B) CHO
(D) Organic compounds used in medicine
An organic compound contains C = 40%, O = 53% and H = 6.60%. The empiricial formula of the compound
(C) CH4O2 (D) C2H2O
C
11 The purity of an organic compound is determined by :
(A) Density (B) Mixed m.p. (C) m.p. (D) Molecular weight
12 In a lassaingne’s test for sulphur in the organic compound with sodium nitroprusside solution, the purpule
colour formed is due to :
(A) Na2[Fe(CN)5NOS] (B) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (C) Na3[Fe(CN)5S] (D) Na2[Fe(CN)6]
13 Fischer–Tropsch process is used for the manufacture of :
(A) Synthetic petrol (B) Ethanoic acid (C) Ethanol (D) Benzene
14 A hydrocarbon has C = 85.72% and remaining H. The hydrocarbon is :
(A) C2H6 (B) C2H4 (C) CH4 (D) C2H2
15 Absolute alcohol is prepared :
(A) Fractional distillation (B) Kolbe’s method
(C) Azeotropic distillation (D) Vacuum distillation
16 Beilstein test is used for :
(A) N2 (B) Cl (C) Na (D) CO2
17 Two elements X (atomic weight = 75) and Y (atomic weight = 16) combine to give a compound having 75.8%
X. The formula of the compound is :
(A) X2Y (B) X2Y3 (C) X2Y2 (D) XY
18 For the separation of two immisible liquids which method is used ?
(A) Chromatography (B) Separating funnel (C) Fractional column (D) Fractional distillation
19 Chloroform and Benzene from pair of miscible liquids, these can be separated by :
(A) Sublimation (B) Filtration (C) A separating funnel (D) Distillion

20 The empirical formula of a compound is CH2O2 its molecular weight is 180. The molecular formula of the
compound is :
(A) C6H12O6 (B) C5O10O5 (C) C4H8O4 (D) C3H6O3
21 Carbon and Hydrogen are estimated by :
(A) Leibig’s method (B) Duma’s method (C) Carius method (D) Kjeldahal’s method
22 Which of the following fertilizers has the highest nitrogen percentage ?
(A) Ammonium sulphate (B) Calcium cyanamide (C) Urea (D) Ammonium nitrate
23 In steam distillation of toluene, the pressure of toluene in vapour is :
(A) Equal to pressure of barometer
(B) Less than pressure of barometer
(C) Equal to vapour pressure of toluene in simple distillation
e R
24
(D) More than vapour pressure of toluene in simple distillation
s
A is a higher phenol and B is an aromatic carboxylic acid. Separation of a mixture of A and B can be carried
out easily by using a solution of :
y
l
(A) NaOH (B) Lime (C) NaHCO3 (D) Na2CO3
25 The compounds formed in the positive test for nitrogen with the Lassaigne solution of an organic compound
a
is :
(A) Na4[Fe(CN)5NOS] (B) Na3[Fe(CN)6] (C) Fe(CN)3 (D) Fe4[Fe(CN)6]3
26
t
An organic compound having molecular mass 60 is found to contain C = 20%, H = 6.67% and N = 46.67%
while rest is oxygen. On heating it gives NH3 along with a solid residue. The solid residue give violet colour
a
with alkaline copper sulphate solution. The compound is
(A) CH3CONH2 (B) CH3NCO (C) CH3CH2CONH2 (D) (NH2)2CO
1. C
organic compound is
(A) 0.2 (B) 2
EXERCISE #02
0.7 gm of an organic compound gave 11.2 cm3 N2 at NTP in Duma’s method. Percentage of nitrogen in the
(C) 20 (D) 1.2

2. An organic compound contains 2% sulphur by weight. The minimum molecular weight of the compound is
(A) 200 (B) 1600 (C) 400 (D) 800
3. 0.22 gm of hydrocarbon on complete combustion gives 0.66 g of CO2 and 0.36 g of H2O. The empirical
formula of the compound is
(A) CH2 (B) C3H4 (C) C3H8 (D) C6H8
4. Acetone (b.pt 328 K) and methanol (b.pt. 338 K) can be separated by
(A) Crystallisation (B) Steam distillation (C) Simple distillation (D) Fractional distillation
5. Distillation under reduced pressure is used for
(A) Purification of 95% ethyl alcohol and 5% water
(B) Purification of absolute alcohol
(C) Purification of glycerol
(D) Detection of glycol
6. 3 gm of an organic substance gives 12 gm water during estimation of carbon & hydrogen. The percentage of
hydrogen in the substance is
(A) 30.6 (B) 60.2 (C) 44.44 (D) 20.2

7. Which of the following cannot be used in Kjeldahl’s method?
(A) Methyl amine (B) Urea (C) Diazonium salt (D) Ethyl methyl amine
8. A compound which does not give a positive test in Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen is
(A) Urea (B) Hydrazine (C) Glycine (D) Phenyl hydrazine
9. 15 mL of a gaseous hydrocarbon required 45 mL of oxygen for complete combustion & 30 mL of CO2
is formed. The formula of hydrocarbon is
(A) C2H6 (B) C3H6 (C) C2H4 (D) C2H2
10.
is
(A) CH4 (B) C2H4 (C) C2H2
e R
A gaseous hydrocarbon has 85% carbon and vapour density 28. The possible formula of the hydrocarbon
(D) C4H8
11.
in it is
(A) 5 (B) 10 (C)
y
1 s
If 0.2 g of an organic compound on complete combustion produces 0.18 g of water then % of hydrogen
(D) 20
12.
HCHO (B) CH3CHO l

0.22 g of organic compound C x H yO which occupied 112 mL at NTP, on combustion gave
0.44 g CO2 and 0.18 g of H2O, find the formula of the compound
(A)
a (C) CH3COOH (D) C6H5OH

13.
(A)
(C)
a t
The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with HNO3 before testing for halogens because
AgX is soluble in HNO3
Ag2S is soluble in HNO3
(B)
(D)
Na2S and NaCN are decomposed by HNO3
AgCN is soluble in HNO3
C
14. Lassaigne extract of a compound when treated with AgNO3 give a white precipitate, which element is
present in it?
(A) F (B) Cl (C) Br (D) I
15. The percentage of sulphur in the organic compound, when 0.2595 g of a sulphur containing organic compound
in a quantitative analysis by Carius method yielding 0.35 g of barium sulphate is
(A) 14.52% (B) 16.52% (C) 18.52% (D) 19.52%
16. Compound containing 80% carbon and 20% hydrogen is likely to be
(A) C6H6 (B) C2H5OH (C) C2H6 (D) CHI3
17. Which of the following is used for separating aniline from nitrobenzene?
(A) Na2CO3 (B) HCl (C) NaHCO3 (D) NaCl
18. A mixture of o-nitrophenol and p-nitrophenol can be separated by
(A) Sublimation (B) Steam distillation
(C) Fractional crystallization (D) Distillation
19. In Lassaigne’s test for nitrogen the blue colour is due to the formation of
(A) Ferric-Ferro cyanide (B) K4[Fe(CN)6]
(C) Na4[Fe(CN)6] (D) NaCN
20. An organic compound is found to contain C = 39.9%, H = 6.7% O = 53.4%. Its empirical formula is
(A) CHO (B) CHO2 (C) CH2O2 (D) CH2O

21. In Kjeldahl’s method nitrogen element is estimated as
(A) N2 (B) NO (C) NH3 (D) NO2
22. 0.10 g of an organic compound containing phosphorus gave 0.222 g of Mg2P2O7. Then the percentage
of phosphorus in it is
(A) 62 (B) 6.2 (C) 31 (D) 13
23. If empirical formula of an organic compound is CH2O and its 6.02 × 1023 molecules weight 60 gm then
it can be
(A) CH3OH (B) C2H5OH (C) HCOOH (D) HCOOCH3
24.
of acid is
(A) 70 (B) 80 (C) 90
e R
If 0.228 g of silver salt of dibasic acid gave a residue of 0.162 g of silver on ignition then molecular weight
(D) 100
25.
(A) 37 (B) 33 (C)
y
73
s
The silver salt of a monobasic acid on ignition gave 60% Ag. The molecular weight of the acid is
(D) 77
TOPIC : SOAP & DETERGENT
a l
EXERCISE #01
1
2
(A) Cl2
(A) Behaviour
a t
Which of the following substances is not an example of an inorganic antiseptic ?
(B) I2 (C) SO2
Dyer’s classification of dyes cannot be done on the basis of the following character
(B) Procedure of dyeing (C) Structural unit
(D) Br2
(D) Use
3
5
C
Which of the following medicines is used in the treatment of tuberculosis ?
(A) Penicillin (B) Streptomycin (C) Chloromycetin
Chlorampheniocol medicine is not used in the treatment of
(A) Meningitis (B) Pneumonia (C) Typhoid
Which of the following substaces is not used as a sedative medicine ?
(D) Sulphadiazine
(D) Tuberculosis
(A) Oxalylurea (B) Pneumonia (C) Veronal (D) Dial

6 Synthetic pheromones, which attract male gypsy moth are esters of which of the following acids ?
(A) Acetic acid (B) Hexanoic acid (C) Decanoic acid (D) Dodecanoic acid
7 m-Xylohydroquinone is the compound of
(A) cottonseed oil (B) pea oil (C) fungi (D) civet gland
8 Which of the following compounds is used in the synthesis of a parent compound of tranquillisers and
sedative medicines by condensation with urea ?
(A) Barbituric acid (B) Barbital (C) Malonic ester (D) Parabanic acid
9 Terpeniol and chloroxylenol are the compounds of which of the following classes ?
(A) Disinfectant (B) Chemosterilant (C) Tranquillisers (D) Plant growth hannones
10 Benzidine is :
(A) Analgesic (B) Antiallergic (C) Antidepresant (D) None
11 In basic dyes which of the following group is present ?
(A) –NO2 (B) –SO3OH (C) –OH (D) –NH2
12 Which of not considered as inorganic antiseptic :
(A) Cl2 (B) I2 (C) SO2 (D) Br2

13 Which of the following is a hypontic drug ?
(A) Luminal (B) Salol (C) Catechol (D) Phenol
14 Which of the following represents a biliquid propellent ?
(A) N2O4 + acrylic rubber (B) N2O4 + UDMH
(C) Polybutadiene + ammonium perchlorat (D) Nitroglycerine + nitrocellulose
15 Malachite green and rosaniline belong to :
(A) Azo dyes (B) Phthalein dyes (C) Anthraquinone dyes (D) Triphenylmethane dyes
16 Deepening of colour of compounds may be caused by which of the following :
17
(A) Bathochromic group
(C) Chromogens
(B) Hypsochromic groups
(D) All the above
e R
Auxochrome does not deepens the colour of a chromogen if it is present at ................. position relative to
18
chromophore :
(A) Para (B) Meta
Example of monopropellants is : s
(C) Ortho
y
(D) None
l
(A) CH3ONO2 (B) CH3NO2 (C) H2O2 (D) All of these
19 Paracetamol contains :
20
(A) –OH and –NHCO C6H5 groups
t
(C) –OH and –SO2NH2 group
a (B) –OH and –NH2 groups
(D) –OH and –NHCO CH3 groups
The substance which affect the central nervous system and induce sleep are called :
a
(A) Antipyratics (B) Tranquilizers (C) Analgesics (D) None of above
21 Sulpha drugs are derivatives of :
C
(A) Benzenesulphonic acid (B) Sulphanilic acid
(C) Sulphanilamide (D) p–Aminobenzoic acid
22 Which of the following is a billiquid propellant ?
(A) Kerosene + Liquid oxygen (B) Nitrocellulose + nitroglycerine
(C) Polybutadiene + ammonium perchlorate (D) Acrylic rubber + liquid N2O4
23 A substance which can act both as an antiseptic and disinfectant is :
(A) Aspirin (B) Chloroxylenol (C) Bithional (D) Phenol
24 The PSLV rocket proposes to use :
(A) Only solid propellants (B) Only monoliquid propellants
(C) Only biliquid propellants (D) Both solid biliquid propellants
25 An example of Vat dye is :
(A) Indigo (B) Alizarin (C) Matachite green (D) Martius yellow
26 Alizarin a mordant dye is used in :
(A) Cotton dyeing (B) Printing
(C) Painting (D) Chromium lakes for wool dyeing
27 Which of the following is an azodye :
(A) Methyl orange (B) Phenolphthalein (C) Malachite green (D) Methylene blue
28 Which one of the following is not used as fuel in rocket propellants ?
(A) Liquid hydrazine (B) Liquid hydrogen (C) Kerosene oil (D) Liquid oxygen
29 Which of the following is an anthraquinone dye ?
(A) Indigo (B) Malachite green (C) Aniline yellow (D) Alizarin

30 Which of the following groups whould you introduce into a drug or dye to make it water soluble ?
(A) –NO2 (B) –Cl (C) –SO3H (D) –OH
31 Which of the following pair is of auxochrome :
(A) –NH2, –NO2 (B) –N=N–, –NR2 (C) –N=O, –OH (D) –NHR, –OH
32 The “lakes” are :
(A) Acid dyes (B) Azo dyes (C) Mordant dyes (D) Metal salt of dyes
33 Fluorescein can be prepared from phthalic anhydride and :
(A) Phenol (B) Catechol (C) Resorcinol (D) Aminophenol
34 Regular use of which of the following fertilizers increases the acidity of soil ?
(A) Potassium nitrate
(C) Superphosphate of lime
(B) Urea
(D) Ammonium sulphate
e R
TOPIC : CHEMISTRY IN ACTION
EXERCISE #01
y s
1.
2.
(A) CO2 (B) SO3
a l
Out of the following which is a secondary pollutant?
(C)
Which is not the secondary pollutant of photochemical smog?
H2SO4 (D) Hydrocarbon
3.
4.
(A)
(A)
HCHO
As
a t (B)
(B)
O3
Most poisonous pollutant in water is
Zn
Solar ultravoilet radiation is absorbed by
(C)
(C)
SO2
Phosphate
(D)
(D)
PAN
Detergent
5.
C
(A) Mesosphere (B) Ionosphere (C) Stratosphere
CFCs destroy the ozone layer. This distruction is caused by the reaction of
(A)
(C)
Cl+ & C F2 Cl with O3
CF2Cl2 with O3 without any intermediate
(B)
(D)

Cl & C F2Cl with O3
Both (A) & (B)
(D) Troposphere
6. Eutrophication term associate with

(A) Water pollution (B) Air pollution (C) Land pollution (D) All of these
7. Which of the following is constituent of air pollutant?
(A) Oxide of sulphur (B) Oxide of nitrogen (C) Carbon monoxide (D) All of these
8. Which of the following metal is found in our body?
(A) Fe (B) Cr (C) Al (D) Pb
9. The substance which is a primary pollutant
(A) H2SO4 (B) PAN (C) CO (D) HCHO
10. The acid rain contains
(A) H2SO4 (B) HNO3 (C) H2SO3 (D) All of these
11. Which is not an air pollutant?
(A) H2 (B) H2S (C) SO2 (D) O3
12. Which is not a chemical pollutant?
(A) Noise (B) Pesticides (C) Liquid wastes (D) Solid wastes
13. DDT is
(A) An antibiotic (B) A fertilizer
(C) A non-degradable pollutant (D) Dichlorodifluoro titanium
14. Gaseous carbondioxide dissolves in water droplets to produce
(A) Sulphonic acid (B) Carbonic acid (C) Sulphuric acid (D) Carboxylic acid
15. Water is often treated with chlorine to
(A) Increase oxygen content (B) Kill germs
(C) Remove suspended particles (D) Remove hardness
16. Eutrophication causes reduction in
(A) Nutrients (B) Dissolved salts (C) Dissolved oxygen (D) All of these
17. Lung diseases are four times more in Urban areas than Rural areas. This is due to the presence of which
R
(A) SO2 (B) CO2 (C) N2 (D) Water-vapour
18. Which one is not a correct statement?
(A) Primary pollutants are those which are emitted directly from the source
(B) Acid rain is primary pollutant
s
(C) Particulates refer to all atmospheric substances that are not gases e
y
(D) All of these
19. If BOD of a river is high, it means that river is
(A) Not polluted
l
(B) Very much polluted with inorganic chemicals
a
(C) Very much polluted with organic chemicals
t
(D) Polluted with pesticides
20. Which of the following is not correctly matched?
C
Column A
(C) Classical smog

(D) Classical smog
a
(A) Photochemical smog
(B) Photochemical smog
–
–
–
–
Column B
Warm dry climate
Contains SO2
Cool humid climate
Reducing smog
OCOCH3
COOH
21. The compound is used as
(A) Antiseptic (B) Antibiotic (C) Analgesic (D) Pesticide

22. Aspirin is a/an
(A) Narcotic (B) Antipyretic (C) Tranquilizer (D) Anaesthetic
23. Which of the following is an antibiotic?
(A) Tetramycin (B) Paracetamol (C) Chloroquine (D) Both (A) & (B)
24. Dettol consists of
(A) Cresol + ethanol (B) Xylenol + terpenol
(C) Chloroxylenol + terpeneol (D) Phenol
25. A substance which can act as both as an antiseptic and disinfectant is
(A) Aspirin (B) Phenol (C) Analgin (D) Sodium pentothal

26. Which of the following gives paracetamol on acetylation?
OH OH
OH OH
NH 2
(A) (B) (C) (D)
NH2
NH2
27. One of the most widely used drug in medicine, iodex is
R
(A) o–hydroxybenzoic acid (B) Acetyl salicylic acid
(C) Ethyl salicylate (D) Methyl salicylate
28.
(A)
(C)
2-acetoxy benzoic acid
Heroine
(B)
(D)
s
Codeine
Morphine e
Which of the following compound can be used as analgesic without causing addiction and mood elevator?
y
29. Amoxicillin is semi-synthetic modification of
l
(A) Pencillin (B) Streptomycin (C) Tetracycline (D) Chlorramphenicol
30. Hypnotic chloretone is obtained by
(A)
(B)
(C) a
Condensation of acetaldehyde with chloroform
t
Condensation of acetone with bleaching powder
Condensation of acetaldehyde with phenol
(D)
C a
Condensation of acetone with chloroform
TOPIC : SYNTHETIC & NATURAL POLYMERS
1
EXERCISE #01
The fibre obtained by the condensation of hexamethylene diamine and adipic acid is :
(A) Dacron (B) Nylon ’66’ (C) Rayon (D) Teflon
2 Natural rubber is basically a polymer of or the monomer of natural polymer rubber is :
(A) Neoprene (B) Isoprene (C) Chloroprene (D) Butadiene
3 Rayon yarns are obtained from :
(A) Polymethylene (B) Polyesters (C) Cellulose (D) Styrene
4 Polymerisation in which two or more chemically different monomers take part is called :
(A) Addition polymerisation (B) Copolymerisation
(C) Chain polymerisation (D) Homopolymerisation
5 Which one of the following can be used as monomer in a polymerisation reaction :
(A) CH3CH2Cl (B) CH3CH2OH (C) C6H6 (D) C3H6
6 Which of the following is teflon :
H H H CH3 F F H F
| | | | | | | |
(A) –C–C–
| | (B) –C–C–
| | (C) –C–C–
| | (D) –C–C–
| |
H H n H H n F F n
F Cl n
7 Polythene is a resin obtained by polymerisation of or The monomer unit in polythene is :

(A) Butadiene (B) Ethylene (C) Isoprene (D) Propylene

8 Terylene is :
(A) An addition polymer with a benzene ring in every repeating unit
(B) A condensation polymer with a benzene ring in every repeating unit
(C) An addition polymer with two carbon atoms in every repeating unit
(D) A condensation polymer with two nitrogen atoms in every repeating unit
9 Caprolactam is the monomer of :
(A) Nylon–6 (B) Glyptal (C) P.T.F.E. (D) Melamine
10 Isoprene is a monomer of :
R
(A) Starch (B) Synthetic rubber (C) PVC (D) Natural rubber
11 CH2=CH2 is a :
12
13
(A) Monomer
(A) Monofluoroethene
(B) Polymer
(B) Difluroethene
Which of the following fibres are made of polyamides :
(C) Isomer
s
(C) Trifluoroethene
e(D) Equimer
Teflon is a polymer of the monomer or Teflon is obtained by the polymerisation of :
(D) Tetrafluoroethene
14
(A) Dacron (B) Orlon
l
Bakelite is a product of the reaction between :
(A) Formaldehyde and NaOH y
(C) Nylon
(B) Aniline and urea

(D) Rayon
15
(C) Phenol and methanal
t a (D) Phenol and chloroform

Which one of the following polymers will not catch fire :
(A) (–CF2–CF2–)n (B) (–CH2–CH2–)n (C) (–CH – CH–)n (D) (–CH2 – CH–)n
a
| | |
Cl Cl Cl
16 Natural rubber is a :
C
(A) Polyester (B) Polyamide (C) Polyisoprene (D) Polysaccharide
17 Which is not a polymer :
(A) Ice (B) Starch (C) Protein (D) Cellulose
18 Acrylonitrile forms :
(A) Terylene (B) Orlon (C) PVC (D) Bakelite
19 Which of the following is an example of condensation polymers :
(A) Polythene (B) PVC (C) Orlon (D) Terylene
20 Nylon is :
(A) Polyester (B) Polyamide (C) Polycellulose (D) Polypropylene
21 Chloroprene is used in making :
(A) Synthetic rubber (B) Plastic (C) Petrol (D) All of the above
22 Methanal and phenol react in the presence of base to give :
(A) Bakelite (B) Polyethylene (C) Dcaron (D) Nylon–66
23 Which of the following contains isoprene units :
(A) Natural rubber (B) Nylon–66 (C) Polyethylene (D) Dacron
24 Which of the following is not a synthetic polymer :
(A) Polyethylene (B) PVC (C) Nylon (D) Cellophane
25 What is not true about polymers :
(A) Polymers do not carry any charge (B) Polymers have high viscosity
(C) Polymers scatter light (D) Polymers have low molecular weight

26 Which of the following is used in the synthesis of nylon–66 :
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Adipic acid (C) Phthalic acid (D) Salicylic acid
27 Terylene is a condensation polymer of ethylene glycol and :
(A) Benzoic acid (B) Phthalic acid (C) Salicylic acid (D) Terephthalic acid
28 Which one is a polymer compound :
(A) SO2 (B) CO2 (C) CH4 (D) PVC
29 Which one of the following is used to make ‘non–stick’ cookware :
(A) PVC (B) Polystyrene
30
(C) Polyethylene terephthalate
The polymer which has amide linkage is :
(A) Nylon–66 (B) Terylene
(D) Polytetrafluoroethylene
(C) Teflon
e R
(D) Bakelite
31 Example of condensation polymer is :
(A) Formaldehyde  meta–formaldehyde
(C) Acetone  mesityl oxide s
(B) Acetaldehyde  para–aldehyde
y
(D) Ethene  polyethene
32 Nylon–66 is a :
(A) Natural polymer
(C) Addition polymer
a l (B) Condensation polymer

(D) Substitution polymer
t
33 Which polymer is formed by chloroethene :
(A) Teflon (B) Polyethene (C) PVC (D) Nylon
34
35
36
C
Ebonite is :
(A) Polropene
a
Polyester fibre is :
(A) Rayon (B) Terylene
(B) Natural rubber

In elastomer, intermolecular forces are :
(C) Nylon–6
(C) Synthetic rubber

(D) Nylon–66
(D) Highly vulcanized rubber
(A) Nil (B) Weak (C) Strong (D) Very strong

37 Which of the following polymer is an example of fibre :
(A) Silk (B) Dacron (C) Nylon–66 (D) All of these
38 Characteristic property of teflon is :
(A) 2000 poise viscosity (B) High surface tension
(C) Non–inflammable and resistant to heat (D) Highly reactive
39 Which of the following is not a polymer :
(A) Silk (B) DNA (C) DDT (D) Starch
40 Which of the following statement is correct regarding the drawbacks of raw rubber :
(A) It is plastic in nature (B) It has little durability
(C) It has large water–absorption capacity (D) All of these
41 Phenol is used in manufacture of :
(A) Nylon (B) Polystyrene (C) Bakelite (D) PVC
42 Nylone 66 is :
(A) Polyamide (B) Polyester (C) Polystyrene (D) Polyvinyl
43 Isoprene is a valuable substance for making :
(A) Propene (B) Liquid fuel (C) Synthetic rubber (D) Petrol
44 Cellulose is a polymer of :
(A) Fructose (B) Ribose (C) Glucose (D) Sucrose

45 Nylon–6 is made from :
(A) Butadiene (B) Chloroprene (C) Adipic acid (D) Caprolactum
46 Which one of the following monomers gives the polymer neoprene on polymerization :
Cl
|
(A) CF2=CF2 (B) CH2–CHCl (C) CCl2=CCl2 (D) CH2= C –OH–CH2
47 Nylon threads are made of :
(A) Polyvinyl polymer (B) Polyester polymer (C) Polyamide polymer (D) Polyethylene polymer
R
48 Complete hydrolysis of cellulose gives :
(A) D–fructose (B) D–ribose (C) D–glucose (D) L–glucose
49
50
PVC is polymer of :
(A) CH2=CH2 (B) CH2=CH–Cl
Which of the following polymers contains nitrogen :
s
(C) CH2=CH–CH2Cl
e
(D) CH3–CH=CH–Cl
y
(A) Nylon (B) Polythene (C) PVC (D) Terylene
l
51 Which of the following is a polyamide ?
(A) Nylon-66 (B) Teflon (C) Bakelite (D) Terylene
a
52 Which of the following is fully fluorinated polymer ?
(A) Teflon (B) Neoprene (C) PVC (D) Thiokol
1.
a t EXERCISE #02
Which of the following catalyst is used for the polymerisation of alkene?
2.
C
(A) Pd catalyst (B)
Monomer units of glyptal is/are
(A)
(C)
Ethylene glycol
Phthalic acid and glycerol
Zeise salt (C)
(B)
(D)
Wilkinson’s catalyst (D) Zeigler-Natta catalyst
Ethylene glycol and phthalic acid

Ethylene glycol and terephthalic
(A) Nylon- 6 is a homopolymer (B) Nylon-6,10 is a copolymer
(C) Gutta percha is a rubber (D) Elastomer have strongest intermolecular forces
4. Which of the following polymer have no C – H bond?
(A) PVC (B) Silicon (C) PTFE (D) Both (B) & (C)
5. The starting material of Bakelite
(A) HCHO and melamine (B) HCHO and phenol
(C) Phenol and ethylene (D) Melamine and ethylene
6. PMMA is the polymer of
(A) Methyl methacrylate (B) Methyl acrylate
(C) Methacrylate (D) Ethylacrylate
7. The repeating units of PCTFE is
(A) CF2 = CF2 (B) CH2 = CH2 (C) CF2 — CF3 (D) FClC = CF2

8. Teflon, polystyrene and neoprene all are
(A) Copolymer (B) Condensation polymer
(C) Homopolymers (D) Monomers
9. The product of addition polymerisation is
(A) PVC (B) Nylon (C) Terylene (D) Polyamide
10. Nylon-6,6 is named because it is a polyamide formed from a
(A) Six-carbon dibase and a six-carbon diammine
(B)
(C)
(D)
Six carbon diacid and a six carbon diamine
Six carbon diacid and a six carbon diamide
Six-carbon caprolactum and a six-carbon diammine
e R
11. Bakelite is a _________ type of polymer
(A) Thermoplastic (B) Fibre (C)
y s
Thermosetting (D) Elastomer
l
12. Which of the following is/are biodegradable polymer?
(A) Protein (B) PHBV (C) Cellulose (D) All of these
13.
14.
(A) Polyethylene
t (B)
a
Which of the following is a copolymer?
Teflon (C) PVC
Which of the following is not intermediate formation during polymerisation?
(D) Nylon-66
15.
16.
(A)
Polyester is
C
(A) PAN
a
Carbocations (B)
(B)
Carbanions
PVC
(C)
(C)
Free radicals
Glyptal
(D)
(D)
Polymers which on heating in a mould become infusible and form hard mass are called?
Carbenes
Nylon
(A) Elastomers (B) Fibres

(C) Thermoplastics (D) Thermosetting polymers
17. Product of addition polymerisation reaction is
(A) PVC (B) Nylon (C) Terylene (D) Polyamide
18. Nylon threads are made of
(A) Polyethylene polymer (B) Polyvinyl polymer
(C) Polyester polymer (D) Polyamide polymer
19. Buna–S is a polymer of
(A) Butadiene and styrene (B) Butadiene and Acrylonitrile
(C) Styrene (D) Butadiene and chloroprene
20. Triethyl aluminium titanium chloride used in plastic industry is a
(A) Vulcaniser (B) Plasticiser
(C) Zeigler–Natta catalyst (D) Wilkinson’s catalyst
21. Which one of the following is used to make ‘non–stick’ cookware?
(A) PVC (B) PMMA (C) PAN (D) PTFE

O
22. Which of the following is the monomer of (NH–(CH2)5–C)n ?
(A) Caprolactum (B) Terpthallic acid (C) Glyptal (D) Ethylene glycol
23. Which one of the following molecules can not serve as a monomer for an addition polymer?
(A) ClCH=CH2 (B) CH2=CHCN (C) CH2=CH–C6H5 (D) CH3–COOH
24. An example of a condensation polymer is
R
(A) PVC (B) Terylene (C) Polypropylene (D) Polystyrene
25. The repeating structural unit in neoprene is
(A)
(C)
Chloroprene
Chloroethene
(B)
(D)
Chloropicrin
s e
Chlorotrifluoro ethylene
l ***** y
t a
C a

ANSWER KEY
PART - I (XI)
NOMENCLATURE
EXERCISE I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A C B D D C C C A
Que.
Ans.
Que.
11
A
21
12
C
22
13
B
23
14
D
24
15
B
25
16
A
26
17
D
27
18
C
e
28
R 19
D
29
20
D
30
s
Ans. D D A D D B C A A D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
y
Ans. D D D A C B A D A B
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
C
51
A
D
52
B
C
53
B
B
54
a
A l C
55
A
C
56
A
C
57
B
C
58
D
A
59
C
A
60
C
t
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. B B B C A C B B B A
ISOMERISM
C
EXERCISE I a
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D B B C B B B B C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C B C A A B A D C
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B D C C A C A B D
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A C C A D A A D A D
Que. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D C B A A B D D C B
Que. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D C C C B A B C D D
Que. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. A C D B B B C A C C
Que. 71 72 73 74 75
Ans. D C A B C

REACTION MECHANISM
EXERCISE I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C C D B B B B B C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
R
Ans. A B C D C A C D B B
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
e
Ans. B B B C A C D C B B
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
C
41
B
B
42
A
B
43
A
C
44
B
C
45
C
A
46
y
C
s C
47
C
C
48
D
C A
EXERCISE II
a l
Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
1
D
11
D
2
C
a
12
C
t B
3
13
B
4
B
14
C
C
5
15
B
D
6
16
D
C
7
17
C
A
8
18
C
B
9
19
A
10
C
20
C
C
Que. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. B C D B A
PART - II (XII)
HYDROCARBON
EXERCISE I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C A D B B C D B A A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C B C C C D D C A D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B B B C D A B B C
BENZENE & TOLUNE

EXERCISE I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B C C A C C D C C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C B A C C C C C D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28
Ans. A B D B C D D D

HALOGEN DERIVATIVES OF ALKANES

EXERCISE I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C D D D A D D C A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C C A A B A B A A D
Que.
Ans.
Que.
21
D
31
22
A
32
23
C
33
24
D
25
B
26
C
27
A
28
D
e R 29
D
30
A
s
Ans. A A C
y
EXERCISE II
l
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D C B D D D A A B
a
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D C A A C A C B B D
Que.
Ans.
21
D
22
D
a t
ALCOHOL, PHENOL & ETHER
23
C
24
D
25
B
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
C
EXERCISE I
Qus. 1
C
11
B
21
2
C
12
B
22
3
B
13
C
23
4
D
14
D
24
5
B
15
B
25
6
C
16
C
26
7
D
17
D
27
8
C
18
D
28
9
A
19
B
29
10
C
20
C
30
Ans. C B C C B C C B A A
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A B C C C B A D A A
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. C C A A B C A C A D
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57
Ans. A B B C A C C

ALDEHYDE, KETONE & BENZALDEHYDE
EXERCISE I
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D B D D B C C A B D
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B C C D B C D A B C
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C D C B A A C C B D
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
31
D
41
B
32
B
42
D
33
B
43
C
34
B
44
A
35
B
45
D
36
D
46
A
37
A
47
B
38
C
e
48
R 39
A
49
A
40
B
50
B
Qus.
Ans.
51
D
52
C
53
D
54
B
55
C
56
A
y s 57
C
58
B
l
EXERCISE II
a
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C D D C C D C C A
Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
11
A
21
C
12
A
a
22
C
t 13
D
23
D
14
A
24
A
15
D
25
C
16
C
26
D
17
C
27
C
18
D
28
A
19
D
29
D
20
B
30
B
C
Que. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A C C C A B A B B C
CARBOXYLIC ACIDS AND ITS DERIVATIVES

EXERCISE I
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D D A C C D D B C
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D C C A B C B C D B
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D A A C B B C C D D
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A C A C D D B B B A
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D D A A A B B C C D
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58
Ans. B C C B B C C D

NITROGEN COMPOUNDS, UREA, NITROBENZENE, ANILINE
EXERCISE I
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A A A B D A A A B C
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B A D D D C B A C B
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans.
R
D B D B D B B C B C
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
e
Ans. C A C A A A D D B C
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
s
Ans. D D D C A D C C C B
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
y
Ans. D A D B A C C C D D
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
A
71
D
81
D
72
C
82
D
73
C
83
C
74
a
B
84
l A
75
D
85
A
76
C
86
A
77
D
87
B
78
B
88
D
79
A
89
D
80
4
90
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
D
91
D
101
a
A
92
Bt
102
C
93
B
103
D
94
C
104
B
95
A
105
A
96
D
106
D
97
C
107
C
98
B
108
D
99
C
109
A
100
B
110
C
Ans. C C D C D A A A D A
Qus. 111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
Ans. D D D D A A A A D B
EXERCISE II
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D D D A A A D B B C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C C B A D B A A B A
Que. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. B A D D D

