1.

SOLUTIONS
(WEIGHTAGE: 7 MARKS)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. The boiling point of an azeotropic mixture of water and ethanol is less than that of
water and ethanol. The mixture shows:
(a) no deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(b) positive deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(c) negative deviation from Raoult’s Law.
(d) that the solution is unsaturated.
2. Which of the following best describes the difficulty in breathing as one climbs to
higher altitudes?
a) Henry’s law
b) Raoult’s law
c) Osmotic pressure
d) Relative lowering of atmospheric pressure
3. An unripe mango placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickle, shrivels
because -
(a) it gains water due to osmosis.
(b) it loses water due to reverse osmosis.
(c) it gains water due to reverse osmosis.
(d) it loses water due to osmosis.
4. The vapour pressure of the solution containing non-volatile solute is:
(a) greater than vapour pressure of pure solvent
(b) lesser than vapour pressure of pure solvent
(c) equal to the vapour pressure of pure solvent
(d) the sum of the vapour pressure of the solute and the solvent

5. The colligative property used for determination of molar mass of proteins and polymers
(a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure
(b) Depression in freezing point
(c) Elevation in boiling point
(d) Osmotic pressure of solution
ASSERTION & REASONING QUESTIONS
A statement of Assertion(A) followed by a statement of Reason(R) is given. Choose the
correct answer out of the following choices

(a)Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A.

(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.
 1. Assertion(A):When NaCl is added to water a depression in freezing point is observed.
Reason (R) : The lowering of vapour pressure of a solution causes depression in the
freezing point.
2. Assertion(A): When a solution is separated from pure solvent by a semi-permeable
membrane, solvent molecules pass through it from solvent side to solution side.
Reason(R): Diffusion is the movement of particles from an area of higher
concentration to lower concentration.
3. Assertion(A): 1M solution of KCl has less osmotic pressure than 1M solution of
glucose
Reason( R): in solution KCl dissociates into a greater number of particles.
4 . Assertion(A): Deep Sea divers often suffers from Bends
Reason (R): Nitrogen gas has appreciable solubility at high pressure under water.
5. Assertion(A): - When a cell is placed in hypertonic solution, it shrinks.
Reason (R): - Reverse osmosis is used for desalination of water.

TYPES OF SOLUTIONS
Q1. What type of solution is formed on mixing camphor and nitrogen?
Q2. What type of solution is formed by sodium amalgam. Identify the solute and solvent in it.

EXPRESSING CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTION

(1) VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION
(a) Which of the following factor(s) affect the solubility of a gaseous solute in the fixed
volume of liquid solvent?
(i) Nature of solute (ii) Temperature
(iii) Pressure
(b) Which thing is responsible of low concentration of oxygen in the blood and tissues of
people living at high altitude?
(c) When will happen at equilibrium the rate of dissolution of a solid solute in a volatile
liquid solvent with respect to concentration?
(2) SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION
(a) Differentiate between molality and molarity of a solution. What is the effect of change in
temperature of a solution on its molality and molarity?
(b) What are isotonic solutions?
(c) Why do gases always tend to be less soluble in liquids as the temperature is raised?
(3) NUMERICAL BASED QUESTION
(a) A 5 percent solution (by mass) of cane-sugar (M.W. 342) is isotonic with 0.877% solution
of substance X. Find the molecular weight of X.
 (b) Concentrated nitric acid used in the laboratory work is 68% nitric acid by mass in
aqueous solution. What should be the molarity of such a sample of acid if the density of the
solution is 1·504 g mL-1?
(c) A sample of drinking water was found to be severely contaminated with chloroform
(CHCl3), supposed to be a carcinogen. The level of contamination was 15 ppm (by mass).
(i) express this in percent by mass.
(ii) determine the molality of chloroform in the water sample.

HENRY,S LAW AND ITS APPLICATIONS

Q.1 State Henry’s law.
Q.2 Which cold drink you prefer- one chilled or other one at room temperature and why?
Q.3 At the same temperature hydrogen is more soluble in water than Helium. Which of them
will have higher value of KH and why?
Q.4 What is the significance of Henry’s Law constant KH?
Q.5 If N2 gas is bubbled through water at 293 K, how many millimoles of N2 gas would
dissolve in 1 litre of water? Assume that N2 exerts a partial pressure of 0.987 bar. Given that
Henry’s law constant for N2 at 293 K is 76.48 kbar.
Q.6 Write applications of Henry’s law ?
Q.7 H2 S, a toxic gas with rotten egg like smell, is used for the qualitative analysis. If the
solubility of H2S in water at STP is 0.195 m, calculate Henry’s law constant
Q.8 Henry’s law constant for the molality of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27 x 105 mm
Hg. Calculate the solubility of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg.
Q.9 Henry’s law constant for CO2 in water is 1.67 x 108 Pa at 298 K. Calculate the quantity of
CO2 in 500 mL of soda water when packed under 2.5 atm CO2 pressure at 298 K.

RAOULT,S LAW AND ITS DEVIATION

1. State Raoult’s law for the solution containing volatile components. How does
Raoult’s law become a special case of Henry’s law? Write two differences between an
ideal solution and a non-ideal solution.
2. What is meant by positive and negative deviations from Raoult's law and how is the
sign of ΔmixH related to positive and negative deviations from Raoult's law?
3. Define an ideal solution and write one of its characteristics.
4. On mixing liquid X and liquid Y, volume of the resulting solution decreases. What
type of deviation from Raoult’s law is shown by the resulting solution? What change
in temperature would you observe after mixing liquids X and Y?
5. The vapour pressure of pure liquids A and B are 450 and 700 mm Hg respectively, at
350 K. Find out the composition of the liquid mixture if total vapour pressure is 600
mm Hg. Also find the composition of the vapour phase.
6. Why is an increase in temperature observed on mixing chloroform and acetone?
7. The graphical representation of vapour pressure of two components system as a
function of composition is given alongside. By graphic inspection, answer the
following questions:
a. Name the type of deviation from raoult’s law
 b. Predict the sign of ΔmixH for this system
c. Are the A-B interactions stronger or weaker than A-A andB-B interactions.

AZEOTROPES
SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS
Q.1Which kind of azeotropes exhibits negative deviation from raoults law?
Q.2 Which kind of Azeotrope has solute solvent interaction Weaker than solute solute
and solvent solvent interactions?
Q.3 What are azeotropes explain with examples?
Q.4 What are maximum and minimum boiling azeotropes? Explain with examples?

COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES
Reasoning based questions:
Q1. Explain why on addition of 1 mol glucose or NaCl to 1 litre water, the boiling point of
water increases while on addition of 1 mol of methyl alcohol to 1 litre of water decreases its
boiling point?
Q2. Why does measurement of osmotic pressure method is preferred for the determination of
molar masses of macromolecules such as proteins and polymers?
Q3. What happens if we place blood cells in a solution containingthe
(i) 0.5% NaCl solution (ii) 1.2% NaCl solution
Q4. Give reason for the following:
(i)An unripe mango is placed in a concentrated salt solution to prepare pickle.
(ii)Sprinkling of salt helps in clearing the snow-covered roads in hilly areas.
(iii) Doctors suggest gargles with NaCl solution for sore throat.

Numerical:
Q5. 18 g of glucose, C6H12O6 (Molar mass – 180 g mol-1) is dissolved in 1 kg of water in a
sauce pan. At what temperature will this solution boil? (Kb for water = 0.52 K kg mol-1,
boiling point of pure water = 373.15 K)
Q6. Calculate the mass of a non-volatile solute (molecular mass 40) which should be
dissolved in 114 g octane to reduce the vapour pressure to 80%.
Q7. Calculate the amount of CaCl2(molar mass=111g/mol) which must be added to 500g of
water to lower its freezing point by 2K, assuming CaCl2 is completely dissociated.(Kf for
water=1.86Kkgmol-1)
Q8. At 300 K, 36 g glucose present per litre in its solution has osmotic pressure of 4·98 bar.
If the osmotic pressure of the solution is 1·52 bar at the same temperature, what would be its
concentration?
Q9. 19.5g of CH2FCOOH is dissolved in 500g of water. The depression in the freezing point
of water observed is 1.0°C. Calculate the van’s Hoff factor and dissociation constant of
fluoroacetic acid.
Q10. Define the following terms:
(i) Osmotic Pressure
(ii) Reverse osmosis
(iii) Colligative properties

VAN’T HOFF FACTOR

1.What do you mean by van’t Hoff factor? Calculate the values of van’t Hoff factors for KCl
and K2SO4.
2.What is the van’t Hoff factor for a compound which undergoes tetramerisation in an
organic solvent?
3.Predict the nature (or state ) of the solute in the solution in the following situations :
(i) When ‘i’ is found to be 0.3 (ii) When ‘i’ is found to be 2.83
4. Calculate the value of van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ for an aqueous solution of AlCl3 which is
0.01molal.(Given : Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1 , Tf of solution = -0.068 0C

ANSWERS
ANSWERS OF MCQ
Q 1 2 3 4 5
ANSWER b a D B d

ANSWERS OF ASSERTION & REASIONING QUESTIONS

Questions 1 2 3 4 5
ANSWER a b D a b

TYPES OF SOLUTIONS
1. Gaseous solution
2. Solid solution. Solute is sodium and solvent is Silver.
 ANSWERS EXPRESSING CONCENTRATION OF SOLUTION
(1) VERY SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION
(a) (I & ii) At constant temperature, the solubility of a gaseous solute in liquid depends on
nature of solute and pressure. At constant pressure, solubility is dependent upon
nature of solute and temperature.
(b) At high altitudes the atmospheric pressure is less but the body temperature remains
same hence concentration of oxygen in the air as well as blood is less.
(c) At equilibrium the rate of dissolution of solid solute is equal to rate of crystallisation.
(2) SHORT ANSWER TYPE QUESTION
(a) Formulas for molarity and molality
Molality is independent of temperature, whereas molarity is a function of temperature
because volume depends on temperature and mass does not
(b) An isotonic solution is a kind of solution with the same salt concentration as blood
and cells. Those solutions which are exerting same osmotic pressure under similar
conditions (For example 0.9% NaCl solution by mass volume is Isotonic with human
blood).
(c) When gases are dissolved in water, it is accompanied by a release of heat energy, i.e.,
process is exothermic. When the temperature is increased, according to Lechatlier’s
Principle, the equilibrium shifts in backward direction, and thus gases becomes less
soluble in liquids.
(3) NUMERCALS:
(a) Given: W (mass) of cane-sugar = 5% means 5 g
Molar mass of cane-sugar (M) = 342 g mol-1
Mass of isotonic substance X
= 0.877% means 0.877 g
Molar mass of X = ?
Using formula,
W cane sugar M cane sugar =WXMX⇒5g342gmol−1=0.877gMX
or Mx = 0.877g×342gmol−15g⇒299.934gmol−15g
∴ Mx = 59.9 ≈ 60 g mol-1

(b)
(c) 15 ppm means 15 parts in million (106) by mass in the solution.

HENRY,S LAW
1.Mole fraction of gas in the solution is directly proportional to partial pressure of gas in the
vapour phase
2.Chilled as solubility of CO2 is more at low temp.
3.Helium as greatertheKHvaluelower thesolubility
4.Henry’s Law constant (KH) helps in comparing the relative solubilities of different gases in
the same solvent (e.g. water). In general, the lesser the value of KH, the more the solubility of
a gas.
5. The solubility of gas is related to the mole fraction in aqueous solution. The mole fraction
of the gas in the solution is calculated by applying Henry’s law. Thus:
x (Nitrogen) = p (nitrogen) / Kh
= 0.987bar /76,480 bar= 1.29 × 10–5
As 1 litre of water contains 55.5 mol of it, therefore if n represents number of moles of N2 in
solution,
x (Nitrogen) = n mol /(n mol +55.5 mol)
= n/ 55.5 = 1.29 × 10–5
(n in denominator is neglected as it is << 55.5)
Thus n = 1.29 × 10–5 × 55.5 mol = 7.16 × 10–4mol
=( 7.16×10−4mol × 1000 mmol)/1 mol = 0.716 mmol
6. Some applications of Henry’s law –
-The solubility of CO2 in soft drinks and soda water is increased by sealing the bottles under
high pressure.
-At high pressure underwater, scuba divers have to cope with high concentrations of
dissolved gases while breathing air.
-At high altitudes, climbers become weak and are unable to think clearly, which are
symptoms of a condition called anoxia
7.Solubility of H2S gas = 0.195 m
= 0.195 mole in 1 kg of solvent
1 kg of solvent = 1000g
1000
= = 55.55 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠
18
0.195
∴ 𝑥𝐻2 𝑠 =
0.195 + 55.55
0.195
= = 0.0035
55.745
Pressure at STP =0.987 bar
Applying Henry’s law ,
𝑃𝐻2 𝑠 = 𝐾𝐻 𝑥 𝑋𝐻2𝑆
𝑃𝐻2 𝑆 0.987
𝐾𝐻 = = = 282 𝑏𝑎𝑟
𝑥𝐻2 𝑆 0.0035

8. Here, p = 760 mm Hg, KH = 4.27 × 105 mm Hg (at 298 K)

According to Henry’s law, p = KHχ
χ = p / kH
= 760 mmHg / 4.27×105 mmHg
= 177.99 × 10-5
= 178 × 10-5

9. 𝐾𝐻 = 1.67 𝑥 108 𝑃𝑎
𝑃𝐶𝑂2 = 2.5 𝑎𝑡𝑚 = 2.5 𝑋 101325 𝑃𝑎
𝑃𝐶𝑂2 2.5 𝑋 101325
∴ 𝑋𝐶𝑂2 = = =1.517𝑋10−3
𝐾𝐻 1.67 𝑋 108

For 500 Ml of soda water, water present ≈ 500 𝑚𝐿

500
=500 mg= 18 =27.78 moles

∴ 𝑛𝐻2𝑂 = 27.78 𝑚𝑜𝑙𝑒𝑠

𝑛𝐶𝑂2
=1.517 X 10-3
27.78

𝑛𝐶𝑂2 = 42.14 𝑋 10-3

=42.14 m mol
42.14 x 10-3 x 44 g
1.854 g

RAOULT,S LAW
1. Raoult’s law: It states that partial vapour pressure of each component is directly
proportional to their mole fraction if both solute and solvent are volatile.
P1 = p10x1 and p2 = p20x2
According to Henry’s law p = KHx , When KH equals p10 in Henry's law, Raoult's law
becomes a special instance of Henry's law.

2. Positive deviation from Raoult's law occurs when the total vapour pressure of the solution
is more than corresponding vapour pressure in case of ideal solution.eg. Mixture of acetone

and benzene solutions

Negative deviation from Raoult's law occurs when the total vapour pressure of the solution is
less than corresponding vapour pressure in case of the ideal solution. eg. Mixture of CHCl3
and acetone.

For positive deviation from Raoult's law, ΔmixH has a positive sign.
For negative deviation from Raoult's law, ΔmixH has a negative sign.
3. Those solutions which are obeying Raoult’s law are called ideal solutions. An ideal
solution is a solution in which no volume change and no enthalpy change takes place on
mixing the solute and the solvent in any proportion.Characteristic of an ideal solution :There
will be no change in enthalpy ∆Hmix = 0, ∆Vmix = 0, ∆Pmix = 0
4. Volume decreases by mixing X and Y. It shows negative deviations from Raoult’s law.
There will be rise in temperature. (∆Hmix < 0)
5. It is given that: = 450 mm of H = 700 mm of Hg ptotal = 600 mm of Hg
From Raoult’s law, we have:
 Therefore, total pressure
Therefore, = 1 − 0.4 = 0.6
Now, = 450 × 0.4 = 180 mm of Hg
= 700 × 0.6 = 420 mm of Hg

Now, in the vapour phase: Mole fraction of liquid A

= 0.30
And, mole fraction of liquid B = 1 − 0.30 = 0.70
6. It is because force of attraction between chloroform and acetone is more than the force of
attraction between CHC13—CHC13 or Acetone-Acetone. Therefore, AH = -ve,
i.e. exothermic process, therefore, there is increase in temperature.
7. a. Negative deviation
b. Negative
c. A-B interactions are stronger than A-A and B-B interactions.

AZEOTROPES

1.Maximum boiling azeotropes.

2.Minimum boiling Azeotropes.
3.Azeotropes are binary mixtures having the same composition in liquid and vapour phase and
boils at constant temperature. Examples: alcohol-water mixture, nitric acid-water mixture.
4.Maximum boiling azeotropes : These are the binary mixtures whose boiling point is more
than either of the two components. The solution that show large negative deviation from raoults
law form maximum boiling azeotrope .Example: Mixture containing 68% HNO3 and 32%
H2O.
Minimum boiling azeotropes : These are the binary mixtures whose boiling point is less than
either of the two components. The solution that show positive deviation from raoults law form
minimum boiling azeotrope .Example: Mixture containing 94.5% Ethanol and 4.5% H2O.
 COLLIGATIVE PROPERTIES
1.Glucose or NaCl is a non-volatile solute, therefore, addition of glucose to water lowers the
vapour pressure of water as a result of which boiling point of water increases. On the other
hand, methyl alcohol is more volatile than water, therefore its addition increases the total
vapour pressure over the solution. As a result, boiling point of water decreases.
2. Because the magnitude of osmotic pressure is large even for very dilute solution and it can
be measured at room temperature.
3.(i) Outer conc. is less than blood cell=> hypotonic solution => endosmosis => cell will
swell. (ii) Outer conc. is more than blood cell=> hypertonic solution =>exosmosis => cell
will shrink.
4(i) As it loses water due to exosmosis.
(ii) Salt decreases the freezing point of water. As a result, the snow starts melting from the
surface and therefore, it helps in clearing the roads.
(iii) Due to osmosis, infected water comes out of the sores and they get cured.
5. Elevation of boiling point ∆Tb = WB×100×Kb/ MB × wt. of solvent
Given: WB = 18 g
MB (Formula of glucose is C6H12O6) = 6 × 12 + 12 + 6 × 16 = 180
Wt. of solvent = 1 kg or 1000 g,
Kb = 0.52 K kg mol-1
Hence, ∆Tb = 18×1000×0.52/ 180 ×1000g = 0.52 K
∴B.P of the solution = 373.15 + 0.052
= 373.202 K
6. ∆Tf = 0.48 K, W1 = 75g,
M2 = 256 g mol-1 W2 =?
Using formula, W2 = M2×W1×ΔTf / 1000×Kf
= 256×75×0.48 / 1000×5.12 = 1.8 g

7.
8.

9.Calculation of Van’t Hoff factor (i)

Given, w1 = 500 g = 0.5 kg, w2 = 19.5 g, Kf = 1.86 K kg mol-1, ΔTf = 1 K
Molar mass of CH2FCOOH (M2)
= 2 × 12 + 3 × 1 + 1 × 19 + 2 × 16 = 24 + 3 + 19 + 32 = 78 g mol-1
ΔTf = iKf m
10. (i) It is the pressure which must be applied to the solution side (more concentrated
solution) to just prevent the passage of pure solvent into it through a sernipermeable
membrane.

(ii) The process of movement of solvent through a semipermeable membrane from the
solution to the pure solvent by applying excess pressure on the solution side

(iii)Colligative properties of solutions are those properties which depend only upon the
number of solute particles in the solution and not on their nature.

VAN,T HOFF FACTOR

1. Van’t Hoff factor ‘i’ gives the extent of association or dissociation of the solute
particles in the solution. It may be defined as the ratio of observed colligative property
to calculated colligative property.

i = Observed colligative property

Calculated colligative property
i = Number of moles of particles after association/dissociation
Number of moles of particles before association/dissociation
Value of ‘i’ for KCl :
KCl + water → K+(aq) + Cl-(aq)
‘i’ = 1 +1 /1
‘i’ = 2
Value of ‘i’ for K2SO4:
K2SO4 + water → 2K+(aq) + SO4-2(aq)
‘i’ = 2 +1 /1
‘i’ = 3
2.Given : compound undergoes tetramerisation
Because ,i = Number of moles of compound after association
Number of moles of compound before association
Hence ,‘i’ = 1 /4
‘i’ = 0.25
3.(i) solute undergoes through association.
(ii) solute undergoes through dissociation.
4.Given: ∆Tf = 0.068
Kf for water = 1.86 K kg mol-1
Molality(m) = 0.01m
‘i’= ?
We know that : ∆Tf= iKfm
0.068= i x 1.86 x 0.01
i = 3.65

2. ELECTROCHEMISTRY
CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 7 Marks

MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:

1. The charge required for the reduction of 1 mol of MnO4– to MnO2 is
(a) 1 F
(b) 3 F
(c) 5 F
(d) 6 F

2. The cell reaction of the galvanic cell.

3. If limiting molar conductivity of Ca2+ and Cl– are 119.0 and 76.3 S cm2 mol-1, then the
value of limiting molar conductivity of CaCl2 will be
(a) 195.3 S cm2 mol-1
(b) 271.6 S cm2 mol-1
(c) 43.3 S cm2 mol-1
(d) 314.3 S cm2 mol-1.

