SR NEET STAR SUPER CHAINA (for Toppers) DATE: 07.11.

2023
Time: 3.20 Hrs GT-3 Max.Marks: 720

Important Instructions:
In every subject:
(a) In Section – A, 35 questions will be given. Answer all 35 questions from section – A
(b) In Section – B, 15 questions will be given. Out of which Answer 10 questions only.
(c) Each question carries 4 marks. For each correct response will get 4 marks. For each
incorrect response, one mark will be deducted from the total scores.
PHYSICS
SECTION – A
1. A) A diver under water, looks obliquely at a fisherman standing on the bank of a lake. The fisherman
look shorter to the diver than what he actually is
B) A convex mirror always produces a virtual image independent of location of the real object
1) A, B are true 2) A is true, B is false
3) A is false, B is true 4) A, B are false
2. A short bar magnet has a magnetic moment of 0.48JT-1. The magnetic field at 10 cm distance from
centre of magnet on its axial line is
1) 0.96 gauss along S – N direction 2) 0.96 gauss along N – S direction
3) 0.48 gauss along S – N direction 4) 0.48 gauss along N – S direction
3. The refractive index of glass is 1.5. The speed of light in glass is (speed in vaccum is 3×108ms-1).
1) 1.66×108ms-1 2) 2×108ms-1 3) 1.5×108ms-1 4) 1.2×108ms-1
4. The distance for which ray opticals is good approximation for an aperture of 4mm and 400nm
wavelength is
1) 90m 2) 180m 3) 40m 4) 60m
5. In photoelectric effect experiment, the intensity of light is varied by changing the distance of light
source from emitter. Which of the following graphs depict he variation of photoelectric current C
with intensity of light l?

1) 2) 3) 4)
6. A moving electron has wavelength of 1.00nm. The kinetic energy of electron is
1) 0.34 eV 2) 1.44 eV 3) 1.24 eV 4) 12.2 eV
7. Assertion (A): The Bohr model is not applicable to atoms having many electrons.
Reason (R): In atoms having many electrons, each electron interacts not only with positively charged
nucleus but also with all other electrons.
1) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is correct explanations of assertion.
2) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not correct explanation of essertion.
3) Assertion is true and reason is false
4) Assertion is false and reason is true
Pg. 1
8. The correct statements of the following about Electromagnetic waves are
a) Accelerated charges radiate E.M. waves
b) The frequency of wave is equal to the frequency of oscillating charge
c) Gamma rays are produced by radioactive decay of nucleus
1) a,b only 2) a,c only 3) b,c only 4) All a,b,c are correct
9. A 10.2 eV electron beam is used to bombard gaseous hydrogen at room temperature. The series of
wavelength that will be emitted is
1) Balmer 2) Lyman 3) Paschen 4) Both Lyman and Balmer
10. What is the ratio of the radii of the nuclei of mass numbers 27 and 64.
3 4 1 1
1) 2) 3) 4)
4 3 4 3
56
11. Find the binding energy of 26 Fe . Atomic mass of Fe is 55.9349u and that Hydrogen is 1.00783u
and Mass of neutron is 1.00876u
1) 992.34MeV 2) 882.34MeV 3) 687.55MeV 4) 492.55MeV
12. In a semi conductor at 0 K
1) The Conduction band is completely filled with electrons.
2) The valency band is completely filled with electrons.
3) Both conduction and valency bands are partially filled with electrons.
4) The forbidden energy gap is zero
13. A) for a diode the forward bias resistance is low as compared to the reverse bias resistance
B) In rectifier circuits capacitor input filters use large capacitors
1) A,B are true 2) A is true, B is false
3) A is false, B is true 4) A,B are false
14. The combination of gates shown in the diagram is equivalent to

