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1. Merencanakan dan melaksanakan pelayaran dan menentukan

posisi. (Plan and conduct a passage and determine position )

1. When must a passage plan be prepared ?

A. At the start of the sea voyage.
B. Before the voyage commences.
C. When requested by a pilot.
D. After the pilot has disembarked.
2. What should a passage plan include ?
A. The plan should include the first 72 hours of the sea voyage.
B. The plan should include the entire voyage from berth to berth.
C. The plan should cover the first half of the sea voyage.
D. The master decides what to include in the passage plan
3: The path that a vessel is expected to follow, represented on a chart by a line drawn from the
point of departure to the point of arrival, is the __________.
a. DR plot
b. track line
c. heading
d. estimated course
4: Which nautical charts are intended for coastwise navigation outside of outlying reefs and
shoals?
a. Approach charts
b. General charts
c. Sailing charts
d. Coastal charts
5: Which would you consult for information about the general current circulation in the North
Atlantic Ocean?
a. Pilot chart
b. Coast Pilot
c. Current Table
d. Climatological Atlas

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6: Distance along a track line is measured on a Mercator chart by using the __________.
a. latitude scale near the middle of the track line
b. longitude scale near the middle of the track line
c. latitude scale at the mid-latitude of the chart
d. latitude or longitude scale at the middle of the scale
7: You will be loading in Boston Harbor to a maximum draft of 32'06". The charted depth of an
obstruction in the channel near Boston Light is 30 feet and you wish to have 3 feet of keel
clearance. The steaming time from the pier to the obstruction is 01h 05m. What is the latest
time (ZD +4) you can sail on 17 May 1983 and meet these requirements?
a. 1610
b. 1728
c. 1821
d. 2350
8: In which voyage, between two points, is the rhumb line distance NOT approximately the
same as the great circle distance?
a. The two points are in low latitudes in the same hemisphere.
b. The two points are in high latitudes in the same hemisphere.
c. The two points are near the equator, but in different hemispheres.
d. One point is near the equator, one point is in a high latitude, and both are near the
180th meridian.
9: You are planning to enter an unfamiliar port. Which publication provides information about
channel depths, dangers, obstructions, anchorages, and marine facilities available in that port?
a. American Practical Navigator
b. Notice to Mariners
c. Coast Pilot
d. Sailing Directions
10: The drift and set of tidal, river, and ocean currents refer to the __________.
a. position and area of the current
b. speed and direction toward which the current flows
c. type and characteristic of the current's flow
d. None of the above
11: You are preparing to take a tow from San Diego to Portland, OR. Good seamanship would

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require that you have on board, available for reference and use, all of the following EXCEPT the
__________.
a. Coast Pilot
b. harbor and coastal charts for ports of refuge enroute
c. Sailing Directions (Enroute)
d. Light List
12: You are enroute to assist vessel A. Vessel A is underway at 4.5 knots on course 233°T, and
bears 264°T at 68 miles from you. What is the course to steer at 13 knots to intercept vessel A?
a. 249°
b. 256°
c. 262°
d. 268°
13: Mariners are FIRST warned of serious defects or important changes to aids to navigation by
means of __________.
a. marine broadcast Notice to Mariners
b. Weekly Notices to Mariners
c. corrected editions of charts
d. Light Lists
14: You are informed of defects or changes in aids to navigation by __________.
a. Local Notice to Mariners
b. Weekly Notice to Mariners
c. marine broadcasts
d. All of the above
15: You would expect to find channels marked with the IALA-A Buoyage System in __________.
a. the Philippines
b. Australia
c. Republic of Korea
d. Chile
16: Which statement about radio navigational warnings is TRUE?
a. The topics for warnings included in HYDROLANTS, HYDROPACS, and NAVAREA
warnings are the same.
b. NAVAREA warnings concern only coastal navigation and inland navigation in large bays

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or sounds such as Puget Sound.