4. Fused NaCl on electrolysis gives .............. on cathode.

(a) Chlroine (b) Sodium (c) Sodium amalgam (d) Hydrogen

5. Rust is a mixture of
(a) FeO and Fe (OH)3
(b) FeO and Fe (OH)2
(c) Fe2O3 and Fe (OH)3
(d) Fe3O4 and Fe (OH)

6. The standard reduction potentials of X, Y, Z metals are 0.52V, -3.03V, -1.18V respectively.
The order of reducing power of the corresponding metals is:
(a) Y > Z > X
(b) X > Y > Z
(c) Z > Y > X
(d) Z > X > Y

7. For a spontaneous reaction, ΔG, equilibrium constant K and E0cell will be respectively.
(a) – ve > 1, + ve
(b) + ve > 1 – ve
(c) -ve, < 1, -ve
(d) -ve, > 1, -ve

8. In fuel cell
a)chemical energy is converted to electrical energy
b) energy of combustion of fuel is converted to chemical energy
c) energy of combustion of fuel is converted to electrical energy
d)electrical energy is converted to chemical energy.

9. While charging the lead storage battery _________

(a) PbSO4 anode is reduced to Pb.
(b) PbSO4 cathode is reduced to Pb.
(c) PbSO4 cathode is oxidised to Pb.
(d) PbSO4 anode is oxidised to PbO2.

10. The cell constant of a conductivity cell..................

(a) changes with change of electrolyte
(b) changes with change of concentration of electrolyte
(c) changes with temperature of electrolyte
(d) remains constant for a cell.
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTIONS

1. ASSERTION - Electrochemical cell is a device which is used to transform chemical

energy into electrical energy.
REASON – In electrochemical cells non-spontaneous redox reaction takes place.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.

2. ASSERTION - Copper sulphate cannot be stored in zinc vessel.

REASON – Zn has lower electrode potential and can displace Cu from Copper
sulphate solution.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.

3. ASSERTION - An electrochemical cell stops working when Ecell becomes zero.

REASON – E0cell of an electrochemical cell never becomes zero.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.

4. ASSERTION - Molar conductivity increases, if concentration of weak electrolytic

solution decreases.
REASON – On decreasing concentration of weak electrolytic solution, total number
of ions increases due to increase of degree of ionisation.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.
5. ASSERTION –2 F of charge is required to deposit 1 mol of silver at cathode during
electrolysis of AgNO3 solution.
REASON – 1 mol of electron carries 1 F of charge.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.
 QUESTIONS BASED ON NERNS’T EQUATION

1. Calculate electromotive force (E cell) at 298 K for the following cell takes place at
298K
Co | Co2+ (1.0M) || Ni2+ (0.01 M) | Ni
(E°cell = 0.03 volt)

2. In the button cells widely used in watches and other devices the following reaction
takes place:
Zn(s)+Ag2O(s)+H2O(l)→Zn2+(aq)+2Ag(s)+2OH−(aq)
Determine ΔrG0 and E0 for the reaction. (E0Ag= 0.344, E0Zn=−0.76)

3. Eº (Cu2+/Cu) and Eº (Ag+/Ag) is + 0.337 V and + 0.799 V respectively. Make a cell

whose EMF is +ve. If the concentration of Cu2+ is 0.01M and Ecell at 25ºC is zero,
calculate the concentration of Ag+.

4. Calculate △rG° and log Kc for the following reaction at 298 K.

2Cr(s) + 3Fe2+(aq) → 2Cr3+(aq)+ 3Fe(s)
[(E°cell = 0.30 V), 1F = 96500C mol-1]

5. Calculate the potential of the following cell

Sn4+ (1.5 M) + Zn → Sn2+ (0.5 M) + Zn2+ (2M).
Given: E0Sn4+ /Sn2+= 0.13V, E0Zn2+/Zn = − 0.76V
Will the cell potential ↑ or ↓ if the concentration of Sn4+ is increased?

QUESTIONS BASED ON FARADAY’S LAW

Q. 1 (a) How much charge in terms of Faraday is required for the reduction of 1 mol of
Cu2+ to Cu.
(b) In electrolysis of aqueous NaCl solution when Pt electrode is taken, then which gas is
liberated at cathode?

Q. 2 Calculate the time to deposit 1.27 g of copper at cathode when a current of 2A was
passed through the solution of CuSO4.
(Molar mass of Cu = 63.5 g mol-1,1 F = 96500 C mol-1)

Q. 3 Three electrolytic cells A,B,C containing solutions of ZnSO4, AgNO3 and

CuSO4 respectively are connected in series. A steady current of 1.5 amperes was passed
through them until 1.45 g of silver deposited at the cathode of cell B. How long did the
current flow? What mass of copper and zinc were deposited?

Q. 4 Calculate the strength of the current required to deposit 1.2 g of magnesium from the
molten MgCl2 in 1 hour
Q. 5 State the following laws :
(i) Faraday first law of electrolysis
(ii) Faraday’s second law of Electrolysis

Q. 6 A solution of Ni(NO3)2 is electrolyzed between platinum electrodes using a current of

5.0 ampere for 20 minutes. What mass of nickel will be deposited at the cathode? (Given : At.
mass of Ni = 58.7 g mol–1, 1F = 96500 C mol–1)

QUESTIONS BASED ON CONDUCTANCE OF ELECTROLYTIC

SOLUTIONS
Q-1 The conductivity of 0.20 M solution of KCl at 298 K is 0.0248 S cm–1. Calculate its
molar conductivity.

Q-2 The resistance of a conductivity cell containing 0.001M KCl solution at 298K is 1500
ohm. What is the cell constant if conductivity of 0.001M KCl solution at 298 K is 0.146 ×
10–3 S cm–1.

Q-3 Write difference between Metallic & Electrolytic Conduction.

Q-4 Resistance of a conductivity cell filled with 0.1 mol L–1 KCl solution is 100 ohms. If the
resistance of the same cell when filled with 0.02 mol L–1 KCl solution is 520 ohms, calculate
the conductivity and molar conductivity of 0.02 mol L–1 KCl solution. The conductivity of
0.1 mol L–1 KCl solutions is 1.29 S/m.

Q-5(a) State Kohlrausch’s law of independent migration of ions.

(b) Suggest a way to determine the limiting molar conductivity value of water.

Q-6 Conductivity of 0.00241M acetic acid is 7.896 × 10−5 S cm-1. Calculate its molar
conductivity and if Λºm for acetic acid are 390.5 S cm2 mol-1, what is its dissociation
constant?

Q-7 Why does the conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution?

Q-8 The molar conductivities of KCl, NaCl and KNO3 are 152, 128 and 111 S cm2 mo1−1
respectively. What is the molar conductivity of NaNO3? (in S cm2mol−1)

Q-9 The molar conductivity of 0.025 mol L–1 Methanoic acid is 46.1 S cm2 mol–1. Calculate
its degree of dissociation and dissociation constant. Given λ ° (H+)= 349.6 S cm2 mol–1 and λ °
(HCOO–) = 54.6 S cm2 mol–1.

Q-10 How does molar conductivity of strong and weak electrolytes vary with concentration?
 QUESTIONS BASED ON BATTERIES
1. Write the chemistry of lead storage battery when it is recharging.
2. Rusting of Iron is an electrochemical process. Justify.
3. Give electrode reactions of H2-O2 fuel cell. Give its two advantages.
4. The cell potential of a mercury cell remains constant. Give reason.
5. What is the major difference in between primary and secondary cells?
-------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------------

Solutions/Answers
MCQs - 1B, 2D, 3B, 4B , 5C, 6A, 7A, 8C, 9A, 10D
Assertion – Reason type questions – 1- (C), 2 – (A), 3-(B), 4-(A), 5-(D)

NERNS’T EQUATION NUMERICALS

Sol. 1
Co (s) + Ni2+ ⇌Co2+ + Ni
From Nernst equation,
0.0591 {Co2+ }
E°Cell= E°cell − log10 {Ni2+ }
n
Here, n = 2, EoCell =0.03 volt,
[Co2+] =1.0M and [Ni2+] = 0.01 M
0.0591 1
Ecell = 0.03− log 0.01
2
Ecell = 0.03 − 0.0591
Ecell = − 0.0291
The negative value of E shows that the cell reaction written above will go in the reverse
direction it means
Co2+ + Ni → Co(s) + Ni2+

Sol. 2
E0cell = E0cathode − E0anode
E0cell = E0Ag − E0Zn
E0cell = 0.344 − (−0.76)
E0cell =1.104 V
ΔG0 = − nFE0cell
ΔG0 = −2×96500×1.104
ΔG0 = −213072 J
ΔG0 = −213 kJ

Sol. 3
Cu is more reactive than silver, so that the cell is as Cu/Cu2+ (0.01M) || Ag+ (C)/Ag
or cell reaction Cu + 2Ag+ → Cu2+ + 2Ag
0.0591 {Cu2+ }{𝐴𝑔}2
Ecell = E°cell− log
n {Cu}{𝐴𝑔+}2
0.0591 (0.01)×12
Ecell = 0 − log
2 1×{Ag+}2
(Ag+) = 1.47 ×10−9 M

Sol. 4
△rG° = nFE°cell
n=6
=6×96500 C/mol×0.30V
=−173700 J/mol
△rG° = −173.7 KJ/mol
0.0591
E0cell = 𝑉×log Kc
n
log Kc= 0.30V×6/0.0591V
log Kc =30.5

Sol. 5
From Nernst equation,
0.0591 {Sn2+ }{𝑍𝑛2+ )
Ecell= E°cell − log10 {Sn4+ }{Zn}
n
0.0591 0.5×𝟐
Ecell= 0.89 − log 1.5×1
2
0.0591 1
Ecell = 0.89 − log 1.5
2
Ecell = 0.895 V
On increasing the concentration of Sn4+, EMF of the cell will increase.
FARADAY’S LAW
1. Ans: (a) The quantity of charge required for reduction of 1 mol of Cu2+
= 2 faradays (∵ Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu)
= 2 × 96500 C = 193000 C
(b) H2 gas

2. Ans:
CuSO4 → Cu2+ + SO42-
Cu2+ + 2e– → Cu
63.5 gram of copper is deposited = 2 × 96500 C
2 𝑥 96500
1.27 gram of Cu is deposited = x 1.27
63.5
= I × t (Q = I × t)
2 𝑥 96500 𝑥 1.27
t= = 1930 seconds
63.5 𝑥 2

3. Ans
According to the reaction: Ag+ + e-→ Ag
96500 𝑥 1.45
i.e., 108 g of Ag is deposited by 96487 C. 108
Therefore, 1.45 g of Ag is deposited by =
= 1295.43 C
1295.43
Given, Current = 1.5 A = 1.5
Therefore, Time
= 863.6 s= 864 s= 14.40 min
Again, Cu2+ + 2e-→ Cu
 63.5 𝑥 1295.43
i.e., 2 x 96500C of charge deposit = 63.5 g of Cu 2 𝑥 96500
Therefore, 1295.43 C of charge will deposit = = 0.426 g of Cu
Zn 2+ + 2e-→ Zn
65.4 𝑥 1295.43
i.e., 2 x 96500 C of charge deposit = 65.4 g of Zn 2 𝑥 96500
Therefore, 1295.43 C of charge will deposit == 0.439 g of Zn

4. Ans : Reaction of deposition of Mg from molten MgCl2

MgCl2 → Mg2+ + 2Cl-1
Mg2+ + 2e- → Mg
24 g of magnesium is deposited by 2x96500 C of electricity
2x96500
1.2g of Mg will be deposited by x1.2 = 9650 C of electricity
24
Now Q = It , I = Q / t =9650/3600 = 2.68 A

5. Ans:
(i) Faraday first law of electrolysis : According to this law the mass of the substance
deposited or liberated at any electrode during electrolysis is directly proportional to the
quantity of charge passed through the electrolyte.
ω ∝ Q (∵ Q = I × t)
ω = = ZIt

Faraday’s second law of Electrolysis

This law states that when the same quantity of electricity is passed through solutions of
different electrolytes taken in separate electrolytic cells which are connected in series, the
weights of the substance produced at the electrodes are directly proportional to their
equivalent weights.

𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑐𝑜𝑝𝑝𝑒𝑟 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑑 𝐸𝑞.𝑤𝑡.𝑜𝑓 𝐶𝑢

= 𝐸𝑞.𝑤𝑡.𝑜𝑓 𝐴𝑔
𝑤𝑒𝑖𝑔ℎ𝑡 𝑜𝑓 𝑠𝑖𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑟 𝑑𝑒𝑝𝑜𝑠𝑖𝑡𝑒𝑑
It is the amount of charge carried by one mole of electrons. This can be obtained by
multiplying the charge on one electron by Avogadro’s number.
i.e. 1.602 10–19 coulombs 6.023 1023 mol–1 = 96490 coulombs mol–1
This quantity of electricity (i.e. 96490 coulombs), which is carried by one mole of electrons,
is known as one.

CONDUCTANCE OF ELECTROLYTIC SOLUTION

ANS-1 m = K*1000/molarity
=0.0248*1000/0.20
= 124.5 cm2/mole
 ANS-2 R = 1500 ohm
k = 1.46 x 10-4 Scm-1
T = 298K
Cell constant = Conductivity x Resistance
= 0.146 x 10-3 S cm-1 x 1500
= 0.219 cm-1

ANS-3
METALLIC CONDUCTION ELCTROLYTIC
CONDUCTION
No Chemical change takes place Chemical changes take place in
in the conductor. electrolyte.
Only electrons move. Matter moves in the form of
ions.
At high temperature conductance At high temperature conductivity
decreases. increases.
Shows high conductance. Have relatively smaller
conductance.

ANS-4 Cell constant = k × R

= 0.0129 × 100
= 1.29 cm–1

ANS-5 (a) Kohlrausch's law of independent migration of ions states that the limiting molar
conductivity of an electrolyte can be represented as the sum individual contributions of its
cations & anions.
(b) Λ∘m value of water.
Consider the following chemical equations,
(i) H2O(I) → H+(aq) + OH−(aq)
(ii) HCl(aq) → H+(aq) + Cl−(aq)
(iii) NaOH(aq) → Na+(aq) + OH−(aq)
(iv) NaCl(aq) → Na+(aq) + Cl−(aq)
Combining the four equations and using Kohlrausch's law, we get,
Λ∘m (H2O) = Λ∘m (HCl) + Λ∘m (NaOH) − Λ∘m (NaCl)
Hence, if we know the values of Λ∘m for HCl, NaOH and NaCl, we can calculate the value
of Λ∘m for water.
 ANS-6 Concentration = 0.00241M
Conductivity = 7.896 × 10−5 S cm-1
Λº = K x (1000/c)C
390.5 = 0.00241

ANS-7 On dilution, the number of ions per unit volume decreases. Hence the conductivity
decreases.

ANS-8

ANS-9 λ0 for (H+)=349.6 S cm2/mol , λ0 for (HCOO−) = 54.6 S cm2/mol

λm (HCOOH)=λ0(H+)+λ0(HCOO−)=349.6+54.6=404.2 S cm2/mol
0

Degree of dissociation (α)= Λcm /Λ0m =46.1/404.2 =0.114

Calculation of dissociation constant :-
HCOOH ⇌ HCOO− + H+
C 0 0
C−α Cα Cα
2 2
K= Cα /1−α= 0.025×(0.114) / 1−0.114 = 3.67×10−4

ANS-10 Molar conductivity of a strong and weak electrolyte increases with dilution . The
molar conductivity increases with decrease in concentration or on dilution. The molar
conductivity of a weak electrolyte rises steeply at low concentration. The molar conductivity
of a strong electrolyte decreases slightly with the increase in concentration.

BATTERIES
ANS 1-

ANS 2-
With the help of this reaction it is proved that the rusting of iron is an electrochemical
process.
Ans 3-

Advantages – 1. Pollution free and 2. Highly efficient

Ans 4- Cell potential of a mercury cell is constant because overall reaction does not involve
any ion in solution whose concentration can change during its life time.

Ans 5- The major difference between the primary and secondary cell is that the primary cells
are irreversible means do not charge again after using whereas secondary cells are
rechargeable again and again.

3. CHEMICAL KINETICS
(CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 7 MARKS)
QUESTIONS BASED ON MCQ
1. What is the order of reaction decomposition of Ammonia on platinum surface is
(a) Zero order reaction
(b) First order reaction
(c) Second order reaction
(d) Fractional order reaction
2. In the rate equation, when the concentration of reactants is unity then the rate is equal to:
(a) Specific rate constant
(b) Average rate constant
(c) Instantaneous rate constant
(d) None of the above
3. The rate constant of zero-order reactions has the unit
(a) s-1
(b) mol L-1s-1
(c) L2 mol-2 s-1
(d) L mol-1s-1
4. Radioactive disintegration is an example of
(a) first order reaction
(b) zero order reaction
(c) second order reaction
(d) third order reaction
5. A catalyst alters, which of the following in a chemical reaction?
(a) Entropy
(b) Enthalpy
(c) Internal energy
(d) Activation energy

QUESTIONS BASED ON ASSERTION /REASONING

Read the statements given as assertion & reason both and choose the correct option as per the
following instructions.
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
1. Assertion: The order and molecularity of a reaction are always the same.
Reason: Order is determined experimentally whereas molecularity by a balanced
elementary reaction.
2. Assertion: Rate constant of a zero-order reaction has the same unit as the rate of a reaction.
Reason: Rate constant of a zero-order reaction does not depend upon the concentration of
the reactant.
3. Assertion: In a first-order reaction, the concentration of the reactant is doubled, its half-life
is also doubled.
Reason: The half-life of a reaction does not depend upon the initial concentration of the
reactant in first-order reaction.
4. Assertion: All collision of reactant molecules lead to product formation.
Reason: Only those collisions in which molecules have correct orientation and sufficient
kinetics energy lead to compound formation.
5. Assertion: In Bimolecular reaction if one of the reactant is in excess, it’s called Pseudo first
order reaction i.e order is one.
Reason: Rate of reaction does not depend on reactant in large concentration.

QUESTIONS BASED ON AVERAGE AND INSTANTANEOUS RATE OF

REACTION
Q. 1 Differentiate between average rate and instantaneous rate of reaction.
Q.2 For the reaction 2N2O5 (g) → 4 NO2 (g) + O2 (g), the rate of formation of NO2 (g) is 2·8
×10–3 M s–1. Calculate the rate of disappearance of N2O5 (g).
Q.3 For the hydrolysis of methyl acetate in aqueous solution, the following result are
obtained:
 t/s 0 10 20
[𝑪𝑯𝟑𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑪𝑯𝟑]/ 𝒎𝒐𝒍 0.10 0.05 0.025
–𝟏
𝑳
Calculate the average rate of reaction between the time intervals 10 to 20 seconds.
(𝐆𝐢𝐯𝐞𝐧 ∶ 𝐋𝐨𝐠 𝟐 = 0.3010, 𝐋𝐨𝐠 𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟎𝟐𝟏).
Q.4 For the hydrolysis of methyl acetate in aqueous solution, the following result are
obtained:
t/s 0 10 20
[𝑪𝑯𝟑𝑪𝑶𝑶𝑪𝑯𝟑]/ 𝒎𝒐𝒍 0.60 0.30 0.15
-𝟏
𝑳
Calculate the average rate of reaction between the time intervals 30 to 60 seconds.
(𝐆𝐢𝐯𝐞𝐧 ∶ 𝐋𝐨𝐠 𝟐 = 0.3010, 𝐋𝐨𝐠 𝟒 = 𝟎. 𝟔𝟎𝟐𝟏).

