13.

1
1. An anti-balance tab is called an anti-servo tab in the USA
2. These tabs move in the same direction as the surface (hence they are sometimes called ‘leading’
tabs)
3. How does a balance tab move? In the opposite direction proportional to the control surface it is
attached to
4. Speed brakes are a type of flight control used to? reduce speed
5. During flight. Speed brakes differ from spoilers in that speed brakes are designed to? increase drag
while making little change to lift
6. ruder
7. if the spoiler is deployed on the left wing ?….so it will cause roll the aircraft to the right
8. The longitudinal axis of an airplane extends lengthwise through the fuselage, and rotation about this
axis, or banking, is controlled by the ailerons
9. Pitch up is cause decreasing horizontal stabilizer incidence in an all-moving horizontal stabilizer model
10. How does a delta wing aircraft move about the pitch and roll axis? Elevons
11. Elevons Operate symmetrically as elevator. Operate asymmetrically as ailerons
12. An adjustable trim tab on the elevator can trim the airplane so it will fly hands-off at any airspeed
13. Spoilers sometimes could be used? instead of ailerons
14. If the left aileron goes down and the right aileron goes up the aeroplane will? roll to the right
15. The aircraft nose up ,the leading edge of an all moving tail plane is? moved down
16. The ruddervator (rudder and elevator combined)
17. What do ruddervators do? Control pitch and yaw
18. Helicopter's main rotor blade is sometimes tapered from root to tip to? equalize lift along the blade
19. (Helicopter)The engine throttle position is usually adjusted whenever the collective lever is moved
20. (Helicopter) Movement of cyclic side stick control the pitch and roll
21. The force produced by the tail rotor of helicopter is? oppose the torque reaction.
22. Lift dumpers (also called ‘ground spoilers’ or simply ‘lift dumps’) are essentially similar to spoilers,
except that they deploy upon touch down on the runway, and include all spoiler panels for
maximum lift dump.
23. Stall warning will be given at speeds? that equal or higher than stall speed
24. if an aircraft has a tendency to yaw to the left, the rudder trim tab would be positioned to the
left, which would deflect the rudder to the right, which would yaw the aircraft nose to the right and
thus straighten the aircraft.
25. high lift devices such (or Secondary flight controls) flight spoilers and trim systems
26. The adjustable trim tab may be modified so it will? aid the pilot in moving the control
27. increasing the camber of the wing this also enlarges the wing area is ? Fowler flap
28. Slots and slats At high angles of attack, air flows through this slot from the high-pressure area below
the wing to the low-pressure area above.
29. On aircraft fitted with spoilers for lateral control, roll to the right is caused by? right spoilers
extending ,left spoilers remaining retracted.
30. A split flap increase lift by? increasing The angle of attachment of the lower hinged portion
31. Leading edge slat is a device for increasing the stalling angle of the wing
32. Plain flap does not increase the wing area on deployment

1
 13.2 Airframe Structures General Concepts
1. EASA Certification Specification (CS)−25 covers large airplanes
2. (Fail-safe design ) If one load path cracks completely through, or sustains accidental damage; the
remaining load paths carry the additional load.
3. The tension is an example of a? primary stress
4. All loads are carried by the skin in the fully monocoque
5. Stress is? the load per unit area acting on the unit.
6. Wings are either designed as cantilevers (self-carrying) or non cantilevers
7. Cantilever : A beam supported only at one end
8. As example when airplane wing is
9. hogging, the upper surface is experiencing Tension stress and the lower surface is Experiencing
compression stress.
10. Bonding is the electrical interconnection of all metal parts of an aircraft
11. a composite structure often incorporates strands of electrically conductive material in the laminates to
help dissipate static electricity and protect the airplane from damage due to lightning strike
12. Buttock line or butt line (BL) is a vertical reference plane down the center of the aircraft from which
measurements horizontally left or right can be made from the center line datum.
13. Water lines (WLs) are measured points a horizontal line
14. The zero point of the buttock line is the center line of the airplane with the direction Of flight
15. Zonal system used to describe areas in an aircraft 300 stabilisers. 800 doors.
16. Some manufacturers may call the fuselage station which transverse vertical plane (x plane) a body
station
17. Fuselage stations (longitudinal point on the aircraft fuselage) are numbered in inches from a reference
or zero point known as the reference datum
18. The wings, horizontal and vertical stabilisers, and powerplants of most aeroplane types have their own
location identification system
19. Preliminary check of the bond tester
20. On all metal aircraft the resistance should not exceed 0.05 ohms.
Secondary bonding is usually provided between metallic parts, the max resistance is 1 ohm.
Short all three spikes together and check for a ZERO reading Momentarily short the two spikes of the
6-foot lead together and check for full scale deflection.
21. A pure compression load causes compression stresses in the member from the squeezing tendency
22. A pure tension load causes tensile stress in the member from the stretching tendencies (tries to pull
an object apart).
23. Point where elastic elongation changes in plastic elongation (end) is? Elastic limit
24. Using the bonding test metre
The bond test metre consists of a single nickel alkaline cell and a low reading ohmmeter. A set of leads
are provided.
One lead is 60-foot-long with a single spike.
One lead is 6-foot-long with a double spike
25. The stringer is an example of? a failsafe structure
26. Damage tolerant design allows for damage to structure by? distributing loads to other structure
27. A pressurized aircraft cabin is affected by? hoop stresses
2
28. shear stress? it can described as slip away under the action of forces.
29. The failsafe and damage tolerance (utilizes the safe-life design concept)
30. Secondary structure? its highly stressed but if damaged will not cause failure of the A/C
31. They are often shown in green (or stippled) in repair manuals or drawings? Tertiary structure
32. The safe-life design principle requires that major structural elements be replaced after a fixed
number of flight cycles.
11.3
1. An autopilot commanded by radio ,for pitch control its uses a glideslope
2. washout is used to compensate for crosswind
3. Category II (Cat II) runway visual range not less than 350 meters (usual 400 meters)
4. Aircraft navigation sensor inputs are used in what parts of autopilot systems? Outer control loop
5. SIDESLIP in turn coordination circuit of an autopilot system, the actual yaw rate is determined using?
a CG mounted and nose amounted accelerometer.
6. Automatice pitch trim is operated depending upon the change of CG
7. autopilot mode control panel will initiate a change in throttle setting so it’s a combination of speed
and thrust mood LVL CHANGE
8. Parallel mode, and the rudder pedals will move if the autopilot command a rudder input to maintain
the aircraft direction during landing.
9. THS move manually and automatically
10. When moved THS manual a sound in the cockpit will be activated
11. In the auto flight mode the command signals from the autopilot are sent to the flight control
computers where autotrim signals are calculated and sent to the THS actuator. On large aircraft,
other systems are installed for pitch and centre of gravity control.
12. Decision height and alert high concept ? the wheel high above the run way
13. if there is a fail operational automatic landing equipment then will be no decision height
14. Fail-operational automatic landing system? the automatic pilot will continue its automatic landing in the
event of single failure
15. The inner control loop stabilizes the aircraft attitude around the pitch or roll axis.
16. Interlocks will be noted that the contacts of switches and relays, in the main, form a series-connected
circuit
17. When there is more redundancy by adding a third or a fourth channel, the auto flight system becomes
‘fail operational’ status. This is used in? critical modes like take-off, land and go-around.
18. Series mode – the yaw damper servo is an example of where the movement is added (in series) to the
input from the pedals.
19. The need for automatic flight control in smaller aircraft has produced autopilots with varying degrees
of complexity.
20. Autopilot can control three axis.
21. Roll axis is control the wing leveler.
22. feedback systems, The process might be a steering system or the engines of an aircraft. Also, the
automobile engine in cruise-control, or any of a variety of other processes to which power is applied,
the output is the variable of the process that is being measured and compared to the input
23. The aim of the controller and actuating device in the feedback system is to compare measured output
value with the reference input value.
24. The displacement of aileron for initiating turn causes difference between lift force of each wing
25. Skid will be happened if the pilot applies too much rudder the aero plans.

