KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA K-AREA ZIRAKPUR

HOLIDAY HOME WORK FOR SUMMER VACATION 2023-24

CLASS XII A SUBJECT CHEMISTRY
1. INVESTIGATORY PROJECT: All the students are required to conduct a scientific
investigation involving laboratory testing and collecting information from other sources. This
project is assessed as a part of practical examination at the end of year. A project should
ideally arise out of the need felt by the student. Students explore their areas of interest and
narrow down their ideas to a testable hypothesis or problem question. There are many issues
in our immediate surroundings which need to be addressed. Keen observation will help
identify the problem.
A project could have the following outline:
1. Statement of Problem-A clear statement of the problem/need that has given rise to the
project
2. Objectives-General and specific objectives of topic
3. Introduction-The introduction should describe the relevance of problem or why the
problem is the most appropriate for your inquiry. It should also describe previously known
facts about your problem question with proper bibliography. Introduction towards end
briefly includes hypothesis your hypothesis and the method to test it.
4. Problem question (specific, concrete questions to which concrete answers can be given)
and/ or hypotheses
5.Methods/Procedures Methodology (will your research be based on survey, an
experimental investigation, historical study, ethnographic study or content analysis).Methods
describe the experiments proposed or the observations planned to make and the detailed
process of analysis of data/observations. Methods proposed should be feasible and be able to
adequately answer problem question.
6. Materials/Resources required
7. Observations/Data gathered Using the procedures mentioned in introduction, experiments
should be conducted and data should be recorded. Interesting things that happened during
the conduct of experiments should also be recorded.
8. Analysis of data and discussion of result Data should be interpreted in terms of proposed
hypothesis. Data should be tabulated and interpreted with the help of graphs if possible.
The interpretation should be done in an honest manner even if it does not support proposed
hypothesis. 9. Conclusion Reporting and writing up the report Discussion of new learning
from the study may be covered under conclusion. This may have possible suggestions for
future studies.
10. Limitation of the study The limitations of the study are those features of design or
procedure that might have affected the interpretation of the results of study. The
limitations are alternatively interpreted as flaws or shortcomings due to flawed
 methodology, observations, small number of experiments or non-peer reviewed nature of
study etc.
11. Bibliography
II. Write in your Notebook:

UNIT - SOLUTIONS

1. The system that forms maximum boiling azeotrope is

(a) Carbon disulphide – acetone (b) Benzene –
toluene
(c) Acetone – chloroform (d) n-Hexane – n-Heptane

2. In osmosis
(a) Solvent molecules move from higher concentration to lower concentration
(b) Solvent molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration
(c) Solute molecules move from higher concentration to lower concentration
(d) Solute molecules move from lower concentration to higher concentration

3. Two solutions A and B are separated by semi-permeable membrane. If the liquid flows
from A to B then
(a) A is less concentrated than B (b) A is more concentrated than B
(c) Both have the same concentration (d) None of these

4. A liquid mixture boils without changing constituent is called

(a) Binary liquid mixture (b) Zeotropic mixture
(c) Azeotropic mixture (d) Stable structure complex

5. Osmotic pressure is measured quickly and accurately by

(a) Berkeley and Hatley’s method (b) Morse’s method
(c) Pleffer’s method (d) De Vries method

6. A solution of acetone in ethanol

(a) behaves like a near ideal solution
(b) Obeys Raoult’s law
(c) Shows a negative deviation from Raoult’s Law (d) Shows a positive deviation from
Raoult’s Law

7. Liquids A and B form an ideal solution

(a) The enthalpy of mixing is zero
(b) The entropy of mixing is zero
(c) The free energy of mixing is zero
(d) The free energy as well as the entropy of mixing is zero
8. When a substance is dissolved in a solvent, the vapour pressure of the solvent is
decreased. This result in
(a) An increase in the boiling point of the solution
(b) A decrease in the boiling point of the solvent
(c) The solution having a higher freezing point than the solvent
(d) The solution having a lower osmotic pressure than the solvent

9. The density of 3 M solution of NaCl is 1.25 g L-1. The molality of the solution is
(a) 1.79 (b) 2.79
(c) 0.79 (d) 2.98

10. Which colligative property is more useful to determine the molecular mass of the
proteins and polymers?
(a) Lowering in vapour pressure (b) Elevation in boiling point
(c) Depression in freezing point (d) Osmotic pressure

11. Value of Henry’s constant KH is

(a) Increases with increase in temperature
(b) Decreases with increase in temperature
(c) Remains constant
(d) First increases then decreases

12. If two liquids A and B form minimum boiling azeotrope at some specific composition
then
(a) A – B interactions are stronger than those between A – A or B – B
(b) Vapour pressure of solution increase because more number of molecules of liquids A
and B can escape
(c) Vapour pressure of solution decreases because less number of molecules of only one of
the liquids escapes from the solution
(d) A – B interactions are weaker than those between A – A or B – B.

13. Molal depression constant depends upon:

(a) nature of the solute (b) nature of the solvent
(c) vapour pressure of the solution (d) heat of solution

14. Ethylene glycol is used as antifreeze in a cold climate. Mass of ethylene glycol which
should be added to 4 kg of water to prevent it from freezing at – 6 0C will be: (Kf for water
= 1.86 K kg mol-1 and molar mass of ethylene glycol = 62 g mol-1)
(a) 204.30 g (b) 804.32 g
(c) 400.00 g (d) 304.60 g

15. Normal human blood sugar range from 65 – 105 mg / dL.

 Considering density of human blood is 1.06 kg/ L, if a patient’s sugar level reads 720 ppm,
his/her blood sugar at that time is
(a) Low (b) High
(c) Normal (d) Cannot say

16. When a particular solution has a higher osmotic pressure than the given standard
solution, it is most appropriately called as ……… with respect to the standard solution.
(a) Hypotonic (b) Hypertonic
(c) Isotonic (d) Pertonic

17. Which of the following statements is correct?

(a) Solutes that dissociates in water experience a decrease in colligative properties (b)
Colligative properties are independent of the number of particles of the solute in the
solution
(c) Solutes that dissociate in water have molar mass higher than the molar mass of the
solute calculated theoretically
(d) Solutes that associate in water have molar mass higher than the molar mass of the
solute calculated theoretically.

18. Which relationship is not correct?

= 𝐾𝑏 .1000.𝑊2 𝐾𝑓.𝑊1.1000
(a) ΔTb (b) 𝑀2 =
𝑀2.𝑊1 𝑊2.ΔT 𝑏

𝑛2 𝑝0−𝑝𝑠 𝑊 2 𝑀1
(c) 𝜋 = 𝑉 RT (d) 𝑝0 = 𝑀2 x 𝑊1

19. Water – HCl mixture

I. shows positive deviations II. Forms minimum boiling azeotrope
III. shows negative deviations IV. Forms maximum boiling azeotrope
(a) I and II (b) II and III
(c) I and IV (d) III and IV

20. Which of the following is true for an aqueous solution of the solute in terms of
concentration?
(a) 1 M = 1 m (b) 1 M > 1 m
(c) 1 M < 1 m (d) cannot be predicted

21. Two liquids P and Q have vapour pressures 450 and 200 torr respectively at certain
temperature. In an ideal solution of the two, the mole fraction of P at which two liquids
have equal partial pressures is
(a) 0.80 (b) 0.308
 (c) 0.444 (d) 0.154

22. When 1 mole of benzene is mixed with 1 mole of toluene, the vapour will contain:
(Given: vapour pressure of benzene = 12.8 kPa and vapour pressure of toluene = 3.85 kPa)
(a) equal amount of benzene and toluene as it forms an ideal solution.
(b) unequal amount of benzene and toluene as it forms a non ideal solution
(c) higher percentage of benzene
(d) higher percentage of toluene

23. A set of solutions is prepared using 180 g of water as a solvent and 10 g of different
non-electrolyte and non-volatile solutes A, B and C. The relative lowering of vapour
pressure in the presence of these solutes are in the order (given: Molar mass of A = 100 g
mol-1, B = 200 g mol-1, C = 10,000 g mol-1)
(a) A > B> C (b) B > C > A
(c) C > B > A (d) A > C > B

24. The osmotic pressure of 5 % aqueous solution of glucose (𝜋1) is related to that of 5 %
aqueous solution of urea (𝜋2) as
(a) 𝜋1 = 𝜋2 (b) 𝜋1 < 𝜋2
𝜋2
(c) 𝜋1 > 𝜋2 (d) 𝜋1 = ⁄2

25. Which of the following units is useful in relating concentration of solution with its
vapour pressure?
(a) mole fraction (b) Parts per million
(c) mass percentage (d) molality

26. On dissolving sugar in water at room temperature solution feels cool top touch. Under
which of the following cases dissolution of sugar will be most rapid? (a) Sugar crystals in
cold water (b) Sugar crystals in hot water
(c) Powdered sugar in cold water ` (d) Powdered sugar in hot water