QUESTIONS BASED ON CONCENTRATION AND RATE LAW

Q 1. For the reaction A→B, the rate of reaction becomes three times when the concentration
of A is increased by nine times. What is the order of reaction?
Q 2. Define the term, half-life of a reaction (t1/2)
Q 3. A reaction is of second order with respect to a reactant.
How is its rate affected if the concentration of the reactant is (i) Doubled ? (ii) Reduced
to half?
Q 4. Discuss any three factors which affect the rate of a chemical reaction.
Q 5. For a reaction R→P, half-life (t1/2) is observed to be independent of the initial
concentration of reactants. What is the order of reaction?
Q 6. A reaction is first order in reactant A and of second order in reactant B.
How is the rate of this reaction affected when.
(i) the concentration of B alone is increased to three times?
(ii) the concentrations of A as well as B are doubled?
Q. 9. Observe the table given showing volume of CO2 obtained by reaction of CaCO3 and
dilute HCl after every minute. Answer the questions that follow: Table showing volume of
CO2 at one minute interval by reaction of CaCO3 with dilute HCl.
(a) What happens to rate of reaction with time?
(b) Why does CaCO3 powder react faster than
marble chips?
(c) What happens to rate of reaction if
concentrated HCl is used?
(d) In manufacture of NH3,
N2(g) + 3H2(g) →2NH3 + heat
What is effect of pressure on rate of reaction?
(e) Why does rate of reaction becomes almost
double for energy 10° rise in temperature?
 QUESTIONS BASED RATE LAW AND ORDER OF THE REACTION
Q 1. In a reaction between A and B, the initial rate of reaction (r0) was measured for different
initial concentrations of A and B as given below:
A/mol L−1 0.20 0.20 0.40
−1
B/mol L 0.30 0.10 0.05
r0/ mol L−1s−1 5.07 × 10-5 5.07 × 10-5 1.43 × 10-4
What is the order of the reaction with respect to A and B?
Q2. The following results have been obtained during the kinetic studies of the reaction:
2A + B → C + D
Experiment A (mol L−1 ) B (mol L−1 ) Initial rate of formation
of D/ mol L −1 min−1
I 0.1 0.1 6.0 ×10-3
II 0.3 0.2 7.2×10-2
III 0.3 0.4 2.88×10-1
IV 0.4 0.1 2.40×10-2
Determine the rate law and the rate constant for the reaction.

Q3. The reaction between A and B is first order with respect to A and zero order with respect
to B.
Fill in the blanks in the following table:
Experiment [A] mol L−1 [B] mol L−1 Initial rate/mol L−1min−1
I 0.1 0.1 2.0×10-2
II - 0.2 4.0×10-2
III 0.4 0.4 -
IV - 0.2 2.0×10-2

QUESTIONS BASED ON ZERO ORDER REACTION

1. The decomposition of NH3 on the platinum surface is zero order reaction.

Calculate the rates of production of N2 and H2 if k= 2.5×10-4 mol L-1 s-1.
2. What is the rate equation for the reaction 2A+B→C if the order of the reaction is zero
?
Also give an example of zero order reaction.
3. Mention the order for which following curve has been drawn.
Also draw rate Vs concentration curve for the same order of reaction.
 4. If the zero order reaction takes 100 min for 50% completion, how much time will it
take for the 75% completion of the reaction?
5. The rate constant value for a zero order reaction is 2 x 10-2 mol L-1s-1. If the
concentration of the reactant after 25 seconds is 0.5 M, then find the initial
concentration of the reaction.

QUESTIONS BASED ON FIRST ORDER REACTION

Q.1 What are the units of rate constant for first order reaction?
Q.2 Time required to decompose SO2Cl2 to half of its initial amount is 60 minutes.
If the decomposition is a first order reaction, calculate the rate constant of the
reaction.
Q 3 A first order reaction has a rate constant 1.15 x 10-3 s-1.
How long will 5 g of this reactant take to reduce to 3g?
Q 4 The half-life for radioactive decay of 14C is 5730 years. An archaeological artefact
containing wood had only 80% of the 14C found in a living tree. Estimate the age of the
sample.
Q.5 A first order reaction takes 40 min for 30% decomposition. Calculate its half-life period.
Q.6 For the decomposition of azo Isopropane to hexane and nitrogen at 543 K, the following
data are obtained. Calculate rate constant.

Q.7 The following data were obtained during the first order thermal decomposition of
SO2Cl2 at a constant volume. Calculate the rate of the reaction when total pressure is 0.65
atm.

Q.8 During nuclear explosion, one of the products is 90Sr with half-life of 28.1 years.
If 1 µg of 90Sr was absorbed in the bones of a newly born baby instead of calcium, how
much of it will remain after 10 years and 60 years if it is not lost metabolically?
Q 7. A first order reaction takes 10 minutes for 25% decomposition. Calculate t1/2 for
the reaction. (Given: log 2 = 0.3010, log 3 = 0.4771, log 4 = 0.6021).
Q.8 The rate constant for a first order reaction is 60 per second . How much time will it
take to reduce the initial concentration of the reactant to 1/10 th of its initial value?
Q.9 For a certain chemical reaction variation in the concentration ln [R] vs. time plot is
given alongside . For this reaction what is the slope of the curve ?

(i) Predict the order of the reaction.

(ii) What is the slope of the curve?
QUESTIONS BASED ON PSEUDO FIRST ORDER REACTION

1. Define pseudo first order reaction with two example.

2. Hydrolysis of methyl acetate in aqueous solution has been studied by titrating the liberated
acetic acid against sodium hydroxide. The concentration of the ester at different times is
given below.

Show that it follows a pseudo first order reaction, as the concentration of water remains
nearly constant (55 mol L–1), during the course of the reaction.
What is the value of k′ in this equation? Rate = k′ [CH3COOCH3][H2O]

QUESTIONS BASED ON HALF-LIFE

Q1. Show that in a first order reaction, time required for completion of 99.9% is 10 times of
half-life (t1/2) of the reaction.
Q2. For a first order reaction, show that time required for 75% completion is twice the time
required for the completion of 50% of reaction.

QUESTIONS BASED ON EFFECT OF TEMPERATURE

1. Activation Energy Ea and ‘A’ (Arrhenius constant) are 104.4 kJ mol–1 and 6.0×1014 S–
1
respectively. What is value of ‘k’ when T is ∞?
2. The rate constants of a reaction at 200 K and 500 K are 0.02s–1 and 0.20s–
1
respectively.
Calculate the value of Ea (Given 2.303R = 19.15 JK-1mol-1)
 Answer
MCQ
1. a 2. a 3. b 4. a 5. d
ASSERTION REASON
1. D 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. A

(ANSWERS) AVERAGE AND INSTANTANEOUS RATE OF REACTION

Q. 1 Ans. The ratio of change of concentration of reactants to the time consumed in that
change is called average rate of reaction.
The rate of reaction at a particular instant is called instantaneous rate of reaction.
Q.2 Ans. rate of disappearance of N2O5 = 1.4x 10-3 Ms-1
Q.3 Ans. Average rate of reaction = 0.0025 mol L-1s-1
Q.4 Ans. Average rate of reaction = 0.005 mol L-1s-1

(ANSWERS) QUESTIONS BASED ON CONCENTRATION AND RATE

LAW
1. Given that, rate of reaction becomes three times as the concentration of A is increased by
9 times
⟹ 3r=k [9A] n
3=9n or 31=32n
⇒ 2n=1 or n=1/2
1/2
∴ Rate, r=k [A] Order of the reaction is ½.
2. The half-life of a chemical reaction can be defined as the time taken for the concentration
of a given reactant to reach 50% of its initial concentration (i.e. the time taken for the
reactant concentration to reach half of its initial value).
3. a) 4 times b) ¼ times
4. Any three factors are
a) Catalyst
b) Concentration change
c) Temperature
5. First order reaction
6. a) 9 times b) 8 times

7
(a) The rate of reaction first decreases with time then becomes constant.
(b) CaCO3 powder has more surface area than marble chips therefore, more rate of
reaction.
(c) The rate of reaction will increase because rate of reaction increases with the increase
in concentration.
(d) The rate of reaction increases with increase in pressure.
(e) It is because number of molecules undergoing effective collisions become almost
double, hence rate of reaction almost doubled.
 (ANSWER) RATE LAW AND ORDER OF THE REACTION
Ans.1 Assume; the order of the reaction with respect to A is x and with respect to B is y.
Therefore, the rate of reaction (r0) = k [A]x [B]y
5.07×10−5= k [0.20]x [0.30]y (i)
5.07×10−5 = k [0.20]x [0.10]y (ii)
1.43×10−4 = k [0.40]x [0.05]y (iii)
Dividing equation (i) by (ii), we obtain
5.07𝑥10−5 𝑘[0.20]𝑥 [0.30]𝑦
=
5.07𝑥10−5 𝑘[[0.20]𝑥 [0.10]𝑦
𝑘[0.30]𝑦 0.30 0.30
1 = 𝑘[0.10]𝑦= (0.10) 0 = ( 0.10) y
y=0
Dividing equation (iii) by (ii), we obtain
1.43 x 10−4 k[0.40]x [0.05]y
=
5.07 x 10−5 k[[0.20]x [0.30]y
1.43 x 10−4 k[0.40]x
= [Since y = 0 [0.05] y = [0.30] y = 1]
5.07 x 10−5 k[[0.20]x
2.821 = 2x
Log 2.821= x log 2
x = (log2.821)/ x log 2
= 1.496= 1.5 (approx)
From the above calculation, we get the order of the reaction with respect to A =1.5 and with
respect to B = zero.
Ans.2 Rate law may be expressed as
Rate=k[A]x[B]y
(Rate)1=6.0×10−3=k(0.1)x(0.1)y……(i)
(Rate) 2=7.2×10−2=k (0.3) x(0.2)y……(ii)
(Rate) 3=2.88×10−1=k (0.3) x(0.4)y……(iii)
(Rate) 4=2.40×10−2=k (0.4) x(0.1)y……(iv)
(𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒)1 6.0 𝑥 10−3 𝑘(0.1)𝑥 (0.1)𝑦
= 2.40 x 10−2
(Rate)4 𝑘(0.4)𝑥 (0.1)𝑦
1 𝑘(0.1)𝑥 1
= 𝑘(0.4)𝑥 = ( 4)x
4
X=1
(𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒)2 7.2 𝑥 10−2 𝑘(0.3)𝑥 (0.2)𝑦
= 2.88 x 10−1
(Rate)3 𝑘(0.3)𝑥 (0.4)𝑦
1 𝑘(0.2)𝑦 1
= 𝑘(0.4)𝑦 = ( 2)y => y = 2
4
Rate law expression is given by
Rate=k[A][B]2
Rate constant k can be determined by placing the values of A, B and rate of formation of D.
By taking the values from experiment II
Rate =k[A][B]2
𝑅𝑎𝑡𝑒
k = [𝐴][𝐵]2
−1
7.2 𝑥 10−2 𝑚𝑜𝑙 𝐿−1 min
k= (0.3 mol 𝐿−1 )(0.2 mol 𝐿−1 )
k = 6.0 mol-2 L2 min-1
Ans 3. According to question the given reaction is of the first order with respect to A and of
zero order with respect to B.
Therefore, the rate of the reaction is given by,
Rate = k [A]1 [B]0
Rate = k [A]
From experiment I, we get
2.0 × 10−2mol L−1min−1=k (0.1 mol L−1)
k = 0.2 min−1
From experiment II, we get
4.0 × 10−2mol L−1min−1 = 0.2 min−1 [A]
[A] = 0.2 mol L−1
From experiment III, we get
Rate = 0.2 min−1 × 0.4 mol L−1 = 0.08 mol L−1min−1
From experiment IV, we get
2.0 × 10−2 mol L−1min−1 = 0.2min−1 [A]
[A] = 0.1 mol L−1

(ANSWER) ZERO ORDER REACTION

1. Rate = k = -½ d[NH3]/dt = + d[N2]/dt = + ⅓ d[H2]/dt

Rate of production of N2 = d[N2]/dt = k = 2.5×10-4 mol/L s
Rate of production of H2 = d[H2]/dt = 3×k = 3×2.5×10-4 = 7.5 ×10-4 mol/L s
2. r = k[A]0[B]0 = k
2 NH3 (g) → N2(g) + 3H2(g)
3. Zero order reaction.

4. For a zero order reaction, [A] = [AO] – kt

For 50% completion, [A] = 50 M, [AO]= 100 M, t50%= 100 min
[A] = [AO] – kt
50= 100 – k (100)
k= 0.5 molL-1min-1
For 75% completion, [A] = 25 M, [AO]= 100 M, t75%= ?
[A] = [AO] – kt
25= 100 – 0.5t
t= 150 min
5. Concentration of reactant after 25 s,[A] = 0.5 M= 0.5 mol/L
Rate constant, k = 2×10-2 molL-1 s-1
Concentration of reactant initially, [AO] = ?
The expression for a zero order reaction is given by
[A] = [AO] – kt
0.5 mol/L = [AO] - [(2 × 10-2 molL-1 s-1) (25s)]
0.5 mol/L = [AO] – 5 × 10-1 mol/L
[AO] = 1 mol/L
 ANSWER FIRST ORDER REACTION

Q.1 time -1

Q.2

Q.3 For first order reaction

Q.4 For first order reaction

Q.5 For first order equation

Q.6
Q.7
Q.8

Q.9

Q.10

Q.11 Let the slope of the curve be −k

⟹tln[R ]= −k ; t=0 R= R0
⟹R=R0e−kt, which is the equation of first order reaction.
Hence, the Order of the given reaction is First.
⟹k is rate constant of the reaction
therefore,Slope represents negative of the rate constant of reaction

ANSWER PSEUDO FIRST ORDER REACTION

1. Those reactions which are not truly of the first order but under certain conditions become
first order reactions are called pseudo first order reaction.
Example – Hydrolysis of ester (acidic medium)
CH3COOC2H5 + H2O ⎯⎯⎯→ CH3COOH + C2H5OH
Inversion of sucrose
2. For pseudo first order reaction, the reaction should be first order with respect to ester
when [H2O] is constant. The rate constant k for pseudo first order reaction is

It can be seen that k´ [H2O] is constant and equal to 2.004 × 10-3 min–1 and hence, it is
pseudo first order reaction.
We can now determine k from k´ [H2O] = 2.004 × 10–3 min–1
k´ [55 mol L–1] = 2.004 × 10–3 min–1 k´ = 3.64 × 10–5 mol–1 L min–1

(ANSWER) HALF-LIFE
Ans 1. For a first order reaction, time required for 99.9% completions
2.303 100
t99.9% = k log 100−99.9
2.303 100
= log 0.1
k
2.303
= log 1000
k
2.303 6.909
= x3 =
k k
For a first order reaction, time required for 50% completions
0.693
t1/2 = k
t(99.9%) 6.909 k
= ×
t(50%) k 0.693
Therefore, t99.9% = 10t1/2
Ans2. For a first order reaction, time required for 75% completions
2.303 100
t75% = k log 100−75
2.303
= log 4
k
2.303
= x 0.6020
k
For a first order reaction, time required for 50% completions
2.303 100
T50% = k log 100−50
 2.303
= log 2
k
2.303
= × 0.3010
k
t (75%) 2.303 x 0.6020 k 0.6020
= × = = 2
t(50%) k 2.303 x 0.3010 0.3010
Therefore, t75% = 2t50%

ANSWER) EFFECT OF TEMPERATURE

1.

2.

4. d & f BLOCK ELEMENTS

(CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 7 MARKS )
1. MCQ BASED QUESTIONS
1. The property which is not a characteristic of transition metals is
(a) variable oxidation states. (b) tendency to form complexes.
(c) formation of coloured compounds. (d) natural radioactivity.
2. Zr and Hf have almost equal atomic and ionic radii because of
(a) diagonal relationship (b) lanthanoid contraction
(c) actinoid contraction (d) belonging to the same group
3. Which of the following is likely to form white salts?
(a) Cu2+ (b) Ti3+
(c) Sc3+ (d) Fe3+
4. Which one of the following characteristics of the transition metals is associated with higher
catalytic activity?
(a) High enthalpy of atomisation (b) Paramagnetic behaviour
(c) Colour of hydrate ions (d) Variable oxidation states
5. When manganese dioxide is fused with KOH in air. It gives
(a) potassium manganate (b) potassium permanganate
(c) manganese hydroxide (d) Mn3O4.
 2. ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTIONS
Choose the correct answer from the following choices
a Both assertion and reason are correct statements and reason is correct explanation of
assertion
b Both assertion and reason are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation of
assertion
c Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement
d Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement
1. Assertion: Zn, Cd and Hg are normally not considered transition metals
Reason: d-Orbitals in Zn, Cd and Hg elements are completely filled, hence these
metals do not show the general characteristics properties of the transition elements
2. Assertion: The highest oxidation state of osmium is +8.
Reason: Osmium is a 5d-block
3. Assertion: Cu cannot liberate hydrogen from dilute acids.
Reason: Because it has negative standard electrode potential.
4. Assertion: Tungsten has very low enthalpy of atomization.
Reason: Tungsten has maximum number of unpaired electrons.
5. Assertion: The oxides of lower transition metal are basic whereas the higher oxides are
usually acidic.
Reason: Cr2O3is amphoteric in nature.

3. REASONING BASED QUESTIONS

1. Account for the following regarding transition metals:
(i) Transition metal shows variable oxidation state
(ii) Transition metals have high enthalpy of atomization.
(iii) Transition metals have tendency to form complex.
(iv) Transition metal complexes are coloured.
(v) Transition metals act as catalyst
(vi) Transition metals form interstitial compound.
(vii) Transition metals form alloy.
2. Zn, Cd, Hg are not regarded as transition metal but kept in transition series.
3. Mn shows the highest oxidation state of +7 with oxygen but with fluorine of +4
4. Cu2+ Salts are coloured but Zn2+ salts are colourless.
5. The radii of 2nd & 3rd transition series are almost same.
6. Of d4 Configuration Mn3+ acts as an oxidizing agent but Cr²+ acts as reducing agent.
7. Cr²+ is a strong reducing agent.
8. Zn, Cd, Hg are soft metals.
9. Following are the transition metal ion of 3d Series Ti4+, V2+, Mn3+, Cr3+
 (Ti=22, V=23, Cr=24, Mn=25)
Answer the following:
i. Which ion is most stable in aqueous solution and why?
ii. Which ion is strong oxidising agent and why?
iii. Which ion is colourless & why ?
10. Why the m.p. of Mn in 1st transition series is abnormally low?

11. There is a general increase in the density from Titanium to Copper.

12. Colour of KMnO4 disappear when oxalic and is added to its solution in acidic medium.

13. Why Cu+ is unstable in aqueous solution.

14. (i) On what ground can you say that scandium (Z=21) is a transition element but zinc
(Z=30) is not?
(ii) Density of d-block elements is quite high. Why?
(iii) Ni(II) compounds are thermodynamically more stable than Pt(II) compounds. Why?
15. Assign suitable reasons for the following:
(i) In the 3d series from Sc to Zn the enthalpy of atomization of Zn is the lowest.
(ii) The Mn2+ compounds are more stable than Fe2+ towards oxidation to their +3 state.
(iii) Sc³+ is colourless in aqueous solution, whereas Ti³+ is coloured.
16. Silver atom has completely filled d orbitals (4d10) in its ground state. How can you say
that it is a transition element?
17. Which of the 3d series of the transition metals exhibits the largest number of oxidation
states and why?
18. The E°(M²+/M) value for copper is positive (+0.34 V). What is possible reason for this?
19. How would you account for the irregular variation of ionisation enthalpies (first and
second) in the first series of the transition elements?
20. Why is the highest oxidation state of a metal exhibited in its oxide or fluoride only?
21. Actinoid contraction is greater from element to element than lanthanoid contraction.
Why?
22. Why are Mn2+ compounds more stable than Fe²+ towards oxidation to their +3 state?
23. How would you account for the following?
(i) Cobalt (II) is stable in aqueous solution but in the presence of complexing reagents
it is easily oxidised.
(ii) The d¹ configuration is very unstable in ions.
 24. State reasons for the following observations:
(i) Ti4+ is colourless whereas V⁴+ is coloured in an aqueous solution.
(ii) There is a greater horizontal similarity in the properties of the transition elements
than of the main group elements.
25. Explain the following observations giving an appropriate reason for each.
(i) There occurs much more frequent metal-metal bonding in compounds of heavy
transition metals (i.e. 3rd series).
(ii) Mn2+ is much more resistant than Fe2+ towards oxidation.
4. POTASSIUM DICHROMATE & POTASSIUM PERMANGANATE

Q.1- What is the effect of pH on dichromate ion solution?