BIOMELECULES
EXERCISE I
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B C D C B C A D D
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B B C C B A C C B B
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D C D C A B D A D A
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
31
D
41
D
32
D
42
B
33
D
43
B
34
A
44
A
35
D
45
C
36
D
46
D
37
D
47
C
38
D
e
48
R 39
A
49
C
40
D
50
A
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
51
A
61
52
C
62
53
D
63
54
B
64
55
B
65
56
B
y
66
s 57
C
67
58
A
68
59
B
69
60
A
70
l
Ans. B D C C C A A C D B
Qus. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
a
Ans. D C D C C D C D B C
Qus. 81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
t
Ans. C A D C C B D D B D
Qus. 91 92 93
a
Ans. B C A
EXERCISE II
Que.
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
C
1
D
11
A
2
D
12
B
3
D
13
C
A
4
14
D
5
B
15
B
B
6
16
B
PURIFICATION AND CHARACTERISATION & ORGANIC COMPOUNDS
C
7
17
A
C
8
18
C
9
A
19
C
10
B
20
B
EXERCISE I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C D C B C C B C A
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B B A B C B B B D A
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26
Ans. A C B C A D
EXERCISE II
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B C D C C C B C D
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B B B B C C B B A D
Que. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. C A D C C

SOAP & DETERGENT
EXERCISE I
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C B D A A B C A C
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D D A B D A B D D B
Que. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
C
31
D
A
32
D
D
33
C
D
34
D
A C A D
e R D C
CHEMISTRY IN ACTION
EXERCISE I
y s
Que.
Ans.
Que.
1
C
11
2
C
12
3
A
13
C
4
a
14 l 5
B
15
A
6
16
D
7
17
A
8
18
C
9
19
10
D
20
Ans.
Que.
Ans.
A
21
C
A
22
a
B t C
23
A
SYNTHETIC & NATURAL POLYMERS

B
24
C
B
25
B
C
26
D
A
27
D
B
28
A
C
29
A
B
30
D
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
C
EXERCISE I
1
B
11
2
B
12
3
C
13
4
B
14
5
D
15
6
C
16
7
B
17
8
B
18
9
A
19
10
D
20
Ans. A D C C A C A B D B
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. A A A D D B D D D A
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. C B C D D B D C C D
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. C A C C D D C C B A
Qus. 51 52
Ans. A A
EXERCISE II
Que. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D B D C B A D C A B
Que. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C D D D C D A D A C
Que. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. D A D B A

PHYSICAL CHEMISTRY
PART - I (CLASS XI)
TOPIC : ATOMIC STRUCTURE
EXERCISE # 01
1 An atom has an atomic weight of W and atomic number N then :
R
(A) Number of electrons = W – N (B) Number of protons = W – N
(C) Number of neutrons = W – N (D) Number of neutrons = N
2
(A) (B) –Ze2/r (C)
s
orbit of radius r, then the potential energy of the electron in given by :
Ze2/r Ze2/r2 e
When an electron of charge e and mass m moves with velocity v about the nuclear charge Ze in the circular
(D) mv2/r
3
4
(A) 2 (B) 6
l (C)
y
The number of electrons shared by each atom of nitrogen in nitrogen molecule is :
3 (D) 4
If uncertainty in position of electron is zero, then the uncertainty in its momentum would be :
5
(A) Zero
t
(B) h/2
a (C) 3h/2 (D) Infinity

It is known that atoms contain protons, neutrons and electrons. If the mass of neutron is assumed to be
half of its original value whereas that of electron is assumed to be twice to this original value. The atomic
6
C
(C)
Twice
25% less
a
mass of 6C12 will be :
(A) (B)
(D)
75% less
One half of its original value
If the energy of an electron in hydrogen atom is given by expression, –1312/n2 kJ mol–1, then the energy
required to excite the electron from ground state to second orbit is :
(A) 328 kJ/mol (B) 656 kJ/mol (C) 984 kJ/mol (D) 1312 kJ/mol
2 10 6 th
7 Krypton (36Kr) has the electronic configuration (18Ar) 4s 3d 4p . The 37 electron will go into which of the
following sub levels :
(A) 4f (B) 4d (C) 3p (D) 5s
8 Which of the following statements is false :
(A) The energy of red photon is more than the energy of violet photon
(B) The momentum of photon is inversely proportional to its wave length
(C) The energy of a photon is inversely proportional to its wave length
(D) The particle nature of electromagnetic radiations is able to explain the photoelectric effect
9 Calculate the de-Broglie wave length of the electron in the ground state of hydrogen atom, given that its
kinetic energy is 13.6 eV : (1eV = 1.602 × 10–19 J)
(A) 3.328 × 10–10 m (B) 2.338 × 10–10 m (C) 3.328 × 1010 m (D) 2.338 × 10 m
10 Which of the following pair having same number of orbitals :
(a) N, O (b) O, F (c) Na, K (d) S, Cl
The correct answer is :
(A) a, b, c (B) b, c, d (C) c, d, a (D) a, b, d
11 The speed of a proton is one hundredth of the speed of light in vacuum. What is its de-Broglie wavelength
Assume that one mole of protons has a mass equal to one gram [h = 6.626 × 10–27 erg sec]:
(A) 13.31 × 10–3 Å (B) 1.33 × 10–3 Å (C) 13.13 × 10–2 Å (D) 1.31 × 10–2 Å
12 The value of charge on the oil droplets experimentally observed were – 1.6 × 10–19 and –4 × 10–19 coulomb.
The value of the electronic charge, indicated by these results is :
(A) 1.6 × 10–19 (B) –2.4 × 10–19 (C) –4 × 10–19 (D) –0.8 × 10–19
13 The ratio of ionization energy of H and Be+3 is :
14
(A) 1:1 (B)
Hydrogen spectrum consists of :
(A) An intense line
1:3 (C)
(B)
1:9
Six series of lines

(D)
e R 1 : 16
15
(C) Three series of lines (D)
s
Four series of lines
y
Which of the following salt has isoelectronic cation and anion :
l
(A) KF (B) NaCl (C) SrCl2 (D) MgF2
16 Which set of quantum numbers is possible for the last electron of Mg+ ion :
(A)
t
n = 3, l = 2, m = 0, s = +
1
2
1 a (B) n = 2, l = 3, m = 0, s = +
1
2
1
a
(C) n = 1, l = 0, m = 0, s = + (D) n = 3, l = 0, m = 0, s = +
2 2
17 The discovery of neutron became very late because :
18 C
(A)
(C)
Neutrons are present in nucleus
Neutrons are charge less
(B)
(D)
Neutrons are fundamental particles
All
If E1, E2 and E3 represent respectively the kinetic energies of an electron, an alpha particle and a proton
each having same de Broglie wavelength then :
(A) E1 > E3 > E2 (B) E2 > E3 > E1 (C) E1 > E2 > E3 (D) E1 = E2 = E3
19 The value of : [2p(energy) – 1s(energy)] for H-atom would be :
(A) 10.2 eV (B) 13.6 eV (C) 3.4 eV (D) None of these
20 In hydrogen atom, If an electron jumps from n = 6 to n = 2, how many possible spectral lines are obtained:
(A) 15 (B) 10 (C) 6 (D) 12
21 If Hund’s rule is followed, magnetic moment of Fe2+, Mn+ and Cr all having 24 electrons will be in order :
(A) Fe2+ < Mn+ < Cr (B) Fe2+ < Cr = Mn+ (C) Fe2+ = Mn+ < Cr (D) Mn2+ = Cr < Fe2+
22 The speed of the electron in the 1st orbit of the hydrogen atom in the ground state is–
(A) c/1.37 (B) c/1370 (C) c/13.7 (D) c/137
23 Five ionization energy values in kJ mol–1 are 834, 869, 1008, 1170, 376 shows :
(A) Successive ionization energies for the element of atomic number 5
(B) The first ionization energies for successive elements in Groups 5, 6, 7, 0 and 1
(C) The first ionization energies for elements with atomic number 1–5
(D) Successive ionization energies for transition element with 4 electron in the d-subshell

24 If n and l are respectively the principal and azimuthal quantum numbers, then the expression for calculating
the total number of electrons in any energy level is :
l n l n–1 l n 1 l n–1
(A)  2(2l  1)
l 0
(B) l 1
2(2l  1) (C) l 0
2(2l  1) (D) l 0
2(2l  1)
25 If 10–17J of light energy is needed by the interior of human eye to see an object. The photons of green light
( = 550 nm) needed to see the object are :
R
(A) 27 (B) 28 (C) 29 (D) 30
26 The potential energy of the electron present in the ground state of Li2+ ion is represent by :
(A) +
3e2
40r
(B)
3e
– 4 r
0
(C) –
s
3e2
40r
e
(D) None of these
27
(A)
(B) y
For the energy levels in an atom which one of the following statements is correct :
l
The 4s sub-energy level is at a higher energy than the 3d sub-energy level
The second principal energy level can have four orbitals and contain a maximum of 8 electrons
(C)
(D) None of these
t a
The M-energy level can have maximum of 32 electrons
a
28 13.5 g of Aluminium when changes to Al+3 ion in solution, will lose :
(A) 18.0 × 1023 electrons (B) 6.022 × 1023 electrons
C
(C) 3.01 × 1023 electrons (D) 9.1 × 1023 electrons
29 Assume that the nucleus of the F-atom is a sphere of radius 5 × 10–13 cm. What is the density of matter in
F–nucleus :
(A) 6.02 × 1011 g/ml (B) 6.02 × 1013 g/ml (C) 6.02 × 1018 g/ml (D) None
30 The ionization energy of a hydrogen atom is 13.6eV. The energy of the third-lowest electronic level in
doubly ionized lithium (Z = 3) is :
(A) –28.7 eV (B) –54.4 eV (C) –122.4 eV (D) –13.6 eV
31 Assuming the nucleus and an atom to be spherical, the radius of the nucleus of mass number a is given by
1.25 × 10–13 × A1/3 cm. The atomic radius of atom is 1Å. If the mass number is 64, the fraction of the atomic
volume that is occupied by the nucleus is :
(A) 1.25 × 10–13 (B) 2.50 × 10–13 (C) 5 × 10–5 (D) None
32 An electron in a hydrogen atom in its ground state absorbs 1.50 times as much energy as the minimum
required for it to escape from the atom. What is the wavelength of the emitted electron :
(A) 4.70 Å (B) 4.70 nm (C) 9.4 Å (D) 9.40 nm
33 For an electron in a hydrogen atom, the wave function,  is proportional to exp–(r/a0), where a0 is the Bohr’s
radius. What is the ratio of the probability of finding the electron at the nucleus to the probability of finding
it at a0.
(A) e (B) e2 (C) 1/e2 (D) Zero

34 Energy levels A, B, C of a certain atom corresponds to increasing values of energy, i.e., EA < EB < EC. If 1,
2 and 3 are the wavelengths of radiations corresponding to the transitions C to B, B to A and C to A
respectively, which of the following statement is correct:
C
1
B
2  3
A
(A) 3 = 1 + 2 (B) 3 =
1 2
(C) 1 + 2 + 3 = 0
e
(D)R  23 =  12 +  22
s
1   2
35 The energy difference between two electronic states is 46.12 kcal/mole. What will be the frequency of the
10–14 kcal sec mole–1)

(A) 4.84 × 1015 cycles sec–1
l (B) y
light emitted when an electron drops from the higher to the lower energy state (Planck constant = 9.52 ×
4.84 × 10–5 cycles sec–1
36
(C) 4.84 × 10–12 cycles sec–1
t a (D) 4.84 × 1014 cycles sec–1

Which of the following curves may represent the speed of the electron in a hydrogen atom as a function of
the principal quantum number n :
C a v
n
c
b
a
d
(A) a (B) b (C) c (D) d

37 The uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass 9.1 × 10–28 gm) moving with a velocity of 3 × 104 cm
sec–1, Accurate upto 0.011% will be :
(A) 1.92 cm (B) 7.68 cm (C) 0.175 cm (D) 3.84 cm
38 A 1 kW radio transmitter operates at a frequency of 880 Hz. How many photons per second does it emit:
(A) 1.71 × 1021 (B) 1.71 × 1033 (C) 6.02 × 1023 (D) 2.85 × 1026
39 Two particles A and B are in motion. It the wavelength associated with the particle A is 5.0 × 10–8 m, the
wavelength of particle B having momentum half of A is :
(A) 2.5 × 10–8 m (B) 1.25 × 10–8 m (C) 1.0 × 10–7 m (D) 1.0 × 10–8 m
40 A particle A moving with a certain velocity has de Broglie wavelength of 1 Å. If particle B has mass 25% of
that A and velocity 75% of that of A, the de Broglie wavelength of B will be approximately :
(A) 1Å (B) 5.3 Å (C) 3Å (D) 0.2 Å
41 Energy required to pull out an electron from 1st orbit of hydrogen atom to infinity is 100 units. The amount
of energy needed to pull out the electron from 2nd orbit to infinity is :
(A) 50 units (B) 100 units (C) 25 units (D) Zero

42 The graphical representation of energy of e– and atomic number is :
2
E Z
E E E
(A) (B) (C) (D)
2 2 2
Z Z Z
43 At atom has x energy level then total number of lines in its spectrum are :
(A)
(C)
1 + 2 + 3 ................ (x + 1)
1 + 2 + 3 ................. (x – 1)
(B)
(D) (x + 1) (x + 2) (x + 4)
e R
1 + 2 + 3 ................. (x)2
s
44 Which of the following statementsis wrong :
(A) Kinetic energy of an electron is half of the magnitude of its potential energy
(B)
(C)
(D) y
Kietic energy of an electron is negative of total energy of electron
l
Energy of an electron decreases with increases in the value of principal quantum number
All of these
45
to:
(A) none
t (B) 2
a
If each hydrogen atom is excited by giving 8.4eV energy, then the number of spectral lines emitted is equal
(C) 3 (D) 4
46
47
C a
The orbital cylindrically symmetrical about x-axis is :
(A) pz (B) py
Which of the d-orbital lies in the xy-plane :
(A) dxz only (B) dxy only

(C)
(C)
px
dx 2  y 2 only
(D)
(D)
dxz
dxy & dx 2  y 2 only
48 The probability of finding an electron residing in a px orbital is zero in the :

(A) xy plane (B) yz plane (C) y direction (D) z direction
49 If the series limit of wavelength of the Lyman series for the hydrogen atoms is 912Å, then the series limit
of wavelength for the Balmer series of the hydrogen atom is :
(A) 912 Å (B) 912 × 2 Å (C) 912 × 4 Å (D) 912/2 Å
50 An element of atomic weight Z consist of two isotopes of mass number Z – 1 and Z + 2. Percentage of
abundanc of the heavier isotope is :
1 2
(A) 25 (B) 33 (C) 66 (D) 75
3 3
*****

EXERCISE # 02
1. Which of the following pair have same number of nucleon?
(A) 6
C13, 7N14 (B) 6
C12, 6C13 (C) C40, 18Ar40
20
(D) O16, 7N15
8
2. Choose the correct order
(A)  rays > X rays > U. V. ray > Radio waves (in term of wave length)
(B) Violet > Indigo > Green > Red (in term of wavelength)
3.
(C)
(D)
Cosmic rays >
Red > Green > Indigo > Voilet colour (in term of frequency)
Choose the correct match
e R
 rays > Visible rays > Infrared rays (in term of frequency)
(A)
(C)
Lyman series  infrared region
Paschen series  ultra voilet region

(B)
(D)
y s
Balmer series  visible region
Brackett series  visible region

4.
5.
th
The radius of 4 shell in the Li in
(A) 2.82 Å (B)
+2
0.282 Å
a l (C) 0.846 Å (D) 1.68 Å

Two objects A and B having mass M and 4M respectively and velocity 4v and 2v then ratio of the wavelength
6.
(A)
B 1

A 2
a t
associated with objects A and B is
(B)
A 1

B 2
(C)
A
Β
1 (D)
A 1

Β 4
In the simultaneous measurement of position and momentum of a macroscopic particle, it was found that
C
x (uncertainty in position) is zero then uncertainty in momentum is
(A)
(C)
Zero
x.p 
h
4
(B)
(D)
Infinite
Cannot be calculated from above data
7. Which one of the following pair have same number of angular node?
(A) 4p, 3s (B) 5p, 6d (C) 5p, 7p (D) 3s, 4p
8. Choose the correct statement
(A) 6d orbital have 4 radial nodes
(B) The energy of 7d is higher than energy of 7s in case of hydrogen atom
(C) 7 d z2 orbital do not have 2 nodal plane
(D) Energy sequence of the following orbital is 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s for element Z < 20
9. Which of the following is excited electronic configuration and also voilet the Hund's rule?
(A) (B)
3s 3p 4s 4p
(C) (D)
3s 3p 4s 3p

10. Which set is the correct set of quantum number for
?
5d
1 1
(A) n = 5, l = 2, m = –2, –1 0, + 1, +2, s = + (B) n = 5, l = 2, m = –2, s = +
2 2
1 1
(C) n = 5, l = 0 – 4, m = +2, s =  (D) n = 5, l = 2, m = 0, s = 
2 2
11.
12.
How many transitions are recorded when electron jumps from M shell to K shell?
(A) 3 (B) 6 (C)
Which of the following d orbital is having different shape?
4
e
(D)
R 2
13.
(A) dxy (B) dyz
s
(C) d x 2  y2
y
(D) dz 2
For an electron of Cu atom, the ratio of orbit angular momentum to orbital angular momentum is 9 : 2. It
14.
may not be for
(A) 13th e– & 16th e– (B)
a l
14th e– & 17th e– (C) 15th e– & 18th e– (D) 11th e– and 12th e–
The ionisation energy of a hydrogen like atom is 9 times of hydrogen atom. The radius of 2nd Bohr orbit of
this atom
(A) 0.529 Å
a t (B) 0.7053 Å
The total spin for a species is 

3
(C) 1.158 Å (D) 2.116 Å
C
15. . Species may be
2
(A) Fe3+ (B) Fe2+ (C) Mn++ (D) N

16. No. of waves for 3rd electron of lithium atom is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
17. If the velocity of an electron moving in first Bohr’s orbit of hydrogen has to be reduced to 7.27 × 105 m, it
should be shifted by
(A) 4.23 Å away from nucleus (B) 4.23 Å towards nucleus
(C) 4.76 Å away from nucleus (D) 4.76 Å towards nucleus
18. If the shortest wavelength of H–atom in Lyman Series is ‘X’ then the longest wavelength in Balmer Series
of He+ is
9X 36 X X 5X
(A) (B) (C) (D)
5 5 4 9
19. For a d– electron, the orbital angular momentum is
(A) 6 (B) 2 (C)  (D) 2
20. A photon of radiation of wavelength 4000 Å has an energy E. The wavelength of photon of radiation having
energy 0.5E will be
(A) 2000 Å (B) 4000 Å (C) 8000 Å (D) 16000 Å
*****
TOPIC : CHEMICAL BONDING
EXERCISE # 01
1. The electronic configuration of four elements are given in brackets L(1s2, 2s22p1); M(1s2, 2s22p5);
Q(1s2, 2s22p6, 3s1); R(1s2, 2s22p2) The element that would most readily form a diatomic molecule is
(A) Q (B) M (C) R (D) L
2 The electronic configuration of four elements L, P, Q and R are given in brackets L (1s2, 2s22p4);
Q(1s2, 2s22p6, 3s2 3s5); P(1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s1): R(1s2, 2s2 2p6, 3s2)
The formulae of ionic compounds that can be formed between these elements are
(A) L2P, RL, PQ and R2Q (B) LP, RL, PQ and RQ
e R
3
(C) P2L, RL, PQ and RQ2 (D)
y s
LP, R2L, P2Q and RQ
In the following which bond will be responsible for maximum value of hydrogen bond
l
(A) O–H (B) N–H (C) S–H (D) F–H
4 Which compound is highest covalent
5
(A) LiCl
t
(B) LiF
a (C) LiBr
In BeCl2, which type of hybridization is present in beryllium atom
(A) sp (B) sp2 (C) sp3
(D)
(D)
LiI
sp3d
6
C
Copper
a
In the following metals which one has lowest probable interatomic forces
(A) (B) Silver (C) Zinc
Contrary to other hydrogen halides, hydrogen fluoride is a liquid because
(A) Size of F atom is small (B) HF is weak acid
(D) Mercury
(C) HF molecule are hydrogen bonded (D) Fluorine is highly reactive

8 In the following which molecule or ion possesses electrovalent, covalent and coordinate bond at the same
time
(A) HCl (B) NH4+Cl– (C) Na+Cl– (D) H2O2
9 The nature of bonding in graphite is
(A) Covalent (B) Ionic (C) Metallic (D) Coordinate
10 In the following which species does not contain sp3 hybridization
(A) NH3 (B) CH4 (C) H2O (D) CO2
11 As a result of sp hybridization, we get
(A) Two mutual perpendicular orbitals (B) Two orbitals at 180º
(C) Four orbitals in tetrahedral directions (D) Three orbitals in the same plane
12 The reason for exceptionally high boiling point of water is
(A) Its high specific heat
(B) Its high dielectric constant
(C) Low ionization of water molecules
(D) Hydrogen bonding in the molecules of water

13 Which one in the following is not the resonance structure of CO2
–
(A) O=C=O (B) O – C  O+
+
(C) O  C – O– (D) OC=O
14 The bond in the formation of fluorine molecule will be
(A) Due to s-s overlapping (B) Due to s-p overlapping
(C) Due to p-p overlapping (D) Due to hybridization
15 An atom of sodium loses one electron and chlorine atom accepts one electron. This result the formation of
sodium chloride molecule. This type of molecule will be
(A) Coordinate (B) Covalent (C) Electrovalent
e
(D)
R Metallic bond
s
16 Silicon carbide (SiC) is
(A) Ionic solid (B) Molecular solid (C) Covalent solid (D) Metallic solid
17
(A)
(C)
Axial overlapping of s-s orbitals
Axial overlapping of p-p orbitals
l (B)
(D) y
Which type of overlapping results the formation of a  bond
Lateral overlapping of p-p orbitals
Axial overlapping of s-p orbitals
18
(A) Equal to or less than 1.7
a
For the formation of covalent bond, the difference in the value of electronegativities should be
t (B) More than 1.7
a
(C) 1.7 or more (D) None of these
19 The valency of carbon is four. On what principle it can be explained in a better way
C
(A) Resonance (B) Hybridization (C) Electron transfer (D) None of the above
20 Which type of compounds show high melting and boiling points
(A) Electrovalent compounds (B) Covalent compounds
(C) Coordinate compounds
(D) All the three types of compounds have equal melting and boiling points
21 Each of the following pairs of chemical species will combine. Which of the following combination is best
explained by the coordinate covalent bond
1
(A) H2 + I2 (B) Mg + O (C) Cl + Cl (D) H+ + H2O
2 2
22 Select the compound from the following which dissolves in water

(A) CCl4 (B) CS2 (C) CHCl3 (D) C2H5OH
23 Bond order is a concept in the molecular orbital theory. It depends on the number of electrons in the
bonding and anti bonding orbitals. Which of the following statements is true about it ? The bond order
(A) Can have a negative quantity (B) Has always an integral value
(C) Can assume any positive or integral or fractional value including zero
(D) Is a non zero quantity
24 Electrovalent compounds do not have
(A) High M.P. and Low B.P. (B) High dielectric constant
(C) High M.P. and High B.P. (D) High polarity

25 The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is 1.73D. The dipole moment of p-dichlorobenzene is expected to be
(A) 3.46 D (B) 0.00 D (C) 1.73 D (D) 1.00 D
26 The bond order of NO molecule is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3
27 When two atomic orbitals combine they form
(A) One molecular orbital (B) Two molecular orbital
(C) Three molecular orbital (D) Four molecular orbital
28
Linear
+
The shape of H3O ion is
(A) (B) Angular (C) Trigonal planar
e
(D)
R Triangular pyramidal
s
29 Compound formed by sp3d hybridization will have structure
(A) Planar (B) Pyramidal (C) Angular (D) Trigonal bipyramidal
30 Which of the molecules is of V-shaped
(A) SO2 (B) C2H2
l (C)
y
SnCl4 (D) CO2
a
31 Which of the following statement is not correct
(A) Hybridization is the mixing of atomic orbitals prior to their combining into molecular orbitals
(B)
(C)
(D)
a t
sp2 hybrid orbitals are formed from two p atomic orbitals and one s atomic orbital
d2sp3 hybrid orbitals are directed towards the corners of a regular octahedron
dsp3 hybrid orbitals are all at 90º to one another
C
32 The structure of [Cu(H2O)4]++ ion is
(A) Square planar (B) Tetrahedral (C) Distorted rectangle (D) Octahedral
33 Molecular orbital theory was developed mainly by
(A) Pauling (B) Pauling and Slater (C) Mulliken (D) Thomson
34 The bond order of a molecule is given by
(A) The difference between the number of electrons in bonding and anti bonding orbitals
(B) Total number of electrons in bonding and anti bonding orbitals
(C) Twice the difference between the number of electrons in bonding and anti bonding electrons
(D) Half the difference between the number of electrons in bonding and anti bonding electrons
35 Oxygen molecule is paramagnetic because
(A) Bonding electrons are more than anti bonding electrons
(B) Contains unpaired electrons
(C) Bonding electrons are less than anti bonding electrons
(D) Bonding electrons are equal to anti bonding electrons
36 The bond order in N2+ ion is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 2.5 (D) 3
37 In which of the following the central atom does not use sp3 hybrid orbitals in its bonding
(A) BeF3– (B) OH3+ (C) NH2– (D) NF3

38 The sp3d2 hybridisation of the central atom of a molecule would lead to
(A) Square planar geometry (B) Tetrahedral geometry
(C) Trigonal bipyramidal geometry (D) Octahedral geometry
39 Which of the following occurs when two hydrogen atoms bond with each others
(A) Potential energy is lowered (B) Kinetic energy is lowered
(C) Electronic motion ceases (D) Energy is absorbed
40 XeF2 involves hybridisation
41
(A) sp3 (B) sp3d
A set of molecular orbitals which is degenerate
(C) sp3d2 (D)
e R
None of these
s
(A) y2p and px2p (B) y2p and pzx2p (C) y2p and z2p (D) 1s and 2s
42 Which molecular orbital in N2 has least energy
43
(A) 2py (B) 2pz
l
Which molecule has the highest bond order
(C)
y2s (D) x2px
a
(A) N2 (B) Li2 (C) He2 (D) O2
44 The molecular electronic configuration of H2– ion is
45
(A) (1s)2
a t (B) (1s)2(x1s)2 (C) (1s)2(x1s)1

Octahedral molecular shape exists in ............hybridisation
(A) sp3d (B) sp3d2 (C) sp3d3
(D)
(D)
(1s)3
None of these
C
46 Energy required to dissociate 4gm of gaseous hydrogen into free gaseous atoms is 208 kcal at 25ºC. The
bond energy of H-H bond wilsl be
(A) 104 kcal (B) 10.4 kcal (C) 1040 kcal (D) 1.04 kcal
*****
EXERCISE # 02
(A) In N3–, central N show sp hybridisation and linear geometry
(B) In XeF6, Xe show sp3d2 hybridisation and octahedral geometry
(C) In BF4–, B show sp2 hybridisation and triangular geometry
(D) In I3–, central I show sp hybridisation and linear geometry
2. Choose the correct order about bond strength
(A) s–s overlapping > s–p overlapping > p–p overlapping
(B) p–p overlapping > s–p overlapping > s–s overlapping
(C) s–p overlapping > p–p overlapping > s–s overlapping
(D) p–p overlapping > s–s overlapping > s–p overlapping
3. No. of  bond and  bond in P4O10 are
(A)  bond 16,  bond 4 (B)  bond 15,  bond 4
(C)  bond 10,  bond 2 (D)  bond 16,  bond 8

4. Which of the following possess distroted octahedral shape?
(A) SF6, sp3d2 (B) [SiF6]–2, sp3d2
(C) XeF6, sp3d3 (D) [PCl6]–, sp3d2
5. Which of the following species is diamagnetic?
(A) KO2 (B) Na2O2 (C) Fe2O3 (D) ClO2
6. The percentage ionic character in a compound AB if inter nuclear distance between A and B is
127 pm and its dipole moment is 2.06 D
7.
(A) 33.80% (B) 16.90% (C) 83.10%
Choose the correct sequence regarding the molecular dipole moment (D)
(D)
e R 66.20%
s
(A) HF > HI > HCl (B) H2O < H2S (C) NH3 < PH3 (D) NF3 < NH3
8. The correct order regarding the relative overlapping power of an orbital
(A)
(B)
(C)
sp3 orbital > sp2 orbital > sp orbital > pure p orbital
l
2 3
Pure s or p orbital > sp orbital > sp hybrid > sp hybrid
y
sp hybrid orbital > sp2 hybrid orbital > sp3 hybrid orbital > pure p orbital
9.
(D)
t a
sp3 hybrid orbital > sp2 hybrid orbital > pure s orbital > pure sp hybrid orbital
Which of the following is correct match?
a
(A) Ionic bond  Directional
(B) XeO2F2  Xe is sp3d hybrid, 2, 4 bond
C
(C) Tetraethyl ammonium chloride  N is sp3 hybridised, 4, 1 ionic bond
(D) N(SiH3)3  N is sp3 hybridised, pyramidal shape
(A) BCl3 > BBr3 > BF3 (Lewis basic character)
(B) N(CH3)3 is pyramidal while N(SiH3)3 is triangular planar
(C) CH4 > H2O > HF (acidic strength)
(D) BeS > ZnS > MgS (covalent character)
11. Which of the following have highest dipole moment (D)?
Cl Cl F F I I Br Br
(A) C=C (B) C=C (C) C=C (D) C=C
Cl H H H H H Br Br

(A) N2 have high bond order than N2+
(B) N2– have higher bond length than N2+
(C) Molecular orbital theory and V.B. theory both depend on LCAO mode of combination
(D) Lattice energy is the energy released when one mole of an ionic compound in gaseous state is
formed from its constituent gaseous ion
13. In which compound there is no hydrogen bonding?
(A) CuSO4.5H2O (B) ROH (C) NH3 (D) MgCl2.6H2O

14. T - shape pair is -

(A) I3– & ClF3 (B) Br3– & I3– (C) ClF3 & BrF3 (D) C H3 & SO3
15. Maximum ionic percentage present in

(A) NaI (B) NaCl (C) NaF (D) NaBr
16. Which of the following can not be hydrolysed?
R
(A) NCl3 (B) NF3 (C) PCl5 (D) PCl3
17. Which is maximum polar structure?
18.
(A) o-xylene
Maximum bond angle present in
(A) NH3
(B)
(B)
p-xylene
AsH3
(C)
(C)
m-xylene
s
PH3
e
(D)
(D)
Benzene
SbH3
19.
Cl OH
l y
Which one of the following is incorrectly given as per their dipole moments ()?
(A)
Cl
,  =0
t (B)
OH a,  0
(C) CHCl3 ,  0 (D) XeF4 , 
20.
(C)
a –
Molecular shape of ClF3, I and XeO3 respectively are
C
(A)
3
T-shape, Linear, Pyramidal

T-shape, Planar, Pyramidal
(B)
(D)
Planar, Linear, Tetrahedral
Trigonal bipyramidal, Linear, Tetrahedral
*****
TOPIC : MOLE CONCEPT
EXERCISE # 01
1 The molecular weight of the compounds (A) Na2SO4 (B) Na3PO4. 12H2O and (C) Ca3(PO4)2 respectively are
X, Y, and Z. The correct set of their equivalent weights will be -
X Y Z Y Z
(A) (a) (b) (c) (B) (a) X (b) (c)
2 3 6 3 3
X Z
(C) (a) (b) Y (c) (D) (a) X (b) Y (c) Z
2 3
2 Haemoglobin contains 0.25% iron by weight. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is 89600. Calculate the
number of iron atoms per molecule of haemoglobin.
(A) 2 atom (B) 3 atom (C) 4 atom (D) 6 atom
3 What is the normality of a solution of ammonia, whose density is 0.885. It has 23% ammonia be weight
(A) 1.35 (B) 12.0 (C) 19.1 (D) 26.0

4 50ml of 0.1N KMnO4 solution is required to completely oxides 0.225g of anhydrous oxalic acid. Find out
the equivalent weight of oxalic acid.
(A) 90 (B) 45 (C) 126 (D) 63
5 A 500g tooth paste sample has 0.2g fluoride concentration. What is the concentration of F in terms of ppm
level-
(A) 250 (B) 200 (C) 400 (D) 1000
6 Element X reacts with oxygen to produce a pure sample of X2O3. In an experiment it is found that 1.000g of
(A) 20.70 (B) 66.85 (C) 100.2
e
(D)R
X produces 1.1596g of X2O3. Using the known atomic weight of oxygen 15.9994g mol-1 calculate the atomic
weight of X -
150.4
7
of the compound is -
(A) XY (B) X2Y (C)
y s
Two element X (at. wt.=75) and Y (at. wt.=16) combines to give a compound having 75.8% of X. The formula
X2Y2 (D) X2Y3

