Oxford PPL 1 Air Law - Op. Procedures
Oxford PPL 1 Air Law - Op. Procedures
Oxford PPL 1 Air Law - Op. Procedures
,~ir Law
International Air Law UK Air Law - Operational Procedures
Copyright in all documents and materials bound within these covers or attached hereto, excluding that material which
is reproduced by the kind permission of third parties and acknowledged as such, belongs exclusively to Oxford Aviation
Academy Limited.
Certain copyright material is reproduced with the permission of the International Civil Aviation Organisation, the United
Kingdom Civil Aviation Authority and the Joint Aviation Authorites (JAA).
This text book has been written and published as a reference work for student pilots with the aims of helping them prepare
for the PPL theoretical knowledge examinations, and to provide them with the aviation knowledge they require to become
safe and competent pilots of light aeroplanes. The book is not a flying training manual and nothing in this book should be
regarded as constituting practical flying instruction. In practical flying matters, students must always be guided by their
instructor.
Oxford Aviation Academy Limited excludes all liability for any loss or damage incurred as a result of any reliance on all or
part of this book except for any liability for death or personal injury resulting from negligence on the part of Oxford Aviation
Academy Limited or any other liability which may not legally be excluded.
Contributors:
Les Fellows, Rhodri Davies, Steve Partridge, Glyn Rees, Lesley Smith
Editor:
Rick Harland, Lesley Smith
Contact Details:
OAAmedia
Oxford Aviation Academy
Oxford Airport
Kidlington
Oxford
OX51QX
England
Email: [email protected]
GENERAL
FOREWORD V
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CHAPTER 19: ALTIMETER SETTINGS (UK) 321
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
CHAPTER 3: WINDSHEAR 27
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FOREWORD
INTRODUCTION.
Whether you are planning to fly microlights, space shuttles, gliders, combat aircraft,
airliners or light aircraft, it is essential that you have a firm grasp of the theoretical
knowledge which underpins practical piloting skills. This Oxford Aviation Academy
"Skills for Flight" series of text books covers the fundamental theory with which all
pilots must come to grips from the very beginning of their pilot training, and which
must remain with them throughout their flying career, if they are to be masters of the
art and science of flight.
Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) pilot licences were first introduced in Europe in
1999. By 2006, almost every JAA member state, including all the major countries
of Europe, had adopted this new, pan-European licensing system at Air Transport
Pilot's Licence, Commercial Pilot's Licence and Private Pilot's Licence levels, and
many other countries, world-wide, had expressed interest in aligning their training
with the JAA pilot training syllabi.
These syllabi, and the regulations governing the award and the renewal of licences,
are defined by the JAA's licensing agency, 'Joint Aviation Requirements - Flight Crew
Licensing', (JAR-FCL). JAR-FCL training syllabi are published in a document known
as 'JAR-FCL 1.'
The United Kingdom Civil Aviation Authority (UK CAA) is one of the founder authorities
within the JAA. The UK CAA has been administering examinations and skills tests
for the issue of JAA licences since the year 2000, on behalf of JAR-FCL.
The Private Pilot's Licence (PPL), then, issued by the UK CAA, is a JAA licence which
is accepted as proof of a pilot's qualifications throughout all JAA member states.
Currently, the JAA member states are: United Kingdom, Denmark, Iceland,
Switzerland, France, Sweden, Netherlands, Belgium, Romania, Spain, Finland,
Jre/and, Malta, Norway, Czech Republic, Slovenia, Germany, Portugal, Greece,
Jtaly, Turkey, Croatia, Poland, Austria, Estonia, Lithuania, Cyprus, Hungary,
Luxembourg, Monaco, Slovakia.
As a licence which is also fully compliant with the licensing recommendations of the
International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO}, the JAA PPL is also valid in most
other parts of the world.
The JAA PPL in the UK has replaced the full UK PPL, formerly issued solely under
the authority of the UK CAA.
Issue of the JAA PPL is dependent on the student pilot having completed the requisite
training and passed the appropriate theoretical knowledge and practical flying skills
tests detailed in 'JAR-FCL 1'. In the UK, the CAA is responsible for ensuring that
these requirements are met before any licence is issued.
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FOREWORD
Oxford Aviation Academy (OAA) is one of the world's leading professional pilot
schools. It has been in operation for over forty years and has trained more than
15 000 professional pilots for over 80 airlines, world-wide.
OM was the first pilot school in the United Kingdom to be granted approval to train
for the JAAATPL. OAA led and coordinated the joint-European effort to produce the
JAR-FCLATPL Learning Objectives which are now published by the JAA, itself, as a
guide to the theoretical knowledge requirements of ATPL training.
OM's experience in European licensing, at all levels, and in the use of advanced
training technologies, led OAA!.s training material production unit, OAAmedia,
to conceive, create and produce multimedia, computer-based training for ATPL
students preparing for JAA theoretical knowledge examinations by distance learning.
Subsequently, OAAmedia extended its range of computer-based training CO-ROMs
to cover PPL and post-PPL studies.
The OAA expertise embodied in this series of books means that students working
towards the JAA PPL have access to top-quality, up-to-date, study material at an
affordable cost. Those students who aspire to becoming professional pilots will
find that this series of PPL books takes them some way beyond PPL towards the
knowledge required for professional pilot licences.
The following information on the Joint Aviation Authorities Private Pilot's Licence
(Aeroplanes); (JAA PPL(A)) is for your guidance only. Full details of flying training,
theoretical knowledge training and the corresponding tests and examinations are
contained in the JAA document: JAR-FCL 1, SUBPART C - PRIVATE PILOT
LICENCE (Aeroplanes) - PPL(A).
The privileges of the JAA PPL (A) allow you to fly as pilot-in-command, or co-pilot,
of any aircraft for which an appropriate rating is held, but not for remuneration, or on
revenue-earning flights.
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FOREWORD
For United Kingdom based students, full details of JAA PPL (A) training and
examinations can be found in the CAA publication, Licensing Administration
Standards Operating Requirements Safety (LASORS), copies of which can be
accessed through the CAA's Flight Crew Licensing website.
Flying Training.
The JAA PPL (A) can be gained by completing a course of a minimum of 45 hours
flying training with a training organisation registered with the appropriate National
Aviation Authority (the Civil Aviation Authority, in the case of the United Kingdom).
The flying test (Skills Test), comprising navigation and general skills tests, is to be
taken within 6 months of completing flying instruction. All sections of the Skills Test
must be taken within a period of 6 months. A successfully completed Skills Test has
a period of validity of 12 months for the purposes of licence issue.
The JAA theoretical knowledge examination must comprise the following 9 subjects:
Air Law, Aircraft General Knowledge, Flight Performance and Planning, Human
Performance and Limitations, Meteorology, Navigation, Operational Procedures,
Principles of Flight, Communication.
The combination of subjects and the examination paper titles, as administered by the
UK CAA, are, at present:
The majority of the questions are multiple choice. In the United Kingdom, examinations
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FOREWORD
For the purpose of the issue of a JAA PPL{A), a pass in the theoretical knowledge
examinations will be accepted during the 24 month period immediately following the
date of successfully completing all of the theoretical knowledge examinations.
Medical Requirements.
An applicant for a JAR-FCL PPL{A) must hold a valid JAR-FCL Class 1 or Class 2
Medical Certificate.
One of the aims of the United Kingdom National Private Pilot's Licence (UK NPPL}
is to make it easier for the recreational flyer to obtain a PPL than it would be if the
requirements of the standard JAA-PPL had to be met. The regulations governing
medical fitness are also different between the UK NPPL and the JAA PPL.
Full details of the regulations governing the training for, issue of, and privileges of the
UK NPPL may be found by consulting LASORS and the Air Navigation Order. Most
UK flying club websites also give details of this licence.
Flying Training.
Currently, 32 hours of flying training is required for the issue of a UK NPPL (A), of
which 22 hours are to be dual instruction, and 10 hours to be supervised solo flying
time.
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FOREWORD
Technical Content.
The technical content of this OAA series of pilot training text books aims to reach the
standard required by the theoretical knowledge syllabus of the JAA Private Pilot's
Licence (Aeroplanes), (JAA PPL(A)). This is the minimum standard that has been
aimed at. The subject content of several of the volumes in the series exceeds PPL
standard. However, all questions and their answers, as well as the margin notes, are
aimed specifically at the JAA PPL (A) ground examinations.
An indication of the technical level covered by each text book is given on the rear
cover and in individual subject prefaces. The books deal predominantly with single
piston-engine aeroplane operations.
As mentioned elsewhere in this Foreword, this series of books is also suitable for
student pilots preparing for the United Kingdom National Private Pilot's Licence (UK
NPPL). The theoretical examination syllabus and examinations for the UK NPPL are
currently identical to those for the JAA PPL.
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FOREWORD
Grammatical Note.
It is standard grammatical convention in the English language, as well as in most
other languages of lndo-European origin, that a single person of unspecified gender
should be referred to by the appropriate form of the masculine singular pronoun ,
he, him, or his. This convention has been used throughout this series of books in
order to avoid the pitfalls of usage that have crept into some modern works which
contain frequent and distracting repetitions of he or she, him or her, etc, or where the
ungrammatical use of they, and related pronouns, is resorted to. In accordance with
the teachings of English grammar, the use, in this series of books, of a masculine
pronoun to refer to a single person of unspecified gender does not imply that the
person is of the male sex.
Margin Notes.
The key icon identifies a note which the authors judge to be a key point in the
understanding of a subject; the wings identify what the authors judge to be a point
of airmanship.
• Aircraft (General) & Principles of Flight: The 'Aircraft (General) & Principles
of Flight' examination paper, as rits title suggest s, covers 'Principles of Flight'
and those subjects which deal with the aeroplane as a machirne, 'Airframes',
'Engines', 'Propellers' and 'Instrumentation', which JAR-FCL groups under
the title 'Aircraft General Knowledge'.
When preparing for the two examinations named above, using this Oxford series
of text books, you will need Volume 5, 'Principles of Flight', which includes
'Aeroplane Performance', and Volume 6, 'Aeroplanes', which includes ' Mass &
Balance' as well as 'Airframes', 'Engines', 'Propellers', and 'Instrumentation'. So
to prepare for the 'Aircraft (General) & Principles of Flight' examination, y·ou need
to take the 'Aeroplanes' infomation from Volume 6 and the 'Principles of Flight'
information from Volume 5. When you are preparing for the 'Flight Performance &
Planning' examination you need to take the 'Aeroplane Performance' information
from Volume 5 and the 'Mass & Balance' information from Volume 6 .
It has been necessary to arrange the books in this way for reasons of space and
subject logic. The titles of the rest of the volumes in the series correspond with the
titles of the examinations. The situation is summed up for you in the table on the
following page:
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FOREWORD
Regulatory Changes.
Finally, so that you may stay abreast of any changes in the flying and ground training
requirements pertaining to pilot licences which may be introduced by your national
aviation authority, be sure to consult, from time to time, the relevant publications issued
by the authority. In the United Kingdom, the Civil Aviation Publication, LASORS, is
worth looking at regular1ly. It is currently accessible, on-line. on the CAA website at
www.caa.co.uk.
Oxford,
England
June 2010
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PREFACE TOAIR LAW
Like any community, the aviation community is governed by laws and regulations. Air
Law, and its associated subject Operational Procedures, covers such areas as Rules
of the Air, Air Traffic Regulations, Airspace Classification, Pilots Licences, Distress
and Urgency Procedures, and Accident Investigation. In the aviation community, as
in any field of human activity, if you are to become an effective, safe and responsible
member of that commu11ity, you must be familiar with the body of Air Law which is in
force in the airspace you fly in, and abide by its teachings.
Because aviation is an activity that is global in scope, Air Law applies internationally,
too. Organisations such as the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) lay
down regulations and procedures which, to a very great extent, are enshrined in the
national legislation of ICAO's member countries and in that of other multi-national
authorities such as the JM and EASA.
You are, of course, required to comply with the law at all times. But rather than being
simply a dry, legal subject, Air Law embodies rules and regulations which are there
for a reason. A lot of Air Law reflects common sense, or, to use a better term, good
airmanship. So Air Law is a very practical subject, and in mastering Air Law, you
will not only be contributing to the efficient and expedlitious flow of air traffic, but also
ensuring that you do not compromise Flight Safety for yourself or for any other user
of the air.
The introduction of the JAR-FCL PPL has brought with it a change in the way Air
Law is examined. In the new examination you are just as likely to have to answer
questions on ICAO procedures as on procedures applicable to the airspace of
your own country, alone. The main development, then , has been to place greater
emphasis on testing your knowledge of Air Law so that you are prepared to fly in the
airspace of countries other than your own.
You should at all times be aware that Air Law is a living discipline which is constantly
evolving. For instance, just before the first edition of this book went to press in March
2007, the UK CM announced that, in the United Kingdom, a new rule concerning a
requirement for transponder-equipped aircraft to continue to select their transponders
"on" when operating near the traffic patterns of busy aerodromes was to become
effective from 15 March 2007.
The content of the corpus of Air Law is massive and cannot be covered in its entirety
in this or any other book. Consequently, this text book does not claim to be anything
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PREFACE TOA/R LAW
other than Oxford Aviation Academy's best attempt at providing a guide to Air Law
and to your preparation for the JAR-FCL PPL examination in Air Law and Operational
Procedures. This book must not be considered as a definitive treatise on Air Law,
and the study of this book cannot replace reference to the relevant legal documents
produced by national and international aviation authorities.
As we mention above, since the introduction of the JAR-FCL PPL the Air Law &
Operational Procedures examination set by national aviation authorities, and notably
by the United Kingdom Civil Aviation Authority, is just as likely to ask questions on
International (ICAO) Air Law as on Air Law applicable only to a candidate's own
country.
International organisations such as the Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) and the
European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) have undertaken to seek to normalise the
aviation regulations of their member states by bringing them into line with ICAO
regulations.
While we recognise that many ireaders of this book will be United Kingdom-based
pilots, as this book is a text book for pilots studying for a JAR-FCL pilot's licence,
the book is divided into two principal parts: International (ICAO) Air Law and United
Kingdom A\r Law, in order that readers may know which elements of Air Law are
international, and which elements are applicable to the United Kingdom alone. Many
elements of United Kingdom Air Law are identical to ICAO Air Law; however, the
United Kingdom (UK) has filed several d ifferences with ICAO in respect of the Rules
of the Air and some Air Traffic Services.
In the first section of this book, therefore, you will read about International (ICAO)Air
Law which will generally be in force, to a large extent, in all lCAO member countries,
including the United Kingdom. ft is hoped that non-UK based readers will still be able
to learn much of value about Air Law from this first section of the book.
UK-based readers will need to study both the International (ICAO) Air Law section
and the section on United Kingdom Air Law. UK-based readers should also note
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PREFACE TOAIR LAW
that the JAR-FCL PPL examinations for Air Law & Operational Procedures set in the
United Kingdom contain questions which are, for the most part, based on International
(ICAO) Air Law. There will, however, be questions on Air Law applicable to the United
Kingdom alone, these questions being identified in a suitable manner, in the question
text
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CHAPTER I
INTERNATIONAL
AIR LAW
Territorial
Airspace
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
The first scheduled international air service began in 1919 which coincided with the
first international conference on civil aviation in Paris.
The Second World War saw huge advancements in aviation which forced nations to
realise that without a cohesive and international effort to create supra-national laws,
further advancement would not be possible.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
The following articles and definitions of the Convention on International Civil Aviation
must be known by a PPL candidate:
Article 1 - Sovereignty.
Every
States that: "All Contracting States recognise that every St-ate has complete and
contracting exclusive sovere;gnty over the airspace above its territory".
(]
state has
complete and Sovereignty implies the right of a State to impose national law on users of the State's
exclusive sovereignty above territorial airspace.
its territory.
The Territory
of a State
consists of Territorial
the land areas
and its adjacent territorial
Airspace
waters.
--------- -
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aler&. ,.
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Terrlloflal . .. ~ Terr11onal
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Figure 1.4 Territorial Airspace.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
Each State must allow non-scheduled flights into or through its territory and Only non- ~
to land without prior permission. scheduled ·
flights are
• Any State has the right to require an over-flying aircraft to land. allowed to fly
into or through the airspace
Note: Scheduled flights require permission to overfly another State. of another Contracting State
without pennission.
• Each State has the right to require an aircraft which is flying over inaccessible
terrain, or in airspace which is inadequately served by navigational aids,
to follow prescribed routes or to obtain special permission to conduct such
flights.
All aircraft must obey the Rules of the Air of the State in which it is flying .
ltisthe ~
responsibility
Note: It is the responsibility of the State which regulates the airspace in which the of the State
aircraft is operating to ensure that this rule is complied with. which
regulates the airspace in
All States must endeavour to keep their Rules of the Air as close as possible which an aircraft is flying
to that of the Convention (ICAO). to ensure its rules and
regulations are complied with,
• Over the high seas the Convention's (ICAO) Rules of the Air shall apply
without exception.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
Immigration.
• Passports.
• Customs.
• Quarantine.
Article 22 Facilitation of
Formaliti,es.
All Contracting States undertake
to adopt measures to expedite the
navigation of aircraft between States
and to prevent unnecessary delays to
aircraft, crews, passengers and cargo,
especially in the areas of:
Immigration.
Quarantine.
Figure 1. 7 Customs.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
Customs.
Clearance.
Fuel, oil, spare parts and aircraft stores plus any regular equipment that is on board
an aircraft on arrival shall be exempt from customs duty, inspection fees or similar
charges as long as they remain on board.
Tl7is privilege does not apply to anything that is taken off the aircraft. However, any
spare parts that are imported for use by anot her aircraft from another State will be
free of duty.
Crew licences.
Figure 1. 8 All Aircraft must carry the above documents at all times.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS
·-~
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
Article 32 Licences of
Personnel.
Pilots and other operating crew must be Flying ~
licences are
provided with licences and certificates issued by
of competency issued by the State of the State of
aircraft Registration. Registration.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
• the aircraft,
each journey
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
Figure 1. 15 Photography.
Regulations.
• Standards.
Procedures.
To this end ICAO is to adopt and amend Standards and Recommended Practices,
(SARPS) as may be necessary dealing with:
Airworthiness of aircraft.
Log books.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
Eighteen Annexes to the Chicago Convention have been established covering the
SARPS mentioned above. These Annexes are listed on Pages 14 and 15.
--
---
Any licence holder who does not satisfy the international standards relating to such
a licence shall have full details, shown on the licence, of the particulars in which he
does not satisfy the conditions.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
The use of any aircraft, or certified aircraft part in a State, other than the one in which
it was first registered, is permitted only at the discretion of the state into which the
aircraft or part is imported.
ORGANISATIONS.
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
MAJOR DOCUMENTATION.
/CAO Annexes.
The rules and regulations (Standards and Recommended Practices) emanating from
ICAO are organised into 18 Annexes.
All Contracting States have the option to replace any of these rules or regulations with
their own national laws applicable to aircraft within or above their territories. If this
is the case, States must publish full details in their national Aeronautical Information
Publication (AlP).
Annex 9 Facilitation
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW
Annex 12
Annex 13
Search and Rescue
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-
.· ..
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW.QUESTIONS
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2. Does each state have the right to search , without reasonable delay, the
aircraft of other contracting states on landing and departure?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Yes but this applies only to commercial aircraft
d. Yes but this applies only to non-commercial aircraft
3. When an ICAO aircraft lands in another contracting state what items are
temporarily exempt from customs duty?
4. You are flying a UK registered aircraft over Germany. Whose Rules of the Air
must you obey?
a. ICAO's
b. UK's
c. JAA's
d. Germany's
5. When can an ICAO aircraft make flights into the airspace of another
contracting state without permission?
a. If it is a non-scheduled flight
b. If it is a scheduled flight
c. Never
d. If it is not carrying passengers
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CHAP..TER ·'It
1:-'..iNTERNATIONAL AIR LAW QUESTIONS
6. When entering into another country's airspace, the licence of the Pilot-in-
Command must have been issued by the authority of:
7. Which rules of the air govern the entry and departure of international air
traffic into and out of a foreign state?
a. ICAO's
b. The foreign state's
c. International Rules and Regulations
d. IATA's
10. All contracting states recognise that every state has complete and exclusive
sovereignty over the airspace above its territory. Is this statement true?
a. Yes
b. No
11. Who has the responsibility to ensure that all aircraft entering a state's
airspace obey that state's rules and regulations?
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.· ..
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW.QUESTIONS
..,-,
'
12. An aircraft which has failed its C of A but nevertheless has written details of
the reasons why it had so failed shall:
13. All UK registered aircraft are subject to the provisions of the ANO and the
Rules of the Air Regulations:
14. What is the name of the Convention which is commonly known as "The
Chicago Convention?"
16. The U.K. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) is subdivided into the
following sections:
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CHAP..TER ·'It
1:-'..iNTERNATIONAL AIR LAW QUESTIONS
17. Can a state search a visiting aircraft from another contracting state without
permission?
a. No
b. Yes
c. Only if a crime is reasonably suspected
d. Only if it is reasonably suspected that the aircraft is carrying
inadmissible passengers
a. Personnel Licensing
b. Facilitation
c. Rules of the Air
d. Aerodromes
a. Annex 8
b. Annex 9
c. Annex 12
d. Annex 14
20. What organisation will take over the responsibilities and role of the JAA?
a. IATA
b. ECAC
c. EU
d. EASA
22. Under the Chicago Convention, the Territory of a State consists of:
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.· ..
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CHAPTER 1: INTERNATIONAL AIR LAW.QUESTIONS
..,-,
'
23. All aircraft entering or departing from a State must obey the laws and
regulations of:
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Answer
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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CHAPTER2
RULES OF THE AIR (ICAO)
Airships
Gliders
Gliders
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CHAPTER 2: RULES OF THE AIR (/CAO)
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CHAPTER 2: RULES OF THE AIR (/CAO)
INTRODUCTION.
"Every aircraft flying over a state's territory, and every aircraft carrying a territory's
nationality mark - wherever it is - must comply with that territory's Rules of the Air.
Each state shall keep its own Rules of the Air as uniform as possible with those
established under the Convention. The duty to ensure compliance with these Rules
rests with the contracting state. Over the high seas the Rules established under the
Convention apply."
You may expect, then, that the Rules of the Air which apply in any contracting ICAO
state will, in general, follow the internationally agreed ICAO standards for Rules of
the Air, as laid down in Annex 2 of the 'Convention on International Civil Aviation',
known commonly as ICAO Annex 2. However, you must also note that each ICAO
contracting state, while undertaking to endeavour to apply the ICAO-agreed rules, may
interpret the ICAO agreements in the context of its own particular requirements.
When a contracting state's rules differ from the ICAO agreements, that state "files a
difference" with ICAO.
The Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) and the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA)
are organisations which have undertaken to seek to normalise the aviation regulations
of their member states by bringing them into line with ICAO standards. As this book is
a text book for pilots studying for a JAR-FCL pilot's licence, the information on Rules
of the Air contained in this chapter deals exclusively with internationally agreed ICAO
standards. For the most part, the information in this chapter will apply in all ICAO
member states and in all JAA/EASA member states, but it is important that student
pilots refer to their own country's aviation legislation to confirm which information is
relevant to their country, and to identify where differences may exist.
Furthermore, before flying over the territory of a state, other than his home state, it is
the responsibility of the pilot to familiarise himself with any of that state's Rules of the
Air which are different from those with which he has been used to complying.
The United Kingdom (UK) has filed several differences with ICAO in respect of the
Rules of the Air. Those differences are covered in Chapter 11. UK~based pilots and
student pilots should note, therefore, that the information contained in this present
chapter, covering the ICAO Annex 2 Rules of the Air, will be relevant to a UK-based
pilot's needs, except in those cases where differences are noted in Chapter 11.
There are some important differences in the UK Rules of the Air, so Chapter 11
should be studied carefully by UK-based pilots. For instance, in the Rule on collision
avoidance between two aircraft on a converging track, the ICAO Rule requires that
the aircraft having priority should maintain heading a11d speed while the UK Rule
requires that the priority aircraft maintains course and speed. Therefore, these rules
are covered separately in Chapters 2 and 11. On the other hand , the ICAO Rules on
aircraft lighting, and avoiding collision in the air by reference to aircraft lights, is the
same in the ICAO Rules and the UK Rules. Consequently, these rules are covered
in Chapter 2, only.
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and
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CHAPTER 2: RULES OF THE AIR (/CAO)
GENERAL RULES.
Minimum Heights .
Except for taking off and landing, or when authorised, no aircraft may be flown over
congested areas (cities, towns or settlements) unless at a height which permits,
in the event of an emergency, a landing to be made without hazard to persons or
property on the ground.
Cruising Levels.
The cruising levels at which a flight, or a portion of a flight, is to be conducted shall The cruising
levels at which
be defined in terms of:
a flight , or a
portion ofa
flight levels, for flights above the Transition Altitude (TA) flight Is to be conducted shall
be defined in terms of:
and
a) flight levels, for flights above
the Transition Altitude (TA)
• altitudes, for flights at or below the Transition Altitude.
and
b) altitudes, for flights at or
Dropping and Spraying. below the Transition Altitude.
Nothing must be dropped or sprayed from an aircraft except when using a method
approved by the Authority, and when cleared to do so by Air Traffic Services (ATS).
Towing.
No aircraft or other object must be towed by an aircraft, except in accordance with
requirements prescribed by the appropriate Authority, and when cleared to do so by
Air Traffic Services (ATS).
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Formation Flying.
Aircraft must not be flown in formation
except by prearrangement among the
pilots-in-command of the aircraft taking
part in the flight.
• Make all turns to the LEFT, when approaching for a land ing and after taking
off, unless otherwise instructed.
Land and tak,e off into the wind unless safety, the runway configuration, or air
traffic considerations determine that a different direction is preferable.
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CHAPTER 2: RULES OF THE AIR (/CAO)
Signals.
Ground-to-air visual signals are covered in Annex A to this volume.
Time.