3
26. Auto pilot Is closed control loop
27. On the MCP there is two course control
28. LNAV CONTROL VERTICAL PROFILE
29. Fly by wire maximum deflection by aileron 25 degree
30. When A/C over speed a Mach touch is the result of stall
31. Mach turn is accomplished above 0.65 Mach
32. To provide the best performance for flight trim rate varied with airspeed and altitude
11.4
1. ILS frequency range from 108.10 to 111.95 MHz in 50 kHz.
2. The most usual type of Electromagnet microphone is the moving coil. Occasionally a microphone may
be of the moving iron type which has better frequency response than carbon microphone.
3. The sky wave is refracted, and subsequently reflected back to earth, by a region in the upper
atmosphere called the ionosphere
4. if a delayed AGC inoperative, the sensitivity of the receiver will increase for high voltage signal
5. The basic Marconi antenna has a length of 14 of a wavelength
6. VHF communication frequency:From 118.000 MHz (lower limit) to 136.975 MHz (higher limit)
7. in 25 kHz channel spacing I 760 Channels
8. HF operation modes are: AM - amplitude modulation SSB -single side band
9. If the aircraft on approach to landing is receiving a localizer signal and moves to the left of the runway
centerline, it is in the 90-Hz area
10. The Marker system is a radio navigation aid which determines the distance between the aircraft and
the runway threshold. Indications of marker beacons are in order: blue, amber, white
11. The pilot doesn’t need to inter the desired course when used automatic VOR
12. Transponder and TCAS are both suppressed when ? DME transmits
13. When a VOR and a DME beacon are at the same site the pilot can obtain range and bearing
information thus the two systems together provide a Rho-Theta navigation system
14. If an aircraft in equipped with VOR and DME it can used TCAN for distance only
15. The variable signal of VOR is AM
16. GPS transmits L1 and L2 signals. L1 signal is c/a code and P code.
17. The dither mechanism in a lazar gyro ensures that optical backscatter does not cause the contra
rotating beams to lock together.
18. The part of an Inertial Navigation System that used to determine local vertical during initialization is
(accelerometer).
19. ATC transponder operates in UHF frequency band
20. S mode transponder the one that can be used by TCAS, i.e. a transponder with C mode only can’t be
used by TCAS
21. The spacing of the pulse transmission for the following modes:
i. Mode A: 8 microseconds
ii. Mode C: 21 microseconds
22. TCAS antenna is directional antenna type
23. A system which can display 'traffic advisories (TAs)' information will issue within 35-40 seconds
warning of a possible collision
24. On the weather radar (WXR) the color yellow used to indicate the rainfall of 5 mm/hr.
25. Accelerometers used by weather radar to detect turbulence area ahead Doppler technique
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26. Principle to detect turbulence is using ahead Doppler technique
27. ACARS messages are transmitted or received via VHF transceiver on 131.550 KHz or the SATCOM
system when the VHF link is not available
28. Radars modes:
b. S band radars operate in the 2-4 GHz.
29. The type of microphone that the most easily tested with an ohmmeter is the (carbon microphone).
30. The propagation mode of direct wave is VHF
31. The length of resonant antenna dipole equals to twice the wavelength of the transmitted signal
32. An effective loop antenna must have a diameter smaller than the wavelength of the transmitted signal.
33. The SELCAL (Selective Calling) system provides aural and visual indications of the calls received from
ground stations equipped with a coding device. The communication systems used for SELCAL reception,
are VHF and HF systems
34. If the aircraft on approach to landing is receiving glideslope signal:
c. The 90 Hz signal predominates: the aircraft is above the glideslope.
d. The 150 Hz signal predominates: the aircraft is below the glideslope.
35. Z-marker is a type of Marker Beacon that would be co-located with NDB.
36. The flight path vector on a flight director shows the aircraft’s actual flight angle and track.
37. If the aircraft has an FMS installed, the DME will auto tune, and the DME ground station is collocated
with a VOR beacon.
38. ADF is the radio navigation system that is not used by flight management system.
39. 4 satellites and one ground based transmitter are required to calculate an aircraft horizontal position
and altitude accurately using differential GPS.
40. The output of Laser Gyro is directly proportional to angular turn rate.
41. TCAS transmits on the frequency 1030 MHz, and receives on the frequency 1090 MHz
42. RA will be issued by TCAS system if a collision is within 25-35 seconds of occurring
43. On the WXR; a rainfall of 15 mm is indicated in red color.
44. ACARS will use SATCOM in case of no VHF communication is available or out of range
45. The pitching of an aircraft can be adjusted by Mach Trim system.
46. During an autoland procedure, the functions in chronological are: Alignment, Flare and roll-out
47. On conventional radio magnetic indicator (RMI); Relative bearing: is the angle between the compass
datum and the RMI pointer arrow.
48. The interrogation signal of TCAS system on 1030 MHz
49. The function of the ‘IDENT’ button on the transponder cockpit equipment is: to make the aircraft image
appear brighter than other aircraft, momentarily, on the ATC radar scope
50. The two signals that are used by glideslope transmitter are 90 Hz transmission above 150 Hz
transmission
51. The cockpit voice recorder must automatically begin recording from when the aircraft first moves
under its own power and continue until it is no longer capable of moving under its own power
52. On the weather radar screen the pilot is alerted of thunderstorm and heavy rain using a Magenta color.
53. In the micro landing system (MLS); the bean angle away from runway 15 degrees
54. Frequency modulation: is the process of varying frequency but the amplitude still constant.
55. L band radars operate on a wavelength of 15-30 cm and a frequency of 1-2 GHz
56. Moving coil microphone is the most usual type of EM microphone.
57. To raise the signal power in the transmitter; Radio-Frequency power amplifier are used.

5
58. The basic measuring instrument of the inertial navigation system is the accelerometer. An
accelerometer is a unit with two springs and a mass pick of.
59. The VHF frequency range is 30 MHz to 300 MHz
60. Vertical and horizontal polarization: is the antenna orientation relative to the “E” field.
61. For short range voice and data communications VHF is used, but for long distance voice communication
HF is used.
62. 28 channels are available in the HF range
63. The combination of headset with a microphone is known as (the boomset).
64. The using of cockpit speaker is more comfortable when the incoming signal is clear and understandable
65. Cabin crew use cabin interphone to communicate among themselves.
66. The European Aviation Safety Agency (EASA) requires that all multi-engine turbine-powered aircraft
with a maximum take-off weight in excess of 5700 kg and with seating for more than nine passengers shall
be equipped with a cockpit voice recorder. The voice recorder must be capable of retaining recorded
information over the period of the last 2 hours of operation.
67. The inputs that are recorded in the cockpit voice recorder are four inputs
68. ADF air born antennas are three: 2 loop antennas and 1 sense antenna
69. Relative bearing: is the angle between the aircraft longitudinal axis and a tuned radio station.
70. Localizer frequency is selected automatically with GS.
71. The location of the localizer transmitter is at the end of the runway
72. In the localizer:
e. The 150 Hz modulated beam is located at right side of the runway.
f. The 90 Hz modulated beam is located at left side of the runway.
73. Glide path angle is 3 degrees.
74. There are 40 channels are available in the GS frequency range.
75. Z and FAN- markers are the two types of marker beacon that are used
76. MLS offers 200 channels
77. The azimuth coverage of the MLS extends: Laterally, at least 40 degrees on either side of the runway
centerline in a standard configuration
78. The MLS identification consists of 4 letters starting with M.
79. Distance measuring equipment (DME)
g. DME can be tuned either manually or automatically.
h. The maximum range of any airway; DME is up to 300 NM.
i. When the DME used with VOR the range will be restricted to 25 NM.
80. Tactical Air Navigation (TACAN):
j. is a military Rho-Theta (distance-angle) navigation system. Range and bearing can be
determined from a single TACAN station.
k. 26 channels can be used by military TACAN.
l. The frequency range is 133.30 – 135.95 MHz
81. The VOR/DME stations can be tuned automatically by the FMS up to 4 stations
82. The DME interrogator has 2 input busses
83. The range of hyperbolic during daylight around 400 NM, but at night the range is reduced.
84. LORAN (Long Range Navigation) is a terrestrial radio navigation system operates in low frequency the
range of LORAN-C is 1200 miles.
85. Doppler navigation system:
m. Doppler navigation frequency range is 8.8 GHz to 13.5 GHz.