c. The United States is responsible for NAVAREA warnings in the North Atlantic north of
7°N, and west of 15°W.
d. Long range radio navigational warnings are usually broadcast by radiotelephone,
radiotelegraph, and radio-teletypewriter.
17: In which country would you expect the channels to be marked with the IALA-B Buoyage
System?
a. Poland
b. Morocco
c. Peru
d. Saudi Arabia
18: What is TRUE concerning new editions of Light Lists?
a. Supplements to new editions are issued monthly by the U.S. Coast Guard.
b. New editions are published by the National Ocean Service.
c. New editions are corrected through the date shown on the title page.
d. None of the above
19: The world is divided into NAVAREAS for the dissemination of important marine information.
Which NAVAREAS include the Indonesian?
a. XI
b. IV and XII
c. V and X
d. VI and VII
20: In which source could you find the number of a chart for a certain geographic area?
a. Chart No. 1
b. Catalog of Charts
c. Guidance for Practical Navigator
d. Coast Guard Light List
21: What publication contains information about the port facilities and passage entry to port ?
a. World Port Index
b. Coast Pilot
c. Nautical Index

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d. Sailing Directions
22: The velocity of the current in large coastal harbors is __________.
a. unpredictable
b. generally too weak to be of concern
c. predicted in Tidal Current Tables
d. generally constant
23: The Sailing Directions (Enroute) contain information on __________.
a. well-charted inner dangers
b. port facilities
c. coastal anchorages
d. offshore traffic separation schemes
24: On a chart, the characteristic of the light on a lighthouse is shown as flashing white with a
red sector. The red sector __________.
a. indicates the limits of the navigable channel
b. indicates a danger area
c. is used to identify the characteristics of the light
d. serves no significant purpose
25. To which traffic separation schemes does Rule 10 apply?
a. Those adopted by the International Maritime Organization
b. Those set up by local authorities
c. Those defined on navigational charts
d. All of the above

26. The distance covered by a ship on four successive days were 320, 300, 310 and 330
nautical miles respectively. Find the average daily run speed if each day is 24 hours long
a. 330 naut. miles
b. 300 naut. miles
c. 320 naut. miles
d. 315 naut. Miles

27. How often is it recommended that a position fix is taken during a sea voyage if the ship is

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in open waters ?
a. Just before the change of watch
b. Twice a watch
c. At least every 30 minutes
d. Only when the visibility drops

28. What chart should be used when navigating ?

a. The largest scale chart onboard for the area which is properly corrected
b. Any chart which shows the area which the vessel is passing through as long as it is
connected
c. The largest scale chart on board for the concerned area
d. The chart which covers the largest part of the passage

29. Define the required interval between position fixes.

a. Before the vessel is due to alter course
b. When the weather changes
c. Such as the vessel cannot be set into danger if the last two fixes were incorrect
d. Such that the vessel cannot be set appreciable off course, or into danger by the
effects of wind, tide or current

30. The latest edition of a chart can be found from _______.

a. the chart catalogue
b. the Annual Notice to Mariners
c. the latest cumulative notices to mariners
d. the Guide to Port Entry

31. A cumulative list of notices to mariners are published _____ a year.

a. three times
b. once
c. four times
d. twice

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32. Controls testing of bridge equipment should be carried out _______.

a. every day at noon when at sea
b. on completion of maneuvering in port
c. one to two hours prior sailing
d. whenever an item of navigation equipment is not functioning

33. You are asked to find if a particular port you are expected to visit has an Indian Embassy.
Which of these publications would you consult?
a. Port approach chart
b. Admiralty Sailing Directions
c. Admiralty list of Radio Signals
d. Guide to Port Entry

34. Which of the following factors may not be taken into consideration when planning a
passage in coastal waters?
a. Under keel clearance
b. Clearing bearings and clearing ranges
c. No - Go areas
d. Choice of ocean route

