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UPT Bahasa
Unisba
TEST BOOK

Pusat Bahasa
Universitas Islam Bandung

DO NOT mark anything in this book

Section one: Listening Comprehension

In this section of the test, you will demonstrate your ability to

understand conversations and talks in English. There are three parts
to this section, with different directions for each part. Answer all the
questions according to what the speakers say or imply. When you
take the actual TOEFL test, you will not be allowed to take notes or
write in your test book.

PART A:
Directions: In part A, you will hear two people having short
conversations. After each conversation, you will hear a question.
The conversations and questions will not be repeated. After you hear
a question, read the four possible answers and choose the best
answer. Then, on the answer sheet on the back of this book, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

Listen to an example:

On the recording, you hear:

What does the man say?

In your book, you read:

(A) He is too tired to walk in the park.

(B) He agrees to go walking in the park with her.
(C) He is not Jim. His name is Pete.
(D) He doesn’t know what to do.

You learn from the conversation that the man is beat, an idiomatic
expression meaning very tired. Therefore, the best answer to the
question, “what does the man say?” is (A).

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1. (A) It was nicer when she (B) She looks younger than
moved in. 21.
(B) It was hard to find. (C) The man looks older
(C) It was not a nice place than she does.
at first. (D) She looks older than
(D) The man has seen it 21.
before.

2. (A) He won’t hire anyone.

(B) The woman won’t get 6. (A) He enjoys sports.
the job. (B) He doesn’t like his
(C) The job application was team.
incomplete. (C) He doesn’t want to lose
(D) He can’t tell her (D) He is not athletic.
anything.
7. (A) Wait for better weather.
3. (A) The man should talk to (B) Don’t skate so early.
his mother. (C) Skate with a friend
(B) The man should call his (D) Buy a new pair of
mother later. skates.
(C) The man’s mother will
not be in. 8. (A) at a restaurant
(D) Anyone could call his (B) in a kitchen
mother. (C) at a theater
(D) at a grocery store
4. (A) He doesn’t like rain.
(B) He likes soccer very 9. (A) She has never seen the
much. man.
(C) The game isn’t (B) She doesn’t know any
important. European history.
(D) He doesn’t like to (C) She and the man were
watch soccer. classmates.
(D) She doesn’t remember
5. (A) She looks old enough. the man.

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 15. (A) She found a great
10. (A) Jeremy’s brother parking place.
(B) Jeremy (B) The park was
(C) the woman wonderful.
(D) the man (C) She didn’t enjoy the
trip.
11. (A) She’s glad he called. (D) She could not find the
(B) She thought he would place.
call.
(C) She’s angry because he 16. (A) He actually earned
didn’t call. money in Europe.
(D) She doesn’t mind that (B) It’s impossible to save
he didn’t call. money there.
12. (A) in an airplane (C) He doesn’t know how
(B) in a truck much about the cost.
(C) in a sporting event (D) Europe is not that
(D) in a department store expensive.

13. (A) He is very unhappy

with the test.
(B) He doesn’t have 17. (A) She thinks the man is
another chance to take joking.
the test. (B) She thinks the car is
(C) He plans on taking the dangerous.
test again. (C) It’s the kind of car she
(D) He is satisfied with the wants.
score (D) The car is very
unappealing to her.
14. (A) in the woods
(B) at a library 18. (A) why Joe’s mistakes
(C) at a soccer game bother her
(D) in a restaurant (B) why Joe eats that way
(C) how Joe would correct
his mistake

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 (D) why Joe’s habit upsets (C) He didn’t like the meat.
her (D) The beef was excellent.

19. (A) The book is no longer 23. (A) It’s the first thing she
in most stores. ever made.
(B) The book was written (B) Her maid knitted it for
many years ago. her.
(C) She’s been looking for (C) It didn’t take very long.
the book for years. (D) She didn’t make it
(D) The print in the book is herself.
rare.
24. (A) It was a bad day for a
20. (A) He’s willing to make a date.
deal. (B) Kelly forgot about the
(B) He will give it to her. date.
(C) He wants to know why (C) It was his worst date
she needs it. ever.
(D) He doesn’t have it now. (D) The date wasn’t too
bad.
21. (A) Sally took them from
her. 25. (A) who has the clamp
(B) She felt silly taking (B) where they should
them. camp
(C) The notes were a group (C) where the lamps go
effort. (D) whether it’s damp
(D) Sally actually wrote the
notes. 26. (A) It was a very easy class.
(B) He finds calculus to be
useful.
(C) The class was not worth
22. (A) It wasn’t the dining it.
hall. (D) He tries hard in school.
(B) He’s not through
eating.