Co-ordinated Universal Time (UTC) must be used in a 24 hour format.
A time check must be obtained by pilots prior to operating a controlled flight and ,
additionally, whenever necessary.
a. Aircraft identification**
b. Position **
c. Time**
d. Flight level or altitude
e. Next position and time over that position
f. Ensuing significant (reporting) point
** Mandatory information
Example:
"London Control, G-ABCD, Honiley 1031 , maintaining Flight Level 70, Daventry
1054, Olney next."
AVOIDANCE OF COLLISIONS.
REMEMBER/ 4
:=-1 ~
Line of Constant Bearing (LCB).
If two aircraft are converging on a constant
relative bearing, they will collide unless
If another
aircraft remains~ ::JI
relative position in your field of
avoiding action is taken. Therefore, if a view, the aircraft will collide, so
closing aircraft remains in the same relative take early avoiding action!
position in your field of view, a collision risk
exists.
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Proximity.
An aircraft must not be operated in such proximity to other aircraft as to create a
danger of collision.
Figure 2. 6 An aircraft shall not be operated in such proximity to other aircraft as to create a
danger of collision.
Approaching Head-On.
ff two
aircraft are
When two aircraft are approaching head-on, or approximately so, and there is danger
approaching of collision, each must alter its heading to the right regardless of the type of either
head-on, aircraft.
both must tum right to avoid
collision.
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EXCEPT as follows:
Airships
Gliders
Figure 2. 9a A power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft must give way to airships, gliders and
balloons.
Gliders
Power-driven aircraft must give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing
other aircraft or objects.
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The following table summarises the rules concerning right-of-way in the air.
The term
() "flying Airships
machine" Flying machines give way to: Gliders
refers to any
Balloons
heavier-than-air, power-driven
aircraft.
Flying machines Gliders
give way to:
Airships Balloons
Flying machines
Airships give way to: Balloons
Gliders
NB: You should note that the term ''flying machine" refers to any heavier-than-air, power-driven
aircraft.
An aircraft is Memorising the mnemonic FAGB may help you remember the right-of-way rules.
() considered to
be overtaking Overtaking in the Air.
another when
An overtaking aircraft is a faster aircraft that approaches another from the rear, within
the faster aircraft is converging
a 70° arc either side of the tail.
within 700 of the extended
longitudinal axis of the slower An aircraft that is being overtaken has the right-of-way.
aitctaff.
• The overtaking aircraft, whether climbing, descending or in horizontal flight,
must keep out of the way of the other aircraft by altering its heading to the right ,
However, the overtaking aircraft must not pass over, under or in front of the
other aircraft, unless well clear.
• The overtaking aircraft should take into account the effect of wake turbulence.
Landing.
An aircraft in flight, or operating on the ground or water, must give way to aircraft
If two aircraft landing or in the final stages of an approach to land.
are on an
approach When two or more heavier-than-air aircraft are approaching an aerodrome for the
to land, the
purpose of landing, aircraft at the higher level must give way to aircraft at the lower
higher aircraft must give way
level, but the latter must not take advantage of this rule to cut in front of another aircraft
to the aircraft at a lower level.
which is in the final stages of an approach to land, or to overt.ake that aircraft.
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~
Lower aircraft has
right of way
--
\. . ~
- ;..-.-.r
...
.
--
.;, ._...
- -:,:,(
. - -...
.- . . . ~-
~ ..-. -
- ~
- ..
-
-
-- ........
...
.. ~-
-
~ .
- -fl:!{
-
. - ---..~ .
-.
.:,. ..
Figure 2. 11 Right of Way on Landing. The lower aircraft has right of way.
Note: Nevertheless, power-driven heavier-than-air aircraft must give way to
gliders.
Emergency Landing.
An aircraft that is aware that another aircraft is compelled to land must give way to
that aircraft.
Taking Off.
An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome must give way to aircraft
taking off or about to take off.
General.
An aircraft that has the right-of-way must maintain its heading and speed.
An aircraft which is obliged to keep out of the way of another aircraft must
avoid passing over, under or in front of the priority aircraft, unless it passes
well clear.
Figure 2. 12 An aircraft giving way must avoid passing over, under or in front of the aircraft
with right of way.
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Figure 2.13 When two aircraft are on a converging course, the one which has the other on its
right shall give way.
• When two aircraft are approaching head on, or approximately so, each shall
stop or, where practicable, alter its course to the right so as to keep well clear
of the other aircraft.
• When two aircraft are on a converging course, the one which has the other
on its right shall give way (see Figure 2.13).
An aircraft which is being overtaken by another aircraft shall have the right-
of-way and the overtaking aircraft shall keep well clear of the other aircraft.
(NB: ICAO rules imply that the overtaking aircraft can pass on either side).
Flying machines and vehicles shall give way to aircraft which are taking off
or landing.
Vehicles and taxiing flying machines shall give way to vehicles towing
aircraft.
Vehicles which are not towing aircraft shall give way to aircraft.
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Anti-collision lights must be displayed during daylight unless they adverse ly affect
the performance of duties or cause a harmful dazzle to an outside observer.
Navigation Lights.
There are three navigation lights fitted to aeroplanes, one on each wing tip, and the
other on the aft parts of the fin. A red light is displayed on the port wing tip, a green
light on the starboard wlng tip and a white light at the rear of the aircraft.
~
. STARBOARD
..
... 110°
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The red and green lights are required to be seen from straight ahead through 110°
in the horizontal plane and through go above and below the aeroplane in the
0
vertical plane. The white light must be able to be seen 70° to the right and left in the
horizontal plane aft of the aeroplane and throughout go in the vertical plane (see
0
Figure 2.15).
When moving, navigation lights intended to indicate the relative path of the
aeroplane to an observer. No other lights shall be displayed if they may be
mistaken for the navigation lights.
Lights which indicate the fact that the engine is running (anti-collision
lights).
Anti-collision lights must be displayed in daylight hours unless they adversely affect
the performance of duties or cause a harmful dazzle to an outside observer.
a. In flight at night.
Gliders.
Gliders at night must either display standard lights or a steady red light visible from
all directions.
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Free Balloons.
Free balloons at night must display a steady, red, omni-directional light suspended
below the basket.
Airships.
An airship must show standard
navigation lights but in addition must
display an anti-collision light and a white
nose light showing through 110° from
straight ahead (see Figure 2.17).
If any light fails at night, when airborne, the aeroplane should be landed as soon as
is safely possible. The pilot may continue the flight only if authorised to do so by an
ATC Unit.
If an anti-collision light fails during the day, the aeroplane may continue its flight
providing the light is repaired at the first opportunity.
b. the aircraft are converging and the relative bearing between aircraft
is constant.
When the commander of an aircraft observes a light (or lights) of another aircraft at
the same altitude, he muist decide whether or not a collision risk exists. If there is no
risk of collision, no change of heading or speed is needed.
If a collision risk exists, the pilot must first decide which aircraft has right of way in
accordance to the Rules of the Air and then take what avoiding action is necessary.
A pilot must not insist on his priority if to do so would cause a risk of collision.
Remember: A pilot must not fly under or over another aircraft or cross ahead of it
unles.s well clear. Speed or altitude should not be changed unless such action is
necessary to avoid immediate danger.
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There are a number of simple rules for the pilot to obseNe, and a number of rhymes
which may help him remember the rules:
If you see a RED light on your RIGHT and it remains on a constant re lative
bearing to you, take avoiding action!
TO RED
YOU COULD ENO U~
DEAD! ... \ .
i'
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If you see a RED light to your LEFT - Maintain heading and speed.
• if you see a GREEN light to your RIGHT - Maintain heading and speed.
TO ALL SERENE!
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If you see a white light ahead which is getting brighter, take avoiding action
by turning RIGHT.
PORT STARBOARD
.....
\ 1100
•
'
..
..
..
TAIL LIGHT 140°
Figure 2.22 A white light ahead getting .brighter - you are overtaking.
AIRCRAFT IS COMING
TOWARDS YOU
TURN RIGHT MMEOIATELYI
• THE ONLY TIME A PILOT WILL SEE A RED AND A GREEN AT THE SAME
TIME IS WHEN AN AIRCRAFT IS HEAD ON TO HIM.
Note: Red/white and green/white can be seen together from 20 degrees aft of the left
or right abeam positions respectively - see Fig 2. 22.
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An aircraft taxiing on the manoeuvring area must stop and hold at all runway-holding
positions unless otherwise authorised by aerodrome traffic control. An aircraft taxiing
on the manoeuvring area must stop and hold at all lighted stop bars, and may proceed
further only when the lights are switched off by ATC. {See Figures 2.24 and 2.25).
- - '
-
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• The safety pilot has adequate vision forward and to each side of the
aircraft.
• In the event of the safety pilot not having an adequate visual field, a competent
observer in communication with the safety pilot must occupy a position in the
aircraft from which the observer's field of vision adequately supplements that
of the safety pilot.
• In VMC.
COMMUNICATIONS FAILURES.
• Report his arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate ATCU.
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• Land, if possible, within 30 minutes after the ETA or EAT, whichever is the
later.
• Report arrival by the most expeditious means to the appropriate Air Traffic
Service Unit {ATSU).
Notes:
If a pilot is under radar control, he should maintain the last assigned speed and level,
or minimum flight altitude, if higher, for a period of 7 minutes.
N.B.: EAT is the time at which ATC expect an aircraft to leave the hold to commen~
an approach.
• Inform the ATSU of any necessitated deviation from the current flight. A hi-
jacked aircraft is given priority over all other aircraft.
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If he has filed a flight plan, to stick to the flight plan if possible until able to
contact an ATSU.
• Proceed in accordance with any special procedures for the airspace in which
he is flying.
1. ATC will not use tine words "Hi-jack", "Unlawful Seizure" or "Unlawful
lnt,erference" unless these words have already been used by a member of
the crew.
2. ATC will not expect replies from the aircraft and will continue to pass
information/instructions and clearances to the aircraft.
INIT ERCEPTION.
The General.
transponder Every State has the right to intercept aircraft within its territorial airspace. Nevertheless
squawk, if interception will only be undertaken as a last resort.
mtercepted, is
7700 + Mode C, and contact Procedure in the Event of Interception.
should be made between An aircraft which is intercepted must:
aircraft on 121.50 MHz.
Immediately obey the instructions given by the intercepting aircraft.
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Circumstances may not always permit, nor make desirable, the use of the·
phrase 'HI-JACK'
PHRASES •• : I , • • '
Phrase Pronunciation**
CALL SIGN KO L-SA-I N My call sign is (call sign)
WILCO (Will comply) WILL-KO Understood & will comply
CAN NOT KANN NOTT Unable to comply
REPEAT REE-PEET Repeat your instruction
AM LOST AM LOSST Position unknown
MAYDAY MAYDAY I am in distress
HI-JACK# HI-JACK I have been hi-jacked
LAND (place name) LAAND (place name) I request to land at:
(place name)
DESCEND DEE-SEND I require descent
# Circumstances may not always permit, nor make desirable, the use
of the phrases "HI-JACK", "UNLAWFUL SEIZURE" and "UNLAWFUL
INTERFERENCE".
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CHAPTER 2: RULES OF THE AIR (/CAO)
A basic JAR-FCL PPL holder will, on most occasions fly in accordance with the Visual
Visual
Meteorological Flight Rules (VFR). When flying VFR, the pilot must be able to manoeuvre and
Conditions navigate his aircraft, and maintain separation from other aircraft, by reference to
are conditions features outside the cockpit. Consequently, VFR flight is possible only when visibility
expressed in tenns of Visibility, cloud base and separation from cloud meet certain defined minima. These minima
distance from cloud, and cloud are defined as Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC). VFR must take place in
ceiling, equal to or better than VMC, but, in addition, the pilot must be able to see the ground.
specified minima.
ICAO defines VMC as follows: "meteorological conditions expressed in terms of
VFR flight visibility, distance from cloud, and cloud ceiling, equal to or better than specified
(I must take
place in
minima."
VMC, but, in
addition. the pilot must also be These VMC minima vary depending on the class of airspace in which a flight is being
able to see the ground. conducted, and on the aircraft's vertical position.
Notes;
• When the height of the Transition Altitude is lower than 3 050 m (10 000 feet)
AMSL, FL 100 should be used in lieu of 10 000 feet.
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ICAO VMC minima are illustrated in Figures 2.27 and 2.28 below.
• 11000 feet I
• --: ·e-~ ~IIN---FL-1-GH_T_V_I_SI_B_ILI_TY_;_B_KM~I
• 11000 feet I
: ~ ,-1 IN---FL_l_G-HT_V_I_SI_B_ILI_TY_=_S_KM-,1
• •
IAMSL "' above mean sea-level!
General.
Except when operating as a Special VFIR flight (SVFR), flights operating in accordance
with the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) must be conducted in Visual Meteorological
Conditions (VMC). However, the fact that VMC prevails is not, in itself, sufficient for
VFR flight to be permitted . The pilot must also be able to see the ground. And that
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means enough of the ground for him to be able to navigate his aircraft and maintain
safe terrain separation by visual reference to the ground.
VFR at Night.
VFR flights between sunset and sunrise, or such other period between sunset
and sunrise, may be permitted as prescribed by the appropriate national aviation
authority.
/CAO defines
ICAO <;lefines night as the period from the end of evening civil twilight to the beginning
night' as the
of morning civil twilight. The expression civil twilight is defined as being when the
period from the
centre of the Sun's disk is 6 degrees below the horizon. In twilight conditions,
end -of evening
illumination is sufficient, under good weather conditions, for terrestrial objects to be
civil twilight to the beginning of
clearly distinguished .
morning ciVil twilight.
The UK CAA also defines night differently from ICAO (see Chapter 10). In the UK,
VFR operations are not allowed at night.
• above FL 200,
or
Note: the United Kingdom Flight Level system differs from that of ICAO.
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CHAPTER 2: RULES OF THE AIR (/CAO)
or
• report its position as necessary to the ATSU providing The Flight Information
Service (FIS).
Figure 2.29 The Rules: Generally an aircraft shall not fly faster than 250 kts /AS below
10 000 feet unless cleared by ATS.
or
• when required, submit a flight plan to the appropriate ATCU and obtain a
clearance prior to proceeding in accordance with IFR when in controlled
airspace.
~
Flight Level Cruising Rules.
An aircraft flying above the Transition Altitude must fly at Flight Levels based on a
The crwsmg
Fllght Level is
dependent on
(J
pressure altimeter setting of 1013.2 hPa dependent on the magnetic track of the the aircraft's
aircraft, in accordance with the Semi-Circular Rule, as shown i n the following table magnetic track and its night
of cruising levels. rules.
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TRACK
From 000 to 179 deg rees From 180 to 359 degrees
IFR Flights VFH Flights IFR Flights VFR Flights
FL Feet FL Feet FL Feet FL Feet
10 1000 - ,. 20 2000 - -
30 3000 35 3500 40 4000 45 4500
50 5000 55 5500 60 6000 65 6500
70 7000 75 7500 80 8000 85 8500
90 9000 95 '9500 100 10000 105 10500
A second major difference is that, in the United Kingdom, above the Transition
Altitude and below Flight Level 195, outside controlled airspace, IFR flights follow a
Quadrantal Rule, not the Semi-Circular Rule. Furthermore, in the UK, VFR flights
are not obliged to follow any Flight Level Cruising Rule, outside controlled airspace.
The United Kingdom Rules are covered in full in Chapter 11.
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General.
SVFRis ~
A SVFR Flight is a VFR flight cleared by an Air Traffic Control Unit (ATCU) to operate permitted only
within a Control Zone (CTR) in meteorological conditions below VMC. ill a Control
Zone (CTR).
The important points to remember about SVFR are:
A SVFR clearance is not a pilot's right and is granted by an ATCU only when
traffic conditions allow, after a request has been made by the pilot.
A SVFR flight must remain clear of cloud and in sight of the ground at all
times.
A ground visibility of not less that 1 500 m is required before a SVFR flight can be
authorised to:
a. enter a CTR.
b. take-off and depart from a CTR.
c. cross, or operate locally with in a CTR.
In-flight requests for SVFR should be made at least 10 min before entering a CTR.
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The Visual Circuit is a traffic pattern which imposes order on aerodrome traffic taking
off, landing and flying in the immediate vicinity of an aerodrome. At a controlled
aerodrome, the Visual Circuit is controlled by Aerodrome Control, usually from the
Air Traffic Control Tower.
Figure 2.31 The Visual Circuit. Aircraft must conform to the traffic pattern being followed by
other aircraft operating at an aerodrome.
All aircraft must either conform to the traffic pattern (circuit) being followed by other
aircraft operating at an aerodrome, or else keep clear of the Visual Circuit.
A standard
visual circuit is
LEFT-hand.
This means
that all turns are to be made to
the left.
Figure 2.32 A Left Hand Circuit.
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If, for some operational reason, there is a right-hand circuit in force a pilot will normallly
be advised by the responsible Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU) over the radio prior
to joining the circuit. For aircraft with no radio there are designated signals in the
signals square which inform pilots of the circuit direction in force (see Annex A). If an
aircraft is not fitted with a radio, the pilot should plan to carry out an overhead join fo
the aerodrome and make a careful check of the signals square.
If a pilot with a serviceable radio is in doubt about the circuit direction in force, he
should confirm the direction with the ATSU.
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...
1. When two aircraft are converging at approximately the same level the one
that has the other on its right is required to give way. True or false?
2. An aircraft is not permitted to fly over a congested area below 1000 feet
above the highest fixed obstacle within 600 metres of the aircraft, except in
the following circumstances:
a. That the pilot holds the correct rating to allow the aeroplane to be
flown in VFR
b. That the f light will be flown in Visual Meteorological Conditions
c. That the flight will only take place in Class F or G airspace
d. That the flight will not take place above FL 180
5. In uncontrolled airspace, below FL 100, and above 3 000 feet AMSL or 1 000
feet above terrain, whichever is the higher, what are the VMC minima?
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--
2 :i RULES
. - . OF THE AIR (/CAO) QUESTIONS
6. An aircraft following a road, railway line, river, canal or other line feature
should keep such a feature:
a. On its left
b. On its right
c. Directly underneath it
d. On its left dluring the day and on the right at night
7. With certain exceptions, an aircraft must not fly closer than _ _ _ feet
to any person, vessel, vehicle or structure unless it is landing or taking off
in accordance with normal aviation practice. Select the correct minimum
separation distance from the following options:
a. 1 000 feet
b. 500 feet
C. 1 500 feet
d. 1 000 m
8. When a pilot, for the purposes of practising instrument flight, is flying under
simulated Instrument MeteorologIical Conditions such that his ability to see
outside the cockpit is artificially restricted, which of the following regulations
applies?
a. 7700 + Mode C
b. 7500 + Mode C
C. 7000
d. 7600 + Mode C
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...
11 . You are about to overtake an aircraft at night from a position behind and
almost immediately astern of the other aircraft. Which of its navigation lights
will you see?
12. When flying in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules in uncontrolled
airspace, responsibility for maintaining VMC and terrain clearance rests
with:
a. Any Air Traffic Control Unit with whom the pilot is in contact
b. The Pilot-in-Command
c. Any radar controller with whom the pilot is in contact
d. Any Air Traffic Service Unit with whom the pilot is in contact
14. If two aircraft are converging while taxiing on the apron, what is the priority
rule?
a. The aircraft which has the other aircraft on its right shall give way
b. The aircraft which has the other aircraft on its left shall give way
c. The aircraft which is farthest from a taxiway centre line shall give
way
d. The smaller of the two aircraft shall give way
15. The navigation lights of a flying machine or airship should cover the following
arcs: green and red wingtip-lights ___ degrees each side from dead
ahead and a white tail-light _ _ degrees either side of dead astern.
a. 220 140
b. 110 70
C. 100 90
d. 90 90
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2 :i RULES
. - . OF THE AIR (/CAO) QUESTIONS
16. Which of a), b), c) and d) below, most correctly completes the following
statement?
a. The lower aircraft has the right of way unless ATC has already
specified a landing order
b. The lower performance aircraft has right of way
c. The higher aircraft has the right of way
d. The aircraft which has the least horizontal distance to run to the
runway threshold has the right of way
17. Which of a), b), c) and d) below, provides the most correct conclusion to the
following statement?
In order to minimise the risk of collision, the following rules apply when
aircraft of different categories are converging:
18. Complete the following sentence correctly. Except with permission of the
Authority:
19. While flying at night, as the pilot-in-command, you see an anti-collision light
and a steady red light at the same altitude, which maintain a constant relative
bearing from you of 050 degrees. Is there a risk of collision? And who has
right of way?
a. Yes. You do
b. Yes. The other aircraft does
c. No. The other aircraft does
d. No. You do
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20 As you are taxii11g back to the apron you encounter a tractor towing an
aircraft. Your correct course of action is to:
a. Stop
b. Continue because you have right of way
c. Turn right
d. Give way to the tractor/aircraft combine; it has the right of way
21. You are IFR in VMC and experience a communication failure. Y:our correct
actions are to:
22. You are intercepted by a fighter aircraft. On which frequency would you try
and establish contact?
23. Whilst maintaining a steady course, level and speed you see another aircraft
in your 2 o'clock about 4 nautical miles away and at the same level as
yourself. The danger of collision exists if the other aircraft:
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--
2 :i RULES
. - . OF THE AIR (/CAO) QUESTIONS
26. If you were following a river which flows from east to west while maintaining
a track of 270° True, which side of the river must you fly?
a. To the North of the river, because you must fly to the right of the line
feature
b. To the South of the river, because you should fly to the left of the line
feature
c. Directly overhead the river
d. Either side of the river as long as you keep a good look out for other
aircraft
27. You see a red light of another aircraft on your right and it remains on a
constant relative bearing. What must you do?
28. You see a red and green light of another aircraft straight ahead of you.
What must you do?
29. During the course of a night flight, you notice that a navigation light has
failed; the correct action to be followed is:
30. You see a red light of another aircraft on your left. What must you do?
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...
31 . In level flight at night, from your aircraft, you see an anti-collision beacon and
a red navigation light. The lights are at the same altitude as yourself and are
steady at 2 o' clock and closing. This indicates that them is:
33. During a flight, by day, a pilot notices that an anti-collision light is inoperative.
Which of the following actions is correct?
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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CHAPTER]
REGISTRATION (ICAO)
Registration
Mark
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CHAPTER 3 REGISTRATION (/CAO)
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CHAPTER 3: REGISTRATION (/CAO)
DEFINITIONS.
Nationality Mark.
The nationality mark consists of a character (letters and/or numbers) issued by the The State of
St ate of Registration of the aircraft which denote the nationality of the aircraft. For Registration
issues an
example, UK registered aircraft have the nationality mark of "G"; the nationality mark
aircraft with ifs
of the United States is "N" and that of Syria is "SY". nationality mark.
Figure 3. 1 A UK registered aircraft showing the Nationality Mark and its registration.
Common Mark.
Should an aircraft belong to an international operator, registered in more than one
state, it is issued with a Common Mark in place of a nationality mark by ICAO. For
instance, the common mark 4YB has been issued by ICAO to Jordan and Iraq for
registering aircraft operated by the company Arab Air Cargo.
Registration Mark.
The Registration Mark is issued to the aircraft by the State of Registry and follows the The
Registration
~
common or nationality mark. For example if an aircraft is designated G-ABCD, "G" is Mark is issued
the nationality mark, and "ABCD" is the registration mark. by the State
of Registry.
Issuing Authorities.
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CHAPTER 3: REGISTRATION (/CAO)
3 letter combinations starting with the letter Q used in the Q Code (e.g. QNH,
OFF, QDM etc.).
and
b. on each side of the fuselage or on the upper parts of the vertical tail
surfaces.
Size of Markings.
On heavier-than-air aircraft, the markings shall be at least:
and
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CHAPTER 3: REGISTRATION (/CAO)
The C of R certifies that the State of Registry has registered the aircraft. The C of R
details comprise the following:
A certified statement that the aircraft has been entered on the registry of the
State.
UNIT£0 IONGDOM
CIVIL AVIATION A.UlllORllY
,
-- ConllMll;lr-~-~-~
--
G-BXYT
"
PIPER AIRCRAFT COIU'OAATION
PIPER PA-28RT•l?OI
- l---21R·79181M
. ,.,...,.....,.. .. ~ O - W o , 0 - . - -
..... .
'"
........................,.............,............... .......,....,_
"'
..... c..--,,,........,. ...... ,,.,,,,,........
· - - - - - -.........- - ~ ~ . . . 0. ....... ......-
__ .....,.,
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CHAPTER 3: REGISTRATION (/CAO)
The
IDENTIFICATION PLATE.
identification
plate inscribed • All aircraft are to carry an identification plate which must be inscribed with, at
with the aircraft least, its nationality/common mark and its registration mark.
Registration Mark should be
made from fireproof metal or The identification plate must be made of fire-proof metal or other fire-proof
other fireproof material. material.
~ Identification The identification plate must be secured to the aircraft in a prominent position
~ Plate: near the main entrance.
All aircraft are
Note: The identification plate is a requirement of ICAO Annex 7 but is not mandatory
to carry an identification plate
made of fire-proof material under the UK Air Navigat ion Order.
which must be secured to the
aircraft fn a prominent position CLASSIFICATION OF AIRCRAFT - ICAO.
near the main entrance.
Aircraft
Landplana
Gyrgpl1rie
Suplarie Helicopter
Am hlblan
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-
~-
........ -
CHAF.!.TER-3:
~- . . REGISTRATION (/CAO) QUESTIONS
a. MINE
b. PPP
c. TTT
d. YOU
a. 30 ems high
b. 30 inches high
c. 50 inches high
d. 50 ems high
a. Any metal
b. Any material
c. No particular material is specified
d. Fire-proof metal
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"
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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CHAPTER4
AIRWORTHINESS (ICAO)
II II
c.tiliollt-
CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS
United Kingdo m
~
041821/007
I ~ . . , 0 ~ 12,- a n d ~ o l -
Civil Aviation Authority
13_,..,.,.s.,w,._
loladtJ _ PIPER AIRCRAFT CORPORATION 28-1111190
G-8TRY
•c-,otto.
