SHORT COURSE ON ENVIRONMENTAL PLANNING 2017

II. PROCESSES, TECHNIQUES AND STRATEGIES

Second Mock Exam

1. Planning is a sequence of events in which there are a number of _________along the planning process.
a. Cooperative activities c. decision points e. alternatives
b. Strategies for decision-makers d. iteratives

2. These are derived from the vision and goals of the CLUP
a. Sectoral programs and projects
b. Sectoral strategies and policies
c. Sectoral development issues and concerns
d. Sectoral development objectives and targets
e. Detailed sectoral studies

3. Which of the following components is not an interrelated activity of planning as a logical process and methodology?
a. Collection and analysis of information.
b. Establishment of goals and objectives
c. Evaluation of alternative courses of action
d. Recommendation of a course of action
e. None of the above

4. As an approach, it basically means that it is founded on the principles of reasoning rather than simply on emotions or
inspired guesswork.
a. Efficient c. Comprehensive e. Inclusive
b. Transparent d. Rational

5. In the development of alternative solutions to problems, this particular stage common to most models of the planning
process is essential for evaluation and selecting alternatives.
a. Prediction and projection
b. Plan-testing
c. Design of alternatives
d. Problem diagnosis
e. None of the above

6. This is often considered as the most important step in the planning process.
a. Problem diagnoses
b. Projection and Prediction
c. Implementation
d. Goal Formulation
e. Evaluation

7. The following are the analytical inputs to plan making, except for one.
a. Definition and Documentation c. Projection/Forecasting e. Prescription
b. Implementation d. Definition

8. Which of the following cannot be viewed as an essential component of a planning process?

a. Development of goals and objectives
b. Careful definition of the problem
c. Identification and analysis of alternative
d. Trial-and-error
e. Implementation of a program or course of action

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 9. Today, the emphasis of modern planning as a continuous process is NOT on:
a. The objectives of the plans and ways of reaching them
b. Possible consequences of alternative policies
c. The fundamentals of systems planning (science of cybernetics)
d. Production of plans portraying desired future end state
e. None of the above

10. Which among the following is NOT a characteristic of the planning process?
a. Planning is a technical exercise involving the elaboration of means and the prediction of their consequences.
b. Planning is characterized by its comprehensiveness under the rational approach.
c. Planning is essentially an allocative mechanism
d. The rational model of decision making/planning assumes, among others, that objectives can be identified and
articulated.
e. Planning is concentrated on the objectives of the plan, all set out in detailed maps.

11. Tourism facilities require:

a. that it abides to Hotel Code of 1984
b. that it has adequate existing personnel based on staffing requirements set by the Philippine Tourism
Administration
c. that it is governed by business rules and regulations only
d. peace and order situation in the area
e. all of the above

12. Location quotient is:

a. a concentration index measurement of a certain economic activities
b. equal to share of employment in a particular economic activity in the LGU level over share of employment in a
particular economic activity in the province
c. a measure of the extent of independence (or association) between variables between a sector/industry and a
locality
d. zero if the industry does not exist in the locality
e. all of the above

13. In the economic base model, the basic sector include

a. all economic activities involved in the import and export of goods and services
b. all economic activities involved in the export of goods and services
c. all economic activities involved in the import of goods and services
d. all economic activities involved neither in the import of goods and services
e. none of the above

14. A location quotient of 0.75 means:

a. a mutually exclusive location quotient, where the industry does not exist in the province
b. under-representation of an industry, the industry is not engaged in export production
c. over-representation of an industry, the industry is engaged in export production
d. perfect interdependence
e. none of the above

15. For light intensity industries, per 1,000 population requires:

a. 0.8 hectares c. 1.8 hectares e. 2.8 hectares
b. 1.0 hectares d. 2.0 hectares

16. This Plan or Framework details the country‟s goal of sustainable development
a. Philippines Agenda 21 (PA 21)
b. National Physical Framework Plan (NPFP)
c. Medium Term Philippine Development Plan (MTPDP)
d. National Land Use Act (NLUA)
e. All of the above

17. Which of the following is not a principle of the National Framework for Physical Planning (2001-2030)
I. Private-public sector partnership III. Recognition of the rights of indigenous people

