09-09-2021 TYMR-G4

CODE-A

Regd. Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MM : 360 FORTNIGHTLY TEST SERIES Time : 1½ Hrs.

(for NEET 2023)
Test – 4

Physics : Motion in a Straight Line: Integral calculus, Applications of Integral calculus, Graphs (slope, area
etc.), Kinematic equations for uniformly accelerated motion., Motion under gravity, Relative velocity
in one dimension.
Chemistry : Structure of Atom: Emission and absorption spectra, Line spectrum of hydrogen, Bohr’s model for
hydrogen atom, Explanation of Bohr’s model., Dual behaviour of matter, Heisenberg’s uncertainty
principle, Significance of uncertainty principle, Reason for the failure of the Bohr model., Quantum
mechanics, Hydrogen atom and the Schrodinger equation, Orbitals and Quantum numbers, Shapes
of atomic orbitals, Energies of atomic orbitals, Filling of orbitals in atom : Aufbau principle, Pauli's
exclusion principle, Hunds rule of maximum multiplicity, Electronic configuration of atoms, Causes
of Stability of completely filled and half filled sub-shells
Botany : The living world(Contd.): Taxonomic categories, Biological concept of species, Taxonomical aids-
Herbarium, , Botanical gardens, museum, zoological parks, Key, Flora, Manual, Monographs,
Catalogues, Biological Classification: Introduction, Kingdom system of classification- two
kingdom, three kingdom, four kingdom, five kingdom, Six kingdom, Domains of life, Kingdom
Monera- Characters of monera, Shape of bacteria, Bacterial Life process - Respiration, Nutrition,
Reproduction- Asexual, Sexual recombination
Zoology : Biomolecules-III: Enzymes: Importance, activation energy, chemical nature, active site, Classes
of enzymes: Properties of enzymes, Working of enzymes-Lock & Key model, Induce fit theory,
Factors affecting the enzyme activity: Enzyme inhibition-competitive, Non-competitive, Allosteric
enzymes, Isoenzymes, proenzymes & co-factors, Digestion & Absorption

Instructions :
(i) Use Blue/Black ballpoint pen only to darken the appropriate circle.
(ii) Mark should be dark and should completely fill the circle.
(iii) Dark only one circle for each entry.
(iv) Dark the circle in the space provided only.
(v) Rough work must not be done on the Answer sheet and do not use white-fluid or any other rubbing
material on Answer sheet.
(vi) Each question carries 4 marks. For every wrong response 1 mark shall be deducted from total score.

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Fortnightly Test-4 (TYMRG4_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2023

PHYSICS
Choose the correct answer :
4 6. A ball is projected upward with velocity 40 m/s.
1. If y =2t, then the value of ∫ ydt will be The distance travelled by the ball in 4th second of
0
its journey will be (g = 10 m/s2)
(1) 4 (2) 8 (1) 10 m (2) 30 m
(3) 16 (4) Zero (3) 5 m (4) 20 m
2. If y = ex, then ∫ ydx is equal to 7. Acceleration (a) versus time (t) graph for a body
moving along a straight line as shown in the
(1) 1 (2) ex + c
figure. If velocity of particle is 2 m s–1 at t = 0,
(3) lnx + c (4) x + c then velocity at t = 4 second is
3. Which one of the following graph is correctly
corresponding to the given v - t graph?

(1) 17 ms–1
(2) 15 ms–1
(3) 8 ms–1
(1)
(4) 10 ms–1
8. From the top of a tower, a small stone is
projected vertically upward with speed 25 ms–1. It
strikes the ground near the foot of the tower after
(2) 10 second. The height of the tower is (g = 10 ms–2)
(1) 250 m (2) 31.25 m
(3) 281.25 m (4) 100 m
9. Two particles A and B released from a large
(3) height at t = 0 and t = 1 second respectively.
Distance between two particles at t = 3 second is
(1) 25 m (2) 50 m
(3) 45 m (4) 20 m
(4)
10. The velocity-time graph of a uniformly
accelerated body is a
4. A particle starts from rest from x = 2 m at t = 0 (1) Straight line
along positive x-axis with acceleration of
(2) Circle
2 m s–2. The position of particle at t = 2 s is
(1) x = 8 m (2) x = 4 m (3) Parabola