Q.2- Complete following reactions:-
(i) MnO4- + H+ + Fe2+ →
(ii) MnO4- + C2O42- + H+ →
- - -
(iii) MnO4 + OH + I →
Q.3-(a) Write the equation involved in the preparation of potassium dichromate from iron
chromite. What happens when potassium dichromate reacts with
(i) Hydrogen sulphide (ii) FeSO4?
Q.4 Complete the following chemical equations :
(i) MnO4- (aq) + S2O32- (aq) + H2O (1) →
(ii) Cr2O72- (aq) + Fe2+ (aq) + H+ (aq) →
Q.5 Complete the following chemical equations :

Q.6 What is meant by ‘disproportionation’? Give an example of a disproportionation reaction

in aqueous solution.
Q.7. Describe the reaction involved in the preparation of potassium permanganate. How does
the acidified permanganate solution react with oxalic acid? Write the ionic equations for the
reactions.
Q.8. Describe the oxidising action of potassium dichromate and write the ionic equations
for its reaction with (i) iodine (ii) H2S.
Q9. Complete the following chemical equations:

Q10. What happens when (NH4)2Cr2O7 is heated?

Q11. Complete the following chemical equations :
Q12. Complete the following chemical equations:

Q13. Write balanced chemical equations for the two reactions showing oxidizing nature of
potassium permanganate.
Q14. What is meant by ‘’disproportionation’? Give one example of disproportionation
reaction in aqueous solutions.
5. WORD PROBLEM
1. When a brown compound of Manganese (A) is treated with HCl it gives a gas (B). the
gas taken in excess reacts with NH3 to give an explosive compound (C). Identify (A), (B)
and (C).

2. When an oxide of manganese (A) is fused with KOH in the presence of an oxidizing agent
and dissolved in water it gives a dark solution of compound (B). Compound (B)
disproportionates in neutral or acidic solution to give purple compound (C). An alkaline
solution of (C) oxidises KI to a compound (D) and compound (A) is also formed. Identify
(A) to (D).

3. A violet compound of manganese (A) decomposes on heating to liberate oxygen and

compounds (B) and (C) of manganese are formed. Compound (C) reacts with KOH in the
presence of KNO3 to give compound (B). On heating compound (C) with conc. H2SO4
and NaCl, Cl2 gas is liberated and compound (D) of manganese is formed. Identify A, B,
C, D along with reactions involved.
4. When chromite ore FeCr2O4 is fused with NaOH in presence of air, a yellow coloured
compound (A) is obtained which on acidification with dilute sulphuric acid gives a
compound (B). Compound (B) on reaction with KC1 forms an orange coloured
crystalline compound (C).
(i) Write the formulae of the compounds (A), (B) and (C).
(ii) Write one use of compound (C).

6. LANTHANOIDS AND ACTINOIDS

1. Answer the following:
(i) What is general electronic configuration of lanthanoids?
(ii) What are the common oxidation state of Ce(58) ?
(iii) Why do actinoids show a wide range of Oxidation states?

2. What is lanthanoid contraction? Write its one consequence.

3. Account for the following:
 (i) Actinoid contraction is greater than lanthanoid contraction.
(ii) Chemistry of actinoids is complicated as compared to lanthanoids.
(iii) Zr and Hf have almost identical radii.

4. Write one similarity and one difference between lanthanoid and actionoid elements.
5. Name a member of the lanthanoid series which is well known to exhibit +2 oxidation state.

-ANSWER-

1. MCQ BASED QUESTIONS

1. (d)
2. (b)
3. (c)
5. (d)
6. (a)
2. ASSERTION AND REASON BASED QUESTIONS
1. (a)
2. (b)
3. (c)
4. (d)
5. (b)

3. REASONING BASED QUESTIONS

1. (i) Due to participation of ns and (n-1)d electrons which are of almost same energy.
(ii)Due to strong metallic bond
(iii) vacant d orbital and small size and high Charge.
(iv)Due to d-d transition and presence of unpaired electron
(v) Due to variable O.S
provides suitable surface for the reactant to adsorb on it and form unstable
intermediate which lower down the activation energy of the reaction to takes place.
(vi) because Small size atom such as C, H,S etc occupy interstitial site of the lattice and
are very hard, high m. p. shows conductivity & chemically inert
(vii) Due to almost Similar radii they substitute from crystal lattice.
2. Because they have completely filled d-orbital & properties similar to d- block element.
3. Because oxyzen has tendency to form multiple bond while fluorine is monovalent.
4. Cu2+ has unpaired electron in d-orbital Zn2+ have no unpaired electron in d-orbital
5. Due to lanthanoid contraction.
6. Mn3+ gain electron to attain 3d5 configuration so act as O.A. Cr2+ loose e to attain stable
3d3 (t2g3) configuration so act as R.A.
7. Cr2+ loose electron to attain stable 3d3(t2g3) configuration acts as R.A.
8. Due to weak metallic bond.
9.
i. Cr3+ due to half filled t2g3
ii. Mn3+ because it gain electron to attend the stable Mn2+ (3d5) configuration
iii. Ti4+ have no unpaired electron .

10. Electrons are tightly held by the nucleus so that delocalization is less & metallic bond is
much weaker.

11. Because mass increases and volume decreases.

12. KMnO4 acts as oxidising agent it oxidises oxalic acid to CO2 & self reduced to Mn2+
which is colourless.

13.Because it undergo disproportionation 2Cu+ → Cu(s) + Cu2+

14. (i) It is because Sc (21) has incompletely filled d-orbital, that is why it is transition element,
whereas Zn(30) does not have incompletely filled d-orbitals, therefore, it is not regarded as
transition element.
(ii) This is due to fact that their small atomic volume, high nuclear charge and mass.
(iii) This is because that sum of ionisation energies (E1+E2) is less in case of Ni than Pt.
15. (i) Zinc does not have unpaired electrons and larger in size, therefore, has weak metallic
bonds. That is why it has least enthalpy of atomisation.
(ii) Mn2+ has 3d5 (stable electronic configuration), therefore, it does not get oxidised to
Mn³+, whereas Fe2+ has 3d6 which readily changes to Fe3+ (3d5) which has stable electronic
configuration.
Ans. (iii) Sc³+ is colourless as it does not have unpaired electron and cannot undergo d-d
transition, whereas Ti³+ is coloured due to presence of unpaired electrons, and undergoes d-d
transition by absorbing light from visible region and radiate complementary colour.
16. Silver is a transition metal because it can exhibit +2 oxidation state which has incompletely
filled d-orbital.
17. Mn exhibits the largest number of oxidation states because it has 7 electrons in ‘s’ as well
as ‘d’ orbitals which can take part in bond formation.
18. It is because hydration energy of Cu2+ is low and not able to overcome enthalpy of
atomisation and ionisation enthalpy.
19. The irregular variation is due to different stability of their (transition elements) electronic
configuration and less variation in atomic size.
20. It is because both F₂ and O₂ are strong oxidising agents due to high electronegativity and
high standard reduction potential.
21. It is because of poor shielding effect of 4f and 5f electrons in actinoids, whereas in
lanthanoids, there is poor shielding effect of 4f electrons only. That is why effective nuclear
charge increases more from element to element in actinoids than lanthanoids.
22. Mn2+ is more stable due to half-filled d-orbitals but Fe2+ is not stable because it does not
have half-filled d-orbitals. Mn2+: 3d5 4s0, Fe2+: 3d64s0
23. (i) Co(II) gets oxidised to Co(III) in presence of complexing agent because Co(III) is more
stable than Co(II). Most of the strong field ligands cause pairing of electrons forming
diamagnetic octahedral complexes which are very stable due to very large crystal field
stabilisation energy.
(ii) d¹ configuration is very unstable in ions because after losing one more electron, it will
become stable. All elements with d¹ configuration are either reducing or undergo
disproportionation,
24. (i) Ti4+ does not have unpaired electron, therefore can't absorb energy from visible region
and rediate colour, V4+ has one unpaired electron, undergoes d-d transition by absorbing high
from visible region and rediate violet colour.
(ii) It is due to similarity in atomic and ionic size, there is more horizontal similarity.
Secondly, in transition elements incoming electron goes to inner shell (d-orbitals), whereas in
main group elements, the incoming electron goes to outermost shell.
25. (i) Due to lanthanoid contraction, effective nuclear charge remains almost same therefore,
metallic radii are nearly same, therefore, metal-metal bonding is more.
(ii) Mn2+ (3d5) has stable electronic configuration, therefore, it does not get oxidised. Fe2+ (3d6)
gets oxidised to form Fe3+ (3d5) which is more stable.
 4. POTASSIUM DICHROMATE & POTASSIUM PERMANGANATE
1. Dichromate ion is orange in acidic solution (pH<7) and turns yellow in basic solution. It is
due to interconversion of dichromate ion to chromate ion. Following reactions take place:-
2 CrO42- (yellow) +2 H+ → Cr2O72- (orange) + H2O
Cr2O72- (orange) +2 OH- → 2 CrO42- (yellow) + H2O.

2- (i) MnO4- + 8H+ + 5 Fe2+ → Mn2+ - + 5 Fe3+ + 4H2O

(ii) 2 MnO4- + 5 C2O42- + 16 H+ → 2 Mn2+ - + 10 CO2 + 8H2O
(iii) 2 MnO4- + H2O + I- → 2MnO2 + 2OH- + IO3-
Answer 3 a) Preparation: - It takes place in three steps. Following reaction takes place:
4 FeCr2O4+ 4 Na2CO3 +7O2 2 Na2CrO4+ 2Fe2O3 +8 CO2
2Na2CrO4 + 2 H+ Na2Cr2O7 + 2 Na+ + H2O
Na2Cr2O7 + 2 KCl K2Cr2O7 + 2 NaCl
Reactions: - (i) Cr2O7 2- + 8 H+ + 3 H2S → 2Cr3+ + 7 H2O + 3S
(ii) Cr2O7 2- + 14 H+ + 6 Fe2+ → 2Cr3+ + 7 H2O + 6 Fe3+.
Answer : 4.

Answer : 5.

Answer : 6. Disproportionation: In a disproportionation reaction an element undergoes self-

oxidation as well as self-reduction forming two different compounds.

Answer : 7. Potassium Permangante (KMnO4) is prepared from pyrolusite ore (MnO2). The
ore (MnO2) is fused with an alkali metal hydroxide like KOH in the presence of air or an
oxidising agent like KNO3 to give dark green potassium manganate (K2MnO4). K2MnO4
disproportionates in a neutral or acidic solution to give potassium permanganate.
Answer : 8.

Answer 9:

Answer 10:

Answer 11:

Answer 12:

Answer 13: Reactions showing oxidising nature of KMnO4

(i) 2KMnO4 + 5SO2 + 2H2O → K2SO4+ 2MnSO4 + 2H2SO4
(ii) 2KMnO4 + 3H2SO4 + 5H2O → K2SO4 + 2MnSO4 + 3H2O + 5S
Answer 14 : Disproportionation: When in a reaction, the oxidation of an element in a
compound increases in one of the products and decreases in the other product, it is said to
undergo disproportionation of oxidation state.
Example : In acidic solution Mn (VI) in MnO42− changes to Mn (VII) in the
product MnO4− and to Mn (IV) in the product MnO2.

5. WORD PROBLEM

1: A → MnO2
B → Cl2
C → NCl3
Reaction: MnO2 + 4HCl → MnCl2 + Cl2 + 2H2O
(A) (B)
NH3 +3 Cl2 → NCl3 + 3HCl
(C)
NCl3 is an explosive compound.

2: A→ MnO2
B → K2MnO4
C → KMnO4
D →KIO3
Reactions 2MnO2 + 4KOH + O2 → 2K2MnO4 + 2H2O
(A) (B)
3K2MnO4 + 4H+ → 2KMnO4 + MnO2 + 2H2O + 4K+
(C)
−
2𝑀𝑛𝑂4 + H2O + KI → 2MnO2 + 2𝑂𝐻 − + KIO3
(D)
3: A : KMnO4 B : K2MnO4 C : MnO2 D : MnCl2
Reactions:
ℎ𝑒𝑎𝑡
2 KMnO4 → K2MnO4 + MnO2 + O2
(A) (B) (C)
MnO2 + 2KOH + KNO3 → K2MnO4 + H2O + KNO2
(C) (B)
MnO2 + 4NaCl + 4H2SO4 → MnCl2 + 4NaHSO4 + 2 H2O + Cl2
(C) (D)

4: . The chromite ore FeCr2O4 on fusion with NaOH in presence of air, forms a yellow
coloured
compound (A) i.e. Sodium chromate.
 Sodium dichromate (B) on reaction with KCl forms orange coloured compound
Potassium dichromate (C).
Na2Cr2O7 + 2KCl → 2NaCl + K2Cr2O7 (C)
(i) Thus (A) → Sodium chromate Na2CrO4 (A) → Sodium dichromate Na2Cr2O7 (B) →
Potassium dichromate K2Cr2O7
(ii) (C) is used as a strong oxidising agent in acidic medium in volumetric analysis.

6. LANTHANOIDS AND ACTINOIDS

1.
I. (n-2)𝑓 1 𝑡𝑜 14 (𝑛 − 1)𝑑0 𝑜𝑟 1 𝑛𝑠 2
II. +3 and +4
III. It is due to comparable energy of 7s, 6d and 5f orbitals , electrons from all of
these orbitals take part in bond formation.

2. The regular decrease in atomic and ionic radii with increase in atomic number in
lanthanoid is known as lanthanoid contraction.
Consequence- difficulty in separation of lanthanoids.
3(i) It is because 5f electrons in actinoids have poor shielding effect than 4f electrons in
lanthanoids , therefore, effective nuclear charge is more in actinoids.
(ii) Because all actinoids are radioactive and show wide range of oxidation state.
(iii) Due to lanthanoid contraction.
4. Similarity- The most characteristic oxidation state of both lanthanoid and actinoid is +3.
Difference- Besides +3 oxidation state lanthanoids show +2 and +4 but actinoids show +4,
+5, +6 and +7 oxidation state.
5. Europium(Eu).
 5. COORDINATION COMPOUNDS
(CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 7 MARKS)
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS:
1. Write the no. of ions produced from the complex [Co(NH3)6]Cl3 in solution
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
4-
2. The denticity of EDTA ligand is
(A) 6 (B) 3
(C) 4 (D) 2
3. Of the following complexes, which one will show ionisation isomerism?
(A) [Cr(NH3)6][Co(en)3] (B) [Cr(NH3)6]Cl3
(C) [Cr(en)3]Cl3 (D) [CoBr(NH3)5]SO4
4. The crystal field splitting energy for octahedral and tetrahedral complexes is related as
(A) Δt = 2/9 Δo (B) Δo = 2/9 Δt
(C) Δt = 4/9 Δo (D) Δ0 = 4/9 Δt
5. Give the oxidation number and coordination number of the central metal atom in the complex
compound [Pt(en)2]2+.
(A) 4, 2 (B) 2, 4
(C) 2, 2 (D) 1, 4

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS:

(A)Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements, and Reason is the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct statements, but Reason is not the correct
explanation of the Assertion.
(C) Assertion is correct, but Reason is wrong statement.
(D) Assertion is wrong, but Reason is correct statement
1. Assertion: Linkage isomerism arises in coordination compounds containing ambidentate
ligand.
Reason: Ambidentate ligand has two different donor atoms.
2. Assertion: Carbon monoxide forms low spin complexes with metals.
Reason: Carbon monoxide is neutral oxide.
3. Assertion :The complex [Co(NH3)3Cl3] gives no precipitate with AgNO3 solution.
Reason : The given complex is non-ionisable .

4. Assertion: [Ni(CO)4] is tetrahedral in shape.

Reason : Ni atom is in zero oxidation state and undergoes sp3 hybridisation in [Ni(CO)4]

5. Assertion : [Fe(CN)6]3– ion shows magnetic moment corresponding to two unpaired

electrons.

Reason : Because it has d2sp3 type hybridisation.

QUESTIONS BASED ON WERNER’S THEORY:

1.If one mole of PdCl2.4NH3 produces 2 moles of AgCl on reacting with excess of AgNO3 in
aqueous medium, find out the secondary valency of ‘Pd’ in the compound.

2.How many mole of AgCl will get precipitated when 3 mole of [Ni(H2O)6]Cl2 reacts with
excess of AgNO3?

3.Write the IUPAC name of compound with formula CoCl3.4NH3, one mole of which gives
one mole of AgCl precipitate on reaction with excess AgNO3.

4.When a coordination compound NiCl2.6H2O is mixed with AgNO3, 2 mole of AgCl are
precipitated per mole of the compound. Write IUPAC name of the complex

5.A co-ordination complex of cobalt has molecular formula containing five ammonia
molecules, one nitro group and two chlorine atoms for one cobalt atom. One mole of this
compound produces three mole ions in an aqueous solution. On reacting this solution with
excess of silver nitrate solution two moles of AgCl get precipitated. Write the ionic formula
and IUPAC name of this complex.

NOMENCLATURE BASED QUESTIONS:

1.Write the IUPAC names of the following coordination compounds:
(a) [Pt (NH3)2 Cl (NO2)] (b) K3 [Cr (C2O4)3]
(c) [Co Cl2 (en)2]Cl (d) [Cr (NH3)3 (H2O)3] Cl3
(e) [Ag (NH3)2][Ag(CN)2]
2. Write the formulas for the following coordination compounds:
(a) Tetraammineaquachloridocobalt (III) chloride
(b) Potassium tetrahydroxidozincate (II)
(c) Potassium trioxalatoaluminate (III)
(d) Dichloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine) cobalt (III) ion
(e) Tetracarbonylnickel (0)
QUESTIONS BASED ON ISOMERISM:
1. What type of isomerism is shown by the following complex: [Co(NH3)6][Cr(CN)6]
2. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the following complex: [Co(NH3)5SO4]Cl
3. What type of isomerism is exhibited by the complex [Co(NH3)5NO2]2+?
4. Give an example of ionisation isomerism.
5: For the square coplanar complex [Pt(NH3)(NH2OH)Cl(Py)]+, how many geometrical
isomers are possible? Draw them.
6 : List various types of isomerism possible for coordination compounds, giving an example
of each
7. How many geometrical isomers are possible in the following coordination entities?
A)[Cr(C2O4)3]3– B)[Co(NH3)3Cl3]
8. Draw the structures of optical isomers of:
(i) [Cr(C2O4)3]3–
(ii) [PtCl2(en)2]2+
(iii) [Cr(NH3)2Cl2(en)]3+

QUESTIONS ON VALENCE BOND THEORY:

1.Describe the shape and magnetic behaviour of following complexes :
(i) [Co(NH3)6]3+
(ii) [Ni(CN)4]2- (At. No. Co = 27, Ni = 28)
2.[Fe(H2O)6]3+ is strongly paramagnetic whereas [Fe(CN)6]3- is weakly paramagnetic.
Explain.(At. no. Fe = 26)
3.Explain why [Co(NH3)6]3+ is an inner orbital complex whereas [Ni(NH3)6]2+ is an
outer orbital complex. (At. no. Co = 27, Ni = 28)
4.Compare the following complexes with respect to their shape, magnetic behaviour and
the hybrid orbitals involved :
(i) [CoF4]2- (ii) [ Cr (H2O)2 (C2O4)2]-
(iii) [Ni(CO)4] (Atomic number : ( Cr = 24, Co = 27, Ni = 28)
5. Using Valence bond theory explain the geometry and magnetic behaviour by
[Cr(NH3)6]3+ . (At. no. Cr = 24)
QUESTIONS ON CRYSTAL FIELD THEORY:
1. What is spectrochemical series? Explain the difference between a weak field ligand
and a strong field ligand.
2. Draw figure to show the splitting of d-orbitals in an octahedral crystal field.
3. What is meant by crystal field splitting energy? On the basis of crystal field theory, write the
electronic configuration of d4 in terms of t2g and eg in an octahedral field when
(i) Δ0 > P
(ii) Δ0 < P

4. How synergic effect strengthens the bond between metal and the carbonyl group?

QUESTIONS ON APPLICATION OF COORDINATION COMPOUNDS:

1. How will you estimate Hardness of water ?
2 What are the uses of coordination compounds in pharma?
3. Explain the applications of coordination compounds in the field of metal purification
giving an example

4. Discuss briefly giving an example in each case the role of coordination compounds in:
(i) biological systems (ii) medicinal chemistry and (iii) analytical chemistry (iv) extraction/metallurgy of
metals.