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 II. People Empowerment IV. Market orientation

a. I and II b. II and III c. IV only d. I and IV e. None of the above

18. In addressing the country‟s multiple vulnerabilities to climate change requires this approach in preparing the CLUP.
I. Ridge-to-reef III. Integrated ecosystem-based management
II. Disaster Risk Reduction IV. Forest Land Use Plan

a. I and II b. I and III c. I and IV d. II and III e. All of the above

19. In the enhanced guidebook in preparing the CLUP, which of the following will be integrated into the CLUP?
I. Forest Land Use Plan
II. Coastal Resources Management Plan
III. Tourism Master Plan
IV. Protected Area Management Plan
V. Ancestral Domain Sustainable Development and Protection Plan
VI. Agriculture Development Plan

a. I, II, and III b. II, III, and IV c. III, IV and V d. IV, V and VI e. All of the above

20. Under this framework, the physical coverage area of an LGU‟s CLUP shall be referenced from the specific watershed/sub-
watershed basin area within the municipality or city and other adjacent localities (trans-boundary).

I. Ridge-to-reef
II. Disaster Risk Reduction
III. Integrated ecosystem-based management
IV. Forest Land Use Plan

a. I and II b. II and III c. I and IV d. II and IV e. All of the above

21. Refers to any person, group or institution that is indirectly affected by the impacts of the CLUP but may have a particular
knowledge and/or significant roles related to its formulation, implementation, and/or evaluation.
a. Stakeholder d. All of the above
b. Primary Stakeholder e. None of the above
c. Secondary stakeholder

22. Who shall review and approve the CLUP and ZO of highly urbanized cities (HUScs) and Independent Component Cities
(ICCs)?
I. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)
II. Regional Land Use Committee (RLUC)
III. Provincial Development Council
IV. Metro Manila Development Authority (MMDA)
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and IV d. III and IV e. None of the above

23. Who shall review and approve the CLUP and ZO of the Municipality of Malabon?
I. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board (HLURB)
II. Regional Land Use Committee (RLUC)
III. Provincial Development Council
IV. Metro Manila Development Authority (MMDA)
a. I and II b. II and III c. I and IV d. III and IV e. None of the above

24. Which national agency shall the Municipality of Tingloy, Batangas deal or work with relative to its fishing port or a fish landing
development

a. Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources (BFAR)

b. Philippine Ports Authority (PPA)
c. Philippine Fisheries Development Authority (PFDA)
d. Tourism Infrastructure and Enterprise Zone Authority (TIEZA)
e. Department of Public Works and Highways (DPWH)

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25. Which national agency shall the Municipality of Puerto Galera deal or work with relative to its navigational lanes
I. Department of Transportation and Communications (DOTC)
II. Bureau of Fisheries and Aquatic Resources (BFAR)
III. Maritime Industry Authority (MARINA)
IV. National Mapping and Resource Information Authority (NAMRIA)
a. I and II b. I and III c. II and IV d. III and IV e. All of the above

26. A „single detached dwelling unit‟ is defined as a house that is

a. good for one household
b. completely surrounded by a yard
c. intended for economic housing
d. with one or more of its sides abutting the property line
e. All of the above

27. The poverty alleviation paradigm that states that it can be achieved by Economic Growth at all Costs, referred to as
„Development as Raising Incomes‟ was ascribed by.
a. Robert Solow & Simon Kuznets c. Amartya Sen e. Adam Smith
b. Dag Hammarsjkold d. Karl Marx

28. He is the proponent of the idea that social development can be seen as meeting the needs of the community.
a. Robert Solow & Simon Kuznets c. Amartya Sen e. Adam Smith
b. Dag Hammarsjkold d. Karl Marx

29. He advocates the idea of „Development as Capability-Building‟ and came up with the Human Development Indicator as
measure of development.
a. Robert Solow & Simon Kuznets c. Amartya Sen e. Adam Smith
b. Dag Hammarsjkold d. Karl Marx

30. These are sub-sectors of social development planning except:

a. Housing c. Education e. Sports and Recreation
b. Protective Services d. Care and services

31. The Minimum Basic Needs during the FVR administration focuses on:
a. Survival, Security, and Enabling needs
b. Health, Food and Nutrition, Water and Sanitation
c. Income, Employment, and Education
d. Food, Housing, and Education
e. Strong Republic

32. The Number 1 Millennium Development Goal is:

a. Reduce child mortality
b. Achieve universal primary education
c. Fight extreme poverty and hunger
d. Achieve universal education
e. Eradicate extreme poverty and hunger