6
 st
n. In Doppler aircraft pitch will cause increase in depression angle for 1 beam and decrease in
nd
depression angle for 2 beam.
o. The Doppler aerial system is made up of three or four slotted arrays.
p. Heading error is the greatest error in doppler.
86. The Flight Management System (FMS) compares a pilot selected flight plan with the actual lateral and
vertical aircraft position.
87. The FMS gives the steering and thrust commands to the AFS (automatic flight system).
88. The FMS or ANS receives a position from each of the three IRS and computes a mean weighted
average called the 'MIX IRS" position.
89. Before the FMS starts to calculate the optimum vertical path the crew must select an overall target for
the flight economy. There are three targets for the whole flight profile; minimum cost, minimum fuel, or
minimum flight duration, in other words (shortest possible flying time at the lowest fuel consumption).
90. The data loader connectors located in cockpit or avionics bay is used to update the navigation database
once in the 4 weeks.
91. The American global positioning system (GPS), also called NAVSTAR, uses 24 satellites, with three or
more spares, in orbit at any one time
92. To provide correct timing, each satellite carries a very accurate atomic clock.
93. Functions accessible allow loading of waypoints, often in three dimensions, arranging flight profiles by
listing the desired waypoints in the order required, and the ‘go-to’ or ‘direct’ function.
94. The accuracy of the satellite clocks has been mentioned above. However, even the tiny errors, which
the satellite clocks suffer, despite their regular updates from the master station, can affect the calculated
position by about 1.5 metres
95. The basic measuring instrument of the inertial navigation system is the accelerometer
96. Two accelerometers are mounted in the system. One will measure the aircraft’s acceleration in the
North-South directions, and the other will measure the aircraft’s acceleration in the East-West directions
97. This sphere is divided from north to south by lines that intersect at the poles and cut through the center
of the earth. These lines are called meridians of longitude
98. These lines are called meridians of longitude and are measured from the prime meridian which passes
through Greenwich, England. There are 360 meridians, labelled 1 to 179 East and 1 to 179 West.
99. The Mode C pulses are spaced 21 microseconds apart and interrogate the aircraft transponder about
the altitude of the aircraft.
100. When ALIGN is selected, power is applied to the IRU’s and the IRU’s normally progress through
an alignment period of approximately 10 minutes before the navigational mode is armed
101. The azimuth is given by the antenna position when the echo is received. Frequency: Microwaves
9.4 GHz
102. The weather radar uses a narrow ‘pencil’ beam transmitted and received toward determined
direction
o o
103. The mechanical limit of the antenna is: Roll +/- 43, Pitch +/- 25 , Tilt +/- 15
o o
104. The antenna is capable of scanning a total azimuth of +/- 45 to +/- 90 20 times per minute
105. The Radio Altimeter System determines the height of the aircraft above the terrain during initial
climb, approach and landing phases.
106. The DH light illuminates when the aircraft height is equal or lower than the selected decision
height. A sound is audible when the light turns on.
7
107. The rising runway represents the height below 200 feet during approach. At ground it is close to
the aircraft symbol.
108. Below 400 feet, the radio altitude is announced by a synthetic voice generated by the Flight
Warning Computer.
109. Radio altimeters transmit vertically downward and receive their reflected signal from the surface
beneath them.
110. The pitch of a sound varies with the frequency of the waveform. Thus, Middle C, at 265 Hz has a
lower pitch than Middle E at a frequency of 320 Hz.
111. If, in transmission, a wave is changed in some way, the result is distortion
112. An electro-magnetic wave consists of travelling electric and magnetic fields oscillating at right
angles to each other
113. . L band radars operate on a wavelength of 15-30 cm and a frequency of 1-2 GHz
114. . The Dynamic Microphone system combining the advantages of both EM and carbon
microphones.
115. The resonant frequency of the oscillations is highly stable and depends upon the mechanical
dimensions of the crystal
116. Radio waves travel near the surface of the Earth and radiate skyward at various angles to the
Earth’s surface. These electromagnetic waves travel through space at the speed of light, approximately
300,000 kilometres (km) or 186,000 miles (mi) per second.
117. AGC is an important feature of all receivers, its purpose is to control the amplification of a
receiver so that the receiver output remains constant when the received carrier strength varies.
118. In the very high frequency band (30 to 300 MHz), there is no usable ground wave and only
slight refraction of sky waves by the ionosphere at the lower frequencies
119. When a Marconi antenna is used as a transmitting element, the transmitter is connected
between the antenna and the ground. The basic Marconi antenna has a length of ¼ of a wavelength
120. HF communication transceiver with SSB/AM select
121. The phase difference between the reference and the variable signal is use to determine the lines
of position: The phase position of the variable signal (AM)
122. Transponder installations are interconnected with the DME and TCAS system by a suppressor
bus
123. A civil aircraft equipped with DME can use any TACAN station for distance determination.
124. When a VOR and a DME beacon are at the same site the pilot can obtain range and bearing
information thus the two systems together provide a Rho-Theta navigation system.
125. Accelerations due to gravity are always perpendicular to the earth’s surface and thus define
the local vertical. This local vertical is used to erect the attitude data so that it is accurately referenced to
vertical. Initially.
126. The antennas used by TCAS II include a directional antenna
127. Turbulence Detection - Pulse waveforms show that the echo frequency differs from that of
transmitted pulse. Caused by the Doppler Effect
128. Early ACARS systems were extended over the years to support aircraft with digital databus
interfaces, flight management systems, and printers.In USA ARINC-ACARS is dominant at 131.550 MHz
129. The data is transmitted via VHF with frequency shift keying in analogue format or via SATCOM
in digital format. Each alphabetic character is represented with 7 Bit.
130. Most SSB equipment operates in the USB mode.
8
131. S-band radars operate on a wavelength of 8-15 cm and a frequency of 2-4 GHz
132. The simplest form of resonant antenna is the dipole antenna. It consists simply of a quarter
wavelength section of twin wire transmission line, split apart and opened out to 180 0. This is known as a
half-wave dipole
133. The phase difference between the reference and the variable signal is use to determine the
lines of position. The reference signal (FM) is constant in all directions.
134. For landing approach or takeoff climb also a Flight Path Director can be used. The director
shows the commanded flight path angle and track.
135. the ground station sends continuously pulse pairs (PP) with a constant rate of 2,700 PP/s filler
and identification pulses. It is called squitter.
136. Multiplex receivers ‘time share’ their receiving and computing time between all the satellites
in view.
137. Inertial navigation depends on the integration of acceleration to obtain velocity and distance.
138. When an interrogator transmits, it gives a suppression pulse to all other L-band equipment
(other DME, ATC transponders and TCAS computer).
139. the airborne equipment consists of an interrogator (transmitter) and receiver on SSR
frequencies (1030 MHz and 1090 MHz respectively).

11.5 Battery
1. When a battery installation includes an acid trap. the acid trap must be drained at regular interval
2. The amount of current which flows into a battery while it is Being charged by constant voltage charger
,is determined by The level of charge of the battery
3. when checking of specific gravity of lead acid a battery electrolyte the temperature must be taken into
account .This is because higher temperature results in a lower density of the electrolyte
4. For battery charging from an AC bus bar a transformer is required only.
5. The main uses of battery in an aircraft systems are to supply power for engine
6. A fully charged cell when the voltage approximately 2.7v
7. Disadvantage of Ni –Cad battery is thermal runway
8. There are three methods of charging a battery on an aircraft. Constant voltage - Constant current -
Pulse
9. The capacity of a battery is the quantity of electricity measured in ampere-hours
10. The capacity of a battery is tested every three months Initial charging current depends on ampere
hour capacity Of the battery
11. Advantages of constant current charging are: No excessive gassing.
12. Lower frequency than the design frequency of an AC supply would cause overheating of inductive
devices
13. The electrical fault will not always trip the GCR. Under-Frequency and Under voltage

9
14. If during flight, a DC generator fails, the pilot will get which indications will be a negative current
indication on the ammeter, and reducing voltage and a Red warning light
15. To adjust the voltage output of a vibrating-contact type voltage regulator the contact spring tension
is adjusted
16. The differential gear in constant speed drive unit is to transfer the torque and add or subtract to the
input speed to achieve a constant output speed
17. In a brushless PMG type generator ,the rotating rectifier diodes are between the exciter armature
and main generator field
18. The point of regulation of a brushless PMG type is at the main generator stator
19. The power supply of GCU is supplied from the aircraft battery
20. In multi- generator, paralleled electrical load distribution system, reactive load sharing is achieved
adjustment of generator by excitation
21. In multi- generator, paralleled electrical load distribution system,
22. REAL load sharing is achieved adjustment of DRIVE TORQE
23. If the load on generator increases , in order to provide the Increased demand , A Voltage regulator
using pulse width modulation Will increase the pulse widths
24. A freewheel diode on a relay is to provide protection from induced current when the Contactor is
opened
25. If an aircraft electrical distribution system is a split system, the bus-tie relay, during normal (no-
fault) automatic operation, is closed
26. Transformer rectifier unit (TRU) in an emergency power generator system,may be constructed with
one primary transformer and two secondary transformer. This gives the advantage of less power
ripple of the rectified 28VDC power output
27. Transformer rectifier unit (TRU) uses 6 diodes, it will convert three phase AC to direct current
28. There are tow types of rectifier mechanical and semiconductor
29. On a delta connection AC generator ,if the phase Voltage is 115v ,the line voltage is 115V
30. The oil inside constant speed unit provide hydraulic function for CSD as well as cooling and
lubrication
31. On a modern aircraft , a constant speed drive, or an integrated drive generator will be automatically
disconnected in the event of high oil temperature or low oil pressure
32. After load-shedding from an electrical bus bar, the bus bar voltage increases and current
consumption decreases
33. Frequency Wild Generators may damage capacitive and inductive components only
34. Third type, the IDG (Integrated Drive Generator) is reduced to a single component the big advantage
of the star connection is that with the neutral line, two voltages are available, 200 and 115. Aircraft
AC generators are generally connected in star configuration.
35. All electricity produced by magnetic generators is AC
36. The output waveform of the DC generator is low frequency pulsating DC
37. Sparking at the brushes of generator results in electromagnetic radiation, which Interferes with
radio reception
38. To restore small amount of residual magnetism to begin voltage build-up connect a 12 volt battery
to the exciter field while the generator is at rest
39. (DC ALTERNATOR) The AC output of stator in is rectified by using six diodes
40. Special test-sets are used to determine these faults; these are the Armature Drop Tester and the
'Growler' armature tester
10
 41. (Commutator) The brush must be a close fit in the holder but must be free to slide in and out
42. Localized sparking on the Commutator is often due to an shorting between adjacent segments of
the Commutator
43. Segment is a part of Commutator
44. The cleaning of commutators should be carried out in accordance with the relevant Maintenance or
Overhaul Manual
45. When changing brushes, the new brushes must be 'bedded in' to the shape of the Commutator
46. Before installing any generator, a check should be made to ensure that its type, part number and
direction of rotation are correct for the particular installation.
47. Generator fields are self-excited. This means that the field current comes from the armature.
48. (DC Generator Circuits) The zero-centre ammeter shows the amount of current flowing either from
the battery to the main bus (-) or from the generator through the main bus into the battery (+) to
charge it.
49. (DC Generator Circuits) There is the disadvantage of having twice as many stator coils, which require
a larger and more complex stator
11.6 Equipment and Furnishings