35. A voyage passage plan is made from _____.

a. pilot station to pilot station
b. fairway buoy to fairway buoy
c. berth to berth
d. berth to drop of pilot of that particular port and from arrival pilot station to the
berth

36: Your chart indicates that there is an isolated rock and names the rock using vertical letters.
This indicates the __________.
a. rock is visible at low water springs only
b. rock is a hazard to deep draft vessels only

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c. rock is dry at high water

d. exact position of the rock is doubtful

37. When the range of a ship is decreasing and its bearing remains constant,the ships are on:
a) parallel courses
b) opposite courses
c) diverging courses
d) collision courses
38. According to the recommendations of International Navigational Congress in 1912, the ratio
of length to width at the entrance for cargo vessels is

a.   5.5 and 6.0 to 1

b.   6.2 and 6.8 to 1

c.   7.4 and 7.8 to 1

d.   8.2 and 8.5 to 1

39. Which one of the following land marks on the coast line must be depicted on hydrographic
maps ?

a.   light houses

b.   church spires

c.   shore line

d.   all the above

40. Pick up the correct statement from the following:

a.   An artificial barrier which makes the enclosed area safe for anchorage of ships, is
known as break water

b.   The length of the quay wall is governed by the length of the largest vessel likely to be
berthed.

c.   The break water whose inside is used as a plateform for loading and unloading is

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called a mole

d.   All the above

41. You expect to sight land at 2100 where an alteration of course is marked on the chart. By
2120 no land has been sighted, the visibility is very good. What action would you take?
a. Keep looking out.
b. Call Master.
c. Stop engines.
d. Alter course.

42. How should a vessel cross a traffic lane when obliged to do so?
a) At a speed and heading that will cause the least encounters with vessels within
the lane
b) On a heading that will cause her to spend the LEAST TIME in the lane
c) On a HEADING as nearly as practical at right angles to the direction of traffic flow
d) On heading so that her TRACK will be as nearly as practicable at right angles to
the direction of traffic flow
43: A vessel is steaming in east longitude on January 25 and crosses the International Date Line
on an eastbound course at 0900 zone time. What is the date and time at Greenwich when the
vessel crosses the line?
a. 0900, 24 January
b. 2100, 24 January
c. 2100, 25 January
d. 0900, 26 January

44: The period at high or low tide during which there is no change in the height of the water is
called the __________.
a. range of the tide
b. plane of the tide
c. stand of the tide
d. reversing of the tide

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45: Spring tides are tides that __________.

a. have lows lower than normal and highs higher than normal
b. have lows higher than normal and highs lower than normal
c. are unpredictable
d. occur in the spring of the year

46: Mean high water is the reference plane used for __________.
a. all vertical measurements
b. heights above water of land features such as lights
c. soundings on the East and West Coasts
d. water depths on the East Coast only

47: The range of tide is the __________.

a. distance the tide moves out from the shore
b. duration of time between high and low tide
c. difference between the heights of high and low tide
d. maximum depth of the water at high tide

48: The reference datum used in determining the heights of land features on most charts is
__________.
a. mean sea level
b. mean high water
c. mean low water
d. half-tide level

49: Charted depth is the __________.

a. vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom, plus the height
of tide
b. vertical distance from the chart sounding datum to the ocean bottom
c. average height of water over a specified period of time
d. average height of all low waters at a place

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50: The datum from which the predicted heights of tides are reckoned in the tide tables is
__________.
a. mean low water
b. the same as that used for the charts of the locality
c. the highest possible level
d. given in table three of the tide tables