8
(A) 2.5 g-molecules of N2
a l
Four containers of 2L capacity contains dinitrogen as described below. Which one contains maximum
number of molecules under similar conditions -
(B) 4 g-atom of nitrogen
9
(C)
a t
3.01 x 1024 N atoms (D) 82 g of dinitrogen
6g of carbon combines with 32g of sulphur to form CS2. 12g of C also combine with 32g of oxygen to form
carbon dioxide. 10g of sulphur combines with 10g of oxygen to form sulphur dioxide. Which law is illus-
trated by the above example -
10
C
(A)
(C)
Law of multiple proportions
Law of reciprocal proportions
(B)
(D)
Law of constant composition
Gay Lussac's law
4.4g of CO2 and 2.24L of H2 at STP are mixed in a container. The total number of molecules present in the
container will be -
(A) 6.022 x 1023 (B) 1.2044 x 1023 (C) 2 moles (D) 6.023 x 1024
11 Which of the following illustrates the law of conservation of mass ?
(A) Mixing of 10 g of sulphur and 2 g of sand does not show a changes in mass
(B) The mass of platinum wire before and after heating remains constant
(C) 2.2 g of propane and 8 g of oxygen produces 10.2 g of gaseous mixture
(D) 3.8 g of CO and 1.6 g of oxygen gave only 2.24 L of CO2 at S.T.P.
12 The molecular formula of certain compound is M4O6. If 18.88g of the compound contains 10 g of M, the
atomic mass of M is approximately -
(A) 40 g (B) 54 g (C) 27 g (D) 12 g
13 C–12 and C–14 isotopes are found as 98% and 2% respectively in any sample. Then, the number C–14
atoms in 12 g of the sample will be -
(A) 1.5 moles atoms (B) 1.032 × 1022 atoms
(C) 2.06 × 1021 atoms (D) 2g atom
14 The mole fraction of solute in 1 molal aqueous solutions is -
(A) 0.0176 (B) 1.8 (C) 0.05 (D) 0.98

15 510mg of a liquid on vaporization in victor Mayer's apparatus displaces 67.2ml of dry air (at NTP). The
molecular weight of liquid is -
(A) 130 (B) 17 (C) 1700 (D) 170
16 What will be present in the solution when 50ml. of 0.1(M) HCl is mixed with 50ml. of 0.1(M) NaOH.
(A) 4.5 mol of H+ (B) 0.05 mol of OH— (C) 0.05M. NaCl (D) 6M H+
17 0.2 mole of HCl and 0.1 mole of barium chloride were dissolved in water to produce a 500 mL solution. The
molarity of the Cl— ions is -
18
(A) 0.06M (B) 0.09M (C) 0.12M (D)
e R 0.80M
8 litre of H2 and 6 litre of Cl2 are allowed to react to maximum possible extent. Find out the final volume of
reaction mixture. Suppose P and T remains constant throughout the course of reaction.
19
(A) 7 litre (B) 14 litre (C)
y s
2 litre
0.59g of a dibasic acid is completely neutralized by 100 c.c of

N
(D) None
NaOH solution. What is the molecular
l
10
weight of the acid -
20
(A) 59
t
(B) 118
a (C)
0.84g of metal carbonate reacts completely with 40ml of

29.5
N
(D) 11.8
H2 SO 4 . What is the equivalent weight of the
a
2
metal carbonate is -
C
(A) 20 (B) 12 (C) 42 (C) 30
21 10 Moles SO2 and 15 moles O2 were allowed to react over a suitable catalyst. 8 moles of SO3 were formed.
The remaining moles of SO2 and O2 respectively are -
(A) 2 mole, 11 mole (B) 2 mole, 8 mole (C) 4 mole, 5 mole (D) 8 mole, 2 mole
22 A metal oxide is reduced by passing H2 gas. 3.15g of oxide on complete reduction gives 1.05g metal. We
concluded that -
(A) atomic weight of metal is 4 (B) equivalent weight of metal is 8
(C) equivalent weight of metal is 4 (D) atomic weight of metal is 8
23 A sample of calcium carbonate is 80% pure. 25g of this sample is treated with excess of HCl. How much
volume of CO2 will be obtained at NTP.
(A) 4.48 litre (B) 5.6 litre (C) 11.2 litre (D) 2.24 litre
24 In the electrolysis of H2O, 11.2 litre of H2 was liberated at cathode at NTP. How much O2 will be liberated at
anode under the same condition.
(A) 11.2 litre (B) 22.4 litre (C) 32g (D) 5.6 litre
25 A silver coin weighing 11.34g was dissolved in nitric acid. When sodium chloride was added to the solution
all the silver (present as AgNO3) was precipitated as silver chloride. The weight of the precipitated silver
chloride was 14.35g. Calculate the percentage of silver in the coin,
(A) 4.8% (B) 95.2% (C) 90% (D) 80%

26 Cyclohexanol is dehydrated to cyclohexene on heating with conc. H2SO4. If the yield of this reaction is
75% how much cyclohexene will be obtained from 100g of cyclohexanol.
(A) 61.5g (B) 16.5g (C) 6.15g (D) 615g
27 1g metal carbonate requires 200ml of 0.1 N HCl for complete neutralization. What is the equivalent weight
of metal carbonate -
(A) 50 (B) 40 (C) 20 (D) 100
28 When excess of CaCO3 is treated with 100 ml of HCl solution, the CO2 gas obtained was found to be 1.12
liter (at N.T.P) what is normality of HCl -
(A) 0.2N (B) 1N (C) 0.1N (D)
e R 2N
s
N
29 3.92g ferrous ammonium sulphate (FAS) consumes 50 ml of KMnO4 . What is the percentage purity of
10
30
the sample of FAS-
(A) 50% (B) 78.4%
l
(C)
y
80% (D) 39.2%
1.7g of ammonium salt was treated with excess of NaOH. The ammonia released in the process neutral-
t
izes 100 c.c. solution of
N
a
H SO . What is the percentage of ammonia in the salt -
5 2 4
a
(A) 17% (B) 20% (C) 25% (D) 34%
o
31 What will be the molecular weight of the gas whose density is 0.55 g/litre at 27 C and 600 mm pressure
C
(A) 0.27g mole-1 (B) 17.16g mole-1 (C) 27.0g mole-1 (D) 32.32g mole-1
32 The mass of oxygen that would be required to produce enough CO which completely reduces 1.6kg Fe2O3
(at mass of Fe=56) is -
(A) 240g (B) 480g (C) 720g (D) 960g
33 In an experiment 10ml of AgNO3 (0.1N) solution is added to 20ml of decinormal HCl. After the precipitation
of AgCl, excess of HCl is titrated with decinormal NaOH solution. What is the volume of NaOH used in the
titration-
(A) 10ml (B) 20ml (C) 5ml (D) 30ml
34 A bottle of commercial sulphuric acid (density 1.787g/ml.) is labelled as 86% by weight. What is the
molarity of the acid -
(A) 1.717  86  1000/100 (B) 1.787  86  1000/100  49
(C) 1.787  86  1000/100  98 (D) None
35 250ml of the solution contains 7.35g of dibasic acid 25ml of this solution requires 15ml of 1N- NaOH
solution for complete neutralization Equivalent and molecular weight of acid would be respectively -
(A) 49, 98 (B) 63, 126 (C) 32, 64 (D) 50, 100
36 Review the following reactions -
(i) CaC2 + H2O  CaO + C2H2 ; (ii) C2H2 + H2  C2H4 ; (iii) nC2H4  (C2H4)n
What is the weight of polyethene obtained from 10kg CaC2 -
(A) 4.375kg (B) 10kg (C) 15kg (D) 20kg

37 1000g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10g of calcium carbonate. Concentration of the solution is-
(A) 10 ppm (B) 100 ppm (C) 1000 ppm (D) 10,000 ppm
38 Which of the following should be done in order to prepare 0.40 M NaCl starting with 100ml of 0.30 M NaCl
(mol. wt. of NaCl=58.5) -
(A) Add 5.85g NaCl (B) Add 20ml water (C) Add 0.10ml NaCl (D) Evaporate 10ml water
39 A certain aqueous solution of FeCl3 (formula mass =162) has a density of 1.1g/ml and contains 20.0%
FeCl3 Molar concentration of this solution is -
40
(A) 0.028 (B) 0.163 (C) 1.35 (D)
e R 1.47
An ore contains 1.34% of the mineral argentite, Ag2S, by weight. How many grams of this ore would have
to be processed in order to obtain 1.00g of pure silver. (Ag) -
41
(A) 74.6g (B) 85.7g
-1
(C)
o
y s
107.9g (D) 134.0g
The density of liquid ethanol is 0.7893g mL at 20 C. If 1.2 mol of ethanol are needed for a particular
experiment, what volume of ethanol should be measured out
42
(A) 55 ml (B) 58 ml
a l (C) 70 ml (D) 79 ml
An isotope of the element polonium, of atomic mass 210, is strongly radioactive and each day one two
hundredth part of it changes into an inactive isotope of lead. Approximately, how many atoms of lead are
43
(A) 1.5  1016
t
formed in one day from one milligram of 210Po -
a
(B) 3  1018 (C) 1.23  1019
If human blood contains 195 mg/ml of K+ ion; the molarity of the solution is -
(D) 1.2  1022
44
C
(A)
195  1000
39
(B)
195  10 3  10 3
39
(C)
195  10 3  10 3
38
(D)
195  1000
38
The most abundant element dissolved in sea water is Cl at a conc. of 19 g/kg of sea water. The volume of
earth's ocean is 1.4  1021L. How many g atoms of Cl are potentially available from the oceans. (density of
sea water is 1gm/cc)
(A) 7.6  1020 (B) 27  1021 (C) 27  1024 (D) 96  1023
45 100ml of 0.3N HCl solution is mixed with 200ml of 0.6N H2SO4 solution. What is the normality of H2SO4 in
the final solution -
(A) 0.9 (B) 0.6 (C) 0.5 (D) 0.4
46 If LPG cylinder contains mixture of butane and isobutane, then the amount of oxygen that would be
required for combustion of 1kg of it will be -
(A) 1.8 kg (B) 2.7 kg (C) 4.5 kg (D) 3.58 kg
47 4.0 g of caustic soda (molecular mass = 40) contains same number of sodium ions as are present in -
(A) 10.6g of Na2CO3 (molecular mass = 106) (B) 58.5 g of NaCl (formula mass 58.5)
(C) 100 ml of 0.5 M Na2SO4 (Formula mass 142)(D) 1gm-equivalent of NaNO3 (equivalent mass 85)
48 W 1g of an element combines with oxygen forming W2g of its oxide. The equivalent weight of the element is
 W1   W1   W2  W1   W1 
(A)  x8 (B)   x8 (C)   x8 (D)   x8
 W2   W2  W1   W1   W1  W2 

49 20g of an acid furnishes 0.5 moles of H3O+ ions in its aqueous solution. The value of 1g equivalent of the
acid will be-
(A) 40g (B) 20 g (C) 10 g (D) 100 g
50 One mole of chlorine combines with certain weight of a metal giving 111g of its chloride. The same amount
of metal can displace 2g of hydrogen from an acid. The atomic weight of the metal is -
(A) 40 (B) 20 (C) 80 (D) none
51 Out of 1.0g dioxygen, 1.0 (atomic) oxygen and 1.0g of ozone, the maximum number of oxygen atoms are
contained in -
(A)
(C)
1.0 g of atomic oxygen
1.0g of oxygen gas
(B)
(D)
1.0g of ozone
e R
All contains same number of atoms
52
amount of CaCO3 unreacted is
(A) 30 g (B) 20 g (C)
y s
40 g of calcium carbonate was treated with 48 g of HCl. If the acid used was only of 30% strength. The
32 g (D) 17 g
53
a l
Haemoglobin contains 0.33 % of iron by weigth. The molecular weight of haemoglobin is approximately
67200 The number of iron atoms (atomic weight of Fe is 56 amu) present in one molecule of haemoglobin
is
54
(A) 2
a t (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3

The impure 7 g of NaCl is dissolved in water and then treated with excess of silver nitrate solution. The
weight of precipitate of silver chloride is found to be14 g. The % purity of NaCl solution would be-
(A) 81.5 % (B) 83 % (D) 93 % (D) 77 %
55
C
KMnO4 reacts with oxalic acid according to the reaction
2KMnO4– + 5C2O42– + 16H+  2Mn2+ + 10CO2  + 8H2O
Then, 20 ml of 0.1 M KMnO4 is equivalent to

(A) 30 ml of 0.5 M C2H2O4 (Oxalic acid) (B) 50 ml of 0.1 M C2H2O4 (Oxalic acid)
(C) 20 ml of 0.5 M C2H2O4 (Oxalic acid) (D) 10 ml of 0.1 M C2H2O4 (Oxalic acid)
56 The percentage of Se in peroxidase anhydrous enzyme is 0.5 % by weight (atomic weight of Se=78.4
amu). Then, the minimum molecular weight of peroxidase anhydrous enzyme which containing not more
than one atom of Se is
(A) 1.568 x 104 (B) 1.568 x 107 (C) 1.568 x 103 (D) 1.568 x 106
4NH3 (g) + 5O2 (g)  4NO(g) + 6H2O (l)
when 1 mole of ammonia and 1 mole of O2 are mixed. Then
(A) 0.2 mole of H2O is produced (B) 0.1 mole of NO is produced
(C) all the oxygen will be consumed
(D) all the ammonia will be consumed in order to form 1 mole NO
58 1.12 mL of a gas is produced at STP by the action of 4.12 mg of alcohol (ROH) with Grignard's reagent
CH3MgI. The molecular mass of alcohol (in amu) is
(A) 16.0 (B) 41.2 (C) 82.4 (D) 156.0

59 The equivalent weight of an element is 4 amu. What is the valency of the element, if the vapour density of
its chloride is 59.50 ?
(A) 5 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 4
60 When a mixture consisting of 10 moles of SO2 and 16 moles of O2 were passed over a catalyst, 8 moles of
SO3 were formed at equilibrium. The number of moles of SO2 and O2 which did not enter into the reaction
were.
(A) 2, 12 (B) 12,2 (C) 3, 10 (D) 10, 3
61 When 3.92 gL–1 of a sample of Mohr's salt reacts completely with 50 ml.
of the sample of Mohr's salt is

N
10
R
KMnO4 solution. The % purity
e
62
(A) 50 (B) 70 (C) 37
y s (D) 40
The number of equivalents of Na2S2O3 required for the volumetric estimation of one equivalent of Cu2+ is
63
(A)
1
3
(B) 2
a l (C)
3
2
(D)
2
3
An aqueous solution of 6.3 g of oxalic acid dihydrate is made upto 250 ml. The volume of 0.1 N NaOH
64
(A) 40 ml
t
required to completely neutralise 10 ml of this solution is
a
(B) 20 ml (C) 100 ml (D) 400 ml
What is the molecular formula of compound (gaseous) of boron with hydrogen if mass of 1 L of this
C
compound (gas) is equal to the mass of 1 L of N2 and the boron content in the compound is 78.2% ?
(A) BH3 (B) B2H6 (C) B3H8 (D) B4H10
65 A gaseous mixture of propane and butane of volume 3 L on complete combustion produces 10 L of CO2
under standard conditions of temperature and pressure. The ratio of volume of propane to butane is
(A) 1:2 (B) 2:1 (C) 3:2 (D) 3:1
66 The molecular mass of K2Cr2O7 is 294 amu. It acts as an oxidising agent in acidic medium. Its equivalent
weigth in acidic medium would be
M M M
(A) N= (B) N=M (C) N= (D) N=
3 6 5
67 For preparing 1 M solution of a compound from its impure sample, the weight of the substance required will
be
(A) more than the theoretical weight (B) less than the theroretical weight
(C) equal to the theoretical weight (D) less or equal to the theoretical weight
M
68 A solution of 10 mL of FeSO4 was titrated with KMnO4 solution in acidic medium, the amount of KMnO4
10
used will be
(A) 10 mL of 0.5 M (B) 10 mL of 0.1 M
(C) 5 mL of 0.1 M (D) 10 mL of 0.02 M

69 When potassium permanganate is titrated against ferrous ammonium sulphate in acidic medium, the
equivalent weight of potassium permanganate is
molecular weight molecular weight

(A) (B)
3 5
molecular weight molecular weight

(C) (D)
2 10
70
follows the equation 2NaCl + MnO2 + 3H2SO4  2NaHSO4 + MnSO4 + Cl2 + 2H2O
e R
Chlorine gas can be produced by reacting sulphuric acid with a mixture of MnO2 and NaCl. The reaction
What volume of chlorine can be produced from 1 g of sodium chloride under standard conditions of tem-
perature and pressure ?
(A) 1.915 L (B) 19.15 L (C)
y s
20.22 L (D) 0.191 L
1.
a l *****
EXERCISE # 02
90 g Mohr’s salt is dissolved into 2 litre water. Equivalent weight of salt is equal to
2.
(A)
(C)
a t
Molar weight of salt
Molar weight / 6
(B)
(D)
Molar weight / 4
Molar weight / 8
50 ml, centimolar KMnO4 solution is just sufficient to oxidise 75ml of a H2O2 solution in the presence of
C
H2SO4. The correct statement for this H2O2 solution is
(A) Molarity of H2O2 solution is 1/30 (B) Normality of H2O2 solution is 1/30
(C) Volume strength of H2O2 solution is 2 V (D) Weight percentage of H2O2 in solution is 40%
3. Solution containing 0.34 gm AgNO3 is mixed with HCl solution containing 0.146 gm HCl. The no. of AgCl
molecules in the solution is
(A) 6.023 × 1023 (B) 6.023 × 1021 (C) 12.046 × 1020 (D) 24.092 × 1021
4. 5 gm impure of calcium hydroxide is dissolved into 800 ml of water. In 100 ml of this solution 20 ml of
N
decinormal HCl is added. The acidic solution formed is neutralized by 50 ml of NaOH solution.
50
Percentage purity of Ca(OH)2 is

(A) 44% (B) 5.92% (C) 14.34% (D) 7.5%
5. In the following reaction, correct statement is
K2Cr2O7 + 8H+ + 3S2O3– – 

 2Cr3+ + K2SO4 + 3S + 4H2O.
Molar wt
(A) Equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 = (B) Equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 = Molar wt.
3
Molar wt. Molar wt.

(C) Equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 = (D) Equivalent weight of K2Cr2O7 =
5 6

6. What weight of 80% pure NaOH required to neutralize 10% pure 100 ml 1 M H2SO4 solution?
(A) 1 gm (B) 0.2 gm (C) 4 gm (D) 0.5 gm
7. When 20 moles of SO2 and 15 moles of O2 are passed over catalyst. 10 moles of SO3 are formed. The
volume (at NTP) of resulting gaseous mixture is
(A) 22.4 lit (B) 448 lit (C) 112 lit (D) 672 lit
8. 10.6 gm mixture containing NaCl and Na2CO3 is dissolved in a solution of CaCl2 to form 5 gm CaCO3 as
precipitate. The percentage of NaCl in mixture is
9.
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D)
e R 20%
One gram metal (equivalent wt. 40) was burnt in excess of atmospheric oxygen. The formed metal oxide
was dissolved in 100 ml water and solution is diluted upto 5 litre. Normality of solution is
10.
(A) 5 × 10–3 (B) 2 × 10–2 N (C) 5N
y s (D) 0.2 N
x gm of NaOH required to neutralise 15 meq of HCl. To neutralise same meq of H2SO4 and H3PO4 the
weight of NaOH will be
(A) 2x g and 3x g respectively
a l (B)
x
2
x
g and g respectively
3
11.
(C) x g for each
t (D) 3x g and 2x g respectively

100 ml Na2CO3.H2O solution containing 0.31 gm Na2CO3.H2O is mixed with same volume of decimolar
(A) Acidic
a
H2SO4 solution. Resulting solution is
(B) Neutral
12.
13.
C
(C) Alkaline
200 g (B) 400 g

(D)
(C)
Cannot determine by above data
What is the minimum molecular weight of an organic compound containing 2% carbon by weight?
(A) 600 g (D) 800 g
4 gm propane and 48 gm O2 are allowed to react to the maximum possible extent to form only CO and H2O.
volume of CO formed is (at NTP)
(A) 5.6 lit (B) 11.2 lit (C) 6.1 lit (D) 22.4 lit
1
14. For the reaction A(g) 2B(g) + C(s). What is the mole fraction of A after decomposition at a constant
2
volume and temperature, if the initial pressure is 400 mmHg and the pressure at any time is 600 mmHg ?
(A) 0.4 (B) 0.27 (C) 0.33 (D) 0.56
15. A fixed weight of Ca is converted into CaCO3 and then completely neutralised by 500 mL decimolar HCl (no
acid left at the end). The calcium chloride formed is converted into plaster of paris. Weight of plaster of
paris formed is
(A) 5 gm (B) 4.2 gm (C) 8.8 gm (D) 3.625 g
16. A metallic oxide (MO) contains 40% oxygen. The equivalent weight of M is
(A) 24 (B) 12 (C) 6 (D) 48
17. When 400 g of a 20% solution by weight was cooled, 50 g of solute precipitated. The percentage concen-
tration of remaining solution is
(A) 8.57 (B) 12.25 (C) 15 (D) 7.5

18. 10 ml of gaseous hydrocarbon on combustion gives 40 ml of CO2(g) and 50 ml of H2O (vapours). The
hydrocarbon is
(A) C4H5 (B) C8H10 (C) C4H8 (D) C4H10
19. 4.9 g KClO3 is heated for some time then weight loss was 0.384 g. The percentage of KClO3 decomposed
is
(A) 20 (B) 30 (C) 40 (D) 80
20. 0.5 g of a sample of H2O2 required 20 ml 1 N KMnO4 in a titration in the presence of H2SO4. Purity of H2O2
21.
is
(A) 17 % (B) 34 % (C) 51 %
The ratio of the number of molecules contained in 1g of NH3 and 1g of N2 is
(D)
e R 68 %
22.
(A)
150 ml
17 : 28
M
(B) 28 : 17 (C)
KMnO4 in acidic medium can oxidise completely
y s
17 : 14 (D) 14 : 17
l
10
(A) 150 ml 1M Fe2+ (B) 75 ml 1M Fe2+
23.
(C) 75 ml 1M C2O42–
t a (D) 150 ml 1M C2O42–

1 gm of an oxalate sample (C2O 42– + Impurities) is dissolved in water and diluted upto 100 ml.
24. C
(A) 33
10 ml of
N
a
10 ml of this solution is completely oxidised with 15 ml
(B)
NaOH, 30 ml of
N
66
N
(C)
N
10
78
KMnO4. The percentage purity of the sample is
(D) 90
KOH, 75 ml of Ba(OH)2 are mixed together. The normality of resulting

2 10 5
solution is
(A) 0.02 N (B) 0.2 N (C) 0.5 N (D) 0.05 N
N
25. A piece of Ca is dissolved in 40 ml of HCl completely. The excess of acid was neutralized by 15 ml of
10
N
NaOH. The weight of Ca is
5
(A) 0.24 g (B) 0.024 g (C) 0.012 g (D) 0.40 g
TOPIC : GASEOUS STATE

EXERCISE # 01
1 If the collision frequency of a gas at 1 atm pressure is Z then its collision frequency at 0.5 atm. is
(A) 1.0Z (B) 0.707Z (C) 2Z (D) 0.50 Z
2 The correct expression for the vander waal’s equation of states is-
(A) (p + a/n2 V2) (V – nb) = nRT (B) (p + an2/V2) (V – nb) = nRT
(C) (p + an2/V2) (V – b) = nRT (D) (p + an2/V2) (V – nb) = nRT

3 The term that accounts for intermolecular force in vander Waal’s equation” for non ideal gas is
(A) RT (B) V-b (C) (P + a / V2) (D) [RT]–1
4 The critical temperature of a substance is
(A) The temperature above which the substance undergoes decomposition
(B) The temperature above which a substance can exist only as a ga,s
(C) Boiling point of the substance
(D) All are wrong
5 Critical temperature of the gas is the temperature
(A) Below which it cannot be liquified (B)
e R
Above which it cannot be liquified
s
(C) At which it occupies 22.4 L of volume (D) At which one mole of it occupies volume of 22.4 L
6 Molecular attraction and size of the molecules in a gas are negligible at- .
(A)
(C)
Critical point
High temperature and low pressure
l
(B)
(D)
y
High pressure
Low temperature and high pressure.
a
7 A box of 1 L capacity is divided into two equal compartments by a thin partition which are filled with 2g H2
and 16gm CH4 respectively. The pressure in each compartment is recorded as P atm. The total pressure
8
(A) P
a t
when partition is removed will be
(B) 2P (C) P/2 (D) P/4
Which mixture of gases at room temperature does not obey Dalton’s law of partial pressure
(A) NO2 and O2 (B) NH3 and HCI (C) CO and CO2 (D) SO2 and SO3
9
10
C
Average K. E. of CO2 at 27°C is E. The average kinetic energy of N2 at the same temperature will be
(A) E (B) 22E (C) E/22 (D) E/ 2
Helium atom is twice times heavier than a hydrogen molecule. At 25°C the average KE.of helium atom is-
(A) Twice that of hydrogen (B) Same as that of hydrogen
(C) Four times that of hydrogen (D) Half that of hydrogen .
11 The rate of diffusion of hydrogen is about
(A) One half that of He (B) 1.4 times that of He
(C) Twice that of He (D) Four times that of He
12 The velocity possessed by most of the gaseous molecules is
(A) Average velocity (B) Most probable velocity
(C) R.M.S. velocity (D) None of these.
13 Which is not true in case of an ideal gas
(A) It can be converted into a liquid
(B) There is no interaction between the molecules
(C) All molecules of the gas move with same speed
(D) At a given temperature PV is proportional to the amount of the gas. .

14 A 2.24L cyclinder of oxygen at N. T. P. is found to develop a leakage. When the leakage was plugged the
pressure dropped to 570 mm of Hg. The number of moles of gas that escaped will be
(A) 0.025 (B) 0.050 (C) 0.075 (D) 0.09
15 A football bladder contains equimolar proportions of H2 and O2. The composition by mass of the mixture
effusing out of punctured football is in the ratio (H2 : O2)
(A) 1:4 (B) 2. 2 : 1 (C) 1:2 2 (D) 4: 1
16 Which of the following samples weighing 10g. contains the greatest number of atoms -
17
(A) NH3 (B) O2 (C) C2H6 (D)
e R CO2
At constant temperature 200 cm3 of N2 at 720 mm and 400 cm3 of O2 at 750 mm pressure are put together
s
in a one Iitre flask. The final pressure of mixture is
(A) 111 mm (B) 222 mm (C) 333 mm (D) 444 mm
18
mass of gas at the same pressure is
(A) 273 K (B) –273°C
l (C) y
10 gm of a gas at NTP occupies 5 litres. The temp. at which the volume becomes double for the same
273°C (D) 546°C

19
(A)
t a
A gas is said to behave like an ideal gas when the reaction PV/T = constant, holds. When do you expect
a real gas to behave like and ideal gas -
When temperature and pressure are low
20
(B)
(C)
C
(D)
a
When temperature and pressure are high
When temperature is low and pressure is high
When temperature is high and pressure is low.
26 c.c. of CO2 are passed over red hot coke. The volume of CO evolved is
(A) 15 c.c (B) 10 c.c. (C) 32 c.c. (D) None
21 The oxygen and hydrogen formed during electrolysis of Water are in the weight ratio of
(A) 2:1 (B) 8:1 (C) 16 : 1 (D) 1:8
22 If temperature and volume are same; the pressure of a gas obeying Vander Waals equation is
(A) Smaller than that of an ideal gas (B) Larger than that of an ideal gas
(C) Same as that of an ideal gas (D) None of these.
23 An open vessel containing air is heated from 27°C to 127°C. The fraction of air originally present which
goes out of it is
3 1 2 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
4 4 3 8
24 A closed vessel contains equal number of oxygen and hydrogen molecules at a total pressure of 740 mm.
If oxygen is removed from the system, the pressure - .
(A) Becomes half of 740 mm. (B) Remains unchanged
(C) Becomes 1/9th of 740 mm. (D) Becomes double of 740 mm.

25 Which of the following is valid at absolute zero - .
(A) KE of the gas becomes zero, but molecular motion does not become zero.
(B) KE of the gas becomes zero and the molecular motion also becomes zero.
(C) KE of the gas decreases but does not become zero.
(D) None of these.
26 If a gas is expanded at constant temperature - .
(A) The pressure decreases (B) The K.E. of molecules remains the same
27
(C) The K.E. ofthemolecules decreases (D)
R
The No. of molecules of the gas increases.
e
Which of the following gas when passed through dilute blood will imparts a cherry red colour to the solution
s
(A) CO2 (B) COCI2 (C) NH3 (D) CO
28 Most probable velocity, average velocity and root mean square velocity are related as
29
(A) 1:1.128 :1.224 (B) 1:1.128:1.424
l
(C)
y
1:2.128:1.224 (D) 1:1.428:1.442
The behaviour of temporary gases like CO2 approaches that of permanent gases like N2, O2 etc. as we go-
a
(A) Below critical temp. (B) Above critical temp.
(C) Above absolute zero (D) Below absolute zero.
30
31
(A) CO
a t
Which of the following gases is adsorbed strongly by charcoal
(B) N2 (C) H2 (D) NH3
Which of the following does not change during compression of a gas at constant temperature
C
(A) Density of a gas (B) The distance between molecules
(C) Average velocity of molecules (D) The number of collisions on one cm per sec.
32 To which of the following gaseous mixture, the Dalton’s law of partial pressure will not apply
(A) Hydrogen and carbon dioxide (B) Hydrogen and nitrogen
(C) Nitric oxide and oxygen (D) Oxygen and nitrogen.
33 Reducing the pressure from 1.0 atm to 0.5 atm would change the number of molecules in one mole of
ammonia to -
(A) 75% of initial volume (B) 50% of initial volume
(C) 25% of initial volume (D) None ofthese
34 In a closed flask of 5litres, 1.0 gm of H2 is heated from 300 to 600 K. Which statement is not correct
(A) Pressure of the gas increases (B) The rate of collision increases
(C) The number of moles of gas increases (D) The energy of gaseous molecules increases.
35 In case of hydrogen and helium the Vander Waals-forces are
(A) Strong (B) Very strong (C) Weak (D) Very weak
36 Which of the following represents the avogadro number
(A) Number of molecules present-in 1 L of gas at N.T.P.
(B) Number of molecules present in 22.4 ml of gas at N. T. P.
(C) Number of molecules present in 22.4 L of gas at 298K and 1 atm. pressure
(D) Number of molecules present in one mole of gas at any temp. and pressure.