27. Osmotic pressure of urea solution at 10 0C is 500 mm. Osmotic pressure of the solution
becomes 105.3 mm. When it is diluted and temperature raised to 25 0C. The extent of
dilution is:
(a) 6 times (b) 5 times
(c) 7 times (d) 4 times

28. A pressure cooker reduces cooking time because:

(a) heat is more evenly distributed
(b) the high pressure tenderises the food
(c) the boiling point of water inside the cooker is elevated
(d) the boiling point of water inside the cooker is depressed

29. Azeotropic mixture of HCl and Water has

(a) 84 % HCl (b) 22.2 % HCl
(c) 63 % HCl (d) 20.2 % HCl

30. For which of the following solutions ΔHmix and ΔVmix is negative?
(a) Acetone and aniline (b) Ethyl alcohol and cyclohexane
(c) Acetone and CS2 (d) Benzene and toluene

31. The empirical formula of a non-electrolyte is CH2O. A solution containing 6 g of the

compound exerts the same osmotic pressure as that of 0.05 M glucose solution at the same
temperature. The molecular formula of the compound is:
(a) C2H4O2 (b) C3H6O3
(c) C5H10O5 (d) C4H8O4

32. The statement “if 0.003 moles of a gas are dissolved in 900 g of water under a pressure
of 1 atmosphere, 0.006 moles will be dissolved under a pressure of 1 atmospheres”,
illustrates:
(a) Dalton’s law of partial pressure (b) Graham’s law
(c) Raoult’s law (d) Henry’s law

33. Which of the following characteristics is not possessed by an ideal solution?

(a) Obeys Raoult’s law
(b) Volume change on mixing is not equal to zero
(c) There should be no chemical reaction between solute and solvent
(d) Only very dilute solutions behave as ideal solutions

34. The phenomenon of lowering of vapour pressure is defined as:

(a) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile non electrolyte solute
in it.
(b) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile non electrolyte
solute in it.
(c) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a volatile electrolyte solute in
it.
(d) Decrease in vapour pressure of a solvent on addition of a non-volatile solute in it.

35. During depression of freezing point in a solution the following are in equilibrium
(a) liquid solvent, solid solvent (b) liquid solvent, solid solute
(c) liquid solute, solid solute (d) liquid solute, solid solvent

36. 1 molar aqueous solution is more concentrated than 1 molal aqueous solution of the
same solute because:
(a) mass of the solute present in 1 molar solution is more
(b) volume of solvent in 1 molar aqueous solution is less
(c) volume of solvent in 1 molar aqueous solution is more
(d) All the above statements are correct
37. Which one of the following statements regarding Henry’s law is not correct? (a)
Different gases have different KH (Henry’s law constant) values at the same
temperature
(b) Higher the value of KH at a given pressure, higher is the solubility of the gas in the
liquids
(c) The value of KH increases with increase of temperature and KH is function of the
nature of the gas
(d) The partial pressure of the gas in vapour phase is proportional to the mole fraction of
the gas in the solution.

38. 1 g of a non-volatile, non-electrolyte solute is dissolved in 100 g of two different

solvents A and B, whose ebullioscopic constants are in the ratio of 1: 5. The ratio of the
𝛥𝑇𝑏 (𝐴) elevation
in their boiling points, , is
𝛥𝑇
𝑏 (𝐵)

(a) 5 : 1 (b) 10 : 1
(c) 1 : 5 (d) 1 : 0.2
ASSERTION REASONING TYPE QUESTIONS
In these questions (Q.No. 39 – 48), a statement of assertion followed by a statement of
reason is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is the correct explanation
for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not the correct
explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

39. Assertion : Reverse osmosis is used in the desalination of sea water.

Reason: When pressure more than osmotic pressure is applied, pure water is squeezed out
of the sea water through the membrane.

40. Asssertion: The freezing point is the temperature at which solid crystallizes from
solution.
Reason: The freezing point depression is the difference between that temperature freezing
point of pure solvent.

41. Assertion: Isotonic solution does not show the phenomenon of osmosis. Reason:
Isotonic solutions have equal osmotic pressure.

42. Assertion: Molecular mass of polymers cannot be calculated using boiling point or
freezing point method.

Reason: Polymer solutions do not possess a constant boiling point or freezing point.
43. Assertion: On placing RBC’s in 0.5 % NaCl solution, they will shrink due to
plasmolysis.
Reason: RBC’s are isotonic with 0.91 % NaCl solution.
44. Assertion: Azeotropic mixtures are formed only by non –ideal solutions and they may
have boiling points either greater than both the components or lesser than both the
components.
Reason: The composition of the vapour phase is same as that of the liquid phase of an
azeotropic mixture.

45. Assertion: ΔHmix and ΔVmix are positive for an ideal solution.
Reason: The interactions between the particles of the components of an ideal solution
almost identical as between particles in the liquids.

46. Assertion: The pressure exerted by the vapour in equilibrium with a liquid at a given
temperature is called its vapour pressure.
Reason: If a non-volatile solute is added to a solvent to give a solution, the vapour pressure
of the solution is found to be greater than the vapour pressure of the pure solvent.

47. Assertion: One molal aqueous solution of urea contains 60 g of urea in 1 kg of water.
Reason: Solution containing one mole of solute in 1000 g solvent is called one molal
solution.

48. Assertion: If a liquid solute, more volatile than the solvent, is added to the solvent, the
vapour pressure of the solution may increase i.e. ps > po.
Reason: In the presence of a more volatile liquid solute, only the solute will form the
vapours and solvent will not.

COMPREHENSION BASED QUESTIONS

49. Read the passage below and answer the following questions :
The solubility of gases increases with increase of pressure. William Henry made a
systematic investigation of the solubility of a gas in a liquid. According to Henry’s law
“the mass of a gas dissolved per unit volume of the solvent at constant temperature is
directly proportional to the pressure of the gas in equilibrium with the solution.” Dalton
during the same period also concluded independently that the solubility of a gas in a
liquid solution depends upon the partial pressure of a gas. If we use the mole fraction of
gas in the solution as a measure of its solubility, then Henry’s law can be modified as “the
partial pressure of the gas in the vapour phase is directly proportional to the mole fraction
of the gas in the solution.”

(i) Henry’s law constant for the solubility of methane in benzene at 298 K is 4.27 x 10 5 mm
Hg. The solubility of methane in benzene at 298 K under 760 mm Hg is
(a) 4.27 x 10 -5 (b) 1.78 x 10 -3
(c) 4.27 x 10 -3 (d) 1.78 x 10 -5

(ii) The partial pressure of ethane over a saturated solution containing 6.56 x 10 -2 g of
ethane is 1 bar. If the solution contains 5.00 x 10 -2 g of ethane then what will be the partial
pressure (in bar) of the gas?
(a) 0.762 (b) 1.312
(c) 3.81 (d) 5.0

(iii) KH (kbar) values for Ar (g), CO2 (g), HCHO (g) and CH4 (g) are 40.39, 1.67, 1.83 x
10 -5 and 0.413 respectively. Arrange these gases in the order of their increasing solubility.
(a) HCHO < CH4 < CO2 < Ar
(b) HCHO < CO2 < CH4 < Ar (c) Ar < CO2 < CH4 < HCHO
(d) Ar < CH4 < CO2 < HCHO

(iv) When a gas is bubbled through water at 298 K, a very dilute solution of the gas is
obtained. Henry’s law constant for the gas at 298 K is 150 kbar. If the gas exerts a partial
pressure of 2 bar, the number of millimoles of the gas dissolved in 1 L of water is
(a) 0.55 (b) 0.87
(c) 0.37 (d) 0.66

50. Read the passage given below and answer the questions:
At the freezing point of a solvent, the solid and the liquid are in equilibrium. Therefore, a
solution will freeze when its vapour pressure becomes equal to the vapour pressure of the
pure solid solvent. It has been observed that when a non- volatile solute is added too the
solvent, the freezing point of the solution is always lower than that of the pure solvent.
Depression in freezing point can be given as, 𝛥𝑇𝑓 = 𝐾𝑓𝑚
Where, 𝐾𝑓 = Molal freezing point depression constant or

we can write, ΔTf = 𝐾 𝑓 𝑋 1000 𝑋 𝑊𝐵

𝑀 𝐵 𝑋 𝑊𝐴
In these questions (Q.No. i – iv), a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason
is given. Choose the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is the correct explanation
for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not the correct
explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.

(i) Assertion: 0.1 M solution of glucose has same depression in the freezing point as 0.1
M solution of urea.
Reason: 𝐾𝑓 for both has same value.

(ii) Assertion: Larger the value of cryoscopic constant of the solvent, lesser will be the
freezing point of the solution.
Reason: Extent of depression in the freezing point depends on the nature of the solvent.

(iii) Assertion: The water pouch of instant cold pack for treating athletic injuries breaks
when squeezed and NH4NO3 dissolves thus lowering the temperature.
 Reason: Addition of non-volatile solute into solvent results into depression if freezing
point of solvent.