ANSWERS
MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS
1. (D) 2. (A) 3. (D) 4. (C) 5. (B)

ASSERTION REASONING QUESTIONS

1,( A) 2. (B) 3. (C) 4. (A) 5. (D)

QUESTIONS BASED ON WERNER’S THEORY

1.4 2. 6moles
3. Tetraamminedichloridocobalt(III) chloride, [Co(NH3)4Cl2]Cl
4.Hexaaquanickel(II) chloride
5.[Co(NH3)5(NO2)]Cl2, Pentaamminenitrito-N-cobalt(III) chloride

NOMENCLATURE BASED QUESTIONS:

1.(a) Diamminechloridonitrito-N-platinum (II) (b) Potassium trioxalatochromate (III)
(c) Dichloridobis (ethane-1, 2-diamine)cobalt (III) chloride
(d) Triamminetriaquachromium (III) chloride (e) Diamminesilver (I) dicyanidoargentate (I)
2. (a) [Co (NH3)4(H2O) Cl] Cl2 (b) K2 [Zn (OH)4] (c) K3 [Al (C2O4)3]
(d) [Co Cl2 (en)2]+ (e) [Ni (CO)4]

QUESTIONS BASED ON ISOMERISM:

1. Coordination isomerism.
2 . Ionisation isomerism.
3. Linkage isomerism.
4 : [Co(NH3)5Br]S04 and [Co(NH3)5S04)]Br is the example of ionisation isomerism.
5: The given complex in the question is a square planar complex and complex of type
[MABCD] where M is the metal ion and ABCD are the ligands can have 3 geometrical isomers

6 :The various types of isomerism present in coordination compounds are :

( i ) Geometrical isomerism :

( ii ) Optical isomerism :

(iii) Linkage isomerism : This is found in complexes that have ambidentate ligands.
For e.g. : [ Co( NH3)5(NO2) ]Cl2 and [ Co(NH3)5(ONO)]Cl2
( iv ) Coordination isomerism :This kind of isomerism comes up when ligands are
interchanged between anionic and cationic entities of different metal ions present in the
complex.
Example – [ Cr(NH3)6] [Co(CN)6]
( v ) Ionisation isomerism : This is the kind of isomerism where a counter ion takes the place
of a ligand inside the coordination sphere.. For e.g., [ Co( NH3)5Br]SO4 and
[Co(NH3)5SO4]Br
( vi ) Solvate isomerism :
[Cr( H2O)5Cl]Cl.H2O and [Cr( H2O)6]Cl2.
7: (A) In [ Cr(C2O4)3] 3− no geometric isomers are present because it is a bidentate ligand

(B) In [ Co( NH3)3 Cl3 ]two isomers are possible.

(i)
[Cr( C2O4 )3 ]3−

(ii) [ PtCl2( en )2 ] 2+

(iii) cis [Cr( NH3)2 Cl2( en )]+

(iv) trans [Cr( NH3)2 Cl2( en )]+

QUESTIONS ON VALENCE BOND THEORY:
1(i) [CO(NH3)6]3+ :
Orbitals of CO3+ ion :

Hybridization : d2sp3 Shape : Octahedral

Magnetic behaviour : Diamagnetic (absence of unpaired electrons)
(ii) [Ni(CN)4]2-

2.In both the cases, Fe is in oxidation state +3. Outer electronic configuration of Fe3+is :

In the presence of CN–, the 3d electrons pair up leaving only one unpaired electron. The
hybridization involved is d2sp3 forming inner orbital complex which is weakly paramagnetic.
In the presence of H2O (a weak ligand), 3d electrons do not pair up. The hybridization
involved is sp3d2 forming an outer orbital complex. As it contains five unpaired electrons so it
is strongly paramagnetic.
3. .In [Co(NH3)6]3+, the d-electrons of Co3+ ([Ar]3d6 4s°) get paired leaving behind two
empty d- orbital and undergo d2sp3 hybridization and hence inner orbital complex, while in
[Ni(NH3)6]2+ the d-electrons of Ni2+ ([Ar]3d8 4s°) do not pair up and use outer 4d subshell
hence outer orbital complex.

4 (i) [CoF4]2- : Tetrafluorido cobalt (II) ion

 Coordination number = 4 Shape = Tetrahedral Hybridisation = sp3

5.Cr atom (Z = 24), Ground state = [Ar] 3d5 4s1

Geometry : Octahedral
Magnetic property : Paramagnetic

QUESTIONS ON CRYSTAL FIELD THEORY:

1. The crystal field splitting, ∆0, depends upon the field produced by the ligand and charge on the
metal ion. Some ligands are able to produce strong fields in which, the splitting will be large whereas
others produce weak fields and consequently result in small splitting of d-orbitals. In general, ligands
can be arranged in a series in the order of increasing field strength as given below :

2.

3. Crystal field splitting energy : When ligands approach the central metal ion, the degenerate
d-orbitals split into two sets, one with lower energy (t2g) and the other with higher energy
(eg). The difference of energy between these two sets of orbitals is called crystal field
splitting energy. (Δ0 for octahedral complexes).
The magnitude of Δ0 decides the actual configuration of d-orbitals by the help of mean
pairing energy.

• If P > Δ0 then pairing of electrons does not occur and electrons enter in the higher
energy e orbitals and thus form high spin complexes due to weak field ligands.
• If P < Δ0 then pairing of electrons occurs within the same set and form low spin
complexes due to strong field ligands.

4. Synergic bonding interaction in a carbonyl complex is shown below. Carbonyl C donates lone
pair of electrons to metal to form M−C σ bond. Filled d orbital of metal donates lone pair of
electrons to vacant antibonding π orbital of CO to form M−C π bond.

QUESTIONS ON APPLICATION OF COORDINATION COMPOUNDS:

1.Hardness of water is estimated by simple titration with Na2EDTA.
The Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions form stable complexes with EDTA.
The selective estimation of these ions can be done due to difference in the stability constants
of calcium and magnesium complexes.
2.Coordination compounds such as platinum, palladium and ruthenium complexes are anti-
cancer drugs.
3.Mond process for refining nickel metal:Nickel is heated in a stream of CO to form nickel
tetra carbonyl complex which is highly volatile. Nickel tetra carbonyl is heated at high
temperature. It decomposes to give pure nickel.
Ni+4CO 330−350K Ni(CO)4
Ni(CO)4 450−470K Ni+4CO
4.(i) Biological systems:Several naturally occurring biologically important compounds are
coordination compounds.Thus, chlorophyll is a coordination compound containing Mg(II)
ions. It is green pigment present in plants and is used in photosynthesis.
(ii) Medicinal chemistry:To remove metal poisoning, complexing agents are used, cis platin
[PtCl2(NH3)2] is used in cancer chemotherapy.
(iii) Analytical chemistry:Complex formation is used in qualitative scheme of analysis. In
group I analysis, silver ion is separated from the precipitate of AgCl,Hg2Cl2 and PbCl2.
Aqueous ammonia is added to the ppt. AgCl dissolves due to formation of soluble complex.
AgCl+2NH3⇌[Ag(NH3)2]Cl
(iv) Extraction/metallurgy of metals: Metals such as gold and silver are extracted by complex
formation technique. Cyanide process is used for extraction of silver and gold from its ore.
Ag2S+4NaCN→2Na[Ag(CN)2]+Na2S
2Na[Ag(CN)2]+Zn→Na2[Zn(CN)4]+2Ag

6. HALOALKANES AND HALOARENES

(CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 6 MARKS)

MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER

1. Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution than alkyl
halides. Which of the following accounts for this?
(i) Due to resonance in aryl halides.
(ii) In alkyl halides carbon atom in C–X bond is sp2 hybridised whereas in aryl halides carbon
atom in C–X bond is sp3 hybridized.
(iii) Due to stability of phenyl cation.
(iv) Due to possible repulsion, there are less chances of nucleophile to approach electron rich
arenes.
(a) (i), (ii) and (iv) (b) (i), (ii) and (iii)
(c) (i) and (iv) (d) (ii), (iii) and (iv)
2. Haloarenes are ortho and para directing due to
(a) Resonance in aryl halide (b) – I effect of halogen atom
(c) + I effect of halogen atom (d) both (a) and (b)
3. Benzene reacts with n-propyl chloride in the presence of anhydrous AlCl3 to give
(a) 3 – Propyl – 1 – chlorobenzene (b) n-Propylbenzene
(c) No reaction (d) Isopropylbenzene
4. Trichloroacetaldehyde, CCl3CHO reacts with chlorobenzene in presence of sulphuric acid
and produces:

5. Aryl halides cannot be prepared by the reaction of aryl alcohols with PCl3, PCl5 or SOCl2
because
(a) Phenols are highly unstable compounds.
(b) carbon-oxygen bond in phenols has a partial double bond character.
(c) carbon-oxygen bond is non- polar
(d) all of these

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
1. Assertion (A): When alkyl halides react with alcoholic KOH alkene is formed as a
product.
Reason (R): Alcoholic KOH act as a base and alkoxide ion attack on ß-hydrogen atom
rather than partial positive charged carbon atom hence elimination reaction takes place.
2. Assertion (A): Presence of a nitro group at ortho or para position increases the reactivity
of haloarenes towards nucleophilic substitution.
Reason (R): Nitro group, being an electron withdrawing group decreases the electron
density over the benzene ring.
3. Assertion (A): In monohaloarenes, further electrophilic substitution occurs at ortho and
para positions.
Reason (R): Halogen atom is a ring deactivator.
4. Assertion (A): Aryl iodides can be prepared by reaction of arenes with iodine in the
presence of an oxidising agent like HNO3 and HIO3.
Reason (R): Oxidising agents like HNO3 and HIO3 oxidized HI into I2 and increase yield
of the reaction.
5. Assertion (A): When toluene reacts with chlorine gas in the presence of sunlight o-, p-
chlorotoluene formed as a product.
Reason (R): this reaction is an example of free radical halogenation mechanism.

NOMENCLATURE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Give the IUPAC Names of the following compounds
(i) (CH3)2CHCH(Cl)CH3
(ii) (CH3)3CCH2CH(Br) C6H5
(iii)

(iv)

(v) CH3CH=CHC(Br)(CH3)2

2. Write the structure of the following Organic halogen compounds.

(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylpentane
(ii) 1-Chloro-4- ethyl cyclohaxane
(iii) 1,4 dibromobut-2-ene
(iv) 2-Bromo-2-methylpropane
(v) 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane

REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS

1. The dipole moment of chlorobenzene is lower than that of cyclohexyl chloride.
2. Alkyl halides, though polar, are immiscible with water.
3. Grignard reagents should be prepared under anhydrous conditions.
 4. Aryl halides are extremely less reactive towards Nucleophilic Substitution reactions.
5. The treatment of alkyl chlorides with aq. KOH leads to the formation of alcohols but
in the presence of alc. KOH alkenes are major products.
6. Haloalkanes react with KCN to form alkyl cyanides as main product while AgCN
forms isocyanides as main product.
7. On reaction of alkyl halides with potassium nitrite gives alkyl nitrites as major
product but with silver nitrite, nitroalkanes are formed.
8. para-Dichlorobenzene has higher MP and lesser solubility than those of o- and m-
isomers.
9. Chloroform is stored in closed dark coloured bottles.
10. Sulphuric acid is not used during the reaction of alcohols with KI.

CHEMICAL TEST TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
a) Ethylbromide and Bromobenzene
b) Ethylchloride and Ethylbromide
c) Chlorobenzene and Chlorocyclohexane
2. Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
a) Ethylchloride and Vinylchloride
b) Chlorobenzene and n-hexylchloride
3. Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds:
a) Chlorobenzene and Benzylchloride
b) p-chlorotoluene and Benzylchloride
c) Chloroform and Carbon tetrachloride

NAME REACTION TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Write given naming reactions.
a. Finkelstein reaction
b. Sandmeyer’s reaction
c. Wurtz-reaction
2. Identify and Write name reaction involved in below conversions.
a. Benzene to Diphenyl
b. Reaction between Alkyl halide and Aryl halide
c. (Freon 12) CCl2F2 from CCl4

MECHANISM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Explain the SN1 & SN2 mechanism with suitable examples
2. Arrange the compounds of each set in order of reactivity towards SN2 displacement
a) 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-Bromopentane , 2-Bromopentane
b) 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane, 2-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 3-Bromo-2-
methylbutane
c) 1-Bromobutane, 1-Bromo-2,2-dimethylpropane, 1-Bromo-2-methylbutane, 1-
Bromo-3-methylbutane
CONVERSION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. How the following conversions can be carried out?
a. 1-Iodobutane from 1 – Butanol
b. 2-Chlorobutane to 3,4-Dimethylhexane
c. 2-Methylprop-1-ene to 2-Chloro-2-Methylpropane
2. How will you bring about the following conversions?
a. Chlorobenzene to Benzyl chloride
b. Methane to Ethane
c. 1-Bromopropane to 2-Bromopropane
3. How will you bring about the following conversions?
a. t-butylchloride to t-butyl ethyl ether
b. Ethane to Bromoethene
c. Bromomethane to Propanone
d. Benzene to Biphenyl

COMPLETE THE REACTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Write the major products in each of the following:
a) CH3-CH=CH2 X Y

b) CH3CH2OH X Y

c) CH3-CH(Cl)-CH3 X Y Z

d) C6H5ONa + C2H5Cl → X

e) CH3CH2CH2Cl + NaI X

f) CH3CH2Br X

ARRANGE IN CORRECT ORDER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Arrange each set of compounds in order of increasing boiling points.
(i) 1-Chloropropane, Isopropyl chloride, 1-Chlorobutane.
(ii) Bromomethane, Bromoform, Chloromethane, Dibromomethane.
2. Arrange following compounds in order of increasing density : n-C3H7Cl, n-C3H7Br,
n-C3H7I

WORD PROBLEM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Compound A with molecular formula C4H9Br is treated with aq. KOH solution. The rate
of this reaction depends upon the concentration of the compound 'A' only. When another
optically active isomer 'B' of this compound was treated with aq. KOH solution, the rate
of reaction was found to be dependent on concentration of compound and KOH both.
 a) Write down the structural formula of both compounds 'A' and 'B'.
b) Out of these two compounds, which one will be converted to the product with
inverted configuration?
2. Primary alkyl halide C4H9Br (a) reacted with alcoholic KOH to give compound (b).
Compound (b) is reacted with HBr to give (c) which is an isomer of (a). When (a) is
reacted with Na metal, it gives a compound (d), C8H18 which is different from the
compound formed when n-butyl bromide is reacted with sodium. Give the structural
formula of (a) and write the equations for all the reactions.
3. A haloalkane C2H5Br on treatment with boiling alcoholic KOH gives compound X. X is
reacted with Br2 to give a compound Y. Compound Y is treated with alcoholic KOH to
give compound Z. Identify the compounds X, Y and Z. Write the equations for all the
reactions.

ANSWERS
MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER

1.c 2. d 3. d 4. d 5. b

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION

1.A 2.A 3.B 4. A 5. D

NOMENCLATURE TYPE QUESTIONS

(i) 2-Chloro-3-methylbutane
(ii) 1 Bromo 3,3 dimethyl 1 phenyl butane
(iii) 2,4,6 trinitro chlorobenzene
(iv) 4-chloro benzenesulphonic acid
(v) 4-Bromo-4methyl pent 2 ene
1. (i)CH3CH(Cl)CH(CH3)CH2CH3

(ii)
(iii)BrCH2-CH=CH-CH2-Br
(iv)(CH3)3CBr
(v)(CH3)3CCH2Br

REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS

1. This is mainly because of following two reasons:
a) The halogen atom of chlorobenzene is linked to sp2-hybridized carbon atom whereas the
halogen atom of cyclohexyl chloride is linked to sp3-hybridized. The sp2 hybridized carbon
atom is more electronegative than sp3 hybridized carbon atom.Thus C-Cl bond of
chlorobenzene is less polar than C-Cl bond of cyclohexyl chloride.
b) There is resonance in chlorobenzene due to which the C- Cl bond acquires double bond
character and so the bond length of C-Cl bond in chlorobenzene is shorter than the bond length
 of C-Cl bond in cyclohexyl chloride. So dipole moment of chlorobenzene is less than the
dipole moment of cyclohexyl chloride.
2. The molecules of alkyl halide are held by dipole- dipole interactions and water molecules
are held by strong hydrogen bonds. Alkyl halide are neither able to form H- bonds with
water nor are able to break the H-bonding network of. Therefore alkyl halides are
immiscible with water.
3. Grignard reagents are very reactive. They react with moisture immediately to form alkanes.
Therefore Grignard reagent should be prepared under anhydrous condition.
4. Aryl halides are less reactive towards nucleophilic substitution reaction as compared to
alkyl halides because of resonance in aryl halide the C- Cl bond acquires double character
and so cannot be easily replaced by nucleophiles.
5. In aqueous medium KOH completely dissociates to give OH- ions which act as strong
nucleophiles and so bring about nucleophilic substitution reaction. Whereas alcoholic KOH
gives alkoxide ion which act as strong base and so bring about elimination reaction forming
alkene.
6. KCN is ionic in nature and provides cyanide ions in solution. CN- is ambidentate
nucleophile and so both the sites are available for linking. Since C-C bond is stronger than
C- N bond, the attack takes place mainly through carbon atom and not through nitrogen.
Therefore alkyl cyanide is the major product. AgCN is covalent compound and electron
donation is possible only through nitrogen therefore alkyl isocyanide is the major
product formed.
7. Nitrite ion is an ambident nucleophile because it has two sites — oxygen and nitrogen—
through which attack can take place. Potassium nitrite (KNO2) is an ionic compound and
one of the oxygen atoms has a negative charge (O=N−O−K+). Nucleophilic attack takes
place through this oxygen atom as C-O bond is stronger than C-N bond. Therefore alkyl
nitrite is the major product. Silver nitrite is a covalent compound and nucleophilic attack
can only take place through nitrogen, therefore nitro alkanes are the major product.
8. The p-isomer is more symmetrical as compared to the ortho and meta isomers. This means
that in the crystal lattice, molecules of the p-isomers are more closely packed as compared
to the other isomers. As a result, p- isomer has a higher melting point and lower solubility
as compared to ortho and meta isomers.
9. Chloroform is stored in dark coloured bottles to prevent the formation of poisonous
phosgene by arial oxidation.
10. In the presence of sulphuric acid (H2SO4), KI produces HI Since is an oxidizing agent, it
oxidizes HI (produced in the reaction to form I2). As a result, the reaction between alcohol
and HI to produce alkyl iodide cannot occur. Therefore, sulphuric acid is not used during
the reaction of alcohols with KI.