PIPER PA-28-161
I
0a o11uu& 2Ulatch 2008 ~
; 141 }
~
Non•
~~ .: ~--
TlA---~-lla-tolhlt~
.. T b l l ~ o l - - - - - b y l l l e - O I I O > O l ' l ! ) ' d . , . _ _ SU..ol....,.
w-------.. --.. . . ,. .
.,.,.,.,--u-,e
I I
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CHAPTER 4 AIRWORTHINESS (/CAO)
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CHAPTER 4: AIRWORTHINESS (/CAO)
General.
All Contracting States are responsible for ensuring that:
Aircraft registered with their own State are airworthy All States are ~
responsible
and for the
continuing
that there are procedures to ensure the aircraft's continuing airworthiness. airworthiness of their aircraft.
To this end and to meet the appropriate standards, states are to issue their aircraft with
a Certificate of Airworthiness. A Certificate of Airworthiness issued by a contracting
state is to be recognised by other contracting states.
• Aircraft placards.
f. Date of issue.
h. Date of expiry.
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CHAPTER 4: AIRWORTHINESS (/CAO)
Certificate of Airworthiness.
CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS
c..--
0418ZS/007
2.-ond~ot-
United Kingdom
Civil Aviation Authority
:S.~serill-
PIPER AIRCRAFT CORPORATlON 2&-8111190
PIPER PA-28-161
•Ciltt"'*
Normal arid Utll~ Cat-eory Aaroplane
a. '!lllll<:..-ot-••11111 _ _ . . . , . , . _ ~.,. , . - - . , , . _ . ,.
A""""'11~-~-bo-.,llllo~
However, for an aircraft regulated by the European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA),
since 28 September 2007, EASA C of As have been issued in a non-expiring format,
and are supported by a document called the Airworthiness Review Certificate which
is renewable annually. Full compliance with EASA regulations by EASA member
states has been required since September 2008.
CONTINUING AIRWORTHINESS.
The State of Registry is to ensure that procedures are followed to ensure the continued
airworthiness of the aircraft.
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CHAPTER 4: AIRWORTHINESS (/CAO)
Reliable.
Readily accessible.
Easily identifiable.
Aircraft Lights.
Aircraft lights are to be installed in such
a manner as to minimize the possibility
that they may:
General.
The aircraft's operating limitations and other information necessary for the safe
Aircraft
operation of the aircraft must be made available in the aircraft's:
ope11jfing
limitations are
Flight Manual (and/or pilot's Operating Handbook). contained in
the aircraft's FUght Manual.
Markings and placards.
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CHAPTER 4: AIRWORTHINESS (/CAO)
• Equipment & Systems. Limitations for all the various equipment and
systems installed in the aircraft.
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CHAPTER 4: AIRWORTHINESS (/CAO)
• Flight crew
and
Figure 4.4 The Pilot's Operating Handbook.
ground crew who may be
involved in, for example,
servicing, re-fuelling or towing the aircraft.
STATIC VENTS
KEEP CLEAN
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I
'
a. No
b. Yes at all times
c. Only in the case of aircraft over 5 700 kgs
d. Only when required to do so by ICAO
6. In which document would you normally find the oil pressure limitations for
your aircraft?
a. Operation Manual
b. Aircraft Placard
c. The Flight Manual or Pilot's Operating Handbook
d. The Technical Log
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I
.. . i
a. Annex 8
b. Annex 9
c. Annex 6
d. Annex 7
a. 1 year
b. According to the Rules and Regulations of the State of Registry
c. According to the Rules and Regulations of ICAO
d. 6 months
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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CHAPTERS
AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC
SERVICES (ICAO)
FLIGHT LEVEL 61,(f
UPPER
Alf~SPA,c E
FIR
BOUIJOARY S U BY NATIONAL AVIATION AUlHORITY OP BY INTERNATIONAL TREATY
D CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
CONTROL ZONE
D UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
CLASSIFICATION OF AIRSPACE.
INTRODUCTION.
This Chapter deals with the Division of Airspace and Air Traffic Services as agreed
internationally in the 'Convention on International Civil Aviation', and, most notably,
in Annex 11 t o that document.
Each ICAO contracting state, while undertaking to endeavour to apply the ICAO-
agreed rules, may interpret the ICAO agreements in the context of its own particular
requirements. When a contracting state's rules differ from the ICAO agreements,
that state "files a difference" with ICAO. In the United Kingdom, these "differences"
can be found in the UK Aeronautical Information Publication.
The Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) and the European Aviation Safety Agency
(EASA) are organisations which have undertaken to seek to normalise the aviation
regulations of their member states by bringing them into line with !CAO standards.
As this book is a text book for pilots studying for a JAR-FCL pilot's licence, the
information on Airspace Division and Air Traffic Services contained in this Chapter
deals exclusively with internationally agreed ICAO standards. For the most part, the
information in this chapter will apply in all ICAO member states and in all JAA/EASA
member states, but it is important that student pilots refer to their own country's
aviation legislation to confirm which informatfon is relevant to their country, and to
identify where differences may exist.
Following the Second World War, civil aviation expanded rapidly throughout the world .
With the advent of the jet engine, first used on military aircraft during the war years,
the performance of airliners quickly surpassed that of wartime bombers and fighters,
and so airliners began to fly ever faster .and higher. At the same time, improvements
in navigation and blind-flying instruments permitted commercial transport aircraft to
operate in all weathers. As aircraft no longer depended solely on external references
to manoeuvre and navigate, it was no longer safe for aircraft to fly on the principle of
"see and be seen" in order to avoid conflict with other traffic.
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
As a result of these developments, and because of the global scale of air travel ,
the International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) recommended the adoption of a
world-wide system of airspace division and classification.
f I ,H t ~l
VERTICAL UPPER AIRSPACE
LIMIT
BOUNDARY SEJ BY NATIONAL AVIA1 ION AUTHORITr OR BY JNTERNATIONAL TREA
LOWER
AIRSPACE
_,.
,I .. ·--··--··---·
~ -- / ' I
·-~ ..... -~ ~·
.., "' 't I'
:· ...
D CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
D UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE
Figure 5.1 Airspace is divided into Controlled Airspace and Uncontrolled Airspace.
This system comprised two types of airspace: controlled and uncontrolled (See
Figure 5. 1.)
In the course of the years since World War II, the original !CAO system of airspace
division has grown into the airspace classification system we have today, and which
is enforced and administered around the world by the aviation authorities of all lCAO
member states. This ICAO airspace classification system continues to evolve.
The division of airspace into controlled or uncontrolled airspace is made on the basis
of criteria such as air traffic density, the type of air traffic activity (e.g. in airways,
around aerodromes etc), and the level of air traffic service provided to pilots.
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
• The requirement (or non-requirement) for aircraft to operate under the control
of an Air Traffic Control Unit (ATCU), and for separation between aircraft to
be provided by an ATCU.
• The type of flight rules, VFR or IFR, permitted within the airspace.
In the ICAO system, the world's airspace is divided up into nine regions - the United
Kingdom is part of the European and Mediterranean region - each of which is sub-
divided into Flight Information Regions (FIRs) established from the surface up ito
flight levels set by national aviation authorities and applied by international treaty,
and Upper Information Regions (UIR) above those levels. All airspace, controlled or
uncontrolled, is contained within FIRs.
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
The boundary
The top of the FIR and base of the UIR is set by the national aviation authority. In
between the United Kingdom, the boundary between the FIR and the UIR is currently at Flight
the FIR and Level 245. In Germany, the boundary is Flight Level 245, but FL195 in most other
the UJRin European countries. European Union member states are currently discussing the
a particular State is set by creation of a ''Single European Sky" with a European Upper Information Region which
that State's national aviation will presumably have a common lower boundary over all participating countries.
authority.
Currently, by international agreement, the upper limit of controlled airspace is at
Flight Level 660.
Around the frontiers of the United Kingdom, there are other European Fl Rs controlled
by ATCCs located in the cities shown in Figure 5.2. Within the context of plans
for a Single European Sky, the Europe.an Union hopes that European airspace will
eventually have fewer FIR boundaries and a reduced number of ATCCs.
The Upper Information Regions (UIR) above the Brussels, Amsterdam and Hamburg
FIRs are combined to form the Maastricht UIR, under the control of Eurocontrol at
the Maastricht ATCC.
Within the FIR, the basic level of air traffic service provided is the Flight Information
FIRs provide
Service (FIS) and the Alerting Service. These two services, together, provide
a Flight
Information information pertinent to the safe and efficient conduct of flights, and alert the relevant
Service and authorities if an aircraft suffers an emergency. A Flight Information Service and an
Alerting Service to alf aircraft Alerting Service are available to all aircraft flying within an FIR.
flying in the FIR.
Within controlled airspace, in addition to a Flight Information Service and an Alerting
Service, higher levels of Air Traffic Advisory and Air Traffic Control (ATC) services are
available to suitably equipped aircraft manned by appropriately qualified pilots, and
in accordance with the ICAO classification of that portion of airspace.
ATCCs provide air traffic services to aircraft flying in controlled airspace which are
not under the control of Air Traffic Service Units located at aerodromes.
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
Looking again at Figure 5. 1, we· can now add some basic labels to the principal sub-
divisions of controlled and uncontrolled airspace to give us the airspace picture in
Figure 5.3. It is importantthat you should realise that Figure 5.3 is only a representation
of the division of controlled airspace. For instance, Control Areas may stretch well
beyond a Control Zone laterally, and may even extend up to the ceiling of the FIR,
protecting IFR traffic departing from and arriving at several aerodromes. (This is the
case, for instance, of the Daventry Control Area in the United Kingdom.)
F l(;HT LEYH fi0
UPPER
AIRSPACE
FIR
BOUtlDARY.SET BY NATIQNALAVIATION AUTHORI OR BY INTERN TIONAL TREAW
__ ---1,
, ....... -.......... _......
.
I /' I
D CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
D UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE
Figure 5.3 Basic Subdivisions of Controlled Airspace: Control Zone, Control Area, Terminal
Control Area and Airway.
CONTROLLED AIRSPACE.
Access to controlled airspace iis governed by ATC conditions which restrict entry to
specified types of flight made by appropriately qualified pilots flying appropriately
equipped aircraft, and (with certain exceptions) under the control of an Air Traffic
Control Unit (ATCU).
All aircraft flying in controlled airspace must, with rare exceptions, have received an
ATC clearance to do so.
Flight in controlled airspace in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules (IFR)
requires the pilot to submit a formal flight plan which includes the aircraft's call sign
and type, estimated time of departure, desired altitude, route and destination. The
acceptance of the flight plan by an ATCU constitutes permission for the pilot to carry
out his planned flight.
Generally, provided they have clearance from an ATCU to do so, pilots flying in
accordance with the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) are also permitted to fly in controlled
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
airspace other than Class A airspace (see Pages 89 to 90 for details of airspace
classification by letter).
When in controlled airspace, VFR pilots must normally maintain radio contact with
the responsible ATCU, and obey ATC instructions. However, VFR flight may only
take place in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) and, because air traffic rules
apply differently to different classifications of airspace, the conditions of visibility and
distance from cloud which constitute VMC are defined differently depending on what
type of controlled airspace the VFR flight is operating in. Sometimes, in uncontrolled
airspace, the definition of VMC differs between countries. This topic is covered in
more detail later in this chapter.
Control Zones.
Control Areas.
Airways.
Control Zones_
Air traffic at major aerodromes can be dense and , so, it is important that all aircraft
A CTR extends in the circuit of, and approaches to, major aerodromes should be known to the
from ground
responsible Air Traffic Control Unit (ATCU), usually the ATCU at the aerodrome,
or water level
itself. Consequently, around large aerodromes, Control Zones of specified lateral
to either
a published altitude or a dimensions are established, extending from ground level to a published altitude or
published flight level. Flight Level. There is no standard size or height for a Control Zone, but typically,
the Control Zone might have an upper boundary of 2 500 feet to 4 000 feet above
aerodrome level.
The lateral The lateral limits of a Control Zone must extend to at least 5 nautical miles (9.3
limits of a kilometres) from the centre of the aerodrome in the direction from which approaches
Control Zone may be made. If a Control Zone is located beneath a Control Area, the upper limit of
must extend to the Control Zone must be at least the lower limit of the Control Area; though often the
at least 5 nm (9.3 km) from Control Zone will extend up into the Control Area .
the centre of the aerodrome
in the direction from which Within the Control Zone, the responsible
approaches are made. ATCU provides protection and
separation to aircraft taking off from and
landing at the aerodrome. Both VFR and
IFR traffic require a clearance to enter
VFR traffic may a Control Zone. Quite often, notably
be permitted to
in Class A Control Zones, Instrument
enter or transit
Flight Rules (IFR) are permanently
Class A Control
Zones, but only with a Special enforced at large aerodromes, although
VFR clearance. non-lFR traffic may be allowed to enter,
leave and transit Class A Control Zones
with a Special VFR (SVFR) clearance.
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
Control Areas.
Once in the climb, above, say, 2 500 feet, or while still descending through, say,
4 000 feet on an instrument approach, an aircraft does not need ATC protection The vertical ~
down to ground level. So around and above and , often, well beyond the CTR, a limits of a
Control Area are
Control Area is established specifically to protect aircraft in the climb and descent,
from a published
and also aircraft which might be in a holding pattern awaiting clearance to begin the
altitude or Flight Level to a
approach to land. It is important to realise that Control Areas are set up to encompass higher altitude or Flight Lev, I.
the airspace containing the flight paths of IFR flights requiring an Air Traffic Control
service. Control Area dimensions will depend on local conditions and traffic density;
but the lower vertical limit of a Control Area must not be less than 700 feet (200
metres) above the ground or water. The vertical limits of a Control Area are from a
The lower ~
published altitude or flight level to a higher altitude or flight level. vertical limit of
a Control Area
Tlhe abbreviation for Control Area is CTA. Figure 5. 5 shows part of the Brussels CTA must not be less
situated above the Oostende CTR. than 700 feet (200 metres)
above the ground or water.
-...
,
c1!9.
- ..
®
Figure 5.5 Part of the Brussels CTA over the Oostende CTR.
If a CTA located in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes is also the junction A Control Area at ~
of several airways, it may be classified a Terminal Control Area (TCA). You should the confluence
note that the abbreviation TMA is still used to designate a Terminal Control Area. of several
Tlhis abbreviation is a relic of an earlier name, Terminal Manoeuvring Area. Figure airways or
controlled routes, and in
5. 6 depicts the Eelde TMA in the Netherlands.
the vicinity of one or more
major aerodromes, is called
a Tenninal Control Area,
abbreviated to TCA or TMA.
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
The Airway.
An Airway is a corridor of controlled airspace which protects an air route linking major
Airways typically
have a width
aerodromes, nationally and internationally. Figure 5. 7, depicts five airways: N864,
of 10 nautical N862, L9, Y3 and N14. Airway L9, over the· United Kingdom, extends from Flight
miles. Level 75 up to FL 195. Notice that on the left hand part ot the diagram, the lower
boundary of Airway N864 steps up from FL75 to a higher base of FL95, and then
Flight Level 125.
Airways typically have a width of 10 nautical miles and may extend vertically from as
low as a few thousand feet above the grround to the upper limit of the FIR bordering
on the Upper Information Region (UIRs). In UIRs, airways are called Upper Air
Routes.
Airways give protection to IFR traffic. In some parts of the world, including the United
Kingdom, VFR flights are not permitted to fly in airways.
Airways are often established so that they route over land-based navigation aids
such as VOR/DMEs and NDBs, though nowadays this is no longer so important
because of the advent of Global Positioning Navigation Systems.
UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE.
In uncontrolled airspace, outside CTRs, CTAs and Airways, aircraft may normally
operate without any ATC clearance or permission, and without having to be in
contact with any Air Traffic Service Unit. However, aircraft flying in uncontrolled
airspace must at all times comply with the Rules of the Air laid down by their national
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
aviation authority and which will have been established in accordance with ICAO
regulations.
There is a general maximum speed limit of 250 knots imposed on all IFR and VFR
traffic operating below Flight Level 100 in uncontrolled airspace.
Air Traffic Control Units (ATCUs) do, however, provide certain services to flights in
uncontrolled airspace under both the Visual Flight Rules (VFR) and the Instrument
Fllight Rules (IFR). For example, ATCUs do notify the existence of Advisory Routes
(See Figure 5.8) within uncontrolled airspace. These routes are not busy enough
to warrant Airway status, but, if a pilot wishes to use them, he will be given an ATC
service. In the UK, the Quadrantal Rule applies under IFR on Advisory Routes,
which have designators ending in 'D'.
·, . J'
.,',, ~
O ' Ul
' 0
' '•1, '1, ~
11 4 ~ 1
'~~
~CT~
I
I
I
, ", 'vif/2~ ,..,,
'
.....
ti"
,, .
t·' fi
1-1. ., 0
I
--!!!!·
,,, :.c::. __ 1't-...
'<,... ..._-4
(/),
z
0
U)
z
w
::.
ci
0
w
ID
1i'.
(.),
(I)
w
er
0.
ATZs are usually of defined lateral and vertical dimensions; for instance, in the United
Kingdom, they extend to 2 000 feet above aerodrome level, and have a radius of
either 2 nautical miles or 2.5 nautical miles, depending on the length of the longest
runway. But ICAO itself does not specify what ATZ dimensions should be. ICAO
simply lays down that an ATZ is an airspace of dimensions decided and notified by the
national aviation authority and established by that authority, around an aerodrome,
for the protection of aerodrome traffic. ATZs are not given any particular airspace
classification; they take on the classification of the airspace within which they are
established. Within controlled airspace, ATZs are usually found within CTRs, but are
often not depicted on charts.
When entering Normally, regulations governing flight in an ATZ will, if you have a radio, require you
an A~, a pilot to lfsten out on the appropriate frequency. More especially, when entering an ATZ a
must ,mme- pilot must immediately report his height and position to the responsibleATS.U. If your
diate~y report aircraft is not radio-equipped, you must normally consult the conditions prescribed
his height and position to the by the aerodrome authority for the ATZ, before getting airborne, to obtain all the
responsible ATSU. necessary permissions.
In Figure 5.10, below, you can see several ATZs surrounding London Heathrow
CTR. Elstree and Wycombe Air Park ATZs lie just outside the CTR, while Denham is
actually inside the CTR, and White Waltham ATZ is partially irnside the CTR.
- r
Figure 5.10 Elstree, Wycombe Air Park, White Waltham and Denham ATZs.
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CHAPTER 5: AIRSPACE DIVISION AND AIR TRAFFIC SERVICES (/CAO)
In 1990, ICAO adopted the current airspace classification scheme which identifies
airspace, both controlled and uncontrolled, using the letters A to G.
The letter allocated to each class of airspace determines the type of air traffic control
service which IFR and VFR traffic receive in the airspace and the rules whlch apply
to that airspace. The provisions which apply to each airspace class are given in the
ta1ble, below.
CONTROLLED AIRSPACE
Class A
All flights must be conducted under Instrument Flight Rules (IFR), unless flight under Special
Visual Flight Rules (SVFR) is permitted. All flights are subject to ATC clearance, and all
flights are separated from one another by ATC.
Class B
Flights may be conducted under IFR, SVFR, or Visual Flight Rules (VFR). All aircraft are
subject to ATC clearance. All flights are separated from one another by ATC.
Class C
Operations may be conducted under IFR, SVFR, or VFR. All aircraft are subject to ATC
clearance. Aircraft operating under IFR and SVFR are separated from one another and from
flights operating under VFR. Flights operating under VFR are given traffic information in
respect of other VFR flights.
Class D
Operations may be conducted under IFR, SVFR, or VFR. All aircraft are subject to ATC
clearance. Aircraft operating under IFR and SVFR are separated from one another, and are
given traffic information in respect of VFR flights. Flights operating under VFR are given
traffic information in respect of other VFR flights.
Class E
Operations may be conducted under IFR, SVFR, or VFR. Aircraft operating under IFR and
SVFR are separated from one another, and are subject to ATC clearance. Flights under
VFR are not subject to ATC clearance. As far as is practical, traffic information is given to
all flights in respect of VPR flights.
UNCONTROLLED AIRSPACE
Class F
Operations may be conducted under IFR or VFR. ATC separation will be provided, so far
as is practical, to aircraft operating under IFR. Traffic Information may be given as far as is
practical in respect of other flights.
Class G
Operations may be conducted under IFR or VFR ATC separation is not provided. Traffic
Information may be given, as far as is practical, in respect of other flights.
Each national aviation authority determines how it allocates the ICAO letter
classifications to its Control Zones (CTR) , Control Areas (CTA) and Airways.
Furthermore, not all letter classifications are used in all countries. For instance,
in the United Kingdom, there is currently no Class B airspace. In France, there is
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For the United Kingdlom, the classifications of airspace are covered in detail in the
UK AIP ENR 1-4, and in Chapter 14 of this book.
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Control Areas {CTAs) and Terminal Control Areas {TCA or TMA) may be Class A, B,
C, D or E airspace. Most UK CTAs are Class D.
The CTA above Heathrow, which is at the junction of several airways and bears the
classification of Terminal Control Area (TMA), is Class A The Lille TMA, above the
Marville CTR is Class D ( See Figure 5. 12, opposite.)
Airways can also belong to several airspace classification categories. For instance,
in the United Kingdom, all airways are Class A, whereas in Portugal, below Flight
Level 245, airways are Class C. French airways can be Class E, up to Flight Level
115, and then Class D up to Flight Level 195. Irish airways can be Class C up to FL
245. (See Figure 5.13.)
Uppeir Information Regions (UIRs) are invariably controlled airspace. In the United
Kingdom, UIRs are Class C airspace.
Advisory Routes (See Figure 5.8, Page 87) within uncontrolled airspace are
designated Class F. In Class F airspace, flights in accordance with IFR will receive
an air traffic advisory service. VFR flights will receive a Flight Information Service, if
they request one. Pilots flying VFR in Class F airspace should, however, consider
staying clear of the advisory route itself, and , if they wish to cross the advisory route,
make contact with the responsible Air Traffic Service Unit (ATSU}, 10 minutes before
crossing. On contacting the ATSU, pilots should be prepared to give position, level
and the appropriate time information, as in a routine position report.
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VFR flight
General.
may only take Whenever they are airborne, aircraft must fly in accordance with either Instrument
place in Visual Flight Rules (IFR) or Visual Flight Rules (VFR). Flight in uncontrolled airspace is
Meteorological Conditions. not subject to air traffic clearances or control, so VFR flight is permitted everywhere
in uncontrolled airspace. However, as you can see from the table at Figure 5.14,
aircraft flying VFR are also permitted to fly in controlled airspace other than Class A
airspace, although, with the exception of Class E airspace, they need ATC clearance
to do so and, so, have to maintain radio contact with ATC.
Most Private Pilot Licence holders will be VFR pilots. VFR flight is flight based
on the principle that the pilot is able to manoeuvre and navigate his aircraft, and,
most importantly, be able to avoid conflict and collision with other aircraft, by visual
reference to external features. More especially, when flying VFR, the pilot must
be able to navigate his aircraft by reference to ground features. Consequently, in
In order that
order that the VFR principle may be adhered to at all times, VFR flight may only take
a flight may
____..=--- - be conducted place in Visual Meteorological Conditions (VMC) which allow the pilot to maintain
in accordarrce with the Visual appropriate visual contact with the world outside his cockpit. However, because
Flight Rules. the VMC minima air traffic rules apply differently to different classifications of airspace, VMC is also
must prevail which are defined differently depending on the classification of airspace in which the VFR flight
appropriate to the Class of takes place, and on the aircraft's vertical position. VMC is defined, then, depending
airspace in which the aircraft on airspace classification, by prescribed minimum visual conditions which are referred
is flying and to its vertical to as VMC minima.
position.
VMC Minima in the Different Classes of Airspace.
The VMC minima for the various classifications of airspace are shown in the following
tables. These VMC minima may sometimes be defined slightly differently in different
countries of the world. For instance, in the United Kingdom, VMC definitions cater
for speed differences in some classes of airspace, below 3 000 feet AMSL; (See
Chapter 13).
To make the logic of the VMC minima clearer, we have included in the tables details
of air traffic services and separation provided, as well as clearance requirements.
The ICAO VMC minima in the various classes of airspace tabulated below ar,e
illustrated pictorially in Figures 2.27 and 2.28 in Chapter 2.
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Speed limitation 250 kt IAS below FL 100 250 kt IAS below FL 100
Radio communication Continuous t:wo-way Continuous two-way
ATC clearance Required Required
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Below 3000 feet above mean sea-level, or 1000 feet above the ground, whichever
is the higher, there is no prescribed vertical distance from cloud. Aircraft are simply
required to be clear of cloud and in sight of the surface.
You should note that in uncontrolled airspace, Classes F and G, the United
Kingdom has registered differences from the ICAO standard so as to allow
greater flexibility to VFR flights at and below 3000 feet above mean sea-level.
United Kingdom based pilots sho uld refer to Chapter 14 for VMC minima below
3000 feet when airspeeds are below 140 knots.
Consequently, above Flight Level 100 where the 250 knots speed limit is not in
If the actual
weather minima force, in-flight visibility is required to be 8 km. However, below Flight Level 100, in
give visibility uncontrolled airspace, and in controlled airspace classified C, D and E, VMC minima
and cloud cQver reduce again to 5 kilometres in-flight visibility, 1000 feet clear of cloud vertically and
below the minima specified for 1500 metres clear of cloud horizontally. This is because the 250 knots speed limit
VMC, then IMC exists. If the applies in this lower airspace.
actual minima are equal to, or
in excess of, specified minifna You should note that in controlled airspace of Class B, where separation is provided
VMCexists. by ATC to all flights, VFR as well as IFR, VMC minima are reduced at all flight levels.
In Class B airspace, there is no prescribed minimum distance from clouds.