Equipment and Furnishings

1. MEGA PHONE:an easa mandatory requirement that passenger carrying aircraft with a seating capacity of 60
or more is equipped with portable ,battery-powered megaphone that are readily accessible by crew member
during an emergency evacuation
for passenger or seating  from   61 to 99     need 1 megaphon    100 or more 2 megaphones
2. .EPIRB are sub-classification into two categories :   .category  I 406/121.5 MHZ float-free, automatically
activated EPIRB detectable by satellite any where in the world .recognized by GMDS    .category II   406/121.5
MHZ similar to category I except is manually activated.some models are also water activated.
3. EESS: the emergency evacuation signal system is activated when COMMAND switch at any EESS panel is
position to ON ,the horn and EVAC indicator light sounds and flashes,respectivalley at all EESS control panel
with COMMAND switch at any panel is ON position . ALL horns and EVAC indicator light continue sounding
and flashing ,respectively ,until COMMAND switch is returned to OFF position .
4. IFE
KIND OF ENTERTAINMENT                                                    PERFORMED BY:
1.food and beverages                                                               flight attendants
2.music                                                                                         PES audio taper or CDs
3.video films and games                                                            PES video tapes or DVDs
4.video games interactive                                                         PES processor
5.maps and informations                                                          passenger visual and info. System
6.telephone                                                                                  handset via satcom
7.reading light central attendant call                                       PSS passenger service system.

5. DIU : (digital interface unit) computer processes data for use with the stored menus ,transform the digital
data into video signals and sends them to the monitors ,the available information menus and the data used
from the different input buses (altitude,static ait temp,heading and draft angle)
6. .MEGAPHONE  operation :

11
Hold the megaphone in one  hand ,place mouth in contact with the microphone mouthpiece at the rear of the
assembly.squeeze the handle ,which will flex slightly ,turning the megaphone ON ans speak slowly with
loud,crisp,clear tones.a siren incorporated into the megaphone ,is automatically activated by unplugging the alarm
plug pin.

7. retirement of 121.5 and 243 beacons beginning 1 feb 2009,only 406 MHZ beacons were to be detected by the
st

international cospas seart SAR satellite system.this effect all maritime beacons (EPIRBS),all aviation beacons
(ELTs) and all personal beacons (PLBs).in other words,cospas-sarat ceasel satellite processing of 121.5/243
MHZ becones on 1 feb 2009.
st

8. Despite the switch to 406,pilot and ground station are encourage to continue to monitor for transmission on
the emergency frequency as many 406 becons are also equipped with 121.5"homers" furth more ,the 121.5
MHZ frequency continue to be used as a voice distress frequency in aviation
9. The major assemblies of megaphone are : Microphone and mouthpiece assembly , the
megaphone sub assembly , and the horn and speaker assembly.
10. The CIDS provides control , monitoning and data processing of various cabin system through
DATA BUS lines.
11. The directors are the major components of the CIDS They act as an interface between the
aircraft and cabin systems and the cockpit controls and indicating in order to process the
controls of the cabin systems.
12. The Passenger Visual Information System supplies the passengers with information on
ambient aircraft flight data , times and aircraft position in the flight plan.
13. The system receives data from various Navigation systems and the aircraft Communication
Addressing and Reporting System (ACARS )
14. Matsushita system 2000 E System 2000E is an interactive , fully integrated passenger
entertainment system. It has up to 24 video channels
15. PASSENGER SERVICE Provides the passenger with an interface to 1- reading lights
2- Attendant call lights
16.
13.7 Basic Aerodynamics
1. Turning the control yoke anticlockwise will cause the left aileron to rise and the right aileron to drop.
2. Flight spoiler can be operated both in flight and on ground and is used to dump lift from aircraft.
3. Pushing the left rudder pedal yaws aircraft to left and right wing may rise.
4. A horn balance makes movement of the control easier
5. A trim tabs eases control loading for pilot, tabs are installed on the rudder and ailerons.
6. The speed brakes are actually spoiler 2,3 and 4.
7. Tension of the control cable system is critical
8. The flight controls in the cockpit actuate control valves which direct hydraulic fluid to control surface
actuators
9. The VS ( Stall velocity ) is the calibrated stalling speed or the minimum steady flight speed in knots at
which the airplane is controllable
10. rudder limiter will reduce the rudder authority at high speed and protect the empennage from
overloads
11. A fowler flap will cause an increased wing area after deployment
12. A wing tip brake is installed on the flap system to protect against flap asymmetry
13. The primary purpose of a yaw damper is to reduce Dutch roll.
14. An aerodynamic balance panel works on the principle of differential pressure
15. The stall strip is equipped at the wings’ leading edge.