37 The mean values of densities of liquid and saturated vapour for any stable substance are a linear function
of
(A) Temperature (B) Pressure (C) Volume (D) None ofthese.
38 Adiabatic demagnetisation is a technique used for - .
(A) Adiabatic expansion of a gas (B) Production of low temperature
(C) Production of high temperatures (D) None of these
39 Which of the following can be most readily liquefied? Given value of ‘a’ for NH3 = 4.17, CO2 = 3.59,
40
SO2 = 6.71, CI2 = 6.49)
(A) NH3 (B)
Which of the following is true
CI2 (C) SO2
e
(D)
R CO2
41
(A) urms > v >  (B) urms < v <  (C)
s
urms > v < 
y
(D) urms < v > 
Hydrogen and Argon are kept in two separate vessels at constant temperature and pressure
(A)
(B)
(C)
Both contain same number of atoms
l
The number of atoms of argon is half that of hydrogen.
a
The number of atoms of argon is double that of hydrogen
42
(D)
(A) 1: 2
a t
None ofthese.
The vapour densities of CH4 and O2 are in the ratio 1 : 2 . The ratio of rates of diffusions of O2 and CH4 at
same P and T is
(B) 2:1 (C) 1 : 1.424 (D) 1 : 414 : 1
43
44
C
In a closed flask of 5 litre, 1.0g of H2 is heated from 300 to 600K. Which statement is not correct
(A)
(C)
Pressure of the gas increases
The number of moles of gas increases
(B)
(D)
The rate of collision increases
The energy of gaseous molecules increases
If pressure of a gas contained in a closed vessel is increased by 0.4% when heated by 1°C its initial
temperature must be
(A) 250K (B) 250°C (C) 2500K (D) 25°C
45 The volume of ammonia obtained by the combination of 10ml of N2 and 30ml H2 is
(A) 20ml (B) 40ml (C) 30ml (D) 10ml
46 There is 10 litre of a gas at STP. Which of the following changes keeps the volume constant
(A) 273 K and 2 atm (B) 273°C and 2 atm
(C) 546°C and 0.5 atm (D) 0°C and 0 atm
47 The density of oxygen gas at 25°C is 1.458 mg/litre at one atmosphere. At what pressure will oxygen have
the density twice the value
(A) 0.5 atm/25°C (B) 2 atm/25°C (C) 4 atm/25°C (D) None
48 Air contains 79% N2 and 21% O2 by volume. If the barometric pressure is 750mm Hg the partial pressure
of oxygen is
(A) 157.7mm of Hg (B) 175.5 mm of Hg (C) 315.0 mm of Hg (D) None

49 At what temperature will be total kinetic energy (KE) of 0.30 mole of He be the same as the total KE of 0.40
mole of Ar at 400K
(A) 400K (B) 373 K (C) 533K (D) 300 K
50 Four particles have speed 2,3,4 and 5 cm/s respectively. Their rms speed is
(A) 3.5cm/s (B) (27/2) cm/s (C) 54 cm/s (D) ( 54 /2) cm/s
*****
1.
EXERCISE # 02
e R
A 10 litre gas is inserted into a car tyre at 4 atm and 27°C. The temperature of tyre increase to 57°C during
driving. What would be the pressure of gas during driving?
2.
(A) 3.1 atm (B) 4.4 atm (C)
s
300 mm Hg
y
(D) 2270 mm Hg
What fraction of air is expelled out if a flask containing V litre gas is heated from 27°C to 327°C?
l
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 75% (D) 10%
3. A 10 litre cylinder contains 0.4 gm x2 gas 3.2 gm y2 gas and 5.6 gm z2 gas at 27°C. Assuming ideal gas
respectively)
(A) a
behaviour of all gases, choose the correct statement. (Given atomic weight of x, y & z are 2, 8 & 14 amu
t
Partial pressure of x2, y2 and z2 are identical
(B)
C
(C)
(D)
a
Partial pressure of x2 > partial pressure of y2 = partial pressure of z2
Partial pressure of x2 = partial pressure of

y2
2
Partial pressure of x2 = 2 partial pressure of z2

4. A balloon of volume 200 litre having ideal gas at 1 atm pressure and at 27°C, when rises to a height where
atmospheric pressure is 380 mm Hg and temperature is –3°C, balloon will
(A) Contract (B) Expand
(C) No change in volume of balloon (D) Initially expand and then contract
5. 4 moles CO, 5 moles N2 and 2 mole C2H4 are placed in a 5 litre vessel at 27°C. The ratio of kinetic energy
per molecule of CO2, He and NH3 is
(A) 4:5:2 (B) 5:5:4 (C) 2:4:5 (D) 1:1:1
6. 20 ml CO was mixed with 50 ml of oxygen and the mixture was exploded. On cooling, the resulting mixture
was shaken with KOH. Find the final gaseous volume
(A) 20 ml (B) 30 ml (C) 40 ml (D) 10 ml
7. A 3 ml mixture of N2, NO and NO2 is treated with water. NO2 is absorbed and volume of gaseous mixture
becomes 2.7 ml. A ferrous sulphate solution is then shaken with residual gaseous mixture to absorb the
NO, after which the volume becomes 1.25 ml. The composition of N2, NO and NO2 in original mixture (by
mole) is
(A) 0.3 : 1.25 : 1.45 (B) 1.25 : 1.45 : 0.3 (C) 1.25 : 1.55 : 0.35 (D) 1.45 : 1.05 : 0.5
8. Which gas have compressibility factor greater than 1?
(A) NH3 (B) CO2 (C) He (D) SO2

9. CO2 and C3H8 gas is separately heated from 27°C to 127°C then
3
(A) K.E of CO2 increase by times
2
4
(B) K.E. of C3H8 increase by times
3
R
(C) K.E. of both the gases increases by times
3
10.
(D) K.E. of both the gases increases by
4
3
times
s e
A sample of 8 gm He atom at NTP is transferred from 1 litre container to 5 litre container at a constant
temperature. Correct statement is
(A)
(B)
l
The average speed of He atoms remains same
The r.m.s speed of He atoms remains same y
(C)
(D)
Both (A) & (B)
t a
The average kinetic energy of He atoms becomes one fifth to the initial
a
11. A gaseous mixture of O2 and N2 are in the ratio of 1 : 4 by weight. The ratio of molecules of N2 to O2 is
(A) 32 : 7 (B) 5:6 (C) 7 : 32 (D) 6:5
C
12. V ml SO2 effused out from a pin hole required 10 minute. If same value of CH4 is effused out from the
identical hole, it requires
(A) 20 minute (B) 2.5 minute (C) 10 minute (D) 5 minute
13. A mixture of CO and CO2 is fumed to have a density of 1.5 gm / litre at 27°C and 380 mm Hg. Molecular
weight of mixture is
(A) 72 gm (B) 87 gm (C) 48 gm (D) 74 gm
14. 2 litre flask contains air & water vapour at 27°C and at 210 mm Hg pressure. If it is connected to another 3
litre evacuated flask, at constant temperature, what will be the final pressure of the gas at equilibrium?
(Aqueous tension at 27°C is 85 mm Hg)
(A) 25 (B) 50 (C) 15 (D) 75
Cp
15. value for N2O4 is
Cv
(A) 1.67 (B) 1.4 (C) 1.33 (D) 1.0

16. Which of the following curve corresponds to ideal gas?
P
(A) (B) PV (C) P (D)
P
V2 P V V
17. The unit of van der Waal’s constant a is
(A) atm litre mol–1
(B) atm litre2 mol–2
(C) atm litre mol
(D) atm mol litre2
18. The kinetic energy of N molecules of O2 is 'x' joule at –123°C. Another sample of O2 at 27°C has a kinetic
energy of '2x' joules. The latter sample contains
(A)
(C)
N molecules of O2
N/2 molecules of O2
(B)
(D)
2 N molecules of O2
Can't predicted
e R
s
19. NH3 gas is liquefied more easily than N2. Therefore
(A) van der Waal's constant 'a' & 'b' of NH3 is greater than that of N2
(B)
(C)
(D)
a(NH3) > a(N2) but b(NH3) < b(N2)
a(NH3) < a(N2) but b(NH3) > b(N2) y
van der Waal's constant 'a' & 'b' of NH3 is less than that of N2
l
20.
100
t (B) 250
a
50 ml of gas A diffuse through a membrane in the same time as for the diffusion of 40 ml of a gas B under
identical pressure temperature conditions. If molecular weight of A is 64 that of B would be
(A) (C) 200 (D) 80
C a
TOPIC : CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
*****
EXERCISE # 01
1 Hl was heated in a closed tube at 440°C till equilibrium is obtained. At this temperature 22% of HI was
dissociated. The equilibrium constant for this dissociation will be
(A) 0.282 (B) 0.0796 (C) 0.0199 (D) 1.99
2 When 20 g of CaCO3 were put into 10 litre flask and heated to 800 °C, 35% of CaCO3 remained unreacted
at equilibrium. Kp for decomposition of CaCO3 is
(A) 1.145atm (B) 0.145 atm (C) 2.145 atm (D) 3.145 atm
3 A quantity of PCl5 was heated in a 10 litre vessel at 250°C, PCl5(g) + Cl2(g) PCl3(g) + Cl2 (g). At equilib-
rium the vessel contains 0.1 mole of PCl5, 0.20 mole of PCl3 and 0.2 mole of Cl2. The equilibrium constant
of the reaction is
(A) 0.02 (B) 0.05 (C) 0.04 (D) 0.025
4 The equilibrium SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g) is attained at 25°C in a closed container and inert gas
helium is introduced. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct
1. Concentrations of SO2, Cl2 and SO2 Cl2 change 2. More chlorine is formed
3. Concentration of SO2 is reduced 4. More SO2Cl2 is formed
Correct answer is:
(A) 1,2,3 (B) 2,3,4 (C) 3,4 (D) None

5 Which of the following is wrong
Reaction Degree of dissociation Reaction Degree of dissociation
Dd M t  Mo
(A) PCl5 PCl3 + Cl2 (B) N2O4 2NO2
d 2d
K K
(C) H2 + I2 2HI (D) A+B C+D
K 2 2 K
6 For the reaction (A) and (B)

(A) A B+C (B) D 2E given Kp1 : Kp2 : : 9 : 1
e R
(A) 3:1 (B) 36 : 1 (C)
y s
If the degree of dissociation of A and D would be same then the total pressure at equilibria (A) and (B) are
in the ratio
1:1 (D) 0.5 : 1
7
l
Which of the following graphs represents an exothermic reaction
a
t
ln Kp
ln Kp
ln Kp
ln Kp
a
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1/T 1/T 1/T 1/T
C
For the reaction 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g); H = + ve which of the following plot is correct
log Kp
log Kp
log Kp
log Kp
(A) (B) (C) (D)
1/T 1/T 1/T 1/T
9 Some gaseous equilibrium have following relation in equilibrium constants

CO + H2O CO2 + H2 ; CO + O2 CO2 ; H2 + O2 H2O
(A) K = K1K2 (B) K = (K1K2)2 (C) K = (K1K2)–1/2 (D) K = K1/ K2
H  1 1 
10 Effect of temperature on equilibrium constant is given by log K2 –log K1 = 2.303R  T  T  . Then for a
 2 1
endothermic reaction the false statement is
 1 1
(A)    = positive (B) log K2 > log K1
 T2 T1 
(C) H = positive (D) K2 > K1

11 For the reaction : 2HI(g) H2(g) + I2(g), the degree of dissociation () of HI(g) is related to equilibrium
constant Kp by the expression
1  2 KP 1  2KP 2K P 2 KP
(A) (B) (C) 1  2KP (D)
2 2 1  2 KP
12 List X List Y
(A) A B heat (i) Equilibrium constant
(B)
(C)
rb/rf
rf/rb
(ii)
(iii)
Adaptation of low temp.
e
(Equilibrium constant)–1
R
s
(D) 2A(g) + B(g) C(g) (iv) A(g) + B(g) C(g) + D(g)
(E) No effect of pressure (v) n < 0

Correct match list X and Y -
(A) A–(ii), B–(iii), C–(i), D–(v), E –(iv)
l (B)
yA–(iii), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(v) , E –(iv)
a
(C) A–(iv), B–(iii), C –(i), D–(v), E–(ii) (D) None of these
t
13 aA + bB cC + dD, H = Q KJ. If the higher yield of product is obtained by the increase in pressure and
decrease in temp. then
14
(A)
(C)
C a
(c+d) > (a+b) and Q positive
(c+d) < (a+b) and Q negative
(B)
(D)
(c+d) > (a+b) and Q negative
(c+d) < (a+b) and Q positive
When heating PCl5 then it decompose PCl3 and Cl2 in form of gas, The density of gas mixture is 70.2 and
57.9 at 200°C and 250°C. The degree of dissociation of PCl5 at 200°C and 250°C if
(A) 48.50% & 80% (B) 60% & 70% (C) 70% & 80% (D) 80% & 90%
1 1
15 If log Kp2 – log Kp1 = x  T  T  then value of x is
 1 2
1
(A) H°/2.303R (B) Hº (C) (D) None of these
2.303K
16 Series of equal reaction Represent by general equation E + F = G +H. In this equation each reaction of
series reached at equilibrium and their equilibrium constant are follows which of the following reaction
equilibrium established too late
(A) KC= 2 × 105 (B) KC = 85 (C) Kc = 0.010 (D) Kc = 7 × 108
K1
17 Equilibrium constant in condition of there reversible equation ; Cu+2 + 4NH3 Cu(NH3)4+2
K1
(A) k1k–1 (B) k1/k–1 (C) k–1 / k1 (D) (k–1)2

18 In a gaseous mixture moles of A, B and C are ‘a’ ‘b’ and ‘c’ if total volume is V litre and mole fraction of A,
B and C are XA , XB and XC then which of the following relation is incorrect.
a b
(A) XA = (B) XB=
abc abc
c
(C) XC = (D) XA + XB = 1 + Xc
abc
19 X2 + Y2
R
2XY reaction was studied at a certain temperature. In the beginning 1 mole of X2 was taken in
e
a one litre flask and 2 moles of Y2 was taken in another 2 litre flask. What is the equilibrium concentration
of X2 and Y2 (Given equilibrium concentration of [XY] = 0.6 moles/lit.
(A)
1

 2


 3  0.3  ,  3  0.3 

(B)
y
s
1  2
 

 3  0.6  ,  3  0.6 

20
(C) (1–0.3), (2–0.3)
Reaction is – 2SO2 + O2 2SO3
a l (D) (1–0.6), (2–0.6)
For the formation of one ton of SO3, what, would be the quantity of O2 required
21
(A) 0.20 Ton
For reaction
aA
a t (B) 0.02 ton (C) 2.0 Ton (D) 0.002 Ton
lL + mM. In condition of suddenly volume increase degree of dissociation a is decrease it represent
C
that.
(A) a < (l + m) (B) a = (l + m) (C) a = (l – m) (D) a > (l + m)
22 XY2 dissociates as XY2(g) XY(g) + Y(g)
Initial pressure of XY2 is 600 mm Hg. At equilibrium the total pressure is 800 mm Hg. Calculate the value
of Kp. It is assumed that the volume of the system remains unchanged
(A) 100 (B) 400 (C) 200 (D) 50
23 In a .25 litre tube occur dissociation of NO. Its initial mole is 4. If its degree of dissociation is 10%.The Kp
for Rxn 2 NO N2 + O2
1 1 1 1
(A) 2 (B) 2 (C) (D)
18  8 16 32
24 The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2 + O2 2NO is 0.0842 at 3500K. The fraction of equilibrium
mixture of N2 and O2 converted into NO is
(A) 12.66% (B) 17.2% (C) 15.9% (D) 16.0%
25 The vapour density of PCl5 is 104 but when heated to 230°C, its V.D. is reduced to 52. The degree of
dissociation of PCl5 at this temperature will be
(A) 6.8% (B) 100% (C) 46% (D) 64%

26 The value K for H2 (g) + CO2 (g) H2O (g) + CO (g) is 1.80 at 1000°C. If 1.0 mole of each H2 and CO2 are
placed in 1 litre flask, the final equilibrium concentration of CO at 1000°C will be
(A) 0.295 M (B) 0.385 M (C) 0.572M (D) 0.473 M
27 The decomposition of N2O4 to NO2 is carried out at 280°C. When equilibrium is reached, 0.2 mol of N2O4
and 2 × 10–3 mol of NO2 are present in 2 litres solution. The Kc for the reaction N2O4 2NO2 is
(A) 1 × 10–2 (B) 1 × 10–5 (C) 2 × 10–3 (D) 2 × 10–5

28 If Kp for a reaction A (g) + 2 B (g) 3C (g) + D (g) is 0.05 atm at 1000 K. Its Kc in terms of R will be
(A) 20000 R (B) 0.02 R (C) 5 × 10–5 R
e
(D)
R 5  105
R
29 An equilibrium mixture for the reaction 2 H2S (g)
(A) 0.004 (B) 0.016 (C) s

2H2 (g) + S2 (g) had one mole of hydrogen sulphide
0.2 mole of H2 and 0.8 mole of S2 in a 2 litre vessel. The value of Kc in mole litre–1 is
y 0.080 (D) 0.160

30
N2 (g) + O2 (g) 2NO (g)
a l
K1 and K2 are equilibrium constant for reactions (A) and (B)
.............. (A)
NO (g)
Then
1
2
a t
N2 (g) +
1
O (g)
2 2
.............. (B)
31
C
(A)
 1 
K1 =  
 K2 
2
(B) K1 = K 22
The equilibrium constant for the reaction

Zn (s) + Cu2+ (aq)
(C) K1 = K
Zn2+ (aq) + Cu (s) and Cu (s) + 2 Ag+ (aq)

1
2
(D) K1 = (K2)0
Cu2+ (aq) + 2Ag (s) are K1 and K2

respectively. Then the equilibrium constant for the reaction
Zn (s) + 2 Ag+ (aq) Zn2+ (aq) + 2 Ag (s) will be
(A) K1 + K2 (B) K1 × K2 (C) K1 / K2 (D) K1 – K2

32 For an equilibrium change involving gaseous phase, the forward reaction is firs order while the reverse
reaction is second order. The unit of Kp for the forward equilibrium is
(A) Atm (B) Atm2 (C) Atm–1 (D) Atm–2
33 Ammonia forms complexes with Ag+ according to the following reactions
(i) Ag[H2O]2 + NH3(aq) [Ag[NH3] [H2O (aq)]+ + H2O(l)
(ii) [Ag(NH3)(H2O) (aq)]+ + NH3(aq) Ag (NH3)2+ (aq) + H2O(l)
The equilibrium constants of equilibrium (i) and (ii) are 2.0 × 103 and 8.3 × 103 respectively. Equilibrium
constant of the following reaction [Ag(H2O)2(aq)+ + 2NH3(aq) Ag(NH3)2+ + 2H2O (l) will be -
(A) 4.15 (B) 2.0 × 103 (C) 8.3 × 103 (D) 16.6 × 106

34 Two is the equilibrium constant for the reaction A2 + B2 2AB at a given temperature. What is the degree
–
of dissociation for A2 or B2
1 2
(A) 0.2 (B) 0.5 (C) (D)
1 2 1 2
35 At temperature, T, a compound AB2(g) dissociates according to the reaction 2AB2(g) 2AB(g) + B2(g)
with a degree of dissociation x, which is small compared with unity, the expression for kp, in terms of x and
R
the total pressure, P is -
36
(A)
Px 3
2
(B)
For the equilibrium CaCO3(s)

Px 2
2
(C)
s
Px3
3
(D)
e Px 2
2
CaO(s) + CO2(g) which of the following expressions is correct
(A)
(C)
Kp = [CaO] [CO2] / [CaCO3]
Kp = PCO2
l
(B)
(D)
y Kp = [PCaO × PCO2] / PCaCO3
All of these
a
37 One mole of the N2 is mixed with 3 moles of H2 in a litre container. If 50% of H2 is converted into ammonia
by the reaction. N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) 2NH3 (g), then the total number of moles of gas a the equilibrium are
38
(A) 1.5
a t (B)
For the system A(g) + 2B (g)
4.5 (C) 3.0
C (g) , the equilibrium concentration are
A = 0.06 mol L–1 ; B = 0.12 mol L–1 ; C = 0.216 mol L–1 . The Keq of the reaction is
(D) 6.0
C
(A) 250 (B) 416 (C) 4 × 10–3 (D) 125
39 If K1 represent the equilibrium constant for reaction H2 + I2 2HI & K2 for ½ I2 HI, the relation between
K1 & K2 would be
(A) K1 × K2 = 1 (B) K 1 × K2 = 1 (C) K 1 = K2 (D) K1 = K2
40 In a Bodenstein experiment, one mol H2 and two mol I2 are taken initially in a one litre flask. If at equilibrium
0.5 mol H2 are present, the equilibrium concentrations of I2 and HI in mol l–1 are
(A) 0.5 , 1.0 (B) 1.0, 0.5 (C) 1.5 , 1.0 (D) 1.5 , 0.5
41 The reaction : CH3COOH + C2H5OH CH3COOC2H5 + H2–O is studied in a 2l vessel by taking initially a
mol acetic acid and b mole ethanol. At equilibria, x mol each of ester and water are formed. The value of K
for this reaction is equal to
4x 2 x2
(A) (B)
 a  x b  x   a  x  b  x 
2x 2 x2
(C) (D)
 a  x b  x  2  a  x  b  x 

42 At a total equilibrium pressure of 1.0 atmosphere, the degree of dissociation of phosgene is 0.2
COCl2(g) CO (g) + Cl2 (g)
Now the same equilibrium is established at the same temperature in presence of N2 gas at a partial
pressure of 0.4 atm. in a total pressure of 1.0 atm. The new degree of dissociation, , is –
(A)  < 0.2 (B)  > 0.2 (C)  = 0.2 (D) =0
43 In the study of the reaction
Cl2 + PCl3 PCl5
e R
partial pressures of Cl2, PCl3 and PCl5 at equilibrium are 0.1, 0.1 and 0.2 atm respectively at 250°C. At the
same temperature, in another experiment on the same reaction, at equilibrium the partial pressures of PCl3
and Cl2 are half those in the first experiment. The partial pressure of the PCl5 at equilibrium in the second
experiment is
(A)
(C)
One–fourth of the first
One–eight of the first
(B)
(D) s
Half of the first
y
One–third of the first
44
a l
At a given temperature the following reaction is allowed to reach equilibrium in a vessel of volume V1 litre.
The degree of dissociation is 1 . If by keeping the temperature fixed the volume of the reaction vessel is
doubled (assuming the degrees of dissociation to be small) the new degree of dissociation shall be
PCl5
(A) 21
a t
PCl3 + Cl2
(B)
1
2
(C) 21 (D) 2 . 1
45
C
For the general reaction
A nB
the degree of dissociation is measured from vapour density measurements. If the degree of dissociation,
the observed and theoretical vapour densities be , d0 and dt respectively, then
dO  dt dO  dt  dO  dt n  1 dO  dt
(A) = (B) = (C) = (D)  =
dt  n  1 dt dt dO  n  1
46 The correct expression for equilibrium constant Kc, for the reaction
1
H2(g) + O (g) H2O (g) is
2 2
1
(A) [H2O] / [H2] [ O] (B) PH2O / PO1/22 . PH2
2 2
1
(C) [H2O] / [H2] [O2]1/2 (D) PH2 O / PO2 . PH2
2

47 The reversible reaction
Cu(NH3)42+ + SO32– Cu (NH3)3SO3 + NH3
is at equilibrium. What would not happen if ammonia is added –

(A) [SO32–] would increase
(B) [Cu (NH3)3 SO3] would increase
(C) The value of equilibrium constant would not change
R
(D) [Cu (NH3)32+ ] would increase
48 For the irreversible reaction I2 + 2S2O32– 

 2I– + S4O62– the correct statement is
(A)
(B)
s e
Addition of potassium iodide would lead to depending of the violet colour
Addition of BaCl2 will make the reaction faster due to removal of I– as Bal2
(C)
(D)
moles of thiosulphate reacted
None of these
l y
The number of moles of tetrathiosulphate formed at the end of the reaction would be equal to half the
49 At a certain temperature, KC for

SO2(g) + NO2(g)
t a
SO3(g) + NO (g) is 16
If we take one mole each of all the four gases, what will be equilibrium concentration of NO2 and NO
50
respectively -
(A)
C
0.4, 1.6
a (B) 0.6 , 0.6 (C) 0.6, 0.4 (D)
The reaction between thiocyanate and ferric ion is represented by the reaction
SCN– (aq) + Fe+3 (aq) [Fe (SCN)–2
0.4 , 0.4
Colourless yellow deep red

Addition of thiocyanate ion to the equilibrium mixture will make
(A) The solution more deep red (B) The solution colourless
(C) The solution yellow (D) The concentration of the complex ion to decrease
*****
TOPIC : IONIC EQUILIBRIUM & ACID BASE
EXERCISE # 01
1 Pure water is kept in a vessel and it remains exposed to atmospheric CO2 which is absorbed then its pH
will be
(A) Greater than 7 (B) Less than 7
(C) 7 (D) Depends on ionic product of water
2 Lewis acid are those substances :
(A) Which accept electron pair (B) which provide H+ ion in the solution
(C) Which give electron pair (D) Which accept OH– ion

3 The pH of a soft drink is 3.82. It hydrogen ion concentration will be :
(A) 1.96 × 10–2 mol/l (B) 1.96 × 10–3 mol/l (C) 1.5 × 10–4 mol/l (D) 1.96 × 10–1 mol/l
4 The solubility product of a salt AB is 1 × 10–8. In a solution concentration of A is 10–3 M. The AB will
precipitate when the concentration of B will be :
(A) 10–7 M (B) 10–4 M (C) 10–5 M (D) 10–6 M
5 A monoprotic acid in a 0.1 M solution ionizes to 0.0001%. Its ionization constant is :
(A) l1.0 × 10–3 (B) 1.0 × 10–6
6
(C) 1.0 × 10–8 (D) 1.0 × 10–10
e R
In a solution of pH =5, more acid is added in order to reduce the pH = 2. The increase in hydrogen ion
concentration is :
7
(A) 100 times (B) 1000 times (C)
y s
3 times (D) 5 times
At 298 K, the solubility product of PbCl2 is 1.0 × 10–6. What will be the solubility of PbCl2 in moles/litre :
l
(A) 6.3 × 10–3 (B) 1.0 × 10–3 (C) 3.0 × 10–3 (D) 4.6 × 10–14
8 At 90ºC pure water has [H3O+] = 10–6M, the value of Kw at this temperature will be :
9
(A) 10–6
only with :
t
(B)
a
10–12 (C) 10–14 (D) 10–8
When equal volumes of the following solutions are mixed, precipitation of AgCl (Ksp = 1.8 × 10–10) will occur
10
(A)
(C)
C a
10–4 M Ag+ and 10–4 M Cl–
10–6 M Ag+ and 10–6 M Cl–
(B)
(D)
10–5 M Ag+ and 10–5 M Cl–
10–10 M Ag+ and 10–10 M Cl–
Why pure NaCl is precipitated when HCl gas is passed in a saturated solution of NaCl :
(A) Impurities dissolves in HCl
(B) The value of [Na+] and [Cl–] becomes smaller than Ksp of NaCl
(C) The value of [Na+] and [Cl–] becomes greater than Ksp of NaCl
(D) HCl dissolves in the water
11 In the reaction NH3 + BF3 NH3  BF3, BF3 is
(A) Lewis acid (B) Lewis based

(C) Neither Lewis acid nor Lewis base (D) Lewis acid and Lewis base both
–23
12 Ksp value of Al(OH)3 and Zn(OH)2 are 8.5 x 10 and 1.8 x 10–14 respectively. If NH4OH is added in a solution
of Al3+ and Zn2+, which will precipitate earlier
(A) Al (OH)3 (B) Zn(OH)2 (C) Both together (D) None
13 In a saturated solution of electrolyte, the ionic product of their concentration are constant at constant
temperature and this constant for electrolyte is known as
(A) Ionic product (B) Solubility product (C) Ionization costant (D) Dissociation constant
–7
14 One litre of water contains 10 mole hydrogen ions. The degree of ionization in water will be
(A) 1.8 x 10–7% (B) 0.8 x 10–9% (C) 3.6 x 10–7% (D) 3.6 x 10–9%

15 The following reaction is known to occur in the body CO2 + H2O H2CO3 H+ + HCO3–. If CO2
escapes from the system
(A) pH will decrease (B) Hydrogen ion concentration will decrease
(C) H2CO2 concentration will be unaltered (D) The forward reaction will be promoted
16 HClO is a weak acid. The concentration of H+ ions in 0.1 M solution of HClO (Ka = 5 x 10–8) will be equal to
(A) 7.07 x 10–5 m (B) 5 x 10–9 m (C) 5 x 10–7 m (D) 7 x 10–4 m
17 Acids are substances which can release hydrogen ions. In neutral solution
(A)
(B)
There is complete absence of hydroxyl ions
e R
Hydrogen and hydroxyl ions are both in small amount but present in equivalent amounts
s
(C) There is a complete absence of hydrogen ions
(D) Hydrogen and hydroxyl ions are both completely absent
18 The addition of solid sodium carbonate to pure water causes
(A)
(C)
l
An increase in hydronium ion concentration (B)
No change in acidity (D) y
An increase in alkalinity
A decrease in hydroxide ion concentration
19
(A) H+
t (B) PH3
a
Which of the following cannot be considered to be considered to be an acid (Lewis concept)
(C) NH4+ (D) BF3
a
20 H2O can act either as an acid or a base. Which of the following reaction bast illustrates the behaviour of
water as a base
(A) HCl + H2O  H3O+ + Cl– (B) HCl + NaOH  NaCl + H2O
21
C
(C)
(A)
(C)
H2O + NH2–  NH3 + OH–
A solution of sodium acetate in water will
True red litmus blue
No effect litmus
(D)
(B)
(D)
H2O + NH3  NH4+ + OH–
Turn blue litmus red

Decolourises litmus
22 Which of the following oxides will not give OH– in aqueous solution
(A) Fe2O3 (B) MgO (C) Li2O (D) K2O
23 Solubility product of a sulphide MS is 3 x 10–25 and that of another sulphide NS is 4 x 10–40. In ammonical
solution
(A) Only NS gets precipitated (B) Only MS gets precipitated
(C) Neither sulphide precipitates (D) Both sulphide precipitate
24 In the reaction HCl + H2O H3O+ + Cl–
(A) H2O is the conjugate base of HCl acid (B) Cl– is the conjugate base of HCl acid
(C) Cl– is the conjugate acid of H2O base (D) H3O+ is the conjugate base of HCl
25 Which of the anhydrous salts when come in contact with water turns blue
(A) Ferrous sulphate (B) Copper sulphate (C) Zinc sulphate (D) Cobalt sulphate
26 In the reaction 2H2O H3O+ + OH–, water is
(A) A weak base (B) A weak acid

(C) Both a weak acid and a weak base (D) Neither an acid nor a base

27 If the concentration of CrO4– ions in a saturated solution of silver chromate is 2 x 10–4. Solubility product of
silver chromate will be
(A) 4 x 10–8 (B) 8 x 10–12 (C) 16 x 10–12 (D) 32 x 10–12
28 The pH value of 1.0 x 10–8 M HCl solution is less than 8 because
(A) HCl is completely ionised at this concentration
(B) The ionization of water is negligible
(C) The ionization of water cannot be assumed to be negligible in comparison with this low concentra
29
(D)
tion of HCl
The pH cannot be calculated at such a low concentration of HCl
e R
In its 0.2 M solution, an acid ionises to an extent of 60%. Its hydrogen ion concentration is
30
(A) 0.6 M (B) 0.2 M (C)
The colour of CuCr2O7 solution in water is green because
y s
0.12 M (D) None of these
l
(A) Cu++ ion is blue and Cr2O7– ion is yellow (B) Both the ions are green
(C) Cr2O7– ion is green (D) Cu++ ion is green
31
32
(A)
t
5ml pure water (B)
a
Which of the following does not make any change in pH when added to 10 ml dilute HCl
20 ml pure water (C)
Which is incorrect for buffer solution
10 ml HCl (D) Same 20 ml dilute HCl
(A)
(B)
C
(C)
(D)
a
It contains weak acid and its conjugate base
It contains weak base and its conjugate acid
In this there is very less change is pH value when very less amount of acid and base is mixed
None of the above
33 One weak acid (like CH3COO4) and its strong base together with salt (like CH3COONa) is a buffer solution.
In which pair this type of characteristic is found
(A) HCl and NaCl (B) NaOH and NaNO3 (C) KOH and KCl (D) NH4OH and NH4Cl
34 Any precipitate is formed when
(A) Solution becomes saturated
(B) The value of ionic product is less that than the value of solubility product
(C) The value of ionic product is equal than the value of solubility product
(D) The value of ionic product is greater than the value of solubility product
35 A solution of sodium bicarbonate in water turns
(A) Phenolphthalein pink (B) Methyl orange yellow
(C) Methyl orange red (D) Blue litmus red
36 Electrolytes when dissolved in water dissociate into their constituent ions. The degree of dissociation of an
electolyte increases with
(A) Increasing concentration of the electrolyte (B) Decreasing concentration of the electrolyte
(C) Decreasing temperature (D) Presence of a substance yielding a common ion

37 Some salts although containing two different metallic elements give test for only one of them in solution.
Such salts are
(A) Double salts (B) Normal salts (C) Complex salts (D) Basic salts
38 Correct statement is
(A) NH4Cl gives alkaline solution in water (B) CH3COONa gives acidic solution in water
(C) CH3COOH is a weak acid (D) NH4OH is a strong base
39 The solubility product of BaSO4 is 1.5 x 10–9. The precipitation in a 0.01 M Ba2+ solution will start, on adding
40
H2SO4 of concentration
(A) 10–9 M (B) 10–8 M (C) 10–7 M
e
(D)
R 10–6 M
The solubility product of a sparingly soluble salt AB at room temperature is 1.21 x 10–6. Its molar solubility
is
(A) 1.21 x 10–6 (B) 1.21 x 10–3 (C)
y s
1.1 x 10–4 (D) 1.1 x 10–3
l
HC2O4– + PO4– – – HPO4 – – + C2O4– –
Which are the two Bronsted bases

(A)
(C)
–
HC2O and PO
4
t 4
HC2O4– and HPO4– –

–––
a (B)
(D)
HPO4– – and C2O4– –
PO4– – – and C2O4– –
42
43
(A) 20 – 80
a
Under the same conditions, which mixture by volume of one molar potassium hydroxide and one molar
nitric acid solution produces the highest temperature
C (B)

In the equilibrium HClO4 + H2O 
25 – 75
 H O+ + ClO – :
 3 4
(C) 50 – 50 (D) 75 – 25
(A) HClO4 is the conjugate acid of H2O (B) H2O is the conjugate acid of H3O+|
(C) H3O+ is the conjugate base of H2O (D) ClO4– is the conjugate base of HClO4
44 Addition of which chemical will decrease the hydrogen ion concentration of an acetic acid solution :
(A) NH4Cl (B) Al2(SO4)3 (C) AgNO3 (D) NaCN
45 The pH of a solution is 5.0. If its hydrogen ion concentration is decreased hundred times, then the solution
will be :
(A) More acid (B) Neutral (C) Basic (D) Of the same acidity
46 When a buffer solution of sodium acetate and acetic acid is diluted with water :
(A) Acetate ion concentration increases (B) H+ ion concentration increases
(C) OH– ion concentrtion increases (D) H+ ion concentration remain unaltered
47 The pH of a buffer solution containing 25 ml of 1M CH3COONa and 25 ml of 1M CH3COOH will be apprecia-
bly affected by 5ml of :
(A) 1M CH3COOH (B) 5M CH3COOH (C) 5M HCl (D) 1M NH4OH
48 0.2 molar solution of formic acid is ionized 3.2%. Its ionization constant is :
(A) 9.6 × 10–3 (B) 2.1 × 10–4 (C) 1.25 × 10–6 (D) 4.8 × 10–5

[Salt]
49 The pH of a simple sodium acetate buffer is given by pH = pKa + log
[Acid]
Ka of acetaic acid = 1.8 × 10–5

If [Salt] = [Acid] = 0.1M, the pH of the solution would be about :
(A) 7 (B) 4.7 (C) 5.3 (D) 1.4
50 With reference to protonic acids, which of the following statements is correct :
51
(A)
(C)
PH3 is more basic than NH3
PH3 is equally basic as NH3
(B)
(D)
PH3 is less basic than NH3
e R
PH3 is amphoteric while NH3 is basic
Solubility of a slat M2X3 is y mol dm–3. The solubility product of the salt will be
52
(A) 6y4 (B) 64y4 (C)
y s
36 y5 (D) 108 y5
If the solubility product of AgBrO3 and Ag2SO4 are 5.5 x 10–5 and 2 x 10–5 respectively, the relationship
between the solubilities of these can be correctly represented as
53
(A) SAgBrO3 > SAg2SO4 (B)
a l
SAgBrO3 < SAg2SO4 (C) SAgBrO3 = SAg2SO4
The following equilibrium exists in an aqueous solution of hydrogen sulphide :
(D) SAgBrO3 » SAg2SO4
t
H2S H+ + HS–
If dilute HCl is added to an aqueous solution of H2S without any change in temperature
(A)
(B)
C
(C)
(D)
a
The equilibrium constant will change
The concentration of HS– will increase
The concentration of undissociated H2S will decrease
The concentration of HS– will decrease
54 The hydrogen ion concentration of a 0.006 M benzoic acid solution is (Ka = 6 x 10–5)
(A) 0.6 x 10–4 (B) 6 x 10–4 (C) 6 x 10–5 (D) 3.6 x 10–4
55 If the solubility products of AgCl and AgBr are 1.2 x 10–10 and 3.5 x 10–13 respectively, then the relation
between the solubilities (denoted by the symbol ‘S’) of these salts can correctly berepresented as
(A) S of AgBr is less than that of AgCl (B) S of AgBr is greater than that of AgCl
(C) S of AgBr is equal to that of AgCl (D) S of AgBr is 106 times greater than that of AgCl
56 The sulphide ion concentration [S2–] in saturated H2S solution is 1 x 10–22. Which of the following sulphides
should be quantitative precipitated by H2S in the presence of dil. HCl
Sulphide Solubility product
(I) 1.4 x 10–16
(II) 1.2 x 10–22
(III) 8.2 x 10–46
(IV) 5.0 x 10–34
(A) I, II (B) III, IV (C) II, III, IV (D) Only I