1. The position of the ship is found by taking a series of bearings using a magnetic compass.
How should an error of 5 degrees WEST be applied to the compass bearings?
a. Subtract 5 degrees to the bearings
b. Add the 5 degrees to the bearings
c. The same error applies to all bearings and therefore it can be ignored
d. The error should be "High" or "Low" and therefore more information is required.
2. The positions of the ship provided by the GPS should always be confirmed by other
means, when possible. Which of the following suggested methods would be the most
accurate?
a. The ranges of three distinctive shore objects on the radar.
b. Compass bearings of three shore objects
c. Bearing and distance from a navigational Buoy
d. Bearing using the Radio Direction Finding of three radio beacons
3. What is important to check when transferring a position from the GPS output to a paper
chart?
a. Any necessary corrections are applied to convert between the GPS datum and the
chart datum
b. It is important to ensure that the GPS is setup on 2 dimensional and not 3
dimensional position fixes.
c. Ensure that the GPS is setup on the same datum as the chart
d. Ensure that the chart has been corrected up to date.
4. When navigating using the GPS, how does the GPS display indicate when the accuracy of
the displayed position is reduced?
a. A large HDOP value is displayed on the screen

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b. A large "Correction Factor" number is displayed on the screen

c. The GPS display flashes and sounds an alarm
d. The GPS display is always very accurate and does not give any indication of lack
of accuracy.
5. Which of the following figures drawn on the plane of the Meridian is correct for an
observer in position Latitude 30°00' North; Longitude 15°00' West, when observing the
sun on the meridian, if the sun's Declination is 15°00' South?
a. Figure 4 is correct.
b. Figure 1 is correct.
c. Figure 2 is correct.
d. Figure 3 is correct.
6. Which of the four calculations illustrated is the correct one to determine the latitude of the
observer when the sun is on the meridian?
a. Calculation 3 is correct.
b. Calculation 1 is correct.
c. Calculation 2 is correct.
d. Calculation 4 is correct.
7. Which of the four figures illustrated shows the correct position line for the following
situation: Latitude 50°00'N, Longitude 30°00'W, Time 1200 GMT. Course steered: 090°
True, Speed: 12 knots, bearing of the sun: 200°, Intercept correction: 00°02' Towards
(observed altitude - computed altitude).
a. Figure 2 is correct.
b. Figure 1 is correct.
c. Figure 3 is correct.
d. Figure 4 is correct.

8: A vessel's position should be plotted using bearings of

a. buoys close at hand
b. fixed known objects on shore
c. buoys at a distance
d. All of the above

9: If Loran-C signals become unsynchronized, the receiver operator is warned because

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a. signals begin to blink

b. signals begin to shift
c. stations discontinue transmission
d. stations transmit grass

10: When using a buoy as an aid to navigation which of the following should be
considered?
a. The buoy should be considered to always be in the charted location.
b. If the light is flashing, the buoy should be considered to be in the charted location.
c. The buoy may not be in the charted position.
d. The buoy should be considered to be in the charted position if it has been freshly
painted.

11: When taking an amplitude, the Sun's center should be observed on the visible horizon
when
a. in high latitudes
b. the Sun is near or at a solstice
c. the declination is of a different name from the latitude
d. the Sun's declination is at or near 0°

12: When navigating a vessel, you __________.

a. can always rely on a buoy to be on station
b. can always rely on a buoy to show proper light characteristics
c. should assume a wreck buoy is directly over the wreck
d. should never rely on a floating aid to maintain its exact position

13: Civil twilight begins at 1910 zone time on 20 July 1981. Your DR position at that time
is LAT 22°16'N, LONG 150°06'W. Which statement concerning the planets available
for evening sights is TRUE?
a. Venus will have a westerly meridian angle.
b. Mars will set about one hour after the Sun sets.
c. Mars, Venus, Jupiter, and Saturn will be above the horizon.
d. Sights of Saturn, Jupiter, and Venus will yield a good three-line-of-position fix

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14: When should a navigator rely on the position of floating aids to navigation?
a. During calm weather only
b. During daylight only
c. Only when inside a harbor
d. Only when fixed aids are not available

15: While steering a course of 150°T, you wish to observe a body for a latitude check.
What would the azimuth have to be?
a. 000°T
b. 090°T
c. 150°T
d. 240°T
16: For navigational purposes, each great circle on the Earth has a length of
a. 3,600 miles
b. 5,400 miles
c. 12,500 miles
d. 21,600 miles