12
16. The flight controls locked when the aircraft is parked to prevent them from moving around and
causing damage to the flight controls and related system by using Gust lock lever.
17. Stall warning will be given at speeds that are slightly above the stall speed.
18. On a fly-by-wire system , the spoiler logic inputs of at least one thrust lever in reverse , the other
thrust lever at idle and one main landing gear compressed , will result in ground spoiler partially
extending
19. On a fly-by-wire aircraft fitted with side stickers , in order for a captain to take control he presses the
take-over button
20. On a fly-by-wire system , if the ground spoiler are NOT armed , the ground spoiler will Deploy with
the reverse thrust selection .
21. On a fly-by-wire system , stabilizer trim is controlled by the ELAC and SEC
22. On a fly-by-wire system was designed and certified to render the new generation of aircraft even
23. On a fly-by-wire aircraft , when the ground spoiler fully extend at half speed one second after both
main landing gear touch down during Auto land.
24. On a fly-by-wire system, the maximum speed brake deflection with the autopilot engaged is
achieved with half speed brake lever deflection.
13.8 Instrument System
1. Water contamination in a capacitance fuel system will cause contents to over read
2. On descent, the pressure in a V.S.I. capsule leads the case pressure
3. In capacitive fuel indication system presence of water make the quantity indication to over read.
4. Mach speed must be known when calculate SAT from the TAT
5. In magnetic standby compass, the turning error and acceleration error will be greatest near the poles
6. The air speed indicator sense static pressure inside the capsule and in the case
7. As the aircraft climbs at constant IAS. The TAS will increase.
8. The alert messages (warning and cautions) will be displayed on primary EICAS display unit.
9. The aneroid capsule in the altimeter will contract when the aircraft descending.
10. In an AVM signal conditioner, the broad band signal is unfiltered data.
11. The previous 25 hours of data must be recorded by FDR
12. A horizontal gyro with 2 gimbals is used in a direction indicator.
13. At 90 º to each other, to compensator magnets in stand by compass exert greatest influence.
14. Viscous, eddy current or air dash pot can be one of damping on a rate gyro.
15. Filling the compass bowl with a silicon based fluid made the direct reading compass to be a periodic
16. When the aircraft is at altitude a mach meter will indicate a decrease in speed , if the static vents is
leaking into a pressurised cabin area.
17. A compensator capacitor is used in a capacitive fuel indication to compensate for water in fuel.
18. To eliminate backlash in the mechanism , a bimetallic strip in the altimeter is used.
19. A mach meter displays indicated airspeed adjusted for altitude.
20. The temperature compensating bellows inside a magnetic compass will expand, if the cockpit becomes
colder.
21. Calibrated air speed corrected for air density is a true airspeed.
22. The temperature at 6,000 ft ASL is 3°C in the international standard atmosphere.
23. If there is a break in the circuit to the sensing bulb in a ratio meter temperature indicating circuit the
result is no deflection.
24. The TAT will be higher than SAT during cruise in large aircraft.
13
25. Variation is the difference between true heading and magnetic heading.
26. Compared to GPWS, the EGPWS required additional hardware/soft ware like GPS, terrain database and
display unit.
27. Beside vibration signal, engine speed is supplied to an airborne aviation monitor.
28. A flight data recorder starts recording, when the first engine is started.
29. Vertical gyro with 2 degrees of freedom is used in attitude indicator.
30. Coefficient B is affected by component P of magnetic deviation.
31. If the altimeter scale was set to 1013.25 mb at sea level, and the prevailing barometric pressure was
1020 mb, the altimeter will read negative altitude.
32. A linear variable differential transducer uses AC power only.
33. Pitot pressure and outside air temperature is supplied to the air speed indicator to measure the true
airspeed
34. A 400 Hz AC electricity is supplied to the flux valve excitation coil.
35. The varies of resistance of the variable resistor between a high and a low value is depend on the type
and range of resistor.
36. Rheostat is a resistance with two terminals
37. When the torque is not high enough, we use a servo system.
38. Measuring the pressure of the vapours above a highly volatile liquid will determine the temperature.
39. The tank unit consists of either a wire wound resistor of a segment of composition resistance material
and wiper arm.
40. digital technology incorporated into a quantity indicating system by using capacitance probes.
41. the excitation frequency is determined by the resonant frequency of the crystal.
42. the purpose of the still well is to reduce the effects of ripples and slosh.
43. the purpose of the stall warning system is to tell the pilot when he is approaching a stall.
44. the flight environment data system comprises the pitot-static system that determines one of these
data from the atmosphere total (or ram) air temperature
45. the pressure decreases with respect to increasing altitude.
46. one of these indicators depends on both pitot and static pressure mach indicator
47. the difference between TAT and SAT is called ram rise.
48. air pressure decreases with and increase of altitude-approximately at 100 hecto Pascal's per 800
meters or one inch of mercury per 1000 feet near sea level.
49. the altimeter can measure height above any convenient reference point.
50. flight level is the vertical distance between aircraft and the standard pressure reference.
51. vertical speed indicator is the rate of climb indicator.
52. airspeed is the speed of the aircraft relative to the air.
53. the speed at sea level that would produce the same incompressible dynamic pressure as the true
airspeed at the altitude at which the vehicle is flying is the equivalent airspeed(EAS).
54. position error is the error due to static-port location.
55. true airspeed and indicated airspeed are the same at sea level.
56. the device that used to calibrate airspeed, Mach number, altitude is called air data computer
57. Air data modules used to convert pitot or static pressure into digital output signal.
58. the characteristics of the gyroscopic is rigidity in space and precession.
59. horizontal gyro is not a type of Gyro.
60. the magnetic heading is derived from true heading.

14
61. the systems for monitoring the health and performance of the engines and aircraft systems is known
as the aircraft integrated data system .
62. the three axes accelerometer detects acceleration along the longitudinal, the lateral and the vertical
axes the unit is at the centre of gravity of the aircraft.  
63. newer attitude gyros are driven by electric motors.
64. the compass that has instead of a simple lubber line in front of the card, a symbol of an aeroplane on
its face is vertical card directional gyro.
65. gyro wander is also known as 'drift‘
66. in flight, the ball of the turn and slip indicator indicates the relationship between the pull of gravity G
and centrifugal force Z caused by a turn.
67. a turn and slip indicator can show rotation about only the vertical axis of the aircraft yaw.
68. the advantage of electrically driven gyro is higher rigidity is possible.
69. the difference between the Geographic north and the magnetic north is called variation.
70. The most newer turn and slip indicators are calibrated as four minute turn indicator.
71. One of an air driven gyro’s disadvantages is full rigidity will not be reached until the rotor speed has
built up.
72. Magnetic error that caused by the magnetic fields in the aircraft interfering with those of the earth is
called deviation.
73. During compass swing insure that the engines are running, the radio and electrical equipments are
switched on.
74. The display mode that displays the engine operating information and any alerts required to be action
by the crew in flight is the operational mode.

13.9 Lights
1. The power rating of such units is normally lower than that of the landing lamps,
2. 115 V AC bus supplies electrical power for light operation.
3. The landing light beam arc width is 10°
4. Colored LEDs light are more efficient than color Incandescent lamp because they don’t require filter to
produce color ).
5. Fluorescent tube used for cabin lighting contains phosphor coating , rare gases and mercury vapor
6. 1 candle power is equal to about 0.981candelas
7. 1 lux is approximately equivalent to 0.1-foot-candle.? Symbol „lx‟.
8. High intensity Discharge bulbs (HID) is considered external light.
9. Benefits of LED:- Less power consumption.
10. LED lamps have a significant and longer lifetime in comparison with incandescent lamps. On average, an
LED lamp‟s lifetime is? 100 times longer
11. The high-intensity discharge (HID) lamp is a gas
12. High-intensity discharge lamps (HID) also known as? metal halide lamp technology
13. the bulb(HID) should be left to cool down for? three minutes after switching off
14. LED converts input electrical energy into output optical radiation in visible, ultraviolet or infrared light
rays,(light)
15. The beam (narrow or wide) angle is dependent on how the LED chip is? the shape of the reflector cup
16. (LED) The light efficiency varies between 20 and 100 lumens per watt.
17. Xenon flash tubes are used extensively for aircraft? exterior lighting
15
18. Fluorescent lamps can operate in? a bright or dimmed position
19. Fluorescent lights are made of a glass tube filled with rare gases and mercury vapour which glows
when? a high AC voltage is applied
20. Electro-luminescent lighting requires an AC power supply for its operation.
21. External lighting: These include position, landing, taxi, anti-collision and wing inspection lights
22. Taxi lights A bright white lamp is? located on the nose landing gear strut of most planes.
23. Pilots can also use the wing lights to? inspect the wings and slats for any ice accretion that might build
up when flying through clouds.
24. (Logo lights) The steady white lights are used to illuminate the company’s logo painted on the vertical
tail.
25. (Position (navigation) lights )The right wing tip must have a green colored light,
26. The strobe position lights are powered by 115 volts AC.
27. The strobe position lights white lights flash approximately 60 times each minute
28. The strobe light has an extremely bright flash produced by a xenon tube, which requires?
Approximately 400 volts.
29. The light assembly consists of a xenon arc flashtube (lamp) encircling a parabolic reflector.is anti-
collision light
30. Internal lighting have two basic categories: incandescent and fluorescent lights
31. Lavatory light is considered as? internal light.
32. When the door is closed and locked, 115 volts AC of electrical power is supplied through the door lock
switch to the ballast of the fluorescent lamps.
33. RETURN TO SEAT signs – There is a RETURN TO SEAT sign in each lavatory.? These signs come on when
the FASTEN SEAT BELTS signs come on.
34. (Flood-lighting )The lights usually take the form of incandescent lamp or fluorescent tub units,
35. (sidewall) lights 115 volts AC
36. lighting for the forward and aft cargo compartments is from the dome lights
13.10
1. The function of the central maintenance system (CMS) is to centralize the data related to aircraft
fault events.
2. The CMS has two operating modes: the normal mode (on the ground and in flight) and the
interactive mode (only on ground)
3. In normal mode, the CMS: * generates reports
4. The CMS interactive mode gives access to:
• Interactive system tests • systems monitoring • maintenance history
5. Maintenance operations can be divided into three groups:
• Minor troubleshooting which is performed with the help of the ECAM and the CMS and the printed
or ACARS down-linked reports.
• In-depth troubleshooting which is performed with the help of the CMS and the ACMS and printed
reports.
• Long-term maintenance which is performed with the help of the ACMS and the FDRS through
printed ACARS down-linked and downloaded reports or recorded tapes.