57 The solubility product constant Ksp of Mg(OH)2 is 9.0 x 10–12. If a solution is 0.010 M with respect to Mg2+
ion, what is the maximum hydroxide ion concentration which could be present without causing the precipi-
tation of Mg(OH)2
(A) 1.5 x 10–7 M (B) 3.0 x 10–7 M (C) 1.5 x 10–5 m (D) 3.0 x 10–5 M
58 A physician wishes to prepare a buffer solution at pH = 3.85 that efficiently resists changes in pH yet
contains only small concentration of the buffering agents. Which of the following weak acids together with
its sodium salt would be best to use
R
(A) m-chlorobenzoic acid (pKa = 3.98) (B) p-chlorocinnamic acid (pKa = 4.41)
(C) 2,5-dihydroxy benzoic acid (pKa = 2.97) (D) Acetoacetic acid (pKa = 3.58)
59
sodium hydride (NaH) is dissolved in water
(A) H– (aq) + H2O  H2O (B)
s e
The hydride ion H– is stronger base than its hydroxide ion OH–. Which of the following reaction will occur if
H– (aq) + H2O (l)  OH– + H2
60
(C) H– + H2O  No reaction
l
(D)
y
None of these
The solubility product of CuS, Ag2S,HgS are 10–31, 10–44, 10–54 respectively. The solubilities of these sulphides
are in the order
(A)
(C)
Ag2S > CuS > HgS
t
HgS > Ag2S > CuS
a (B)
(D)
Ag2S > HgS > CuS
CuS > Ag2S > HgS
a
61 For two acids A and B, pKa = 1.2 pKb = 2.8 respectively in value, then which is true
(A) A and B both are equally acidic (B) A is stronger than B
C
(C) B is stronger than A (D) Neither A nor B is strong
62 pKa of a weak acid is defined as
1 1 1
(A) log10 Ka (B) log10 K a
(C) log10 K (D) –log10 K
a a
63 The dissociation constant of an acid HA is 1 x 10–5. The pH of 0.1 molar solution of the acid will be
(A) Five (B) Four (C) Three (D) One
64 If the pH of a solution of an alkali metal hydroxide is 13.6, the concentration of hydroxide is
(A) Between 0.1 M and 1 M (B) More than 1 M
(C) Less than 0.001 M (D) Between 0.01 M and 1 M
65 If 50 ml of 0.2 M KOH is added to 40 ml of 0.5 M HCOOH, the pH of the resulting solution is (Ka = 1.8 x 104)
(A) 3.4 (B) 7.5 (C) 5.6 (D) 3.75
66 A solution of weak acid HA containing 0.01 moles of acid per litre of solutions has pH = 4. The percentage
degree of ionisation of the acid and the ionisation constant of acid are respectively
(A) 1% , 10–6 (B) 0.01%, 10–4 (C) 1%, 10–4 (D) 0.01% , 10–6
67 According to Bronsted-Lowry concept, the correct order of relative strength of bases follows the order
(A) CH3COO– > Cl– > OH– (B) CH3COO– > OH– > Cl–
(C) OH– > CH3COO– > Cl– (D) OH– > Cl– > CH3COO–

68 How many grams of CaC2O4 (molecular weight = 128) on dissolving in distilled water will give a saturated
solution [Ksp (CaC2O4) = 2.5 x 10–9 mol2 l–2]
(A) 0.0064 g (B) 0.1280g (C) 0.0128 g (D) 1.2800g
69 The dissociation constant of HCN is 5 x 10–10. The pH of the solution prepared by mixing 1.5 mole of HCN
and 0.15 moles of KCN in water and making up the total volume to 0.5 dm3 is
(A) 7.302 (B) 9.302 (D) 8.302 (D) 10.302
70 What is the value of carbonate hardness of water sample if 100 ml of its took 5ml of 0.09N HCl solution
(Molecular weight of Na2CO3 = 106)
(A) 4.50 mg-eq/litr (B) 1.80 mg-eq/litr
*****
(C) 0.042 mg-eq/litr (D)
e R 477.00 mg-eq/litr.
EXERCISE # 02
y s
l
1. Vapour density of equilibrium mixture SO 2 Cl 2 SO 2  Cl2 is 60. The degree of dissocation is
( g) ( g) ( g)
a
(A) 0.375 (B) 0.250 (C) 0.125 (D) 0.065
2. N2(g) + 3H2(g)
then
(A)
a tKf
Kb
2NH3(g) take place in a closed container. Helium is added at constant pressure in it,
Equilibrium constant increase (B) Equilibrium constant decrease
3.
C
(C)
(A)
(C)
Increase the formation of NH3
Temperature increased
Pressure is decreased
(D)
For the melting of ice which is not favourable condition?
(B)
(D)
Reduce the formation of NH3
Pressure is increased
None of these
4. Given
P + O2 PO2 K1 = 0.1
Q + O2 QO2 K2 = 10
R + O2 RO2 K3 = 100
S + O2 SO2 K4 = 150
Which oxide is most stable?
(A) PO2 (B) QO2 (C) RO2 (D) SO2
5. Which is the correct order of pH of following aqueous solution?
(A) NH4Cl < CH3COONH4 < CH3COONa (B) CH3COONa < CH3COONH4 < NH4Cl
(C) CH3COONH4 < CH3COONa < NH4Cl (D) NH4Cl < CH3COONa < CH3COONH4
6. Solubility of AgCl is maximum in
(A) H2O (B) NH4OH (C) AgNO3 (D) Equal in all cases

7. A buffer solution is diluted which will change
(A) pH (B) Buffer capacity
(C) Both (A) & (B) (D) None of these
8. The solubility of Ag 2CrO 4 is 2.49 × 10 –2 gm per litre. The solubility product of Ag 2CrO 4 is
(Cr = 52; Ag = 108)
(A) 5.6 × 10–10 (B) 1.6875 × 10–12 (C) 6.2 × 10–5 (D) 1.86 ×10–8
9. Which is non-spontaneous reaction?
(A)
(B)
CH3COO– + NH4+
HCN + H2O H3O+ + CN–

CH3COOH + NH3
e R
s
+ –
(C) NH3 + NH3 NH + NH
4 2
y
(D) HF + HNO3 F– + H2NO3+
l
10. Which is correct order about the acidic strength?
(A) HClO4 > HClO3 > HClO2 > HClO (B) HClO3 > HBrO3 > HIO3
11.
(C) HI > HBr > HCl > HF
t a
A buffer solution is maximum effective when pH is
(D) All of these
a
pK a
(A) pKa (B) pKa + 1 (C) pKa – 1 (D)
pK a  1
C
12. The solubility of CaF2 in water is 2 × 10–4 mole/litre. The solubility of CaF2 in 0.01 M NaF solution is
(A) 1.6 × 10–7 (B) 3.2 × 10–7 (C) 8 × 10–8 (D) 6.4 × 10–7
13. NH2COONH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g)

At equilibrium, ammonia is added such that partial pressure of NH3 now equal to the total original pressure.
The ratio of final total pressure and initial pressure is
9 16 27 31
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 9 31 27
14. XY2 dissociates as XY2(g) XY(g) + Y(g)

Initial pressure of XY2 is 400 mm Hg. The total pressure at equilibrium is 600 mm Hg. Assuming volume of
system to remain constant, the value of Kp is
(A) 50 mm Hg (B) 100 mm Hg (C) 200 mm Hg (D) 400 mm Hg
15. The equilibrium, SO2Cl2(g) SO2(g) + Cl2(g) is attained at 25ºC in a closed rigid container and helium is
introduced. Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) Concentration of SO2 is reduced
(B) More Cl2 is formed
(C) Concentrations of SO2, Cl2 and SO2Cl2 changes
(D) Equilibrium does not shift in any direction

16. NH4COONH2(s) 2NH3(g)+CO2(g). If equilibrium pressure is 3 atm for the above reaction. Kp will be
4 1
(A) 4 (B) 27 (C) (D)
27 27
17. 50 ml of HCl (pH = 1) is mixed with 100 ml (pH = 2) then the pH of resulting solution will be (log2 = 0.3)
(A) 1.7 (B) 1.6 (C) 1.4 (D) 1.2
N
HCl is mixed with 150 ml N NaOH and resulting solution is made up to 1 litre. The pH of
R
18. 200 ml
10 5
e
resulting solution will be
(A) 2 (B) 4 (C) 10 (D) 12
19. In a system A(s) 2B(g) + 3C(g),
y s
if the concentration of C at equilibrium is increased by a factor of 2, it will cause the equilibrium concentra-
l
tion of B to change to
(A) Two times the original value (B) One half of its original value
(C)
t
2 2 times the original value
a (D)
1
2 2
times the original value
a
20. For NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g) if Kp = 64 atm2 equilibrium pressure of mixture is
(A) 8 atm (B) 16 atm (C) 64 atm (D) 4 atm
21.
22. C
At 90ºC pure water has [H3O+] = 10–6mol/litre. The value at KW at 90ºC is
(A) 10–6 (B) 10–8 (C) 10–12 (D) 10–14
pH of a solution is 5.0. To this solution sufficient acid is added to decrease the pH to 2.0. The increase in
hydrogen ion concentration is
(A) 100 times (B) 1000 times (C) 2.5 times (D) 10 times
23. An acidic buffer solution can be prepared by mixing solution of
(A) Sodium acetate and acetic acid (B) Ammonia and ammonium hydroxide
(C) Sulphuric acid and sodium sulphate (D) Sodium chloride and sodium hydroxide
24. The solubility product of A2B is 4 × 10–9 (mol/litre)3. Its solubility is
(A) 10–3 M (B) 41 3  10 3 M (C) 10–4 M (D) 2 × 10–5 M
25. In which of the following solvents will AgBr have highest solubility?
(A) 10–3 M NaBr (B) 10–3 M NH4OH (C) Pure water (D) 10–3 M HBr
*****

TOPIC : THERMOCHEMISTRY
EXERCISE # 01
1 Two atoms of hydrogen combine to form a molecule of hydrogen gas, the energy of the H2 molecule is :
(A) Greater than that of seperate atoms (B) Equal to that of seperate atoms
(C) Lower than that of seperate atoms (D) Some times lower and some times higher
2 Which of the following values of heat of formation indicates that the product is least stable
3
(A) –94 K cal
N2(g) + 3H2(g) is :
(B) –231.6 K cal (C) + 21.4 K cal (D)
e R +64.8 K cal
The enthalpy of formation of ammonia is –46.0 KJ mol–1. The enthalpy change for the reaction 2NH3((g) 
4
(A)
(C)
46.0 KJ mol
–23.0 kJ mol–1
–1
(B)
(D)
y s
92.0 KJ mol
–92.0 KJ mol–1
–1
Given that standard heat enthalpy of CH4, C2H4 and C3H8 are –17.9, 12.5, –24.8 Kcal/mol.
The H for CH4 + C2H4  C3H8 is
(A) –55.2 Kcal (B)
a l
–30.2 Kcal (C) 55.2 K cal (D) –19.4 Kcal
t
5 From the following data, the heat of formation of Ca(OH)2 (s) at 18ºC is ...... Kcal.
CaO(s) + H2O(l)  Ca(OH)2(s) ; H18ºC =– 15.26 Kcal .... (i)
(C)
–98.69
194.91
a
H2O(l)  H2(g) + ½O2(g); H18ºC = 68.37 Kcal
Ca(s) + ½O2(g)  CaO(s) ; H18ºC = –151.80 Kcal
C
(A) (B)
(D)
–235.43
98.69
.... (ii)
.... (iii)
6 If S + O2  SO2 ; H = – 298.2
SO2 + ½O2  SO3 ; H = –98.7
SO3 + H2O  H2SO4 ; H = –130.2
H2 + ½O2  H2O ; H = –287.3
Then the enthalpy of formation of H2SO4 at 298 K is –
(A) –814.4 KJ (B) –650.3 KJ (C) –320.5 KJ (D) –433.5 KJ
7 Given than :
Zn + ½ O2  ZnO + 84000 cal ......1
Hg + ½O2  HgO + 21700 cal ..... 2
The heat of reaction (H) for Zn + HgO  ZnO + Hg is –
(A) 105700 cal (B) 62300 cal (C) –105700 cal (D) –62300 cal

8 Given that
2C(s) + 2O2(g)  2CO2(g) H = –787 KJ
H2(g) + ½O2(g)  H2O(l) H = – 286 KJ
5
C2H2(g) + O (g)  2CO2(g) + H2O (l) H = –1310 KJ
2 2
Heat of formation of acetylene is -
9
(A) +1802 KJ
The heat of reaction for
(B) –1802 KJ (C) –800 KJ (D)
e R + 237 KJ
1
A + O2  AO is – 50K cal and
2
y s
AO +
(A)
1
– 50 K cal (B)
l
O  AO2 is 100 Kcal. The heat of reaction for A + O2  AO2 is -
2 2
a
+ 50 K cal (C) 100 K cal (D) 150 K cal.
10
CO(g) +
1 t
C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) + 94.0 K cal.
a
O (g)  CO2(g) H = – 67.7 Kcal.
2 2
C
from the above reactions find how much heat (Kcal mole–1) would be produced inthe following reaction :
C(s) +
1
O (g)  CO(g)
2 2
(A) 20.6 (B) 26.3 (C) 44.2 (D) 161.6
11 The enthalpy of vapourisation of liquid water using the data :
H2(g) + 1/2O2(g)  H2O(l) ; H = – 285.77 KJ mol–1
H2(g) + 1/2 O2(g)  H2O(g); H = – 241.84 KJ mol–1
(A) +43.93 KJ mol–1 (B) –43.93 KJ mol–1 (C) + 527.61 KJ mol–1 (D) –527.61 KJ mol–1
12 H2(g) + ½O2(g) = H2O(l) ; H 298K = –68.32 Kcal. Heat of vapourisation of water at 1 atm and 25ºC is 10.52
Kcal. The standard heat of formation (in Kcal) of 1 mole of water vapour at 25ºC is
(A) 10.52 (B) –78.84 (C) +57.80 (D) –57.80
13 The heat of combustion of CH4(g),C(s) and H2(g) at 25ºC are –212.4 K cal, –94.0 K cal and 68.4 K cal
respectively, the heat of formation of CH4 will be –
(A) +54.4 K cal (B) –18.4 K cal (C) –375.2 K cal (D) +212.8 K cal
14 The heats of combustion of C2H4, C2H6 and H2 are –1409.5 KJ, – 1558.3 KJ and –285.6 KJ. The heat of
hydrogenation of ethene is –
(A) –136.8 KJ (B) –13.68 KJ (C) 273.6 KJ (D) 1.368 KJ

15 When two atoms of hydrogen combine to form a molecule of hydrogen gas, the energy of the molecule is
(A) Greater than that of separate atoms (B) Equal to that of separate atoms
(C) Lower than that of separate atoms (D) Sometimes lower and some times higher
16 The enthalpy of combustion of cyclohexane, cyclohexene and H2 are respectively – 3920, – 3800 and –241
KJ mol–1. The heat of hydrogenation of cyclohexene is –
(A) –121 KJ mol–1 (B) 121 KJ mol–1 (C) –242 KJ mol–1 (D) 242 KJ mol–1
17 The bond energies of F2, Cl2, Br2 and I2 are 155.4, 243.6, 193.2 and 151.2 KJ mol–1 respectively. The
18
strongest bond is :
(A) F–F (B) Cl–Cl
The enthalpy change for the reaction
(C) Br–Br
e
(D)
R I–I
H–H = 103, C–H = 99, C–C=80 & C=C 145 K cal mol–1
y s
H2(g) + C2H4(g)  C2H6(g) is ........... the bond energies are ,
l
(A) –10 K cal mol–1 (B) +10 K cal mol–1 (C) –30 K cal mol–1 (D) +30 K cal mol–1
19 Calculate the heat of formation of HI if the bond energies of I2, H2 and HI are a, b & c KJ/mol respectively -
(A)
2c  (b  a)
2
t
KJ/mol
a (B) (b + a) – 2c KJ/mol
20
(C)
C
2
a
a  b  2c
KJ/mol
Form the reactions :

C(s) + 2H2(g)  CH4(g), H = –X Kcal
(D) 2c–(b + a) KJ/mol
C(g) + 4H(g)  CH4(g), H = –X1 Kcal

CH4(g)  CH3(g) + H(g), H = + Y(Kcal)
Bond energy of C–H bond is -
X X1
(A) K cal. mol–1 (B) Y K cal. mol–1 (C) K cal. mol–1 (D) X1 K cal. mol–1
4 4
21 The inversion temperature for vander Waal’s gas is :

(A) Ti = 2a/Rb (B) Ti = a / Rb (C) Ti = a/ 2Rb (D) Ti = 0.5 TBoyle
22 The enthalpy changes at 298K in successive breaking of O–H bonds of water are
H2O  H(g) + OH(g); H = 498 KJ mol–1
OH(g)  H(g) + O(g) ; H = 428 KJ mol–1
the bond enthalpy (energy) of O–H bond is
(A) 498 KJ mol–1 (B) 428 KJ mol–1 (C) 70 KJ mol–1 (D) 463 KJ mol–1
23 The standard heats of formation of NO2(g) and N2O4(g) are 8.0 and 2.0 Kcal mol–1 respectively the heat of
dimerization of NO2 in KCal is
(A) 10.0 (B) –6.0 (C) –12.0 (D) –14.0

24 The heat of neutralization of HCl by NaOH is –55.9 KJ/mol. If the heat of neutralization of HCN by NaOH is
–12.1 KJ/mol. The energy of dissociation of HCN is
(A) –43.8 KJ (B) 43.8 KJ (C) 68 KJ (D) –68KJ
25 When a certain amount of ethylene was burnt 6226 KJ heat was evolved. If heat of combustion of ethylene
is 1411 KJ, the volume of O2(at NTP) that entered into the reaction is –
(A) 296.5 ml (B) 296.5 litre (C) 6226 x 22.4 litre (D) 22.4 litre
26 The heat evolved during the combustion of 112 litre of water gas (mixture of equal volume of H2 and CO) is:
Given H2(g) + ½ O2(g) = H2O (g) ; H = –241.8 KJ
CO(g) + ½O2(g) = CO2(g) ; H = –283 KJ
(A) 241.8 KJ (B) 283 KJ (C) 29338.8 KJ
e
(D)R None of these
27
Kcal, then his daily consumption of sugar is :
(A) 728 g (B) 0.728 g (C)
y s
A person requires 2870 Kcal of energy of lead normal daily life. If heat of combustion of cane sugar is –1349
342 g (D) 0.342 g

28
(A) –13.7 Kcal (B)
a l
If water is formed from H+ ions and OH— the enthalpy of formation of water is :
13.7 Kcal (C) –63.4 Kcal (D) More data required
t
29 Equal volumes of 1M HCl and 1 M H2SO4 are neutralised by dilute NaOH solution and x and y K cals of heat
are liberated respectively. Which of the following is true :
a
(A) x=y (B) x = 0.5 y (C) x = 0.4 y (D) None
30 Heat of dissociation of benzene to elements is 5535 KJ mol–1. The bond enthalpies of C–C, C=C and C–H
C
are 347.3, 615.0 and 416.2 KJ respectively. Resonance energy of benzene is
(A) 1.51 KJ (B) 15.1 KJ (C) 151 KJ (D) 1511 KJ
31 One mole of anhydrous salt AB dissolves in water and librates 21.0 J mol–1 of heat. The value of H(hydration)
of AB is –29.4J mol–1. The heat of dissolution of hydrated salt AB. 2H2O(s) is –
(A) 50.4 J mol–1 (B) 8.4 mol–1
(C) –50.4 J mol–1 (D) –8.4 J mol–1
32 On complete combustion of 2gm methane 26575 cals heat is generated. The heat of formation of methane
will be (given heat of formation of CO2 and H2O are –97000 and –68000 cals respectively) :
(A) + 20400 cals (B) +20600 cals
(C) –20400 cals (D) –2000 cals
33 The heat of combustion of solid benzoic acid at constant volume is –321.30 KJ at 27ºC. The heat of
combustion at constant pressure is –
(A) –321.30 – 300 R (B) –321.30 + 300 R
(C) –321.30 – 150 R (D) –321.30 + 900 R
34 Heat of formation, Hºf of an explosive compounds like NCl3 is –
(A) Positive (B) Negative (C) Zero (D) Positive or negative
35 If Hºf of ICl(g), Cl(g), and I(g) is 17.57, 121.34 and 106.96 J mol–1 respectively. Then bond dissociation
energy of ICl bond is –
(A) 35.15 J mol–1 (B) 106.69 J mol–1 (C) 210.73 mol–1 (D) 420.9 J mol–1

36 q = –w is not true for –
(A) Isothermal process (B) Adiabatic process
(C) Cyclic process (D) 1 and 3 both
37 For which change H  E –
(A) H2(g) + I2(g) 2HI (g) (B) HCl (l) + NaOH (l)  NaCl(s) + H2O(l)
(C) C(s) + O2(g)  CO2(g) (D) N2(g) + 3H2(g)  2NH3(g)
R
38 The heat change during the reaction 24g C and 128g S following the change C + S2  CS2 ; H = 22K cal
(A) 22 K cal (B) 11 K cal (C) 44 K cal (D) 32 K cal
39
40
(A) –49.5 K cal (B) –94.4 K cal (C)
s
–188.0 K cal
e
The value of H for the combustion of C(s) is – –94.4 Kcal. The heat of formation of CO2(g) is –
(D) More data required
The Gibbs free energy change of a reaction at 27ºC is –26K. Cals. and its entropy change is –60 Cals/K.
H for the reaction is
(A) –44 K cals (B)
l
–18 K. Cals (C)
y34 K. Cals (D) –24 K. Cals.
a
41 If CH3COOH + OH– = CH3COO– + H2O+ q1, and H+ + OH– = H2O + q2, then the enthalpy change for the
reaction CH3COOH = CH3COO– + H+ is equal to –
42
(A) q1 + q2
a t (B) q1 – q2 (C) q2 – q1 (D) –(q1 + q2)

One mole of a gas occupying 3dm3 expands against a constant external pressure of 1 atm to a volume of
13 lit. The workdone is –
(A) –10 atm dm3 (B) –20 atm dm3 (C) –39 atm dm3 (D) –48 atm dm3
43
C
M is a metal that forms an oxide M2O,
1
2
1
M2O  M + O2 H = 120 K. Cal.
4
When a sample of metal M reacts with one mole of oxygen what will be the H in that case
(A) 240 K. Cal. (B) –240 K. Cal (C) 480 K. Cal (D) –480 K. Cal
44 For a reaction 2X(s) + 2Y(s)  2Cl + D(g)
The q(p) at 27ºC is – 28 K cal. mol–1. The q(v) is ---------- K. Cal. mol–1
(A) –27.4 (B) +27.4
(C) –28.6 (D) 28.6
45 If C6H12O6(s) + 9O2(g)  6CO2(g) + 6H2O(g) ; H = –680 Kcal The weight of CO2(g) produced when 170 Kcal
of heat is evolved in the combustion of glucose is –
(A) 265 gm (B) 66 gm (C) 11 gm (D) 64 gm
46 If a gas absorbs 100J of heat and expands by 500cm3 against a constant pressure of 2 x 105 Nm–2, the
change in internal energy is –
(A) –300 J (B) –100 J (C) + 100 J (D) None of these
47 Heat of neutralisation of oxalic acid is –106.7 KJmol–1 using NaOH hence H of :
H2C2O4  C2O42– + 2H+ is :
(A) 5.88 KJ (B) –5.88 KJ (C) –13.7 K cal (D) 7.5 KJ
*****
EXERCISE # 02
1. Choose the correct statement for the formation of hydrogen fluoride using following data. Bond energy of
H–H, F–F & H–F bond is 430, 160 and 560 kJ mole–1 respectively
(A) Formation of hydrogen fluoride is an endothermic process with H = +30 kJ/mole
(B) Formation of hydrogen fluoride is an endothermic process with H = +265 kJ/mole
(C) Formation of hydrogen fluoride is an exothermic process with H = –30 kJ/mole
R
(D) Formation of hydrogen fluoride is an exothermic process with H = –265 kJ/mole
2. Choose the incorrect statement for the reaction
A2+ + B2  B2+ + A2; H = 20 kJ/mole of A2+
(A)
(B)
Reaction is spontaneous if entropy change is zero
Reaction is non-spontaneous if entropy change is zero
s e
(C)
(D)
l y
Reaction is non-spontaneous if entropy change is negative
Reaction may be spontaneous if entropy change is positive
3. Consider the following graph for reaction A2B4
t y
a r1
r2
2AB2, correct statement is
a
free energy (G) 
1 mole A2B4 G° = + 5.9 kJ
C x
0.2
equilibrium point
0.4 0.6
G° = + 0.9 kJ
0.8 1.0
fraction of A2B4 dissociated 
(A) r1 >> r2
(B) At equilibrium, amount of reactant > amount of product
(C) Both forward & backward reactions are spontaneous
(D) Both (B) & (C)
1 1
4. For the reaction AB A + B , if degree of dissociation of AB is 80%, the G° of the reaction can
2 2 2 2
be given by (Assume volume of container = 1 Ltr)
1
(A) G° = –2.303 RT log (B) G° = –2.303 RT log 4
4
(C) G° = –2.303 × 3 RT log2 (D) G° = –2.303 RT log 2

5. In which of the following reaction entropy increases?
(A) Decomposition of solid mercuric oxide in mercury liquid and oxygen
(B) Decomposition of N2O5(solid) in N2O4 & O2
(C) Mixing of AgNO3(aq) & HCl(aq)
(D) Both (A) & (B)
6. A gas expands from 2 dm3 to 4 dm3 to against a constant pressure of 3 atm. The work done is
(A) + 6 lit atm (B) 120 cal (C) – 606 J (D) –12 lit atm
7. Which is the intensive property for a system?
(A) Specific heat (B) Heat capacity (C) Enthalpy
e
(D)
R Volume
s
8. Heat of dissociation of NH4OH & CH3COOH is 1.9 kJ & 5.6 kJ/mole then correct statement about heat of
neutralisation is
NaOH is also –57.1 kJ
l y
(A) Heat of neutralisation of NH4OH with HCl is –57.1 kJ and heat of neutralisation of CH3COOH with
(B) Heat of neutralisation of NH4OH with HCl is 55.2 kJ & that of CH 3COOH with NaOH is
a
51.5 kJ
(C) Heat of neutralisation of CH3COOH with NaOH is 55.2 kJ & that of NH4OH with HCl is 51.5 kJ
9.
(D)
a t
Heat of neutralisation of CH3COOH with NaOH is 49.0 kJ & that of NH4OH with HCl is 51.2 kJ
Enthalpy of combustion of benzene and acetylene, are x and y kcal / mole. What is the enthalpy of
formation of benzene by acetylene?
C
(A) x + 3y (B) 3y – x (C) x – 3y (D) –3y – x
10. In the following graph path AC may be
Pressure 
A B
D C
 Volume
(A) Isobaric expansion of an ideal gas (B) Isochoric expansion of an ideal gas
(C) Adiabatic expansion of an ideal gas (D) Adiabatic & isochoric expansion of an ideal gas
(A) A reaction is always spontaneous if entropy of system increases
(B) A reaction is always non-spontaneous if entropy of system decreases
(C) At equilibrium point standard free energy change is always zero
(D) At equilibrium point free energy change is always zero
12. Consider the following reaction
Ice water
The molar heat capacity of water is

(A) 75.48 JK–1 mole–1 (B) 18 cal K–1mole–1 (C) Zero (D) Infinity

13. Correct expression for work done in isothermal reversible expansion of an ideal gas is
V2 V2 V V1
(A) nRT log10 (B) –2.303 nRT log10 (C) –nRT ln 1 (D) 2.303 nRT log10
V1 V1 V2 V2
14. Choose the incorrect match

(A) Cyclic process - E = 0
(B) Adiabatic process - q = 0
15.
(C)
(D)
Refractive index
Isobaric process -
- Extensive property
qP = H
e R
The specific heat at constant volume for a gas is 0.075 cal/g and at constant pressure is 0.125 cal/g.
Molecular weight of gas is
(A) 10 g (B) 20 g (C)
y s
30 g (D) 40 g
l
16. The difference between the heat of reaction at constant pressure and constant volume for the reaction
2C6H6(l) + 15O2(g)  12CO2(g) + 6H2O(l) at 27°C is
a
(A) –7.4 cal (B) +7.4 cal (C) –1.8 kcal (D) +1.8 cal
t
17. In which of the following case the increases in temperature is the highest?
(A) Mixing of 100 ml 0.1 M HCl & 50 ml 0.1 M KOH
18.
(B)
(C)
C
(D) a
Mixing of 500 ml 0.1 M H2SO4 & 150 ml 0.1 M NaOH
Mixing of 75 ml 0.1 M HNO3 & 150 ml 0.1 M KOH
Mixing of 100 ml 0.1 M HCN & 300 ml 0.1 M KOH
The enthalpy of dissolution of BaCl2(s) and BaCl2. 2H2O (s) are –20.6 and 8.8 kJ mol–1 respectively. The
enthalpy change for the reaction BaCl2(s) + 2H2O BaCl2  2H2O(s) is
(A) +29.4 kJ (B) –29.4 kJ (C) –11.8 kJ (D) +38.2 kJ
19. The correct statement is
(A) Work done in reversible isothermal expansion is more than in irreversible isothermal expansion
(B) Work done in reversible isothermal expansion is less than in irreversible isothermal expansion
(C) Work done in reversible isothermal expansion is same as in irreversible isothermal expansion
(D) Work done in vacuum never be zero
1 1
20. For the reaction, A 2  B2  AB , H = –50 kcal
2 2
If the bond energies of A2, B2 and AB are respectively x, x/2 and x kcal, the value of 'x' is
(A) 50 (B) 100 (C) 200 (D) 400
*****

PART - II (CLASS XII)
TOPIC : SOLUTION
EXERCISE # 01
1 A molal solution is one that contains one mole of a solute in
(A) 1000 gm of the solution (B) 1000 c.c. of the solution
(C) 1000 c.c of the solvent (D) 1000 gm of the solvent
2 In which mode of expression the conc. of a solution remains independent of temp
(A) Molarity (B) Normality (C) Formality
e
(D)
R Molality
s
3 The volume strength of .1.5N H2O2 solution is
(A) 4.8 (B) 8.4 (C) 3.0 (D) 8.0
4
(A)
(B)
At S.T.P. 10gm solution of H2O2 gives 10ml. of O2
At S.T.P. 1gm equivalent of H2O2 gives 10ml. of O2 y
The volume strength of H2O2 solution is 10. What does it mean
l
(C)
(D)
t a
At ST.P. 10 litre solution of H2O2 gives 10ml . of O2
At S.T.P. 1ml solution of H2O2 gives 10ml . of O2
a
5 What is the volume of 0.5M HCI required to neutralize 25ml of 0.25M Na2CO3 solution
(A) 12.5ml (B) 25ml (C) 37.5 ml (D) 50ml
C
6 If 5.85 gm. of NaCI are dissolved in 90gms.of water the mole fraction of NaCI is
(A) 0.1 (B) 0.01 (C) 0.02 (D) 0.2
7 Find the weight of H2SO4 in l200ml of a solution of 0.2N strength
(A) 7.76g (B) 9.76g (C) 11.76g (D) 13.76gm
8 What weight of Na2CO3 of 95% purity would be required to neutralize 45.6 ml of 0.235N acid
(A) 0.3978 g (B) 0.4978 g (C) 0.5978 g (D) 0.6978 g
9 What is the strength in g per litre of a solution of H2SO4, 12 ml of which neutralized 15ml of N/10 NaOH
solution
(A) 3.125 g/l (B) 4.125 g/l (C) 5.125 g/l (D) 6.125 g/l
10 Calculate the normality of the resulting solution made by adding 2 drops (0.1 ml) of 0.1 N. H2SO4 in 1 litre
of distilled water
(A) 10–2 (B) 10–3 (C) 10–4 (D) 10–5
11 Two litres of NH3 at 30°C and 0.20 atmosphere is neutralized by 134ml of a solution of H2SO4 Calculate the
normality of H2SO4
(A) 0.12 (B) 0.22 (C) 0.32 (D) 0.42
12 What weight of HNO3 is required to make 1 litre of 2N solution to be used as an oxidising agent in the.
reaction: 3 Cu + 8 HNO3  3Cu (NO3)2 + 2NO + 4 H2O
(A) 63gm (B) 21 gm
(C) 42 gm (D) 84gm