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27. (A) He bought some (C) His question is difficult.
farmland. (D) She is not amused by
(B) There’s a lot of food. his answer.
(C) She wants one more
thing. 30. (A) He misses his
(D) Everything is very hometown.
fresh. (B) He has been sick at
home.
28. (A) a parking garage (C) Nothing is matter with
(B) a car showroom him.
(C) a car wash (D) He is tired of his
(D) a police station current apartment.

29. (A) He is brilliant.

(B) He looks like
Shakespeare.

PART B:

Direction: On this part of the test, you will hear slightly longer
conversations. After each conversation, you will hear several
questions. Neither the conversation nor the questions will be
repeated.

After you hear the question, read the four possible answers in this
book and choose the best one. Then, on your answer sheet, find the

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number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have chosen.

31. (A) the man’s wife

(B) the woman’s sons
(C) the man’s daughter
(D) the woman’s driver 35. (A) a rock star
(B) a teacher
32. (A) They still don’t know (C) a horse trainer
for certain (D) an opera singer
(B) just some scratches and
bruises 36. (A) He strained himself.
(C) a broken leg (B) He is sick.
(D) serious injuries (C) He can’t sing.
(D) He hurt it when he ate.
33. (A) A car ran a red light.
(B) A bicyclist ran into a 37. (A) She liked it.
car. (B) She didn’t like it.
(C) A car ran into a (C) She didn’t notice it.
bicyclist. (D) It was more trouble
(D) A parked car coasted than it was worth.
down a hill.
38. (A) all of it
34. (A) the condition of the (B) all of it, except for the
driver man’s solo
(B) possible damage to the (C) none of it
car (D) some of it, including
(C) the cost of the X-rays the man’s solo
(D) the woman’s poor
attitude

PART C:

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Direction: On this part of the test, you will hear several talks. After
each talk, you will hear some questions. Neither the talks nor the
questions will be repeated.

After you hear a question, read the four possible answers in this
book and choose the best one. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the
letter of the answer you have selected.

For example:

On the recording, you hear:

What would be a good title for this talk?

In your book, you read:

(A) Dinosaurus of the Sahara

(B) Tyrannosaurus Rex
(C) A New Species of Dinosaur
(D) Bipedal Carnivorous Dinosaurs

The best answer to the question, “What would be a good title for this
talk?” is
(C) “A New Species of Dinosaur.”

39. (A) her large body of work

(B) the novel Uncle Tom’s
Cabin
(C) the work she did in the 40. (A) prejudiced
antislavery movement (B) charming
(D) her novels, which (C) dedicated
describe nine-tenth (D) wealthy
century New England
life.

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 (D) Chinese dishes

45. (A) elegant

(B) informal
41. (A) immediately after
(C) low class
publishing Uncle Tom’s
(D) foreign
Cabin
(B) after the liberation of
the slaves
(C) before the Civil War
(D) when she joined the
46. (A) imported wines
antislavery movement
(B) vegetarian dishes
(C) large servings of beer
42. (A) It was not abolitionist
(D) meals for kids
propaganda
(B) The characters were
47. (A) the different places
real
where American folk
(C) It would be her last
can be found
work.
(B) community parades and
(D) It was a very risky
what they tell us about
venture.
(C) the convergence of
cultures in New York
43. (A) a pound of lobster for
City
$12.95
(D) the many forms of
(B) a pound of spaghetti for
modern-day American
$5.95
folklore
(C) a pound of lobster for
$5.95
48. (A) a history class
(D) a pound of spaghetti for
(B) a Sociology class
$12.95
(C) a Spanish class
(D) a psychology class
44. (A) seafood
(B) vegetarian dishes
49. (A) West Indies
(C) Italian food
(B) New York

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 (C) Puerto Rico (D) cardboard
(D) on a farm

50. (A) reggae

(B) New York
(C) a spirit of independence

Section two: Structure and Written Expression

Directions:

This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize

language that is appropriate for standard written English. There are
two types of questions in this section, with special directions for
each type.