(iv) Assertion: If a non-volatile solute is mixed in a solution then elevation in boiling point
and depression in freezing point both will be same.
Reason: Elevation in boiling point and depression in freezing point both depend on number
of particles of solute.

51. (i) State Henry’s law. Give the mathematical expression for the law.

(ii) Define the term: azeotrope.

(iii) State Raoult’s law for a solution containing two volatile solvents. Give the
mathematical expression for the law.
(iv) Vapour pressure of two liquid A & B are 120 and 180mm Hg at a given temp. If 2
mole of A and 3 mole of B are mixed to form an ideal solution, calculate the
vapour pressure of solution at same temperature.
52. (i) Water boils at a lower temperature in hills than in plains. Why?
(ii) 18 g of glucose,C6H12O6 (Molar mass = 180 g mole -1) is dissolved in 1 Kg of water in
a sauce pan. At what temperature will this solution boil?
53. (i) Why is osmotic pressure considered to be a colligative property?
(ii) What happens when a plant cell is placed in (a). Hypertonic solution (b). Hypotonic
solution
(iii) Equimolar solutions of NaCl and glucose are not isotonic. Why?
54. (i) Give the points of differences between ideal and non-ideal solution.
(ii) Why is an increase in temperature observed on mixing chloroform with
acetone?
(iii) On mixing equal volumes of water and ethanol, what type of deviation would
you expect from Raoult’s law? Why?
55. (i) State the condition resulting in reverse osmosis.
(ii) A person suffering from high blood pressure should take less common
salt, why?
(iii) At 300K 36 g of glucose in 1 liter solution exerted an osmotic pressure
of 4.98 bars. What would be the concentration of the solution at 300K if it
exerts a pressure of 1.52 bars?
56. (i)What is the mole fraction of the solute in 2.5 m aqueous solution?
(ii)What is the sum of the mole fractions of all the components in a three component
system?
(iii)The vapour pressures of pure liquids A and B are 450 and 700 mm Hg respectively at
350K. Find the composition of liquid mixture if the total pressure is 600 mm Hg. Also
find the composition in vapour phase.
57. (i) What is van’t hoff factor?
(ii) What is expected value of van’t Hoff factor for K 3[Fe(CN)6] in dilute solution?
(iii) When is the value of van’t Hoff factor more than one?
(iv) Determine the amount of CaCl2 (i = 2.47) dissolved in 2.5 litres of water such that its
osmotic pressure is 0.75 atm at 300K.
58. (i) What is anti-freeze?
(ii) Why should the solution of non-volatile solute freezes at a lower temperature? (iii)
Will the depression in freezing point be same or different if 0.1 mole of s ugar, 0.1
mole of glucose is dissolved in one litre of water?
(iv) Why it is advised to add ethylene glycol to water in car radiator while driving in
a hill station?
(v) A solution containing 18 g of non-volatile solute in 200 g water freezes at
272.07 K. calculate the molar mass of solute. (Given Kf = 1.86 K/m).

UNIT: ELECTROCHEMISTRY

Q.1 Can you store copper sulphate solution in a Zinc pot? Give reason.
Q.2 Calculate the emf of the cell in which the following reaction takes place: Ni(s) + 2Ag +
(0.002 M)→ Ni2+ (0.160 M) + 2Ag(s) Given that Eo cell = 1.05 V

Q.3 How much electricity is required for the following reductions

(i) One mole of Al3+ to Al

(ii) One mole MnO4- to Mn2+

Q.4 Arrange the following metals in order of their increasing reducing power.
K+/K = - 2.93V, Ag+/Ag = 0.80V, Hg2+/Hg = 0.79 V, Mg2+/Mg = - 2.37 V
Cr3+/Cr = - 0.74V.

Q.5 (a) Following reactions occur at cathode during the electrolysis aqueous sodium chloride
solution
Na+(aq) + e- --------------------→Na(s) E0 = -2.71V
H+(aq) + e- -----------------→ ½ H2(g) E0 = - 0.00V
On the basis of their standard reduction electrode potential(E 0) values, which reaction is
feasible at the cathode and Why?

(b) Why does the cell potential of mercury cell remain constant throughout its life?
Q.6 Write the Nernst equation for the cell and find the emf of the cell at 298K Mg(s)
2+ 2+
/Mg (0.001M)llCu (0.0001M)/cu(s)
Given that E0 Mg2+/Mg= -2.36V

E0Cu2+/Cu = +0.34V
Q.7 Explain how rusting of iron is envisaged as setting up of an electrochemical cell
Q.8 (a) Conductivity of 0.00241M acetic acid is 7.896X10-5 Scm-1. Calculate its molar
conductivity and it the limiting molar conductivity of acetic acid is 390.5 Scm 2 mol-1. What is
its dissociation constant?
(b) Why does the conductivity of a solution decrease with dilution?
Q.9 (a) Write the chemistry of recharging and discharging the lead storage battery,
highlighting all the materials that are involved during recharging and discharging.
(b) What is Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions.
Q.10 . Calculate ∆rG and log Kc for the following reaction: Cd2+(aq) + Zn(s)→ Zn2+(aq) +
Cd(s) Given: E 0Cd2+ /Cd = – 0.403 V E0 Zn 2+/Zn = – , 0.763 V

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA ‘K’AREA ZIRAKPUR

HOLIDAY HOMEWORK (SUMMER BREAK)
CLASS- XII A
BIOLOGY
1- Complete the practical file , write core experiments and spotting from lab manual.
2- Make “investigatory project” with following heading in it.
➢ First page- topic, submitted to/submitted by
➢ Certificate
➢ Acknowledgment
➢ Contents
➢ Introduction
➢ Theory
➢ Observation
➢ Conclusion
➢ Bibliography
3. Solve question paper of monthly test in your biology notebook. Prepare sexual
reproduction in flowering plants, Human Reproduction and Reproductive health for
monthly test.
ASSIGNMENT
CHAPTER COVERED
SEXUAL REPRODUCTION IN FLOWERING PLANTS, HUMAN REPRODUCTION AND
 REPRODUCTIVE HEALTH
Statement of assertion is followed by a statement of reason. Mark the correct
choice as:
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct
explanation of Assertion.
(c) If Assertion is true but Reason is false. (d) If both Assertion and Reason
are false.
1. Assertion : Autogamy is a transfer of pollen grains from an anther to the stigma
of the same flower on the same plant.
Reason : Xenogamy is pollination between two flowers on different plants.
2. Assertion : Insects visit flower to gather honey.
Reason : Attraction of flowers prevents the insects from damaging other parts of
the plant. [AIIMS 2004]
3. Assertion : Pollen mother cells (PMCs) are the first male gametophytic cells.
Reason : Each PMC gives rise to two pollens. [AIIMS
2009] 4. Assertion : Chasmogamous flowers require
pollinating agents.
Reason : Cleistogamous flowers do not expose their sex organs. [AIIMS 2012]
5. Assertion: Gynoecium consists of pistil.
Reason: It represents the male reproductive part in flowering plants.
6. Assertion: Flowers are the structures related to sexual reproduction in
flowering plants. Reason: Various embryological processes of plants occur in a
flower.
7. Assertion: Geitonogamy is genetically similar to autogamy.
Reason: The pollen grains come from same plant.
8. Assertion: Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set in the absence of
pollinators. Reason: These flowers do not open at all.
9. Assertion: A typical microsporangium of angiosperms is generally surrounded
by four wall layers.
Reason: The outer three wall layers perform the function of protection and help in
dehiscence of anther to release the pollen.
10. Assertion: Exine of a pollen grain is made up of sporopollenin which are
resistant to high temperatures, strong acids or alkali as well as enzymatic
degradation.
11. Assertion: Not all copulation leads to pregnancy.
Reason: Fertilisation can only occur if the ovum and sperms are transported
simultaneously to the ampullary isthmic junction.
12. Assertion: Implantation is the process of attachment of blastocyst on uterine
endometrium
Reason : Implantation is controlled by trophoblast and occurs by decidual cell
reaction.
13. Assertion: Placenta is an endocrine gland. Reason: It secretes many hormones
essential for pregnancy.
14. Assertion: A woman passes out hCG in the urine during pregnancy. Reason:
The presence of hCG in urine is the basis for pregnancy test.
 15. Assertion: Breast feeding during initial period of infant growth is
recommended. Reason: Colostrum contains several antibodies, essential to
render immunity in new- borns.
16. Draw a labelled diagram of the sectional view of a mature pollen grain in
angiosperms. Explain the functions of its different parts.
17. Name the structure which parts ‘A’ and ‘B’ shown in the diagram below
respectively develop into.
b) Explain the process of development which ‘B’ undergoes in albuminous and
exalbuminous seeds. Give one example of each of these seeds.