16
6. The CMC builds up reports using memorized failures and warnings. These reports can be printed,
using the on-board printer, or transmitted to the ground, using the air traffic service unit (ATSU).
They can also be displayed on the MCDU.
7. *Airbus aircraft, analyses mainly the following data:
• real time warning (RTW) and real time fault (RTF) messages,
* AIRMAN developed for: AIRBUS
* the post flight report (PFR) at the end of the flight (printed on ground only).
8. *The acquisition of aircraft system data is performed by * The aircraft condition monitoring system
(ACMS) which records significant operational parameters in order to monitor the engines, the
aircraft performance and to analyse specific aircraft problems.
9. All the information can be retrieved through:
• The cockpit multipurpose control display unit, • The ECAM displays(or *EICAS), • The cockpit
printer, , • The recorders.
10. 234 ‫رسمه‬
11. A class is associated with each fault message. Here is the list of failure class on the A380: * Class 6:
Any detected failure with neither flight deck effect nor cabin effect and without safety involvement
or time limitation but having an impact on aircraft performances (economic consequences). (Q:* any
failure that generates a flight deck effect is a :Class 6 effect)
12. When an anomaly is detected by an aircraft system, the ECAM displays the abnormal parameter or function
and its associated warning and the CMS records the failure information detected by the system BITE
13. The OMS is composed of several applications dedicated to the support of aircraft maintenance tasks:
• The central maintenance system (CMS) • The data loading and configuration system • The aircraft condition
monitoring system (ACMS) • The electronic-logbook (eLogbook) • The electronic documentation: AirN@V (on
Airbus aircraft), minimum equipment list (MEL) and configuration deviation list (CDL)
14. * (BUILT IN TEST equipment, on modern aircraft system is carried out: continuously when the system is
operating)
15. The test functions can be divided into four groups.
• 1-* Power up test: If the aircraft is airborne, the power up test is limited to a few items to enable a quick
return to operation of the system. The typical tasks of a power up test are (* test of ARINC 429)
• 2- Cyclic tests * the system that do not disturb system operation is cyclic operation
• 3- System test power up test but it is more complete. It is performed with all peripherals supplied.
16. *(CENTRAL MAINENANCE COMPUTER (CMC) interface with: ACARS and aircraft systems).
17. * The ACMS monitors: • engines
18. * aircraft condition monitoring: monitors and stores certain dynamic parameters for later analysis.
19. The ACMS consists of: * the data management unit (DMU)
20. Up to 100 reports can be generated by the ACMS:
• 30 already predefined
• 15 for each type of engine and about 10 for system reports
• up to 64 airline programmable reports
21. ACMS reports manual trigger:
If activated by the flight crew this button triggers predefined reports for post flight investigation depending on
the flight phase
22. Ground support equipment (GSE) :* Reconfiguration function and readout function
23. * The data loading system is an interface between the aircraft computers and ground data processing
equipment used to update software and databases or to retrieve aircraft system data.
24. * the multipurpose disk drive unit (MDDU) can operate in two modes: automatic mode and manual mode.
25. The MDDU contains:

17
 • a window with 16-character alphanumerical LCD display,
• a door providing access to the Disk Drive.
26. * TRANSFER FAILURE: If the MDDU must stop data transfer (up or down loading) for any reason, this message
is displayed
27. Aircraft communication, addressing and reporting system (ACARS)
The aircraft communication addressing and reporting system can be used to send reports and to broadcast
parameters generated by the ACMS to a ground station via radio transmission:
* VHF voice data radio,
* (LAN) when aircraft is on the ground
28. The electronic library system (ELS) is an information management system
29. The system provides airline flight, maintenance, and cabin crews with instantaneous access to information?
The electronic library system (ELS)
30. * The expression “electronic flight library” system refers to: a system of CD or discs data that list all data
configurations and systems for that aircraft and carried on board.
31. The airborne printer allows to print out Of CMS report from? ACARS
32. * Fatigue fuses are metallic fuses, which are bonded to the structure and which fail at different fatigue
stresses
33. Download procedure is data transfer from computer to storage media

13.11 Air Conditioning and Cabin Pressurization

1. If one air conditioning pack fails a pack valve will switch to a HIGH flow rate
2. Pack valve use to? controls the mass flow
3. ATA Chapter 36 (Pneumatic Systems) deals with bleed air systems and is dealt with further in Section
11.16 of these EASA Part-66 Study Notes.
4. Main ducts (Air Ducts) for air temperatures over 200°C are made from stainless steel
5. Air cycle systems has an advantage over the vapor cycle system in that it uses pressurized ‘charge air’
from the engine compressors, and? therefore lends itself to use in aircraft requiring pressurization as
well as air conditioning.
6. The air cycle machine is? cooling unit
7. (The air cycle machine) . Hot air from the flow control valve enters the compressor where the
temperature and pressure increases by compression.
8. As example if an aircraft has a maximum differential pressure of 9.0 PSI at cruising altitude. If the
ambient air pressure is 3.0 PSI, the pressurisation system must maintain the pressure inside the
cabin at cruising altitude so it does not exceed? 12.0 PSI
9. The OFF SCHED DESCENT light illuminates if the aeroplane descends prior to reaching within 0.25 PSI
of FLT ALT selected with the pressurization mode selector in AUTO
10. The air conditioning systems supply ‘charge air’ from (or sources of charge air) is: The engines
11. The periods at which functional tests and leak tests should be made are specified in the approved
Aircraft Maintenance Schedules.
12. The Vapour Air Conditioning Cycle use the flow of a sealed? Refrigerant
13. There are different types of outflow valves. • Electrical • Pneumatic
14. A cabin altitude warning switch senses cabin pressure and initiates an: intermittent warning sound
15. The difference in pressure between the pressure acting on one side of a wall and the pressure acting
on the other side of the wall