PART A

Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each

sentence, you will see word, phrase, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D).
Choose the one word or phrase that best completes the sentence.
Then, on your answer grid, find the number of the question and fill
in the space that corresponds to letter of the answer you have
chosen.

Example:

Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes _____ they both

emit hot liquids from below the earth’s surface.

(A) Due to
(B) Because
(C) In spite of
(D) Regardless of

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The sentence should read, “Geysers have often been compared to
volcanoes because they both emit jot liquids from below the earth’s
surface.” Therefore, you should choose answer (B).

Now begin work on the questions below:

1. ______ Jane has an excellent resume, she hasn’t found a job

yet.

(A) However (C) That

(B) Yet (D) Although

2. _____ several universities that have excellent engineering

schools.

(A) There are (D) So

(B) The me
(C) There is a lot of of

3. Many Middle Eastern diplomats still feel that the United States
is intent _____ the ultimate police in the region.

(A) To being (C) Be

(B) Being (D) On being

4. Woodrow Wilson believed the United State’s entry into World

War I would put a _____ to the war in months.

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 (A) To stop (C) Stopping
(B) Stop (D) Will had stopped

5. _____ of New York’s Erie Canal greatly enhanced trade in the

upstate region.

(A) The complete (C) A completing

(B) Completing (D) The completion

6. A leech, after ____ the skin, is best removed by the application

of either salt or heat.

(A) It attaches itself (C) Its attaching to

to (D) Where it attaches
(B) Attaching it

7. _____ east of the Mississippi River.

(A) Indigo was grown (C) Indigo usually

usually grown
(B) Usually grown (D) Indigo was
was Indigo usually grown

8. ____ wrote the operetta Babes in Toyland, drawn from the

childhood characters of Mother Goose.

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 (A) That was Victor (C) Since it was
Herbert who Victor Herbert
(B) Victor Herbert (D) It was Victor
who Herbert who

9. Some of the oldest and most widespread creation myths are

____ involving the all-giving “Earth Mother.”

(A) Those (C) They

(B) Them (D) Their

10. In ______, compact disc technology has made record albums

almost obsolete.

(A) The decade from (C) The past decade

(B) The decade since (D) Decade ago the

11. In the first few months of life, an infant learns how to lift its head,
smile and ______

(A) Parents to recognize (C) Recognizing its

(B) Recognize its parents parents
(D) The recognizing of
its parents

12. Juana Inez de la Cruz ____ Mexico’s greatest female poet.

(A) Considered (C) Is considered to be

(B) Considered to be (D) Is consideration

13. Because the metal mercury ____ in direct proportion to

temperature, it was once used as the indicator in common
thermometers.

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 (A) Is expanding (C) Is expanded
(B) Expands (D) Expanded

14. ____ what is now San Salvador, Christoper Colombus believed

that he had found Japan.

(A) He reached (C) Having reached

(B) When did he reach (D) Whether he reached

15. The principal purpose of aviation medicine is _____ by people

aboard an aircraft in flight.

(A) To study the stress (C) To study stress

experienced experiencing
(B) Study the experienced (D) Study the stress
stress experience

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PART B
Directions: in questions 16-40, each sentence has four underlined
words or phrases. The four underlined parts of the sentence are
marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the one underlined word or
phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be
grammatically correct. Then, on your answer grid, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of
the answer you have chosen.

Example:
Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish because of the males’
bright
A B C D
colors.

The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow

fish because of the males’ bright colors.” Therefore, you should
choose (B).