CHEMICAL TEST TYPE QUESTIONS

1. (i) C2H5Br & C6H5Br (AgNO3Test)
C2H5Br + KOH(aq) + AgNO3 → C2H5OH + AgBr (yellow ppt) + KNO3
C6H5Br + KOH(aq) + AgNO3 → No Reaction
(ii) C2H5Cl & C2H5Br (AgNO3Test)
C2H5Cl + KOH(aq) + AgNO3 → C2H5OH + AgCl (white ppt) + KNO3
C2H5Br + KOH(aq) + AgNO3 → C2H5OH + AgBr (yellow ppt) + KNO3

(iii) Cl + KOH(aq) + AgNO3 → OH + AgCl (White ppt) +KNO3

C6H5Cl + KOH (aq)+ AgNO3 → No Reaction
 2.C2H5Cl & CH2=CHCl (AgNO3Test)
C2H5Cl + KOH (aq)+AgNO3 → C2H5OH + AgCl (White ppt) + KNO3
CH2=CHCl + KOH (aq)+ AgNO3 → No Reaction
(ii) C6H5Cl & CH3(CH2)4CH2Cl :- ( AgNO3Test)
CH3(CH2)4CH2Cl + KOH(aq)+ AgNO3 → CH3(CH2)4CH2OH + AgCl (White ppt) + KNO3
C6H5Cl + KOH (aq)+ AgNO3 → No Reaction
3.(i) C6H5Cl & C6H5CH2Cl (AgNO3 Test)
C6H5CH2Cl + KOH (aq)+ AgNO3 → C6H5CH2OH + AgCl (White ppt) + KNO3
C6H5Cl + KOH (aq) + AgNO3 → No Reaction
(ii) p-ClC6H4CH3 & C6H5CH2Cl (AgNO3Test)
C6H5CH2Cl + KOH (aq)+ AgNO3 → C6H5CH2OH + AgCl (White ppt) + KNO3
p-ClC6H4CH3 + KOH (aq) + AgNO3 → No Reaction
(iii) CCl4 & CHCl3 :- Carbylamine Test
CHCl3 + C6H5NH2 + KOH → C6H5NC(Foul smell) + KCl + H2O
CCl4 + C6H5NH2+ KOH → No Reaction

NAME REACTION TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Finkelstein reaction

(ii) Sandmeyer’s reaction

(iii) Wurtz-reaction

2. (i)Fitting Reaction
(ii) Wurtz fitting Reaction

(iii) Swartz Reaction

MECHANISM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. SN2 Mechanism

SN1 Mechanism

2.
a. 1-Bromopentane >2-Bromopentane>2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
b. 1-Bromo-3-methylbutane > 3-Bromo-2-methylbutane >2-Bromo-2-methylbutane
c. 1-Bromobutane>1-Bromo-3-methylbutane >1-Bromo-2-methylbutane>1-Bromo-2,2-
dimethylpropane

CONVERSION TYPE QUESTIONS

1. The conversions are as follows -
a. CH3CH2CH2CH2OH ─red phosporous/I2→ CH3CH2CH2CH2I +H2O
b. 2CH3-CH(Cl)CH2-CH3 ─Na, dry ether→ CH3-CH2-CH(CH3)CH(CH3)CH2CH3
c. (CH3)2C=CH2 ─HCl→ (CH3)3CCl
2. The conversions are as follows -
a. C6H5Cl + CH3Cl + Na ─dry ether→ C6H5CH3 ─Cl2, Fe/dark→ C6H5CH2Cl
b. 2CH4 ─Cl2, UV light→ 2CH3Cl ─Na, dry ether→ CH3-CH3
c. CH3-CH2-CH2-Br ─alc KOH→ CH3-CH=CH2 ─HBr→ CH3-CHBr-CH3
 3. The conversions are as follows -
a. (CH3)3CCl + NaOH(aq) → (CH3)3COH ─Na→ (CH3)3CONa ─C2H5Cl→
(CH3)3COC2H5
b. CH3-CH3 + Br2 ─hv→ CH3-CH2Br ─alc KOH→ CH2=CH2 ─Br2/CCl4→ BrCH2-
CH2Br ─alc KOH→ CH2=CH2Br
c. CH3Br ─KCN→ CH3CN ─CH3MgBr→ (CH3)2C=NMgBr ─H3O+, hydrolysis→
(CH3)2C=O
d.

COMPLETE THE REACTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS

a) X= CH3CH(Br)CH3 Y= CH3CH(OH)CH3
b) X= CH3CH2I Y= CH3CH2CN
c) X= CH3CH=CH2 Y= CH3CH2CH2Br Z= CH3CH2CH2OH
d) X= C6H5-O-C2H5
e) X= CH3CH2CH2I
f) X=CH3CH2NC
ARRANGE IN CORRECT ORDER TYPE QUESTIONS
1. (i)1-Chlorobutane >1-Chloropropane> Isopropyl chloride
(In first two molecular mass increases b.p increases,in last two branching increases b.p
decreases)
(ii) Bromoform > Dibromomethane> Bromomethane > Chloromethane
(Molecular mass increases B.P increases.)
2. n-C3H7I > n-C3H7Br > n-C3H7Cl (Molecular mass increases density increases)

WORD PROBLEM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. i) A= 2-Bromo-2- methyl propane(30) B= 2- bromo butane(20)
ii) 2- bromo butane
2. (a) is isobutyl Bromide, (b) is 2-methyl-1-propene, (c) is tret-butyl Bromide and (d) is
2,5- dimethylhexane.
3. X= ethane Y = 1,2- dibromoethane Z = bromoethene
 7. ALCOHOL, PHENOL AND ETHERS
(CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 6 MARKS)

MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER

1. Phenol reacts with Br2 in CS2 at low temperature to give
(a) o-Bromophenol
(b) o-and p-bromophenols
(c) p-Bromophenol
(d) 2, 4, 6Tribromophenol
2. The correct order of boiling points of alcohol of the same molecular mass :
(a) 1° > 2° > 3°
(b) 3° > 2° > 1°
(c) 2° > 1° > 3°
(d) 2° > 3° > 1°
3. When Phenol is distilled with zinc dust, it gives
(a) Benzene
(b) Toluene
(c) Benzaldehyde
(d) Benzoic acid
4. Which of the following cannot be made by using Williamson Synthesis:
(a) Methoxybenzene
(b) Benzyl p-nitrophenyl ether
(c) tert. butyl methyl ether
(d) Ditert. butyl ether
5. Dehydration of alcohol to ethers is catalysed by
(a) cone. H2SO4 at 413 K
(b) Hot NaOH
(c) Hot HBr
(d) Hot HNO3
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION
Each question consists of two statements,namely,Assertion (A) and Reason (R).For selecting the
correct answer,use the following code:

(a) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true and Reason (R) is a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are the true but Reason (R) is not a correct explanation of
Assertion (A).
(c) Assertion (A) is true and Reason (R) is false.
(d) Assertion (A) is false and Reason (R) is true.

1. Assertion (A): Phenol is more acidic than ethanol.

Reason (R): Phenoxide ion is stabilized by resonance but ethoxide ion is not.
2. Assertion (A): Phenol gives o-and p- nitrophenol on nitration with conc. HNO3 AND
H2SO4 mixture.
Reason (R): -OH group in phenol is O- and P-directing.
3. Assertion (A): Alcohols have higher boiling point than ethers.
Reason (R): They can form intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
 4. Assertion (A): O – nitrophenol is less volatile than P-nitrophenol.
Reason (R):Intramolecular hydrogen bonding is present in O-nitrophenol while
intermolecular hydrogen bonding is present in O-nitrphenol.
5. Assertion (A): Lucas test can be used to distinguish between 1-propanol and 2-
propanol.
Reason (R): Lucas test is based upon the difference in reactivity of primary
,secondary and tertiary alcohols with conc. HCl and anhydrous ZnCl2 .

NOMENCLATURE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Write the IUPAC name of the following compounds.
(a)

(b)

(c)

(d)

(e)

2. Write the structure of the following compound whose IUPAC name are as follows:
(a) 2-methylpropan- 2-ol molecule.
(b) Hex-l-en-3-ol
(c) Butane-1,3-diol
(d) 1-phenylpropan-2-ol
(e) 2-Methoxypropane
REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Ortho nitrophenol has lower boiling point than p-nitrophenol. Why?

2. Ortho-nitrophenol is more acidic than ortho-methoxyphenol. Why?
3. Of the two hydroxy organic compounds ROH and R’OH, the first one is basic and
other is acidic in behaviour. How is R different from R’?
4. Which of the following isomers is more volatile : o-nitrophenol or p-nitrophenol?
5. Out of CH3OH and C6H5OH which one is more acidic and why?
6. Alcohols are more soluble in water than the hydrocarbons of comparable molecular
masses?
7. The boiling point of ethanol is higher than that of methoxymethane?
8. The C—O—H bond angle in alcohols is slightly less than the tetrahedral angle
(190°28′)?
9. (CH3)3C—O—CH3 on reaction with HI gives (CH3)3C—I and CH3—OH as the main
products and not (CH3)3C—OH and CH3—I?
10. (CH3)3C—Br on reaction with sodium methoxide (Na+ _OCH3) gives alkene as the
main product and not an ether.

CHEMICAL TEST TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Give one chemical test to distinguish between : Propan-1-ol and Propan-2-ol

2. Give one chemical test to distinguish Phenol and Acetic acid.
3. Give one chemical test to distinguish Methanol and ethanol.
4. Give one chemical test each to distinguish between the following pair: (i)Phenol and
Propan-1-ol (ii)Ethanol and di methyl ether (iii) propan-1-ol and 2-methyl propan -2-
ol
5. Give one chemical test to distinguish (i) Ethanol and propan-1-ol (ii) Propan-2-ol and
pentan-3-ol
6. Give one chemical test to distinguish
(i) β – naphthol and ethanol
(ii) diethyl ether and n-butane
(iii) Di ethylether and but-1-ene

NAME REACTION TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Write the following name reaction:

a) Kolbe’s reaction
b) Reimer-Tiemann reaction
c) Williamson synthesis
d) Hydroboration
e) Esterification

MECHANISM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Write the mechanism of acid catalyzed hydration of alkenes.
2. Write the mechanism of acid catalyzed dehydration of ethanol to yield ethene at 443
K.
3. Write the mechanism of dehydration of Alcohol to form Ether at 413 K.
CONVERSION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. How are the following conversions carried out? (i) Propane to Propan-2-ol (ii) Phenol to
acetophenone (iii) Propene to propan-1-ol
2. How will you bring about the following conversions? (i) Ethyl chloride to Ethanal (ii)
Phenol to salicylic acid (ii) Benzyl chloride to Benzyl alcohol
3. Write the chemical reactions for the following conversions. (i) Phenol to anisole (ii)
Ethyl magnesium chloride to Propan-1-ol (iii) Cumene to phenol (iv) Phenol to picric
acid

COMPLETE THE REACTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Predict the products of the following reactions :
a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – OH + SOCl2 →
b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – O – CH3+ HBr →
c) C6H5 – CH2– O – C6H5 + HI —heat→
d)

ARRANGE IN CORRECT ORDER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Arrange each set of compounds in the decreasing order of property indicated
a) Methanol ,ethanol , diethylether , ethylene glycol. (Boiling point )
b) Phenol , O- nitrophenol , p- methoxyphenol , p- nitrophenol. (Ka value )
c) Dimethyl ether , ethanol , phenol . (solubility in water)
d) 2-methylpropan-1-ol, n-Butanol , 2-methylpropan-2-ol (acidic nature )
e) Ethanol, n-butane , water, propane. ( boling point )
f) Isobutane, n-butane , n- butanol , n-butyl chloride (boiling point )
g) Water , ethanol , phenol (acidity character)
h) Ethanol , isopropanol , tertiary butyl alcohol (reactivity towards lucas reagent)
i) Methanol, ethyl alcohol, ethylene glycol , glycerol. (solubility in water)
j) Phenol, o- nitrophenol , p-nitrophenol , m-nitrophenol (boiling point order)

WORD PROBLEM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. An organic compound A with molecular formula C8H16O2 was hydrolysed with
sulphuric acid to give a carboxylic acid B and alcohol C. Oxidation of C with chromic
acid produced B. C on dehydration gives but-1-ene.Write reactions involved.
2. When an aromatic organic compound with molecular formula C6H6O is treated with
bromine water, white precipitate of compound Y is obtained. Give the structure and
the name of X and Y and write the chemical reaction involved. .
3. An organic compound ‘ A ‘ having molecular formula C3H6 on treatment with aq.
H2SO4 give ‘B’ which on treatment with Lucas reagent gives ‘C’. The compound ‘C’
on treatment with ethanolic KOH gives back ‘A’ .Identify A, B, C .
4. An organic compound A (C6H6O) gives a characteristic colour with aq.FeCl3 solution.
(A) On reacting with CO2 and NaOH at 400 K under pressure gives (B) which on
acidification gives a compound (C) .The compound (C) reacts with acetyl chloride to
give (D) which is a popular pain killer. Deduce the structure of A,B,C& D.
 5. An organic compound (X) when dissolved in ether and treated with magnesium metal
forms a compound Y. The compound, Y, on treatment with acetaldehyde and the
product on acid hydrolysis gives isopropyl alcohol. Identify the compound X. What is
the general name of the compounds of the type Y.

ANSWERS
MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER
1. (b)o-and p-bromophenols
2. (a) 1° > 2° > 3°
3. (a) Benzene
4. (d) Ditert. butyl ether
5. (a) conc. H2S04 at 413 K

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION 1. a 2 .d 3. c 4. d 5. a

NOMENCLATURE TYPE QUESTIONS

1.
(a) 2-bromo-3-methylbut-2-en-1-ol (b)2. 2-Phenylethanol (c)2-Methoxy-5-methyl
phenol
(d)2, 5-dinitrophenol (e)1-Ethoxy-2-methylpropane
2
(a)

(b) CH2 = CH – CH(OH) – CH2 – CH2 – CH3 (c) CH3-CH (OH)-CH2-CH2OH

(d)

(e)CH3-O-CH (CH3)2

REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Intermolecular hydrogen bonding
2. –NO2 is EWG while OCH3 is EDG so H+ release is easy from o-nitrophenol.
3. Where R=alkyl, ROH behaves as Bronsted base and where R=aryl, R’OH behaves as a
Bronsted acid.
4. o-nitrophenol due to intramolecular H-bonding.
5. Phenol, phenoxide ion is resonance stabilized.
6.Alcohols can form H-bonds with water.
7. intermolecular H-bonding.
8. Repulsion between lone pair of electrons of oxygen of alcohols.
9. (CH3)3 is tert. Carbocation which is more stable for SN1 reaction.
10. Tert. Alkyl halide undergo elimination in the presence of strong nucleophile and form
alkene.

CHEMICAL TEST TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Propan-2-ol (2*) alcohol takes 5 minutes to give turbidity with lucas reagent(HCl/ZnCl2)
Wherease propan-1-ol(1*) does not give test
CH3CH(OH)CH3 + HCl/ZnCl2-→CH3CH(Cl)CH3 (five minutes)

2. Add 𝑁𝑎𝐻𝐶𝑂3to each. Phenol will not react, whereas acetic acid will give brisk
effervescence due to 𝐶𝑂2.(comparison of acidic nature)
CH3COOH + NaHCO3→CH3COONa + H2O + CO2 (brisk effervescence)
3. Add 𝐼2 and NaOH to each one. Ethanol will give yellow ppt. of iodoform (iodoform test),
whereas methanol will not give yellow ppt.
CH3CH2OH ---- I2/NaOH →CHI3 (YELLOW PPT)
4. (i) Phenol gives violet colouration with neutral FeCl3 where prop-1-ol does not
6 C6H5OH + FeCl3 → [Fe(O C6H5)6]-3 + 3H+ + 3HCl
(ii) Ethanol gives yellow ppt in Iodo form test where di methyl ether does not
CH3CH2OH + I2/NaOH → CHI3 (YELLOW PPT)
(iii)2-methylpropan-2-ol gives turbidity immediately with lucas reagent while propan-1-ol
does not.
5. (i)Both the alcohols are primary alcohols so can be distinguished by Iodoform test
CH3CH2OH + I2/NaOH →CHI3 (YELLOW PPT) Prop-1-ol does not perform Iodo form test
(ii) Propan-2-ol gives yellow ppt in Iodoform test where Pentan-3-ol does not
CH3CH(OH)CH3 + I2/NaOH→CHI3 (yellow ppt)
6.(i) β – naphthol gives violet colouration with neutral FeCl3 where Ethenol does not
(ii)Di ethyl ether dissolves in con. H2SO4 where n-butane does not
(iii)But-1-ene decolourises potassium per mengnate solution where di ethyl ether does not.

NAME REACTION TYPE QUESTIONS

a. Kolbe’s reaction

b. Reimer-Tiemann reaction

c. Williamson synthesis
 d. Hydroboration

e. Esterification

MECHANISM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Step 1: Protonation of alkene to form carbocation by electrophilic attack of 𝐻3 𝑂+ 𝑜𝑟 𝐻 + .

2.

3. Mechanism
CONVERSION TYPE QUESTIONS
1 (i)

(ii)

(iii)

2 (i)

(ii)

(iii)
3 (i)

(ii)

(iii)

(iv)

COMPLETE THE REACTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS

a) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – CH2 – Cl + SO2 + HCl
b) CH3 – CH2 – CH2 – OH + CH3 Br
c) C6H5 – CH2 -I + C6H5 – OH
d) d.CH2 - CH (OH) - CH3

e)

ARRANGE IN CORRECT ORDER TYPE QUESTIONS

1.
a) Ethylene glycol > diethyl ether > ethanol > Methanol .
b) O- nitrophenol>, p- nitrophenol> Phenol > p- methoxyphenol.
c) Ethanol > phenol > Dimethyl ether .
d) n-Butanol> 2-methylpropan-1-ol > 2-methylpropan-2-ol.
e) Water > Ethanol > n-butane > propane.
f) n- butanol> n-butyl chloride > n-butane >Isobutane .
g) phenol> Water > ethanol .
 h) tertiary butyl alcohol > isopropanol > Ethanol.
i) glycerol> ethylene glycol > methanol > ethyl alcohol .
j) p-nitrophenol> o- nitrophenol> phenol

WORD PROBLEM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. A - Butylbutanoate , B - Butanoic acid , C - Butan-1-ol

2.X - C6H5OH ( Phenol ) Y- C6H2Br3OH ( 2,4,6-tribromophenol )

3. A- Propene B- Propan-2-ol C - 2-chloropropane

4. A- Phenol B - Sodium salicylate C- Salicylic acid D- Aspirin

 5.The compound X is CH3Br ( bromomethane ) and Y is CH3MgBr (
Methylmagnesium bromide) The compounds of the type ‘Y’ are called Grignard
reagent. Y has one C atom and acetaldehyde has 2 C atoms so 3 C containing
isopropyl alcohol is produced on acid hydrolysis.
8. ALDEHYDES, KETONES AND CARBOXYLIC ACIDS
(CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 8 MARKS)

MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER

1. The reagent(s) which can be used to distinguish acetophenone from
benzophenone is (are)
(a) 2,4dinitrophenyl hydrazine (b) Aqueous solution of NaHSO3
(c) Benedict’s reagent (d) I2& NaOH
2. Carboxylic acid group doesn’t give the usual addition reactions of
aldehydes & ketones because
(a) O-H bond is more polar than C=O group.
(b) Carboxylate ion gets ionized.
(c) Carboxylate ion gets stabilized by resonance.
(d) It exists as –COOH & there is no carbonyl group.
3. The reagent with which both acetaldehyde and acetone will react is
(a) I2/NaOH (b) Fehling’s solution
(c) Carbonic acid (d) Tollen’s reagent
4. Phenol & benzoic acid can be distinguished by reaction with.
(a) Aqueous NaOH (b) Aqueous NaHCO3
(c) Neutral AlCl3 (d) Aqueous NH3
5. The weakest acid amongst the following is
(a) ClCH2COOH (b) CCl3COOH
(c) CH3COOH (d) Cl2CHCOOH

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a
statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.
1. Assertion - Aldehydes and ketones both react with Tollen’s reagent to form a silver mirror.
Reason – Both aldehydes and ketones contain a carbonyl group.
2. Assertion – Formaldehyde is a planar molecule.
Reason – It contains sp2 hybridised carbon atom.
3. Assertion – The α- hydrogen in carbonyl group is less acidic.
Reason – The anion formed after loss of α-H atom is resonance stabilised.
4. Assertion – Acetaldehyde and acetone cannot be distinguished with iodoform test.
Reason – Both give yellow ppt with NaOH and I2 mixture.
5. Assertion – Aldol condensation may be catalyzed by acid as well as base.
Reason – Aldehydes are easily attacked by all nucleophiles.

NOMENCLATURE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Write the structures of the following compounds:
(i) ɑ-Methoxy propionaldehyde
(ii) 3-Hydroxybutanal
(iii) 2-Hydroxycyclopentane carbaldehyde
(iv) 4-oxopentanal
(v) Di-sec. butyl ketone
(vi) 4-Fluoroacetophenone
2. Name the following compounds according to the IUPAC system of nomenclature:

(i) PhCH2CH2COOH (ii) (CH3)2C==CHCOOH

(iv)
(iii) NO2
CH3
COOH
COOH
NO2 NO2

REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones towards nucleophilic reagents. Give
reasons.
2. Aldehydes and Ketones have lower boiling points than corresponding alcohols. Why?
3. Formaldehyde does not take part in Aldol condensation. Why?
4. Carboxylic acids do not give characteristic reactions of carbonyl group. Explain why?
5. Although phenoxide ion has more number of resonating structures than carboxylate
ion, carboxylic acid is a stronger acid than phenol. Give two reasons.
6. Cl – CH2COOH is a stronger acid than CH3COOH. Explain why?
7. Why is 4-nitrobenzoic acid is more acidic than benzoic acid.
8. Carboxylic acids are higher boiling liquids than aldehydes, ketones and alcohols of
comparable molecular masses. Give reason.
9. Why is there a significant difference in the boiling points of butanal and butanol?
10. Explain why electrophilic substitution in benzoic acid takes place at meta position ?