17: The LMT of LAN is 1210. Your longitude is 70°30'E. Which time would you use to
enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
a. 1842
b. 1652
c. 0728
d. 0652

18: A position obtained by taking lines of position from one object at different times and
advancing them to a common time is a(n)
a. dead-reckoning position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix

19: The parallax angle will vary the most with the time of year for
a. Venus

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b. Jupiter
c. Saturn
d. Polaris

20: The zone time of LAN is 1152. Your longitude is 73°15'E. What time would you use
to enter the Nautical Almanac to determine the declination of the Sun at LAN?
a. 0659
b. 0652
c. 1859
d. 1852

21: A single line of position combined with a dead-reckoning position results in a(n)
a. assumed position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix

22: The rate of increase in hour angle is the slowest for

a. the Sun
b. the Moon
c. Mars
d. Mercury

23: All Loran-C transmitting stations are equipped with cesium frequency standards
which permit
a. every station in one chain to transmit at the same time
b. each station to transmit without reference to another station
c. on-line transmission of single-line transmitters at the same time
d. each station to only depend on the master for synchronization and signal ratio

24: Your longitude is 179°59'W. The LMT at this longitude is 23h 56m of the 4th day of
the month. Six minutes later your position is 179°59'E longitude. Your LMT and
date is now
a. 00h 02m on the 4th

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b. 00h 02m on the 5th

c. 23h 50m on the 5th
d. 00h 02m on the 6th

25: Which position includes the effects of wind and current?

a. Dead reckoning position
b. Leeway position
c. Estimated position
d. Set position

26: The GHA of the first point of Aries is 315° and the GHA of a planet is 150°. What is
the right ascension of the planet?
a. 7 hours
b. 11 hours
c. 19 hours
d. 23 hours

27: The time interval between the transmission of signals from a pair of Loran-C stations
is very closely controlled and operates with
a. an atomic time standard
b. Daylight Savings Time
c. Eastern Standard Time
d. Greenwich Mean Time

28: The difference in local time between an observer on 114°W and one on 119°W is
a. 1.25 minutes
b. 5 minutes
c. 20 minutes
d. 75 minutes

29: A position that is obtained by applying estimated current and wind to your vessel's
course and speed is a(n)
a. dead reckoning position
b. estimated position

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c. fix
d. None of the above
30: A position that is obtained by using two or more intersecting lines of position taken at
nearly the same time, is a(n)
a. dead-reckoning position
b. estimated position
c. fix
d. running fix

31: The date is the same all over the world at __________.
a. 0000 GMT
b. 1200 GMT
c. 0000 LMT for an observer at 90°E longitude
d. no time

32: What describes an accurate position that is NOT based on any prior position?
a. Dead-reckoning position
b. Estimated position
c. Fix
d. Running fix

33: If the radio signal ground wave extends out for less distance than the minimum
skywave distance, there is an area in which no signal is received. This is called the
a. skip zone
b. blackout zone
c. diffraction zone
d. shadow zone

34: How many fixed objects are needed to plot a running fix?
a. None
b. One
c. Two
d. Three

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35: The part of a sextant mounted directly over the pivot of the index arm is the
a. index mirror
b. horizon glass
c. micrometer drum
d. telescope

36: On 6 July 1981, at 1000 zone time, you cross the 180th meridian steaming westward.
What is your local time?
a. It is 1000, 5 July.
b. It is 1000, 6 July.
c. It is 2200, 7 July.
d. It is 1000, 7 July.

37: The horizon glass of a sextant is

a. silvered on its half nearer the frame
b. mounted on the index arm
c. between the horizon and the shade glasses
d. All of the above

38: Civil twilight occurs at 0558 zone time on 30 December 1981. Your DR position at that
time is LAT 15°02'N, LONG 46°02'W. Which statement concerning the planets available
for morning sights is TRUE?
a. At 0558, Mars can be used for an ex-meridian observation.
b. Venus, Jupiter, and Mars sights will yield a good three line fix.
c. Saturn will be near the prime vertical.
d. Venus will be visible low in the western sky.