33. It is a measure of development that looks into 3 indicators namely Longevity (life expectancy at birth), Knowledge (School
Enrolment & adult literacy rate), Standard of living (level of poverty, GDP per capita).
a. Sustainable Development c. GNP and GDP e. Quality of Life
b. Social Development d. HDI

34. It is the aggregation of factors such as networks and values, including tolerance, inclusion, reciprocity, participation and trust -
that facilitate coordination and cooperation for mutual benefit.
a. Investment c. Community e. Cooperation
b. Social Capital d. Social Coherence

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35. The term used when two or more households share one dwelling unit.
a. Housing backlog c. Inadequate Housing d. Obsolescent Housing
b. Doubled-up Household d. Congestion

36. Provides guidelines for deciding total land requirements and the basis of land between various competing land uses.
a. The chief executive c. Demography e. All of the above
b. The planner d. Basic needs

37. It refers to the live births that occur within a population.

a. Fecundity c. Population e. None of the above
b. Fertility d. Index

38. It refers to the number of deaths per 1,000 population

a. Mortality c. Death Ratio e. None of the above
b. Crude death rate d. Morbidity

39. The Municipality of Ronaldo registers a CBR of 239 and CDR of 54 in year 2014, what is the rate of population increase if the
migration is not significant.
a. 185 c. 4.43 e. Cannot be determined
b. 293 d. RNI

40. The growth rate for the Municipality of Ronaldo is 2.69% with population of 18,428 in 2014 and is expected to reach 36,856
what year?
a. 2025 c. 2035 e. 2045
b. 2030 d. 2040

41. There are more females than males in the Municipality, this means that the Sex Ratio will be:
a. Negative c. Greater than 100 e. Cannot be determined
b. Less than 1 d. Less than 100

42. The population for Municipality of Ronaldo for 2014 is (see page 6):
Compute the Child-Dependency Ratio.
a. 1,748 c. 58 e. 13
b. 51 d. 7

43. The Old-age dependency ratio is.

a. 1,748 c. 58 e. 13
b. 51 d. 7

44. The age-dependency ratio is

a. 1,748 c. 58 e. 13
b. 51 d. 7

45. The population pyramid for the Philippines in year 2014 can be characterized as.
a. Constrictive c. Stationary e. Not enough data
b. Expansive d. Narrow-based

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46. In the Modal Split step of the Transportation Demand Analysis, which of the following is not a mass carriage mode of
transportation?
a. Ferries c. Monorails
b. Private Cars d. High-speed rails

47. Which of the following is not needed for Demand Assessment of water sub-sector?
I Projected population
II Sources of water
III Location of untapped potential water sources
IV Minimum daily capacity of pumping stations

a. I, II, IV b. II, IV c. II, III d. II, III, IV

48. Who is the agency mandated to repair roads with significant importance for a region?
a. NEDA b. DPWH c. City/Municipal LGU d. Provincial LGU

49. The Chairman of the NEDA-Infrastructure Committee is

a. Secretary of DPWH c. Secretary of DOTC
b. Director-General of NEDA d. Secretary of DOE

50. Point-source type of water supply

a. Level I b. Level II c. Level III d. Level IV

51. Which of the following may delimit the number of public projects that an LGU can finance?
I. Revenue level of the LGU III. Current public debt level
II. Level of recurring local government operating expenditures IV. Statutory debt ceiling

a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. All of the above

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52. Which section/s in the Local Government Code enumerate the duties and functions of the LGU relative to “local development”
and those that were traditionally discharged by the national government agencies but has been devolved to the LGU?
I. Section 15 II. Section 16 III. Section 17 IV. Section 18 V. All of the above
a. II only b. II and III c. III and IV d. IV and V e. None of the Above

53. Which sections of the Local Government Code mandates the LGUs to prepare a comprehensive multi-sectoral development
plan (CDP) and public investment programs?
I. Section 105 II. Section 106 III. Section 107 IV. Section 108 V. Section 109
a. I and II b. III and IV c. III and V d. II and V e. All of the above

