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ABHINAV ACADEMY

UDUPI

SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS


Class 12 - Biology
Time Allowed: 1 hour and 30 minutes
Maximum Marks: 60

1. While planning for an artificial hybridization programme involving dioecious plants, which of the following [1]
steps would not be relevant?

a) Bagging of female flower b) Dusting of pollen on stigma

c) Collection of pollen d) Emasculation


2. Pollination in water hyacinth and water lily is brought about by the agency of: [1]

a) Bats b) Water

c) Insects or wind d) Birds


3. Numerous ovules are present in the ovary of the plants belonging to the family: [1]

a) Solanaceae b) Compositae

c) Gramineae d) Leguminosae
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4. In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid, and triploid structures are: [1]

a) Synergid, polar nuclei, and zygote b) Synergid, antipodal, and polar nuclei

c) Synergid, zygote, and primary endosperm d) Antipodal, synergid, and primary


nucleus endosperm nucleus
5. The ovule in pea are: [1]

a) Amphitropous b) Campylotropous

c) Anatropous d) Hemianatropous
6. Plants with ovaries having only one or a few ovules, are generally pollinated by: [1]

a) Wind b) Butterflies

c) Bees d) Birds
7. The flower which does not open at all are called: [1]

a) Cleistogamous flower b) Xenogamous flower

c) Autogamous flower d) Chasmogomous flower


8. Nucellar polyembryony is reported in species of: [1]

a) Brassica b) Citrus

c) Triticum d) Gossypium
9. Only meiotic divisions in an ovule occurs in: [1]

a) Nucellus b) Archesporium

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c) Megaspore d) Megaspore mother cell
10. The plant whose seeds are known to have the longest viability period is: [1]

a) Triticum Vulgare (wheat) b) Carica papaya (papaya)

c) Lupinus (Lupine arcticus) d) Phoenix dactylifera (date palm)


11. The flower which does not open for pollination are called as: [1]

a) Chasmogomous b) Autogamous

c) Cleistogamous d) Geitogamous
12. Which of the following are the important flora rewards to the animal pollinators? [1]

a) Nectar and pollen grains b) Floral fragrance and calcium crystals

c) Colour and large size of flower d) Protein pellicle and stigmatic exudates
13. Which one of the following may require pollinators, but is genetically similar to autogamy? [1]

a) Cleistogamy b) Xenogamy

c) Geitonogamy d) Apogamy
14. Liquid endosperm in coconut is resulted due to: [1]

a) Karyokinesis followed by single cytokinesis b) Failure of karyokinesis followed by single


cytokinesis

c) Karyokinesis is not followed by cytokinesis d) Karyokinesis followed by cytokinesis


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15. Which one of the following statements is wrong? [1]

a) When pollen is shed at two-celled stage, b) Pollen grains in some plants remain viable
double fertilization does not take place for months

c) Intine is made up of cellulose and pectin d) Vegetative cell is larger than generative cell
16. In which options labelled parts 1, 2, 4 and 6 of seed are correct?
[1]

a) 1-Pericarp, 2-Cotyledon, 4-Hypocotyl root b) 1-Seed coat, 2-Cotyledon, 4-Hypocotyl root


axis, 6-Endosperm axis, 6-Endosperm

c) 1 -Seed coat, 2-Cotyledon, 4-Shoot apical d) 1-Seed coat, 2-Cotyledon, 4-Hypocotyl root
meristem, 6-Root tip axis, 6-Root tip
17. A number of integuments in the ovule of angiosperms is generally: [1]

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a) One b) Two

c) Three d) Four
18. Middle layer of anther wall is formed by secondary outer parietal layer in: [1]

a) None of these b) Dicots

c) Both Dicots and Monocots d) Monocots


19. Anther of angiosperm is generally composed of: [1]

a) Four sporangium b) Two sporangium

c) Three sporangium d) One sporangium


20. Collar-like outgrowth arising from the base of the ovule and forming a sort of the third integument is known as: [1]

a) Aril b) Operculum

c) Coma d) Caruncle
21. Upon fertilization which structure can develop from a carpel: [1]

a) Testa b) Pericarp

c) Perisperm d) Tegmen
22. Which of the following has both male and female sex organs in the same plant? [1]

a) Castor b) Both Castor and Maize

c) Papaya d) Maize
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23. Choose the correct statement for micropyle: [1]