18. Draw the enlarged view of T.S of one microsporangium of an angiosperm and label
the following parts:
a) i) Tapetum ii) Middle layer iii) Endothecium iv) Microspore mother cell
b) Mention the characteristic features and function of tapetum.
c) Explain the following giving reasons:
i) Pollen grains are well preserved as fossils.
ii) Pollen tablets are in use by people these days.
19.Give reason why:
i) most zygote in angiosperms divide only after certain amount of endosperm is
formed.
ii)groundnut seeds are exalbuminous and castor seeds are albuminous . iii)Micropyle
remains as a small pore in the seed coat of a seed.
iv) integuments of an ovule harden and the water content is highly reduced, as the seed
matures.
v) apple and cashew are not called true fruits.

20. Give the term/reason:

(a) Mechanism responsible for parturition.

(b) Role of oxytocin during expulsion of the baby out of uterus (c)Why does

zona pellucida layer block the entry of additional sperms.

(d)Sperm cannot reach ovum without seminal plasma.
(e) All copulation does not lead to fertilisation and pregnancy.
21. The graph given below shows the variation in the levels of ovarian hormones during
various phases of menstrual cycle.

(a) Identify ‘A’ and ‘B’ .

(b) Specify the source of hormone marked in the diagram.
(c) Reason why A peaks before B
(d) Compare the role of A and B,
(e) Under which condition will the level B continue to remain high on the 28th day.
22. Draw a diagram of the microscopic structure of human sperm. Label the following
parts in it and write their functions.
(i)Acrosome (ii) Nucleus (iii) Middle piece
23.(a)Describe the stages of oogenesis in human females.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of human ovum released after ovulation.

24.Name the hormone secreted and write their function

(i) By corpus luteum and placenta (any two) (ii) During
follicular phase and parturition.
(b) Name the stages in human female
where (i) corpus luteum and placenta co-
exist.
(ii) corpus luteum temporarily ceases to exist.
25. Draw a sectional view of seminiferous tubule of a human. Label the following cells in
the seminiferous tubule:
(a) Cells that divide by mitosis to increase the
number. (b) Cells that undergo Meiosis I.
(c) Cells that undergo Meiosis II
(d) Cells that help in the process of spermiogenesis.
(ii)Mention the role of Leydig cells.
26.How do ‘implants’ act as an effective method of contraception in human females?
of contraception in human females? Mention advantage over contraceptive pills.
27.After a brief medical examination a healthy couple came to know that both of them are
unable to produce functional gametes and should look for an ‘ART’ (Assisted Reproductive
Technique). Name the ‘ART’ and the procedure involved that you can suggest to them to help
them bear a child.
28. A childless couple has agreed for a test tube baby programme. List only the basic steps
the procedure would involve to conceive the baby.
29. (i) Name any two copper releasing IUDs.
(ii) Explain, how do they act as effective contraceptives in human females.
30. Name two hormones that are constituents of contraceptive pills. Why do they have high
and effective contraceptive value? Name a commonly prescribed non-steroidal oral pill.

CASE BASED QUESTIONS

Topic: Diseases

Coronaviruses (CoV) are a large family of viruses that cause illness ranging from the
common cold to more severe diseases such as Middle East Respiratory Syndrome
(MERS- CoV) and Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS-CoV). A novel
coronavirus (nCoV) is a new strain that has not been previously identified in humans.

Coronaviruses are zoonotic, meaning they are transmitted between animals and people.
Detailed investigations found that SARS-CoV was transmitted from civet cats to humans
and MERS-CoV from dromedary camels to humans. Several known coronaviruses are
circulating in animals that have not yet infected humans.
Common signs of infection include respiratory symptoms, fever, cough, shortness of
breath and breathing difficulties. In more severe cases, infection can cause pneumonia,
severe acute respiratory syndrome, kidney failure and even death
Standard recommendations to prevent infection spread include regular hand washing,
covering mouth and nose when coughing and sneezing, thoroughly cooking meat and
eggs. Avoid close contact with anyone showing symptoms of respiratory illness such as
coughing and sneezing.
1. Name the family of the virus to which new Corona virus belongs.
2. Which part or organ system of human body is affected by corona virus?
3. How does the Corona virus spread?
4. Symptoms of corona virus infection resembles to which viral infection in humans?
5. Can antibiotics be effective against the infection of corona virus? Why or why not?
6. Name the molecule which forms genome of Corona virus.
7. Name the structural components of Corona virus.
SPERMATOGENESIS

Spermatogenesis produces mature male gametes, commonly called sperm but more
specifically known as spermatozoa, which are able to fertilize the counterpart female
gamete, the oocyte, during conception to produce a single-celled individual known as a
zygote. This is the cornerstone of sexual reproduction and involves the two gametes both
contributing half the normal set of chromosomes to result in a chromosomally normal
(diploid) zygote.
1. The location of Testes is specifically important for the process of spermatogenesis.
Explain how?
2. The entire process of spermatogenesis can be broken up into several distinct stages.
Name the cells which takes part but don’t divides in this process.
3. When a spermagonia undergoes spermatogenesis, how many times it passes through S
– phase? (1)
1. 1
times 2.
2 times
 3. 3
times
4. 4 times

4. How many secondary spermatocytes are required to form 300 spermatozoa?

5. At which stage of spermatogenesis the the number of chromosomes reduced to half-

A. Primary spermatocyte
B. Secondary spermatocyte
C. Spermatid
D. Spermatozoa
6. Sertoli cells serve a number of functions during spermatogenesis, they support the
developing gametes in
1. Secrete androgen-binding protein
2. Phagocyte defected spermatozoa
3. Secrete hormones affecting pituitary gland
4. Secrete androgens A. All are correct
B. 1, 2 and 4 are correct
C. 3 and 4 are incorrect
D. 1 and 3 are correct
TOPIC: POLLINATION

During peak pollen season in late March and early April, loblolly pines shed millions of
pounds of pollen into the air. Although the majority of that pollen lands nearby, a
fraction floats far from the source. windborne, pollen is exposed to extreme cold, UV
radiation, and moisture from clouds and rain. "Pine pollen can travel up to 1800 miles
in a short amount of time," said Williams. "But is it viable?"

2. Pollination in loblolly pines is called-

A. Anemophily

B. Entomophily

C. Hydrophily

D. Ornithophily

3. Why wind pollinated plants produce millions of pollens?

 4. Can a plant growing in Delhi can be pollinated by pollens of a plant of same
species growing in Mumbai? Explain.

5. If a plant species shed its pollens in 2 celled stage, how are they different from
the species which shed their pollens in 3 celled stage?

6. Write any two adaptations found in wind pollinated flowers. How are they
different from insect pollinated flowers?

7. What do you understand by viability of pollen?

8. What is the condition when pollens from the anthers of the flower fails to
germinate over the stigma of same flower? Is this condition is advantageous or
disadvantageous for plants? Justify your answer.

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA K-AREA ZIRAKPUR

HOME WORK FOR STUDENTS DURING SUMMER
VACATION 2023-2024
CLASS: XIIA
SUBJECT: PHYSICS
1. Students are instructed to solve the level wise Questions &
Assignment of unit I -ELECTROSTATICS (list of questions
Attached) in Holidays homework notebook.
2. Students are instructed to solve the Questions of unit I -
ELECTROSTATICS (Asked in CBSE exam w.e.f. 2016 to 2023) in
Holidays homework notebook.

3. Students are also instructed to complete their Project work allotted

to them for their AISSCE Practical exam 2024(List of Allotted
projects with Roll No.s attached)
4. There are some chapters whose basic concepts students have studied
in class X/XI or these topics required reading and then retaining. So,
students will revise those concepts {Mirror formula & Lens
formula(Students will draw the ray diagrams for formation of image
for different position of object in case of Convex lens, Concave lens,
 Convex Mirror and Concave Mirror),Properties and uses of
electromagnetic waves, Photoelectric effect}.
5. Students will also solve the MCQs of Electric Field and Electric
Potential(List of Questions attached)

ASSIGNMENT-ELECTROSTATICS 2023-24
CONCEPTUALS
1. Two identical metallic spheres of exactly equal masses are taken. One is given a +q coulombs of
charge and other an equal negative charge. Are their masses after charging equal?
2. Can a charge body attract another uncharged body? Explain.
3. Can two bodies having same kind of charge on them attract each other? Explain.
4. A glass rod rubbed with silk and acquired a charge of + 1.6 x 10 -12 coulomb. What is the charge
on silk?
5. Why two electric lines of force never cross each other?
6. Electric dipole moment is a vector quantity. Why?
7. Does an Electric dipole always experience a torque, when placed in a uniform electric field?
8. Electric field intensity within a conductor is always zero. Why?
9. Draw electric lines of force due to an electric dipole.
10. What is angle between electric field due to an electric dipole at any equatorial point and dipole
moment?
11. Sketch the electric lines of force due to point charges (i) q>0 and (ii) q<0.
12. Would electrons move from higher potential to lower potential or vice-versa?
13. Can two equipotential surfaces intersect?
14. Why the electric field at the outer surface of a hollow charged conductor is normal to the
surface?
15. What will be work done if we take a point charge +q o from a point A to a point B in the
circumference of a circle drawn with another point charge +q as centre?
16. What is a work done in moving a charge of 10 nC between two points on an equipotential
surface.