13 The amount of KMnO4 required to prepare 1 00 ml of 0.1 N solution in alkaline medium is
(A) 1.58 gram (B) 3.16 gram (C) 0.52 gram (D) 0.31 gram
14 If 18 gram of glucose (C6H12O6) is present in 1000 gram of an aqueous solution of glucose it is said to be
(A) 39.2 gram (B) 1.1 molal (C) 0.5 molal (D) 0.1 molal
15 What weight of ferrous ammonium sulphate is needed to prepare 100 ml of 0.1 normal solution (equivalent
weight = 392)
(A) 39.2 gram (B) 3.92 gram (C) 1.96 gram (D) 19.6 gram
16 The normality of 10% (weight/volume) acetic acid is
(A) 1N (B) 10N (C) 1.66N
e
(D)
R 0.83 N
s
17 How much water is needed to dilute 10 ml of 10 N HCI to make it exactly decinormal (0.1 N)
(A) 990 ml (B) 1000 ml (C) 1010 ml (D) 100 ml
18
19
(A) 1 (B) 0.1
l (C)
y
4.0 gram of caustic soda is dissolved in 100 c.c. of solution. The normality of solution is
0.5 (D) 4.0
What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density of 1.84 gm/cc at 35°C and contains 98% by
20
weight
(A) 4.18M
t (B)
3
8.14M
a (C) 18.4M (D) 18M
In order to prepare 100 cm of 0.250 M barium chloride solution the amount of BaCI2.2H2O re quired will be-
21
(A)
a
0.250 moles (B) 0.0025 moles (C) 2.5 moles (D) 6.1 gram of BaCI2.2H2O
25 mL of 3 M HCI were added to 75 mL of 0.05 M HCl. The molarity of HCI in the resulting solution is
C
approximately
(A) 0.055 M (B) 0.35 M (C) 0.787 M (D) 3.05 M
22 0.2 moles of HCI and 0.1 moles of CaCI2 were dissolved in water to have 500 ml of solution, the molarity of
CI– ions is
(A) 0.04 M (B) 0.8 M (C) 0.4 M (D) 0.08 M
23 When 5.0 gram of BaCI2 is dissolved in water to have 106 gram of solution. The concentration of solution is
(A) 2.5 ppm (B) 5 ppm (C) 5M (D) 5 gm L–1
24 The number of iodine atoms present in 40 mL solution of its 0.1 M solution -
(A) 4.81 x 1021 (B) 24.08 x 1021 (C) 0.408 x 1023 (D) 6.02 x 1022
25 To a 4L of 0.2 M solution of NaOH, 2L of 0.5 M NaOH are added. The molarity of resulting solution is
(A) 0.9M (B) 0.3M (C) 1.8M (D) 0.18M
26 A molal solution is one that contain one mole of a solute in
(A) 1000 gram of the solvent (B) One litre of the solvent
(C) One litre of the solution (D) 22.4litres ofthe solution
27 10 gram of glucose are dissolved in 150 gram of water. The mass % of glucose is
(A) 5% (B) 6.25% (C) 93.75% (D) 15%
28 If 100 ml of 1.0 M NaOH solution is diluted to 1.0 L, the resulting solution contains
(A) 1 mole of NaOH (B) 0.1 mole of NaOH
(C) 10.0 mole of NaOH (D) 0.05 mole of NaOH
29 An aqueous solution of non-electrolyte “A” with molecular mass 60 contains 6 g in 500 ml and has density
equal to 1.05. The molality of solution is
(A) 1.25 (B) 0.19 (C) 0.25 (D) 0.30
30 Out of molarity (M), molality (m), formality (F) and mole fraction (x) those independent of temperature are
(A) M,m (B) F, x (C) m,x (D) M,x
31 One among the following is an incorrect statement
(A) Molality of a solution is dependent on the temperature
(B)
(C)
Molarity of a solution is dependent on the temperature
Normality of 0.5 M aqueous solution of H2C2O4.2H2O is 1 N
e R
s
(D) Molality of a solution relates moles of solute and mass of solvent
32 Molality of the solution is
(A)
(B)
(C) y
The number of moles ofthe dissolved per kilogram of solvent
l
The number of gram mole of the solute dissolved per ml of the solution
The number of grams of solute dissolved per kilogram of solvent
33
(D)
t
Molarity of a solutions relates the
a
The number of moles of solute dissolved per litre of the solution
a
(A) Moles of solute and solvent (B) Moles of solute and mass of solution
(C) VolumeOf solute and volume of solvent (D) Volume of solution and moles of solute
C
34 The number of moles of solute per kg of solvent is called
(A) Mole fraction of solute (B) Normality
(C) Molarity (D) Molality
35 The units of mole fraction of a compound in solution are - “
(A) mol kg–1 (B) mollitre–1 (C) g litre–1 (D) None ofthese
36 The hardness of water is usually expressed in
(A) ppm (B) g/litre (C) Mol/litre (D) None
37 The term standard solution is used for the solutions whose
(A) Normality is known (B) Molarity is known
(C) Strength is known (D) All
38 A molar solution represents a solution of molarity equal to
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) None
39 5 mL of N HCI, 20 mL of N/2 H2SO4 and 30 mL of N/3 HNO3 are mixed together and volume made one litre.
The normality of the resulting solution is -
(A) N/5 (B) N/10 (C) N/20 (D) N/40
40 What will be the normality of a solution obtained by mixing 0.45 Nand 0.60 N NaOH in the ratio 2 : 1 by
volume -
(A) 0.4N (B) 0.5N
(C) 1.05N (D) 0.15N

41 1000 g aqueous solution of CaCO3 contains 10 g of calcium carbonate. Concentration of solution is
(A) 10 ppm (B) 100 ppm (C) 1000 ppm (D) 10000 ppm
42 1.0 g of pure calcium carbonate was found to require 50 mL of dilute HCI for complete reactions. The
strength of the HCI solution is given by
(A) 4N (B) 2N (C) 0.4N (D) 0.2 N
43 The normality of 10% (weight/volume) acetic acid is
(A) 1N (B) 10N (C) 1.7N (D) 0.83N
44 Cryoscopic constant of a liquid is
(A)
(B) R
Decrease in freezing point when 1 gram of solute is dissolved per kg of the solvent
e
Decrease in the freezing point when 1 mole of solute is dissolved per kg of the solvent
45
(C)
(D)
Is the elevation for 1 molar solution
y s
Is a factor used for calculation of elevation in boiling point
If the vapour pressure of solutions of two liquids are less than those expected from ideal solution they are
said to have
(A)
(B)
a l
Negative deviation from ideal behaviour
Positive deviations from ideal behaviour
46
(C)
(D)
t
Ideal behaviour
a
Positive deviation for lower cone. and negative deviations for higher concentration
The osmotic pressure ofthe solution having concentration 0.05 M
C
(A) Increases with increase in temperature
(B) Does not change with change in temperature
(C) Decreases with increase in temperature
(D) Initially decreases and then increases with rise in temperature
47 Pure water freezes at 5.45ºC at a certain place but a 0.374 m solution of tetra chloroethane in benzene
freezes at 3.55ºC. The Kf for benzene is
(A) 5.08 K. kg mol–1 (B) 508 K kg mol–1 (C) 0.508 K kg mol–1 (D) 50.8 °C kg mol–1
48 At certain Hill-station pure water boils at 99.725ºC. If Kb for water is 0.513ºC kg mol–1. The boiling point of
0.69 m solution of urea will be
(A) 100.079ºC (B) 103ºC (C) 1 00. 359°C (D) Un predictable
49 The freezing point of a 0.05 molal solution of a non-electrolyte in water is- (Kf = 1. 86ºC/mol)
(A) –1.86 °C (B) –0.93 °C (C) -0.093ºC (D) 0.93ºC
50 The freezing point of 1 molal NaCI solution assuming NaCI to be 100% dissociated in water is
(A) -1.86ºC (B) -3.72ºC (C) +1.86ºC (D) +3.72ºC
51 The molar freezing point constant for water is 1.86 °C/mole. if 342 gm of cane sugar (C12H22O11) is dissolved
in 1000 gram of water, the solution will freeze at-
(A) -1.86 °C (B) 1.86ºC (C) -3.92 °c (D) 2.42ºC

52 The melting points of most of the solid substance increase with an increase of pressure acting on them.
However, ice melts at a temperature lower than its usual melting point, when the pressure is increased.
This is because
(A) ice is less dense than water (B) pressure generate heat
(C) the chemical bonds break under pressure (D) ice is not a true solid
53 A binary solution of. ethanol and n-heptane is an example of
(A) Ideal solution. (B) Non ideal solution with +ve deviation
54
(C) Nonideal solution with –ve deviation (D)
R
Un predictable behaviour
e
At low concentrations, the statement that equimolal solutions under a given set of experimental conditions
have equal osmotic pressures is true for
(A)
(C)
All solutions
Solution of electrolyte only
(B)
(D)
y s
Solutions of non-electrolyte only
None of these
l
55 A thermometer which can be used only for accurate measurement of small differences in temperature is
known as a
a
(A) Beckmann thermometer (B) Contact thermometer
t
(C) Clinical thermometer (D) Platinum resistance thermometer
56 10 gram of solute with molecular mass 100 gram mol–1 is dissolved in 100 gram solvent to show 0.3°C
a
elevation in boiling point. The value of molal ebullioscopic constant will be
(A) 10 (B) 3 (C) 0.3 (D) Unpredictable
57
58
C
If the observed and theoretical molecular mass of NaCI is found to be 31.80 and 58.50, then the degree of
dissociation of NaCI is
(A) 83.96% (B) 8.39% (C) 90%
When mango is placed in dilute aqueous solution of hydrochloride acid, it
(A) Shrinks (B) Swells (C) Bursts
(D)
(D)
100%
Nothing happens
59 In certain solvent, phenol dimerizes to the extent of 60%. Its observed molecular mass in that solvent
should be
(A) > 94 (B) = 94 (C) < 94 (D) Unpredictable
60 A 5.8% solution of NaCI has vapour pressure closest to
(A) 5.8 % solution of urea (B) 2 m solution of glucose
(C) 1 m solution of urea (D) 5.8 % solution of glucose
61 Equal volume of 1 M urea and 1 M glucose are mixed. The mixture will have
(A) Same osmotic pressure (B) Lower osmotic pressure
(C) Higher osmotic pressure (D) None ofthese
62 Depression in freezing point of solution of electrolytes are generally
(A) Lower than what should be normally
(B) Higher than what should be normally
(C) Low or high depending upon nature of electrolyte
(D) What it should be normally

63 For dilute solution Raoult’s law states that
(A) The lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute
(B) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is equal to the mole fraction of the solute
(C) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is proportional to the amount of solute in solution
(D) The vapour pressure of the solution is equal to the mole fraction of the solvent
64 An azeotropic solution of two liquids has boiling point lower than either of them when it
(A) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s law
(B)
(C)
Shows no deviation from Raoult’s law
Shows positive deviation from Raoult’s law
e R
s
(D) Is saturated
65 The molal elevation constant is the ratio of the elevation in BP to
(A)
(C)
Molarity
Mole fraction of solute
l
(B)
(D)
yMolality
Mole fraction of solvent
a
66 The osmotic pressure of solution increases if
(A) Temperature is decreased (B) Solution constant is increased
67
(C)
(A) 58.98
a t
Number of solute molecules are increased (D)
(B) 119.96 (C)

Volume is increased
A 5% solution of cane sugar is isotonic with 0.877 % of X. The molecular weight of substance X is
95.58 (D) 126.98
C
68 A 0.01 M solution of glucose in water freezes at –0.0186 °C. A 0.01 M solution of KCI in water is freezes at
temperature
(A) higher than - 0.0186ºC (B) OºC
(C) 0.0186 °C (D) lower than –0.0186 °C
69 The osmotic pressure of 0.2 molar solution of urea at 300 K (R = 0.082 litre atm mol–1 K–1) is
(A) 4.92atm (B) 1atm (C) 0.25atm (D) 27atm
70 A liquid is in equilibrium with its vapour at its boiling point. On the average the molecules in the two phase
have equal
(A) Inter-molecular forces (B) Potential energy
(C) Total energy (D) Kinetic energy
71 The hard shell of an egg is dissolved in acetic acid and then egg.was subsequently placed in saturated
solution of NaCI
(A) The egg will shrink (B) The egg will become harder
(C) The egg will swell (D) No change in the size of egg
72 All form ideal solutions except
(A) C2H5Br and C2H5I (B) C6H5CI and C6H5Br
(C) C6H6 and C6H5.CH3 (D) C2H5I and C2H5OH

73 The substance A when dissolved in solvent B shows the molecular mass corresponding to A3. The vant
Hoffs factor will be
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 1/3
74 Which statement is incorrect about osmotic pressure (), volume (V) and temperature (T)
1
(A)  if T is constant (B)   T if V is constant
V
R
(C)   V if T is the constant (D)  V is constant if T is constant
75 Blood cells retain their normal shapes in solutions which are
76
(A)
(C)
isotonic to blood
hypertonic to blood
The process of osmosis was first discovered by
(B)
(D)
isomotic to blood
s
equinormal to blood
e
77
(A) Nollet (B) Pfeffer
l
(C)
The osmotic pressure of a dilute solution is given by
y
Traube (D) Dutrochet
(A) P = P0X
t
(B)
a
V = nRT (C) P = P0N2 (D)
P
P0
=
P0  P
P0
a
78 Osmotic pressure of a solution increased by
(A) Decreasing the temperature (B) Increasing the volume
C
(C) Increasing the number of molecules of the solute
(D) None ofthe above
79 The solution having same osmotic pressure are called
(A) Equivalent solutions (B) Ideal solutions
(C) Equimolar solutions (D) Isotonic solutions
80 A property which depends primarily on the number of molecules of a system and not on their nature is
known to be
(A) Constitutive (B) Additive (C) Colligative (D) None ofthe above
81 Which of the following molecular diffuse through a cell membrane
(A) Fructose (B) Glycogen (C) Haemoglobin (D) Catalase
82 The osmotic pressure of equimolar solutions of urea, BaCI2 and AICI3 will be in the order
(A) AICI3 > BaCI2 > Urea (B) BaCI2 > AICI3 > Urea
(C) Urea> BaCI2 > AICI3 (D) BaCI2 > Urea> AICI3
83 Which of the following is a colligative property
(A) Change in free energy. (B) Dipole moment
(C) Heat of vapourisaiton (D) Osmotic pressure

84 Which of the following statements is correct for the boiling point of solvent containing a dissolved solid
substance-
(A) Boiling point of the liquid is depressed
(B) Boiling point of the liquid is elevated
(C) There is no effect on the boiling point
(D) The change depends upon the polarity ofthe liquid
85 Which of the following condition is not satisfied by an ideal solution is
(A)
(C)
Hmixing = 0
Raoult’s law is obeyed
(B)
(D)
Vmixing = 0
e R
Formation of an azeotropic mixture
s
*****
1.
l
EXERCISE # 02
y
What is the molarity of H2SO4 solution that has a density 1.6 gm/ml and contain 49.0% H2SO4 by weight?
2.
(A) 8M
t
(B) 5M
a (C) 4M
20 ml acetone and 30 ml benzene mixed togther. The final volume of solution is
(A) 48 ml (B) 50 ml (C) 52 ml
(D)
(D)
1M
49 ml
3.
4.
a
The relationship between osmotic pressure at 273 K when 18 gm glucose (P1), 5.85 gm NaCl (P2) and 10
gm urea (P3) are dissolved in 500 ml of water is
C
(A) P1 > P2 > P3 (B) P2 > P3 > P1 (C) P1 = P2 = P3 (D) P3 > P2 > P1
Which among the following will show maximum elevation in boiling point, (Conc. of each solute is 1 m)?
(A) NaCl (B) MgCl2 (C) K4[Fe(CN)6] (D) Na3PO4
5. The freezing point of equimolal aqueous solution will be highest for
(A) NaCl (B) MgCl2 (C) Urea (D) Na3PO4
6. 0.5 molal solution of ethylene glycol in water used as coolant in a car. If the freezing point constant of water
be 1.86ºC per mole, the mixture shall freeze at
(A) 0.93ºC (B) – 0.93ºC (C) 1.86ºC (D) – 1.86ºC
7. The van’t Hoff factor for 0.1 M K4[Fe(CN)6] solution is 3.4. The degree of dissociation is
(A) 20% (B) 40% (C) 60% (D) 80%
8. If liquid A and liquid B form an ideal solution
(A) The enthalpy of mixing is zero
(B) The entropy of mixing is zero
(C) The free energy of mixing is zero
(D) The free energy as well as the entropy of mixing are each zero
9. Which of the following solutions will have the maximum lowering of vapour pressure at 300 K?
(A) 1 M urea (B) 1 M glucose (C) 1 M CaCl2 (D) 1 M NaCl

10. The value of observed and calculated molecular mass of Ca(NO3)2 are 65.4 and 194 gm mol–1 respectively.
The degree of dissociation of Ca(NO3)2 will be
(A) 25% (B) 50% (C) 98% (D) 80%
11. The vapour pressure of a solution of the liquid
A (PºA = 80 mm), XA = 0.5 and
B (PºB = 100 mm and XB = 0.5)
is found to be 100 mm, it shows that the solution exhibits
(A)
(C)
Positive deviation from ideal behavior
Ideal solution
(B)
(D) None of these
e R
Negative deviation from ideal behavior
s
12. In a mixture A and B components show negative deviation as
(A) Vmix > 0 (B) Hmix < 0 (C) FAB < FAA or FBB (D) FAB = FAA or FBB
13.
weight of X is
(A) 68.4 (B) 34.2
l (C) y
A 10% solution of cane sugar (mol. wt. = 342) is isotonic with 1% solution of substance X. The molecular
102.6 (D) None of these

14.
15.
(A) 100ºC
t (B) 80ºC
a
The Boiling point of nitric acid-water azeotrope is
(C) 98ºC (D) 125.5ºC
m gm of a non-electrolyte compound (molar mass = 100) is dissolved in 2 L of 0.04 M NaCl solution. The
16.
(A)
C
36.78
a
osmotic pressure of this solution is found to be 6.5 atm at 27ºC, m is (Assume 100% dissociation of NaCl)
(B) 73.56 (C) 44.78 (D)
5 L 1.5 M AgNO3 is mixed with 5 L 2.0 M BaCl2 solution. The final molarity of Ag+ is
(A) 0.75 (B) 1.5 (C) Zero (D)
90
3.5
17. 0.4 molal solution of a complex compound in water has elevation in boiling point is 0.4104. Assume 50%
dissociation. The formula of complex compound can be (Kb = 0.52 for water)
(A) [Pt(NH3)4Cl2]Cl (B) [Pt(NH3)5Cl]Cl2 (C) [Pt(NH3)6]Cl3 (D) [Pt(NH3)3Cl3]
18. Choose the correct order of freezing point
(A) 18 gm glucose in 500 ml water > 5.85 gm NaCl in 500 ml > 11.1 gm CaCl2 in 500 ml water
(B) 9.5 gm MgCl2 in 1 litre water > 0.1 M K[Fe(CN)6] > 4.25 gm NaNO3 in 500 ml water
(C) 0.01 m KCl < 0.01 m Na2SO4 > 0.01 m AlCl3
(D) 60 gm urea in 1 litre water < 1 m CaSO4 < 17.4 gm K2SO4 in 100 gm water
19. A solution of ethanol in water is 20% by volume if density of solution and pure ethanol are 0.9 and
0.75 gm per cc. The % of ethanol by wt is
(A) 7.95% (B) 16.67% (C) 21.52% (D) 31.21%
20. Solution which is not isotonic with 100 ml urea solution at 27ºC containing 0.5 mole urea
(A) 200 ml glucose solution containing 1 mole glucose at 27ºC
(B) 100 ml NaCl solution containing 0.25 mole NaCl at 27ºC
(C) 600 ml KCl solution containing 1.5 mole KCl at 27ºC
(D) 100 ml glucose solution containing 0.1 mole glucose at 27ºC

*****
TOPIC : SOLID STATE
EXERCISE # 01
1 Capillary action of the liquid can be explained on the basis of its
(A) Resistance to flow (B) Surface tension
(C) Heat ofvaporisation (D) Refractive index
2 Wax is an example of
(A) Ionic crystal (B) Covalent crystal (C) Molecular crystal (D)
e R Metallic crystal
s
3 Crystals which are good conductor of electricity and heat are known as
(A) Ionic crystals (B) Covalence crystals
4
(C) Metallic crystals
Iodine crystals are
(A) Metallic solid
l
(B) Ionic solid
(D)
y
Molecular crystals
(C) Molecular solid (D) Covalent solid

5
(C) Latent heat of vaporization

a
The amount of heat required to change one gram of a liquid to into its vapours at the boiling point is called
t
(A) Enthalpy of vaporization (B) Heat of vaporization
(D) All the above
6
C
(B)
(C)
a
During evaporation of liquid
(A) The temperature of the liquid rises
The temperature of the liquid falls
The temperature ofthe liquid remains unaffected
(D) None ofthe above is correct
7 Out of the four liquids given below, the one having lowest vapour pressure at 25° C is
(A) Carbon tetrachloride (B) Benzene
(C) Chloroform (D) Water
8 Which among the following will show an isotropy
(A) Glass (B) Barium chloride (C) Wood (D) Paper
9 Ionic salts on dissolution in a solvent shows
(A) A decrease in the viscosity of the liquid (B) An increase in the viscosity of the liquid
(C) No affect on the viscosity of the liquid (D) None
10 The elements of symmetry in a crystal are
(A) Plane of symmetry (B) Axis of symmetry
(C) Centre of symmetry (D) All
11 A crystal may have one or more planes and one or more axes of symmetry but it possesses
(A) Two centres of symmetry (B) One centre of symmetry
(C) No centre of symmetry (D) None

12 For tetrahedral co-ordination the radius ratio (r+ r–) should be
(A) 0.414 - 0.732 (B) > 0.732 (C) 0.156 - 0.225 (D) 0.225 - 0.414
13 TiO2 is well known example of
(A) Triclinic system (B) Tetragonal system
(C) Monoclinic system (D) None
14 The ratio of cations to anion in a closed pack tetrahedral is
(A) 0.414 (B) 0.225 (C) 0.02 (D) None
15 The arrangement ABC ABC ...............is referred to as
(A) Octahedral close packing (B)
e
Hexagonal close packing
R
s
(C) Tetrahedral close packing (D) Cubic close packing
16 The melting point of RbBr is 682°C, while that of NaF is 988°C. The principal reason that melting point of
NaF is much higher than that of RbBr is that
(A)
(B)
l
The two crystals are not isomorphous
The molar mass of NaF is smaller than that of RbBr y
(C)
(D)
t a
The internuclear distance, rc + ra is greater for RbBr than for NaF
The bond in RbBr has more covalent character than the bond in NaF
a
17 A binary solid (A+ B–) has a rock salt structure. If the edge length is 400 pm and radius of cation is 75 pm
the radius of anion is
(A) 100pm (B) 125pm (C) 250 pm (D) 325 pm
18
19
C
One among the following is an example of ferroelectric compound
(A) Quartz (B) Lead chromate (C) Barium titanate
If a is the length of unit cell, then which one is correct relationship
a
(D) Tourmaline
(A) For simple cubic lattice, Radius of metal atom =

2
3a
(B) For bcc lattice, Radius of metal atom =
4
a
(C) For fcc lattice.Radius of metal atom =
2 2
(D) All of these

20 The most malleable metals (Cu, Ag, Au) have close - packing of the type
(A) Hexagonal close - packing (B) Cubic close - packing
(C) Body - centred cubic packing (D) Malleability is not related to type of packing
21 The number of atoms present in a simple cubic unit cell are
(A) 4 (B) 3 (C) 2 (D) 1

22 The radius of Ag+ is 126 pm while that of I– ion is 216 pm. The co-ordination number of Ag in AgI is :
(A) 2 (B) 8 (C) 6 (D) 4
23 The number of octahedral sites in a cubical close pack array of S-spheres :
S
(A) (B) 2S (C) 4S (D) S
2
24 The type of crystal latice associated with CsCl is :
25
(A)
(A)
ccp
4
(B)
(B)
fcc
6
(C)
(C)
bcc
8
(D)
e
(D)R hcp
The crystal structure of TICl is similar to that of CsCl what is the co-ordination number of Tl+1:
12
26
s
If edge of a bcc crystal of an element is a cm, M is the atomic mass and N0 is Avogadro’s number, then
density of the crystal is :
y
l Ma3
4M 2N0 2M
(A) (B) (C) (D)
a3N0 Ma3 N0 a 3 2N0
27
(A) One dimensional lattice
a
In which case unit cell is not possible :
t (B) Two dimensional lattice
a
(C) Three dimensional lattice (D) None
C
28 An atom situated at the corner of a simple cubic unit cell has its contribution towards the unit cell is :
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) 1
2 4 8
29 Cell diagonal = 3 edge shows that the unit cell is :
(A) Simple cubic (B) Face centred cubic

(C) Body centred cubic (D) None of these
30 The percentage of vacant space of bcc unit cell is :
(A) 32% (B) 68% (C) 52% (D) 74%
31 The number of nearest neighbours to each sphere in fcc lattice will be :
(A) 6 (B) 8 (C) 12 (D) 14
32 Which of the following planes will be absent in a simple cubic system
(A) 100 (B) 110 (C) 111 (D) 200
33 The number of atoms/molecules contained in one face centred cubic unit cell of a monoatomic substance
is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8 (D) 12
34 In a face centred cubic arrangement, the number of atoms per unit cell is
(A) 8 (B) 2 (C) 1 (D) 4

35 The maximum percentage of available volume that can be filled in a face centred cubic system by an atom
is-
(A) 74% (B) 68% (C) 34% (D) 26%
36 Each unit cell of NaCI consists of 4 chloride ions and
(A) 13 Na atoms (B) 4 Na ions (C) 6 Na atoms (D) 8 Na atoms
37 In the unit cell of NaCl lattice there are
(A) 3 Na+ ions (B) 6 Na+ ions (C) 6 Cl– ions (D) 4 NaCI units
38
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 8
e
(D)
R
The radius of the Na+ is 95 pm and that of CI– ion is 181 pm, Predict the co-ordination number of Na+
Unpredictable
s
39 The ionic radii of Rb+ and I– are 1.46 and 2.16 A. The most probable type of structure exhibited by it is
(A) CsCI type (B) NaCltype (C) ZnStype (D) CaF2 type
40
41
The rank of a cubic unit cell is 4. The type of cell as
(A) Body centred (B)
l
Face centred (C)
y
Primitive
23
(D) None
An element occurring in the BCC structure has 12.08 x 10 unit cells. The total number of atoms of the
42
element in these cell will be
(A) 24.16 x 10
t
23
(B)
a
36.18 x 10 23
The space occupied by B.C.C. arrangement is approx

(C) 6.04 x 1023 (D) 12.08 x 1023
43
(A)
(C)
C
50%
74%
a
Which is covalent solid
(A) Fe2O3 (B) Diamond
(B)
(D)
(C)
68%
56%
Graphite (D) All

44 TiCI has structure similar to CsCI, the co-ordination number of TI+ is
(A) 4 (B) 6 (C) 10 (D) 8
45 A certain metal fluoride crystallises in such a way that F atoms occupy simple cubic lattice sites, while
metal atoms occupy the body centres of half the cubes. The formula of metal fluoride is
(A) M2F (B) MF (C) MF2 (D) MF8
46 Which substance shows antiferromagnetism
(A) ZrO2 (B) CdO (C) CrO2 (D) Mn2O3
47 Certain crystals produce electric signals on application of pressure. This phenomenon is called
(A) Pyro electricity (B) Ferroelectricity (C) Piezoelectricity (D) Ferrielectricity
48 Which of the following defect, if present, lowers the density of the crystal
(A) Frenkel (B) Schottky
(C) Edge dislocation (D) Constitution of F-centres.
49 Transition metals, when they form interstitial compounds, the non-metals (H, B, C, N) are accomodated in-
(A) Voids or holes in cubic - packed structure (B) Tetrahedral voids
(C) Octahedral voids (D) All of these

50 A silicon solar battery makes use of
(A) n- Type semiconductor (B) p- Type semiconductor
(C) Combination of Si doped with As and B (D) p - n junction
51 In a close pack array of N spheres, the number of tetrahedral holes are
(A) 4N (B) N/2 (C) 2N (D) N
52 The yellow colour of ZnO and conducting nature produced in heating is due to
(A) Metal excess defects due to interstitial cation
(B)
(C)
Extra positive ions present in an interstitial site
Trapped electrons
e R
s
(D) All of these
*****
1.
l
EXERCISE # 02
y
A solid has a structure in which Y atoms are located at the corners of cubic lattice, Z atoms at the centre
2.
(A) XYZ (B) XY8Z3
a
of edges and X atom at the centre of body. The formula of compound is
t
(C) XYZ4 (D) XYZ3
5 × 1024 atoms present in 100 gm of a crystal with density 10 gm cm–3 and cell edge as 200 pm. The lattice
3.
of crystal is
(A)
C a
Simple cube (B) fcc (C) bcc
When electrons are trapped into the crystal in anion vacancy the defect is
(A) Metal deficiency defect (B) Metal excess defect
(D) None of these
(C) Schottky defect (D) Frenkel defect

4. The number of cation vacancies when NaCl dopped with 10–3 mole of AlCl3
(A) 1.2 × 1020 (B) 1.2 × 1021 (C) 3 × 1020 (D) 6 × 1020
5. The percentage of Fe+3 in Fe0.93O is
(A) 86% (B) 84.9% (C) 14% (D) 15.1%
6. Atoms A present in ccp lattice atoms B occupied tetrahedral voids and atoms C present in octahedral
voids. The formula of compound is
(A) A2BC (B) ABC2 (C) AB2C (D) ABC
7. Which is correct order of void fraction?
(A) Simple cubic packing > bcc > fcc = hcp (B) Simple cubic packing > bcc > fcc >hcp
(C) Simple cubic packing < bcc < fcc = hcp (D) Simple cubic packing < bcc < fcc < hcp
8. The largest void is
(A) Octahedral void (B) Tetrahedral void
(C) Triangular void (D) All have similar radius
9. The size of anion is 1.84 Å. Cation of radius 0.42 Å cannot be fitted into
(A) Cubic void (B) Octahedral void
(C) Tetrahedral void (D) Triangular void
10. Which is an example of inverse spinel structure?
(A) MgAl2O4 (B) ZnFe2O4
(C) Fe3O4 (D) NH4Cl
11. Which is incorrect statement?
(A) In NaCl structure Na+ present in octahedral void and Cl– in ccp lattice
(B) In zinc blende S–2 in ccp and Zn+2 present in 50% tetrahedral voids
(C) In wurtzite, S–2 in tetrahedral voids and Zn+2 in hcp
12.
(D) None of these
Which compound shows both Schottky defect and Frenkel defect?
e R
s
(A) NaBr (B) CsCl (C) AgCl (D) AgBr
13. Which defect is not common defect?
(A)
(B)
Frenkel defect
l
Metal excess due to interstitial cation
y
a
(C) Metal deficiency due to interstitial negative ion
(D) Metal deficiency due to cationic vacancy
14.
(A)
(C)
F-centre
a t
When ZnO heated it converts from white to yellow. It is due to
Schottky defect
(B)
(D)
Metal excess due to interstitial cation
Metal deficiency defect
C
15. A metal crystallise into two cubic phases (fcc and bcc) whose unit cell length are 2.5 Å and 2.0 Å
respectively the ratio of densities of bcc and fcc is
(A) 0.977 (B) 1.024 (C) 0.50 (D) 2
16. For an ionic crystal (AB) has co-ordination no. 6:6 the radius ratio will be
(A) Less than 0.225 (B) Between 0.415 and 0.225
(C) Between 0.414 and 0.732 (D) Greater than 0.73
(A) Packing fraction of a unit cell having ABAB.... type arrangement during 3 D packing is 68%
(B) Ratio of void fraction of bcc to that of scc is 2 : 3
(C) Ratio of packing fraction of fcc to that of bcc is 1.08
(D) Packing fraction ratio of fcc to scc is 1.42
18. LiI occurs a cubic closed packing similar to NaCl structure, if edge length of the unit cell is 624 pm, which
is correct about the crystal?
(A) rLi  70.2 pm (B) rI–  208 pm
(C) rLi  rI–  270.2 pm (D) rLi  rI–  312 pm
19. In the fluorite structure, the co-ordination number of Ca+2 is

(A) 3 (B) 4 (C) 6 (D) 8

20. In the crystal of NaCl, if particles remove by a plane passes through diagonal. Then formula of compound
will be
(A) Na3.5Cl2.5 (B) Na2.5Cl3.5 (C) NaCl (D) Na4Cl3
*****
TOPIC : ELECTROCHEMISTRY
EXERCISE # 01
1
CI2 at anode. The electrolytic solution is
(A) Water (B) H2SO4 (C) Aqueous NaCI
e
(D)R
The passage of current through a solution of certain electrolyte results in the evolution of H2 at cathode and
Aqueous CuCI2
2 During electrolysis all ions move
(A) In the same direction (B)
y s
Toward oppositely charged electrodes
l
(C) Do not move (D) None of the above
3 Which is an electrolyte
4
(A)
(A)
AgNO3 solution
t
(B)
a
Ethanol
In an electrolytic cell current flows from
Cathode to anode in outer circuit
(C)
(B)
Mercury (D) Sugar solution
Anode to cathode outside the cell
6
(C)
(A)
a
Cathode to anode inside the cell
(B)
The element easiest to reduce is
OH–
(D)
(C)
None
During electrolysis of fused NaOH, which of the following ions move towards anode
C H+ Na+ (D) None
(A) Fe (B) Cu (C) Ag (D) Sn

7 A cell in which electric current is produced by an oxidation reduction process is called
(A) Voltaic cell (B) Standard cell (C) Reversible cell (D) Concentration cell
8 The reference electrode is made from
(A) CuSO4 (B) ZnCI2 (C) HgCI2 (D) Hg2CI2
9 Arrange the following in the order of their decreasing electrode potentials: Mg, K, Ba, Ca
(A) K, Ba, Ca, Mg (B) Ba, Ca, K, Mg .(C) Ca, Mg, K, Ba (D) Mg, Ca, Ba, K
10 Cathodic standard reduction potential minus anodic standard reduction potential is equal to
(A) Faraday (B) Coulomb (C) Cell potential (D) Ampere
11 If the electrode potential of four elements P, Q, X, Y are 1.46 V, –0.36 V, 0.00 V and –1.24 V respectively,
the maximum reactivity is shown by -
(A) P (B) Q (C) X (D) Y
12 The standard electrode potential of four elements A, B, C, D are - 3.05, - 1.66, - 0.40, + 0.80 V. The high
reactivity will be shown by
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