16. The dwarf lemon tree, grown in many areas of the world, bears
A B
fruit when it is fewer than six inches in high.
C D
Answer: height
17. The brain is composed of a mass of softly gray matter in the
A B C
skull that controls our intelligence.
D
Answer: soft
18. Polluter is a topic of such importance today that even
elementary
A B

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 school children are well informed about its dangers.
C D
Answer: pallution

19. Best represented in a famous oil painting by da Vinci, The Last

A B
Supper it is an important part of the history of Christianity.
C D

20. Together with his friend Little John, Robin Hood are fondly
A B C
remembered today by millions of people.
D
Answer: is

21. In Vermont, the sap the maple tree is the primary ingredient in
A B C D
producing maple syrup.

22. After to have won the 1945 Pulitzer Prize for A Bell for Adano,
A B
John Hersey wrote a nonfiction book about the bombing of
C D
Japan.
Answer: having
23. The smallest hummingbirds beat their wings 70 times a second
A B C
and are about two inched long.
D
Answer: two inches long
24. Quality, price, and located are often considered to be the
primary
A B C
concerns in buying a house.

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 D
Answer: location
25. The name “America” comes of Amerigo Vespucci, who was a
A B C
16th century Italian explorer.
D
Answer: comes from
26. Marie Curie won two Nobel Prizes for their discoveries of
A B
radioactivity and radioactive elements.
C D
Answer: her
27. The developing of the submarine was hundred by the lack of
A B
a power source that could propel an underwater vessel.
C D
Answer: development
28. Although humans have highly developed brains, most animals
A B
have more acute senses than them.
C D
Answer: than them
29. The movement of the stars was first noticed by early travelers,
A B
who used the stars to guide its way across the sea.
C D
Answer: their
30. Those who have seen what is believed to be Noah’s Ark say it
A B C
is the largest than a modern battleship.
D
Answer: larger than
31. It is implicit in the Constitution of the United States that
A B

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 everyone has a right to their privacy.
C D
Answer: his

32. Although scientists have been successful about finding

A B
treatments for cancer, they haven’t yet discovered a cure.
C D
33. In the 18th century, standard college curricula included a heavy
A
emphasis on classical, mathematics and religion.
B C D
Answer: classic
34. As the numbered of nonnative speakers rises, the demand for
A B C
teachers of English as a second language increases.
D
Answer: number
35. There is much bird migration above the equator, where the
Pole
A B
Star can be seen, than below the equator, where it cannot be
C D
seen.
Answer: a
36. Although most people believe that diamonds are the costliest
A B
gems, emeralds are actually the valuablest.
C D

37. In the summer, Ann Arbor, along with Ypsilanti, Saline and

17 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 A
Pontiac, are flooded with runaways fleeing the boredom of
their
B C
lives in Cincinnati and its suburbs.
D

Answer: is
38. A recent article in The New York Times reported that the
typical

business graduate of 1990 is less likely to be willing to work

A B
long hours for the sake of advancement than their 1970
C D
counterparts.
Answer: its
39. The dietary habits of a given child often has little to do
A B
that child’s eating habits as an adult.
C D
Answer: have
40. One of the claims made against science is that data are often
A
manipulated to prove a scientist’s thesis, rather than studying it
B C
for possible contradictions.
D
Answer: to study

18 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
Section three: Reading Comprehension

Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one
is followed by several questions about it. For this section, you are to
choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C) or (D), to each question.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill
in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.

Example:

As IBM's Watson proved on Jeopardy, robots are

becoming smarter than people. They also make fewer
mistakes and they don't get bored. By 2013 there will be
1.2 million industrial robots working worldwide — that's
one robot for every 5,000 people, according to Marshall
Brain, founder of How Stuff Works and author of Robotic
Nation. Robots are currently analyzing documents, filling
prescriptions, and handling other tasks that were once
exclusively done by humans.

1. What could be the best title for the passage above?

a. Jobs For Humans b. Jobs that May Lose
and Robots to Robots

19 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 c. Jobs For both d. Humans That Will
Humans And Jobless
Robots

The best answer for the question number one is (D).

Questions 1-12 refer to the following passage.