PART-A
1.Two equal charges Q= √ 2 μC are placed at each of the two opposite corners of a square, and equal
point-charges q are placed at each of the other two corners. What must be the value of `q’ so that
the resultant force on Q is zero?(Ans -0.5 C)
2.Two charges Q each are placed at a distance x from each other. A third charge q is placed mid-way
Q
q=−
between the two charges. Prove that the system of three charges can be in equilibrium, if 4
 3.Two point charges +9e and +e units are placed at a distance r apart. Find the position of third point
3
charge such that it is in equilibrium.(Ans: 4 r from 9e)
4.Draw 3 equipotential surfaces corresponding to field that uniformly increases in magnitude but
remains constant along Z-direction. How are these surfaces different from that of a constant
electric field along Z-direction?
5. An electric dipole is formed by charge ± 4μC. separated by 5mm. Calculate dipole moment and
its direction.
6. An electric dipole consist of two opposite charges each of 1μC separated by 2cm. The dipole is
placed in an external field of 105 NC-1. Find (i) maximum torque on dipole and (ii) the work done
in rotating the dipole through 1800 starting from 0 =00(Ans (i) 2 x 10-3 Nm, (ii)4 x 10-3 joule )
7. If the electric field is given by 6i+3j+4k, calculate the electric flux through surface of area 20
units lying in y-z plane. (Ans 120 unit).
8. Calculate the potential at the center of a square ABCD of each side √ 2 m due to charges 2,-2,-3
and 6μC at four corners of square(Ans 2.7 x 104 V)
9. Connect three capacitors 3μF, 3μF and 6μF such that their equivalent capacity becomes 5μF.
(Ans.Capacitor of 3 f in series capacitor of 3 f in parallel).
10. Three capacitors of equal capacitance, when connected in series, have a net capacity C 1 and
1
when connected in parallel, have a net capacity C2. What will be the value of C1/ C2? (Ans: 9 )
11. A 600pFcapacitor is charged by a 200V supply. It is then disconnected from the supply and is
connected to another uncharged 600pF capacitor. How much electrostatic energy is lost in the
process?(Ans. 6 x 10-6 J)
12. A capacitor whose capacitance is 12μF charged to a potential of 2000 V. Calculate energy
stored(Ans .24 J)

PART -B
1. Three charges of 1x10-9 C, 2x10-9 C, 3x10-9 C are placed at the corners of an equilateral triangle of
side1.0m.calculate potential at point equidistance from the three corners of the triangle.(Ans
93.58 volt)
2. Two charges 3 x 10-8 and –2 x10-8 are located 15cm apart. At what point on the line joining the
two charges is the electrical potential zero? Take the potential at infinity to be zero. (Ans 9 cm
from 3x10-8C charge)
3. Three electric charges -1μc,+2μc and +1μc are placed at the three vertices of an equilateral
triangle of side 10cm.Find (a) the energy of the system (b) find the work done in separating the
charges.
4. A parallel plate capacitor of plate area A and separation d is charged to a potential V. The battery
is then disconnected and a dielectric slab of thickness d and dielectric constant K is inserted in
the capacitor. What change if any, will take place in.
(a) Voltage across the capacitor.
(b)Electric field between the plates.
(c) Capacitance of the capacitor.
(d)Energy stored. Justify your answer in each case.
(e) Charge on the plates.
5. A parallel plate capacitor has plates each of area A and separation d .Two di-electrics of
dielectric constant k1 and k2 are filled between the plates as shown in fig. Compute the
capacitance of capacitor.
 ( )
k 1 k 2 2 Aε 0 ε A
1
k 1+ k 2 d ( k +1 ) 0
Ans (A) A0/d (B) (C) 2 d

6. A charge Q is placed at a distance a/2 above the center of a horizontal, square surface of edge a.
1 q
Find the flux of the electric field through the square surface. (Ans. 6 ε 0 )
7. A parallel plate capacitor with air between the plates has a capacitance of 8 pF . The separation
between the plates is now reduced by half and the space between them is filled with a medium
of dielectric constant5.Calculate the value of capacitance of parallel plate capacitor in second
case. (Ans 80pF)
8. In the figure the capacitance of each capacitor is 3 F. The effective capacitance

(Ans. 5F).
9. Find effective capacitance of the system between A and B is

(Ans 3F) .
10. Find the resultant capacitance between A and B in the following figure is (all the capacitance are
in F)

( Ans 2F )
11. Find Charge and potential on capacitor of capacitance 6F (all the capacitance are in F)

12. Find the charge appearing on each of the three capacitors shown in the figure below.
(Ans. 48C on the 8F capacitor and 24C on each of the 4F capacitors.)

PART-C (Solved Questions)

1. The field lines for two point charges are shown in figure. What are the signs of q 1 and
q 2.

Solution:
q1 is positive; q2 is negative.

2. What is equi-potential surface? Draw three equi-potential surfaces in uniform electric

field
Solution: Equi-potential Surface: - It is that surface at every point of which the potential is
same.

3.A cube of side b encloses a charge +q 0 at its centre. What is the flux of E through one of
its surface? Is electric flux a scalar or vector quantity?

q0
Solution: 6 ε 0 .,Scalar quantity.
4. Four closed Gaussian surfaces, S1 through S4, together with the charge +q, -q and –
2q are shown in figure. Find the flux of E through each surface.
 −2 q+q−q 2q
Φ E= =−
Solution:SurfaceS1: ε0 ε0
+q−q
Φ E= =0
Surface S2: ε0
+q−2 q q
Φ E= =−
Surface S3: ε0 ε0
Surface S4: Φ E =0 .
5. Show that energy stored per unit volume of parallel plate capacitor is given by
1
ε o E2
2
Where the symbols have their

usual meanings.
Solution:
εo A
C=
For a parallel plate capacitor d
Where A = area of each plate
d = distance between plates
1
= CV 2
The energy stored 2
1 εo A
( E . d )2
But as E.d=V, therefore = 2 d
1 U
U = ε o E 2 (Volume ) or =
2 volume
1 1
U = A εo d . E 2 Energy Density= ε o E2
2 But A.d = volume of capacitor. 2
6. Derive the relation between electric field intensity and potential gradient.
Solution: Let a charge qois moved by distance ‘dr’ in the field of other charge ‘q’. The work
done during this is

→ →
dW =F . dr =F dr cos180 0
¿ F dr=−q o E dr
dW
q o =Work done per unit test charge = dV

Therefore, dV=-Edr
 −dV
E=
=> dr
dV
Here dr is called potential gradient.

7. The potential function of an electrostatic field is given by V = 2x 2. Determine the

electric field strength at the point (2m, 0, 3m).
Solution: We know that,
dV
E=−
dx
−d ( 2 x 2 )
∴ E= =−4 x
dx
¿
In the vector form E = −4 x i
Therefore, at (2m, 0, 3m),
¿
E=−8 i V /m

8. Show that total energy across series combination of three capacitors of different
capacitances is sum of energies across individual capacitors.
Solution: In series combination the net capacity CS for C1, C2, C3 is given by relation:
1 1 1 1
= + +
CS C1 C2 C3
1 2
q
Multiply both sides by 2 on both sides.
1 q2 1 q2 1 q2 1 q2
= +
2 CS 2 C1 2 C2 2 C3
+ [
∵ U=
1 q2
2C ]
U S =U 1 +U 2 +U 3
Total energy is sum of energies across individual capacitors.

Common Potential: - When two charged conductors or capacitors at different potentials are
connected by a wire the charge flows from capacitor at higher potential to lower potential i.e.
charge gets redistributed.
After redistribution both attain same potential.
C V +C V Net Ch arg e
V = 1 1 2 2=
C 1 +C 2 Net Capacity

LOSS OF ENERGY ON SHARING OF CHARGES

When the charges are shared between the capacitors there is loss of energy.