A. It allows pollen tube to penetrate in the ovule at the time of fertilization.
B. Germination of pollen grains are under the control of it.
C. It is a pore in the pollen grain.
D. Growth of pollen tube is directed by it.

a) Only A b) Only C

c) Only D d) Only B
24. When pollen tube enters by integuments, then the process is called: [1]

a) Pseudogamy b) Porogamy

c) Mesogamy d) Chalazogamy
25. The flower is a modified shoot because: [1]

a) Growth is unlimited b) Growth is limited

c) Floral organs are arranged in whorls d) Flower develop in the axils of bracts like
axillary shoots
26. Which one forms the endosperm: [1]

a) Synergids b) Antipodal cells

c) Oospore d) Secondary or polar nuclei


27. The allogamy is best favoured by: [1]

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a) Dicliny b) Homogamy

c) Cleistogamy d) All of these


28. Pollination in lotus is carried out by: [1]

a) Both Water and Insects b) Insects

c) Wind d) Water
29. Maize is: [1]

a) Cleistogamous b) Anemophilus

c) Hygrophilous d) Entomophilous
30. From among the situations given below, choose the one that prevents both autogamy and geitonogamy. [1]

a) Monoecious plant with bisexual flowers b) Monoecious plant bearing unisexual flowers

c) Dioecious plant with bisexual flowers d) Dioecious plant bearing only male or female
flowers
31. The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein parts of the sexual apparatus is used for forming embryos [1]
without fertilization is called:

a) Vegetative propagation b) Parthenocarpy

c) Apomixis d) Sexual reproduction


32. Which part of the embryo sac receives the male gamete: [1]
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a) Egg b) PEN

c) Antipodals d) Synergid
33. A bilobed dithecous anther had 50 microspore mother cells per microsporangium. How many male gametes this [1]
anther can produce:

a) 200 b) 400

c) 800 d) 100
34. The most exceptional feature of zoophilous flowers is: [1]

a) Scented, having nectar but inconspicuous b) Without colour

c) Presence of only perianth d) Scented, having nectar and most colourful


35. In most of the angiosperms, pollen grains are shed at ________. [1]

a) 8-celled stage b) 2-celled stage

c) 3-celled stage d) 4-celled stage


36. Development and formation of pollen grains in anther are started with: [1]

a) Formation of pollen sac b) Megasporogenesis

c) Microsporogenesis d) All of these


[1]

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37.

A diagrammatic view of a typical anatropous ovule is given above. In which of the following all five parts
labelled as 1, 3, 5, 7 and 9 are correctly identified?

a) 1-Hilum, 3-Micropyle, 5-Inner integument, b) 1-Funicle, 3-Micropyle, 5-Outer


7-Nucellus, 9-Chalaza integument, 7-Embryo sac, 9-Chalaza

c) 1-Funicle, 3-Micropyle, 5-Nucellus, 7- d) 1-Hilum, 3-Micropyle, 5-Outer integument,


Embryo sac, 9-Chalaza 7-Nucellus, 9-Chalaza
38. During microsporogenesis, meiosis occurs in: [1]

a) Microspore tetrads b) Endothecium


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c) Microspore mother cells d) Pollen grains.
39. Albinism in man has been reported in: [1]

a) Negroes b) Both negroes and europeans

c) Europeans d) None of these


40. In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after fertilization are: [1]

a) Synergids and antipodals b) Antipodals and primary endosperm cell

c) Egg and antipodals d) Synergids and primary endosperm cell


41. The phenomenon wherein, the ovary develops into a fruit without fertilisation is called: [1]

a) Asexual reproduction b) Sexual reproduction

c) Apomixis d) Parthenocarpy
42. When there is no distinction between sepals and petals, the non-essential floral organs are collectively called [1]
________.

a) Petaloid b) Imbricate

c) Perianth d) Sepaloid
43. Which of the following options is correct? [1]
A. Pollination gives the guarantee of the promotion of post-pollination events that fertilization.
B. The events “from pollen deposition on stigma until pollen tubes enter the ovule together referred to as
pollen-pistil interaction.