(3) x = 6 m (4) x = 2 m (4) Hyperbola

5. A particle starts from rest moving with constant 11. A car is moving with 20 m/s, and driver apply the
acceleration. If velocity of the particle at t = 2 s is break. If stopping distance of the car is 20 m,
10 m/s, then acceleration of the particle will be then retardation of the car will be
(1) 2 m/s2 (2) 1 m/s2 (1) 5 m/s2 (2) 10 m/s2
(3) 5 m/s2 (4) 3 m/s2 (3) 2 m/s2 (4) 4 m/s2

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Two Year Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-4 (TYMRG4_Code-A)
12. The acceleration (a) versus time (t) graph of 18. The position-time graph of a moving particle as
a particle moving in a straight line is as shown in shown in the figure. The velocity of the particle is
the figure. The acceleration of particle at
t = 1 s is

(1) Increasing
(1) 4 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
(2) Decreasing
(3) 8 m/s2 (4) Zero
(3) Constant
13. If v denotes velocity in time t and v = acost, then
displacement is (4) First increasing then decreasing
(1) acost 19. Velocity-time graph of a particle moving in a
(2) –acost straight line is shown in the figure. The
displacement of particle between time interval
(3) asint t = 0 to t = 20 s will be
(4) –asint
14. The magnitude of relative velocity of two cars
A and B is 10 m/s. If the velocity of car A
is 30 m/s then velocity with which car B is moving
may be (Assume both cars are moving in same
direction)
(1) 40 m/s (2) 30 m/s
(1) 400 m
(3) 25 m/s (4) 35 m/s
(2) 100 m
15. Two ends of a train which is moving with a
(3) 200 m
constant acceleration, passes a certain point with
velocity 1 m/s and 7 m/s respectively. The (4) 50 m
velocity with which the middle point of the train
20. For uniformly accelerated motion of a body along
pass the same point is
a straight line, the ratio of distance travelled in
(1) 6 m/s (2) 5 m/s first second to the distance travelled in first two
seconds will be (Assuming body starts from rest)
(3) 4 m/s (4) 3 m/s
(1) 1 : 4
16. A particle moves along a straight line. If velocity
of the particle is given by v = 2t2, where t is time, (2) 1 : 2
then the acceleration versus time graph will be
(3) 2 : 1
(1) Parabola
(4) 4 : 1
(2) Circle
21. Two trains each of length 200 m are moving on
(3) Straight line the parallel track in opposite direction. If velocity
(4) Rectangular hyperbola of the each train is 20 m/s, then time taken by the
trains to cross each other.
17. The acceleration of a body is a = 3 m s–2. At time
t = 0, it is at origin and starts from rest, then its (1) 15 s
velocity at t = 2 s will be (2) 10 s
(1) 4 m/s (2) 6 m/s (3) 20 s
(3) 2 m/s (4) 5 m/s (4) 5 s
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Fortnightly Test-4 (TYMRG4_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2023
22. The velocity-time graph of a moving object as (1) 1 m/s2 (2) 2 m/s2
shown in the figure. The acceleration of the 1 1
object at t = 5 s will be (3) m/s2 (4) m/s2
2 4
23. An object is thrown vertically upward. It has a
velocity of 10 m/s when it reaches half of its
maximum height. The maximum height reached
by the object will be
(1) 10 m (2) 30 m
(3) 5 m (4) 20 m