54. This Program contains a list of programs and projects with their corresponding costs to be funded from both local sources
ranked by level of urgency and from other sources, i.e., province, national government, private sector, foreign donors, grants,
loans, etc.; while for planning and investment programming purposes, this other Program refers to the indicative yearly expenditure
requirements of the LGU‟s programs, projects and activities (PPAs) to be integrated into the annual budget
I. Local Development Investment Program (LDIP)
II. Annual Investment Programme (AIP)
III. ELA Investment Programme (EIP)
IV. Comprehensive Development Plan (CDP)
V. Comprehensive Land Use Plan (CLUP)
a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. IV and V e. None of the above

55. Which of the following is an example of an investment project of the LGU that may encourage growth?
I. Waste disposal site IV. Bus terminal
II. Sewage treatment plan V. Public market
III. Prison or mental hospital
a. V only b. II and III c. IV only d. IV and V e. None of the above

56. While the CLUP is assigned to the concerned Sanggunian, the CDP is the responsibility of what agency/institution?
a. Office of the Chief Executive
b. The City/Municipal Planning and Development Coordinator
c. The City/Municipal Development Council
d. Civil Society
e. Regional Development Council

57. The CLUP of the Municipality of Pola shall be approved by the following:
I. Sangguniang Panlalawigan of Oriental Mindoro
II. Provincial Land Use Committee of Oriental Mindoro
III. Housing and Land Use Regulatory Board-STR
IV. Sangguniang Bayan of Pola

a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. I and V e. All of the above

58. Which of the following is NOT included in the CDP?

I. Quick Facts about the LGU
II. Matrix of Local Development Indicators
III. Comprehensive Development Plan
IV. Local Development Investment Program
V. Estimated Cost of Projects
a. I and III b. II only c. III and IV d. IV and V e. None of the above

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59. This Plan within the CDP is a compendium of proposed activities designed to deal with the identified issues and concerns
relative to improving the state of well-being of the local population and upgrading the quality of social services such as health,
education, welfare, housing and the like; while this other plan focuses on strengthening the capability of the local government
bureaucracy as well as elected officials to plan and manage the development of the municipality.
I. Social Development Plan
II. Institutional Development Plan
III. Economic Development Plan
IV. Environmental Management Plan
V. Infrastructure Development Plan
a. I and II b. II and III c. III and IV d. IV and V e. None of the above

60. Which of the following is/are an example of an Investment project of the LGU that discourage development in the vicinity?
I. Hospital IV. Prison
II. Public Market V. Waste disposal site
III. Transportation interchanges
a. I and II b. II and III c. IV only d. IV and V e. None of the above

61. According to an author, Prof. Calabia, the Philippines has adopted regional planning as a means
I. To correct or reduce some of the most obvious disparities in socio-economic development with and between regions,
II. To reconcile conflicts among advocates of and opposers to greater participation in development and regional autonomy.
a. I only b. II only c. I and II d. None of the above

62. As practiced here in the Philippines, an Integrated Area Development (IAD) area is one of the many types of area that may be
encompassed by regional development planning. It can be:
I. A province
II. Sub-provincial
III. Inter-provincial
IV. An ecological unit, like an island
a. I and II only b. I and III only c. I and IV only d. IV only e. All of the above

63. In the 1970s, when the regional approach to development was given official recognition as an important element in the national
developmental effort, the purpose(s) of IAD, just like that of regional planning, include:
I. To prepare and execute a program for developing a river basin or an island ecological unit;
II. To manage social, economic, and physical affairs of an entire administrative region or a metropolitan area;
III. To qualify for some form of funding assistance.
a. I and II only b. II and III only c. I and III only d. All of the above e. None of the above

64. This law paved the way for the regionalization of the country‟s development planning and administration efforts.
I. PD No. 1
II. RA 7160
III. Integrated Reorganization Plan of 1972
IV. Local Government Code of 1991
a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I and IV only d. II and III only e. None of the above

65. Initially, during the Marcos regime, the IAD and/or the Integrated Rural Development Projects (IRDPs) were identified and
implemented under the auspices of this agency, chaired by then Secretary of Agriculture Arturo Tanco.
a. National Council on Integrated Area Development or NACIAD,
b. Department of Agriculture
c. Cabinet Coordinating Committee on Integrated Rural Development Projects (CCC-IRDP)
d. Department of Agriculture and Natural Resources or DANR
e. None of the above