1) OR 2) AND 3) NAND 4) NOR

v
15. A quantity X is given by 0 L where 0 is the permittivity of vaccum, L is length, V is
t
potential difference and t is time interval. The dimensional formula for X is the same as that for
1) Resistance 2) Charge 3) Voltage 4) Current
16. Two identical capacitors have the same capacitance C. One of them is charged to a potential V1 and
the other to V2. If they are connected with their unlike plates together, the decrease in energy of the
combined system is
1 1 1 1
1) C (V12  V22 ) 2) C (V12  V22 ) 3) C (V1  V2 ) 2 4) C (V1  V2 ) 2
4 4 4 4
-6 3
17. A cube has side length 1.2×10 m . Its volume is
1) 1.7×10-6m3 2) 1.73×10-6m3 3) 1.70×10-6m3 4) 1.732×10-6m3
18. A comparison is drawn between damped oscillator and LCR series circuit when an AC voltage is
applied on it. The equivalent of damping constant in LCR circuit is
1) L 2) C 3) R 4) Charge on capacitor

Pg. 2
19. Some relations and laws related to fluids are given in column A, While the reasons behind them are
given in column B. Match A and B

Column - I Column - II
(a) Stoke’s law energy e) Surface potential
(b) Equation of continuity f) Viscosity
(c) Bernolli’s theorem g) Conservation of mass
(d) Velocity efflux h) Conservation of energy

1) (a) – (e), (b) – (f), (c) – (g), (d) – (h) 2) (a) – (f), (b) – (h), (c) – (g), (d) – (e)
3) (a) – (f), (b) – (g), (c) – (h), (d) – (e) 4) (a) – (e), (b) –(h), (c) – (g), (d) – (f)
20. When two identical batteries of internal resistance 1Ω each are connected in series across a resistor
R, the rate of heat produced in R is P1. Whenthe same batteries are connected in parallel across R, the
rate is P2. If P1=2.25 P2, the value of R is
1) 2Ω 2) 4Ω 3) 10Ω 4) 12Ω
21. A lamp is connected in series with a capacitor to an AC supply. If the capacitance of the capacitor is
increases, the lamp
1) Shines less brightly 2) Shines more brightly
3) Brightness does not change 4) Brightness turns off
22. A man walks on a straight road from his home to market 2.5km away with a speed of 5kmph.
Finding the market closed, he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5 kmph. His
average speed is
1) 6.25 kmph 2) 6 kmph 3) 2.5 kmph 4) 2 kmph
23. If  is the angle of projection and H, R are the maximum height, range of a projectile, then Tan  is
1) 4H/R 2) 4R/H 3) 2H/R 4) 2R/H
-2
24. A train is accelerating at 10ms . A stone of mass 0.1kg is dropped from window of train. Just after it
is dropped the net force acting on stone is
1) 1N 2) 2N 3) 0.1N 4) Zero
25. The current in a circuit falls from 5A to zero in 0.1 S. If an average emf of 200 V is induced, the self
inductance of the circuit is
1) 20H 2) 4H 3) 2H 4) 40H
2g
26. A thin circular loop of radius R rotates about its vertical diameter with angular speed   . If a
R
bead on the wire loop remains at rest relative to loop, the angle made by the radius vector of bead
with the downward vertical is (Neglect friction)
1) 900 2) 450 3) 600 4) 300
27. A body of mass of 0.5kg travels in a straight line with velocity V = 5X3/2. Work done by the net force
during its displacement from x=0 to x=2m is
1) 10 J 2) 12 J 3) 40 J 4) 50 J
28. In the human body, the heart keeps the body temperature constant by the phenomena of
1) Conduction 2) Radiation
3) Free convection 4) Forced convection
29. A cord of negligible mass is wound round the rim of a fly wheel of mass 20kg and radius 20cm. A
steady tangential pull of 25N is applied on the chord. If the wheel is free to rotate about a normal
axis through its centre, the angular acceleration of the wheel is
1) 6rads-2 2) 30 rads-2 3) 12.5rads-2 4) 15 rads-2