CHEMISTRY
24. The shortest wavelength in the Balmer series of 30. Angular momentum of electron in the second
hydrogen atom spectrum is (RH = Rydberg excited state of hydrogen atom is
constant) h h
(1) (2)
4 4 2π π
(1) (2)
RH 3RH 3h 4h
(3) (4)
2 1 2π π
(3) (4)
3RH RH 31. Which of the following transition in the hydrogen
atom will fall in ultraviolet spectrum?
25. Energy of an electron in the 3rd orbit of hydrogen
atom is (1) n = 6 to n = 3 (2) n = 2 to n = 1

(1) –0.85 eV (3) n = 4 to n = 2 (4) n = 5 to n = 4

32. Principal quantum number does not tell us about
(2) –13.6 eV
(1) Size of shell
(3) –1.51 eV
(2) Energy of shell
(4) –27.2 eV
(3) Maximum number of electrons in a shell
26. The lowest value of n for f orbital is
(4) Shape of the orbitals
(1) 3 (2) 4
33. The orbital which is dumb-bell shaped, is
(3) 5 (4) 6 (1) s (2) pz
27. The maximum number of electrons present in the (3) d (4) fxyz
orbitals having quantum numbers n = 3 and x2 − y2

l = 1 is 34. Maximum number of electrons in l subshell is

(1) 2 (2) 4 given by
(3) 10 (4) 6 (1) 4l (2) (2l + 1)

28. Total number of angular nodes present in 2p (3) (2l + 2) (4) (4l + 2)
orbital is 35. Which of the following sets of quantum numbers
is not possible?
(1) 2 (2) 3
1
(3) 4 (4) 1 (1) n = 1, l = 0, ml = 0, ms = +
2
29. The de-Broglie wavelength of a pitched baseball
having mass 100 g and a speed of 50 m/s is 1
(2) n = 3, l = 1, ml = 0, ms = +
(h = 6.626 × 10–34 Js) 2
(1) 1.325 × 10–34 m 1
(3) n = 2, l = 2, ml =
−1, ms =
+
(2) 1.325 × 10–31 m 2

(3) 1.325 × 10–32 m 1

(4) n = 4, l = 3, ml =
−3, ms =
+
2
(4) 1.325 × 10–36 m
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Two Year Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-4 (TYMRG4_Code-A)
36. If the radius of first Bohr's orbit of hydrogen atom 41. Correct expression for Heisenberg’s Uncertainty
is x, then the radius of second Bohr's orbit of Li2+ Principle is
ion will be h h
2
(1) ∆x × ∆v ≥ (2) ∆x × ∆p x ≥
4x 2x 4π π
(1) (2)
9 3 h h
(3) ∆x × ∆p x ≥ (4) ∆x × ∆p x ≥
4x 4x 4π 4πm
(3) (4)
3 9 42. The number of unpaired electrons present in Fe
37. For l = 2, value of m cannot be atom is (Z = 26)
(1) –1 (2) 0 (1) 3 (2) 2
(3) +1 (4) +3 (3) 4 (4) 5
38. Number of waves in third orbit of H-atom is 43. Bohr theory is applicable for
(1) 3 (2) 5 (1) H+ (2) Li+
(3) 6 (4) 9 (3) He (4) Be3+
39. Orbital angular momentum value of an electron in 44. The correct order of energies of orbitals for
H-atom for 4d orbital is H-atom is
h (1) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s
(1) Zero (2)
2 2π (2) 3s = 3p = 3d < 4s

h h (3) 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d

(3) 6 (4) 2
2π 2π (4) 3s = 3p = 3d > 4s
40. When an electron drops from a higher energy 45. “No two electrons in an atom can have the same
level to a lower energy level, then set of four quantum numbers”, it is known as
(1) Energy is emitted (1) Pauli’s exclusion principle
(2) Energy is absorbed (2) Aufbau principle
(3) Atomic number decreases (3) (n + l) rule