39: When navigating using GPS, what is an indicator of the geometry of the satellites that
your receiver is locked onto?
a. Horizontal Dilution of Precision
b. Selective Availability
c. Doppler Shifting
d. Precision Coding
40: Because of the reflecting properties of a sextant, if the sextant altitude reads 60° on the

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limb, the actual arc of the limb from 0° to the 60° reading is
a. 20°
b. 30°
c. 40°
d. 60°

41: The difference between local apparent time (LAT) and local mean time (LMT) is
indicated by the __________.
a. equation of time
b. difference of longitude between the local and central meridian in time units
c. longitude in time units
d. zone description

42: Which aid is NOT marked on a chart with a magenta circle?

a. Radar station
b. Radar transponder beacon
c. Radio beacon
d. Aero light

43: When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a two-
dimensional fix?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

44: A sextant having an index error that is "on the arc" has a __________.
a. positive correction
b. dip error
c. negative correction
d. semidiameter error
45: The equation of time is 12m 00s and the mean Sun is ahead of the apparent Sun. If you
are on the central meridian of your time zone, at what zone time will the apparent Sun
cross the meridian?

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a. 1148
b. 1200
c. 1212
d. It cannot be determined from the information given.

46: At 0000 you fix your position and plot a new DR track line. At 0200 you again fix your
position and it is 0.5 mile east of your DR. Which statement is TRUE?
a. The current is westerly at 0.5 knot.
b. You must increase speed to compensate for the current.
c. The current cannot be determined.
d. The drift is 0.25 knot.

47: A sextant having an index error that is "off the arc" has a __________.
a. positive correction
b. dip error
c. negative correction
d. semidiameter error

48: The equation of time is 8m 40s. The apparent Sun is ahead of the mean Sun. If you are
on the central meridian of your time zone, the apparent Sun will cross your meridian at
__________.
a. 11-51-20 ZT
b. 12-00-00 ZT
c. 12-04-20 ZT
d. 12-08-40 ZT

49: When using GPS, how many theoretical position lines are required for a three-
dimensional fix that takes into account altitude?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4

49: Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant is the principle cause of index error?

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a. Telescope not being parallel to the frame

b. Index mirror and horizon glass not being parallel
c. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
d. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame

50: It is 1200 local time for an observer at 54°E longitude. Which statement is TRUE?
a. It is afternoon at Greenwich.
b. It is midnight at 126°E longitude.
c. The observer is in time zone -4.
d. All of the above are true.

51: Which of the four adjustable errors in the sextant causes side error?
a. Horizon glass not being perpendicular to the frame
b. Index mirror not being perpendicular to the frame
c. Telescope not being parallel to the frame
d. Elliptical centering error

52: The marine sextant is subject to seven different types of errors, four of which may be
corrected by the navigator. An error NOT correctable by the navigator is
a. index error
b. prismatic error
c. perpendicularity of the horizon glass
d. perpendicularity of the index mirror

53: When using a radar in a unstabilized mode, fixes are determined most easily from
a. center bearings
b. tangent bearings
c. ranges
d. objects that are close aboard

54: A position obtained by crossing lines of position taken at different times and advanced
to a common time is a(n)
a. running fix
b. dead-reckoning position

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c. fix
d. estimated position

55: The true wind is from 330°T, speed 6 knots. You want the apparent wind to be 30
knots from 10° on your port bow. To what course and speed must you change?
a. Cn 240°, 28.0 knots
b. Cn 270°, 28.0 knots
c. Cn 180°, 30.0 knots
d. Cn 090°, 32.5 knots

56: What is a nonadjustable error of the sextant?