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 The reasons for the extinction of a species and for
the rapid rates of change in our environment are currently
the focus of much scientific research. An individual
species’ susceptibility to extinction depends on at least
two things: the taxon (the biological group-kingdom,
Line 5
phylum, class, order, family, or genus) to which a species
belongs, and the overall rate of environmental changes.
Fossil evidence shows that more mammals and birds
become extinct than do mollusks or insects. Studies of the
extinction of the dinosaurs and other reptiles during the
Line 10 Cretaceous Period show that a changing environment
affects different taxa in different ways. Some may be
dramatically affected, others less do.
The best way to answer the question of what cause
an extinction is to combine fields of inquiry and a variety
Line 15 of viewpoints. Using the fossil record and historical
documentation, the different rates of the extinction of
various taxa and different responses to environmental
change can be detected. Then the evolutionary
development of the different species can be compared,
and traits that may be disadvantageous can be singled out.
Line 20
Finally, researchers can use mathematical formulate to
determine whether a population is likely to adapt itself to
the changing environment or disappear. Hopefully, as
more of this information is collected, specialist in difficult
fields – e.g. psychological and behavioral ecology,
Line 25 evolutionary biology and systematic, biogeography and
paleobiology-will work together to make predictions
about the broader changes that might occur in the
ecosystem.

Line 30
1. Which of the following is the main topic of the passage?

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 (A) Assessment of the work of specialists concerned with
ecology
(B) A discussion of possible cause of extinction, and of ways
to make predictions about environmental change
(C) The changing aspects of our environment
(D) A comparison of extinction rates of different taxa

2. The word susceptibility in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) Insensitivity
(B) Receptiveness
(C) Immunity
(D) Vulnerability

3. An example of a taxon would be

(A) A phylum
(B) The rate of environmental change
(C) A fossil
(D) Studies of extinction

4. The author compares mammals and birds to

(A) Mollusks and insects
(B) Phylum and class
(C) Dinosaurs and reptiles
(D) Ecologists and biologists

5. It can be inferred from the passage that a significant event of

the Cretaceous Period was
(A) The appearance of many taxa
(B) The dramatic effect of the dinosaur on the environment
(C) The extinction of birds
(D) The extinction of dinosaurs

6. It can be inferred from the passage that dinosaurs

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 (A) Included species that were mammals
(B) Were better represented in the fossil record than other
species
(C) Possessed disadvantageous traits
(D) Were not susceptible to extinction

7. The word dramatically in lines 14 means

(A) Strongly
(B) Inspiringly
(C) Flimsily
(D) Visually

8. The word fields in line 27 is closest in meaning to

(A) Areas
(B) Meadows
(C) Studies
(D) Careers

9. From the passage it can be inferred that disadvantageous traits

are
(A) Occurring at different rates
(B) A contributing cause extinction
(C) Adaptable
(D) Learned by mathematical formulas

10. The expression singled out in lines 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) Isolated
(B) Blamed
(C) Seen
(D) Divided

11. According to the passage, the likelihood of a population

becoming extinct can be

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 (A) Lessened by the efforts of a few concerned specialists
(B) Unaffected by environmental change
(C) Determined by mathematical formulas
(D) Almost impossible to ascertain

12. The word broader in line 31 is closest in meaning to

(A) Fatter
(B) Extra
(C) Wider
(D) Many

Questions 13-23 refer to the following passage

The Quakers, also called the Society of Friends, are

Christian group that arose in the mid-seventeenth century
in England and the American colonies. Quakerism came
into being in England in or around 1652, when George
Fox began to organize converts to preach his doctrine of
Line 5
“God in every man.” The friends were silent at their
meetings, waiting for the “inward light.” They believed
people should sense God inside of themselves (without
church buildings, appointed preachers, written liturgy or
many of the outward trappings associated with
Line 10 Christianity).
The Society of Friends is part of the left wing of
seventeenth century English Puritan movement; in
America, Quakers were persecuted by Puritans. Quakers
experienced much official persecution, including
Line 15 imprisonment and execution, for their belief that the
worship of God should be very personal. The term
“Quaker” may refer to their penchant for “quaking”
during religious services, or it may be a derogatory

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 references to supposed Quaker cowardliness and belief in
Line 20 pacifism.
Quakerism in the American colonies existed mainly
in the Northeast. The American Quaker population surged
after 1682 when Quaker William Penn founded the state
of Pennsylvania as a heaven for Quakers and as a “holy
experiment” in religious toleration. Quakers were
Line 25
prominent and powerful in the Pennsylvania state
government in the period before the American
Revolution. During and after Revolution, Friends
concerned themselves with the plight of Native
Americans. They also worked with escaped slaves and for
Line 30 the abolition of slavery. They continue to be known for
their efforts in social reforms.