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66. Later, but still during the Marcos years, all the IAD/IRDP were supervised by this agency, under the Office of the Prime
Minister, Ceasar EA. Virata.
a. National Council on Integrated Area Development or NACIAD,
b. Department of Agriculture
c. Cabinet Coordinating Committee on Integrated Rural Development Projects (CCC-IRDP)
d. Department of Agriculture and Natural Resources or DANR
e. None of the above

67. This project was the 5th IAD/IRD project in the county, funded by a loan by the Asian Development Bank (ADB), and a grant
from the European Economic Community (EEC).
a. Bicol River Basin Development Programme (BRBDP)
b. Cagayan IAD Project, in 1977
c. Palawan IAD Project, 1982
d. Bohol IAD Project, 1983
e. Mindoro Integrated Rural Development Project

68. After the EDSA People Power, the overall direction, coordination and supervision of IAD and similar projects were assumed by
NEDA and the RDCs where the projects were located. A law was passed in this regard.

I. Presidential Decree
II. Executive Order
III. 230
IV. 1378
a. I and III only b. II and IV only c. I and IV only d. II and III only e. None of the above

69. Through the Integrated Environmental Programme of PIADP (funded by EEC), the Strategic Environmental Plan for Palawan
towards Sustainable Development was formulated in 1987 and adopted into law in 1992.
I. PCSD Law
II. SEP Law
III. RA 7160
IV. RA 7611
a. I and III only b. I and IV only c. II and III only d. II and IV only e. None of the above

70. A passage way with only one outlet?

a. Cul-de-sac b. Tie lines c. Contour lines d. Gridiron

71. Lines in a topographic map which indicate the elevation of the land at various section?
a. Tie lines b. Cul-de-sac c. Gridiron d. Contour lines

72. Percentage of the total area of land of the main project that shall be developed for socialized housing per RA7279?
a. 40% b. 20% c. 30% d. 50%

73. Development permit issued by a local government unit for a subdivision project is valid for?
a. 1 years b. 5 years c. 10 years d. 3 year

74. Type of transaction under PD 957 which is exempted from securing license to sell.
a. Sale or transfer of lot by the original purchaser
b. Bulk buying without alteration of plan
c. Sale of subdivision lot from partition of land among co-owners or heirs
d. All of the above

75. A serious disruption of the functioning of the community or a society involving widespread human, material, economic or
environmental losses and impacts, which exceeds the ability of the affected community or society to cope using its own resources?
a. Disaster b. Tsunami c. Hazard d. Calamity

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76. In socialized housing under BP 220, shelter component minimum floor area is?
a. 18 SQ.M. b. 20 SQ.M. c. 22 SQ. M d. 25 SQ.M.

77. Parks & playground is required for projects with gross saleable area of?
a. 10,000 SQ.M b. 1,500 SQ.M. c. 2000 SQ.M d. NONE OF THE ABOVE

78. The law that identifies the housing program of the government & the project sector intended for the underprivileged
and homeless citizens
a. RA 7279 b. RA 7297 c. PD 7279 d. PD 7297

79. The minimum front setback of dwelling unit for economic and socialized housing?
a. 1.5 meters b. 2 meters c. 3 meters d. 2.5 meters

80. What is the minimum measurement for access road or right of way for condominium low-cost housing?
a. 8 METERS b. 6 METERS c. 6.5 METERS d. NONE OF THE ABOVE

81. Fifty bottles of water were randomly selected from a large collection of bottles in a company's warehouse. These fifty bottles
are referred to as the
a. Parameter b. Population c. sample d. statistic e. none of the above

82. The difference between s and σ is that

a. s is for a sample and σ is for a population
b. s is for a population and σ is for a sample
c. s is a parameter and σ is not
d. s is a statistic and σ is not
e. none of the above

83. The possible values for the correlation coefficient are

a. –1 ≤ r ≤ 1 b. 0 ≤ r ≤ 1 c. 0 ≤ r ≤ 10 d. All of the above e. None of the above

84. A researcher is studying students in college in California. She takes a sample of 400 students from 10 colleges. The average
age of all college students in California is
a. a statistic c. the median e. none of the above
b. a parameter d. a population