(4) Mass number increases (4) Hund’s rule of maximum multiplicity

BOTANY
46. Select the correct match from the following. 48. Which of the following genera is not placed in
family solanaceae?
(1) Monocotyledonae – Class
(1) Solanum (2) Petunia
(2) Poales – Family
(3) Mangifera (4) Datura
(3) Hominidae – Order
49. Taxon which not related to classification of wheat
(4) Insecta – Phylum is
(1) Triticum (2) Poaceae
47. When we proceed from family to division
(3) Sapindales (4) aestivum
(1) The number of similar characteristics of
organisms increases 50. All the given criteria are used by the Whittaker for
classification of organisms except
(2) The number of similar characteristics of
organisms remains constant (1) Cell type

(3) It becomes easy to determine the relationship (2) Cell wall

to the other taxa at the same level (3) Body organization
(4) The specificity of organisms decreases (4) Type of rRNA

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Fortnightly Test-4 (TYMRG4_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2023
51. Binary fission in bacteria does not occur when 60. Members of monera lack
there is
(1) Membrane bound cell organelles
(1) Abundance of nutrients
(2) 70 S ribosomes
(2) Accumulation of waste products
(3) Nucleoid
(3) Abundant space
(4) DNA
(4) Absence of bacteriophage
61. The taxonomic aid used for identification of both
52. Most common type of asexual reproduction in
plants and animals is
bacteria is
(1) Conidia formation (1) Flora (2) Herbarium
(2) Endospore formation (3) Key (4) Zoological park
(3) Zoospore formation 62. Cell wall containing organism Chlamydomonas is
(4) Binary fission placed along with wall-less Amoeba in the same
kingdom because of being
53. According to the six kingdom system all the given
are included in eukarya domain except (1) Heterotrophic
(1) Protista (2) Fungi (2) Prokaryotes
(3) Animalia (4) Archaea (3) Unicellular eukaryotes
54. Which of the following is absent in bacteria?
(4) Multicellular
(1) Cell membrane
63. Rod shaped bacteria are
(2) Ribosome
(1) Bacillus (2) Spirillum
(3) Golgi body
(4) Nucleoid (3) Vibrio (4) Coccus

55. Most of the bacteria are 64. _________ is an intermediate category between
order and genus.
(1) Heterotrophic
(2) Autotrophic (1) Family (2) Species

(3) Mixotrophic (3) Division (4) Class

(4) Chemotrophic 65. Which of the following is the suffix of taxonomic
56. Kingdom which has most diversity in context of category order in plants?
nutrition types is (1) -ales
(1) Monera (2) Fungi (2) -aceae
(3) Plantae (4) Animalia
(3) -idae
57. Which of the following play an important role in
(4) -eae
respiration in prokaryotes?
(1) Polysome (2) Nucleoid 66. Mango belongs to plant family called
(3) Mesosome (4) Cell wall (1) Poaceae (2) Solanaceae
58. Which of the following kingdoms has only (3) Anacardiaceae (4) Convolvulaceae
heterotrophic mode of nutrition?
67. _____ have collections of preserved plant and
(1) Monera (2) Protista animal specimens for study and reference.
(3) Fungi (4) Plantae
(1) Botanical gardens (2) Museums
59. Cell wall of Monerans is mainly composed of
(3) Zoological parks (4) Herbarium
(1) Chitin
68. Indian Botanical Garden is situated in
(2) Polysaccharides with amino acids
(1) Kolkata (2) New Delhi
(3) Cellulose
(4) Hemicellulose (3) Dehradun (4) Lucknow

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Two Year Medical-2023 Fortnightly Test-4 (TYMRG4_Code-A)

ZOOLOGY
69. Consider the following enzymatic reaction: 76. Bile is continuously produced by hepatocytes of
Nucleotidase liver, but it is temporarily stored in
Nucleotide 
→ Nucleoside + phosphate
(1) Pancreas (2) Gall bladder
This reaction occurs in the lumen of
(3) Stomach (4) Small intestine
(1) Stomach (2) Small intestine
77. How much starch is hydrolysed by salivary
(3) Liver (4) Large intestine amylase in oral cavity?
70. Carboxypeptidase helps in the conversion of (1) 50 per cent (2) 20 per cent
peptones in to (3) 30 per cent (4) 60 per cent
(1) Proteoses (2) Amino acids 78. Peptic cells which secrete pepsinogen are
(3) Dipeptides (4) Monoglycerides present in the mucosal layer of
71. Enzyme which is not involved directly in digestion (1) Buccal cavity (2) Stomach
of food is (3) Small intestine (4) Large intestine
(1) Pepsin (2) Pancreatic amylase 79. Dental formula of an adult human with wisdom
(3) Enterokinase (4) Trypsin teeth is