INTRODUCTION.
Before looking at air traffic services, themselves, we must give a definition of the two
terms most commonly used when referring to the units and/or agencies which deliver
the various levels of air traffic service. The two terms are: Air Traffic Control Unit and
Air Traffic Services Unit.
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Tlhe provision of an Air Traffic Control Service normally takes precedence over the
provision of a Flight Information Service.
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Air Traffic Services are provided through one or more of the following:
The three types
ofAir Traffic
Service are: A full Air Traffic Control Service.
• Alerting Service.
FULL AIR TRAFFIC CONTROL SERVICE.
A full air traffic control service is provided by an Air Traffic Control Unit (ATCU).
An ATCU provides instructions, advice and informati:on to aircraft, by radio, for the
purposes of:
The exact nature of the full air traffic control service depends on the particular
circumstances of the aircraft which is receiving the service and on the class of airspace
in which the service is provided. A full air traffic control service may comprise one or
more of the following:
• An Alerting Service.
The Aerodrome Control Service provided by an ATCU is, principally, a service to:
Aircraft flying with visual reference to the surface in, and in the vicinity of, the
Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ}, whether or not the ATZ is sit uated within a
Control Zone (CTR}.
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Aerodrome Control may be divided into air control and ground movement control.
n,e Air Controller provides services for aircraft flying in, and in the vicinity of, the ATZ
and for aircraft taking off and landing and has absolute authority over all movements
on active runways and their access points.
The Ground Movement Controller provides services for aircraft moving on the apron
and aircraft and vehicles, on the manoeuvring area, except on active runways and
their access points.
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Approach Control provides standard separation between Special VFR and IFR
flights.
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arriving aircraft place themselves under the control of Approach Control until
control is transferred to Aerodrome Control.
• departing aircraft are taken over from Aerodrome Control until they no
longer wish to receive a service, or are 10 minutes flying time away from the
aerodrome, whichever is the sooner.
Aircraft within an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) are required to comply with instructions
from the ATCU. Flight in uncontrolled airspace (Class F and G), outside the ATZ is
permitted without an Air Traffic Control clearance. However, controllers may assume
that pilots of aircraft flying in the vicinity of the aerodrome in radio contact with the
ATCU are complying with instructions unless the ATCU states otherwise.
An Area Control Se Nice comprises radar and non-radar air traffic services in airspace
which is not under the jurisdiction of an Approach or Aerodrome Control Unit.
An ACC providing an Area Control Service normally uses the call-sign ''Control" or
"Radar" as appropriate.
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conditions at aerodromes.
An FIS is a very useful service for general aviation pilots flying VIFR. Even if no
particular information is desired by the pilot, it may be prudent for him to ask for an
FIS when one is available. In that way, if a distress or urgency situation were to arise,
the pilot is at least in contact with an ATSU which knows that he is airborne and what
his route is.
There are numerous factors which limit the air traffic service given to a pilot receiving
an FIS. For instance, because aerodromes and centres providing an FIS need only
be equipped to a specified minimum level, accurate assessment of the possibility of
collision hazard between aircraft in flight iis very low.
An ATSU providing a Flight Information Service uses the call-sign "Information" after
the ground station identifier.
When you contact an ATSU to request a Flight Information Service, your transmission
will take the form:
Your response, as a pilot, to the instruction "Go Ahead" will be to pass a standard
report combining details of your aircraft type, route information, position, altitude,
flight rules and intentions. A typical pilot response to the uGo Ahead" instruction
would be:
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You will notice that details are passed to the FIS Controller in the following order:
1. Aircraft call-sign.
2. Aircraft Type.
3. Route or operation information.
4. Position.
5. Altitude.
6. Altimeter setting.
7. Flight rules (VFR or IFR).
8. Estimate of time at next waypoint.
Passing your details in this standard format will help the FIS controller to visualise
your situation, and thus to give you a better service.
Note that, in the United Kingdom, when a pilot requests an FIS, the controller's
response is "Pass Your Message" rather than the standard ICAO response of "Go
Ahead".
An AF IS-provider will not issue instructions or clearances to pilots, but only information
for aircraft operating in or around the ATZ. An aerodrome providing an AF IS will use
the call sign "Information" after the aerodrome identifier.
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ALERTING SERVICE.
Air traffic services provide an Alerting Service for all known aircraft operating within
a Flight Information Region (FIR).
Collation of information.
Flight Information Centres (FICs) and Area Control Centres (ACCs) are the
organisations which are responsible for the collation of all information relevant to a
state of emergency being experienced by an aircraft within the FIR. These centres
then forward the information to the Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC).
EMERGENCY PHASES.
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Alert Phase.
The Alert Phase is declared when there exists apprehension about the safety of an If an aircraft
aircraft and its occupants, and specifically when: is subject
to unlawful
• Following the Uncertainty Phase, subsequent attempts to establish interference, the
communications with the aircraft, or inquiries to other sources, have failed to Alert Phase is declared.
reveal any news of the aircraft.
• Information has been received which indicates that the operational efficiency
of the aircraft has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing
is likely, except when evidence exists as to the safety of the aircraft and its
occupants.
Distress Phase.
The Distress Phase is declared when there exists a reasonable certainty that an
aircraft and its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require
immediate assistance, and specifically when:
Information is received which indicates that the operating efficiency has been
impaired to the extent that a forced landing is likely.
Termination of an Emergency.
When the emergency situation no longer exists, the local ATSU, via the FIC or
ACC, shall inform the RCC. The RCC has the responsibly for terminating all SAR
operations.
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1. You are a private pilot but hold neither an instrument rating nor an IMC rating.
How would you enter a CTR which is Class A airspace?
2. In which class of airspace are both IFR and VFR flights permitted, all flights
are provided with ATC, IFR flights are separated from other IFR flights and
receive traffic information concerning VFR flights while VFR flights receive
traffic information in respect of all other flights?
a. Class B
b. Class C
c. Class D
d. Class E
3. What is the Indicated Airspeed limit in Class C Airspace for VFR traffic?
a. A only
b. A, B, C and D only
c. A, B, C, D and E only
d, A, B, C, D, E and F only
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a. Emergency Phase
b. Uncertainty Phase
c. Alert Phase
d. Distress Phase
a. Emergency Phase
b. Alert Phase
c. Uncertainty Phase
d. Distress Phase
a. Emergency Phase
b. Uncertainty Phase
c. Alert Phase
d. Distress Phase
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a. 1 0 nautical miles
b. 5 nautical miles
C. 8 nautical miles
d. 3 nautical miles
13. What is the boundary separating the Flight Information Region from the
Upper Information Region?
14. What is the difference between a Control Zone (CTR) and a Control Area
(CTA)?
15. What meteorological conditions must prevail in order for a flight to take place
in accordance with the Visual Flight Rules?
a. At least IMC
b. Clear of cloud and in sight of the surface
c. 5 km in-flight visibility, with 1500 metres horizontal and 1000 feet
vertical separation from cloud
d. VMC appropriate to the Class of Airspace in which the aircraft is
flying and appropriate to its vertical position
16. What minimum level of air traffic service is provided in a Flight Information
Region?
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18. Which class of airspace provides IFR flights with an Air Traffic Advisory
Service and all flights with a Flight Information Service, if requested?
a. B
b. D
c. G
d. F
19. What may be the lowest point of the CTA according to ICAO regulations?
20. You are about to enter an Aerodrome Traffic Zone (ATZ) of an airfield at which
you have received prior permission to land. Immediately upon entering the
ATZ you must report your:
a. Not lower than 700 feet above the surface of the ground or water
b. Not lower than 1000 feet above the surface of the ground or water
c. Not lower than 1500 feet above the surface of the ground or water
d. Not lower than 500 feet above the surface of the ground or water
22. What is the Class Airspace in which both VFR and IFR traffic is controlled
and in which IFR and SVFR flights are separated from each other and
receive information regarding VFR traffic, and in which VFR traffic receives
information regarding all other traffic?
a. A
b. E
C. C
d. D
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23. What action may a Pilot-in-Command elect to take if he judges that an ATC
clearance does not suit his circumstances?
a. He should say nothing to the air traffic controller and proceed in the
manner he judges to be most suitable to his circumstances
b. He may request an amended clearance
c. He must accept the ATC clearance without question
d. He must inform the air traffic controller of his intentions and then
proceed as he judges to be most suitable to his c ircumstances
25. A service provided by an Air Traffic Control Unit for all controlled flights
arriving at or departing from an aerodrome is called:
26. If the actual or forecast conditions give the visibility and cloud base as less
than specified min imum weatherr conditions and the distance from cloud is
seen also to be less than specified minima, the prevailing weather conditions
are referred to as::
a. VMC
b. IMC
c. VFR
d. IFR
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Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer
Question 25 26
Answer
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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CHAPTER6
FLIGHT PLANS AND CLEARANCES
(ICAO)
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CHAPTER 6: FLIGHT PLANS AND CLEARANCES (/CAO)
GENERAL.
Flight Plans are a method of informing Air Traffic Services (ATS) of the details of a
pilot's aircraft and proposed route. When necessary, a flight plan is also submitted
when an ATS clearance is required.
• Flight Plans can be written and filed on a standard ICAO Flight Plan Form.
( See Figure 6. 1.) If the
aerodrome
The form should be completed using capital letters and should include an of departure
English text, in addition to the language(s) of the State concerned. A flight does not have
plan can be transmitted in an abbreviated form, by telephone, and, in flight, a ATS reporting office, you
over the radio. must submit your flight plan
by telephone or radio to the
ATSU serving the departure
/CAO Definition of a Flight Plan. aerodrome.
The term "flight plan" is used to mean, variously, full information on all items comprised
in the flight plan description, covering the whole route of a flight , or limited information
required when the purpose of the flight plan is to obtain a clearance for a minor
portion of a flight such as to cross an airway, to take off from, or to land at a controlled
aerodrome. In other words there are 2 types of flight plan.
A flight plan is to be submitted, before departure of the flight, to an Air Traffic Services
Reporting Office or, during flight, to the relevant Air Traffic Services Unit (ATSU).
• Any flight or part of a flight which is to be provided with an Air Traffic Control
Service.
Any flight within or into designated areas, when so required by the Air Traffic
Services authority in order to facilitate the provision of:
b. An Alerting Service.
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Any flight within or into designated areas, when so required by the Air Traffic
Services (ATS) authority, in order to facilitate co-ordination with military
units or with ATSs in adjacent States in oirder to avoid the possible need for
interception.
Unless otherwise prescribed by the ATS authority, a flight plan for a flight to be
provided with an ATC service or an Air Advisory Service shall be submitted:
or
• In flight, to the appropriate Air Traffic Services Unit (ATSU) at a time which
will ensure its receipt by the ATSU and at least 10 minutes before the aircraft
is estimated to reach:
or
Note: Having submitted a flight plan, all aircraft must wait for a responding
ATC Clearance before proceeding on course.
DELAY ON DEPARTURE_
• Aircraft identification.
Equipment.
• Departure aerodrome.
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Estimated Off-Block Time (in the case of an airborne flight plan this relates to
the time over the first point of the route to which t he flight plan refers).
Cruising level(s).
Route to be followed.
Alternate aerodrome(s).
Fuel endurance.
• Other information.
All changes to a flight plan submitted for an IFR flight, or for a VFR flight operated
as a controlled flight, shall be reported as soon as practicable to the appropriate Air
Traffic Services Unit (ATSU).
Controlled flights must adhere to the current flight plan except in the event of an
emergency situation, in which case the aircraft is to immediately inform the ATSU of
the action being taken , or being authorised to divert from the flight plan by ATC.
Inadvertent Changes.
In the event that a flight inadvertently deviates from its current flight plan, the following
action shall be taken:
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a. Destination,
or
b. an alternative aerodrome,
or
and
b. notify the appropriate Air Traffic Control Unit of the action being taken
(either to leave the airspace concerned or to land at the nearest
suitable aerodrome),
or
or
When no ATSU exists at the arrival aerodrome, the arrival report shall be
made as soon as practicable after landing, to the nearest ATSU.
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Aircraft identification.
• Departure aerodrome.
• Arrival aerodrome.
nme of arrival.
General.
An ATC clearance shall be obtained prior to operating a controlled flight, or a portion
of a flight operated as a controlled flight Such clearance shall be requested through
the submission of a flight plan to an ATCU.
and
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CHAPTER 6 FLIGHT PLANS AND CLEARANCES (/CAO)
Contents of a Clearance.
The format of Air Traffic Clearances is as follows:
Aircraft identification.
• Route of flight.
• Levels of flight.
Note: ** The time of expiry of the clearance indicates the time after which the clearance
will be automatically cancelled if the flight has not commenced.
2. A Clearance. if unsuitable. Once the pilot has read back the clearance correctly, the ATC Controller will normally
may be changed or amended acknowledge by using the phrase: "Read-back correct".
- if practical - at the request of
the pilot .
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,
1. During a Controlled Flight, your actual TAS is 120 kts however your flight
planned TAS is 115 kts. Must you inform ATSU?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if it is an IFR clearance
d. Only is it is to be a controlled flight
3. By when must you submit a Flight Plan prior to departure if you wish to be
provided with an ATC service?
a. 30 minutes
b. it depends whether you intend to fly VFR or iFR
c. It depends on whether you will be flying in Controlled Air Space
(CAS} or outside CAS
d. 60 minutes
5. You have flight planned to arrive over a Reporting Point at 14002. However,
due to an unexpected tailwind, you realize that you will arrive at 1355Z. Do
you have to inform the relevant ATCU?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if you are outside Controlled Air Space
d. Only if you are conducting the flight under Special VFR
6. Do you have to submit a Flight Plan if you are crossing the London/Brest FIR
boundary under VFR?
a. Yes
b. No
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CHAPTER 6: FLIGHT PLANS AND CLEARANCES
7. You are entering an advisory route (ADR) under IFR. Do you have to submit
a Flight Plan?
a. Yes
b. No
c. Only if that part of the ADR is Controlled Air Space
d. Only if that part of the ADR is an ATS route
8. You have to cross an Airway. How soon prior to penetration must you file an
in-flight Flight Plan?
a. At least 5 minutes
b. At least 10 minutes
c. At least 15 minutes
d. There is no set time limit
9. Your take-off is delayed for an uncontrolled flight. At what point must you re-
submit your Flight Plan?
10. Must you enter your wake turbulence category in a Flight Plan?
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F.LIGHT,J?LANS AND CLEARANCES QUESTIONS
'
12. You are a Controlled VFR Flight landing at a private strip in a valley in
Scotland. Your estimated landing time is exactly that which you entered in
the Flight Plan prior to departure. As you descend you call ATC to inform
them you are landing but receive no answer. What would be the correct
course of action?
a. By e-mail or fax
b. Over the radio or by telephone
c. By filling out only specific parts of the Flight Plan form
d. In person
Question 13 14
Answer
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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CHAPTER 7
AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION
SERVICES (ICAO)
Aeronautical 1nrormat1on Sel"lliee ~ A8f0nau1iea1 lnformat10n Setvtoe
CCN CCN
Vooru11gangstraat 80 Bus 2 ( Belg~ontrol Rue du Progre.s 80 Boile 2
B • '1030 Brussel 8 - 1030 Bruxelles
The hokier 01 a vahd pilot hcence ror aaroplane1 hebc.opterw gtlClllf5 r,, free balloons 1$$ued by a
Membor State or the European Community 1n c:omplrance with the spoc1r1Cc111011, of Annex 1 to the
Chicago Convention may exercise. w,1 hot.II any ful1hef fDffr\alily. the pm1leges granlocl t,y that kence in
a Belgian reg1slered alrcrart ce111fic:ated ror s1ngle-p,1ot oper,U,on in onlor to make i,rtvale flights t,y day
and under VFR. provided that he meets the reeent Right exi,cnence requ,r9meols mpose<I by the
1ssu1ng State
2 In order to make other than private lhghts t1cences ,uved by a Membef Stole of the EUN)Qean
Community mus, be rendered valid ea pre111ous1y
Licences issued by non-Member States or the European C01m1un,ty must be rOf\de,eO vauO 1n alt
case,
AIC NR 06192 11 herebv cancelled
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CHAPTER 7: AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES (/CAO)
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CHAPTER 7: AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES (/CAO)
GENERAL.
The general aviation pilot does not need to know much about ICAO Aeronautical
Information Services. Rather, he should study the Aeronautical Information
Publications issued by the State in which he flies. The following brief outline of ICAO
Aeronautical Information Services has been included for background purp,oses only.
Tlhe private pilot flying in the United Kingdom is strongly advised to study Chapter
15 concerning Aeronautical Information issued by the United Kingdom Civil Aviation
Authority.
or
agree with one or more other contracting state(s) for the provision of a joint
information service ,
or
• delegate the authoirity for the provision of the information service to a non-
government organisation.
Provision.
A State's Aeronautical Information Service shall ensure that the information necessary
for the safety and efficiency of air navigation is made available for the operational
requirements of:
and
• the Air Traffic Services Units (ATSUs) responsible for providing a Flight
Information Service, and services responsible for pre-flight information.
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CHAPTER 7: AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES (/CAO)
General.
A State's Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) constitutes the basic information
source for information of a lasting character essential to air navigation.
The A/Pis
Layout.
divided into 3
The AIP is divided into 3 Parts:
Parts :
These parts are described in detail in Chapter 15, for the United Kingdom.
or
or
temporary changes of long duration which are made at short notice (e.g .
emergency and major repairs to a runway).
Checklists of valid NOTAMS are issued at intervals of not more than one month.
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CHAPTER 7: AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION SERVICES (/CAO)
CAA
REPUBLIC OF SOUTH AFRICA Private Bag )(OB
W8tet1doof
0145
GENERAL
TRAINING
12 It has come to the attention of this Authority that many student pl/ors are not proflcJenl 111
spinning 8'terC/ses when applying for a Privore Pilot's Licence.
3 Tho atten/l0/1 of all lnslrvctors, training organisations and pl/ors 1$ drawn to mo Fhght
fnstroct/on Syllatws as publ,shed In Chaptor 4 of /he Air Navigation Rogu/all<Jns. 1976, as
amended
14 Spfnwng
(8) FIii/Spin
(bl /I1ClpJenr spin
4 All lnstruclors, training organisations and pilots ate hereby romlndcd Iha/ the execution of a
full spin or 1nclp/onl spin and raoovozy rs a mandatory ,equtromenl l)eforo a sludent mey fly
solo.
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CHAPTER 7: AERONAUTICAL INFORMATION .("F..,
'
a. In a NOTAM
b. In an Aeronautical !Information Circular
c. In an AIRAC
d. In an Pre-Flight Information Bulletin
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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CHAPTERS
SEPARATION (ICAO)
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CHAPTER 8: SEPARATION (/CAO)
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CHAPTER 8: SEPARATION (/CAO)
SEPARATION (ICAO).
General.
A broad definition of separation is the minimum distance or time between two aircraft
that are either occupying the same altitude or Flight Level or climbing/descending
through the same altitude or Flight Level.
However, there are times when it is possible that two aircraft may get so close to
each other that one could be affected by the wake vortices of the other. This could
happen on landing or taking-off, when both aircraft are using the same runway. In
such a case, a mandatory minimum safety distance, or time, is laid down by the
Authorities. This type of separation is called Wake Turbulence Separation. Wake
Turbulence Separation is covered at the end of this Chapter.
TYPES OF SEPARATION.
Vertical Separation.
a. Longitudinal Separation .
b. Lateral Separation.
Composite Separation.
HORIZONTAL SEPARATION.
LONGITUDINAL SEPARATION.
General.
Longitudinal Separation can either be based on time (Procedural) or distance
(when the aircraft is under the Radar Control).
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CHAPTER 8: SEPARATION (/CAO)
LATERAL SEPARATION.
Lateral Separation is based upon time only, and depends on the radio navigation aid
that the two aircraft which are to be separated from each other are using.
Figure 8.2 Lateral Separation for aircraft using VOR and NOB Navigational Aids.
If the aircraft are not using a navigational aid, but are navigating according to Dead
Reckoning (DR) principles, lateral separation is increased to 45° at 15 nautical
miles.
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CHAPTER 8: SEPARATION (/CAO)
• When two aircraft are using the same runway, either for take-off or landing.
• Whenever the following aircraft is at the same height as, or less than 1 000
feet .below, the leading aircraft.
The pilot 'i'i
Note: The pilot is always responsible for the safety of the aircraft and should add is always ~~,
either further distance or time to the allocated separation factors if there is concern responsible -~ J
~ .
for the safety of the aircraft
that the wake turbulence separation allowed by Air Traffic Control is not sufficient.
and should add either dista· ce
or time if there is concern t at
Types of Wake Turbulence Separation. due to circumstances, the
Similarly to Longitudinal Separation, Wake Turbulence Separation can either be wake turbulence separation
based on time (Procedural) or distance (when the aircraft is under the control of allowed for by Air Traffic is not
Radar). sufficient.
On departure, then, Wake Turbulence Separation is based only upon time (Procedural)
and will depend on whether:
• Both aircraft are departing from the same point on the runway,
or
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CHAPTER 8: SEPARATION (/CAO)
~ Alight If both aircraft are departing from the same runway, the Wake Turbulence Separation
~ aircraft is as follows:
taking off Leading Aircraft Following Aircraft Separation Minima
behind a heavy aircraft, and
departing from the same point Heavy Medium or Light 2 minutes
on the runway should allow a Medium Light 2 minutes
minimum of 2 minutes Wake
Turbulence Separation.
Figure 8.3 Both aircraft departing from the same point on a runway.
If the "following" aircraft is departing from an intermediate point on the runway,
Wake Turbulence Separation is as follows:
Leading Aircraft Following Aircraft Separation Minima
Heavy Medium or Light 3 minutes
Heavy or Medium Light 3 minutes
r."ii) A light
- ~ "".-"~ aircraft
taking off
from an intermediate point on
a runway behind a medium or
heavy aircraft should allow at
least 3 minutes separation.
Figure 8.4 Following aircraft departing from an Intermediate point on the runway.
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CHAPTER 8: SEPARATION (/CAO)
ARRIVING AIRCRAFT.
General.
Wake Turbulence Separation for arriving aircraft can be of two types:
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CHAPTER 8: SEPARATION (/CAO)
If the REMEMBER !!
----.=r·-- separation
between
If the separation between yourself and a heavier aircraft is causing you concern,
you must request clearance from Air Traffic Control to increase the separation
yourself and a heavier aircraft minima.
is causing you concern, you
must request clearance from Reduced Separation.
Air Traffic Control to increa$8
All the separation minima dealt with in this chapter may be reduced under certain
the separation minima.
circumstances.
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C
....
CH~fTER 8: SEPARATION (/CAO) QUESTIONS
a. 1 minute
b. 2 minutes
c. 3 minutes
d. 4 minutes
a. 5 nautical miles
b. 5 minutes
c. 15 minutes
d. 10 nautical miles
a. 15 nautical miles
b. 15 minutes
c. 10 nautical miles
d. 10 minutes
6. What is the minimum lateral separation between two aircraft using the same
VOR?
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-
10. What is the minimum wake turbulence separation between a light aircraft
taking off behind a heavy aircraft from the same point on the runway?
a. 5 minutes
b. 5 nautical miles
c. 2 minutes
d. 2 nautical miles
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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CHAPTER 9
AERODROMES
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
_~~--
AERODROME ARP 61501SN 0011912W AO ELEII 270FT OXFORD KIDLINGTON
CHART - ICAO EGTK
.... ..... ...
._,_,_
--.. -
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ffW'l•V21 --llAGICllC
EU""llOhlNCl HOGIITGAAE IH l'tE'f
fi£1"'TIC>N9 ... f£[1 .,..;t_ JOO
.& I II I I II I
'i MllGHlSlll,-U:fNll:N£AD 4301
i!
N
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olc::hangeO 14"E
...,.
,',,
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~,
'
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,.""' .. .. _ _ _ w,....
,.. .,.,.. .....,..c..w...
1,...,u
I M I_ _
MII I - - ,..,.. __
141..,,tr.,,._.
Figure 9. 1 The aerodrome layout is, basically, divided into the Movement Area, the Apron,
and the Manouevring Area.
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CHAPTER9:AERODROMES
INTRODUCTION.
Aerodrome is also defined in Section 105 of the UK Civil Aviation Act 1982. That
definition reads:
(The word aerodrome) " ... means any area of land or water designed, equipped , set
apart or commonly used for affording facilities for the landing and departure of aircraft
and includes any area or space, whether on the ground, on the roof of a building or
elsewhere, which is designed, eq uipped or set apart for affording facilities for the
landing and departure of aircraft capable of descending or climbing vertically."
Those aerodromes where flights for the purpose of public transport operations and/
or flying training take place must be licensed, except for training operations by light
aircraft and helicopters under the provision of the Air Navigation Order and JAR FCL
1.
In the United Kingdom, the CAA is responsible for ensuring that the holders of an
aerodrome licence are competent and suitable persons to exercise the privileges of
that licence.
Many aerodromes do not need a licence to carry out flying activities, although,
in the United Kingdom, the CAA is still responsible for all matters affecting the
safety of aircraft at aerodromes through its re·gulation of aircraft operations and
maintenance. The three basic~
divisions of an
Basic Definitions. aerodrome are:
The basic division of an aerodrome layout is covered by three terms: the apron, the the apron, the
movement area and the manoeuvring area. (See Figure 9; 1, opposite.) manoeuvring area, and the
movement area.
The Apron.
The apron is a defined area on an aerodrome, intended to accommodate aircraft
for purposes of loading or unloading passengers, mail, cargo, fuelling, parking or
maintenance.
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
Information.
Up-to-date information on the conditions of the Movement Area and the operational
status of related facilities is provided to Flight Information Service units so that
this information can be passed to departing and arriving aircraft. Information on the
movement area includes:
Water on a Runway.
Whenever water is present on a runway, a description of the runway surface
conditions must be made available using the following terms:
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Location.