13. In which of the following publications would this passage be

most likely to appear?
(A) An anthology of English Literature
(B) An introductory American history book
(C) A book about Eastern religions
(D) A basic math textbook

14. The word their in line 7 refers to

(A) Trappings
(B) Preachers
(C) Religious services
(D) The friends

15. The word persecuted in lines 14 is closest in meaning to

(A) Scrutinized

25 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 (B) Lauded
(C) Harassed
(D) Believed

16. Where in the passage does the author give an example of

Quaker involvement in social issues?
(A) Lines 25-27
(B) Lines 16-18
(C) Lines 33-34
(D) Lines 22-24

17. Which of the following would be an example of “the outward

trappings associated with Christianity” referred to in lines 10
(A) Clergy
(B) Silent, leaderless worship
(C) Concern for social reform
(D) The doctrine of “God in every man”

18. It can be inferred from the passage that early Quakers

experienced official persecution because
(A) They were known for “quaking” during religious service
(B) They helped found the state of Pennsylvania
(C) They came to America from England
(D) Their religious beliefs were considered subversive

19. Why does the author mention execution in lines 15-16?

(A) It is an example of the persecution Quakers faced
(B) It is an outward trapping of Christianity
(C) This serves as an example of William Penn’s policies
(D) Many religions were concerned with this issue

20. The paragraph after this passage would most likely be about

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 (A) The decline of the Quaker population since World War I
(B) The similarities and differences between Quakers and
Puritans
(C) Ways in which Quakers today show concern for others
(D) Social reforms enacted by Quakers during the American
Revolution

21. From the passage, it can be inferred that the Puritans were
(A) Friends
(B) Persecuted
(C) Intolerant
(D) Executed

22. The word penchant in line 18 most nearly means

(A) Appreciation
(B) Propensity
(C) Disinclination
(D) Proportion

23. Why did the American Quaker population surge after William
Penn founded Pennsylvania?
(A) Pennsylvania tolerated the Quaker religion
(B) Pennsylvania forbade religions other than Quakerism
(C) The Pennsylvania government tried to help escaped slaves
(D) Social reform was important to most Americans

Questions 24-31 refer to the following passage.

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 The appearance and character of a hardened lava
field depend on numerous factors. Among the key
variables are the chemical nature of the magma and the
degree of viscosity of the liquid rock once it begins to
flow.
Line 5
Since the ultimate nature of lava is influenced by
chemical composition, it is possible to predict certain
aspects of the final appearance of the field from a sample
of the molten fluid. The main components of lava are
silica and various oxides, including those of potassium,
Line 10 iron, calcium, magnesium, sodium and aluminum.
Magnesium and iron oxides are found in high
concentrations in the dark-colored basic basalt, while
silica, soda and potash preponderate in the lighter-
colored, acidic felsite rocks.
Line 15 The viscosity of the liquid rock helps to determine
the appearance of the hardened field’s surface. When it
issues, the lava is red or even white-hot. It soon begins to
cool, and the surface darkens and crusts over. In
extremely viscous flows, the underpart may yet be in
motion as the surface solidifies. The crust breaks up into
Line 20
a mass of jagged blocks of rock that are carried as a
tumbling, jostling mass on the surface of the slowly
moving stream. When the stream eventually stops and
hardens, the field is extremely rough and difficult to
traverse. On the other hand, highly liquid lava may
Line 25 harden with much smoother surfaces that exhibit ropy,
curved, wrinkled and wavelike forms.