72. Study the following reaction and choose the 2103 2123
(1) (2)
option that correctly state ‘X’. 2103 2123
Salivary amylase 2102 2012
Starch 
pH 6.8
→X (3) (4)
2102 2012
(1) Lactose 80. Enzyme lactase present in succus entericus
(2) Maltose converts lactose in to

(3) Inulin (1) Glucose + Galactose

(4) Galactose (2) Glucose + Glucose

(3) Glucose + Fructose
73. A proteolytic enzyme found in gastric juice of
infants which helps in digestion of milk proteins is (4) Galactose + Fructose
(1) Trypsin (2) Pepsin 81. Each enzyme shows its highest activity at a
particular temperature which is called
(3) Rennin (4) Lactase
(1) Optimum temperature
74. All of the following are a part of bile, except
(2) Melting point
(1) Bile salts
(3) Boiling point
(2) Lipase
(4) Sub zero temperature
(3) Cholesterol
82. Study the following reaction carefully.
(4) Phospholipids
S – G + S′ → S + S′ – G
75. Read the statement w.r.t. sphincter in GI tract and
Enzyme involved in catalyzing the above reaction
choose the option that correctly fills the blank.
is
A muscular sphincter called ______, regulate the
(1) Hydrolase (2) Isomerase
opening of oesophagus in to the stomach.
(3) Transferase (4) Ligase
(1) Ileocecal valve
83. Coenzyme nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide
(2) Pyloric sphincter contain the vitamin
(3) Sphincter of Oddi (1) B12 (2) B1
(4) Gastro-oesophageal sphincter (3) A (4) B3

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Fortnightly Test-4 (TYMRG4_Code-A) Two Year Medical-2023
84. Match column I with column II and choose the 88. How many classes are enzymes divided in to?
correct option.
(1) 5 (2) 6
Column I Column II (3) 4 (4) 8
a. Parotid gland (i) Sub-mucosal 89. Read the statements w.r.t. co-factors and choose
glands the correct option.
(A) When a co-factor is removed from a
b. Succus entericus (ii) Phospholipids
holoenzyme, its catalytic activity is lost.
c. Brunner’s glands (iii) Nucleotidases (B) Haem is a prosthetic group of the enzyme
carboxypeptidase.
d. Bile (iv) Salivary gland
in cheeks (1) A and B both are correct

(1) a(i), b(iii), c(ii), d(iv) (2) A is correct but B is incorrect

(2) a(ii), b(i), c(iv), d(iii) (3) A is incorrect but B is correct

(3) a(iv), b(ii), c(i), d(iii) (4) A and B both are incorrect

(4) a(iv), b(iii), c(i), d(ii) 90. Study the graph given below regarding concept
of activation energy.
85. Select the correct match.
(1) Glucose – Simple diffusion only
(2) Amino acids – Facilitated transport only
(3) Chloride ions – Active absorption only
(4) Water – Osmosis
86. Increased liquidity of faecal discharge is known
as
(1) Constipation
(2) Indigestion
(3) Vomiting
(4) Diarrhoea Choose the option that correctly represents the
87. Conversion of pro-carboxypeptidases into active label A.
carboxypeptidases is brought about by (1) Potential energy of the substrate without
(1) Enterokinase enzyme

(2) HCl (2) Activation energy without enzyme

(3) Trypsin (3) Potential energy of the product with enzyme

(4) Trypsinogen (4) Activation energy with enzyme

  

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