The signals square should be located so as to be seen clearly from the air when
viewed from a height of 300 m and should be surrounded by a white border. The
signalling area must be on an even, horizontal surface.
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
AERODROME MARKINGS.
RUNWAY MARKINGS.
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CHAPTER9:AERODROMES
taking off from, or approaching to land on Runway 23 would have 230°, or nearly so,
indicated on the magnetic compass, provided there was no crosswind component.
If a runway designated Runway 23 were being used for take-offs and landings in the
opposite direction, the runway would be designated Runway 05, that is, 180° from
230° Magnetic. Runway alignment is sometimes referred to as runway heading.
Runway designation markings are located at the threshold of a runway, either above
or among the threshold markings, as shown in Figure 9. 5, previous page.
Runway ~
markings are
coloured white.
Runway designation markings for parallel runways are supplemented by a letter. For
a dual parallel runway, the letters would be: L =Left R =Right, as shown in Figure
9. 6. If an aerodrome has three parallel runways, such as Los Angeles International,
the centre runway would carry the letter C.
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Threshold Marking.
Threshold marking consists of a pattern
of longitudinal stripes. The number of
stripes varies with the runway width.
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staggered white stripes, will usually be marked in conjunction with one or more pairs
of Touchdown Zone markings, again depending on runway length.
TAXIWAY MARKINGS.
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
• The Pattern A marking is the holding point for all aircraft operating VFR.
• A pilot must always stop at a Pattern A holding point a11d proceed onto the
runway only when cleared to do so by ATC, or if there is no ATC, when the
pilot has ascertained that there is no conflicting traffic.
Pattern B holding point markings are used if there is more than one holding
position.
The Pattern B holding point is the position further away from the runway,
(normally for larger aircraft when low visibility operations are in progress).
Apron Markings.
Apron markings, intended for the
guidance of pilots are painted yellow.
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CHAPTER9:AERODROMES
AERODROME LIGHTING.
Light Signals are frequently used to pass information to pilots. Three colours are
normally used: red, green and white.
Aerodrome Beacon.
An aerodrome beacon is provided for aerodromes intended for use at night in the
following cases:
0 ••
0 0
0
An aerodrome beacon indicates the location of an aerodrome but does not inform a
pilot of its identity.
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
Identification Beacon.
An identification beacon identifies the aerodrome by flashing a two letter Morse Code
identifier every 12 seconds.
-·-
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Threshold Lighting.
Lights marking the runway threshold
are fixed, unidirectional GREEN lights,
showing in the direction of approach to
the runway.
Visual Approach Slope lndictor (VASI}. Very few .aerodromes in the UK still
use this system , but it can still be found.
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
• PAPI lights will turn almost immediately from red to white (and vice versa).
• When on the correct approach angle, the two lights closest t o the runway will
show red and the two furthest away will be white.
The system of four lights will be located as a wing bar to the left of the
runway threshold, but at large airports a PAPI set may be located either side
of the runway.
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TAXIWAY LIGHTING.
SIGNS.
General.
• All aerodrome signs are frangible. In other words, they are designed to
break easily on impact.
The only signs using the colour red are mandatory signs. Mandatory signs
have a red background with the instruction superimposed in white lettering.
Mandatory Markings.
All mandatory markings consist of a white inscription on
a red background. Mandatory markings normally mark
lines which must not be passed without an ATC clearance.
Examples of mandatory markings are:
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m
Visual Runway Holding Position -
denotes the visual Taxi-Holding Positiorn
and also the ILS CAT 1 Holding Position
where the Visual and CAT 1 Holding Mandatory ~
Positions are co-located. aerodrome
09 -27 signs
consist of
white characters on a red
background.
CAT 1/2 Runway Taxi-Holding Position
Signs - denotes ILS CAT I/II Holding
Position only where a visual Taxi-
Holding Position is established closer
27 CAT I
to the runway in order to expedite traffic
flow.
09 - 27 CAT II
Intermediate Taxi-Holding Position
Sign - marks a Holding Position
established to protect a priority route.
No Entry Sign.
Location Signs.
Taxiway Location Sign identifying that the pilot is on taxiway A1.
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
Destination Signs.
A-+
Runway destination sign.
33-+
121-09 -+I
Runway destination sign. Note the
use of a hyphen to separate reciprocal
designators.
--
Runway vacated sign.
--
Figure 9.26b Airfield Information Signs.
MARKERS.
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CHAPTER9:AERODROMES
General.
An aerodrome obstacle is defined as any obstacle within 15 km of an aerodrome
runway threshold.
• Vehicles and other mobile objects are also considered to be obstacles and
must be marked and lit.
Marking of Obstacles.
All vehicles and moving objects must be coloured or must display flags.
• Normally, service vehicles are painted yellow. Emergency vehicles are most
frequently coloured red, or, occasionally, yellowish green.
Lighting of Objects/Obstacles.
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
• In the UK, if obstacle lights fail on an obst acle with a height greater th.an
492 feet, the occurrence will be will be included in a NOTAM.
Closed Runways.
Where a runway is permanently closed,
A white cross a white X is placed at either end of the
on a runway runway.
indicates that
it is closed. A
If only a section of the runway is closed,
closed taxiway is indicated by
a yellow cross. a white Xis placed at the extremities of
the closed section.
Closed Taxiways.
Where a taxiway is permanently closed, a yellow X is placed at either end of the
taxuway. If only a section of the taxiway is closed, a yellow X is placed at the
extremities of the closed section.
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Other Markings.
When a runway or taxiway is permanently closed, all other normal runway and
taxiway markings are obliterated.
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General.
Rescue and fire-fighting services are provided at all large aerodromes. All
aerodromes have rescue and fire-fighting equipment.
Response Time.
Emergency service response time is considered to be the time between the initial
call-out and the time when the first responding vehicle is in position to apply foam
anywhere on the movement area.
All rescue and fire fighting units should be able to achieve a response time of not
exceeding 3 minutes.
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CHAPTER9: AERODROMES
Level of Protection.
The number of rescue and fire fighting vehicles held at an aerodrome is based upon
the longest aeroplane using that aerodrome and its fuselage width.
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• On the apron, vehicles will give way to emergency vehicles and aircraft which
are taxiing, about to taxi or being pushed or towed.
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. ~ i
~
l
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Yellow or white
d. White
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Yellow or white
d. White
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I_
.
,C.IJ/J.PTER 9: AERODROMES QUESTIONS
, ..
a. Pattern '/\
b. Pattern 'B'
c. Pattern 'C'
d. Can be any of the above depending on the length of the runway
a. Green
b. White
c. Red
d. White or green and white
a. Red
b. Green
c. Green threshold lights and red end lights
d. Red and green
a. Red
b. Green
C. White
d. Blue
a. Yellow
b. Green
c. Red
d. Blue
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. ~ i
~
l
a. White cross
b. Yellow cross
c. With the use of barriers
d. The word "CLOSED" in white
a. White
b. Green
c. Yellow
d. Blue
a. All vehicles
b. All aircraft only
c. All surface movements
d. It has no special priority
a. At least 2 windsocks
b. At least 1 windsock
c. At least 1 windsock and a Landing 'T'
d. At least 2 windsocks and a Landing 'T'
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I_
.
,C.IJ/J.PTER 9: AERODROMES QUESTIONS
, ..
a. Green
b. White
C. Blue
d. Red
IQuestion
An
11
IQuestion
An
113 I I I I I I I I I
14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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ANNEXA
GENERAL LIGHTS
AND SIGNALS
Signal
Steady red light to
aircraft or vehicle
as indica!ed. Red
flare from tower or
aircraft.
Immediate assistance
required.
~ ,L
• • •
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
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ANNEX A : GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
INTRODUCTION.
Even when flown for recreation and/or sport, most aircraft today, however basic their
instrument fit, carry radios. Radiotelephony is, of course, by far the most efficient
method for aircraft and Air Traffic Service Units to communicate. Indeed, for several
decades past, most large aerodromes and airfields have insisted that aircraft _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ _ __
operating into or out of them be equipped with standard VHF radios. Questions may ~
be asked on
Nowadays, then, it is routine for a pilot to obtain information and instructions for the any orthe lights
safe conduct of his flight over the radio. Consequently, if a pilot suffers radio failure, and signals
he is likely immediately to find himself hindered in the progress of his flight. If either in this- Cbapter. All must be
he or his aircraft is in trouble, the absence of radio may make the situation extremely known.
critical.
It is, therefore, vitally important for the pilot to be able to understand the various
forms and meanings of the signals that may be made by Air Traffic Control Services .
or for that matter by anyone else, for the attention of aircraft. The pilot may also need
to signal to people on the ground concerning his own situation and/or intentions.
It is the aim of this Annex to describe the different type of signals that are used
for air-ground and ground-air communications. For the most part, the signals are
visual signals in the form of lights or pictograms. Distress messages passed by
Radiotelephony are dealt with fully in Volume 7 of this series: 'Radiotelephony'.
Signals will be presented in this Annex which cover the following situations:
When an aircraft which is airborne is in distress or urgency, the situation is tense and
a pilot oft.en needs to think primarily about flying the aircraft. If he is also experiencing
radio failure, the situation is made even more critical.
The following methods of signalling distress and urgency may seem to be desperate
measures and, in the case of pyrotechnics and flares, to offer a highly impractical
solution to the light aircraft pilot. However, a pilot who can signal an emergency to the
ground by any means whatsoever may just manage to create the conditions which
prevent disaster. Therefore, the following signals are included in this Annex.
Of course, a pilot may be on the ground when he needs to make a distress or urgency
signal; or else someone on the ground may wish to signal to an aircraft. In this case,
a difficult situation is made slightly easier.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
Even if the radio is working, it is desirable, in an emergency, thatthe pilot should express
his predicament, at least partially, in a simple-to-understand and unambiguous code.
And, of course, the pilot's top priority in an emergency situation is to fly the aircraft,
not to worry about the words he is using on the radio.
Distress Signals.
The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that grave andl
imminent danger threatens, and immediate assistance is requested:
Visually signalling, or signalling by any other method, the letters SOS in the
Morse Code ( .. . - - - . . .).
• A parachute flare showing a red light (see Figure A-1, page 346).
• If your radio has failed, but you suspect that the radio's carrier wave is still
transmitting, signal the letters SOS with your microphone switch.
Select the SSR Code 7700 on your transponder
Urgency Signals.
The following signals, used either together or separately, mean that an aircraft wishes
to give notice of difficulties which compel it to land, without requiring immediate
assistance:
• The repeated switching on and off of the navigation lights in such a manner
as to be distinct from flashing navigation lights.
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ANNEX A : GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
V Require Assistance
N No or Negative
y Yes or Affirmative
Figure A-3 Distress Signals - Ground to Air, for use by rescue teams.
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Introduction.
The United Kingdom Air Navigation Order stipulates that on international flights all
aircraft must carry a copy of 'Signals for Use in the Event of Interception'. These
are detailed in the UK AIP ENR 1-12.
The table below summarises the signals and procedures to be used, but the important
point is that the law requires the pilot to carry the appropriate documentation with
him.
The reaso,n why a pilot needs to know these interception signals when flying
internationally is that each ICAO contracting state reserves the right, for reasons
of military necessity or public safety, to restrict or prohibit the aircraft from other
states from flying over certain areas of its territory. A state may , therefore, wish to
investigate· the identity of aircraft and perhaps lead the intercepted aircraft away from
a particular area or require it to land at a particular aerodrome.
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4. DAY or NIGHT
I
aerodrome
Responds
DAY or.NIGHT Understood,
Raising landing gear (it fitted) and you have If it is desired that the follow me.
flashing landing lfghts while passing designated 1s intercepted aircraft follow
over runway in use" or helicopter landing inadequate. the lnterceptln1g aircraft to
area, at a height exceeding an alternate aerodrome,
300 m (1 000 ft) but not exceeding 600 the 1ntercepting aircraft
m (2 000 ft) (in the case ota helicopter, raises its landing gear
at a height exceeding 50 m (if fitted) and uses
(170 fl) but not eXGeeding 100 m (330 the Series 1 signals
ft)) above the aerodrome level, and prescribed for
continu1ng to circle runway in use or intercepting aircraft.
helicopter landing area. If unable to
flash landing lights, flash any other lights If ilis dedded to release.
available. the Intercepted afrcraft, Understood,
the intercepting aircraft you may
uses the Series 2 proceed.
signals prescriibed for
intercepting aircraft
5. DAY or NIGHT Cannot DAYorNtGHT Understood.
Regu lar switching on and off of all comply Use Series 2 signals
available lights but in such a manner as prescribed for intercepting
to be distinct from flashing lights. aircraft.
6 . DAY or NIGHT In distress. DAY or NIGHT Understood.
Irregular flashing of all available lights. Use Series 2 signals
pfescfibed for Intercepting
aircraft.
By day and by night, a series of projectiles discharged from the ground at intervals
of 10 seconds, each showing, on bursting, red and green lights or stars will indicate
to an unauthorized aircraft that it is flying in, or about to enter, a restricted, prohibited
or danger area, and that the aircraft is to take such remedial action as may be
necessary.
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The following signals may be made between an Air Traffic Services Unit (ATSU) and
aircraft in the air or on the ground. The meaning of signals between an ATSU and
vehicles on the aerodrome is also given.
Signal
A continuous
~
s 1eady red right to
(I red light
directed from
ai rcrafl or vehicle
as indicated. Red
•••
Oare from tower or
the tower aircraft
to an airr;raft in flight means
"Give way to other aircraft and
continue circling".
A continuous
(I red light
directed from
thetowerto
an a;rcraft or vehicle on the
ground means "stop•.
~
,. , ...
light directed Flashing red light to
from the tower aircraft or vehicle.
to an aircraft
in flight means "Do not land, Oo not land.
T he aerodrome
the aerodrome is unavailable is unavailable for
for landing". landing.
A flashing red
(I light directed
from the tower Move clear of the
-- ----
to an airr:raft landing area.
or vehicle on the ground
means "Move clear ofthe
landing area".
.........
Signal
Flashing green llght lo
aircraft or vehicle.
Return to
aerodrome, await
landing clearance.
Cleared to taxi/move
on the manoeuvring
--
; area.
.........
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Signal
Steady green light to
aircraft.
Cleared to
take-off.
Signal
Steady green or flashing
green or green flare from
aircraft.
Signal
White flashes to
Aseriesof ~
aircraft or vehicle.
white flashes ()
from the tower
to an aircraft
in flight means ·Land at this
Land here on receipt of steady aerodrome after receiving a
green and await further Instructions. continuous green light, and
await further instructions·.
Aseriesof ~
white flashes ()
from the tower
to an aircraft or
vehicle on the ground means
·Return to the starting point on
the aerodrome•.
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Signal
White Oare from aircraft
or irregular switching of
navigation or landing
lights.
lam
compelled
to land.
ACKNOWLEDGEMENT BY AN AIRCRAFT.
When an ATSU has passed a signal to an aircraft in the air or on the ground, by lights
or pyrotechnics, the aircraft will acknowledge the signal in the following manner.
When in flight:
(NB: This signal should not be expected on the base and final legs of the
approach.)
• During the hours of darkness: by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's
landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its
navigation lights.
During the hours of darkness: by flashing on and off twice the aircraft's
landing lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on and off twice its navigation
lights.
GROUND SIGNALS.
A Signal Mast.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
Where provided, the Signals Square is 12 metres square and bounded by a white
border. The Signals Square is located in a position from which it can be seen by
aircraft joining the circuit. (See Figure A-4).
Pr ohibition of Landing.
A horizontal, red, square panel with yellow diagonal
lines indicates -that landings are prohibited and that the
prohibition is liable to be prolonged .
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Note: When used at night, the landing T is either illuminated or outlined in white
coloured lights.
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Right-Hand Traffic.
When displayed in a Signals Square, or horizontally at
This signal ~
the end of the runway or strip in use, a right-hand arrow dlsphzyed on
,of conspicuous colour (normally yellow and red stripes) the Signals
indicates that a right-hand circuit is in force and that turns Square has the
are to be made to the right before landing and after take- same meaning as a green flag
off. hoisted on a mast.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
Helicopter Operations.
A large white H signifies that helicopters shall take off
and land within the area designated by the letter H, and
that the area is to be used for take-off and launching of
helicopters only.
Dropping Operations.
,A yellow marker in the shape of a St. George's cross
indicates an area reserved for the dropping of tow ropes
or similar articles.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
MISCELLANEOUS SIGNS.
Boundaries.
Orange and white striped markers are used to delineate
the boundary of an airfield where the natural boundary is
insufficiently conspicuous.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
"Straight ahead."
Bend extended arms at elbows and move wands up and down from chest height to
head.
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"Normal Stop."
Fully extend arms and wands at a 90° angle to sides and slowly move to above he.ad
until wands close .
....
,
,,
.....
,'
'
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"Emergency Stop."
Abruptly extend arms and wands to top of head, crossing wands.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
"Chocks away."
Arms extended above head, with hands/wands pointing outwards, then swung
sharply outwards.
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"Slow down."
Move extended arms downwards in a "patting" gesture, moving wands up and down
from waist to knees.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
"Fire. .,
Move right-hand wand in a "fanning" motion from shoulder to knee, while at the same
time pointing with left-hand wand to area of fire.
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Note : Sometimes this meaning is indicated by the right arm raised at the elbow with
thumb erect.
1 2
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
"Engage brakes."
Raise hand just above shoulder height with open palm. Ensuring eye contact
with flight crew, close hand into a fist. Do Not move until receipt of "thumbs up"
acknowledgement from flight crew.
1 2
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
PILOT TO MARSHALLER.
"Brakes engaged."
Raise arm and hand with fingers extended horizontally in front of face, then clench
fist.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
"Insert chocks. 11
Arms extended palms facing outwards, move hands inwards to cross in front of
face.
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ANNEX A: GENERAL LIGHTS AND SIGNALS
"Remove chocks."
Hands crossed in front of face, palms facing outwards, move arms outwards.
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Representative PPL - type questions to test your theoretical
knowledge of Flight and Ground Limitations.
1. What is the meaning of a continuous red light directed from the tower to an
aircraft in flight?
3. What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require
medical assistance?
a. X
b. N
C. y
d. i
4. What ground sign do the survivors construct to indicate that they require
assistance?
a. X
b. N
c. y
d. >
•
5. What is the meaning of a black ball hoisted on a signals mast or a white T
with a white disc placed in the middle of a cross-bar?
a. Glider flying in progress
b. Direction of take-off and landing may differ
c. Movement of aircraft and gliders confined to hard surface areas.
d. Landing prohibited.
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6. What is the meaning of a flashing red light directed from the tower to an
aircraft in flight?
a. Do not land. Aerodrome is unavailable for landing.
b. Give way to other aircraft and continue circling.
c. Land immediately
d. Return to aerodrome.
l~~::;t 1 1 1 1 1 I
2 3 4 5 6
The correct answers to these questions can be found at the end of this
book.
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ANNEXB
THE JAR- FCL
PRIVATE PILOT'S LICENCE
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ANNEX B: THE JAR-FCL PRIVATE PILOT'S LICENCE
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ANNEX B: THE JAR-FCL PRIVATE PILOT'S LICENCE
INTRODUCTION.
Full details of flying training, theoretical knowledge training, the corresponding tests
and examinations, and the privileges and limitations pertaining to the JAR-FCL PPL
(Aeroplanes) are contained in the Joint Aviation Authorities (JAA) publication , 'JAR-
FCL 1 (A)' SUBPART C - PRIVATE PILOT LICENCE (Aeroplanes) - PPL(A).
(For students based in the United Kingdom, full details of JAR-FCL PPL training
and examinations can be found in the CAA publication Licensing Administration
Standards Operating Requirements Safety {LASORS).)
• Obtain a pass in the skill test conducted on the same class/type of aircraft
as that in which he has received flying instruction.
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AGE.
There is no minimum age prescribed for the commencement of dual instruction for a
JAR-FCL PPL(A), but dual instruction received before the age of 14 years does not
count towards the flying experience requirements for the issue of a licence.
A candidate for a JAR-FCL PPL may not fly solo before the age of 16. A candidate
may not apply for the licence to be issued until he or she has attained the age of 17
years.
The privileges pertaining to a JAR-FCL PPL issued by the United Kingdom Civil
Aviation Authority (UK CAA) are detailed in Schedule 8 of the Air Navigation Order,
and summarised in LASORS.
Effectively this means that a PPL holder cannot earn money by exercising the
AJAR-FCI:. privileges of his licence. The laws surrounding 'revenue flights' or flights for 'valuable
PPL (A) holder consideration' are complex. Therefore, PPL-holders are advised to be very cautious
must not fly about accepting money or rewards for flights that they conduct. The authorities treat
as ap/lofon
illegal commercial operations extremely seriously. Cost sharing between a PPL
mvenuEHJaming fHghts.
holder and his passengers is permitted in accordance with certain conditions. The
Air Navigation Order contains details of these conditions.
In order
to carry
passengers, Carriage of Passengers.
a PPL-holder The holder of a JAA PPL(A) is permitted to c arry passengers. However, JAR-
must have carried oUI 3 FCL1.026 requires that a pilot should not operate the controls of an aeroplane with
lake- offs and landings passengers on board unless he has carried out at least three take-offs and landings
as the pilot operating the as the pilot operating the controls of an aeroplane of the same type/class (or in a
controls of an aeroplane of
flight simulator of the same type/class) in the preceding 90 days. If the pilot holds a
the same class/type (or in a
flight simulator of the same Night Qualification, 1 of the 3 take-offs and landings must be at night, if passengers
type/class) in the preceding 90 are to be carried at night.
days.
TRAINING FOR THE JAR-FCL PPL (A).
Appendix 1 to JAR-FCL 1.125 lays down the syllabus of training that must be
completed before a JAR-FCL PPL(A) licence may be issued.
An applicant for a JAR-FCL PPL (A) must undergo the prescribed syllabus of training
at an approved Flying Training Organisation (FTO) or at a registered training facility
acceptable to the national authority.
Training for the JAR-FCL PPL (A) consists of flying instruction and theoretical
knowledge instruction.
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Fig B2 A Flying Training Organlsation (FTO) - Oxford Aviation Academy, Oxford Airport.
Flying Training.
An applicant for a JAR-FCL PPL (A) must have completed a minimum of 45 hours
total flight time as a pilot of aeroplanes.
Night Qualification.
If a night qualification is to be added to the JAR-FCL PPL (A), 5 hours flying must
be completed at night, consisting of 3 hours dual instruction, including 1 hour night
cross-country navigation and 5 solo night take-offs and full-stop landings.
(Training for a Night Qualification (Aeroplanes) may lbe included within the 45
hours required for the issue of a JAR-FCL PPL (A), provided the minimum dual and
supervised solo requirements are satisfied.)
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• 1 hour total.
1 hour dual
1 hour cross-country
Relevant flight simulator time is also recorded in the pilot's log book.
The pilot's log book is a pilot's own personal record of his flying experience. Complete
your log book neatly and legibly; you will be glad you did so in later years. ff you are
required to submit your log book to a national aviation authority, take a photocopy of
the latest entries.
The skill test may be flown on a single or (subject to the experience requirements in
JAR-FCL 1.255 or 1.260 of 70 hours flight time as Pilot-in-Command) on a
multi-engined aircraft.
An applicant for a JAR-FCL PPL (A) may not take the skills test until s!!.! of the
theoretical! knowledge examinations have been passed.
• Air Law.
• Operational Procedures.
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Principles of Flight.
Meteorology.
• Radiotelephony Communi,cations.
• Meteorology.
A JAR-FCL PPL may be issued without the holder needing to possess a Flight
Radiotelephony Operator's Licence (FRTOL). But if the PPL holder w ishes to :::dent pilot5 ~
operate his aircraft's radio, he must have obtained a FRTOL. In order to obtain an permitted to ~
FRTOL, pilots must pass the practical radiotelephony test and apply for the FRTOL usean
separately from the JAR-FCL PPL. You should note that the Radiotelephony paper aircraft's radio without an
in the PPL theoretical knowledge examinations does not contribute towards obtaining FRTOL while undergoing
an FRTOL. The FRTOL remains a national licence, so the PPL and the FRTOL are "lghts- for the purpose of
distinct licences issued under different legislation. gaining a pHot's licence.
Student pilots are permitted to operate the aircraft's radio, without having obtained a
FRTOL, during flights for the purpose of gaining a pilot's licence, provided the flight
is authorised by a qualified flying instructor.
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General.
Applicants for a JAR-FCL PPL must complete the requirements for licence issue to
the satisfaction of the national aviation authority of the state under whose authority
the training and testing for the licence were carried out. That State, on issuing the
licence, then becomes the State of Licence Issue.
The State of Licence Issue is the country in which the aviation authority which
authorises you to act as a pilot is headquartered.
Despite th,e multinational nature of the JAA, each nation's aviation authority (NAA)
acts under the authority of the legislature of that nation. Hence, the Civil Aviation
Authority is the licence-issuing authority for the United Kingdom.
AJAR"-FCL. It is permitted for a licence holder to make a request for his licence to be transferred
PPL (A) from one JAA State to another if there is an administrative need to do so. For
licence holder instance, if the holder changes his State of normal residency (the place where he
may apply normally lives for at least 185 days in any year) or if he takes up employment in the
to transfer his licence from new state, the new state may become the State of Licence Issue.
one state to another If he fs
normally resident in the new Validity of Licences and Ratings.
Stats (at least 185 days per
A JAR-FCL PPL (A) is valid for a period of 5 years.
yearJ or If he has taken up
employment there.
Providing that a pilot has renewed his medical certificate (see below) and has not
had the licence revoked or suspended by the NAA, a PPL will be reissued, at the
AJAR-FCL
PPL (A)Js end of the 5 years validity period, on submission of the necessary paperwork and
va/iclfor6 fees to the NAA.
ye.ara.
TYPE AND CLASS RATINGS.
General Requirements.
In addition to his pilot's licence, a pilot will also be required to hold a valid Class
Rating for any aeroplane that he wishes to fly.