Loss of energy = Initial Energy – Final Energy

[
1 1
][ 1
C V 2 + C V 2 − ( C1 +C2 ) V 2common
2 1 1 2 2 2 2 ]
1 C1 C 2
Loss of Energy=
2 C1 +C2 1
( V −V 2 ) 2

MCQs 2023-24
ELECTRIC FIELD AND POTENTIAL
1. ABC is a right angled triangle; AB = 3 cm, BC = 4 cm, AC = 5 cm. Charges +15, +12, and – 20 esu are placed
at A, B and C respectively. The magnitude of the force experienced by the charge at B in dynes is
(a) 125 (b) 35 (c) 25 (d) Zero.
2. Point charges +4, – q and +4 q kept on the x-axis at point x = 0, x = a, and x = 2a respectively.
(a) Only – q is in stable equilibrium
(b) None of the charges are in equilibrium
(c) All the charges are in unstable equilibrium
(d) All the charges are in stable equilibrium.
⃗ ^ ^ ^
3. In a region of space the electric field is given by E =8 i+4 j+3 k . The electric flux through a surface of
area of 100 units in x–y plane is
(a) 800 units (b) 300 units
(c) 400 units (d) 1500 units.
4. Five balls, numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using separate threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4), (4, 1) show
electrostatic attraction, while pairs (2, 3) and (4, 5) show repulsion. Therefore ball 1 must be
(a) Positively charged
(b) Negatively charged
(c) Neutral
(d) Made of metal.
5. A certain charge Q is divided at first into two parts q and (Q – q). Later on the charges are placed at a
certain distance. If the force of interaction between two charges is maximum, then
Q 4 Q 2
= =
(a) q 1 (b) q 1
Q 3 Q 1
= =
(c) q 1 (d) q 3
6. Two plates are 1 cm apart and the potential difference between them is 10 V. The electric field between
the plates is
(a) 10 N/C (b) 500 N/C
(c) 1000 N/C (d) 250 N/C.
7. Eight mercury droplets having a radius of 1 mm and a charge of 0.066 pC each merge to form one
droplet. Its potential is
(a) 2.4 V (b) 1.2 V
(c) 3.6 V (d) 4.8 V
8. A hollow metal sphere of radius 5 cm is charged such that the potential on its surface is 10 volt. The
potential at the centre of the sphere is
(a) zero (b) 10 V
(c) same as at a point 5 cm away from the surface
(d) same as at a point 25 cm away from the surface
 2 2
9. An electric line of force in x – y plane is given by equation x + y =1 . A particle with unit positive
charge, initially at rest at the point x = 1, y = 0 in the x – y plane
(a) will not move at all
(b) will move along the straight
(c) will move along the circular line of force
(d) information is insufficient to draw any conclusion
10. A charge Q is placed at each of two opposite corners of a square. A charge q is placed at each of the two
other opposite corners of the square. If the resultant electric force field on Q is zero, then how Q and q
are related.

+Q q

q +Q
−q
Q=
(a) 2 √2 (b)Q=−2 √2 q
(c) Q = –2q (d)Q=2 √2 q
11. Two identical rings P and Q of radius 0.1 m are mounted coaxially at a distance 0.5 m apart. The charges
on the two rings are 2 μ C and 4 μ C respectively. The work done in transferring a charge of 5 μ C from
the centre of P to that of Q is
(a) 1.28 J (b) 0.72 J
(c) 1.44 J (d) 2.24 J
12. Equipotential surface is
(a) Always parallel to electric field
(b) Always perpendicular to electric field
(c) At an angle of 45o with electric field
(d) Always plane.
13. Two metallic spherical shells A and B are of different radii. The radius of A is a and of B is b (a<b). A is
charged to +100V and B to +200V. If A is placed within B and connected by a conducting wire.
(a) Some charge will flow from B to A
(b) The potential on the flat surface of cube is more than it is on the corners
(c) Surface change density is more on corners
(d) Surface charge density is more on flat surfaces.
14. A hollow metallic cube of side I is given some charge q
(a) The potential on the corners of cube is more than it is on the flat surface
(b) The potential on the flat surface of cube is more than it is on the corners
(c) Surface charge density is more on corners
(d) Surface charge density is more on flat surfaces.
15. An electric dipole consists of two opposite charges each of the magnitude 1.0 x 10 -6 coulomb separated
newton
by a distance of 2.0 cm. The dipole is placed in an external field of 10 x 10 5 coulomb . The maximum
torque on the dipole is
(a) 0.2 x 10-3 newton x metre
(b) 1.0 x 10-3 newton x metre
(c) 2.0 x 10-3 newton x metre
 (d) 4.0 x 10-3 newton x metre.
16. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has charge +4q with each of them having the same mass m.
When allowed to fall from rest through the same electrical potential difference, the ratio of heir speeds
VA
V B will become
(a) 2:1 (b) 1:2
(c) 1:16 (d) 1:4.

17. In the following system where is the electric intensity zero?

(a) at 1 mt distance from B on the right.

(b) at 5 mt distance from B on the left
(c) at 1 mt distance from A on the left
(d) at 3 mt distance from A on the right.

18. Two metal plates have a potential difference of 300 volt and are 1 cm apart. A charged particle of mass
10-15 kg is held in equilibrium between the plates of the capacitor, then the electric field is
(a) 300 volt per metre
(b) 30 volt per metre
(c) 30000 volt per metre
(d) (30000)-2 volt per metre.

19. A uniform electric field having a magnitude E 0 and direction along the positive X-axis. If the electric
potential V is zero at X = 0, then its value at X = +X will be
(a) V(x) = +XE0 (b) V(x) = -XE0
(c) V(x) = X2E0 (d) V(x) = -X ½ E0.

20. An electron moves from A to C between two charged metallic plates. The force on the electron is

(a) Max at A (b) Max at B

(c) max at C
(d) Equal at A, B and C.
21. The electric potential in a region along the x-axis varies with x according to the relation V(x) = 4 + 5x 2.
Choose the wrong statement
(a) Potential difference between the points x = 1 and x = -2 is 15 V
(b) Force experienced by a one coulomb charge at x = -1 m will be 10 N
(c) The force experienced by the above charge will be towards +x-axis
(d) A uniform electric field exists in this region along the x-axis.
22. Three equal charges of q are placed on the circumference of circle to form an equilateral triangle. At the
centre of the circle
(a) Both potential and field are zero
(b) Both potential and field are finite
(c) Potential is zero and field is finite
(d) Potential is finite and field is zero.
23. An electron falls through a small distance in a uniform electric field of magnitude 2 x 10 4 NC-1. The
direction of the field is reversed keeping the magnitude unchanged and a proton falls through the same
distance. The time of fall will be
(a) Same in both cases
(b) More in the case of an electron
(c) More in the case of proton
(d) Independent of charge.

24. If the electric intensity is along Y-axis, then the equipotential surface are parallel to
(a) XOY plane (b) YOZ plane
(c) XOZ plane (d) No plane.

25. Four equal charges Q are placed at the four corners of a square of side a each. Work done in removing a
charge –Q from its centre to infinity is
√2 Q2
(a) 0 (b) 4 πε 0 a
√2 Q2 −
Q2
(c) πε 0 a (d) 2 πε 0 a .

LIST OF SUGGESTED INVESTIGATORY PROJECTS XII (PHYSICS)

2023-2024

Investigatory Project No.1 (ROLL NO.1, 9, 17, 25, 33)