a. Prismatic error
b. Index error
c. Side error
d. Error of collimation

57: The difference (measured in degrees) between the GHA of the body and the longitude
of the observer is the __________.
a. right ascension
b. meridian angle
c. SHA of the observer
d. zenith distance

58: In order to remove index error from a sextant, you should adjust the __
a. index mirror to make it parallel to the horizon glass with the index set at zero
b. horizon glass to make it parallel to the index mirror with the index set at zero
c. horizon glass to make it parallel to the sextant frame
d. telescope to make it perpendicular to the sextant frame

59: Vessels required to have an Automatic Radar Plotting Aid must have a device to indicate
the __________.
a. distance to the next port
b. speed of the vessel over the ground or through the water
c. time of the next navigational satellite pass

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d. None of the above

60: The position accuracy of Loran-C degrades with increasing distance from the transmitting
stations as __________.
a. gains are made over the signal path
b. a result of variation in propagation conditions
c. the frequency of the pulses increases
d. the stations shift pulses

61: The index error is determined by adjusting the __________.

a. sextant frame
b. horizon glass
c. index mirror
d. micrometer drum

62: What is the geographic longitude of a body whose GHA is 232°27'?

a. 127°33'E
b. 52°27'E
c. 61°52'W
d. 61°52'E

63: A polyconic projection is based on a __________.

a. plane tangent at one point
b. cylinder tangent at one parallel
c. cone tangent at one parallel
d. series of cones tangent at selected parallels

64: A marine sextant has the index arm set at zero and the reflected image of the horizon
forms a continuous line with the actual image. When the sextant is rotated about the line
of sight the images separate. The sextant has ___
a. error of perpendicularity
b. side error
c. prismatic error
d. centering error

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65: A navigator fixing a vessel's position by radar __________.

a. should never use radar bearings
b. should only use radar bearings when the range exceeds the distance to the horizon
c. can use radar information from one object to fix the position
d. must use information from targets forward of the beam

66: During the month of October the Sun's declination is __________.

a. north and increasing
b. north and decreasing
c. south and increasing
d. south and decreasing

67. If the radar scanner of one ship is at the same height as the cargo deck of the other during
transfer operations, which type of radar would pose a greater danger of the induced
ignition ?
a. 3 cm radar.
b. 10cm radar.
c. Neither a 10 cm or a 3 cm radar.
D. Both a 10 cm and 3 cm radar.

68. A ship's position is best plotted by bearings from ____________.

a. the radar of the nearest land
b. the radio direction finder
c. buoys close at hand
d. fixed known objects on the shore

69. In Loran C ___________.

a. the master and secondary stations transmits 8 pulses each
b. the master station transmits one long pulse and the secondary stations transmit 8
short pulses each
c. the master station transmits 9 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 8 pulses
each
d. the master station transmits 8 pulses and the secondary stations transmit 9 pulses
each

70. In Mercator sailing ________---.

a. D'long / DMP = Tan course
b. Dep / D'long = Cos Course
c. DMP = D'long x Secant Course
d. DMP = D'lat x Secant Course

71. Plotting position using the method of a running fix is used when _______.
a. three bearing position lines are available of different objects
b. only one bearing line is available

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c. two bearing lines from two different objects are available

d. a bearing and distance off a navigational mark is available

72. The DMP between latitude 20? 30' N and latitude 10? 15' S is _________.
a. 1863.07
b. 634.77
c. 1248.92
d. 614.15

73. The Decca green zone has ________.

a. 18 lanes
b. 24 lanes
c. 30 lanes
d. 72 lanes

74. A vertical sextant angle gives _________.

a. the height of a bridge above sea level
b. a position line
c. a position circle
d. the ullage of a tank

75. From the following data: Sextant altitude (LL): 38?12.4'; Index error : 3.0' on the arc;
Corr'n for HE : 6.6'; Total corr'n for sun : for UL -17.0' , for LL + 14.8. What is the true
altitude of the Sun's Lower limb?
a. 38?30.8'
b. 38?17.6'
c. 37?45.8'
d. 38?23.6'

76. What will be the d?long for departure of 66.5? when the ship is on m?lat of 29 degrees N.
a. 137?
b. 76?
c. 36.8?
d. 77.0?