Aeroplanes are divided into Classes and, further, into Types. Generally, Class
Ratings are for simple aircraft and a Type Rating is required for a more sophisticated
aircraft.
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If the Skill Test for the JAR-FCL PPL (A) is taken in a simple light aircraft, the PPL
Skill Test also counts as the Class Rating Test for the class of aeroplane in question,
most commonly the Single-Engine Piston (Land) Class.
If a pilot wishes to fly other classes or types of aeroplanes he will be required to pass
a separate skill test on each class or type of aeroplane he intends to fly.
Aeroplanes are ~
Class Rating. d/Vldedmto
classes and
A Class Rating qualifies a pilot to fly as Pilot-in-Command of any aeroplane within
IYIJl/4
that Class.
There is no limitation on the number of class or type ratings that a pilot may hold at
any one time.
Differences Training.
Although a class rating, in general, qualifies a pilot to fly any aeroplane within that
class, differences training may be required in order that he may pilot a variant of
aircraft within the class which has markedly different flying characteristics and
technical and performance specifications.
For the Single-Engine Piston (Land) pilot, a category which encompasses the majority
of PPL holders, differences training is required when changing from the simple, light,
fixed tricycle-undercarriage, fixed-pitch propeller aeroplane to aeroplanes displaying
any of the following features, often referred to as complex singles:
Variable-pitch propellers.
• Retractable undercarriage.
• Turbo/super-charged engine.
Cabin pressurisation.
• Tail wheel.
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• Attend a type rating course for the relevant type, consisting of both
theoretical knowledge and flying instruction.
Pass a skill test on the aircraft type, conducted by a Type Rating Examiner
(TRE).
The validity of a pilot's licence is dependent on the validity of the ratings it contains
and the currency of the associated medical certificate.
or
Within 12 months of the expiry date of the rating, have flown 12 hours on
an aircraft of the relevant class, to include:
• 6 hours as Pilot-in-Command.
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Note: The one hour dual flight with an Instructor can be replaced with any JAR-FCL
Skills Test or Proficiency Check or by an IMC Rating flight Test.
ADDITIONAL RATINGS.
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• fly at night.
Various ratings can be added to the basic JAR-FCL PPL (A) which bestow extended
privileges on the licence holder. Each rating has its own regulation pertaining to
revalidation and renewal. Here is a summary of additional ratings that a PPL (A)
holder may add to his licence: Full details may be found in LASORS.
Full details of the regulations governing the training for, issue of and privileges of the
UK NPPL may be found by consulting LASORS and the Air Navigation Order. Most
flying club websites give details of the NPPL. The NPPL also has its own medical
requirements.
The NPPL is a "sub-lCAO" licence and the holder of a UK NPPL (A) is restricted to
flight in a simple, UK-registered, single-engine piston aeroplane (including motor
gliders and microlights) whose Maximum Authorized Take-off Weight does not.
exceed 2000 kg. Flight is normally permitted in UK airspace only, by day, and in
accordance with the Visual Flight Rules.
Flying Training.
Currently 32 hours of flying training are required for the issue of a UK NPPL (A), of
which 22 hours are to be dual instruction, and 10 hours to be supervised solo flying
time.
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MEDICAL REQUIREMENTS.
An applicant for a JAR-FCL PPL must hold a valid JAA Class 1 or Class 2
Medical Certificate issued within the provisions of JAR-FCL 3. A Class 1 or ~
Class 2 medical
certificate must
A student pilot must hold a valid Medical Certificate before he will be beheld by a
permitted to fly solo. candidale fore JAR-FCL A
(A) lloetJce.
General Requirements.
Private Pilots must be mentally and physically fit to exercise the privileges of their
licence. This is a continuing requirement and places the onus on the pilot to maintain
fitness to fly. If a pilot does not feel fit to fly, he should seek professional advice
preferably from an aeromedical practitioner, to determine his medical fitness.
N.B. If a pilot allows his medical certificate to expire, his licence becomes invalid If you a/Tow ~
immediately. Consequently, it is most important to arrange medical examinations yaurmedlca/
early to ensure that this does not happen. certificate to
expil'9, your
The regulations governing medical fitness are different for the UK NPPL (A) and the pilot's licence becomes fniJ lid
JAR-FCL PPL (A). Immediately.
------------·-----
MEDICAL EXAMINATIONS.
For the issue of a JAR-FCL PPL in the United Kingdom, the initial JAR-FCL Class
2 medical examination may be obtained from a UK CAA AME o r from an AME in a
mutually recognised JAA member state.
MEDICAL CERlilFICATE.
General.
A pilot's Medical Certificate is regarded as an integral part of his licence.
The issue of the certificate will follow a successful initial medical examination
conducted by an Authorised Medical Examiner. Once the medical certificate has
been issued, its. continuing validity will depend upon the pilot passing a periodical
medical examination.
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40 years and up to 49 years: Note: A medical certificate issued before a pilot's 40th birthday will not be valid
14months after his 42nd birthday. (In other words as soon as a pilot attains the age of 40, his
Medical Certificate can only be valid for a maximum of 2 further years.)
SO years and over.
1Zmonths
I state of UC8rlee cssue-
Unuel Kingdom IMIOC/20t0
Ill UK CAA ,erarence numi,.,-
Unit/HI Kingdom
Clvll Aviation Authority
IV Lut&1nl,,_ol~
JOINT AVIATION AUTHORITIES
If the holder
ofaJAR-FCL If the revalidation of a medical certificate takes place within 45 days prior to the
pi/Qt's Ucence expiry date, the validity of the new medical certificate extends from the expiry date
suffers fl'om of the previous certificate.
a condition which affects his
ability to act as a tHght crew
Decrease in Medical Fitness.
member, he must inform the
National Aviation Authority, in The holder of a medical certificate who becomes aware of any of the circumstances
writing, either Immediately or. below must inform the National Aviation Authority of the condition, in writing ,
in the case of illness, within a immediately, or after a period of 21 days for illness.
period of 21 days.
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• An incapacitating injury.
• Any illness which incapacitates a pilot and prevents him from flying as a pilot
throughout a period of 21 days or more.
• Pregnancy.
In the case of pregnancy, the suspension may be temporarily lifted during the early
months of the pregnancy and finally lifted after the end of the pr,egnancy when the
pilot has been declared fit to resume flying.
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,
• 1.
1. Of the total hours requirement for the issue of a JAA PPL(A), how many
may be flown in a FNPT or Flight Simulator?
a. 5
b. 10
C. 15
d. 2
3. Which of the following does a pilot require in addition to his licence in order
to fly an aeroplane?
4. The flying experience that you record in your pilot's log book must be only:
5. In addition to your pilot licence, what else is required before you can
exercise the privilege of the licence?
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--
1,
6. What does a student pilot require in order to fly a solo training sortie?
7. The JAA document dealing with matters relating to the training for and issue
of pilots' licences for flying aeroplanes is:
a. JAR OPS-3
b. JAR FCL-3
c. JAR FCL-2
d. JAR FCL-1
8. For how long is the Class Rating for a single-pilot, single-engine aircraft
valid?
a. 1 year
b. 2 years
c. 3 years
d. 5 years
9. A pilot gained his JAR-FCL PPL (A) on a single piston-engine, fixed tricycle-
undercarriage aircraft, fitted with a constant speed propeller. For which of
the following types of aircraft would he be required to undergo differences
training?
10. You are the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL(A). If your optician tells you that
you now need to use spectacles to read, do you need to tell the Licensing
Authority?
a. No
b. Yes, immediately
c. Yes, but only if you cannot read the instruments without the
spectacles
d. Not if contact lenses solve your problem
11. As part of the flying experience a student pilot needs for the issue of a
JAR-FCL PPL (A), he must undertake a solo cross-country flight. At least
one cross-country flight must exceed a stated minimum distance. What is
this distance?
a. 100 nm
b. 150 nm
c. 200 nm
d. 270 nm
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12. For which of the following aircraft types would a pilot require a Type
Rating?
13. Can the Class Rating for a single-engine piston aeroplane (land) be
revalidated by a proficiency check?
a. Yes, but the check must be completed within the 3 months prior
to the expiry date of the current rating
b. No, the rating is experience dependent only
c. Yes, but there is also an experience requirement which must also
be achieved
d. No
14. Can a student pilot 'log' all dual instructional time towards the 45 hours
experience he needs to gain his licence?
15. For how long is a Class 2 Medical Certificate for a JAR-FCL PPL (A) valid
for a pilot who is 34 years of age?
a. 60 months
b. 24 months
c. 12 months
d. 6 months
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t, ,;ANNEX
. B JAA LICENSING QUESTIONS
17. In order to exercise the privileges of a flying licence, the holder must hold a
Medical Certificate issued in accordance with the provisions of:
a. JAR-FCL 1
b. JAR-FCL 2
c. JAR-FCL 3
d. JAR-FCL 4
18. The definitive privileges of licences and ratings issued by the United
Kingdom Civil Aviation Authority (UK CAA) are contained in:
19. If the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL (A) has discovered that he has a medical
condition for which he needs surgery, he should:
20. In order to be able to carry passengers, the holder of a JAR-FCL PPL (A)
must have met the following currency requirements:
21. The flying hours that the holder of a JAR-FCL licence enters in his pilot's log
book are defined as:
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22. What are the options open to the holder of a JAR-PCL PPL (A) for revalidating
a single-pilot, single-engine piston Class Rating?
a. 3 years
b. Life
c. 5 years
d. 10 years
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--
1,
26. For the purposes of obtaining a JAR-FCL PPL (A), flying hours accumulated
towards the issue of the licence must have been carried out in an aircraft:
a. Of the same type as that for which the basic licence is to be issued
b. Of the same class as that for which the basic licence is to be
issued
c. Of the same performance category as that for which the basic
licence is to be issued
d. With the same type of propeller as that for which the basic licence is
to be issued
28. A pilot who does not hold a Flight Radiotelephony Operator's Licence
(FRTOL) may operate an aircraft's radio:
a. 25 hours
b. 45 hours
c. 10 hours
d. 30 hours
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31. In order to transfer a JAR-FCL pilot's licence from the State of Licence Issue
to another JAA member state the licence holder must:
a. Be normally resident in the new State (for at least 185 days perr year)
or have taken up full-time employment within that State
b. Have resided in the new State for at least 30 consecutive days.
c. Reside in the new State for a minimum of 30 days annually.
d. Must have become a citizen of the new State
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer
Question 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
Answer
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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ANNEXC
AIR LAW DEFINITIONS
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
DEFINITIONS.
or
direct contact with any part of the aircraft, including parts which have become
detached from the aircraft,
or
self-inflicted, or
or
or
Advisory Route (ADR): A designated route along which an air traffic advisory
service is available.
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
Aerial Work: Any purpose (other than public transport) for which an aircraft is flown
if valuable consideration is given or promised in respect of the flight or the purpose of
the flight. Examples of this would be agriculture, construction, photography, surveying,
observation and patrol, search and rescue, aerial advertisement, etc.
Aerodrome Control Service: An air traffic control service for aerodrome traffic.
Aerodrome Control Tower: A unit established to provide an air traffic control service
to aerodrome traffic.
Aerodrome Elevation: The elevation of the highest point of the landing area.
Note: The basic difference between a precision and a non-precision approach is that
in a precision approach the pilot will receive vertical as well as horizontal guidance.
Aerodrome Traffic: All traffic on the manoeuvring area of an aerodrome and all
aircraft flying in the vicinity of an aerodrome.
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Aeronautical Station: A land station in the aeronautical mobile service. lln certain
instances, an aeronautical station may be located on board ship or on a platform at
sea.
Aircraft: Any machine that can derive support in the atmosphere from the reactions
of the air other than the reactions of the air against the earth's surface.
AJRPROX: The code word used in an air traffic incident report to designate aircraft
proximity.
Air Traffic Advisory Service: A service provided within advisory airspace to ensure
separation, insofar as practical, between aircraft which are operating in accordance
with IFR flight plans.
Note 1 :- For convenience, the term "air traffic control clearance" is frequently
abbreviated to "clearance" when used in appropriate contexts.
Note 2:- The abbreviated term "clearance" may be prefixed by the words "taxi", "take-
off', "departure", "en route", "approach" or "landing" to indicate tlhe particular portion
of flight to which the air traffic control clearance relates.
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Air Traffic Control! Service: A service provided for the purpose of:
a) preventing collisions:
1) between aircraft,
and
Air Traffic Control Unit: A generic term referring to a unit responsible for the control
of air traffic, meaning variously: Area Control Centre, Approach Control Centre or
Aerodrome Control Tower.
Air Traffic Flow Management (ATFM): A service established with tile objective of
contributing to the safe, orderly and expeditious flow of traffic by ensuring that air
traffic control service (ATCS) capacity is utilized to the maximum extent possible and
that the traffic volume is compatible with the capacities declared by the appropriate
ATCS authority.
Air Traffic Service: A generic term meaning variously, flight information service,
alerting service, air traffic advisory service, air traffic control service (area control
service, approach control service or aerodrome control service).
Air Traffic Services Reporting Office: A unit established for the purpose of receiving
reports concerning air traffic services and flight plans s.ubmitted before departure.
Air Traffic Services Unit:- A generic term meaning variously, Air Traffic Control
Unit, Flight Information Centre or Air Traffic Services Reporting Office.
Alerting Post: A unit designated to receive information from the general public
regarding aeroplanes in an emergency and to forward the information to the
associated Rescue Coordination Centre (RCC).
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
Note:- The aerodrome from which a flight departs may also be an en-route or a
destination alternate aerodrome for that flight.
Approach Control Office: A unit established to provide an Air Traffic Control Service
to controlled flights arriving at, or departing from, one or more aerodromes.
Approach Control Service: An Air Traffic Control Service for arriving or departing
controlled flights.
Appropriate authority:-
a) Regarding flight over the high seas: The relevant authority of the State of
Registry.
b) Regarding flight other than over the high seas: The relevant authority of
the State having sovereignty over the territory bei111g overflown.
Area Control Centre: A unit established to provide an Air Traffic Control Service to
controlled flights in control areas under its jurisdiction.
Area Control Service: An Air Traffic Control Service for controlled flights in control
areas.
ATS Route: A specified route designed for channeling the flow of traffic as necessary
for the provision of air traffic services.
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
Note:- The term "ATS Route" is used to mean variously: airway, advisory route,
controlled or uncontrolled route, arrival or departure route, etc.
Ceiling: The height above the ground or water of the base of the lowest layer of
cloud below 6 000 metres (20 000 feet) covering more than half the sky.
Clearance Limit: The point to which an aircraft is granted an air traffic control
clearance.
Clearway: A defined rectangular area on the ground or water, under the control
of the appropriate authority, selected or prepared as a suitable area over which an
aeroplane may make a portion of its initial climb to a specified height.
Congested Area: in relation to a city, town or settlement, means any area which is
substantiallly used for residential, industrial, commercial or recreational purposes.
Control Area (CTA): A controlled airspace extending upwards from a specified limit
above the earth.
Note:- Controlled airspace is a generic term which covers ATS airspace Classes A,
B, C, D and E, inclusive.
Controlled Flight: Any flight which is subject to an Air Traffic Control Clearance.
Control Zone (CTR): A controlled airspace extending upwards from the surface of
the earth to a specified upper limit.
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
Declared Distances:
a. Take-Off Run Available (TORA). The length of runway declared available
and suitable for the ground run of .an aircraft taking-off.
b. Take-Off Distance Available (TODA). The length of the take-off run available
plus the length of the clearway, if provided.
Distress Phase: A situation where there is reasonable certainty that an aircraft and
its occupants are threatened by grave and imminent danger or require immediate
assistance.
Elevation: lihe vertical distance of a point or a level, on the surface of the earth,
measured from mean sea level.
Emergency Phase: A generic term meaning, as the case may be, Uncertainty Phase,
Alert Phase or Distress Phase.
Estimated Elapsed Time: The estimated time required to proceed from one
significant point to another.
Estimated Off-Block Time: The estimated time at which the aircraft will commence
movement associated with departure.
Estimated Time of Arrival: For IFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that the
aircraft will arrive over that designated point, defined by reference to navigation aids,
from which it is intended that an instrument approach procedure will be commenced,
or, if no navigation aid is associated with the aerodrome, the time at which the aircraft
will arrive over the aerodrome. For VFR flights, the time at which it is estimated that
the aircraft will arrive over the aerodrome.
Expected Approach Time: The time at which ATC expects that an arriving aircraft,
following a delay, will leave the holding point to complete its approach for a landing.
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
Flight Information Service {FIS) : A service provided for the purpose of giving advice
and information useful for the safe and efficient conduct of flights.
Flight Plan: Specified information provided to Air Traffic Services Units, relative to
an intended flight or portion of a flight of an aircraft.
Flight Time -Aeroplanes: The total time from the moment an aeroplane first moves
for the purpose of taking off until the moment it finally comes to rest at the end of the
flight.
Flight Time - Helicopters: The total time from the moment a helicopter's blades
start turning until the moment the helicopter finally comes to rest at the end of the
flight, and the rotor blades have stopped.
Flight Visibility: The visibility foi;ward from the cockpit of an aircraft in flight.
Heading: The direction in which the longitudinal axis of an aircraft is pointed, usually
expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic, compass or grid).
/FR Flight: A flight conducted in accordance with the instrument flight rules.
a) in controlled airspace:
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
(i) in accordance with stipulated minimum heights; a flight plan must also be
filed, and the aircraft flown in accordance with ATC clearances, departure
and approach procedures.
(ii) in accordance with the flight plan; position and level reports must be
submitted to ATC as required.
Instrument Runway: One of the following types of runway intended for the operation
of aircraft using instrument approach procedures :
Landing Area: That part of a movement area intended for the landing or take-off of
aircraft.
Level: A generic term relating to the vertical position of an aircraft in flight and
meaning variously, height, altitude or flight level.
Manoeuvring Area.: That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing
and taxiing of aircraft, excluding aprons.
Movement Area: That part of an aerodrome to be used for the take-off, landing and
taxiing of aircraft, consisting of the manoeuvring area and the apron(s).
Night-1.C.A.O: The hours between the end of evening civil twilight and the beginning
of morning civil twilight or such other period between sunset and sunrise, as may be
prescribed by the appropriate Authority.
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
Night- UK: The UK Air Navigation Order (ANO) defines night as : the time from half
an hour after sunset until half an hour before sumise (both times inclusive), sunset
and sunrise being determined at surface level.
Obstacle: All fixed (whether temporary or permanent) and mobile objects which
are located on an area intended for the surface movement of aircraft or which extend
above a defined surface intended to protect aircraft in flight.
Pilot-In-Command - /CAO: The pilot ,designated by the operator, or, in the case
of general aviation , the owner as being1in command of and charged with the safe
conduct of the flight. The Pilot-in-Command is responsible for the operation andl
safety of the aircraft.
Pilot-In-Command - UK: A person who for the time being is in charge of the piloting
of the aircraft without being under the direction of any other pilot in the aircraft.
Pressure Altitude: An altitude based on the ISA mean sea level pressure of 1013.2
mb/hPa, used in the calculation of aircraft performance; it is equivalent to a Flight
Level in value, but expressed in feet.
Res tricted Area: An airspace of defined dimensions, above the land areas or
territorial waters of a State, within which the flight of aircraft is restricted in accordance
with certain specified conditions.
Runway: A defined rectangular area on a land aerodrome prepared for the landing
and take-off of aircraft.
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
Runway Visual Range (RVR): The range over which the pilot of an aircraft on the
centre line of a runway can see the runway surface, markings or the lights delineating
the runway or identifying its centre line.
Search and Rescue Region: An area of defined dimensions within which search
and rescue services are provided.
Signals Square: An area on an aerodrome used for the display of ground signals.
Special VFR Flight: A VFR flight cleared by an Air Traffic Contro'I Unit to operate
within a control zone in meteorological conditions below VMC.
State ofManufacture: The State having jurisdiction over the organisation responsible
for the final assembly of the aircraft.
State of Occurrence: The State in the territory of which any accident or incident
occurs.
Stopway: A defined rectangular area on the ground at the end of the Take-Off Run
Available prepared as a suitable area in which an aircraft can be stopped in the case
of an abandoned take-off.
Taxiway: A defined path on a land aerodrome established for the taxiing of aircraft
and intended to provide a link between one part of the aerodrome and another.
Terminal Control Area (TCA or TMA): A control area normally established at the
confluence of ATS routes in the vicinity of one or more major aerodromes.
Threshold: The beginning of that portion of the runway usable for landing.
Track: The projection on the Earth's surface of t he path of an aircraft, the direction
of which path at any point is usually expressed in degrees from North (true, magnetic
or grid).
Traffic Information: Information issued by an Air Traffic Services Unit to alert a pilot
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ANNEX C: DEFINITIONS
to other known or observed air traffic which may be in proximity to the position or
intended route of flight and to help the pilot avoid a collision.
Transition Altitude: The altitude at or below which the vertical position of an aircraft
is controlled by reference to altitudes.
Transition Layer: The airspace between the Transition Altitude and the Transition
Level.
Transition Level: The Transition Level is the lowest available Flight Level above the
Transition Altitude.
VFR Flight: A VFR Flight is a flight during which the prevailing weather conditions
enable a pilot to conduct the flight, and to navigate, by reference to ground features.
VMC must prevail! for a flight to be conducted in accordance with the Visual Flight
Rules.
Visual Flight Rules: The Visual flight Rules require an airciraft to be flown in
accordance with the VMC minima appropriate to the classification of airspace in
which it is flying.
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AIR LAW SYLLABUS
AIR LAW
T he table below contains the principal topics and subtopics from the current outline
syllabus for the theoretical examination in Air Law for the Private Pilot's Licence, as
published in JAR-FCL 1. Syllabuses may be modified, so always check the latest
examination documentation from your national civil aviation authority, or from JAR-
FCL/EASA.
AIR LAW
LEGISLATION
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AIR LAW SYLLABUS
Approach Control
Departing and arriving aircraft procedures in VMC.
Service:
Flight Information and Air traffic advisory service; Objectives and basic
Alerting Service principles.
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AIR LAW SYLLABUS
JAA REGULATIONS
r-o. n.o.r~ I
1.025 - Validity of licences and ratings; 1.035 - Medical
' - ''-' U ~ I Q I
fitness; 1.040 - Decrease in medical fitness; 1.050 - Crediting
requirements:
of flight time; 1.065 - State of licence issue.
Instructor
1.300 - Instruction - general.
ratings:
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ANSWERS TO
AIR LAW UESTIONS
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ANSWERS TO THE AIR LAW QUESTIONS
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ANSWERS TO THE AIR LAW QUESTIONS
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer b a C d a a b a b a C d
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23
Answer C b C d b C a d b C C
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer a C d b b a b C d d b b
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer a a b a a d b d b b b b
Question 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33
Answer C a b b b a C C b
I
Question
Answer
11
b 1: 1: 1: 1: 1: 1:
Chapter4 Airworthiness (/CAO)
I
Question
Answer b
11
1: 1: 1: 1: 1: 1: 1: 1:
Chapters Airspace Division and Air Traffic Services (ICAO)
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer b C C C a C C b d b b a
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer a d d a a d b b a d b d
Question 25 26
Answer b b
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ANSWERS TO THE AIR LAW QUESTIONS
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer C b d C a a a b C d d d
Question 13 14
Answer b b
Question 1 2 3 4 5
Answer C d d a b
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer C d a C b a C b b C
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer d a C b b C a d d C d b
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21
Answer a a b C d C b a b
Chapter 10 AirLaw(UK)
No Questions.