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C. Pollen-pistil interaction is a dynamic process involving pollen recognition followed by only promotion (not
rejection) of the pollen.
D. Pistil has no ability to recognize the pollen, whether right or wrong type.

a) Only B b) Only C

c) Only D d) Only A
44. Which one of the following pairs of plant structures has a haploid number of chromosomes? [1]

a) Nucellus and antipodal cells b) Megaspore mother cell and antipodal cell

c) Egg and antipodal cells d) Egg nucleus and secondary nucleus


45. In majority of angiosperms: [1]

a) Egg has a filiform apparatus b) Reduction division occurs in the megaspore


mother cells

c) A small central cell is present in the embryo d) There are numerous antipodal cells
sac
46. If testa is removed from water-soaked gram seed, the remaining structure is: [1]

a) None of these b) Cotyledons with endosperm and pericarp

c) Cotyledons filled with starch d) Full mature embryo


47. Transfer of pollen grain from the anther of one flower to the stigma of another flower is called cross-pollination. [1]
It produces
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a) Better progeny b) Male progeny

c) Weaker progeny d) Similar progeny


48. Which plant will lose its economic value, if its fruits are produced by induced parthenocarpy? [1]

a) Banana b) Orange

c) Grape d) Pomegranate
49. Perisperm differs from endosperm in: [1]

a) Being a haploid tissue b) Its formation by fusion of the secondary


nucleus with several sperms

c) Being a diploid tissue d) Having no reserve food


50. Pollination in Vallisneria and Hydrilla is: [1]

a) Entomophilous b) Hydrophilous

c) None of these d) Omithophilous


51. In which characters air pollinated flowers differ from insect-pollinated ones? [1]

a) Small coloured perianth and heavy pollen b) Coloured perianth and large pollen grains
grains

c) Due to small perianth and sticky pollen d) Without perianth and light pollen grains
52. From the statements given below choose the option that are true for a typical female gametophyte of a flowering [1]
plant:

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i. It is 8-nucleate and 7-celled at maturity
ii. It is free-nuclear during the development
iii. It is situated inside the integument but outside the nucellus
iv. It has an egg apparatus situated at the chalazal end

a) (i) and (ii) b) (ii) and (iv)

c) (i) and (iv) d) (ii) and (iii)


53. The alternation of two different phases of the life cycle involving haploid and diploid stage is called: [1]

a) Alternation of life cycle b) Alternation of generation

c) Change of generation d) Change of saprophyte


54. An embryo sac of a typical angiosperm consist of: [1]

a) Egg, synergids, polar nuclei and antipodal b) Egg, synergids, central cell and polar nuclei
cell only

c) Egg, synergids and secondary cell only d) Egg, synergids and antipodal cell only
55. Which of the following occupies a central position in flower? [1]

a) Pistil b) Stamen

c) Pedicel d) Sepal
56. In a flower, if the megaspore mother cell forms megaspores without undergoing meiosis and if one of the [1]
megaspores develops into an embryo sac, its nuclei would be:
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a) A few haploid and a few diploid b) Haploid

c) With varying ploidy d) Diploid


57. In which of the following pollination is autogamous? [1]

a) Chasmogamy b) Cleistogamy

c) Geitonogamy d) Xenogamy
58. Identify 1 to 4 in the following diagram:
[1]

a) 1 -Filament, 2-Line of dehiscence, 3-Pollen b) 1-Pollen sac, 2-Pollen grain, 3-Line of


sac, 4-Pollen grain dehiscence, 4-Filament

c) 1-Filament, 2-Pollen sac, 3-Line of d) 1-Pollen grain, 2-Pollen sac, 3-Filament, 4-


dehiscence, 4-Pollen grain Line of dehiscence
59. Actinomorphic flowers have: [1]
a. Radial symmetry

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b. Often irregular
c. Two equal halves are produced only by one vertical division.

a) All of these b) Only b and c are correct

c) Both a and b are correct d) Only (a) is correct.


60. Which of the following has both male and female sex organs in the same flower? [1]

a) Date palm b) Papaya

c) Hibiscus d) Cucurbita

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