77. The SHA of star "VEGA" to the nearest minute is _______.

a. 137?18'
b. 96?37'
c. 80?47'
d. 90?52'

78. Coastal radio navigational warnings are issued _____.

a. by port and harbour authorities within their respective limits
b. by the meteorological department of that country
c. by the mercantile marine department of that country
d. by national broadcasting corporations

79. The azimuth of a body whose LHA is 195? will be _____.

a. westerly
b. easterly
c. northerly
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d. southerly

80. Which of the following methods do you think will give the most accurate ship?s position?
a. Doubling angle on the bow.
b. One bearing and distance of one object.
c. Two distances off two objects subtending an angle of about 90 degrees.
d. A three point bearing.

1. A ship is navigating in the Caribbean in August when it receives the warning of a

Hurricane. To determine the centre of the storm the Master uses "Buys Ballot's Law" and
faces the wind. On what side of the Master would the low pressure area be located?
a. On the right side
b. On the left side
c. Straight ahead
d. This is not a suitable method to use with a Hurricane.
2. If the strength of the wind is related to the pressure gradient and the space between the
isobars, which of the following statements is correct?
a. The closer the isobars are together the stronger will be the predicted wind.
b. Strong winds are found in areas where the isobars are not close together
c. The pressure gradient is a measurement of the distance between the high and the
low pressures and is not associated with isobars.
d. The wind force is related to the difference in pressures and blows directly between
the centres of high and the low pressure
3. In the Beaufort Scale of Wind Force, what is the Beaufort number associated with the
wind force known as a "Gale"? This should not be confused with a "Near Gale" or
"Strong Gale"
a. Eight (8)
b. Nine (9)
c. Seven (7)
d. Ten (10)
4. What is the correct understanding of the term "Isobar"?
a. An "Isobar" is a line joining places of equal pressure.
b. An "Isobar" is a line joining places of equal temperature
c. An "Isobar" is the line showing the direction of the predicted path of a hurricane.
d. An "Isobar" is the line of the cold front in a frontal depression

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5. What is the correct understanding of the term "Lapse Rate" when used in Meteorology?
a. The change of the temperature in the atmosphere with height above sea level.
b. The rate of increase of the wind associated with a Tropical Revolving Storm.
c. The delay in temperature reduction associated with the wet bulb thermometer of a
hygrometer
d. The change in the temperature associated with the passing of the warm front of a
frontal depression.
6. What is the depth of an iceberg below the surface of the sea?
a. The draught of an iceberg varies with the type of berg and its age.
b. The depth of an iceberg below the surface is always about one sixth of its total
depth.
c. The draught of an iceberg is about the same as the visible part of the iceberg above
the water.
d. The draught of an iceberg is normally about 3/4 of its total depth.
7. What is the direction of wind associated with an anticyclone (area of high pressure) in the
Northern Hemisphere?
a. Clockwise around the high pressure
b. Anticlockwise around the high pressure
c. Straight towards the centre of the anticyclone
d. Directly away from the centre of the anticyclone towards the nearest Low
pressure.
8. What is the weather associated with being in the centre of an Anticyclone (a region of
High Pressure)?
a. Light winds and fair weather, sometimes fog.
b. Strong winds but with very little rain
c. Strong winds and heavy rain
d. Persistent rain and very humid weather
9. What is understood by the term "Dew point" of the air?
a. The temperature at which condensation in the air forms into water droplets.
b. The temperature of the water vapour in a cloud.
c. The "Dew Point" is the point at the centre of an Anticyclone
d. All of the suggested answers
10. When the temperature of the air increases with height it is known as a "Temperature
Inversion" and may influence the performance of some instruments on the ship. What
should the bridge Officer of the Watch be prepared to happen? 27
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