24. The degree of viscosity in newly issued lava is a critical

determinant of
(A) The chemical nature of the magma

28 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 (B) Whether the lava will be red or white-hot
(C) The ultimate nature of the hardened lava field
(D) The viscosity of the liquid rock

25. The chemical composition of a hardened field

(A) Has nothing to do with the viscosity of the liquid rock
(B) Will cause the crusting phenomena common in hardened
lava
(C) Is important in shaping the ultimate appearance of the
field
(D) Depends upon the degree of viscosity of the original liquid
rock

26. In line 18, the word issues most nearly means

(A) Is dormant
(B) Heats up
(C) Traverses
(D) Comes out

27. Knots of surface rocks are characteristic of

(A) All types of ultimate lava fields
(B) The initial stage of some lava field formation
(C) The end result of some highly viscous flows
(D) Only highly liquid, wavelike lava forms

28. If the hardened lava presents a smoother, wavelike surface it is

likely that
(A) It was not initially a highly liquid lava
(B) It results from a highly liquid lava
(C) Its final form will be rough and difficult to traverse
(D) At issue, it was red-hot

29. The primary function of this passage is to

29 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 (A) Explain the primary chemical components of lava,
including silica and oxides
(B) Predict when volcanic lava will appear
(C) Warn of the limitations of viscosity and chemical
(D) Discuss two crucial determinants of a hardened lava
field’s character

30. The word exhibit in line 28 is closest in meaning to

(A) Give off
(B) Put on
(C) Show
(D) Cause

31. This passage would most likely appear in which type of

publication?
(A) An introductory college textbook on geography
(B) The national events section of a local newspaper
(C) An introductory college text on geology
(D) A tourist brochure for a volcanic region

Questions 32-42 refer to the following passage.

The time period of the American Revolution was a

time of contrasts in American fashion. In urban centers,
women enjoyed a wide range of expression in the
fashions available to them, even though shortages might
force a young lady to wear red uniform of her British
beau. The patriots, however, tended to scorn fashion as
Line 5
frivolous in time of war. In remote areas, patriotic
groups led boycotts of British goods and loomed their
own woolen cloth.
In selecting clothes, stylish American ladies
depended on “fashion babies- foot high dolls illustrating

30 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
Line 10 the latest Paris styles. This infatuation with the fashion
trends of the “continent” remained intact well into the
twentieth century. Indeed, even today, New York’s
fashion industry has not fully escaped the tyranny of
French design.
Mourning garments were almost impossible to
Line 15
obtain since black cloth had to be imported from
England; black arm bands were introduced as a
substitute. Gauze, indispensable for petticoats, aprons,
and ladies’ headgear, was also in short supply. There
was also a taste for outlandish accessories and fanciful
Line 20 detailing: feathers in hats, elaborate buttons, and gaudily
patterned fabrics. These excesses were called
“macaroni” and are immortalized in the song Yankee
Doodle.

32. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for this
passage?
(A) A Revolution in Fashion
(B) Clothing Shortages of the Revolution
(C) Clothing Styles in Revolutionary America
(D) Conflict in the Fashion Industry

33. The word beau in line 5 is closest in meaning to

(A) Male friend
(B) Husband
(C) Father
(D) Son

34. Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about
people’s attitudes toward fashion?
(A) They varied according to political beliefs

31 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 (B) They were determined mainly by geography
(C) They corresponded to a person’s social standing
(D) They were a matter of personal taste

35. The word loomed in line 8 is closest in meaning to

(A) Grew bigger
(B) Wove
(C) Picked
(D) Quilted

36. What were clothes made from in rural areas?

(A) Home-made wool
(B) Imported British goods
(C) Cloth stolen from the British
(D) Gauze

37. The word “fashion babies” were

(A) Dolls for fashion
(B) 12-inch figures used to display clothes
(C) Life-sized models dressed in current styles
(D) Illustrations from fashion magazines

38. The word tyranny in line 16 is closest in meaning to

(A) Domination
(B) Bossiness
(C) Importance
(D) Evilness

39. Which of the following can best be said about the Paris fashion
industry?
(A) It has come to the forefront only recently, compared to
New York

32 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 (B) It has long exerted a powerful influence on American
fashion
(C) It retains its taste for gaudy, “macaroni” type excess
(D) It is unable to break free from New York’s influence