85. A sample of 150 new cell phones produced by Yeskia found that 12 had cosmetic flaws. A 90% confidence interval for the
proportion of all new Yeskia phones with cosmetic flaws is 0.044 to 0.116. Which statement below provides the correct
interpretation of this confidence interval?
a. There is a 90% chance that the proportion of new phones that have cosmetic flaws is between 0.044 and 0.116.
b. There is at least a 4.4% chance that a new phone will have a cosmetic flaw.
c. A sample of 150 phones will have no more than 11.6% with cosmetic flaws.
d. If you selected a very large number of samples and constructed a confidence interval for each, 90% of these intervals
would include the proportion of all new phones with cosmetic flaws
e. None of the above

86. According to PD 856 artesian, deep and shallow well should have this min distance from any source of pollution.

a. 30 meters b. 25 meters c. 50 meters d. 40 meters

87. Location of land use determined by considering time and distance as the primary unit of measurement is called
a. Performance Standard c. Zoning Standard
b. Convenience Standard d. Traditional Standard

88. A province or city, or a municipality in the metropolitan Manila area, may levy an annual tax on idle lands at the rate not
exceeding of the following
a. 5% of the assessed value of the property
b. 10% of the assessed value of the property
c. 15% of the assessed value of the property
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 d. 20% of the assessed value of the property

89. The following areas are exempted from the definition of idle lands

I. Agricultural lands planted with permanent crops with at least 50 trees/ha

II. Grazing Lands
III. At least 1 hectare agricultural lands and 1/2 is unutilized
IV. Agricultural lands planted to perennial crops with at least 50 trees/ha.
a. I, II and III only b. I, II and IV only c. II, III and IV only d. All of the above

90. Eminent Domain may be exercised with the following conditions

I. For public use or purpose

II. For the benefit of the poor and landless
III. For landbanking in lieu with the future development for the poor and landless
IV. The offer have been previously made and rejected by the land owner
a. I, II and III only b. II, III and IV only c. III and IV only d. I, II, and IV only

91. Based on MC 54 the LGU may reclassify agricultural to non-agricultural use upon satisfying the following requirements
I. CLUP approved prior to January 01, 1989
II. When the land have substantially greater economic value for non-agricultural use
as determined by the Sanggunian concerned
III. Land is not covered by CARP
IV. Land is not covered by AO 20 of 1992
a. I and II only b. III and IV only c. I, II and III only d. II, III and IV only

92. Who will approve the reclassification when the reclassification has not been exercised within five years from approval of the
plan
a. The President b. NEDA c. Sangguniang Panlalawigan d. HLURB

93. Who is the proper authority to delineate municipal marine waters and charting of navigational lanes under RA 8550

a. DA and the Coast Guard b. NAMRIA and the Coast Guard c. DA and NAMRIA d. NAMRIA

94. Include not only streams, lakes, inland bodies of water and tidal waters within the municipality which are not included within the
protected areas as defined under Republic Act No. 7586 (The NIPAS Law), public forest, timber lands, forest reserves or fishery
reserves, but also marine waters included between two (2) lines drawn perpendicular to the general coastline from points where
the boundary lines of the municipality touch the sea at low tide and a third line parallel with the general coastline including offshore
islands and fifteen (15) kilometers from such coastline.
a. Coastal areas b. Marine Waters c. Municipal Waters d. Municipal Marine Waters

95. In compliance to BP 220, a subdivision should provide a minimum residential lot area equivalent to ____ sq. m for a single
detached socialized housing
a. 64 sq.m. b. 28 sq.m. c. 70 sq.m. d. 60 sq.m.

96. Which of the following statements are correct? GIS gives you the power to:
I. Create Maps
II. Generate Instant and Absolute Policies
III. Visualize Scenarios
IV. Manipulate Information
V. Develop Effective Solutions
a. I, II and III b. II and III c. I, III and V d. None of the above
97. Which of the following are components of GIS:
I. Software
II. Hardware
III. Policies

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 IV. People
V. Resources
a. I, II and III b. II, IV and V c. I, II and IV d. None of the above

98. Based from the lecture, the first use of GIS was executed by:
a. Ann Beers b. Abraham Maslow c. Daniel Burnham d. None of the above
99. Which is an advantage of using a Raster Data?
a. Accurately representing true shape and size?
b. Creating aesthetically pleasing maps
c. Analysis of multi-layer or multivariate data
d. All of the above

100. _________ is the agency mandated to provide the public with mapmaking services and act as the central mapping
agency, depository, and distribution facility for natural resources data in the form of maps, charts, texts, and statistics.

a. DENR b. DOST c. DA-BAR d. NAMRIA e. All of the above

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