CHEMICAL TEST TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Give simple chemical test to distinguish between :
(i) Ethanal and Propanal
(ii) Propanal and propanone
(iii) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one.
2. Give chemical tests to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds :
(a) Phenol and Benzoic acid
(b) Benzaldehyde and Acetophenone
(c) Acetophenone and Benzophenone
3. Write a chemical test to distinguish between CH3COOH and HCOOH
4. A and B are two functional isomers of compound C2H6O. On heating with NaOH and I2,
isomer B forms yellow precipitate of iodoform whereas isomer A does not form any
precipitate. Write the formulae of A and B.

NAME REACTION TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Illustrate the following reactions giving suitable example in each case:
(i) Rosenmund reduction
(ii) Etard reaction
(iii)Stephen reaction
(iv) Clemmensen reduction
(v) Wolff-Kishner reduction
2. Write the equation involved in the following reactions:
(i) Aldol Condensation
(ii) Cross Aldol Condensation
(iii)Cannizzaro reaction
(iv) Hell- Volhard –Zelinsky reaction (HVZ reaction)

MECHANISM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Explain the mechanism of a nucleophilic attack on the carbonyl group of an aldehyde or
a ketone.

CONVERSION TYPE QUESTIONS

1. How will you convert

i) Ethyl benzene to benzoic acid.
ii) Acetophenone to benzoic acid.
iii) Bromobenzene to benzoic acid.
iv) Phenylethene (styrene) to benzoic acid.

2. How will you bring about the following conversions in not more than two steps?
i) Propanone to Propene
(ii) Benzoic acid to Benzaldehyde
(iii) Ethanol to 3-Hydroxybutanal
(iv) Benzene to m-Nitroacetophenone
(v) Benzaldehyde to Benzophenone
COMPLETE THE REACTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS
Complete each of the following reactions by giving the missing reactants, reagents or
products:

ARRANGE IN CORRECT ORDER TYPE QUESTIONS

Arrange the following compounds in order of property indicated :-
1. FCH2COOH, O2N-CH2-COOH, CH3COOH, HCOOH (in decreasing order of acid
character)
2. Acetone, Acetaldehyde, Benzaldehyde, Acetophenone (in increasing order of
reactivity towards addition of HCN)
3. CH3CHO, CH3CH2OH, CH3OCH3, CH3CH2CH3 (in increasing order of boiling
point)
4. (CH3)2CHCOOH, CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH, CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH (in increasing
order of acid strength)
5. Benzoic acid, 4-Nitrobenzoic acid, 3,4-Dinitrobenzoic acid, 4-Methoxybenzoic acid
(in increasing order of acid strength)
6. Ethanal, Propanal, Propanone, Butanone (in increasing order of reactivity towards
nucleophilic addition reaction)
7. Benzaldehyde, p-Tolualdehyde, p-Nitrobenzaldehyde, Acetophenone (in increasing
order of reactivity towards nucleophilic addition reaction)
8. CH3COOCH3, CH3COCl, CH3CONH2, (CH3CO)2O (in increasing order of
reactivity towards hydrolysis)
 9. CH3CH2OH, CH3COOH, ClCH2COOH, FCH2COOH, C6H5CH2COOH (in
decreasing order of acid character)
10. Acetaldehyde, Acetone, Di-tert-butyl ketone, Methyl tert-butyl ketone (in
decreasing order of reactivity towards HCN)

WORD PROBLEM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. An alkene ‘A’ (Mol. formula C5H10) on ozonolysis gives a mixture of two compounds, ‘B’
and ‘C’. Compound B’ gives positive Fehling’s test and forms iodoform on treatment with
I2 and NaOH. Compound C’ does not give Fehling’s test but forms iodoform. Identify the
compounds A, B, and C. Write the reaction for ozonolysis and formation of iodoform from B
and C.
2. An aromatic compound “A’ (Molecular formula C8H8O) gives a positive 2, 4-DNP test. It
gives a yellow precipitate of compound ‘B’ on treatment with iodine and sodium hydroxide
solution. Compound A’ does not give Tollen’s or Fehling’s test. On severe oxidation with
potassium permanganate forms a carboxylic acid ‘C’ (Molecular formula C7H602), which is
also formed along with the yellow compound in the above reaction. Identify A, B and C and
write all the reactions involved.
3. Write down functional isomers of a carbonyl compound with molecular formula C3H6O.
Which isomer will react faster with HCN and why? Explain the mechanism of the reaction
also. Will the reaction lead to the completion with the conversion of the whole reactant into
product reaction conditions? If a strong acid is added to the reaction mixture, what will be the
effect on the concentration of the product and why?
4. When liquid ′A′ is treated with a freshly prepared ammonical silver nitrate solution, it
gives a bright silver mirror. The liquid forms a white crystalline solid on treatment with
sodium hydrogen sulphite. Liquid ′B′ also forms a white crystalline solid with sodium
hydrogen sulphite, but it does not give a test with ammoniacal silver nitrate. Which of the two
liquids is aldehyde? Write the chemical equations of these reactions also.
5. Two moles of organic compound ‘A’ on treatment with a strong base gives two compounds
‘B’ and ‘C’. Compound ‘B’ on dehydrogenation with Cu gives ‘A’ while acidification of ‘C’
yields carboxylic acid ‘D’ with molecular formula of CH2O2. Identify the compounds A, B, C
and D and write all chemical reactions involved.
 ANSWERS
MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER
1. (d) I2& NaOH
2. (c) Carboxylate ion gets stabilized by resonance
3. (a) I2/NaOH
4. (b) Aqueous NaHCO3
5. (c) CH3COOH

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION

1. (D) 2.(A) 3.(D ) 4.(A) 5.(C)

NOMENCLATURE TYPE QUESTIONS

1.

2.
(i) 3-Phenylpropanoic acid
(ii) 3-Methylbut-2-enoic acid
(iii) 2-Methylcyclopentanecarboxylic acid
(iv) 2, 4, 6-Trinitrobenzoic acid.

REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS:

1. Aldehydes are more reactive than ketones due to the following two reasons :
2. Due to smaller +1 effect of one alkyl group in aldehydes as compared to larger +1
effect of two alkyl groups, the magnitude of positive charge on the carbonyl carbon is
more in aldehydes than in ketones. As a result nucleophilic addition reactions occur
more readily in aldehydes than in ketones.
3. Due to presence of a H-atom on the carbonyl group, aldehydes can be more easily
oxidised than ketones.
4. It is due to weak molecular association in aldehydes and ketones arising out of the
dipole- dipole interactions. In alcohols, stronger H bonds are formed.
 5. Formaldehyde does not contain a-hydrogen atom. Therefore it does not take part in
aldol condensation.
6. The carboxylic carbon is less electrophilic than carbonyl carbon because of the
possible resonance structure.
7. 5.In the resonating structure of phenol and carboxylic acid, the negative charge on the
carboxylate ion is delocalised over two oxygen atoms while they are localized on
carbon atoms in phenol.
8. In case of caboxylate ion two equivalent resonance structures are obtained whereas in
phenol non-equivalent resonance structures are obtained.
9. Because – I effect of Cl decreases the electron density in the O-H bond thereby
making the release of a proton easier.
10. Because of electron withdrawing nature of -NO2 group
11. Because -COOH group of carboxylic acids is capable to do intermolecular hydrogen
bonding forming a dimer while alcohols, aldehydes and ketones cannot
12. Butanol has a higher boiling point than butanal because butanol has a polar O-H bond,
due to which it forms intermolecular hydrogen bonding, which is absent in butanal.
Thus leading to a higher boiling point of Butanol.
13. The benzene ring of benzoic acid undergoes electrophilic substitution reaction such as
nitration, sulphonation etc. Since the — COOH group in benzene is an electron
withdrawing group, therefore it is meta directing group.

CHEMICAL TEST TYPE QUESTIONS

1.(i) Ethanal and propanal can be distinguished by iodoform test. Yellow precipitate of
iodoform will be formed from Ethanal on heating with iodine and sodium hydroxide solution.

(ii) Propanal and propanone can be distinguished by iodoform test. Yellow precipitate
of iodoform will be formed from Propanone on heating with iodine and sodium
hydroxide solution.

(ii) Pentan-2-one and Pentan-3-one can be distinguished by iodoform test. Yellow

precipitate of iodoform will be formed from Pentan-2-one on heating with iodine
and sodium hydroxide solution.
2. (a)Phenol and benzoic acid can be distinguished by their reactions with sodium
bicarbonate solution. Benzoic acid will give effervescence with NaHCO3 but phenol will not
react.

(b) Benzaldehyde and acetophenone can be distinguished by Tollens test. Benzaldehyde will
form silver mirror, on treatment with Tollens reagent whereas acetophenone will not show
Tollens Test.

(c ) Acetophenone and benzophenone can be distinguished by iodoform test. Acetophenone

will give the yellow precipitate of iodoform, but benzophenone will not react.

3. Add Tollens’ reagent to formic acid and warm. Silver mirror is formed.
Acetic acid does not give this test.

4.Molecular Formula of compounds A and B is C3H6O

B forms yellow precipitate of iodoform. Hence, B must contain -COCH3 group.
The compound B is CH3COCH3
A does not give iodoform test and it is functional isomer of B thus, A is CH3CH2CHO.
NAME REACTION TYPE QUESTIONS
1.(i) Acyl chlorides when hydrogenated over catalyst palladium on barium sulphate yield
aldehydes.

(ii) On treating toluene with chromyl chloride CrO2Cl2, the methyl group is oxidized to a
chromium complex, which on hydrolysis gives corresponding benzaldehyde.

(iii) Nitriles are reduced to corresponding imines with stannous chloride in the presence of
Hydrochloric acid, which on hydrolysis gives corresponding aldehyde.

(iv) The carbonyl group of aldehydes and ketone is reduced to –CH2 group on treatment with
zinc amalgam and conc. HCl.

(v) Condensation of the carbonyl compound with hydrazine forms the hydrazone, and treatment
with base induces the reduction of the carbon coupled with oxidation of the hydrazine to
gaseous nitrogen, to yield the corresponding alkane.

2.(i) Aldehydes and ketones having at least one α-hydrogen condense in the presence of dilute
alkali as catalyst to form β-hydroxy aldehydes (aldol) or β-hydroxy ketones (ketol).

(ii) When aldol condensation is carried out between two different aldehydes and/or ketones,
a mixture of self and cross-aldol products are obtained.
(iii) Aldehydes which do not have α-hydrogen atom, undergo self oxidation and reduction
(disproportionation) reaction on treatment with concentrated alkali, to yield carboxylic acid
salt and an alcohol respectively.

(iv) Carboxylic acids having an α-hydrogen are halogenated at the α-position on treatment
with chlorine or bromine in the presence of small amount of red phosphorus to give α-
halocarboxylic acid.
MECHANISM TYPE QUESTIONS
A1) Mechanism of a nucleophilic attack on the carbonyl group

is a polar group in which carbon acquires positive charge and O acquires negative
charge due to more electronegativity of oxygen. The Nu~ attacks on carbon and forms a
tetrahedral intermediate and then electrophile attacks on oxygen and forms a compound.

CONVERSION TYPE QUESTIONS

Q1
Q2.

COMPLETE THE REACTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS

ARRANGE IN CORRECT ORDER TYPE QUESTIONS

1. O2N-CH2-COOH > FCH2COOH > CH3COOH > HCOOH

2. Acetophenone < Acetone < Benzaldehyde < Acetaldehyde
3. CH3CH2CH3 < CH3OCH3 < CH3CHO < CH3CH2OH
4. (CH3)2CHCOOH < CH3CH(Br)CH2COOH < CH3CH2CH(Br)COOH
5. 4-Methoxybenzoic acid < Benzoic acid < 4-Nitrobenzoic acid < 3,4-
Dinitrobenzoic acid
 6. Butanone < Propanone < Propanal < Ethanal
7. Acetophenone < p-Tolualdehyde < Benzaldehyde < p-Nitrobenzaldehyde
8. CH3CONH2 < CH3COOCH3 < (CH3CO)2O < CH3COCl
9. FCH2COOH > ClCH2COOH > C6H5CH2COOH > CH3COOH > CH3CH2OH
10. Acetaldehyde > Acetone > Methyl tert-butyl ketone > Di-tert-butyl ketone

WORD PROBLEM TYPE QUESTIONS

1. (i) Compound B gives Fehling’s test, which means it is aldehyde also. It forms an
iodoform, so compound B is acetaldehyde, among aldehydes.
(ii) Compound C does not give Fehling’s test but gives iodoform, so ketone must have a
methyl group attached to carbonyl.
Reactions for ozonolysis and formation of iodoform from B and C are

2. Since the aromatic compound, ‘A’ does not give Tollen’s reagent test or Fehling’s test, it is
not an aromatic aldehyde. It responds to the iodoform test, indicating a methyl ketone.
The series of reactions involved are listed.
3 Functional isomers of C3H6O containing carbonyl group are CH3CH2CHO (Propanal) and
CH3COCH3 (Propanone).
(a) Propanal CH3CH2CHO will react faster with HCN because less steric hindrance and
electronic factors increase its electrophilicity.
Mechanism - step-1) ionisation of weak acid in presence of base
OH−+HCN→H2O+CN−
step-2) nucleophilic addition of CN− on carbonyl compound
(b) It does not lead to completion because it is a reversible reaction. Equilibrium is
established,
(c) If A strong acid is added to the reaction mixture, the reaction is inhibited because the
production of CN– ions is prevented.
4. Liquid ′A′ must be Aldehyde because it reacts with both NaHSO3 and ammonical silver
nitrate.
Liquid ′B′ must be ketone because it does not react with ammonical silver nitrate but react
with NaHSO3.

5.
 9. AMINES
(CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 6 MARKS)

MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER

1. Which of the following is formed when an alkyl primary amine reacts with nitrous acid?
(a) Alkyl nitrite (b) Secondary amine
(c) Nitroalkane (d) Alcohol
2. Which of the following amines are insoluble in water?
(a) Methanamine (b) Aniline
(c) Propanamine (d) Ethanamine
3. Which of the following statements about primary amines is ‘false’?
(a) Alkylamines are stronger bases than arylamines.
(b) Alkylamines are stronger bases than ammonia.
(c) Alkylamines react with nitrous acid to produce alcohols.
(d) Arylamines react with nitrous acid to produce phenols
4. Amongst the following, the strongest base in aqueous medium is:
(a) CH3NH2 (b) NCCH2NH2
(c) (CH3)2NH (d) C6H5NHCH3
5. The best reagent for converting 2-phenylpropanamide into 2-phenylpropanamine is:
(a) LiAlH4 (b) Br2 in aqueous NaOH
(c) iodine in the presence of red phosphorus (d) excess H2

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION

Directions: In the following questions, A statement of Assertion (A) is followed by a

statement of Reason (R). Mark the correct choice as:
(A) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false.
(D) A is false and R is true.

1. Assertion: Gabriel phthalimide reaction can be used to prepare aryl and alkyl amines
Reason: Aryl halides have same reactivity as alkyl halides towards nucleophilic
substitution reaction.
2. Assertion: Aniline does not undergo Friedel -Crafts reaction
Reason: Friedel-Crafts reaction is electrophilic substitution reaction
3. Assertion: Aniline reacts with bromine water to form 2,4,6-tribromoaniline
Reason: Aniline is resonance stabilized
4. Assertion: The order of basicity of amines in gaseous state is different than those in
aqueous solution
Reason: In aqueous solution solvation is also to be takes in to account.
5. Assertion: Hinsberg’s reagent does not react with tertiary amines
Reason: No hydrogen atom is attached to nitrogen of amino group
NOMENCLATURE TYPE QUESTIONS
1. Write IUPAC names of the following compounds.
(i) (CH3)2CHNH2 (ii) CH3(CH2)2NH2 (iii) CH3NHCH(CH3)2
(iv) (CH3)3CNH2 (v) C6H5NHCH3
2. Write the formula of the following compounds.
a.) 2, 4, 6-Tribromoaniline b) N-Ethyl-N-methylethanamine
c) ethane-1, 2-diamine. d) benzenamine. e) N, N diethylethanamine.

REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS

A. Accounts for the following
1. Pkb of aniline is more than that of methyl amine.
2. Aniline gets coloured on standing in air for a long time.
3. MeNH2 is more basic than MeOH.
4. Acylation of aniline is carried out in the present of Pyridine.
5. Aniline can not be prepared by the ammonolysis of chlorobenzene under normal
condition.
6. N-ethylethanamine boils at 329.3k and butanamine boil at 350.8 k although both are
isomeric in nature.
7. Aniline on nitration gives good amount of m-nitroaniline through -NH2 group is o/p
directing in electrophilic substitution reaction.
8. (CH3)2 NH is more basic than (CH3)3N in aquous solution.
9. Ammonoslysis of alkyl halide is not a good method to prepare pure primary amines.
10. Aniline does not undergo Friedel crafts reaction.
11. Ethylamine is soluble in winter whereas aniline is insolible.
12. Methylamine in water reacts with ferric chloride to precipitate hydrated ferric oxide.
13. Diazorium salt of aromatic amine are more stable than aliphatic amine.
14. Gabriel Phthalimide synthesis is preferred for Primary amine.

CHEMICAL TEST TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Give One Chemical test to distinguish between the following pairs of compounds.
i. Methylamine and dimethyl amine
ii. Secondary and tertiary amines
iii. Ethyl amine and aniline
iv. Aniline and N-methyl aniline
v. Aniline and Benzyl amine
vi. Primary, secondary and tertiary amines

NAME REACTION TYPE QUESTIONS

Write short notes on the following:
1. Sandmeyers reaction
2. Gabriel pthalimide synthesis
3. Carbylamine reaction
4. Hofmann’s bromamide reaction
5. Coupling reaction
CONVERSION TYPE QUESTIONS
1. How will you bring about following conversions?
(i) Ethanoic acid to methanamine.
(ii) Methanamine to ethanamine.
(iii) Nitromethane to methyl isocyanides.
2. How are the following conversions carried out?
(i) Ethanamine to ethanoic acid.
(ii) Chloromethane to ethanamine .
3. Write chemical equations for the following conversations:
(i) Aniline to benzenenitrile
(ii) Benzene diazonium chloride to benzylamine
(iii) Aniline to Phenol
4. How will you convert:
(i) Nitrobenzene into aniline.
(ii) Benzyl chloride into 2-Phenylethamine.