40. Black armbands were worn to show

(A) The tyranny of Paris fashions
(B) Imported cloth from England
(C) Fanciful detailing
(D) Mourning

41. The word elaborate in line 23 is closest in meaning to

(A) Gay
(B) Vulgar
(C) Intricate
(D) Square

42. It can be inferred from the passage that “macaroni”

(A) Was so named because of its resemblance to the continent
of Europe
(B) Was a very short-lived and ill-conceived fashion trend
(C) Had a more mundane application to petticoats and aprons
(D) Was not the fashion style of avowed patriots

Questions 43-50 refer to the following passage.

Sapphira and the Slave Girl was the last novel of

Willa Cather’s illustrious literary career. Although the

33 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 story takes place in 1856, well before her own birth, she
drew heavily on both vivid childhood memories and tales
Line 5 handed down by older relatives to describe life in rural
northern Virginia in the middle of the nineteenth century.
Of Cather’s novels, Sapphira and the Slave Girl is
the one most concerned with providing an overall picture
of day-to-day life in a specific era. A number of the
novel’s characters, it would seem, are included in the
Line 10
story only because they are representative of the types of
people found in 19th century rural Virginia; indeed, a few
of them play no part whatsoever in the unfolding of the
plot. For instance, we are introduced to a poor white
woman, Mandy Ringer, who is portrayed as intelligent
Line 15 and content, despite the fact that she has no formal
education and must toil constantly in the fields.
The title, however, accurately reflects that the novel
is mainly about slavery. Cather’s attitude toward this
institution may best be summed up as somewhat
Line 20 ambiguous. On the one hand, she displays almost total
indifference to the legal and political aspects of slavery
when she misidentifies certain crucial dates in its growth
and development. She never really offers a direct
condemnation of slavery. Yet the evil that was slavery
gets through to us in her typically subtle ways. Characters
Line 25 like Mrs. Blake who oppose the institution are portrays in
a sympathetic light. Furthermore, the suffering of the
slaves themselves and the petty, nasty and often cruel
behavior of the slave owners are painted in stark terms.

Line 30
43. What is the main topic of this passage?
(A) Cather’s anti-slavery stance
(B) The backdrop of Cather’s last novel
(C) Cather’s strangely titled novel

34 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 (D) Life in the Virginia country

44. The author refers to Sapphira and the Slave Girl as

(A) A heroic tale of the Civil War
(B) A sweeping epic of the Old South
(C) Using Cather’s personal recollections
(D) A political treatise on slavery

45. The word vivid in line 4 is closest in meaning to

(A) Disturbing
(B) Buried
(C) Forgotten
(D) Clear

46. What is NOT true of Mandy Ringer?

(A) She is slave
(B) She is intelligent
(C) She is uneducated
(D) She is poor

47. In the second paragraph, the author mentions Mandy Ringer in

order to emphasize which point?
(A) The novel displays Cather’s mixed feelings about slavery
(B) The characters are based on Cather’s childhood friends
(C) One of the novel’s purposes was ti paint a portrait of life
in nineteenth-century rural Virginia
(D) The novel’s characters are shown in a positive light
because Cather was a supporter of the Old South

48. According to the author, why is Cather’s attitude toward

slavery somewhat ambiguous?
(A) She was knowledgeable about the legal and political
aspects of slavery

35 | P u s a t B a h a s a U n i s b a –
 (B) She did not denounce slavery directly, only in indirect
ways
(C) She identified equally with slaves and slaveholders
(D) She was unable to fashion a firm opinion on the issue

49. One can infer that the author would probably

(A) Like Cather if the author met her
(B) Consider the character of Mandy Ringer irrelevant to the
plot
(C) Oppose the academic study of Cather’s other novels
(D) Have no appreciation of the novel’s merits

50. Which of the following would be the best title for the passage?
(A) Sapphira and the Slave Girl: Fact Versus Fiction
(B) Willa Cather: Racist or Abolitionist?
(C) Some Comments on the Final Novel of Willa Cather
(D) Willa Cather’s Depiction of Nineteenth-Century
Virginians

END OF THE TEST

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