18
16. If an aircraft ditches in the sea, it is necessary that all the valves (outflow valves, pack valves etc.) and
inlets (ram air inlets etc.) are closed.
17. If an aircraft ditches in the sea, it is necessary that all the valves are closed. This can be achieved on
many aircraft by pressing the guarded( Ditching push-button switch.)
18. Low Pressure Water Separator Also known as a ‘coalescer (located downstream of turbine) is used to
collect and remove the excess moisture from the air before it enters the distribution system.
19. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes, internal doors, cupboards etc. all open
20. When pressurising the aircraft on the ground for test purposes ? Warning placards should also be
positioned around the aircraft indicating that such testing is being carried out.
13.12 Fire Protection
1. Solid combustible materials such as wood, paper, and cloth fuel Class A fires.
2. Class C: fires involving gases such as butane, methane and propane.
3. Class F: fires are those involving cooking oils and fats
4. Class E : fires involving electrical equipment
5. The triangle illustrates a fire requires three elements: heat, fuel, and an oxidizing agent (usually
oxygen).
6. Portable fire extinguishers are used to fight fires in cockpit, cabin and lavatories
7. The system must sound a warning if a fire re-ignites? fire detection system
8. Thermal switches are switches that have a switching contact provided with a bimetallic strip.
9. Thermocouple-type fire-warning systems are often installed in engine compartments
10. System permits more complete coverage of a fire hazard area than any type of spot type temperature
detectors is? A continuous-loop detector
11. A fire test pushbutton simultaneously checks the condition of the: Fire Detection Unit
12. Sensing elements should be inspected for: Condition of rubber grommets
13. Certain areas in an aircraft can produce a great deal of smoke before any flames actually appear, and it
is important in these areas to detect the first indication of smoke by a smoke detection system.
14. Flame detectors are usually light detectors that are sensitive to infrared radiation
15. Draw-through type detectors, also known as active smoke detectors, continuously monitor a sample
of air drawn from the cargo compartment
16. Photoelectric Smoke Detectors consists of? a beacon lamp
17. Photoelectric Smoke Detectors A test switch permits checking the operation of the smoke detector by
Closing the switch connects 28 VDC to the test relay
18. Photoelectric Smoke Detectors :depend on light refraction
19. Water - Class A fires can be extinguished with an agent
20. Ionizing Smoke Detectors Maintenance can be accomplished Only by workshops authorized by the
manufacturer
21. CO2 stands for carbon dioxide
22. Carbon Dioxide - CO2 when it is sprayed on a fire it remains on the surface and excludes oxygen
23. Halon 1301 is the least toxic of all commonly used agents.
24. Halon 1301 is used only in fixed extinguisher
25. Lavatories uses Halon 1301
26. Fire-Extinguishing Agents blows out the red indicator disk, showing that the bottle has been
discharged because of an overheat condition.
27. If the bottle is discharged by normal operation of the system, a yellow indicator disk blows out
19
28. A cartridge contains 400 mg detonant. Igniting current is 5A, 28 VDC
29. When cartridge electrical connectors are disconnected, the cartridge electrical pins must be shunted
with a protective shunt which is provided by the manufacturer
30. A fire extinguishing cylinder has been installed near the waste containers in the lavatories.
31. Waste Bin Fire Extinguisher will discharge at temperature (approximately 71°C).
32. All cargo compartments are detected by smoke detectors
33. When smoke is detected in the cargo compartment aeroplanes with engine indicating and crew
alerting systems (EICAS), the message FIRE CARGO FWD or FIRE CARGO AFT is displayed on the upper
EICAS display located on the main panel
34. The bottle is pressurized with the extinguishing agent, in the range of 500 to 600 PSI.
35. The number of fire extinguishers provided depends upon the passengers 31-60 needs 2 fire
extinguishers
13.13
1. Integral Fuel Tanks (wings): has the advantage of using the maximum amount of space for the fuel and
of having a minimum amount of weight.
2. Centre wing tanks are usually of the integral type this type of fuel tank is consider to be a part of
aircraft structure
3. Bladder Tanks: it is snapped or clipped in place, or in some instances, it is laced to the structure by
press type rivets
4. Booster (Low Pressure) Pumps: are designed for continuous operation, and either pump can supply the
needs of any one engine
5. If the fuel supply of a main tank to its engine stagnates, opening the crossfeed valves causes the
crossfeed system to be put under pressure. Via this system the fuel is transported from another main tank
to the engine concerned.
6. Water may enter the fuel system during refueling, or as a result of condensation in the tanks, and,
when the fuel temperature falls below 0°C, the suspended water droplets may freeze. These frozen
droplets collect at the low-pressure filters, and may restrict or block fuel flow to the engines. To prevent
this, a filter by-pass and blockage indicator may be fitted, or a de-icing additive
7. Regulation by EASA/FAR CS-23 and CS-25 says that each fuel tank must have an expansion space of not
less than 2% of the tank capacity
13.14
1. By compressing the air charge in an accumulator, we can restored hydraulic pressure in the system.
2. Phosphate ester base hydraulic fluid has green color.
3. Automatic cut out valve is necessary installed in hyd. System if the system used fixed displacement
hyd. Pump.
4. Hand pumps, where fitted, are often of the double-acting type.
5. An accumulator is fitted to store hydraulic fluid under pressure, to dampen pressure fluctuations, to
allow for thermal expansion, and to provide an emergency supply of fluid to the system in the event of
pump failure.
6. pressure reducing valve is often used to reduce main system pressure to a value suitable for
operation of a service such as the wheel brakes. and enable to operate two component.
7. pressure regulator or unloading valve is used in a hydraulic system to control the amount of
pressure in the system and to unload or relieve the pump when the desired pressure is reached.
20
8. Non-return valves (known as 'check valves' in USA) are included in system lines and components
if the fluid may flow in only one direction. After the fluid has passed the valve it cannot flow back in the
opposite direction.
9. Axial Piston-type constant displacement pumps consist of a circular cylinder block and the rotating
parts are drive shaft, swash plate and cylinder block.
10. Hyd. Power pack system consists four major components which are reservoir, pump , selector valve,
filter.
11. An accumulator is fitted to store hydraulic fluid under pressure, to dampen pressure fluctuations
instrument and absorb pressure surges.
12. Thermal relief valve sense fluid pressure and used to relive excess pressure that results from continues
moving of hyd. Fluid in the system.
13. Accumulator supplement the power pump when several units are operating at once by supplying extra
power from its accumulated power;
14. Shuttle valve used for change over from main to auxiliary system in case failure.
15. Restrictor valve in Hyd. system used for control the rate of system operation.
16. The accumulator contains the maximum amount of energy at a system pressure of 3,000 PSI.
17. Low accumulator gas pressure will be initially recognized by a fluctuating, and possibly pulsating,
hydraulic pressure, and a 'chattering' or 'hammering' (rapid opening and closing) of the automatic cut-
out valve in the system.
18. fixed displacement or variable displacement pump(constant displacement) this type is used in a
hydraulic system, a pressure regulator (unloading valve, or cut-out valve) and accumulator must be
incorporated in the system.
19. Charging oxygen bottles with gaseous oxygen must be slowly to keep the temperature at
approximately ambient.
20. Cylinder pressures should be checked and recharging to normal system pressure carried out where
necessary and valves should be safety wire locked in the open position.
21. If an aircraft suddenly drops pressure at 14000 ft the oxygen masks drops automatically.
22. Civil transport aircraft cruise at altitudes where cabin pressurization is necessary to maintain conditions
inside the cabin approximately equal to a maximum altitude of 8,000 feet, regardless of the actual altitude
of the aircraft above this figure.
13.15
1. On large transport aircraft, the windshield wiper system is independent on each side with different
power sources.
2. On a hot rod type of ice detector, it is switched on by the flight crew. During night operations the built-
in floodlight may be switched on to illuminate the mast. By manual selection of a switch to the heating
element the formed ice is dispersed for further observance.
3. Icing on aircraft is caused primarily by the presence of supercooled water droplets in the atmosphere.
4. The vibrating rod ice detector has deiced, the warning lamp on the flight deck goes out after a set
period of time.
5. Pneumatic rain removal systems use Engine air bleed at high velocity to remove water droplets from
windscreen.
6. Engine compressor air is ducted to the wings and tail units and passes into the gap, providing sufficient
heat in the outer skin of the leading edge to melt ice already formed and prevent further ice formation.

21
The air is exhausted to atmosphere through outlets in the skin surfaces and in some cases, in the tips of
wings and tail units.
7. Nylon pipelines are usually used throughout the fluid deice system
8. During operating a windscreen wiper on the ground , use water as lubricant .
9. The serrated rod ice detector bench tested by screwdriver torque test
10. The non return valve in fluid de icing system is used to prevent back flow when the system is
inoperative
11. The rime ice appearance rough , milky white
12. During flight in certain conditions, ice may accumulate on all the forward facing areas of the aircraft.
These accumulations have the following effects on an aircraft:
13. • A decrease in lift due to a change in shape of the wing aerofoil section and loss of the
14. streamline flow of air around the leading edges and top surfaces.
15. • An increase in drag for the same reasons that cause a loss of lift. The rough surface provides
increased skin friction.
16. • Decreases propeller efficiency because of the change in blade shape. There is the possibility of
damage to the fuselage as a result of ice being flung off the propellers.
17. The hoarfrost ice occurs on a surface which is below the freezing point of 0c it from in clean air .water
vapor being converted directly in to ice crystals forming a white feathery coating
18. The ice detection spot lights in some aircrafts this may be the only method of ice detection
19. Pressure operated ice detector is a elliptically shaped tube
20. The value of torque testing of serrated rotor is found in the relevant aircraft maintenance manules
21. The two primary methods used for aerofoil ice protection 1)thermal 2)electrical
22. The thermal method in the aerofoil ice protection by ducting hot air along the inner surfaces of the
aerofoil leading edges
23. The heat exchanger method of supplying warm air to the anti – icing system is employed in some
types of aircraft powered by turbo-propeller engines. The heat exchanger unit is positioned so that
exhaust gases can be diverted to pass between tubes through which outside air enters the main supply
ducts. The supply of exhaust gases is usually regulated by a device such as a thermostatically controlled
flap fitted in the ducting between the exhaust unit and the heat exchanger.
24. An electically driven pump is used to drawn fluid from a storage tank
25. The materials normally used in construction for anti- icing system made of stainless steel
26. The sensing units and valves operated in typical compressor bleed system electrically
27. Pneumatic de- icier boots ,or overshoes consist of layers of natural rubber
28. The chemical rain repellent should not discharged on a dry wind shield because it will smear and
difficult to remove
29. The end strips are fitted to secure and prevent inward creep of the de-icer boot
30. One each side of the fuselage mounted two ice formation spot lights.
31. Engine anti –ice valve is one of the main part of engine anti –ice system
32. Rain removal system is used to keep windshield free of water in large aircraft

13.16 Landing gear system

1. A landing gear usually takes the form of two or more main undercarriage units in the wings or
fuselage,
2. Most nose and tail wheels are fitted with shimmy dampers to prevent rapid oscillation during ground
manoeuvres.
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3. The shimmy damper filled with hydraulic
4. Gear position indication Red: the landing gear is moving up or down (in transit);
Light out: the light is out if the landing gear is up and the doors are closed and locked.
5. The tread – refers to the crown area of the tyre in contact with the ground
6. The choice of type of landing gear is also determined by the location of the aeroplane’s centre of
gravity.
7. How many landing gears with their wheels and brakes are installed depends on the mass of the
airplane
8. The presence of air in the hydraulic brake system will degrade the performance of the brakes, and
must be removed after initial installation and whenever brake response becomes sluggish or brake
pressure feels ‘spongy’ at the pedals.
9. High brake temperatures can cause excess tyre pressure which may result in a tyre burst which is very
dangerous. To avoid this as much as possible, various fusible plugs are installed in the wheel rim as shown
in below.
10. Maxaret system is an old type of anti-skid system
11. The braking systems of most modern aircraft are provided with a means of preventing the wheels from
skidding on wet or icy surfaces and of ensuring that optimum braking effect can be obtained under all
conditions, by modulating the hydraulic pressure to the brakes.
12. (Multi-disc brake units)Pins attached to the pressure plate and protruding through the torque plate on
this brake unit, indicate the amount of wear which has taken place in the disc pack.
13.17
1. A lack of sufficient oxygen will bring on hypoxia. Hypoxia in which there is complete deprivation of
oxygen supply is referred to as anoxia.
2. The crew oxygen system provides an oxygen supply to the flight crew whenever the need arises.
Different systems are in use but the most common in modern aircraft is the Diluter Demand system.
3. To test the moisture content of oxygen in the aircraft system a hygrometer, based on the dew-point
principle is normally used.
4. The basic oxygen cylinder assembly contains high pressure oxygen cylinder, pressure and quantity
gauges.
5. portable oxygen cylinders, fitted with a demand regulator.
6. The maximum allowable altitude without pressure breathing at altitudes is at 40,000.
7. The high pressure oxygen set is made of stainless steel material.
8. Non return valve is indicated the direction of flow by an arrow on the valve case.
9. oxygen gaseous filter made of sintered bronze type, is normally embodied in the supply connection of
a particular component
10. Teflon tape only permits using on oxygen system for leaking or repair.
11. Cylinders for use in aircraft oxygen systems are color coded for identification purposes, and
12. there are two codes presently adopted:
(I) black for the main body and white for the top hemispherical portion (the valve end), for cylinders
contains purified oxygen. (ii) Green for cylinders of American origin.
13. Leaks should be located using a leak detecting solution free from any combustible substances unless,
of course, particular leaks are large enough to be heard or felt. Solutions recommended for this purpose
are those conforming to specifications MIL-L-25567 "B"