13 The oxidation potential of Mg and AI are + 2.37 and + 1.66 V. The Mg in chemical reactions
(A) Will be replaced by AI (B) Will replace AI
(C) Will not be able to replace AI (D) None of these
14 Electrolysis of salt solution is due to the formation of
(A) Ions (B) Electrons (C) Acids (D) Oxides
15 In aqueous solution, strong electrolytes ionize
(A) Almost completely (B) About 5%
16
(C) About 20% (D) Incompletely
During electrolysis of fused NaCI the reaction that occurs at anode is
e R
s
(A) CI– ions are oxidized (B) Na+ ions are oxidized
(C) CI– ions are reduced (D) Na+ ions are reduced
17
(A) H2 at cathode only (B)
y
Electrolysis of an aqueous solution of NaOH between platinum electrodes yields
l O2 at anode only
a
(C) H2 at cathode, O2 at anode (D) H2 at anode, O2 at cathode
18 Faraday’s laws of electrolysis are related to the
19
(A)
(C)
a t
Molecular mass of the electrolyte
Atomic weight of the cation/anion
(B)
(D)
Equivalent weight of the electrolyte
Atomic number of the cation/anion
If m represents mass of a substance (equivalent weight E) consumed or produced when quantity Q of
C
electricity is passed then,
(A) mQ (B) m  (1/Q) (C) m  (l/E) (D) m  E.
20 The unit of electrochemical equivalent is
(A) Gram (B) Gram/Ampere
(C) Gram/Coulomb (D) Coulomb/Gram
21 The electric charge for electrode deposition of 1 g equivalent of a substance is
(A) 96500 coulombs per second (B) One ampere per second
(C) One ampere for one hour (D) Charge in Faradays on one mole of electrons
22 The number of moles of Faradays needed to reduce a mole of Fe3+ to Fe2+ are
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 5
23 Which of the following energy changes occur in galvanic cell -’
(A) Electrical energy  Chemical energy (B) Chemical energy  Electrical Energy
(C) Chemical energy  Internal energy (D) Internal energy  Electrical energy
24 The single electrode potential E of 0.1 M solution of M+ ions [Eº = -2.36 V] is
(A) + 2.41 (B) - 2.41 (C) - 4.82 (D) + 4.82
25 The emf for the cell Ni I Ni (1.0M) I I Au (1.0M) I Au (Eº for Ni I Ni = –0.25 V. Eº for Au3+ I Au = 1.50V)
2+ 3+ 2+
is
(A) 1.25 V (B) - 4.0 V (C) 1.75 V (D) - 1.75 V

26 What is the emf of the cell Cr I Cr3+ (1.0M) I I Co2+ (1.0M) I Co [Eº For Cr3+ ICr = –0.74 V & Co2+ I
Co = –0.28V)–
(A) –0.74 –(–0.28) = –0.46 V (B) –0.74 + (–0.28) = –1.02 V
(C) –0.28 –(–0.74) = + 0.46 V (D) –0.28 (x2) –(–0.74) x (C) = + 1.66 V
27 The reaction ½ H2(g) + AgCI (s) = H+ (A) + Cl– (aq) + Ag (s) can be represented in the galvanic cell as
(A) Ag I AgCI(s) I KCI (soln.) I AgNO3(soln.) I Ag
(B) Pt I H2(g) I HCI(soln.) I AgNO3 (soln.) I Ag
(C)
(D)
Pt I H2(g) I HCI(soln.) I AgCI(s) I Ag
Pt I H2(g) I KCI (soln.) I AgCI(s) I Ag
e R
s
28 The electrolytic cell, one containing acidified ferrous chloride and another acidified ferric chloride are con-
nected in series. The ratio of iron deposited at cathodes in the two cells when electricity is passed through
y
the cells will be
l
(A) 3:1 (B) 2:1 (C) 1:1 (D) 3:2
29 A certain current deposits 0.50 g of hydrogen in 2 hrs. The amount of copper liberated from a solution of
a
copper sulphate by the same current flowing for the same time would be
t
(A) 31.8 g (B) 63.6 g (C) 15.9 g (D) 6.36 g
30 How long will it take for a current of 3 amperes to decompose 36 g of water. (E wt. of hydrogen is 1 and that
a
of oxygen 8)
(A) 36 hrs (B) 18 hrs (C) 9 hrs (D) 4.5 hrs
31
32 C
For a reaction A (s) + 2B+  A2+ + 2B
(A) 36 hours (B) 18 hours
Kc has been found to be 1012 . The Eºcell is .
Standard electrode potential NHE electrode at 298 K is

(A) 0.05 V (B) 0.1 V
(C)
(C)
9 hours
0.00 V
(D)
(D)
4.5 hours
0.11 V
33 The quantity of electricity needed to liberate 0.5 gram equivalent of an element is
(A) 48250 Faradays (B) 48250 Coulombs
(C) 193000 Faradays (D) 193000 Coulombs
34 From the following Eº value of half cells
(i) A + e  A–; Eº = –8.24 V (ii) B– + e  B2– ;Eº = + 1.25 V
(iii) C– + 2e  C3– ;Eº = -1.25 V (iv) D + 2e  D2– ; Eº = + .68 V
What combination of two half cells would result in a cell with the largest potential
(A) (ii) & (iii) (B) (ii) & (iv) (C) (i) & (iii) (D) (i) & (Iv)
35 Eº for F2 + 2e = 2F– is 2.8 V, Eº for ½F2 + e– = F– is
(A) 2.8 V (B) 1.4 V (C) –2.8 V (D) –1:4 V
36 The half cell reduction potential of a hydrogen electrode at pH = 10 will be
(A) 0.59 V (B) – 0.59 V (C) 0.059 V (D) – 0.059 V
37 10800 C of electricity through the elecrolyte deposited 2.977 g of metal with atomic mass 106.4 g mol–1
The charge on the metal cation is - .
(A) +4 (B) +3 (C) +2 (D) +1

38 In passing 3 faraday of electricity through the three electrolytic cells connected in series containing Ag+,
Ca2+ and AI+3 ions respectively. The molar ratio in which the three metal ions are liberated at the electrodes
is –
(A) 1:2:3 (B) 3:2:1 (C) 6:3:2 (D) 3:4:2
39 How many Coulomb of electricity are consumed when 100 mA current is passed through a solution of
AgNO3 for half an hour during electrolysis
(A) 108 (B) 180 (C) 1800 (D) 18000
40
41
(A) 20.5 (B) 25.8 (C) 19.3 (D)
e R
On passing 3 ampere current for 50 minute, 1.8 g of metal deposits. The equivalent weight of metal
30.7
EºRP for Fe+2/Fe and Sn+2/Sn are –0.44 and –0.14 volt respectively. The standard emf for cell
s
+2 +2
Fe + Sn  Sn + Fe is
(A) + 0.30 V (B) –0.58 V (C) + 0.58 V (D) –0.30 V
42
(A) 0.177 V (B) - 0.177 V
y
The hydrogen electrode is dipped in a solution of pH 3 at 25°C. The reduction potential of half cell would be
l (C) 0.087 V (D) 0.059 V
a
43 The standard reduction potentials of Cu2+/Cu and Cu2+/Cu + are 0.337 and 0.153 V respectively. The
standard electrode potential of Cu+ / Cu half cell is
44
(A)
(A)
0.184 V
a t
Decreases by 60 mV
(B) 0.827 V (C)
(B)
0.521 V
Increases by 30 m V
(D) 0.490 V
The solution of nickel sulphate in which nickel rod is dipped is diluted to 10 times. The potential of nickel
C
(C) Decreases by 30 m V (D) Decreases by 60 V
45 The standard reduction potentials, Eº, for the half reactions are
Zn2– + 2e–  Eº = – 0.76V
Fe2– + 2e–  Eº = – 0.41 V
The EMF for the cell reaction
Fe2– + Zn  Zn2+ + Fe is
(A) - 0.35 V (B) + 0.35 V (C) + 1.17 V (D) - 1.17 V
2+ 2+
46 The standard reduction potential for Fe / Fe and Sn / Sn electrodes are – 0.44 and – 0.14 volt respec-
tively.
For the cell reaction:
Fe2+ + Sn  Fe + Sn2+ the standard emf is
(A) + 0.30 V (B) –0.58 V (C) + 0.58 V (D) –0.30V
47 For the electrochemical cell, M I M+ I X– I X, Eº (M+/M) = 0.44 V and Eº (X / X–) = 0.33 V. From this data,
one can deduce that
(A) M + X  M+ + X– is the spontaneous reaction
(B) M+ + X–  M + X is the spontaneous reaction
(C) Ecell = 0.77 V
(D) None

48 The values of eq for NH4CI, NaOH and NaCI are respectively 149.74, 248.1 and 126.4 ohm–1cm2 equi–1
The value of eq in NH4OH is
(A) 371.44 (B) 271.44
(C) 71.44 (D) It cannot be calculated from the data given
49 The equivalent conductance of 0.001 M acetic acid is 50 ohm–1 cm2 etc. The maximum value of equivalent
conductance is 250 ohm–1 cm2 eq–1. What is its degree of ionization
(A) 0.2% (B) 2% (C) 20 % (D) Some other value
50
(A) 2.0 g (B) 3.175 g (C) 63.5 g
e
(D)
R
What weight of copper will be deposited by passing 2 faradays of electricity through a cupric salt
127.0 g
s
51 The electrochemical equivalent of silver is 0.00111 8 g. When an electric current of 0.5 ampere is passed
through an aqueous silver nitrate solution for 200 seconds, the amount of silver deposited is
y
(A) 1.118 g (B) 0.1118 g (C) 5.590 g (D) 0.5590 g
l
52 A current of 9.65 ampere flowing for 10 minutes deposits 3.0 g of the metal which is monovalent the atomic
mass of the metal is
53
(A) 10
t
(B) 50
a (C) 30 (D) 96.5

When 96500 coulomb of electricity is passed through a copper sulphate solution, the amount of copper
deposited will be
54
(A)
C
0.25 mol
a (B) 0.50 mol (C) 1.00 mol

The e.m.f. of the cell in which the following reaction Zn(s) + Ni2+(a = 1.0)
occurs, is found to be 0.5105 V at 298 K. The standard e.m.f. of the cell is
(A) 0.5400 (B) 0.4810 V (C) 0.5696 V
(D)
(D)
2;00 mol
Zn2+ (a = 10) + Ni(s)
-0.5105 V
55 The number of coulombs required for the deposition of 107.870 g of silver is
(A) 96,500 (B) 48,250 (C) 1,93,000 (D) 10,000
56 When E°Ag+/Ag = 0.8 volt and E°Zn2+/Zn = –0.76 volt, which of the following is correct
(A) Ag+ can be reduced by H2
(B) Ag can oxidise H2 into H+
(C) Zn2+ can be reduced by H2
(D) Ag can reduce Zn2+ ion
57 At 298 K, the standard reduction potentials for the following half reactions are given as :
Zn2+ (aq) + 2e–  Zn2+(s); –0.762, Cr3+ (aq) + 3e–  Cr(s) ; –0.740
2H+(aq) + 2e–  H2(g); 0.00, Fe3+ (aq) + e–  Fe2+ (aq) ; + 0.770
The strongest reducing agent is
(A) Zn (s) (B) H2 (g) (C) Cr (s) (D) Fe2+ (aq)
58 The two electrodes of platinum fitted in a conductance cell are 1.5 cm apart while the area of cross section
of each electrode is 0.75 cm2. The cell constant is
(A) 0.2 cm–1 (B) 0.5 cm–1 (C) 0.125 cm–1 (D) 2.0 cm–1

59 Which of the following will increase the voltage of the cell Sn (s) + 2Ag+ (aq)  Sn2+ (aq) + 2 Ag (s)
(A) Increase in the concentration of Sn2+ ions (B) Increase in the concentration of Ag+ ions
(C) Increase in the size of silver rod (D) None
60 The standard reduction potentials, Eº for the half reactions are as Zn = Zn2+ + 2e, Eº = 0.76 V, Fe = Fe2+ +
2e, Eº = 0.41 V. The emf for the cell reaction Fe2+ + Zn  Zn2+ + Fe, is
(A) – 0.35 V (B) + 0.35 V (C) + 1.17 V (D) – 1.17 V
61 At 20°C, the standard oxidation potential of Zn and Ag in water are
Zn (s)  Zn2+ (aq) + 2e– ; Eº = 0.76 V, Ag (s)  Ag+ (aq) + e– ; Eº = –0.80 V
Which of the following reaction actually takes place
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s
(A) Zn2+ (aq) + 2 Ag (s)  2 Ag + (aq) + Zn (s) (B) Zn (s) + 2Ag+ (aq)  Zn2+ (aq) + 2 Ag (s)
(C) Zn2+ (aq) + 2 Ag (aq)  Zn (s) + Ag (s) (D) Zn (s) + Ag (s)  Zn2+ (aq) + Ag (aq)
62
standard potential of the cell is
(A) 1.56 V (B) 0.036 V
l (C) y
The standard electrode potentials of Zn2+/Zn and Ag+/Ag are –0.763 V and + 0.799 V respectively. The
-1.562 V (D) 0.799 V

63
2.03 V
t (B) a
The cell reaction of a cell is Mg(s) + Cu2+(aq)  Cu(s) + Mg2+ (aq). If the standard reduction potentials of
Mg and Cu are -2.37 and + 0.34 V respectively. The emf of the cell is
(A) -2.03 V (C) + 2.71 V (D) -2.71 V
64
65
C
(A) 31.75 g a
What weight of copper will be deposited by passing 2 Faradays of electricity through a solution of cupric
salt -
(B) 63.5 g (C) 20.0 g (D) 40.0 g
On passing electric current into a solution of a salt of metal, M, the reaction at the cathode takes place as:
M2+ + 2e–  M. Atomic weight of M is 65. The equivalent weight of metal is
(A) 65 (B) 32.5 (C) 130 (D) 200
66 The amount of electricity that should be passed through CuSO4 solution with Cu electrodes to deposit 0.1
g atom of Cu is
(A) 9650 coulombs (B) 96500 coulombs
(C) 19300 coulombs (D) 193000 coulombs
67 A current of 0.5 ampere when passed through AgNO3 solution for 193 sec. deposited 0.108g of Ag. The
equivalent weight of silver is
(A) 108 (B) 54 (C) 5.4 (D) 10.8
68 A solution containing one mole per litre of each Cu(NO3)2, AgNO3, Hg2(NO3)2, Mg (NO3)2 is being
electrolyzed by using inert electrodes. The value of reduction potentials are Ag/Ag+ = + 0.80, 2Hg/Hg22+ =
0.79, Cu/Cu2+ = + 0.34, Mg/Mg2+ = - 2.7.With increasing voltage, the sequence of deposition of metals on
the cathode will be
(A) Ag, Mg Hg, Cu (B) Ag, Hg, Cu (C) Cu, Hg, Ag, Mg (D) Mg, Cu, Hg, Ag
69 A current of 2.6 ampere is passed through CuSO4 solution for 6 minutes 20 seconds. The amount of Cu
deposited is (At. wt. of Cu = 63.5, Faraday = 96500 C)
(A) 6.35 g (B) 0.635 g (C) 0.325 g (D) 3.175 g

70 A certain current liberates 0.504 g of H2 in 2 hours. How many grams of copper can be liberated by the
same current flowing for the same time in CuSO4 solution - .
(A) 31.8 g (B) 15.9 g (C) 12.7 g (D) 63.5 g
*****
EXERCISE # 02
1. A, B and C are three elements forming a part of compound in oxidation state of +2, +5 and –2 respectively.
R
The compound is
(A) A3(BC4)2 (B) ABC2 (C) A3(BC3)2 (D) A2B2C3
2.
3.
The compound which act as oxidising agent as well as reducing agent?
(A) H2S (B) H2SO3 (C)
s
H2SO4
e
(D)
K2Cr2O7 + aH2SO4 + bSO2  K2SO4 + Cr2(SO4)3 + cH2O. The value of a, b and c are
All of these
4.
(A) 4, 3, 5 (B) 2, 3, 2
l
Oxidation number of sulphur in S2O3–2 is
(C)
y3, 3, 3 (D) 1, 3, 1
a
(A) +6, –2 (B) +2.5, +2.5 (C) +6, +2 (D) +6, –6
t
5. FeCl3 + H2S  FeCl2 + S + HCl
In above reaction
6.
(A)
(C)
C a
FeCl3 act as reducing agent
H2S act as reducing agent
As2S3 + HNO3  H3AsO4 + H2SO4 + NO.
The equivalent weight of As2S3 is
(B)
(D)
H2S act as oxidising agent
Both act as reducing agent
M M M M
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 24 3 28
7. Oxidation number of nitrogen in HNC is

(A) –3 (B) +3 (C) 2 (D) –2
8. When SO2 is passed through the solution of potassium iodate, the oxidation state of iodine changes from
(A) +5 to 0 (B) –5 to 0 (C) +5 to –1 (D) +5 to +7
9. 1 mole FeC2O4 is titrated with KMnO4 in acidic medium. The number of mole of KMnO4 required
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) 1.67 (D) 0.6
10. Among the following, identify the species with an atom in +6 oxidation state
(A) CrO2Cl2 (B) MnO4– (C) Cl2O7 (D) I3–
11. The amount of charge required for conversion of1 mol of MnO4– to Mn+2 is
(A) 5F (B) 2F (C) 7F (D) 3F
12. The strength of current in amp will required to liberate 0.28L Cl2 at S.T.P from sodium chloride solution in
965 second is
(A) 2.0 amp (B) 2.5 amp (C) 1.0 amp (D) 1.5 amp

13. When electrolysis of sodium sulphate solution take place using inert electrode, then
(A) Sodium is deposited at cathode (B) O2 gas is liberated at anode
(C) SO 42 discharge at anode (D) H+ will not discharge at cathode
14. The equivalent conductances of NaCl, HCl and CH3COONa at infinite dilution are 126.45, 426.16 and
91–1 cm2 eq–1 respectively at 25°C. The equivalent conductance of CH3COOH at infinite dilution is
(A) 643.61 (B) 590.7 (C) 360.7 (D) 390.7
15.
of tin in the salt is
(A) +1 (B) +2 (C) +3
e
(D) R
A current of 2 amp passing for 5 hours through molten tin salt deposite 22.2 gm of tin. The oxidation state
+4
16.
(°HA = 390.0)
(A) 1.7 × 10–5 (B) 1.8 × 10–5 (C)
y s
The Equivalent conductance of 0.05 N HA solution is 7.40–1cm 2eq–1 at 25°C. The Ka of acid is
1.7 × 10–4 (D) 1.8 × 10–4

17.
a l
When one mole of N2H4 loses 6 mole of electrons and converted into compound 'y'. Assume that the
oxidation state of Hydrogen atom does not change. The oxidation state of the nitrogen atom in compound
'y' will be
18.
(A) –2
+2
 0.8
a t 
V, EMg 2
+
(B)
Mg(s) | Mg (0.1 M) || Ag (1 × 10 ) | Ag
E Ag | Ag | Mg
+1
–4
 2.37 V
(C) +2 (D) +3
19.
C
The emf of above cell is
(A) 3.17 V
Pt H2 | HCl | H2 Pt
4 atm 2 atm
(B) 3.38 V (C) 2.79 V (D) 2.96 V
The emf of above cell is

(A) 8.9 × 10–3 V (B) –8.9 × 10–3 V
(C) 4.45 × 10–2 V (D) –4.45 × 10–2 V
20. The emf of the cell
Pt | H2 (1 atm) | H+ (10–4M)|| H+ | H2 (1 atm) | Pt
is 0.1182 volt. The pH of cathode is
(A) 4 (B) 2 (C) 3 (D) 6.98
21. The half cell potential of Hydrogen electrode at pH = 10 will be
(A) 0.59 (B) –0.59 (C) 0.059 (D) –0.059
22. Cu+2(aq) + Sn+2(aq)  Sn+4(aq) + Cu(s)
E Cu 2 | Cu  0.34 V ESn  4 | Sn  2  0.15 V
The equilibrium constant of above reaction is(Antilog 0.42 = 2.63 )

(A) 2.63 × 107 (B) 2.63 × 105 (C) 2.63 × 104 (D) 2.63 × 106

23. Pt (Cl2 ) | Cl – (C 2 ) || Cl  (C1 ) | Pt, (Cl2 )

1 atm 1 atm
The above cell reaction is spontaneous if

(A) C2 > C1 (B) C2 < C1 (C) C2 = C1 (D) C2 > 0
24. Benzoic acid solution is titrated with NaOH conductometrically, which is correct graph for above titration [C
= conductance]?
(A)
C
(B)
C
(C)
C
e
(D)R C
NaOH NaOH
y s NaOH NaOH
l
o o o
25. If EFe 2
| Fe
 x1 and EFe 3
| Fe
 x 2 then EFe 3
| Fe2
will be
a
(A) x1 + x2 (B) 3x2 + 2x1 (C) 3x2 – 2x1 (D) x1 – x2
t
26. At cathode, which cation reduce first?
(A) Mg+2 (B) Zn+2 (C) Cr+3 (D) Ag+
27.
28.
(A)
C
F
a
At anode, which anion discharge first?
–
Rate of corrosion increase when

(A)
(B) Cl–
Standard reduction potential of metal is greater

(C) Br– (D) I–
(B) Electrolyte present

(C) CO2 dissolve in water
(D) Both (B) & (C)
29. Reduction potential increase when temperature
(A) Increase (B) Decrease
(C) First increase then decrease (D) Can not predict
30. Which is correct?
(A) Salt bridge complete the circuit (B) Inert electrolyte discharge at electrode
(C) Inert electrolyte mix with the solution (D) All of these
*****

TOPIC : CHEMICAL KINETICS
EXERCISE # 01
1 The following data pertain to reaction between A and B ;
S.No. [A] [B] Rate
mol. l–1 mol. l–1 mol. l–1. t–1
I 1 × 10–2 2 × 10–2 2 × 10–4
II
III
2 × 10–2
2 × 10–2
Which of the following inference(s) can be drawn from the above data
2 × 10–2
4 × 10–2
e R 4 × 10–4
8 × 10–4
[a]
[b]
[c]
Rate constant of the reaction is 10
Rate law of the reaction is k [A] [B]
–4
y s
Rate of reaction increases four times on doubling the concentration of both the reactants
Select the correct answer
Codes :
a l
t
(A) a, b and c (B) a and b (C) b and c (D) c alone
2 The mechanism of the reaction :
C
2NO + O2  2NO2 is-
a NO + NO
The rate constant of the reaction is

K1
K1
k2
N2O2 (fast) ; N2O2 + O2  2NO2 (slow)
 k1 
(A) k2 (B) k2k1 (k–1) (C) k2k1 (D) k2  k 
 –1 
3 Following data are obtained for the reaction A + B  product

[A] [B] Rate
(mole l–1) (mole l–1) (mole l–1 s–1)
4 × 10–2 4 × 10–2 2 × 10–2
4 × 10–2 8 × 10–2 4 × 10–2
2 × 10–2 8 × 10–2 2 × 10–2
The reaction confirms the rate law
d[B] d[B]
(A) – = k [A] (B) – = k [A] [B]2
dt dt
d[B] d[A]
(C) – = k [A] [B] (D) – = k [B]
dt dt

4 Kinetic equation for a second order reaction is
1 x 2.303 a
(A) k= (B) k= log
t a(a  x) t a(a  x)
2.303 a 1  1 1
(C) k= log (D) k=  2
 2
t ax 2t  (a  x) a 
5 Reaction A + 2B + C  product, follows the rate law : 
False statement regarding the above reaction is :

d[c]
dt
= k [A]2
e R
(A)
(B)
y s
On doubling the conc. of B and C the rate of the reaction remains unaffected
Reducing the conc. of A to half, the rate becomes one-fourth
l
(C) Half life period of the reaction depends upon the conc. of B
(D) Half life period of the reaction is inversely proportional to the first power conc. of A
6 In the sequence of reaction :
k1
A  2
B 
k
 C 
t k
a
3  D, k > k > k then the rate determining step of the reaction is
3 2 1
7
(A) AB
a (B) CD (C) BC (D)

Dinitrogen pentaoxide decomposes as 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2. the rate can be given in three ways
C
 d[N2O5 ]
dt
= k1 [N2O5],
d[NO2 ]
dt
= k2 [N2O5],
d[O2 ]
dt
= k3 [N2O5]
AD
The relation between the rate constants k1, k2 and k3 is :

(A) k2 = 2k1 and k3 = 1/2 k1 (B) k1 = 2k2 and k3 = 2k1
(C) k1 = k 2 = k 3 (D) k1 = 2k2 = 3k3
8 Inversion of a sugar follows first order rate equation which can be followed by nothing the change in rotation
of the plane of polarization of light in the polarimeter. If f, rt and r0 are the rotations at t = , t = t and t = 0,
then, first order reaction can be written as
1 rt – r 1 r0 – r
(A) k = t log r – r (B) k=
t
ln
rt – r
0 
1 r – r0 1 r – rt
(C) k = t ln r – r (D) k = t ln r – r
 t  0
9 The rate of a certain reaction increase by 2.3 times when the temperature is raised from 300 K to 310K. If
K is the rate constant at 300K then the rate constant at 310 K will be
(A) K (B) 3K2 (C) 2K (D) 2.3K
10 For a certain decomposition, the rate is 0.30 M sec–1 when the concentration of reactant is 0.20 M. If the
reaction is second order, the rate (in M sec–1) when concentration is increased 3- times is :
(A) 0.30 (B) 0.90 (C) 0.60 (D) 2.70
11 When ethyl acetate was hydrolysed in presence of 0.1 N HCl, the rate constant was found to be
5.40×10–5 sec–1, but when 0.1 N H2SO4 was used for hydrolysis, the rate constant was found to be
6.20 × 10–5 sec–1 Thus
(A) H2SO4 is stronger than HCl
(B) H2SO4 is weaker than HCl
(C) H2SO4 and HCl both have the same strength
(D) None of these
12 The slope of the line for the graph of log k versus

1
T
e R 1
for the reaction, N2O5  2NO2 + O2 is – 5000.
2
s
Calculate the energy of activation of the reaction - (kJ K–1 mol—1)
(A) 95.7 (B) 9.57 (C) 957 (D) None
13
a/k (B) 2/ka

l
constant, the time for the reaction to go to completion is :
(A) (C) y
If a is the initial concentration of a substance which reacts according to zero order kinetics and k is rate
k/a (D) a/2k
14
t
K1 K2
a
 C. If the reaction are of Ist order then
For a reaction A  B 
d[B]
dt
is equal to :
15
(A)
C
– k2[B]
For a reaction (aX

a a
 x)
(B) + k [A]
k1
k2
Y
Z
,
d[x]
dt
(C) k1 [A] – k2 [B]
is equal to
(D) k1 [A] + k2 [B]
(A) k1 (a – x) – k2 (a – x) (B) k2 (a – x) – k1 (a – x)
(B) k1 (a – x) + k2 (a – x) (D) –k1 (a – x) – k2 (a – x)
16 For the decomposition of N2O5 (g), it is given that 2N2O5  4NO2(g) + O2(g) ; Activation energy Ea,
1
N2O5(g)  2NO2(g) + O (g) ; Activation energy Ea’ then
2 2
(A) Ea = Ea’ (B) Ea > Ea’ (C) Ea < Ea’ (D) Ea = 2Ea’
17 Azo isopropane decomposes according to the equation :
(CH3)2CHN = NCH(CH3)2 (g) 

250–290º
 N2(g) + C6H14(g)
It is found to be a frist order reaction. If initial pressure is P0 and pressure of the mixture at time t is (Pt) then
rate constant (k) would be :
2.303 P0 2.303 P –Pt

(A) k= log (B) k= log 0
t 2P0 – Pt t P0
2.303 P0 2.303 2P0

(C) k= log (D) k= log
t P0 – Pt t 2P0 – Pt

18 Quantum yield of photosynthesis of :
(A) HCl > HBr (B) HCl < HBr (C) HCl = HBr (D) None
19 When the rate is determined by the change in concentration of two different reactants, then the kinetic
equation may be expressed as
2.303 (a  x)b 2.303 (a  x)

(A) k2 = log (B) k2 = log
(a  b)t (b  x)a (a  b)t (a  x)
(C) k2 =
2.303
(a  b)
log
(a  x)
(b  x)
(D) k2 =
1
t
×
x
(a  x)
e R
s
20 The reaction profile diagram of the reaction A + B C + D is as under
100
l y
Energy (KJ)
80
60
C+D
a
40
20
0
t
Reaction course
a
Which of the following is an incorrect statement ?
C
(A) The activation energy of backward reaction is 70 kJ
(B) H for the forward reaction is 20 kJ
(C) The forward reaction is endothermic
(D) The activation energy for the forward reaction is 50 kJ
21 In the reaction A + B  C + D, the concentration of A and B are equal and the rate of the reaction is –
Rate = k[A] [B]. The integrated rate equation for this reaction is :
x xa 1 x 1 x
(A) k = t (a – x) (B) k= (C) k= . (D) k= .
(a – x) t a(a – x) t a(x – a)
22 If a graph is plotted between log (a – x) and t, the slope of the straight line is equal to – 0.03. The specific
reaction rate will be :
(A) 6.9 × 10–2 (B) 6.9 (C) 0.69 (D) 6.9 × 10–4
23 In the Wilhelmey equation of a first order reaction Ct = C0e–kt if the initial concentration C0 is increased m
times then
(A) The value of k will increase m times (B) The value of k will decrease m times
(C) The value of k will remains unchanged (D) None of these
24 The data for the dissociation of ammonium nitrate are as under –
Volume of N2 in cm3 6.25 9.0 11.42 13.65 35.05
Time in min. 10 15 20 25 
The reaction is of
(A) Zero order (B) First order (C) Second order (D) Third order

25 The half life period of a first order reaction is 15 minute. How much reaction will be completed in 30 min.
(A) 75% (B) 80% (C) 95% (D) 100%
26 99% at a first order reaction was completed in 32 min. When will 99.9% of the reaction complete.
(A) 48 min (B) 46 min (C) 50 min (D) 45 min
27 According to collision theory of reaction rate, the rate increases with the increase in temperature because
(A) The number of collisions increases (B) The velocity of reactant molecules increases
(C) More molecules obtain activation energy (D) None of these
28
R
In a second order reaction 20% of a substance is dissociated in 40 minutes. The time taken by the 80% of
its dissociation is
e
s
(A) 160 minutes (B) 640 minutes (C) 200 minute (D) 320 minute
29 The rate constants at 27ºC and 67ºC for the dissociation of N2O5 are 3.45 × 10–5 and 6.90 × 10–3 respec-
y
tively. What is the activation energy for the dissociation of N2O5 ?
l
(A) 112.5 kJ (B) 225 kJ (C) 448 kJ (D) None of these
30 The temperature coefficient of a reaction is :
(A)
(B)
(C)
a
The ratio of the rate constants of two reactions at 25ºC
t
The ratio of the rate constants of a reaction at 25ºC and 35ºC
The ratio of the rate constants at any two different temperature
31
(D)
(A) t1/2 =
a
None of the above
The half life period of a second order reaction can be expressed as :
C 0.693
k
(B) t1/2 =
3 1
.
2k a2
1 1
(C) t1/2 = . (D) None of these
k a
32 The rate constant for a reaction is 10.8 × 10–5 mol lit–1 sec–1. The reaction is -
(A) Zero order (B) Half order (C) First order (D) Second order
–4
33 The rate constant of a reaction is about 3.2 × 10 at 280 K. What will be its rate constant at 300 K ?
(A) 9.6 × 10–4 (B) 3.2 × 10–5
(C) 6.4 × 10–4 (D) 1.28 × 10–3
34 In acidic medium the rate of reaction between (BrO 3)– and Br– ion is given by the expression
d(BrO3– )
= k[BrO3–] [Br–] [H+]2 it means
dt
(A) Rate constant of overall reaction is 4 sec–1

(B) Rate of reaction is independent of the conc. of acid
(C) The change in pH of the solution will not affect the rate
(D) Doubling the conc. of H+ ions will increase the reaction rate by 4 times

35 Using the data given below the order and rate constant for the reaction : CH3CHO(g)  CH4(g) + CO(g)
would be
Experiment no. Initial conc. Initial rate
[mol/l] [mol/l/sec]
a 0.10 0.020
b 0.20 0.080
c
d
0.30
0.40
e R 0.180
0.320
s
Answer is
(A) 2, [k = 2.0 l/mol sec] (B) 0, [k = 2.0 mol/l sec]
36
(C) 2, [k = 1.5 l/mol sec]
l
(D)
y1, [k = 1.5 sec–1]

In the reaction : A + 2B + C  D + 2E. The rate of formation of D remains unchanged if the conc. of B is
doubled and that of A and C is kept constant. What is the order with respect to B
37
(A)
of
0
t
(B) 1/2
a (C) 1 (D) 3
t0.5 = constant, confirms the first order of the reaction as one a2 t0.5 = constant confirms that the reaction is
38
(A) Zero order
a (B) First order

In a certain gaseous reaction between X and Y
C
X + 3Y  XY3
The initial rates are reported as follows
(C) Second order (D) Third order
[X] [Y] Rate

0.1 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1
0.2 M 0.1 M 0.002 Ms–1
0.3 M 0.2 M 0.008 Ms–1
0.4 M 0.3 M 0.018 Ms–1
The rate law is
(A) r = k [X] [Y]3 (B) r = k [X]0 [Y]2
(C) r = k [X] [Y] (D) r = k [X]0 [Y]3
39 The rate of reaction between A and B increases by a factor of 100, when the concentration of A is increased
by 10 fold, the order of reaction with respect to A is :
(A) 10 (B) 1 (C) 4 (D) 2
40 For a reaction, the rate constant is expressed as, k = A.e–40000/T . The energy of the activation is :
(A) 40000 cal (B) 88000 cal (C) 80000 cal (D) 8000 cal
–1
41 The half-life period for a reaction at initial concentration of 0.5 and 1.0 moles litre are 200 sec and 100 sec
respectively. The order of the reaction is
(A) 0 (B) 1 (C) 2 (D) 3

42 A reaction takes place in three steps. The rate constants are k1, k2 and k3. The over all rate constant k
k1k 3
= k . If (energy of activation) E1, E2 and E3 are 60, 30 and 10 kJ. the overall energy of activation is :
2
(A) 40 (B) 30 (C) 400 (D) 60
2500