AIM: To study various factor on which the internal resistance / e.m.f of cell
depends.
Investigatory Project No.2 (ROLL NO.2, 10, 18, 26, 34)
AIM:
To study the variations in current flowing in a circuit containing an LDR
because of a variation in
(a) the power of the incandescent lamp, used to 'illuminate' the LDR (keeping
all the lamps at a fixed distance).
(b) the distance of a incandescent lamp (of fixed power) used to 'illuminate' the
LDR.
Investigatory Project No. 3(ROLL NO.3, 11, 19, 27, 35)
Aim: To find the refractive index of (a) water (b) transparent oil using a plane
mirror, an equi-convex lens made from a glass of known refractive index and an
adjustable object needle.
Investigatory Project No.4 (ROLL NO.4, 12, 20, 28)
AIM
To investigate the relation between the ratio of:
(i) Output and input voltage and
(ii) Number of turns in secondary coil and primary coil of a self designed
transformer
Investigatory Project No.5 (ROLL NO.5, 13, 21, 29)
AIM: To investigate the dependence of the angle of deviation on the angle of
incidence using a hollow prism filled one by one, with different transparent
fluids.
INVESTIGATORY PROJECT No.6 (ROLL NO.6, 14, 22, 30)
AIM: To estimate the charge induced on each one of the two identical
styrofoam (or pith) balls suspended in a vertical plane by making use of
Coulomb's law.
INVESTIGATORY PROJECT No.7 (ROLL NO.7, 15, 23, 31)
AIM: To study the factor on which the self-inductance of a coil
depends by observing the effect of this coil, when put in series with a
resistor (bulb) in a circuit fed up by an A.C. source of adjustable
frequency.
INVESTIGATORY PROJECT No.8 (ROLL NO.8, 16, 24, 32)
Aim: To study the earth's magnetic field using a compass needle -bar magnet
by plotting magnetic field lines and tangent galvanometer.
KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA K-AREA, ZIRAKPUR
HOLIDAY HOMEWORK
SUBJECT - ENGLISH CORE
CLASS XII - 2023-24
Q1.Answer in 30-40 words each:
1) Give 2 instances to show that the French loved their language.
2) Why do you think M. Hamel decided to be dressed up in his best finery?
3) Franz received a shock when he reached school. Comment.
4) Why did the children want to laugh and cry on hearing the old Hauser?
5) How does the poet dispel the thought of losing her mother?
6) What did the poet realize with pain and what triggered that pain?
Q2.Answer in 120 to 150 words each :-
1)Bring out the gloomy atmosphere of M. Hamel’s last lesson.
2)How did Franz’s attitude towards his language undergo a sea change?
Q3. (a) You are Shruti / Saurabh, Secretary, Literary Association of Queen Victoria
School, Nagpur. Write a notice giving details of the inauguration of the literary
association activities.
(b) You are Rakesh / Raveena, Head boy/Head girl of Oasis Public School, Bareilly. Draft a
notice in not more than 50 words for the school notice board, asking the students to give
their names for taking part in the Inter-class Swimming Competition.
Q4.Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follows:
1. New Delhi : It seems the common house sparrow has disappeared from the city.
But ornithologists maintain that while sparrow numbers are dwindling, the bird has
not disappeared entirely from the city and only shifted to more inhabitable parts.
Conservationists are now trying to understand why some areas have managed to
hold back sparrows and what has driven them away from others.
2. A recent countrywide survey initiative called Citizen Sparrow is now roping
in residents who want to report about their experience with sparrows. So far this
unique sparrow survey organized by the Bombay National History Society (BNHS) and
Ministry of Environment and Forests (MOEF) has received close to 410 responses from
Delhi. Of these, 86 have claimed they have not seen any sparrows at
all. But the majority seems to have sighted the bird, which gives new hope to
conservationists.
3. I have seen lots of sparrows in Ghaziabad, in Sheikh Sarai where I live but
hardly any in say the Greater Kailash area. What is different in GK and other parts is
still a mystery. But certain factors drawing the birds have become clearer, such as
they nest more around old buildings, houses or may be in houses where there are old
electricity meters, kitchen gardens, shrubs, says co-in-vestigator, BNHS Citizen
Sparrow Project, Koustubh Sharma.
4. Another conservationist and birder, Ananda Banerjee says she has seen lots of
sparrows in parts of Lutyens Delhi, Mayur Vihar, parts of old Delhi and parts of Noida. He
cites urban landscape to be the reason behind the decline in the sparrow population.
5. "Urban architecture, tall glass buildings that lack nesting spaces for the sparrow,
pesticides used in farming that kill the worms that sparrows feed on are some of the
reasons. Even our markets have changed. There are not many open markets where
they can get grains. But you can see lots of sparrows in Khari Baoli open grain
market," he says.
6. But there is no doubt among conservationists that sparrows are fast disappearing.
Declining number of sparrows and their complete absence from some parts of the city isn't
just about missing the tiny bird. It is an indicator of something graver.
7. Ecologist and forestry expert, Neeraj Khera, who has been studying the sparrow
population in Delhi, feels that sparrows are an important indicator species. "There is
always a threshold level. Big changes like an epidemic outbreak for instance will not
happen overnight, but when we cross the buffer line then changes take place in our
ecosystem. Sparrows as an indicator species are very sensitive to change. So it's
obvious that a lot must have changed in our ecology to have driven them away," says
Khera.
8. Some of the important factors responsible are air and water pollution, loss of
native herbs and shrubs.
 9. Another trend being noticed by experts is the increase of rock pigeons in most parts of
Delhi. They seem to have almost replaced the sparrows that used to nest in the same
places.
10. "Rock pigeons have almost grown out of proportion and taken up the space of
sparrows. They can be seen nesting in houses and other buildings. Studies have
shown that it is not a welcome change as the excreta of rock pigeon carries a lot
bacterial pathogens," said Khera.
11. She says that sparrow population is moderate in places where there are old
government buildings, water bodies or green spaces. Saving the sparrow, she says, is not a
lost cause yet. It is the right time to intervene and check further decline. It will
take 'Citizen Sparrow' survey a couple of more months to come up with the preliminary
analysis of the results from their – survey and may offer a stronger argument on why the
sparrows are disappearing from the city.
Source : The Times of india
A. (a) What is "Citizens Sparrow" and who has initiated it? (2 marks)
(b) What has increased the hope of conservationists? (2 marks)
(c) According to survey study, which type of house is sparrows' first choice
of nesting? (2 marks)
(d) How is the use of pesticides in farming responsible for the decrease in sparrows'
population? (2 marks)
(e) What did the ecologist Neeraj Khera observe? (1 mark)
B. Find out words from the passage which mean the same as the following:(1x3) = 3 marks
(a) becoming less or smaller (Para 1)
(b) secret / impossible to understand (Para 3)
(c) picture of inland scenery (Para 4)
Q5.Write Articles on the following topics (120 to 150 words )
1.Indian T.V. - Serving the Nation
2.Hazards of T.V. watching for the kids
3.Value Education - A Part of Curriculum in Schools
4.Keeping Your School Neat and Clean
5.Role of Students in Eradicating Illiteracy
Q6.Solve the Monthly Test Question Paper in your notebook. Learn the Syllabus covered
upto date.
Q7. Read " The Tiger King". Write its Summary.
Q8. Read the chapter, "Indigo" and write its Summary.
Q9.Write an Article on the topic, "Online Education versus Offline Classes" in 120 to 150
words.
Q10.Write a Report (120 to 150 words) on:
(a)the book fair organised in your school recently.
(b) sports day celebration held in your school.
(c ) a road accident you witnessed while coming home.
Q11. Write a Letter to the Editor (120 to 150 words) on:
(a) increasing number of road accidents due to stray animals.
(b) unannounced power cuts in your locality.
(c ) increasing awareness for child rights and abolition of child labour
Q12. Write a Notice for:
(a) Blood Donation Camp
(b) Inter-school Football match
(c) Meeting of Student Council with the Principal
Q13.Write two Unseen Passages for Comprehension (with solutions).
Q14. Write 25 inspirational quotes.
Q15. Read any book of your choice and write its review.
Q16. Revise the chapters completed in the class.
Q17.Compose a sonnet using poetic devices like simile, metaphor, alliteration, repetition,
etc. It should be original and self-composed.
XII Computer Science Summer Holiday HW PART-1, Session: 2023-24

Q Question
No.
1 State True or False
“Tuple is datatype in Python which contain data in key-value pair.”
2 Which of the following is not a keyword?
(A) eval (B) assert
(C) nonlocal (D) pass
3 Given the following dictionaries
dict_student = {"rno" : "53", "name" : ‘Rajveer Singh’}
dict_marks = {"Accts" : 87, "English" : 65}
Which statement will merge the contents of both dictionaries?
(A) dict_student + dict_marks (B) dict_student.add(dict_marks)
(C) dict_student.merge(dict_marks) (D) dict_student.update(dict_marks)
4 Consider the given expression:
not ((True and False) or True)
Which of the following will be correct output if the given expression is evaluated?
(A) True (B) False
(C) NONE (D) NULL
5 Select the correct output of the code:
>>> s='[email protected]'
>>> s=s.split('kv')
>>> op = s[0] + "@kv" + s[2]
>>> print(op)

(A) mail2@kvsangathan (B) mail2@sangathan.

(C) mail2@kvsangathan. (D) mail2kvsangathan.

6 Which of the following statement(s) would give an error after executing the following code?
D={'rno':32,'name':'Ms Archana','subject':['hindi','english','cs'],'marks':(85,75,89)} #S1
print(D) #S2
D['subject'][2]='IP' #S3
D['marks'][2]=80 #S4
print(D) #S5
(A) S1 (B) S3
(C) S4 (D) S3 and S4
7 What will the following expression be evaluated to in Python?
print ( round (100.0 / 4 + (3 + 2.55) , 1 ) )
(A) 30.0 (B) 30.55
(C) 30.6 (D) 31
8 (A) Given is a Python string declaration:
message='FirstPreBoardExam@2022-23'
Write the output of: print(message[ : : -3].upper())

(B) Write the output of the code given below:

d1={'rno':25, 'name':'dipanshu'}
d2={'name':'himanshu', 'age':30,'dept':'mechanical'}
d2.update(d1)
print(d2.keys())

9 Predict the output of the Python code given below:

data=["L",20,"M",40,"N",60]
times=0
alpha=""
add=0

for c in range(1,6,2):
times = times + c
alpha = alpha + data [c-1] + "@"
add = add + data[c]
print (times, add, alpha)
10 Predict the output of the Python code given below:
L=[1,2,3,4,5]
Lst=[]
for i in range(len(L)):
if i%2==1:
t=(L[i],L[i]**2)
Lst.append(t)
print(Lst)