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14. The Demand Breathing Regulator is a one stage reducer regulates the high pressure from the Filter
Device to the required breathing pressure.
13.18 Pneumatic / Vacuum
1. . The vacuum driven instruments are now used only on light aircraft .
2. The vacuum system is used as an alternative to electrical power , and is considered as a failsafe
system , in that should the electrical power supply to the aircraft systems fail , then the pilot will still have
some essential flight instrument available .
3. The vacuum system used to supply driving power , in the from of a suction of a suction of air , to
several gyro instrument , such as the ADI ( artificial horizon ) , HIS ( heading horizon ) and Turn indicator
4. To protect pneumatic systems from malfunctioning due to moisture freezing in the components and
pipelines , the compressed air may be dehydrated by a substance such as activated alumina , or it may be
inhibited by a small quantity of methanol vapour .
5. The handling of methanol present some difficulties , however and because of its corrosive nature
systems must be specially designed for its use ; activated alumina is therefore , more generally used
6. .351
7. .352
8. .353
9. Isolation valve : this is used to split or connect the different pneumatic systems.
10. APU Bleed Air : Shuts off or allows APU bleed air supply .
11. Manifold Failure Sensing Element : this is used to detect bleed air leaks or duct rupture .
12. The bleed air supply from the respective engine or APU is automatically cut off , if a fire extinguishing
procedure is initiated ( fire handle actuated ).
13. The over pressure valve (OPV) prevents excessive pneumatic supply pressure
14. (PNEUM TEMP HI) This waning light comes on , if the pneumatic temperature exceeds a set threshold
(255c).
15. PNEUM MANFLD FAIL , This warning light comes on , If a duct rupture or a leak in a pneumatic
manifold is detected.
16. “USE ENG PNEUM SUPPLY” This caution light comes on , if the pneumatic system. is still supplied by
the APU to remember the pilots that they must use the engine pneumatic supply system .
17. LOW PRESSURE PNEUMATIC SYSTEM are used on most turbine – Engined aircraft for engine starting,
De – icing, and cabin pressurization, and are supplied with compressed air tapped from the engine
compressor.
13.19 Water Waste
1. The potable water system the quantity of passengers it can carry:
Short range aircraft (≈150 passengers): ≈ 200 litres
Mid-range aircraft (≈230 passengers): ≈ 400 litres
Long range aircraft (≈350 passengers): ≈ 800 litres
2. The system is insulated to prevent water leaks and ice build-up.
3. Toilet products in contact with aluminium and/or magnesium alloys provide a strong electrolyte for
corrosion to take place, and microbiological corrosion is also a serious problem in structural areas
beneath aircraft toilets.
4. The fill and overflow valve are used to fill the potable water tank to the capacity determined by the
standpipe.
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5. With the handle in the open position (located in the water service panel), the tank fill line is connected
to service panel fill port.
6. At the same time the overflow line from the tank is connected to the overflow line on the service
panel.
7. In the closed position, the valve seals the tank so that it can be pressurized.
8. Drain valve is manually operated and is located in the water service panel.
9. When the valve is open, water drains from the tank through a drain line, and then goes overboard.

13.20
1. avionics full-duplex switched Ethernet (AFDX) based on IEEE 802.3 Ethernet technology.
2. The primary aspects of AFDX are that it is a full-duplex high speed system with ‘redundancy’ and
utilizes ‘deterministic Ethernet’ principles explained earlier in these notes
3. Integrated modular avionics (IMA) replaces the point-to-point cabling with a “virtual backplane” data
communications network.
4. An IMA operator can upgrade software without having to upgrade the hardware, and vice versa. Using
elements common to different computer modules makes maintenance of the computer less expensive
5. Another important attribute of an ADN is the required wiring. The less wiring required, the less its
weight which leads to a more fuel efficient aircraft.
6. The three functional domains of the Airbus IMA model are: cockpit (electrical flight control,
communications and warning); cabin (air conditioning and pneumatics); and utilities (including
energy, fuel functions and landing gear functions)
7. LRMs communicate through the ADN, known by Airbus as the avionics data communication network
(ADCN), by the means of avionics full-duplex switched Ethernet (AFDX).
8. Aircraft system data are sent simultaneously from a network subscriber to other network subscriber(s)
on both redundant sub-network A and B through AFDX switches according to predefined paths called
virtual links (VL)
9. Virtual links are unidirectional logic path rom the source end-system to all of the destination end
systems.
10. THE CPIOM IS CONNECTED TO 28VDC.

13.21 Cabin Systems

1. The cabin system gives the cabin crew an interface to the cabin core system and the cabin
monitoring system.
2. It also lets the passengers use the entertainment system.
3. The cabin system is comprised of three sub systems: The cabin monitoring system.
4. Cabin core system: The portion of the cabin system used to accomplish the integrated functional
control, operation, testing and monitoring of cabin systems
5. In general, the cabin core system includes? Service interphone
6. The CIDS directors have interfaces to Communication systems (ATA23).
7. The CIDS are powered by 28 Vdc
8. The CIDS provides these system functions: Passenger call
9. The CIDS system consists of these components: • Directors
10. Decoder/encoder units - Type A (DEU A) The interface between the active director and the passenger
related functions is ensured via decoder/encoder units type A (DEUs A).
11. The cabin assignment module (CAM) is a plug-in memory cartridge.
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12. The OBRM module is the storage device for the internal system software.
13. It is installed in the sub panel of the FAP.
14. The multipurpose flight attendant panel is installed at the purser panel.
15. The flight attendant panel touch screen includes: • aircraft symbols and soft keys,
16. The CIDS system has three communication functions, which are: • Passenger address (PA)
17. The cabin interphone system is used for the communication between cabin crew stations, and
between cockpit and cabin crew stations.
18. Call source priorities are, typically:
1 - Cockpit acoustic devices
2 - Cockpit handset
3- Cabin handset
19. , the emergency crew alerting system (ECAS) is an optional system which is highly customizable. It is
used to signal an incident in the cabin or in the cockpit.
20. The emergency evacuation signaling system is used to initiate the evacuation in all cabin areas and in
the cockpit
13.22
1. Airbus’ information system, known as on-board information system (OIS) includes: The network server
system (NSS), which hosts the onboard information system (OIS), • The air traffic control (ATC) system
2. The flight crew have access to the flight operations applications
through the electronic flight bag (EFB) laptops or tablet computers.
3. In the cabin, the maintenance personnel can get access to the maintenance applications: on the flight
attendant panels (FAPs),

4. The network server system includes a common file server, data processing, mass storage and interface
capabilities
5. Flight operation is one of Human machine interfaces (HMIs)
6. (Interface via laptop) The laptop front face has an ON/OFF switch and control LEDs.
The LEDs indicate:
• the power supply availability,
• the laptop operation
7. The laptops do not start and stop automatically. This has to be
done manually
8. Portable maintenance Access terminal (PMAT) can be connected to the aircraft network through one
of the Ethernet connectors installed
9. NETWORK SEVER SYSTEM (NSS) DOESN’T HAS ANTENNA
10. You can get access to the flight operations domain from the
cockpit, through different interfaces, which are:
• The cockpit OITs,
• The flight crew laptops’ universal serial bus (USB) plugs
11. The system supplies wired and wireless internet connectivity to the passengers:
• Wired connectivity through the in-flight entertainment
(IFE) system,

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• Wireless connectivity in the cabin, using cabin wireless
LAN units
13.6 cont

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13.18 Pneumatic / Vacuum

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