43 A reaction rate constant is given by : k = 1.2 × 1014 e RT
sec–1. It means
(A)
(B)
(C)
Log k versus log T will give a straight line with a slope as 25000
Log k versus log T will give a straight line with a slope as – 25000
Log k versus T will give a straight line with a slope as – 25000
e R
44
(D) Log k versus 1/T will give a straight line
Dinitrogen pentaoxide decomposes as follows
y s
N2O5  2NO2 + ½ O2. If 
Derive a relation in k’ , k” and k”’

d N2 O5 
dt
a l  k ' N2O5  ;
dNO2 
dt
k''N2O5  ;
d  O2 
dt
 k ''' N2O5  .
(A)
k ' k " k "'
2 3
 
4
a t (B) (k’)2 = k” = k”’
C
k"
(C) 2k’ = k” = 2k”’ (D) k’ = = 2k”’
2
45 The rate of change in concentration of C in the reaction 2A + B  2C + 3D was reported as

1.0 mol litre–1 sec–1 . Calculate the reaction rate
(A) 0.05 mole litre–1 sec–1 (B) 0.01 mol litre–1 sec–1
(C) 0.5 mol litre–1 sec–1 (D) None of these
46 For the reaction 2NO(g) + H2(g)  N2O(g) + H2O (g), at 900 K following data are observed.
Initial pressure of NO (atm) Initial pressure of H2 (atm) Initial rate of pressure decrease
(atm min–1)
0.150 0.40 0.020
0.075 0.40 0.005
0.150 0.20 0.010
Find out the rate law and order of reaction
2 1 2 1
(A) k PNO2  PH2  ,3 (B) k PNO2  PH2  , 2
2 1 2 1
(C) k PNO2  PH2  , 1 (D) k PNO2  PH2  , 0

47 An exothermic reaction A  B has an activation energy of 17 kJ per mole of A. The heat of the reaction is
40 kJ. Calculate the activation energy for the reverse reaction B  A
(A) 60kJ (B) 57kJ (C) 75kJ (D) 90kJ
48 k34° : k35° < 1 , then
(A) Rate increases with the rise in temperature
(B) Rate decreases with rise in temperature
(C) Rate does not change with rise in temperature
*****
e R
1.
EXERCISE # 02
The saponification of ethyl acetate is a
y s
l
(A) Zero order
(B) 1st order
2.
(C)
(D)
Half order
t
Second order reaction
a
The half life of a zero order reaction is
3.
(A)
C
0.693
K
a (B)
[A 0 ]
K
(C)
[A 0 ]
2K
The time required to complete 99.9% of a first order reaction is nearly

(D)
K
[A 0 ]
(A) 10  t 12 (B) 99.9  t 12 (C) 2  t 12 (D) 20  t 12
4. For a chemical reaction P  Q, the rate of reaction is doubled when concentration is increased eight
times. The order of the reaction with respect to P is
1 1
(A) (B) (C) 0 (D) 1
2 3
5. If activation energy of the forward and reverse reactions are same, then
(A) G = 0 & G° = 0 (B) Only H = 0
(C) S = 0 (D) S = 0, G = 0
6. For the reaction, 2O3 

 3O2, the rate law will be of the proposed mechanism is
O3 O2 + O (Fast) O3 + O 
 2O2 (Slow)
(A) Rate = K[O3]2[O2]–1 (B) Rate = K[O3]2[O2]
(C) Rate = K[O3][O2] (D) Rate = K[O3]2

7. The rates of a certain reaction at different times are as follows
Times (s) Rate (mol L–1 sec–1)
10 s 6.8 × 10–6
40 s 6.78 × 10–6
100 s 6.81 × 10–6
The order of the above reaction is
(A) 1 (B) 2 (C) Zero (D)
e R 1
2
s
1
8. What is the slope of the graph log K Vs ?
T
(A)
–Ea
RT
(B)
Ea
l
2.303 RT
(C)
y –Ea
2.303 RT
(D)
–EaT
2.303 R
9.
10.
(A) 100 minutes
t
The correct order is
(B)
a
A first order reaction is 25% complete in 25 minutes. The time required for 100% completion would be
200 minutes (C) 50 minutes (D) Infinite
11.
(A)
(C)
C a
Tav < T50% < T75%
Tav < T75% < T50%
Transition state are shown by
(B)
(D)
T50% < Tav < T75%
T50% < T75% < Tav
P.E.
II III IV
I
Progress function
(A) I, IV (B) II only (C) II and III (D) IV and III

12. P  q, H = –10 kJ/mole. Ea = 50 kJ/mole then Ea for q  P will be
(A) 40 kJ/mole (B) – 40 kJ/mole (C) – 60 kJ/mole (D) 60 kJ/mole
13. 2N2O5  4NO2 + O2
[O 2 ]
If [N2 O 5 ]  K [N O ], [NO 2 ]  K [N O ] ,  K 3 [N2O 5 ] , then
t
1 2 5
t
2 2 5 t
(A) K1 = K2 = K3 (B) 2K1 = K2 = 4K3 (C) 2K1 = 4K2 = K3 (D) None of these
14. Half life of reaction doesn’t change by increasing the concentration then reaction must be
1
(A) Zero order (B) 1st order (C) order (D) 2nd order
2

15. The rate constant for zero order reaction is
A0 A0 – At A0 – At A0
(A) K (B) K (C) K  ln (D) K
2t t 2t At
16. For an endothermic reaction H represents the enthalpy of the reaction in kJ mol–1. The minimum amount
of activation energy will be
(A) Less than H (B) Zero (C) More than H (D) Equal to H
17. Which of the following statement about the catalyst is true?
(A)
(B) R
A catalyst accelerates the rate of reaction by bringing down the activation energy
A catalyst does not participate in reaction mechanism
e
(C)
(D)
y s
A catalyst makes the reaction feasible by making G more negative
A catalyst makes equilibrium constant more favourable for forward reaction
l
18. Units of specific reaction rate for second order reaction is
(A) s–1 (B) mol L–1 s–1 (C) L2 mol2 s–1 (D) L mol–1 s–1
19.
t
formation of B by a factor of
1
a
A reaction A  B follows a second order kinetics. Doubling the concentration of A will increase the rate of
a
(A) 2 (B) (C) 4 (D)
2 4
20. The rate constant for the reaction
C
2N2 O 5  4NO 2  O 2 is 3.0 × 10–5 s–1. If the rate is 2.4 × 10–5 mol L–1 s–1, then the concentration of
N2O5 (in mol L–1) is
(A) 1.4 (B) 1.2 (C) 0.04 (D) 0.8
*****
TOPIC : SURFACE CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE # 01
1 Substances whose solutions can readily diffuse through animal membrances are called :
(A) Colloids (B) Crystalloids (C) Electrolytes (D) Non-electrolytes
2 The size of the colloidal particles is in between :-
(A) 10–7 - 109 cm (B) 10–9 - 10–11 cm (C) 10–5 - 10–7 cm (D) 10–2 - 10–3 cm
3 The size of a colloidal particle is :-
(A) > 0.1 (B) 1 m to 0.1 (C) < 0.1 m (D) More than 3000 m
4 If dispersed phase is liquid and the dispersion medium is solid, the colloid is known as :
(A) A sol (B) A gel (C) An emulsion (D) A foam

5 An emulsion is a colloidal solution consisting of :
(A) Two solids (B) Two liquids
(C) Two gases (D) One solid and one liquid
6 The colloidal solution of gelatin is known as :
(A) Solvent loving (B) Reversible (C) Hydrophilic (D) All the above
7 Peptization is a process of :
(A) Precipitating the collodial particles
(B)
(C)
Purifying the colloidal sol
Dispersing the precipitate in to colloidal sol
e R
s
(D) Movement of colloidal particles towards the opposite charged electrodes
8 Colloids are purified by :
9
(A) Brownian motion (B) Precipitation
l
(C)
y
Dialysis
Which of the following substance give a positively charged sol :
(D) Filtration
a
(A) Gold (B) Arsenious sulphide
(C) Starch (D) Ferric hydroxide
10
11
(A)
a
Coagulates
t
When excess of electrolyte is added to a colloid it :
(B)
Gold number is a measure of the :
Gets diluted (C) Dissolved (D) Does not change
C
(A) Protective action by a lyophilic colloid on lyophobic colloid
(B) Protective action by a lyophobic colloid on lyophilic colloid
(C) Number of mg of gold in a standard red gold sol
12 A liquid is found to scatter a beam of light but leaves no residue when passed through the filter paper. The
liquid can be described as :-
(A) A suspension (B) Oil (C) A collodial sol (D) True solution
13 A catalyst is a substance which :-
(A) Increases the equilibrium concentration of the product
(B) Change the equilibrium constant of the reaction
(C) Shortens the time to reach equilibrium
(D) Supplies energy to the reaction
14 A catalyst :
(A) Increases the free energy change in the reaction
(B) Decreases the free energy change in the reaction
(C) Does not increases & decreases the free energy change in the reaction
(D) Can either decreases or increases the free energy change depending on what catalyst we use

15 A catalytic poison renders the catalyst ineffective because :-
(A) It is preferentially adsorbed on the catalyst
(B) It adsorbs the molecules of the reactants
(C) It combines chemically with the catalyst
(D) It combines with one of the reactant
16 Regarding criteria of catalysis which one of the following statements is not true :
R
(A) The catalyst is unchanged chemically during the reaction
(B) A small quantity of catalyst is often sufficient to bring about a considerable amount of the reaction
(C)
(D)
In reversible reaction, the catalyst alters the equilibrium position
The catalyst accelerates the rate of reaction
s e
y
17 Which is lyophobic in nature ;-
(A) Gelatin (B) Phosphorus (C) Starch (D) Agar-Agar
18
(A) Prevent making of colloid
l
Gelatin is mostly used in making ice creams in order to ;-
a (B) Stabilise the colloid and prevent crystalisation
t
(C) Stabilise the mixture (D) Enrich the aroma
19 Blood may be purified by :-
20
21
(A)
C
(A)
Dialysis
k
a (B)
(B)
Electro osmosis
log k
The work of enzymes in living system is -
(C)
(C)
Coagulation
n
(D)
(D)
Filteration
The slope of the straight line graph between log x/m and log P for the adsorption of a gas on solid is
l/n
(A) Oxygen transfer (B) To provide immunity

(C) To catalyse bio chemical reactions (D) To provide energy
22 A chemical reaction is catalysed by catalyst X, So X
(A) Increase the activation energy of reaction
(B) Does not affect equilibrium constant of reaction
(C) Decreases the rate constant of reaction (D) Decreases enthalpy of reaction
23 When some special substances like protein particles. blood corpuscles etc. are seperated by a permeable
membrane, the process is called :-
(A) Dialysis (B) Diffusion (C) Exosmosis (D) Endosmosis
24 At critical micelle concentration (CMC) the surfactant molecules :-
(A) Decomposes (B) Becomes completely soluble
(C) Associates (D) Dissociates
25 According to hardy schultze law the order of coagulation power of cations will be :-
(A) Na+ > Ba+2 > Al+3 (B) Al+3 > Ba+2 > Na+
(C) Ba+2 > AI+3 > Na+ (D) AI+3 > Na+ > Ba+2

26 Which one of the following method is commonly used for destruction of colloid:
(A) Dialysis (B) Condensation
(C) Filteration by animal membrane (D) By adding electrolyte
27 How enzymes increases the rate of reactions ;-
(A) By lowering activation energy
(B) By increasing activation energy
(C) By changing equilibrium constant
28
(D) By forming enzyme substrate complex
Which is not correct regarding the adsorption of a gas on surface of solid;
e R
s
(A) On increasing temp. adsorption increases continuously
(B) Enthalpy & entropy change is -Ve
(C)
(D)
Adsorption is more for some specific substance
Reversible
l y
a
29 Position of non polar and palar part in micelles:
(A) Polar at outer surface but non polar at inner surface
(B)
(C)
(D)
t
Polar at inner surface but non polar at outer surface
a
Distributed over all the surface
Are present in the surface only
C
30 Milk is a colloidal
(A) Liquid is dispersed in a liquid (B) Solid is dispersed in a liquid
(C) Gas is dispersed in a liquid (D) Sugar is dispersed in a liquid
31 Adsorbed acetic acid on activeted charcoal is :
(A) Adsorber (B) Absorber (C) Adsorbent (D) Adsorbate
32 Who was Awarded Noble Prize for the study of catalytic reactions :-
(A) Ostwald (B) Berzelius (C) Vanthoff (D) Werner
33 Colloidal particles carry charge. This can be shown by :
(A) Tyndall effect (B) Electrophoresis
(C) Brownian movement (D) Dialysis
34 Which forms a colloidal solution in water:
(A) NaCl (B) Glucose (C) Strach (D) Barium nitrate
35 Gelatin is often used as an ingredient in the manufacture of ice-cream. The reason for this is -
(A) To prevent the formation of a colloid
(B) To stabilize the colloid and prevent crystal growth
(C) To cause the mixture to solidify
(D) To improve the flavour

36 When dilute aqueous solution of AgNO3 excess is added to KI solution, positively charged sol particles of
AgI are formed due to adsorption of ion :
(A) KI+ (B) Ag+ (C) I– (D) NO3–
37 The process which is catalysed by one of the products is called
(A) Acid-base catalysis (B) Autocatalysis
(C) Negative catalysis (D) None of the above
38 Which of the following statements about a catalyst is true
(A)
(B)
It lowers the energy of activation
The catalyst altered during the reaction is regenerated
e R
s
(C) It does not alter the equilibrium
(D) All the above
39 Colour of colloidal solution is due to
(A)
(C) Due to formation of hydrated crystal
l
Different size of colloidal particles (B)
(D) yDue to formation of complex
None of the above
40
(A) Scattering of light
a
Which of the following is property of colloid
t (B) They show attraction
a
(C) Dialysis (D) Emulsion
41 The size of particles in suspension, true solution and colloidal solution varies in the order
C
(A) Suspension > Colloidal > True solution (B) Suspension > (Colloidal + True solution)
(C) True solution > Suspension > Colloidal (D) None of these
42 At the critical micelle concentration, the surfactant molecules
(A) Decompose (B) Dissociate
(C) Associate (D) Become completely soluble
43 The adsorption of a gas on a solid surace varies with pressure of the gas in which of the following manner
(A) Fast  slow  independent of the pressure
(B) Slow  fast  independent of the pressure
(C) Independent of the pressure  fast  slow
(D) Independent of the pressure  slow  fast
44 If gold number of A, B, C and D are 0.005, 0.05, 0.5 and 5 respectively, then which of the following will have
the greatest protective power
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D
45 Which of the following colloids are formed when hydrogen sulphide gas is passed through a cold solution
of arsenious oxide
(A) As2S3 (B) As2O3 (C) As2S (D) As2H2

46 The movement of colloidal particles towards the oppsitely charged electrodes on passing electricity is
known as
(A) Cataphoresis (B) Tyndall effect
(C) Brownian movement (D) None of these
47 Which of the following is used for the destruction of colloids
(A) Dialysis (B) Condensation
(C) By ultrafiltration (D) By adding electrlyte
48 Brownian movement is
(A) Zig-zag motion of the colloidal particles
e R
s
(B) Migration of colloidal particles under the influence of electric field
(B) Scattering of light by colloidal particles
49
(D) None of these
Enzymes with two sites are called
(A) Apoenzyme
l (B) yHoloenzyme
50
(C) Allosteric enzyme
t a
Wood charcoal is used to decolourise sugar because it
(D) Conjugate enzyem
a
(A) Adsorbs coloured material (B) Absorbs decolorised material
(C) Reduces coloured material (D) None of these
C
51 A catalyst can effect reversible reaction by
(A) Changing equilibrium (B) Slowing forward reaction
(C) Attaining equilibrium in both direction (D) None of these
52 Surface tension of lyophilic sols is
(A) Lower than that of H2O (B) More than that of H2O
(C) Equal to that of H2O (D) None of these
53 Alum helps in purfiying water by
(A) Forming Si complex with clay particles
(B) Sulphate part which combines with the dirt and removes it
(C) Aluminium which coagulates the mud particles
(D) Making mud water soluble
54 The The catalyst used in the manufacture of methanol from water gas is
(A) V2O5 (B) Ni + Mo (C) ZnO + Cr2O3 (D) Pt + W
55 Which one of the following is an incorrect statement for physisorption
(A) It is a reversible process (B) It requires less heat of adsorption
(C) It requires activation energy (D) It takes place at low temperature

56 Which one of the following charactersistics is not correct for physical adsorption
(A) Adsorption on solids is reversible
(B) Adsorption increases with increase in temperature
(C) Adsorption is spontaneous
(D) Both enthalpy and entropy of adsorption are negative
57 Surface wtater
(A) Salt (B) Salt and organic compound
58
(C) Organic compounds
Sodium lauryl sulphate is
(D) Suspended impurities
e R
s
(A) Cationic sol (B) Anionic sol (C) Neutral sol (D) None of these
59 Which of the following does not form sol
(A)
(C)
Electrophoresis
Electrical disintegration
l
(B)
(D)
y
Peptization
Solvent exchange
a
60 Which of the following is not an emulsion
(A) Butter (B) Ice cream (C) Milk (D) Cloud
a t *****
EXERCISE # 02
1.
2.
C
Which of the following is most effective in coagulating Fe(OH)3 Sol?
(A) K4[Fe(CN)6] (B) Na2SO4
The incorrect statement about gold number is
(A) It is an index of protective colloid
(C) KNO3 (D) RbCl
(B) It is assigned to lyophilic colloids only

(C) Greater the gold number of a protective colloid, more is its protective power
(D) Gelation has very small value of gold number
3. Bleeding due to cut can be stopped by applying ferric chloride solution in the laboratory. This is due to
(A) Cl– ions coagulate blood which is a positively charged sol
(B) Coagulation of negatively charged blood particles by Fe3+ ions
(C) Ca2+ ions present in the blood helps in coagulation by reacting with ferric chloride
(D) Both blood and ferric chloride contains iron
4. Peptization is a process of
(A) Purification of colloids
(B) Dispersing precipitate into colloidal sols
(C) Movement of colloidal particles under the influence of electrical field
(D) Coagulation of colloidal particles

5. Which will form a colloidal solution in water?
(A) KCl (B) Ca(NO3)2 (C) NaOH (D) Starch
6. Cod liver oil is an example of
(A) Saturated hydrocarbon dispersed in water
(B) Water dispersed in saturated hydrocarbon
(C) Water dispersed in unsaturated hydrocarbon
(D) Unsaturated hydrocarbon dispersed in saturated hydrocarbon
7. Rate of physical adsorption does not depend upon
(A) Surface area of the adsorbent (B) Temperature
e R
s
(C) Enthalpy of adsorption (D) Pressure
8. In the given chemical reaction, which product acts as catalyst?
2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 + 5H2C2O4  K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 8H2O + 10CO2
(A) K2SO4
l (B)
yMnSO4
a
(C) H2O (D) CO2
9. At the state of adsorption equilibrium
10.
(A)
(A)
G = 0
a t
“Purple of cassius” is
(B) H = 0
Colloidal solution of graphite in water

(C)
(B)
S = 0 (D) E = 0
Colloidal solution of gold in water
C
(C) Colloidal antimony (D) Argysol
11. In the formation of ammonia by Haber’s process
Fe / Mo
N2  3H2   2NH3
Mo is
(A) Catalyst (B) Inhibitor (C) Catalytic promoter (D) Surfactant
12. The correct order of number of moles of gases adsorbed over charcoal under identical condition is
(A) SO2 < CO2 < H2 < N2 (B) CO2 < H2 < N2 < SO2
(C) N2 < CO2 < H2 < SO2 (D) H2 < N2 < CO2 < SO2
13. In Zeigler-Natta polymerisation of ethylene, the active species is
(A) AlCl3 (B) Et3Al (C) Ti3+ (D) FeCl3
x
14. For adsorption of a gas on a solid, the plot of log  versus log p is linear with slope equal to (n > 1)
m
1
(A) K (B) log K (C) n (D)
n
15. Four protective colloid A, B, C, D have gold number 10, 20, 25, 8 respectively. Which colloid is better
protective colloid?
(A) A (B) B (C) C (D) D

TOPIC : NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE # 01
1 Radium gets changed to radon, then radon is the member of which of the following groups?
(A) 6 (B) 9 (C) 10 (D) 0
2 In nuclear fission, energy gets released in the form of
(A) kinetic energy (B) potential energy (C) electrical energy (D) None of the above.
R
3 Which of the following is the source of solar and stellar energy?
(A) Fusion of hydrogen nuclei. (B) Fission of hydrogen nuclei.
4
(C) Continuous combustion of hydrogen nuclei. (D) None of the above.
s
Which of the following elements is formed on emission of b particle from 11Na ?
e
24
y
(A) Mg (B) Na (C) P (D) N
5 Microcurie is equivalent to
(A)
(C)
1 microbecquerel
3.7 x 1010 becquerel
a l (B)
(D)
3.7 x 104 becquerel
3.7 x 102 becquerel
t
6 If one proton is released on showering a particles on 7N14, then which of the following will be formed?
(A) 9
F17 (B) 8
O17 (C) 8
O18 (D) 9
F18
7
8
(A)
C
10 m
a
Wavelength of gamma rays is
–7
(B) 10–10m (C) 10–8 m
Which of the following types of isotopes have low stability?
(A) Positron-releasing (B) Particle-releasing
(D) 10–12 m
(C) Electron-releasing (D) All of the above.

9 Total binding energy of  particles is
(A) 2.83 MeV (B) 28.3 MeV (C) 20.5 MeV (D) 0.28 MeV
10 Which of the following substances is used as fuel in a nuclear reactor?
(A) Tn (B) Zr (C) Pu (D) Be
11 Magic number of neutrons is present in which of the following elements?
(A) 83
Bi209 (B) 13
A127 (C) 92
U238 (D) 26
Fe56
12 Magic number of protons as well as neutrons is present in which of the following elements?
(A) 82
Pb208 (B) 50
Sn118 (C) 82
Pb206 (D) 50
Sn123
13 Packing fraction is related to which of the following?
(A) Atomic number (B) Mass defect (C) Nuclear spin (D) None of the above
14 Which of the following is most unstable?
(A) 30
Zn63 (B) 30
Zn71 (C) 30
Zn67 (D) 30
Zn64
15 Which of the following separation of isotopes?
(A) Exchange reaction (B) Diffusion of gases
(C) Electromagnetic separation (D) X-ray method

16 AI27 + 2He4  14Si30 + 1H1
13
The above reaction is

(A) a nuclear fission (B) a nuclear fusion
(C) an artificial transformation (D) a chemical reaction
17 Which of the following is not a radioactive element?
(A) Cm (B) Md (C) Mo (D) Ra
18 Which of the following elements does not undergo disintegration?
19
(A) U235 (B) U238
Which of the following is an atomic-pile fuel?
(C) U233 (D)
e R
U234
s
(A) Thorium (B) Sodium (C) Uranium (D) Petroleum
20 -Rays are clusters of which of the following particles?
21
(A) Electrons (B)
Al27 + 2He4  14Se30 + 1H1 + Q
13
Protons
l
(C)
y
W (D) He+2
a
What should be the value of Q in the above reaction? Actual atomic weight of 13Ae27 isotopc is 26.9815 amu
and that of 14Se30 is 29.9738 amu.
22
(A)
(A)
0.27 MeV
2 fermi
a t (B) 2.329 MeV (C) 8.239 MeV

Distance between the nucleons in an atomic nucleus is (1 fermi = 10
(B) 25 fermi
–13
(D)
emf)
10.329 MeV
C
(C) 100 fermi (D) 40 fermi
23 75% of a first order reaction is completed in 32 minutes, then 50% of this reaction will be completed in
(A) 16 minutes (B) 20 minutes (C) 8 minutes (D) 40 minutes
24 If half-life of a radioactive substance is 1600 minutes, then how much part will be left behind after 6400
minutes?
1 1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D)
16 4 8 2
25 Atomic weight of radium is 226 and its half-life is 1600 years, then how much of it will get disintegrated per
second from 1 gram?
(A) 4.8 x 1010 (B) 3.7 x 1010 (C) 9.2 x 106 (D) 3.7 x 108
26 Mass number of a nucleoid is 216, then what should be its radius in fermi?
(A) 6.0 (B) 7.0 (C) 8.0 (D) 7.8
27 The decay constant of a radioactive substance is 1.7 x 10–6 per second, then its half-life will be
(A) 5 days (B) 5 hours (C) 5 years (D) 5 months
28 Which of the following radioactive series is less branched?
(A) 4n+2 (B) 4n+3 (C) 4n + 1 (D) 4n
29 Which of the following is used in the separation of radium?
(A) Pb (B) Fe (C) Ba (D) Bi

30 Which of the following scientists first performed artificial disintegration of a nuclear atom?
(A) Rutherford (B) Mendeleef (C) Bohr (D) Claisen
31 What time is taken by an element in getting 90%disintegrated, if half-life of the element is 1.4 x 1010 years?
(A) 4.6 x 1010 years (B) 1.128 x 109 years
(C) 1.128 x 107 years (D) 1.237 x 1015 years
32 What is the ratio of atomic radius and nucleus?
(A) 104 : 1 (B) 10–4 : 1 (C) 10–2 : 1 (D) 103 : 1
33 In 3Li6 + .........  2He4 + 1H3, what should be there in the blank space?
(A) Electron (B) Neutron (C) Proton
e
(D)
R Deuteron
s
34 How much temperature is needed to start a nuclear fission reaction?
(A) 104K (B) 102K (C) 106K (D) 108K
35 The energy of a thermal neutron is
(A) < 1 eV (B) 1 MeV
l (C)
y100 eV (D) > 1 eV
t a *****
C a

ANSWER KEY
PART - I (CLASS XI)
ATOMIC STRUCTURE
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
C
11
B A
B
12
D
B
13
D
14
B
C
15
D
C
16
D
D
17
C
A
18
D
A
19
eAR D
20
B
s
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B D B D B C C D B D
y
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A A D B D C C B C B
Qus.
Ans.
41
C
42
D
43
C
44
C
a l 45
A
46
C
47
C
48
B
49
C
50
B
EXERCISE # 02
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
1
C
11
a
2
C
12
t 3
B
13
4
A
14
5
A
15
6
B
16
7
C
17
8
C
18
9
B
19
10
B
20
Ans.
C
A
CHEMICAL BONDING
EXERCISE # 01
D D B D B A A A C
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C D D A D C B A D
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B D D C C C B A B A
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D D C A B C B D D A
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D A C D B C A D A B
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46
Ans. C C A C B A
EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B A C B A D A B B
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B D D C C B A A D A

MOLE CONCEPT
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C B B C D D D C B
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C C B A D C D B B C
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
A
31
B B
C
32
A
33
A
D
34
C
B
35
A
A
36
A
C
37
D
B
38
A
A
e
39
C R B
40
B
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
41
C
51
42
A
52
43
B
53
44
A
54
45
D
55
46
D
56
y
C
s
47
57
48
C
58
49
A
59
50
A
60
l
Ans. D B C A B A C C C A
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
a
Ans. A B A B B C A D B D
EXERCISE # 02
Qus.
Ans.
1
B
a
2
B
t 3
C
4
B
5
D
6
A
7
D
8
B
9
A
10
C
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
C
11
A
21
B
GASEOUS STATE
12
C
22
B
13
C
23
B
14
C
24
B
15
D
25
C
16
B
17
A
18
D
19
A
20
D
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B D C B B C A B A B
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B B A A D C D C D D
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. B A B A B A D A B D
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. C C D C D D B B C A
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. B C C A A B B A C D

EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B B C B D C B C D C
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A D D B C B B A C A
CHEMICAL EQUILIBRIUM
EXERCISE # 01
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
1
C
11
A
2
12
3
C
13
4
D
14
5
D
15
6
B
16
7
D
17
8
B
18
e
9
D
19
R 10
A
20
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
D
21
D
A
22
A A
C
23
A
24
A
A
25
B
C
26
C
y
B
s
27
B
D
28
D
A
29
B
A
30
A
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
31
B
41
32
A
42
33
D
43
34
C
44
a l 35
A
45
36
C
46
37
C
47
38
A
48
39
C
49
40
C
50
t
Ans. B B A D B C B C A A
a
IONIC EQUILIBRIUM & ACID BASE
EXERCISE # 01
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
C
1
B
11
A
21
A
A
2
12
22
3
C
13
B
23
4
B
14
A
24
5
D
15
B
25
6
B
16
A
26
7
A
17
B
27
8
B
18
B
28
9
A
19
B
29
10
C
20
A
30
Ans. A A D B B C D C C A
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D C D D C B C C C D
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D C D D B D C B B B
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. D B D B A A D C B D
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. B C C A A C C A C A
EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D C D A B B B A D
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A B D C D A C D D B
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25
Ans. C B A A B
THERMOCHEMISTRY
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C D B D B A B D B B
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A D C A C A B C C A
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
A
31
D
D
32
C C
B
33
A
B
34
B
35
C
C
36
D
A
37
D
A
38
C
B
39
e
B
R C
40
A
s
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47
Ans. C A D C B D D
EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4
l 5 6 y7 8 9 10
a
Ans. D A D D D C A B B C
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D D
a t B C D C
PART - II (CLASS XII)

A B A C
C
SOLUTION
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D D B D B C C C D D
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C C D B C A A C D
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. C B B A B A B B B C
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A A D D D A D A D B
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D C C B A A A A C B
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. A D B B A C A A A B
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. A C B C B C A D A D
Qus. 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
Ans. A D D C A A B C D C
Qus. 81 82 83 84 85
Ans. A A D B D

EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C B C C B C A C C
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. B B B D A C B A C D
SOLID STATE
EXERCISE # 01
Qus.
Ans.
1
B
2
C
3
C
4
C
5
C
6
C
7
D
8
B
e
9
AR 10
D
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
11
B
21
12
D
22
13
B
23
14
B
24
15
D
25
16
C
26
y
B
s
17
27
18
C
28
19
D
29
20
B
30
l
Ans. D C D C C C A C C A
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a
Ans. C D A D A B D B B B
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
A
51
C
EXERCISE # 02
B
52
D
a t D D C D C B D C
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
C
1
D
11
C
ELECTROCHEMISTRY
2
B
12
D
3
B
13
C
4
B
14
B
5
D
15
A
6
C
16
C
7
A
17
A
8
A
18
D
9
D
19
D
10
C
20
C
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. C B A B B C A D D C
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. D A B A A A C B A C
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D A B B C C C D C A
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. A C B A A B A C B C
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. D B C C B D B B C C
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. B B B B A A A D B B
Qus. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
Ans. B A C B B C A B C B

EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A B D A C D A C D A
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A B B D B B B D A B
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
R
Ans. B D A D C D D D A A
CHEMICAL KINETICS
EXERCISE # 01
s e
y
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans.
l
C D C A C A B C D D
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
a
Ans. A A A C D A A A A A
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
Qus.
C
31
C
41
A
32
A
a
42
t D
C
33
43
D
B
34
44
A
A
35
45
A
36
A
46
C
37
B
47
B
38
B
48
A
39
D
B
40
C
C
Ans. C A D D C A B A
EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. D C A B B A C C D B
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. C D B B B C A D C D
SURFACE CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. B C B B B D C C D A
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Ans. A C C C A C B C B A
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans. D C B A C B D A A A
Qus. 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
Ans. D B B C B B B D A A
Qus. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
Ans. A C A A A A D A C A
Qus. 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
Ans. C A C C C B D A A D

EXERCISE # 02
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Ans. A C B B D C C B A B
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15
Ans. C D C D D
NUCLEAR CHEMISTRY
EXERCISE # 01
Qus. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8
e9
R 10
s
Ans. D A A A A B D A B C
Qus. 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
y
Ans. A A B B D C C B C D
Qus. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
Ans.
Qus.
Ans.
A
31
A
A
32
A
A
33
B
A
34
D
a l B
35
A
D A C D A
a t
C

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CONTENT

Na < Mg < Al < Si

Energy is released in (I) and absorbed in (II)(B)

a t (B) 50 (C) 20 (D) 30

B (OH)3 > TI(OH)3 > Al (OH)3 > In (OH)3 > Ga(OH)3

Al (OH)3 > Ga (OH)3 > B (OH)3 > In (OH)3 > Tl(OH)3

B (OH)3 > Al (OH)3 > Ga (OH)3 > In (OH)3 > Tl(OH)3

(A) First ionisation energy + First electron affinity

(B) First ionisation energy – First electron affinity

(D) None of the above

(A) Greater degree of covalency in compounds of Hf4

(B) Lanthanide contraction

(D) Actinide contraction

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 1

(A) Strongest reductant l

Triad - II [N+ , C+, O+]

(A) N3– , O+ (B) Na+, C+ (C) N3– , N– (D) O–, C+

12 False statement for periodic classification of elements is

(C) Hg+1 = Hg+2 (D) Hg+2  Hg+1

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 2

M+2 (C) M+4 (D) M+1 and M+2

(C) P2L , RL, PQ, RQ2 (D) LP, R2L, P2Q, RQ

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 3

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 4

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 5

Ca(OH)2 (D) KOH

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 6

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 7

sodium hydride is dissolved in water -

H–(aq) + H2O  OH– + H2

(A) Temporary hardness is due to the bicarbonates of Ca+2 and Mg+2

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 8

(C) It becomes diamagnetic (D) Solution becomes conducting

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 9

Soluble Ca(OH) is formed

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 10

A and B are respectively

Plaster of Paris, dead burnt plaster

(A) Na (B) Mg (C) Ca (D) Cu

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 11

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 12

a l (B) Phosphorus is oxidised and reduced

By oxidation at high temperature

By oxidation using a catalyst

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 13

a (B) Sodium hypochlorite

Chlorine is insoluble in water

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 14

SO2 (D) SO3

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 16

(A) Higher ionization energy (B) Lower ionization energy

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 17

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 18

21. The geometry of ClF3 is

C (B) [PCl5]+ [PCl5]– (C)

(A) [B(OH)4]+ (B) H2BO2+ (C) [B(OH)4]– (D) H2BO2–

The colour of compound X, Y and Z respectively

CatalyseR Eduventures (India) Pvt. Ltd. 19

Compound (A) and (B) are