11 Find the invalid identifier from the following

a) Marks@12 b) string_12 c)_bonus d)First_Name
12 Identify the valid declaration of Rec:
Rec=(1,‟Ashoka",50000)
a) List b) Tuple c)String d) Dictionary
13 Suppose a tuple Tup is declared as Tup = (12, 15, 63, 80) which of the following is incorrect?
a) print(Tup[1]) b) Tup[2] = 90
c) print(min(Tup)) d) print(len(Tup))
14 The correct output of the given expression is:
True and not False or False
(a) False (b) True (c) None (d) Null
t1=(2,3,4,5,6)
print(t1.index(4))
output is
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 2
15 Which of the following statement(s) would give an error after executing the following code?
x= int("Enter the Value of x:")) #Statement 1
for y in range[0,21]: #Statement 2
if x==y: #Statement 3
print (x+y) #Statement 4
else: #Statement 5
print (x-y) # Statement 6
(a) Statement 4 (b) Statement 5
(c) Statement 4 & 6 (d) Statement 1 & 2
16 (a) Given is a Python string declaration:
str="Kendriya Vidyalaya Sangathan"
Write the output of: print(str[9:17])
(b) Write the output of the code given below:
lst1 = [10, 15, 20, 25, 30]
lst1.insert( 3, 4)
lst1.insert( 2, 3)
print (lst1[-5])
17 Evaluate the following Python expression
print(12*(3%4)//2+6)
(a)12 (b)24 (c) 10 (d) 14
18 Fill in the Blank
The explicit conversion of an operand to a specific type is called _____
(a)Type casting (b) coercion (c) translation (d) None of these
19 Which of the following is not a core data type in Python?
(a)Lists (b) Dictionaries (c)Tuple (d) Class
20 What will the following code do?
dict={"Exam":"AISSCE", "Year":2022}
dict.update({"Year”:2023} )
a. It will create new dictionary dict={” Year”:2023}and old dictionary will be deleted
b. It will throw an error and dictionary cannot updated
c. It will make the content of dictionary as dict={"Exam":"AISSCE", "Year":2023}
d. It will throw an error and dictionary and do nothing
21 What will be the value of the expression : 14+13%15
22 Which of the following statement(s) would give an error after executing the following code?
S="Welcome to class XII" # Statement 1
print(S) # Statement 2
S="Thank you" # Statement 3
 S[0]= '@' # Statement 4
S=S+"Thank you" # Statement 5

(a) Statement 3 (b) Statement 4

(b) Statement 5 (d) Statement 4 and 5
23 What will be the output of the following expression?
24//6%3 , 24//4//2 , 48//3//4
a)(1,3,4) b)(0,3,4) c)(1,12,Error) d)(1,3,#error)
24 Write the output of following code and explain the difference between a*3 and (a,a,a)
a=(1,2,3)
print(a*3)
print(a,a,a)
25 Identify the invalid Python statement from the following.
(a) _b=1 (b) __b1= 1 (c) b_=1 (d) 1 = _b
26 Identify the valid arithmetic operator in Python from the following.
(a) // (b) < (c) or (d) <>
27 If Statement in Python is __
(a) looping statement (b) selection statement (c) iterative (d) sequential
28 Predict the correct output of the following Python statement – print(4 + 3**3/2)
(a) 8 (b) 9 (c) 8.0 (d) 17.5
29 Choose the most correct statement among the following –
(a) a dictionary is a sequential set of elements
(b) a dictionary is a set of key-value pairs
(c) a dictionary is a sequential collection of elements key-value pairs
(d) a dictionary is a non-sequential collection of elements
30 Consider the string state = “Jharkhand”. Identify the appropriate statement that will display the last five charac
the string state?
(a) state [-5:] (b) state [4:] (c) state [:4] (d) state [:-4]
31 What will be the output of the following lines of Python code?
if not False:
print(10)
else:
print(20)
(a) 10 (b) 20 (c) True (d) False
32 Find error in the following code(if any) and correct code by rewriting code and underline the correction;‐
x= int(“Enter value of x:”)
for in range [0,10]:
if x=y
print( x + y)
else:
print( x‐y)
33 Find output generated by the following code:
Str = "Computer"
Str = Str[-4:]
print(Str*2)
34 Consider the following lines of codes in Python and write the appropriate output:
student = {'rollno':1001, 'name':'Akshay', 'age':17}
student['name']= “Abhay”
print(student)
35 Find output generated by the following code:
string="aabbcc"
 count=3
while True:
if string[0]=='a':
string=string[2:]
elif string[-1]=='b':
string=string[:2]
else:
count+=1
break
print(string)
print(count)

कें द्रीय विद्यालय के -एरिया,ज़ीरकपुर

ग्रीष्मकालीन अवकाश गृह कार्य 2023-24
कक्षा बारहवीं (हिंदी कें द्रिक)

1. वितान पुस्तक के पाठ’ सिल्वर वेडिंग’ का पुन: वाचन करें तथा पाठ के मुख्य बिंदुओं को आधार
बनाकर एक-एक अंक के कम से कम 50 प्रश्न उत्तर लिखिए |
2. आरोह पुस्तक के पाठ ‘बाजार दर्शन’ के समस्त अभ्यास प्रश्न हल करें तथा नीचे लिखे अतिरिक्त
प्रश्नों के उत्तर पाठ को पढ़कर लिखें--
(क) पर्चेजिंग पावर किसे कहते हैं? बाजार पर इसका क्या प्रभाव पड़ता है?
(ख) लेखक ने बाजार का जादू किसे कहा है? इसका ग्राहकों पर कै सा प्रभाव पड़ता है?
(ग) पैसे की व्यंग्य शक्ति क्या है, स्पष्ट करें |
(घ)’ जहां तृष्णा है, बटोर रखने की स्पृहां है, वहां उस बल का बीज नहीं है’ यहां किस बल की चर्चा
की गई है?
(ड.) अर्थशास्त्र अनीति शास्त्र कब बन जाता है?
(च) बाजार की सार्थकता किस बात में है?
(छ) भगत जी जैसे लोग बाजार और समाज को सार्थकता किस तरह प्रदान करते हैं?
(ज) आशय स्पष्ट करें— मन खाली होना, मन भरा होना, मन बंद होना|
3. ग्रीष्मावकाश में अपने मनपसंद किसी भी लेखक की कोई रचना पढ़ें तथा उसकी पुस्तक समीक्षा
लिखें|
4. अभिव्यक्ति और माध्यम से जनसंचार के प्रश्न उत्तर याद करें
5. ‘कहानी का नाट्य रूपांतरण कै से करें’ तथा ‘ कै से बनता है रेडियो नाटक’ के प्रश्न उत्तर अपनी
अभ्यास पुस्तिका में लिखें|
6. निम्नलिखित में से कोई एक चलचित्र देखें तथा उस पर अपनी प्रतिक्रिया लिखें-
(क) नील बट्टे सन्नाटा
(ख) चॉक एंड डस्टर
(ग) आई एम कलाम
7 अप्रैल माह में पढाए गए सभी पाठ पुन: पढ़ें तथा जून की मासिक परीक्षा हेतु तैयारी करें |
8 ग्रीष्मावकाश के दौरान सभी विद्यार्थी प्रतिदिन समाचार पत्र , पत्र पत्रिकाएं तथा पाठ्य पुस्तक से
पाठ ,काले मेघा पानी दे, कहानी जूझ पढ़ें और अपनी वाचन दक्षता में सुधार करें |

आप सभी स्वस्थ रहें तथा सीखते रहें

KENDRIYA VIDYALAYA K-AREA ZIRAKPUR

SUMMER VACATION (2023-24) HOMEWORK
CLASS: XII SUBJECT: MATHEMATICS
INSTRUCTIONS: Do all these questions in a separate file (A-4 sheets)
RELATIONS and FUNCTIONS

1. Write Rule, Domain, Range and Check one-one, onto of the following functions:

a. Constant function.

b. Identity function.

c. Modulus function.

d. Signum function.

e. Greatest integer function.

f. Least integer function.

g. Sine function.

2. Show that the function f: R → R is given by f(x) = x3 is injective.

3. Show that the relation R in the set {1, 2, 3} given by R = {(1, 2), (2, 1)} is symmetric

but neither reflexive nor transitive.

4. Check the injectivity of f : R → R , f(x) = x2 .

5. Let A = R−¿{3} and B = R – {1}. Consider the function f: A →B defined by

f (x) = (x- 2)/(x -3). Is f one-one and onto? Justify your answer.
6. Show that the relation R on A , A = { x : x  Z , 0 ≤ x ≤ 12 } defined as

R = {(a ,b): |a - b| is multiple of 3.}, is an equivalence relation.

7. Prove that R is an equivalence relation, where R:N ×N→NxN defined as

(a,b) R (c,d) if and only if ad(b+c) = bc(a+d).
8. Let N be the set of natural numbers and R be the relation in NX N defined by
(a,b) R (c,d) if and only if a+d=b+c. Show that R is an equivalence relation.

9.

10.

INVERSE TRIGONOMETRIC FUNCTIONS

Write and learn

 Write and learn

1. Find the principal value of the following:

 a) b) c) d) e)

2. Find the value of the following:

a) b) c) d)

3. Evaluate the following:

a) b) c) .

4. Find domain of f ( x )=cos−1 ¿

5. Find the domain of f ( x )=sin x +cos−1 x

6. If x, y, z∈ [−1 , 1 ] such that cos−1 x +cos−1 x + cos−1 x=3 π , then find the value

of (xy+yz+zx).

7. Which is greater tan1∨tan−1 1

8. Express in the simplest form:

a. tan−1
√ 1−cosx
1+cosx

−1 cos x
b. tan
1−sinx

−1 cos x−sin x
c. tan
cos x+sin x

−1 √ 1+cosx + √1−cosx
d. tan
√ 1+cosx− √1−cosx
--------------THE END--------------------