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer C b d a C a a d C a d C
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer a d C b d b b a C d b C
Question 25 26 27
Answer b C b
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ANSWERS TO THE AIR LAW QUESTIONS
Chapter 12 Registration
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer b a C d d b a C C d
Chapter 13 Airworthiness
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
Answer d a C d b b C d a C
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer C d C b b a C C C C d d
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer b C a C b d C C C d b d
Question 25 26 27 28
Answer b d b d
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer b a b a d a C d d d b C
Question 13
Answer d
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer a d C b d b C d a b b C
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19
Answer C b b d C b a
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ANSWERS TO THE AIR LAW QUESTIONS
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer d a d C b b C a b C d b
Question 13 14 15
Answer d C C
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer b a C C b b b C a d C b
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
Answer a b d b d C C b
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer C C d d b a b a b C C b
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22
Answer C b b d a C a d b b
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6
Answer d C a d b a
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer a C a C a d d b C b b C
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer a C a d C b a b d C a d
Question 25 26 27 28 29 30 31
Answer C b b C a b a
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INDEX
For your convenience the /CAO Air Law and United Kingdom Air Law
sections have been indexed separately
A
Aerodrome Beacon 151
Aerodrome Control 99
Aerodrome Control Service 98
Aerodrome Lighting 151
Aerodrome Markings 146
Aerodrome Obstacles 159
Aerodromes 143
Aeronautical Information Service 127
Aeronautical Information Services 127
- Aeronautical Information Circulars 129
-Aeronautical Information Publication 128
Aiming Point 148
Aircraft Lights 71
Aircraft Operating Limitations 72
Air Navigation Order (ANO) 15
Air Traffic Clearances 119
Air Traffic Control Service 98
Air Traffic Control Units 97
Air Traffic Services 96, 97
Air Traffic Service Units 97
Airways 86
Airworthiness of Aircraft 69
- Temporary Loss Of Airworthiness 69
Alerting Service 98
Applicability of Air Regulations 5
Approach Slope Indicators 153
Apron Management Service 164
Articles Of The ICAO Convention 4
C
Cargo Restrictions 10
Certificate Of Airworthiness (C of A) 69
Certificate Of Registration (C of R) 63
Chicago Convention 3
Classification Of Airspace 79
- Classification Of Airspace By Letter 89
Communications Failure 40
Control Areas 85
Controlled Airspace 80
Control Zones 84
Cruising Levels 25
Customs And Immigration Procedures 7
Customs Duties 7
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INDEX
D
Documents Carried In Aircraft 7
Dropping And Spraying 25
E
Emergency Phases 104
European Aviation Safety Authority (EASA) 14
F
Fire & Rescue Services 163
Flight Information Regions 81
Flight Information Service 101
Flight Manual 73
Flight Plans 115
- Abbreviated Flight Plan 115
- Adherence to Flight Plan - Controffed Flights 117
- Changes to a Flight Pfan 117
- Closing a Flight Plan 118
- Contents of a Flight Pfan 116
- Contents of an Arrival Report 119
- Fuff Flight Plan 115
- Submission of Flight Plans 116
Flight Rules And Airspace Classification 92
Formation Flying 26
G
Ground Movement Controller 99
ICAO Annexes 14
Instrument Flight Rules (IFR) 24
Integrated Aeronautical Information Package 127
international Air Law 3
International Civil Aviation Organisation (ICAO) 3, 13
J
Joint Aviation Authorities (JM) 13
L
Landing 30
Licences Of Personnel 9
Lighting (Aerodrome) 151
Lighting Of Objects/Obstacles 159
Lights To Be Displayed By Aeroplanes 33
Location Signs 157
Log Book 10
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INDEX
M
Markings and Placards 73
Minimum Heights 25
Minimum Heights Low Flying 49
N
Nationality Marks
- Classification of Aircraft !CAO 64
- Common Mark 61
- Dispensation from Markings 62
- Identification Plate 64
- Size of Markings 62
Non-load bearing surfaces. 161
NOTAM 128
0
Overtaking in the Air 30
p
Parachute Descents and Aerobatic Flights 26
Position Reports by Aircraft Under Air Traffic Control 27
Precision Approach Path Indicator (PAPI) 154
Pre-flight Information Bulletins 128
Prohibited Areas 26
R
Recognition of Certificates and Licences 9
Registration Mark 61
Right- of- Way - Aircraft in the Air 28
Rules of the Air 23
- Applicability of Rules of the Air 24
- Avoidance of Collisions 27
- Operation on and in the Vic;nity of an Aerodrome 26
Runway Approach Lights 155
Runway Designator 146
Runway End Lights 153
Runway Holding Position & Stop Bars 39
Runway Lights 153
Runway Markings 146
s
Safety & Survival Equipment 71
Separation (ICAO) 133
- Horizontal Separation 133
- Lateral Separation 134
- Longitudinal Separation 133
Service, Aeronautical Information 127
Servicing and Maintenance of Aircraft 73
Signalling Lamp 145
Signal Square 145
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INDEX
Sovereignty 4
Standards and Recommended Practices (SARPS) 11
Surface Movement of Aircraft 32
T
Taking Off 31
Taxiway Center-Line Lights 156
Taxiway Lighting 156
Taxiway Edge Lights 156
Territorial Airspace 4
Territory 4
Threshold Lighting 153
Threshold Marking 148
Towing 25
Transverse Stripe & Displaced thresholds 148
Types of Separation 133
u
U.K. Aeronautical Information Publication (AIP) 15
Uncontrolled Airspace 80
Unlawfu l Interference - (Hijack) 41
Upper Information Region (UIR) 81
Use of Aircraft Radio Equipment 8
V
Validity of Endorsed Certificates and Licences 13
Visual Aids for Navigation 144
Visual Approach S lope lndictor (VASI) 153
Visual C ircuit 50
Visual Flight Rules (VFR) 45
Visual Meterorological Conditions (VMC) 44
w
Water on a Runway 144
Windsocks 144
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INDEX
A
Aerials and Tall Communication Masts 308
Aerial Tactics Areas 312
Aerobatics 192
Aerodrome Control 245
Aerodrome Obstacles 307
Aerodrome Traffic Zones 238
Aeronautical Information (CAA), 279
Aeronautical Information Regulation And Control (AIRAC) 281
Age 378
AIC 282
Air Navigation Order 173
Airspace Div ision And Air Traffic Services In The UK 221
Air-to-Air Refueling Areas (AARA) 313
Air Traffic Services 242
Airways 226
Airworthiness 213
- Aircraft, Engine and Propeller Logbooks 215
- Insurance 217
Altimeter 323
Altimeter Setting Procedures 336
Altimeter Setting Regions 328
Altimeter Subscale Setting 323
Approach and Landing 337
Approach Control 243
Areas of Intense Air Activity (AIM) 311
Automatic Terminal Information Service (ATIS) 246
B
Banners & Towropes etc. 194
Briefing of Passengers 194
C
Captive and Free Flight Manned Balloon Sites & Kite Flying 315
Carriage of Passengers 378
Certificate of Airworthiness 213
Class A Airspace 184
Class Rating 383
Communications Failure 194
Control Area (CTA) 226
Controlled Airspace 225
Control Zone (CTR) 226
Cross-Country Flying 326
Crossing an Airway 238
D
Danger Area Activity Information Service (DAAIS) 255, 311
Danger Area Crossing Service (DACS) 311
Danger Areas 310
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INDEX
E
En-route Obstacles 307
Exceptions to low flying prohibitions 187
F
Failure of a Proficiency Check 385
Flight Manual / Pilot's Operating Handbook 216
Flight Plan 263
Flying Displays 188
Flying Experience and crediting (towards the PPL) 379
Flying Over Open Air Assemblies 186
Flying Skill Test 380
G
Gas and Oil Operations 314
Gliders 188
H
Hectopascals 323
High-tension Masts and Cables 308
L
Land-based Air Navigation Obstacles 307
Land Clear Rule 186
Landing and Taking-off 187
Lighting of En-route Obstacles 308
London and Scottish FIRs 223
London and Scottish UIRs 223
Lower Airspace 223
Low Flying Rule (Rule 5) 185
M
Markings & Registration 205
- Certificate of Registration (C of R) 205
- Change of Ownership 207
- Classification of UK Aircraft 205
- Identification Plate 207
- Nationality & Registration Marking 207
Medical Certificate 387
Medical Examinations 387
Microlight Flying Sites 315
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INDEX
N
Noise Certificate 216
Non-controlled Airfields 247
0
Obstacles 307
Offshore Obstacles 307
One Thousand Foot Rule 186
p
Permit to Fly 214
Pilot's Licence (UK National PPL)
- Medical Requirements 387
Pilot's Licence (UK NPPL) 386
Pre-Flight Information Bullet ins (PIB) 285
Q
QFE 324
QFE and QNH 324
QNH 325
Quadrantal Rule 182
R
Radiosonde Balloon Ascents 313
Regional Pressure Setting 328
Repetitive Flight Plan (RPL) 263
Right-hand Rule 193
Right of Way on the Ground (Vehicles and Aircraft) 192
Rights of Way in the Air and on Take-off and Landing 191
RT Phraseology 326
Rules of the Air 177
s
Saving Life 188
Semi-Circular Rule 183
Separation (CAA) 295
Signals For Aerodrome Traffic 352
Simulated Instrument Flights 189
Special VFR (SVFR) 184
Speed Restriction 184
Standard Pressure Setting of 1013.2 Millibars 330
State of Licence Issue 382
T
Take-off, Climb and Cruise 336
Technical Log 215
Terminal Control Area 227
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INDEX
u
UKAIP 280
UK Flight Information Service 250
- Basic Service 251
- Deconfliction Service 251
- Procedural Service 252
- Traffic Service 251
UK Military Low Flying System 312
UK Obstacles To Air Navigation, Prohibited, Restricted & Danger Areas 307
Upper Airspace 223
Upper Information Region 223
Use of Transponders 184
V
Validity of Class 2 Medical Certificate for JM PPL(A) 388
Validity of Class and Type Ratings 384
VFR Flight in the Aerodrome Circuit Pattern 248
VFR Flight Plans 269
Visual Flight Rules 178
VMC Minima for Flights Outside Controlled Airspace 179
VMC Minima for Flights Within Controlled Airspace 180
w
Walke Turbulence 297
We.ather Minima 190
We.ather Reports 190
Weight Schedule 216
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SKILLS• FOR• FLIGHT
Operatici-nal Procedures
- ~ - - - - - - - ~ ~ - - - - - - - - - - -7,--=-~·- -
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
CHAPTER 3: WINDSHEAR 27
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CHAPTER I
FLIGHT PREPARATION
AND IN - FLIGHT PROCEDURES
WIIQ,tf
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
INTRODUCTION.
All holders of a pilot's licence are required to have knowledge of basic aircraft
Operational Procedures, based on both national and international regulations.
The basis for this requirement is contained within International Civil Aviation
Organisation (ICAO) publication Annex 6 Part 2. In addition, the following subjects
are required to be studied and are included in the JAA Operational Procedures
theoretical knowledge examination:
NOISE ABATEMENT.
The Pilot in Command must not commence a flight unless he is satisfied that the
flight can be operated safely according to the following requirements:
lfalight ~
aircraft is
hired from
a flying club
for a private flight, the PIC is
responsible for planning the
flight and ensuring the weather
is suitable.
The nature of the terrain to be over-flown has been fully taken into account.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARAT/Ot-.rAND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
'MJOHl
••
CO IHYtLOH
P/C CHECKS
COMMS
NAVAJOS
INSTRUMENTS
TERRAIN
AIRWORTHINESS
REGISTERED
The mass and centre of gravity are within limits.
CofG
Any load carried is properly distributed and safely secured.
LOAD
The calculat13d performance ensures that any limitations in the Flight
PERFORMANCE Manual will niot be exceeded for take-off, climb, cruise, descent and landing
(see Figure 1.3).
MINIMA
The aeroplane will not be flown to or from an aerodrome using operating
MET
minima lower than appropriate limits.
FUEL
The PIC is familiar with all available meteorological information appropriate
PREFLIGHT to the intende1d flight (see Figure 1.4) .
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
SCT~CUIC'il'A01s-aio)/Oll>.0.( CMC>QSO
lSa.CDO'ISJX)JMlrM l1 Z,
orn,o,c:,c,cjj · - )A-
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Figure 1.4 UK and European low-level Significant Weather Charts (F215 and F415). The Pilot -in-Command has
the sole responsibility to carry
out the pre-flight checks.
Sufficient fuel, lubricants and other fluids are carried for the flight.
If the use of Air Traffic Services (ATS) is planned, the aeroplane must be equipped
with a serviceable radio and transponder with both modes 'A' and 'C'. If any part of
the flight is to be VFR or Special VFR (SVFR) within controlled airspace, VHF radio
must be carried.
The PIC is solely responsible for all of the actions above being completed correctly.
In certain circumstances he may delegate some of the actions, but if an action is
missed or incorrectly performed, the responsibility for the action remains with the
PIG.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
Prior to commencing a flight the PIG shall ensure that all crew members and
passengers are fully briefed on the location and use of the following items:
• Emergency exits.
Life Jackets.
SEATBELTS
SURVNAL EQUIPMENT
EMERGENCY EXIT
OXYGEN
FIRE EXIT
There are a number of other general points that passengers should be made aware
On any flight,
the minumum of, including availability of sick bags and the necessity of not interfering with the
(]
equipment operation of the aeroplane or causing a distraction to the pilot in flight.
carried should
comprise a first aid kit, spare PRE-FLIGHT PASSENGER BRIEFINGS ON EMERGENCY
electrical fuses and a portable
fire eKtinguisher.
SITUATIONS.
No matter what type of aircraft, large or small, whenever passengers are carried it is
essential they receive a detailed safety briefing before flight. The pilot-in~command
(PIG) is responsible for ensuring that passengers are adequately briefed. Amongst
other things, the briefing must include instruction in the location and use of applicable
emergency equipment.
All commercial transport operators are required by law to carry out appropriate
passenger briefings before flight commences. The briefing may include verbal
advice and instructions by the cabin crew, the showing of safety videos, and/or the
distribution of printed cards available to individual passengers.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
A PPL holder, as commander of his aircraft, also has a legal duty to ensure that his
passengers are properly briefed on use of emergency equipment, and how to exit
the aircraft in an emergency. This is most likely to be done verbally and might also
include advising your front seat passenger not to handle the controls unless briefed
and asked. Remind them not to rest their feet on the rudder pedals and any toe
brakes!
Although emergencies are rare, airborne emergencies may develop into a situation
where it becomes imperative to abandon further flight. If this is the case a pilot's
reaction to the emergency should be carried out with minimum risk to passengers
and in such a way as to protect the integrity of the airframe. U would obviously be
impractical and ineffective for a pilot to brief passengers on actions to take in an
emergency, while the emergency is occurring. Therefore, appropriate briefings must
be given on the ground before flight.
If the nature of the emergency is such that an en-route alternate aerodrome has to be
selected, the ATSU with which the pilot is in contact must be informed of the nature
of the emergency and assistance required using emergency RT communication
procedures (Mayday/Pan Pan). Instructions from ATC should be complied with
regarding necessary routeing and communications. An emergency situation may
rapidly deteriorate, forcing an emergency landing or a ditching. It is the responsibility
of the ATSU to alert the ground emergency services and to render all possible
assistance to the commander of the aircraft suffering the emergency.
Instructions to passengers during the emergency itself must be concise. The onset
of fear amongst passengers is probable in an emergency situation, and this may
easily lead to panic. Passengers will be reassured by calm words from the pilot about
what has happened, what is being done and what the likely outcome will be.
~ DIRECTION OF AIRCRAFT
1. Check harness Is tight
and locked.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
Certificate of Registration.
Certificate of Airworthiness.
• Certificate of Maintenance
Review.
• Certificate of Maintenance
Inspection of Release to Service.
• Individual Crew Member Licence with appropriate rating (see Figure 1. 7).
Operation of Aeroplanes.
The following paragraphs cover some
of the rules contained in the Air Naviga-
tfon Order (ANO) and applicabfe in the
---
United Kingdom.
Operations Manual.
For any public transport aeroplane
registered in the UK an operator shall
make available to each member of the
operating staff an operations manual. The
manual shall contain all such information
--
................ - -............ w.e,...
........,_. _ _ _ _ . . . . _ _ _jMJ,tftllli11-
Operator's Responsibility.
The operator of an aeroplane registered
in the UK must designate a pilot to be the
commander of the aeroplane. In addition,
the operator must satisfy himself that the
-
Figure 1. 8 CAP 393 The Air Navigation
following conditions are met: Order.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
That the aeronautical radio stations and navigation aids for the planned route
and any diversions are adequate for safe navigation of the aeroplane.
• That every place at which it is intended to take off or land are suitable for
the purpose and must be manned and suitably equipped to ensure a safe
operation at the time of use.
Towing of Gliders.
An aeroplane shall not tow a glider in flight
unless its Certificate of Airworthiness
allows it. The length of the combination
of towing aeroplane, tow rope and glider
in flight shall not exceed 150 metres.
Before take-off the commander of the
towing aeroplane shall ensure that its
performance in the actual conditions is Figure 1.9 Ensure all radio equipment
functions.
safe and that the tow rope is in good
condition and of sufficient strength. The commanders of the towing aeroplane and
the glider must agree emergency signals and procedures should it be necessary to
discontinue the tow or if the tow cannot be released.
An aeroplane in flight shall not tow any article, other than a glider, at night or when
the flight visibility is less than one nautical mile. The length of the combination of
towing aeroplane, tow rope, and article in tow, shall not exceed 150 metres.
A helicopter shall not fly at any height over a congested area of a city, town or
settlement at any time when an article, person or animal is suspended from the
helicopter.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
Nothing shall prohibit picking up or raising of any person in an emergency or for the
purpose of saving life (e.g. a helicopter on a rescue operation).
Dropping of Persons.
A person shall not drop, be dropped , be permitted to drop or jump from an aeroplane
in flight so as to endanger persons or property. The CAA may grant written permission
or under the terms of a Police Air Operators Certificate for persons to be dropped
or jump from an aeroplane to the ground in the UK. Parachuting may be permitted
by the CAA providing the Certificate of Airworthiness includes provision for it and
a parachuting manual is available to every employee or person who is or may be
engaged in parachuting activities conducted by the operator.
ICAO Annex 18 and the Technical Instructions contain the standards and
recommended practices for the transport of dangerous goods by air.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
Passenger baggage must not contain such items as fireworks, flammable household
liquids, corrosive oven or drain cleaners, flammable gas or liquid lighter refills or
camping gas stove cylinders, matches and bleaching powders.
Some examples of goods which may be included in crew or passenger hand luggage,
or carried on the person are: non-radioactive medicinal or toilet articles (including
aerosols), cardiac pacemakers, medical/clinical thermometer, carbon dioxide, solid
carbon dioxide (dry ice), alcoholic beverages, hydrocarbon powered gas curlers and
safety matches or a lighter with fuel/fluid fully absorbed in a solid for individual use.
The full list of dangerous goods which are prohibited from carriage in aircraft is too
extensive for PPL licence study but it is very important to pay close attention to what
you are carrying on your aeroplane and to be aware that dangerous goods cou Id
prove to be more dangerous in a light aeroplane than in a commercial jet. Particular
attention must be paid to the carriage and use of a number of electronic devices such
as games, personal stereos, radios, llaptop and computers. Anything which has a
transmitting capability, such as a mobile phone or wireless laptop, must be prohibited
from usage in an aircraft at any time.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
Drunkenness in Aeroplanes.
A person must not enter an aeroplane when drunk, or be in a state of drunkenness on
any aeroplane. A person acting as an aeroplane crew member must not be under the
influence of alcohol or drugs such that his capacity to perform their duty is impaired.
For pilots and crew members, JAR OPS specifies a maximum blood-alcohol limit
of 20 milligrams of alcohol per 100 millilitres of blood (the UK driving limit is 80
milligrams per 100 millilitres).
Smoking in Aeroplanes.
A notice displaying when and where
smoking is prohibited shall be exhibited
in every aeroplane registerecf in the UK
so as to be visible from each passenger
seat. Illuminated "No Smoking" signs
must be obeyed at all times and no
person shall smoke in any compartment
where smoking is prohibited.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
This regulation may not seem relevant to the type of flying undertaken by the holder
of a PPL but disruptive behaviour remains a possibility. Therefore awareness and
vigilance should always be exercised.
Stowaways. Flying
An operator of any aeroplane shall take all necessary precautions to prevent a person Displays:
from stowing away on the aeroplane.
The CAA must
be consulted.
Flying Displays.
The Civil Aviation Authority (CAA) must be consulted and their written permission giveni Pilot requires authorisation/
before any person organises a flying display. Any pilot who participates in a flyingI permission.
display must hold a display authorisation and ensure that the necessary permissiont
has been granted for the display. The pilot must comply with any conditions subjec1t
to which the authorisation was given .
2ol00
"'Nl~-4-4----+--1,;..4- 2300 ~
~ -+-l-+-+--+--+-+-- 2200 R
1,c.+.4-11-1--4--1--1--1--.-- 2100 C
R
183,. .-i---.--,e-+-+-t--t--+--- 2000 A
l-+--r-11-i-+-+--l-+-+--I-- 1900 f
l-l--+4-+-1-1--+-+-+-+-- 1800 T
-~-t-t--1-r-_,_,_ _ 1700 W
-1-1--t-t-;-,,-,...- - 1&00 ~
\-1--1-t--l-t-+-l--+-f-+-- - 1500 O
l-+-T"'HH-1-1-1-t-l'"-- 1ol00 ~
\-HI-+-¼-+-+-++++- - 1300 lb
~~=~--- - 1200
Figure 1. 12 C of G envelope for a typical light aeroplane.
The PIC is responsible that the mass of the aeroplane, calculated prior to start-up,
does not exceed any structural limitations or performance limitations for the aeroplane.
In making the calculations, the following factors must be taken into account:
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
The temperature.
Where there is an aircraft operating limitation to be complied with, this limitation must
be displayed to the pilot in the cockpit in the form of a placard or a list, or included in
the instrument display. It is vitally important that no limitation should be exceeded.
NOISE ABATEMENT.
General Principles .
.All aircraft except certain classes of exempted aircraft e.g. certain STOL aircraft,
require a noise certificate to certify that they comply with applicable standards in
relation to noise pollution.
Noise generated by aeroplanes of any size, power or mass has the potential to
seriously affect the environment. It is, therefore, necessary for pilots of any licence
category to be aware of this factor and to keep the noise nuisance to a minimum while
ensuring safe flight operations. There are numerous noise sensitive areas containing
such institutions as hospitals, schools, nursing homes and private residences etc.
which should be avoided where possible. Large and frequent changes of engine
power contribute to significant noise levels distributed over long distances. An
aerodrome with numerous traffic movements, including circuit training flights will
constitute a significant noise nuisance to the surrounding area. Training flights
involving manoeuvres such as stalling and aerobatics will require frequent changes
of engine power, thus increasing intrusive noise levels.
There are strict recommendations and procedures for commercial jet transport
designed to address the reduction of noise levels at aerodromes and in surrounding
areas.
Light aircraft must observe the low flying rules and should keep training circuits within
the required boundaries. Training flights may be restricted to certain hours during
which aircraft noise would have least impact. Take-off and landing procedures may
also be adapted to reduce noise pollution. Figure 1.13 shows an example of noise
abatement procedures for circuit flying at an airfield.
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
ve
Rwy 06/24
Taogn,n
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
• Use of noise preferential runways to direct the initial and final approach paths
away from any noise sensitive areas.
Pilots must be aware that the PIC has at all times the authority to decide not to
execute a noise abatement procedure if to do so would endanger his aircraft or
persons or property on the ground.
Pilots should especially bear in mind that on specific routes for the take-off and climb,
they should not be required to execute turns until the aircraft has reached 500 feet
above terrain , or above the highest obstacle under the flight path.
On noise-preferential routes, when a turn is executed , pilots should limit bank angles
to 15° except where adequate provision is made for an acceleration phase, permitting
the aircraft to attain a flying speed at which it is safe to select a bank angle greater
than 15°.
MAINTENANCE.
'i"i> The
~ Certificate of Responsibilities.
Airworthiness
It is the responsibility of the owrner or, if the aircraft is leased, the operator, to ensure
(C of A) must be valid and
current before an aircraft can that the aeroplane is maintained in an airworthy condition in accordance with a
to operated. system acceptable to the Authority of the State in which the aircraft is registered.
All operational and emergency equipment necessary for any intended flight must
be serviceable and all maintenance must be carried out in accordance with a
maintenance programme accepted by the authority.
The aeroplane cannot be operated unless it has a valid and current Certificate
of Airworthiness, and is maintained and released to service in accordance with a
maintenance system acceptable to the responsible Authority (See Figure 1.14).
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
Maintenance Records.
It is vitally important that records of all maintenance carried out on an aircraft should be
recorded and documented as recommended by ICAO. The relevant documentation
includes records of the total service hours of the aeroplane and all life-limited
components and details of all modifications and repairs made to the aircraft.
Tlhe current status of compliance with the maintenance programme and all mandatory
matters affecting the airworthiness must be shown.
Aeroplane component parts must have their total hours in service recorded , as well
as the date of last inspection and frequency of inspection cycles.
Any modifications and repairs must be accept able to the State of Registry and must
be recorded.
CERTIFICATE OF AIRWORTHINESS
~N~
041826/007
United Kingdom
Civil Aviation Authority
, lolln•tldwer-~el-
PIPER AIRCRAFT CORPORATION
,_ ___
28-1116190
·~ PIPER PA--28-161
- ""~--
Normal and Utllll;Y Category Aeroplane
5. ThloC..-ol_lt_lUMIIIIICllllle~on--CMA_,_,...._,... _ __,(EC)No
1aa2J2002. Mdl &Q)(cl 1n ,..o1u.-llWllonld amlll'OllldlllODNidll9d IDbl ~"'*' .........,.., 01**! .. - -
...,.
ON
.,. ~""'"
ol lUuo.2S March 2008
A---Ce--be-CII. .
, .n.c....e1 _ _ _ _ _ ..,... _...,....., .......,_,....,....,_
~
Maintenance Release.
Before a flight can commence, maintenance documentation release must be
completed and signed certifying that any required maintenance work has been
completed satisfactorily. Maintenance release documentation should include:
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
The CAA document CAP 393 - the Air Navigation Order (ANO) contains offences and
penalties concerning Aviation Law applicable in the United Kingdom. Contravention
of a requirement in the ANO is a criminal offence subject to prosecution.
Making any false representation for the purpose of obtaining the grant, issue,
renewal or variat ion of any
certificate, licence, approval or
other document required by the
CM.
In the UK, an aeroplane shall not fly unless it carries certain documents required by
the ANO. Specific documents must be produced by an aeroplane commander within
a reasonable time, if requested by an authorised person. The documents include:
Under the ANO pilots are required to keep a personal flying log book and may be
required to produce it withiin a reasonable time to an authorised person within 2 years
of the last entry in the log book.
These regulations and offences may seem a bit daunting. Bear in mind however, that
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CHAPTER 1: FLIGHT PREPARATION AND IN-FLIGHT PROCEDURES
the CAA is not looking to prosecute pilots unnecessarily but to protect against neglect
and recklessness by those who fly in, or are associated with, aeroplanes.
OFFENCES.
The ANO, in Article 241 and Schedule 13, lists the offences (over 100) which can be
committed for breaches of the Order.
There are three levels of seriousness, reflected by the gravity of the sentence. For
example, if a pilot fails to keep accurate logbooks under Article 22 of the ANO, he is
guilty of an offence which has a maximum penalty of a £2500 fine. Flying without a
current licence can attract imprisonment of up to 2 years. Endangering an aircraft
carries a penalty of up to 5 years imprisonment. Conviction of any of these offences
could lead to the loss of one's licence.
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CHAPTER2
AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS
AND EQUIPMENT
STOWED OPERATING
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CHAPTER 2: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
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CHAPTER 2: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
This chapter contains details of the minimum instrumentation with which an aircraft
should be fitted, and the minimum equipment to be carried in the aircraft. In general,
the instruments and equipment fit dealt with in this clnapter is the minimum required
for the issue of a Certificate of Airworthiness (C of A). The official regulations for the
issue of a C of A must be consulted, and complied with at all times.