COMPLETE THE REACTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. Complete the following reactions:
1) C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O →
2) C6H5NH2 + CH3COCl →
3) C2H5NH2 + C6H5SO2Cl →
4) C2H5NH2 + HNO2 →
5) CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3 + KOH (Alcoholic) →

ARRANGE IN CORRECT ORDER TYPE QUESTIONS

Arrange the following in their given order:
(a) in decreasing order of the pKb values:
C2H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, (C2H5)2NH, and C6H5NH2
(b) In increasing order of basic strength:
(i) Aniline, p-nitroaniline and p-toluidine
(ii) C6H5NH2, C6H5NHCH3, C6H5CH2NH2
(c) Decreasing order of the basic strength in gas phase
C2H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, (C2H5)3N, NH3
(d) In increasing order of boiling point:
C2H5OH, (CH3)2NH, C2H5NH2
(e) In increasing order of solubility in water:
C6H5NH2, (C2H5)2NH, C2H5NH2
(f) In increasing order of dipole moment :
CH3CH2CH3, CH3CH2NH2, CH3CH2OH
WORD PROBLEM TYPE QUESTIONS
1. An aromatic compound 'A' on treatment with aqueous ammonia and heating,
forms compound 'B' which on heating with Br₂ and KOH forms a compound 'C' of
molecular formula C6H7N. Write the structures and IUPAC names of compound A,
B and C.
2. A compound 'X' having molecular formula C3H7NO, reacts with Br2 in presence of
KOH to give another Compound 'Y'. The compound Y reacts with HNO2 to form
ethanol and N₂ gas. Identify the compound X and Y and write the reactions
involved.
3. An organic compound 'A' having molecular formula C3H5N on hydrolysis give
another compound 'B'. The compound 'B' on treatment with HNO₂ gave ethyl
alcohol. 'B' on warming with CHCl3 and alcoholic caustic potash gave an offensive
smelling substance 'C'. Identify A, B & C.
4. An aliphatic compound 'A' with molecular formula C2H3Cl on treatment with AgCN
gives two isomeric compounds of unequal amounts with the molecular formula
C3H3N. The minor of these two products on complete reduction with H₂ in
presence of Ni gives a compound B with molecular formula C3H9N. Identify the
compounds 'A','B', and write the reaction involved.
5. Iodomethane reacts with KCN to form a major product 'A'. Compound 'A' on
reduction in presence of LiAlH4 forms a higher amine 'B'. Compound 'B' on
treatment with CuCl2 form a blue colour complex 'C'. Identify the compounds 'A',
'B' and 'c':

ANSWER KEY
MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER 1.
d
2. b
3. d
4. c
5. a
ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION
1. d
2. b
3. b
4. a
5. a

NOMENCLATURE TYPE QUESTIONS

1. (i) Propane-2-amine
(ii) Propane-1-amine
(iii) N-methylpropan-2-amine
(iv) 2-methylpropan-2-amine
(v) N-methyl benzenamine
2. a)

.
b) (CH3CH2)2NCH3 c) H2N–CH2–CH2–NH2
d) C6H5–NH2 e) (CH3CH2)3N
REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS
Accounts for the following:
1. In aniline due to resonance the lone pair of electrons on N-atom get delocalized in benzene
ring. So electron density over N decreases. On the other hand in melhy animine due to +I fect
electron density increases. So aniline is less basic & have higher pkb value.
2. Due to +R effect of -NH2 group the electron density on benzene ring increases . So
oxidized easily or standing for a long time.
3. Nitroogen is less electronegative than oxygen therefore lone pair of electrons on Nitrogen
is readily available for donation. Hence MeNH2 is more basic.
4. This is done to remove the HCL so formed during the reaction & shift the equilibrium to
the right hand side.
5. Due to double bond character in cholorobenzene due to conjugation.
6. N-ethylamine is secondary amine but butanamine is Primary amine both have tendency to
form intermolecular H bond but in primary amine more intermolecular H-bond is present so
have high B.P.
7. Aniline in strong acidic medium accepts proton and form anilinium ion which act as
metadirecting group.
8. (CH3)2 NH is more basic than (CH3)3 N is aquous solution due to all three favorable
factors: (i)+ I effect (ii) Hydration effect (iii) Steric effect
9.It gives mixture of Primary, secondary and tertiary amine along with some quaternary
ammoniumsalt which is difficult to separate.
10. Due to formation of salt with catalyst AlCl3 used in fridel craft reaction.
11. Because ethyl amine has tendency to form intermolecular H bond with water, Amiline has
no such tendency .
12. Methylamine being more basic than water accepts proton from water give OH- ion which
combines with Fe3+ ion present in water and form brown precipitate of hydrated ferric oxide.
13. Due to dispersal of +ve charge on benzene ring.
14. Because it gives pure Primary amine without any contamination of secondary and tertiary.

CHEMICAL TEST TYPE QUESTIONS

Ans.(i) Methyl amines gives offensive smelling compound. (Methyl isocyanide) on
treatment with CHCl3 & KOH while dimethyl amine does not react.
Ans.(ii) On adding HNO2, secondary amine will form yellow oily compound whereas tertiary
amine willform salt, soluble in water.
Ans.(iii) on adding NaNO₂ and HCl and cooling it to 0 add alkaline solution of phenol.
Aniline willgive orange red dye whereas no such dye is formed in case of ethyl amine.
Ans.(iv) Add CHCl3 & KOH, Aniline will give offensive smell formation of phenyl
Isocyanide, whereasN-methyl aniline will not react."
Ans.(v) Add Bromine water, Aniline & will form white ppt. whereas benzyl amine will not
form whiteppt.
Ans.(vi) On adding Hensberg's reagent, primary amine forms N-alkyl benzene salphonamide
which is soluble in alkali secondary amine forms N, N-Dialkyl benzene salphonamide which
is insoluble in alkaliTertiary amine does not respond to this test.

NAME REACTION TYPE QUESTIONS

(1). Sandmeyer’s Reaction - Benzene diazonium chloride is converted to chlorobenzene,
bromobenzene, cyanobenzene on treatment with CuCl/HCl, CuBr/HBr and CuCN/KCN,
respectively.
(2). Gabriel phthalimide synthesis - It is a very useful method for the preparation of
aliphatic primary amines. It involves the treatment of phthalimide with ethanolic potassium
hydroxide to form potassium salt of phthalimide. This salt is further heated with alkyl halide,
followed by alkaline hydrolysis to yield the corresponding primary amine.

(3) Carbylamine reaction: Both aliphatic and aromatic primary amines when warmed with
chloroform and an alcoholic solution of KOH, produces isocyanides or carbylamines which
have very unpleasant odours. This reaction is called carbylamine reaction.

(4).Hoffmann’s bromamide reaction: When an amide is treated with bromine in alkali

solution, it is converted to a primary amine that has one carbon atom less than the starting
amide. This reaction is known as Hoffinann’s bromamide degradation reaction.

(5) Coupling reaction: In this reaction, arene diazonium salt reacts with aromatic amino
compound (in acidic medium) or a phenol (in alkaline medium) to form brightly coloured azo
compounds. The reaction generally takes place at para position to the hydroxy or amino
group.

CONVERSION TYPE QUESTIONS

1.
NH3 Br2 +KOH
(i) CH3 COOH → CH3 CONH2 → CH3 NH2
HNO2 Pcl5 KCN [H]
(ii) CH3 NH2 → CH3 OH→ CH3 Cl→ CH3 CN→ CH3 CH2 NH2
Sn/Hcl CHCl3 /KOH
(iii) CH3 NO2 → CH3 NH2 → CH3 NC
 2.
HNO2 KMn O4
(i) CH3 CH2 NH2 → CH3 CH2 OH CH3 COOH
H2 SO4
KCN Na/C2H5 OH
(ii) CH3 Cl → CH3 CN → CH3 CH2 NH2
3.
NaNO2 +HCl CuCN
(i) C6 H5 NH2 273−278K C6 H5 N2 Cl KCN
CuCN Na/C2H5 OH
(ii) C6 H5 N2 Cl C6 H5 CN → C6 H5 CH2 NH2
KCN
NaNO2 +HCl H2
(iii)C6 H5 NH2 C6 H5 N2 Cl boilo C6 H5 OH
273−278K
4.
Sn/HCL
(i) C6 H5 NO2 → C6 H5 NH2
KCN Na/C2H5 OH
(ii) C6 H5 CH2 Cl → C6 H5 CH2 CN → C6 H5 CH2 CH2 NH2

COMPLETE THE REACTIONS TYPE QUESTIONS

1. C6H5N2Cl + H3PO2 + H2O → C6H6 + N2 + H3PO3 + HCl
2. C6H5NH2 + CH3COCl → C6H5NHCOCH3 + HCl
3. C2H5NH2 + C6H5SO2Cl → C6H5SO2NHC2H5 + HCl
4. C2H5NH2 + HNO2 → C2H5OH + N2 + HCl
∆
5. CH3CH2NH2 + CHCl3 + 3KOH (Alcoholic) → CH3CH2–N≡C + 3KCl + 3H2O

ARRANGE IN CORRECT ORDER TYPE QUESTIONS

a) C2H5NH2 > C6H5NHCH3 > (C2H5)2NH > C6H5NH2
b) (i) p-nitroaniline < Aniline < p-toluidine
(ii) C6H5NH2 < C6H5NHCH3 < C6H5CH2NH2
C) (C2H5)3N > (C2H5)2NH > C2H5NH2 > NH3
d) (CH3)2NH < C2H5NH2 < C2H5OH
(e) C6H5NH2, < (C2H5)2NH, < C2H5NH2
(f) CH3CH2CH3< CH3CH2NH2< CH3CH2OH

WORD PROBLEM TYPE QUESTIONS

 10. BIOMOLECULES
(CBSE WEIGHTAGE: 7 MARKS)

MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER

1. α−D (+)-glucose and β−D (+)-glucose are-
(A) Anomers (B) Epimers (C) Enantiomers (D) Geometrical isomers
2. Which of the following statements about maltose is incorrect?
(A) It consists of two glucopyranose units
(B) It is a disaccharide
(C) Glycosidic bond between C1 of one unit and C4 of the other unit
(D) It is a non-reducing sugar
3. Which of the following acids is a vitamin?
(A) Aspartic acid (B) Ascorbic acid (C) Adipic acid (D) Saccharic
acid
4. Which of the following statements is not true about glucose?
(A) It is an aldohexose (B) On heating with HI it forms n-hexane
(C) It is present in Pyranose form (D) It does not give 2,4-DNP test
5. The helical structure of protein is stabilized by:
(A) Peptide bond (B) Dipeptide bond (C) Hydrogen bonds (D) vander Waal’s
forces
6. The symbols D and L in the name of Carbohydrate represents
(A) Dextro rotatory nature (B) Laevo rotatory nature
(C) The relative configuration of a particular isomer (D) The optical activity of compounds
7. DNA and RNA compose of similar-
(A) Sugar (B) Purines bases (C) Pyrimidines bases (D) Both (A) and
(B)
8. Which of the following is/are example(s) of denaturation of protein?
(A) Coagulation of egg white (B) Curding of milk
(C) Clotting of blood (D) Both (A) and (B)
9. What are the hydrolysis products of lactose?
(A) β–D-galactose and β –D-Glucose (B) α –D-Galactose and α –D-Glucose
(C) α –D-Glucose and β –D-Fructose (D) None of these
10. Dinucleotide is obtained by joining two nucleotides together by phosphodiester
linkage. Between which carbon atoms of pentose sugars of nucleotides are
these linkages present?
(A) 5’ and 3’ (B) 1’ and 5’ (C) 5’ and 5’ (D) 3’ and 3’

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION

1. Two statements are given below- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R).
ASSERTION – Vitamin C can’t be stored in our body.
REASON – Vitamin C is water soluble and is excreted from the body through urine.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.
2. Two statements are given below- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R).
ASSERTION – Proteins are polymers of alpha amino acids connected by peptide
bonds.
REASON – A tripeptide contains 3 amino acids linked by 3 peptide bonds.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.

3. Two statements are given below- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R).
ASSERTION – Change in pH and heating leads to denaturation of proteins.
REASON – Change in pH and heating cause loss of biological activity of proteins.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.
4. Two statements are given below- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R).
ASSERTION – Adenine and Guanine are the purines present in both nucleic acids.
REASON – Thiamine and Uracil are the pyrimidine present in DNA.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.
 5. Two statements are given below- one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R).
ASSERTION – Amylopectin is water soluble and contributes 15-20% of starch.
REASON – Amylopectin has C1-C4 & C1-C6 glycosidic linkages.
(a) A and R both statements are correct and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) A and R both statements are correct and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct statement but R is not the correct statement.
(d) A is incorrect statement but R is the correct statement.

QUESTIONS BASED ON CARBOHYDRATES

1. Write any two functions of carbohydrates in plants.
2. Define the following terms:
(i) Glycosidic linkage
(ii) Invert sugar
(iii) Oligosaccharides
3. What are the hydrolysis products of (i) sucrose, and (ii) lactose & (iii) maltose?
4. What happens when D-glucose is treated with. the following reagents. (i) HI (ii)
Bromine water (iii) HNO3
5. Give any two evidence to justify that glucose has ring structure.
6. (a) What is the basic structural difference between starch and cellulose?
(b) What is essentially the difference between a-glucose and β -glucose?
7. What is meant by reducing sugars?
8. Compare the amylose and amylopectin components of starch.

QUESTIONS BASED ON PROTEINS

1. Explain the concept of protein denaturation and provide examples of factors that can
lead to protein denaturation. Why is protein structure crucial for its function?
2. Discuss the role of hydrogen bonds in maintaining the secondary structure of proteins.
3. Mention the type of linkage responsible for the formation of the following:
(i) Primary structure of proteins
(ii) Cross-linkage of polypeptide chains
(iii) α-helix formation
(iv) β-sheet structure

4. What are essential and non-essential amino acids? Name one of each type.
5. (a) What type of bonding helps in stabilizing of a-helix structure of proteins?
(b) Differentiate between globular and fibrous proteins.
6. Amino acids are amphoteric in nature. Explain.

QUESTIONS BASED ON VITAMINS

1. How are vitamins classified? Name the vitamin responsible for the coagulation of
blood.
2. Why are vitamin A and vitamin C essential to us? Give their important sources.
3. Name the only vitamin which can be synthesized in our body. Name one disease that
is caused due to the deficiency of this vitamin.
 4. Why Vitamin C cannot be stored in our body?
5. i) Deficiency of which vitamin causes Beriberi?
ii) Which vitamin is also known as cobalamin?
iii) Deficiency of which vitamin causes night-blindness?

QUESTIONS BASED ON NUCEIC ACIDS

1. What are the nitrogenous base present in DNA and RNA?
2. Define the term a nucleoside and a nucleotide.
3. (a)Two nucleotides are connected through a linkage and form dinucleotide. Name the
linkage.
(b) A DNA sample has more number of G=C pair as compared to A=T pair. What you
think that its boiling point will be higher or not?
4. What are the types of RNA? Give names only.
5. What are the structural differences in between DNA and RNA?

ANSWERS
MULTIPLE -CHOICE QUESTIONS WITH ONE CORRECT ANSWER
1-(A) 2-(D) 3-(B) 4-(D)5-(C) 6-(C) 7-(B) 8(D),9(A)10(A)

ASSERTION-REASON TYPE QUESTION :

1 (A), 2- (B), 3- (A), 4- (C), 5- (D)

CARBOHYDRATES –
1. Two major functions of carbohydrates in plants are following
(a) Structural material for plant cell walls: The polysaccharide cellulose acts as the
chief structural material of the plant cell walls.
(b)Reserve food material:

2. (i) Glycosidic linkage: The two monosaccharide units are joined together through an
ethereal or oxide linkage formed by loss of a molecule of water. Such a linkage
between two monosaccharide units through oxygen atom is called glycosidic linkage
(ii) Invert sugar: An equimolar mixture of glucose and fructose obtained by hydrolysis
of sucrose in presence of an acid such as dil. HC1 or the enzyme invertase or sucrase
is called invert sugar.
(iii) Oligosaccharides: Those carbohydrates which on hydrolysis give 2-10 molecules
of monosaccharides are called oligosaccharides.
Example: sucrose, maltose.

3. Both sucrose and lactose are disaccharides. Sucrose on hydrolysis gives one molecule
each of glucose and fructose but lactose on hydrolysis gives one molecule each of D-
(+) – glucose and D-(+)-Galactose.
Maltose on hydrolysis gives two molecules of glucose.
4.

5. (a) Glucose does not form addition product with NaHSO3.

(b) Pentaacetate of glucose does not react with hydroxyl amine.
6. (a) Starch consists of amylose and amylopectin. Amylose is a linear polymer of α-D-
glucose while cellulose is a linear polymer of β -D- glucose.
In amylose, C -1 of one glucose unit is connected to C – 4 of the other through α-
glycosidic linkage. However in cellulose, C – 1 of one glucose unit is connected to C-
4 of the other through β – glycosidic linkage. Amylopectin on the other hand has
highly branched structure.
(b) The two cyclic hemiacetal forms of glucose differ only in the configuration of the
hydroxyl group on the first carbon atom called anomeric carbon. Such isomers i.e, α-
form and β-form are called anomers. α-glucose is the monomer unit of starch and β-
glucose is the monomer unit of cellulose. The six membered cyclic structure of
glucose is called Pyranose structure. Pyranose structure of glucose: The six membered
ring containing 5 carbon atoms and one oxygen atom because of its resemblance with
pyron is called the pyranose form.

PROTEINS-
1. Protein denaturation is a process in which a protein loses its three-dimensional structure
and, as a result, it’s biological activity. The native, functional structure of a protein is
determined by its unique sequence of amino acids and the specific folding and interactions
between these amino acids. Denaturation disrupts these interactions, causing the protein to
lose its original shape and, often, its function.
Factors Leading to Denaturation: heat, chemicals, or mechanical forces.
Protein structure crucial for its function because it underlies the functioning of enzymes,
receptors, antibodies, and many other biologically important molecules.
2. Hydrogen bonds play a vital role in maintaining the secondary structure of proteins by
stabilizing α-helices and β-sheets. These secondary structures, in turn, contribute to the
overall three-dimensional structure of proteins, which is critical for their biological functions,
including enzymatic activity, binding to other molecules, and maintaining structural integrity.
3.
(i) Primary structure of peptide bond A peptide bond forms through a
proteins condensation reaction between the amino
group (-NH2) of one amino acid and the
carboxyl group (-COOH) of another amino
acid.
(ii) Cross-linkage of covalent bonds, These bonds help stabilize the three-
polypeptide chains specifically disulfide dimensional structure of proteins
bonds
 (iii) α-helix formation Hydrogen bond hydrogen bonds between the carbonyl
group (-C=O) of one amino acid and the
amino group (-NH) of an amino acid
(iv) β-sheet structure Intermolecular hydrogen bonds form between adjacent
hydrogen bonds polypeptide strands

4. Essential amino acids are amino acids that the human body cannot synthesize on its own
and must obtain from the diet. There are nine essential amino acids, one of them is Leucine:
Leucine is an essential amino acid and is important for protein synthesis, muscle growth.
Non-essential amino acids are amino acids that the human body can synthesize on its own, so
they do not need to be obtained directly from the diet. There are eleven non-essential amino
acids. One of them is Glutamine: Glutamine is a non-essential amino acid that plays a crucial
role in various metabolic processes
5. (a) The type of bonding that helps in stabilizing the α-helix structure of proteins is
hydrogen bonding. In α-helix, hydrogen bonds form between the carbonyl group (C=O) of
one amino acid and the amino group (N-H) of an amino acid located four positions down the
chain. These hydrogen bonds create a repeating pattern that stabilizes the helical structure.
(b) Characteristic differences between globular and fibrous proteins can be given as :
S.No. globular proteins fibrous proteins
1 These are cross-linked proteins and are These are linear condensation polymer.
condensation product of acidic and basic
amino acids.
2 These are soluble in water, mineral acids and These are insoluble in water but soluble in
bases. strong acids and bases.
3 These proteins have three dimensional folded These are linear polymers held together by
structure. These are stabilized by internal intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
hydrogen bonding.
4 Examples : Hemoglobin, insulin, and Examples : Collagen, keratin, and elastin
enzymes like amylase and trypsin

6. Amino acid contains amino (-NH2) and carboxyl (-COOH) functional groups. In an
aqueous solution, the carboxyl group can lose a proton and amino group can accept a proton
which gives rise to a dipolar ion called as Zwitter ion. As this dipolar ion can react with base
(due to presence of deprotonated carboxyl group) and with base (due to presence of
protonated amino group) it shows “Amphoteric behavior”.

VITAMINS-
1. Answer:
On the basis of their solubility in water or fat, vitamins are classified into two groups.
(i) Fat-soluble vitamins: Vitamins that are soluble in fat and oils, but not in water,
belong to this group. For example: Vitamins A, D, E, and K
(ii) Water-soluble vitamins: Vitamins that are soluble in water belong to this group.
For example: B group vitamins (B1, B2, B6, B12, etc.) and vitamin C
However, biotin or vitamin H is neither soluble in water nor in fat.
Vitamin K is responsible for the coagulation of blood.
2. Answer: The deficiency of vitamin A leads to xerophthalmia (hardening of the cornea
of the eye) and night blindness. The deficiency of vitamin C leads to scurvy (bleeding
gums).
The sources of vitamin A are fish liver oil, carrots, butter, and milk. The sources of
vitamin C are citrus fruits, amla, and green leafy vegetables.
3. Ans: Vitamin that can be synthesized ‘.Vitamin B12
Disease due to the deficiency of Vitamin B12: Pernicious anemia.
4. Ans: Vitamin C is mainly ascorbic acid which is water soluble and is readily excreted
through urine and thus cannot be stored in the body

5 Ans i) Vitamin B1 ii) Vitamin B12 iii) Vitamin A

NUCEIC ACIDS-
Ans 1- There are two types of nitrogenous base present –
Purines – Adenine and Guanine
Pyrimidines – Cytosine, Thymine and Uracil
Ans 2- Nucleoside – Pentose sugar + Nitrogenous base = Nucleoside
Nucleotide – Nucleoside + Phosphate group = Nucleotide
Ans 3- (a) Phosphodiester linkage
(b) The sample of DNA has higher boiling point because Guanine and
Cytosine forms triple hydrogen bonds between them.
Ans 4- There are three types of RNA – messenger RNA (m-RNA), ribosomal RNA
(r-RNA) & transfer RNA (t-RNA)
Ans 5 -
DNA RNA
1. Double strand helical structure. 1. Single strand structure.
2. Deoxy ribose sugar is present. 2. Ribose sugar is present.
3. Uracil is not present in it. 3. Cytosine is not present in it.