We should remind ourselves thatthe minimum equipment fit is the ICAO recommended
minimum, and that, ultimately, the operator must comply with instrument and
equipment regulations approved and accepted by the State of Registry.
INSTRUMENTS.
An aeroplane's instrument fit must enable the flight crew to operate the aeroplane
within the constraints of the operating limitations, in the expected operating
conditions.
EQUIPMENT.
It is recommended that all aeroplanes on all flights shall be equipped with the following
equipment, charts and documents:
• A seat belt or harness for each seat and a child-restraint device for every
child under the age of 2 years.
Current and suitable charts must be carried for each flight, including charts
relevant to any possible diversion.
Interception procedures.
Spare electrical fuses of the appropriate rating for replacing fuses accessible
in flight.
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CHAPTER 2: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
Whilst it is unlikely that aeroplanes flown by PPL holders will require break-in areas,
it is a requirement that the holder has knowledge of this provision. ICAO states that,
if, following an accident or incident, normal access into the interior of the aeroplane
is prevented, an area must be identified through which access can be gained. This
area is to be identified as an externally marked break in area, on the fuselage with
rectangular lines coloured red or yellow and with a white outline. If the corners of the
rectangle are more than 2m apart, intermediate lines of 9cm x 3cm shall be inserted,
coloured red or yellow with a white outline.
VFR FLIGHTS.
All aeroplanes on flights in accordance with Visual Flight Rules (VFR) shall be
equipped with:
• A magnetic compass.
IFR FLIGHTS.
If the intention is to operate in accordance with the Instrument Flight Rules (IFR),
or in Instrument Meteorological Conditions (IMC) the aeroplane shall be equipped
with:
• A magnetic compass.
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CHAPTER 2: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
Lifejackets.
If a single engine aeroplane is operated over water beyond gliding distance from the
shore, it should be equipped with a lifejacket for each person on board. A lifejacket
should be stowed in a position which is easily accessible from the seat of the person
who will use it.
Lifejackets.
All aeroplanes operated over water at
a distance of more than 93 km (50 nm)
away from land shall be equipped with
a lifejacket for each person on board
stowed in a position easily accessible
from their occupied position .
Liferafts.
Life saving rafts able to carry all persons
on board must be carried when a single
engine aeroplane is intended to be
operated more than 185 km (100 nm)
from land , or a multi-engined aeroplane
is more than 370 km (200 nm) from WebblngW.latbelt
land. The rafts must be equipped
with pyrotechnic distress signals and
Fig ure 2. 1 Life Jacket.
survival equipment.
Where a state has designated a land area as one in which search and rescue would
be especially difficult, an aeroplane shall be equipped with such signalling devices
and life saving equipment appropriate to the area overflown, e.g . polar and desert
areas.
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CHAPTER 2: AEROPLANE INSTRUMENTS AND EQUIPMENT
NIGHT OPERATION.
When an aeroplane is operated at night it shall be equipped with all of the equipment
detailed for flight in IFR (above) plus a landing light, illumination for all essential flight
instruments and equipment, lights in the passenger compartment and an electric
torch at each crew member's station.
STOWED OPERATING
Figure 2.2 Example of an Emergency
Locator Transmitter.
The Air Navigation Order (ANO) (Schedules 4 and 5) contains details of minimum
equipment fit in respect of aeroplanes registered in the UK which vary according to
aircraft mass, type of operations and C of A category.
For PPL holders, requirements for unpressurised aeroplanes are the most relevant.
As an example, when flying below flight level 100 - there is no requirement for pilots
of light aircraft to be supplied with supplementary Oxygen, but when flying above FL
100 but not exceeding FL 120 there must be a supply of Oxygen for all members of
the flight crew for any period.
The UK ANO also stipulates that aeroplanes flying for purposes other than public
transport are to carry a number of spare fuses for all electrical circuits. The
requirement is for 10% of the number of fuses of each rating or three of each rating,
whichever is the greater.
Maps, charts, codes and any other documents and navigation equipment required
for a sortie, including any diversiions, must be carried in the aircraft.
Before any flight, it is the PIC's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly
equipped for the planned flight. If there is any doubt, the PIC should consult the
minimum equipment list.
On any flight, the minimum safety equipment that must be carried is: a first-aid kit, a
fire extinguisher, and spare electrical fuses.
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CHAPTER3
WINDSHEAR
C Energy loss
Desired • Increasing tailwind
• Airspeed still falling
Glide
• Rate of descent increasing
P ath
• Successful recovery depends
on power.height and speed
reserves available
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CHAPTER3:WINDSHEAR
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CHAPTER3:WINDSHEAR
WINDS HEAR.
Low altitude windshear is a major hazard to light aircraft. The effects of windshear
in the take-off, approach and landing phases of flight have been responsible for
numerous accidents to light aircraft.
The aim of this chapter is that the pilot should learn the definitions of windshear,
where and when to expect windshear, and what actions should be taken to avoid or
counter windshear.
DEFINITIONS.
Windshear may be defined as variations in wind speed and/or direction along
an aircraft's flight path which may displace an aircraft abruptly from its flight
Windshear is
path and which may require substantial control inputs to counter it.
defined as a
change in
Low Altitude Windshear is defined as windshear on the final approach path or along wind speed and/or direction
the runway, and on the take-off and initial climb-out flight paths. over a relatively shorl distance.
20 kts
10 kts
Vertical Windshear is defined as a change of wind speed and/or direction with height.
(See Figure 3.1.)
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CHAPTER3:WINDSHEAR
If the aircraft is close to the ground, a heavy landing or undershoot, or both, can
occur. In extreme cases, such a situation may lead to a serious impact with the
ground.
When vertical
30 kt
windshear is
present on
the approach, APPROACH ATTITUDE
Height 300 ft
..
the pilot must take care not to Indicated Air Speed 75 kt
let his airspeed decay, or the Ground Speed 45 kt
aircraft may lose height faster
than planned, and undershoot
the desired touch-down point.
• • • •• • • . ~ 10 kl
The pilot must, therefore, always be aware of weather and wind conditions which
may give rise to windshear. He must also know the symptoms of windshear, and
how to react to the effects of windshear if he has been unsuccessful in avoiding it.
The main problem facing a pilot whose aircraft encounters low-level windshear is
the very fact that he may be low with little height in which to recover, if things go
badly wrong. And , of course, the average light aircraft does not have a lot of power
to counter the effects of windshear. Consequently, it is of supreme importance that
airspeed be constantly monitored, and not allowed to decay.
Let us now look at some of the causes of windshear:-
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CHAPTER3: WINDSHEAR
E-i<·h,,IM·Vi:Jul~
Possible Roll
Cloud Formation
,. =-:~
. -··-
Figure 3.4A gust front associated with a cumulonimbus thundercloud.
Microburst.
A microburst is a highly concentrated and powerful downdraught of air, typically less
than 2 nautical miles across, which lasts for about 1 to 5 minutes. Microbursts are
the most lethal form of windshear with downdraught speeds of 60 knots or more.
Tlhere have been a number of fatal accidents to large commercial aircraft caused by
microbursts on the final approach.
Figure 3 .5 depicts how a light aircraft on apprnach to land, caught in the windshear
from a microburst, may be forced below the planned glide-path, because of the
effects of windshear on airspeed and rate of descent.
Frontal Passage.
Fronts vary in strength. It is normally only well-developed, active fronts, with narrow
frontal zones and marked temperature differences, which are likely to carry the risk
of windshear.
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CHAPTER3:WINDSHEAR
On a weather chart, a pilot should look for fronts with sharp changes in wind direction
across the front. The pilot should also note that temperature differences of 5°C or
more across a front, or a front moving with a speed of 30 knots or more, may indicate
a potential windshear hazard.
Inversion.
A low-level temperature inversion may develop and separate the stronger upper air-
flow from slower moving air near the surface, giving rise to windshear at the inversion
boundary. These inversions tend to form on clear nights.
Low-Level Turbulence.
Low-level turbulence within the friction layer can lead to windshear because of:
• Strong surface winds leading to pronounced gusts and lulls.
Thermal turbulence caused by intense solar heating.
Topographical Windshear.
Topographical windshear is of two principal types. It may be caused by friction
between the lower wind and the ground, leading to a marked decrease in wind speed
as the surface is approached through the lower 1 000 feet, or so. (See Figure 3.3.)
Topographical windshear is also caused by natural or man-made features, such as
hills or buildings, which change the direction and speed of the wind blowing over
them; under certain conditions, 'rotor streaming' (vortices) may occur downwind of
ridges or large hills, sometimes visible as roll cloud. Larger airport buildings adjacent
to runways, as well as lines of trees, can create local windshear during both the final
approach and initial departure.
• If the pilot is on the ground, he should stay there until the windshear has
abated.
If you wish to learn more about low-level windshear, the United Kingdom CAA
currently produces an Aviation Information Circular on the subject, AIC Number
19/2002 (pink 28).
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CHAPTER4
CONTROLLED FLIGHT
INTO TERRAIN
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CHAPTER 4: CONTROLLED FLIGHT INTO TERRAIN
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CHAPTER 4: CONTROLLED FLIGHT INTO TERRAIN
DEFINITION.
The expression "Controlled Flight Into Terrain" (CFiT) describes a situation in which
an airworthy aircraft, under the control of the pilot, is inadvertently flown into terrain,
water or obstacles with the pilot, at all times, being unaware of the approaching
disaster. CFiT can theoretically occur during most phases of flight, but is more
common during the approach and landing phase.
From the previous definition, you will see that CFiT is a category of aircraft accident
which would mainly involve a pilot flying on instruments in Instrument Meteorological
Conditions (IMC), when there are no external visual references. However, a VFR
pilot who becomes disorientated in low visibility Visual Meteorological Conditions
(VMC), or who inadvertently flies into IMC, will also run the risk of a CFiT accident;
therefore we have judged that the inclusion on CFiT is relevant for the private VFR
pilot.
CONTRIBUTORY ERRORS.
Tlhere are three main errors which contribute to CFiT accidents gathered from
statistical data, they are:-
DECISION ERRORS.
Skill based errors can occm because of lapses in basic flying skills, such as:
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CHAPTER 4: CONTROLLED FLIGHT INTO TERRAIN
ERRORS OF PERCEPTION.
• Spatial disorientation/vertigo.
• Misjudged altitude.
Visual illusion.
To highlight some of the errors which contribute to CFiT, the following summaries are
offered for your consideration.
• A pilot encounters weather conditions that are worse than forecast and, in an
attempt to maintain or regain visual contact with the ground, in an area of low
cloud and dense fog, descends, and the aircraft strikes the ground.
CFiT AVOIDANCE.
The means used to avoid CFiT can be grouped into two main categories: aircraft
equipment and education/training. Investigations of CFiT accidents indicated that
many of them would have been avoided if some form of terrain warning system or
improved navigation systems had been available.
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CHAPTER 4: CONTROLLED FLIGHT INTO TERRAIN
The Ground Proximity Warning System (GPWS) is designed to warn a pilot if there is
a danger that his aircraft may fly into the ground.
The GPWS monitors an aircraft's height above the ground based on information
from a radio altimeter. The GPWS computer constantly interprets this information ,
calculates trends, and w ill if the aircraft arrives in a dangerous position, or if its rate
of descent is excessive, the GPWS will issue visual and audio warnings.
The various situations in to which the GPWS will respond, with typical warning
messages, are:
The basic GPWS does have limitations, though. Being based on readings from
a radio altimeter, the system can gather data only from directly below the aircraft.
Distant terrain features can not be recognised. Therefore if the nature of terrain
changes abruptly, for instance if terrain elevation were to increase suddenly, basic
GPWS may not detect aircraft closure rate until it is too late for the pilot to take
evasive action.
TRAINING.
How can we best help ourselves? Before setting out on any flight, pilots should:
Prepare thoroughly.
• Assess the weather accurately, en-route, and at the destination and alternate
aerodromes.
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CHAPTER 4: CONTROLLED FLIGHT INTO TERRAIN
Know and remain within their own limitations of qualifications and skill.
Ensure that they have enough fuel for the sortie, including all contingency
fuel.
Be prepared to divert if there is any doubt about their being able to land
safely at the destination aerodrome.
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CHAPTERS
SEARCH AND RESCUE
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
Organisation.
Under ICAO recommended practices, it is a requirement that a contracting state
should provide and establish search and rescue services within their own territory on
a 24 hour basis. The territorial boundaries should, where possible, coincide with the
corresponding Flight Information Regions (FIR). There will be some areas which are
not so easily defined, in which case the rescue services will be determined on the
basis of any regional air navigation requirements. Where assistance is provided it
must be provided to all aircraft and survivors of any accident regardless of the state
of origin of the aircraft.
Alerting Post.
A unit designated to receive information from the general public regarding aeroplanes
in distress or urgency, and to forward the information to the associated Rescue
Coordination Centre. The Alert
Phase is
Uncertainty Phase. a situation
wherein
A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aeroplane and its
apprehension exists as to the
occupants. safety of an aeroplane and its
occupants.
Alert Phase.
A situation wherein apprehension exists as to the safety of an aeroplane and its
occupants.
The Distress
Distress Phase. Phase is
A situation wherein there is a reasonable certainty that an aeroplane and its occupants a situation
are threatened by grave and/or imminent danger or require medical assistance. wherein there
is a reasonable certainty
Ditching. that an aeroplane and its
The forced landing of an aeroplane on water. occupants are threatened by
grave and imminent danger or
require medical assistance.
Emergency Phase.
A generic term referring to the uncertainty phase, alert phase or distress phase.
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
AlERTING PHASES.
Alert Phases: There are three phases of alert used where there is concern for the safety of an
aeroplane and its occupants. They are known as Uncertainty, Alert and Distress
• Uncertainty. phase.
• Ale.rt. One or more of the Alerting Phases may be declared when there is reason for concern
about the safety of an aircraft or of its occupants. Pl Cs should, however, always be
• Distress.
aware that an Alerting Phase may be declared unnecessarily if pilots omit to close
a flight plan on arrival at their destination, to inform Air Traffic Control that they have
diverted from their flight plans, or even failed to report a change of radio frequency.
The main factors of the three alerting phases are summarised here.
UNCERTAINTY PHASE.
or when
ALERT PHASE.
responsibility Information has been received which indicates that the operating efficiency of
for alerting the necessary the aeroplane has been impaired, but not to the extent that a forced landing
Search and Rescue Units I/es is likely,
with the Rescue Coordination
Centre. or
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
DISTRESS PHASE.
or when
or when
or when
Operating Procedures.
When an aeroplane is believed to be in distress, or when an alert phase exists, the
Rescue Coordination Ce ntre (RCC) shall initiate a predetermined action plan. This
will involve trying to locate the aeroplane, conveying and reporting developments
of operations to the operator, notifying associated air traffic services and adjacent
RCC's, and notifying the State of Registry and accident investigation authorities.
Additionally, the RCC will inform any nearby aeroplanes or vessels of the situation
and request them to listen out on the emergency frequency and to assist where
possible. When the first aeroplane to reach the scene is not a Search and Rescue
aeroplane the PIC will take charge of any on-scene activity until such time as a
Search and Rescue Unit arrives.
Whilst pilots of civil aeroplanes are not generally involved in Search and Rescue
operations, it is a requirement that the procedures by wlnich help and assistance may
be given to an aircraft in distress should be understood by all parties.
When the PIC of an aeroplane observes that another vehicle, vessel or aircraft is
in distress he should keep it in sight as long as it is practicable and safe to do so.
Where possible the PIC should report details to the RCC or the ATSU with which he
is in contact, and then act as instructed by them. The important details to report are
the type of craft in distress, its identification, condition, geographical position and the
time of observation. The PIC should also report on any observed survivors who have
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
V Require Assistance
N No or Negative
y Yes or Affirmative
AIR-TO-GROUND SIGNALS.
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
L Operatio,n completed
If a
component
Information received that aircraft is in this direction.
~~
detaches from
an aircraft
in flight and seriously injures
A person's ~
Figure 5.1 b Distress signals - ground to air for use by rescue teams. death from
natural causes
while on board
To convey that any ground signals have been understood the following signals are an aircraft is NOT classified as
used by aeroplanes: an accident.
• During the hours of daylight by rocking the aeroplane's wings The /CAO
definition of
• During the hours of darkness by flashing on and off, twice, the aeroplane's an aircraft
landing lights or, if not equipped with landing lights, by switching on and off, accident
twice, its navigation lights. includes death or serious
Injury to persons on the
ground as a result of parts
AEROPLANE ACCIDENT INVESTIGATION. becoming detached from
the aeroplane, or from direct
DEFINITIONS. exposure to jet blasts.
If an aircraft
Accident to Person.
accident
The ICAO defines an accident as an occurrence associated with the operation of an occurs in
aeroplane, which takes place between the time any person boards the aeroplane the United
with the intention of flight until such time as all such persons have disembarked, in Kingdom, ft must be reporlE1d
which a person is fatally or seriously injured as a result of being in or in direct contact by the quickest means
with any part of the aeroplane. Included in this definition is death or serious injury as available to the local Police
a result of parts becoming detached from the aeroplane or from direct exposure to and the Chief Inspector of; ir
jet blasts. Not included in this definition are death from natural causes, self inflicted Accidents.
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
injuries, injuries caused by other persons, or injuries to stowaways who are outside
of normal areas reserved for passengers and crew.
If an aircraft accident occurs in the United Kingdom, it must be reported by the by the
quickest means available to the local Police and the Chief Inspector of Air Accidents.
If an aircraft has an accident at a licensed airfield, it is tlhe responsibility of the Pilot in
Command to report the accident.
Accident to Aircraft.
An accident to an aircraft is defined as the aeroplane sustaining damage or structural
failure which will adversely affect the structural strength, performance or the flight
characteristics of the .aeroplane. The consequence of such an accident may be that
major repair or replacement of aeroplane structure or component s are required.
Not included in this definition are engine failures or damage limited to the engine,
cowlings or accessories, propellers, wing tips, antennas, tyres, brakes and small
holes or dents in the aeroplane skin. An accident is also defined as the aeroplane
being missing or completely inaccessible.
Aircraft Incident.
An incident is defined as an occurrence, other than an accident, associated with the
operation of an aircraft which affects, or could affect, the safety of operation of the
aircraft.
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
The State of Occurrence should comply with any request submitted by the State
of Registry, Design or Manufacture that the aeroplane's contents and any other
evidence be left undisturbed pending inspection. Such request will not prevent the
aeroplane being moved in the event that persons, animals, mail or valuables have 1to
be removed , or if there is a danger of fire, or if the aeroplane is causing an obstruction
to air navigation or to the public.
NOTIFICATION.
The ICAO, when the aeroplane involved is of maximum mass of over 2 250
kg.
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CHAPTER 5: SEARCH AND RESCUE
INVESTIGATION.
State of Occurrence.
When there is an accident or serious incident, the State of Occurrence is responsible
for instituting an investigation or delegating part or all of the investigation to another
state, by mutual arrangement and consent. When the whole investigation is
delegated to another state, that state is to conduct the whole investigation including
the issuance of a final report. If only part of the investigation is delegated, the State
of Occurrence is responsible for the investigation and final report.
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OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
- ~
QUESTIONS
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'
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
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OF?ERATIONAL
-..,, -· - PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
a. must ensure before departure that his pilot's licence has been
validated by the foreign state
b. must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is
current and that he holds a type rating for the aircraft
c. must have ensured that all necessary and relevant documentation is
carried on board the aircraft, including the Certificate ofAirworthiness,
that the aircraft is in an airworthy condition and that it is correctly
registered
d. must be satisfied that the aircraft's Certificate of Airworthiness is
current, that he holds a type rating for the aircraft, and that he has
passed an Air Law examination set by the foreign state
2. In level flight at night, from your aircraft, you see an anti-collision beacon and
a red navigation light. The lights are at the same altitude as yourself and are
steady at 2 o' clock and closing. This indicates that there is:
a. 1 000 feet above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight
path
b. 500 feet above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight path
c. 1 500 feet above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight
path
d. 2 000 feet above terrain or the highest obstacles under the flight
path
4. The Air Navigation Order states that a person shall not recklessly or negligently
act in a manner likely to endanger an aircraft or any person therein. To whom
does this apply?
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'
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
a. Certificate of Registration
b. Certificate of Airworthiness
c. Flight crew licences
d. Flight crew birth certificates
6. A light aircraft is hired from a flying club for a private flight; the person
responsible for planning the flight and ensuring that the weather is suitable
is:
a. the CFI
b. the Operations Manager
c. the PIC
d. the duty instructor
8. In establishing noise preferential routes, bank angles for turns after take-off
should be limited:
a. Urgency phase
b. Uncertainty phase
c. Alert phase
d. Distress phase
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'
OF?ERATIONAL
-..,, -· - PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
a. provided for all aircraft being given an air traffic control service and,
insofar as is practicable, to all other aircraft having filed a flight plan
or otherwise known to the air traffic services, and also to any aircraft
known to be the subject of unlawful interference
b. the provision of navigation and weather warnings to pilots in flight
c. specifically for the provision of search and rescue services
d only provided for aircraft on an IFR flight plan
a. V
b. N
c. R
d. y
12. At the scene of an aircraft accident, a survivor has made a ground signal
showing a large cross with angles of 90° between the arms of the cross.
What does this mean?
13. Before departure the commander of an aircraft must brief all passengers on
the:
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'
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
An accident must be reported rif, between the time that anyone boards an
aircraft to go flying and until everyone has left it:
18. It is the pilot's responsibility to ensure that the aircraft is properly equipped
for the planned flight. If there is any doubt the pilot should consult the:
a. Certificate of Airworthiness
b. Certificate of Maintenance Review
c. Minimum Equipment List
d. Pilot's Operating Handbook
19. On any flight the minimum safety equipment that must be carried is:
a. first aid kit, fire axe, portable oxygen for all on board and a fire
extinguisher
b. first aid kit, spare electrical fuses and a portable fire extinguisher
c. first aid kit, life jackets for all on board and a fire extinguisher
d. first aid kit, smoke hoods and a fire extinguisher
20. Which of the following is correct with reference to which aircraft require a
noise certificate and which are exempt?
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OF?ERATIONAL
-..,, -· - PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
a. Hydroplaning
b. Ditching
c. Surfing
d. Skimming
22. A situation wherein uncertainty exists as to the safety of an aircraft and its
occupants is:
a. Distress phase
b. Alert phase
c. Uncertainty phase
d. Emergency phase
25. In a situation where concern for the safety of an aircraft and its occupants
exists (alert phase), responsibility for alerting the necessary search and
rescue units lies with:
26. To indicate that assistance is required , survivors would use which of the
following signals from the Ground to Air Emergency Code?
a. X
b. V
C. g
d. R
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OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
27. If a component becomes detached from an aircraft in flig ht, seriously injuring
someone on the ground , but not affecting the continuation of the aircraft's
flight, how would I CAO define thiis occurrence?
a. An aircraft accident
b. An aircraft incident
c. An occurrence to be reported
d. A fortuitous occurrence
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer
Question 25 26 27
Answer
The answers to these questions can be found at the end of this book.
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OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES SYLLABUS
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
The table below contains the principal topics and subtopics from the current outline
syllabus for the theoretical examination in Operational Procedures for the Private
Pilot's Licence, as published in JAR-FCL 1. Syllabuses may be modified, so always
check the latest examination documentation from your national civil aviation
authority, or from JAR-FCUEASA.
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES
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ANSWERS TO THE OPERATIONAL
PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
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ANSWERS TO THE OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
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ANSWERS TO THE OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
Question 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12
Answer C C b d d C d C a C C a
Question 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20 21 22 23 24
Answer C b C d C d b a b C C C
Question 25 26 27
Answer a b a
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ANSWERS TO THE OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES QUESTIONS
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INDEX
Index
A
Aeroplane Instruments and Equipment 23
Air-to-Ground Srignals 44
Alerting Post 41
Allert Phase 41
Authority of the Commander 12
C
Carriage of Dangerous Goods 10
Carriage of Weapons 10
Certificates and Documentation 8
Contravention of Aviation Regulations 18
Controlled Flight Into Terrain 35
D
Distress Phase 41
Ditching 41
Dropping of Articles and Animals 10
Dropping of Persons 10
E
Emergency Break-in Marking 24
Emergency Locator Transmitter (ELT) 26
Emergency Phase 41
Endangering Safety of Aeroplanes 12
Endangering Safety of any Person or Property 12
Equipment 23
F
Flight Preparation 3
Flying Displays 13
G
Ground-Air Visual Signal Code 44
IFR Flights 24
Instruments 23
L
Lifejackets 25
Liferafts 25
M
Maintenance 16
Maintenance Release 17
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INDEX
0
Operation of Radio 9
Operator's Responsibility 8
p
Performance and Operating Limitations 13
Pre-flight Passenger Briefings 6
Pre-flight Passenger Safety Briefing 6
R
Rescue Coordination Centre 41
s
Search and Rescue 41
Search and Rescue Region 41
Smoking in Aeroplanes 12
Stowaways 13
T
Towing of Gliders 9
u
Uncertainty Phase 41
V
VFR Flights 24
w
Windshear 29
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Air Law forp,tots
International Air Law • UK Air Law . Operational Procedures
This book on Air Law and Operational Prooiedures is suitable for
Titles in this Series
student pilots training for the JAR-FCUEASA Pilot's Licence to PPL
level and beyond, and also for students w ,rking towards the UK 1. Air Law
NPPL.
2. Human Performance
Pilots who hold a JAR-FCUEASA Pilot's Lice ce are entitled to fly in
the sovereign airspace of many nations, n tably in the airspace 3. Navigation
which falls under regulations laid down by he European Aviation
Safety Agency (EASA). So, in order to opera~ effectively and safely 4. Meteorology
wherever they fly, pilots must be familiar ~ ith both national and
international Air Law. 5. Principles of Flight
For the convenience of the student, this boo presents International 6. Aeroplanes
(ICAO) Air Law and United Kingdom Air Law i separate sections.
7. Radiotelephony
s ~~1 ®
Ox~ord
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