Pg. 3
30. From a uniform disc of radius R, a circular hole of radius R/2 is cut out. The centre of the hole is at
R/2 from the centre of the original disc. The shift in centre of gravity of the resulting body is
1) R/3 2) R/4 3) R/12 4) R/6
31. A body weights 63N on the surface of earth. The gravitational force on the earth at a height equal to
half of the radius earth is
1) 28N 2) 32 N 3) 126N 4) 7N
32. Escape speed of a body from the earth depend on
1) Mass of the body
2) Shape of the body
3) Its direction of projection from earth’s surface
4) The height of launching location
33. A) The stretching of a coil is determined by its shear modulus.
B) Of the three states of matter the bulk modulus of elasticity is maximum for gases.
1) A,B are true 2) A is true, B is false
3) A is false, B is true 4) A,B are false
34. Excess pressure inside the drop of mercury of radius 3.00mm is (surface tension of mercury is
4.65×10-1Nm-1)
1) 860 Pa 2) 1240 Pa 3) 620 Pa 4) 310 Pa
2
35. A tank with a square base of area 1.0m is divided by a vertical partition in the middle. The bottom
of the partition has a small hinzed door of area 20 cm2. The tank is filled with water in one
compartment and an acid of relative density 1.7 in the other, both to a height of 4m. The force acting
on the door is (g=1mns-2)
1) 80 N 2) 56 N 3) 25 N 4) 120 N
SECTION – B
36. For an ideal gas at absolute temperature T, the coefficient of volume expansion at constant pressure
is
1) 2/T 2) 3/T 3) 1/T 4) 1/T2
37. Consider the situation shown in the figure. The wire AB is sliding on the fixed rails with a constant
velocity. If the wire AB is replaced by semicircular wire, the magnitude of the induced current will:

1) Increase
2) Remain the same
3) Decrease
4) Increase or decrease depending on whether the semicircle bulges towards the resistance or away
from it
38. A 10 KW drilling machine is used to drill a hole in a block of mass 5kg. If 50% of power is lost to
the surroundings, the rise in temperature of block in 2.5 minutes is (specific heat of material = 0.91
Jg-1k-1)
1) 1030C 2) 1500C 3) 560C 4) 2000C
39. If 2g hydrogen gas is contained in a vessel of volume of 3m 3 at 27 0 C , then the pressure of the gas is
1) 8.314 Pa 2) 83.14 Pa 3) 415.7 Pa 4) 831.4 Pa
Pg. 4
40. A gas undergoes a thermodynamic process ABC. The total work done by the gas is

1) 200 J 2) 300 J 3) 900 J 4) 450 J

41. The ratio of specific heats of polyatomic molecule having f vibrational modes is
4 f f 3 f 4 f 3
1) 2) 3) 4)
3 f f 4 f f 2
42. A body describes S.H.M. with an amplitude 5cm and period 0.2s. Velocity of the body when the
displacement is 3cm is (in cm s-1)
1) 5π2 2) 40π 3) 50π 4) 3π2
43. A string of mass 2.5kg is under a tension of 200N. The length of stretched string is 20m. If a
transverse jerk is struck at one end of the string, the time taken by the jerk to reach the other end is
1) 0.5 s 2) 1.5 s 3) 2 s 4) 2.5 s
44. A positive point charge is located at the origin of the co-ordinate system. Two points A and B are at
distances r1,r2,(r2>r1) from charge. The sign of the work done by the field and external agency in
moving a small negative charge from B to A are respectively
1) +, + 2) +, - 3) -, + 4) -, -
45. The equivalent resistance between A and B is

1) 16/3Ω 2) 16Ω 3) 8Ω 4) 3/16Ω

46. An element of length 1 cm placed at the origin carries 10A current along the positive
X – axis. The magnetic field at a point on the positive Y – axis at a distance 0.5 m from it is
   
1) 3  106 j 2) 4 108 k 3) 4  10 8 (  k ) 4) 3 106 ( j )
47. In Bohr model of atom an electron of charge (-e) and mass m is revolving around a nucleus of charge

+ze. If L is the orbital angular momentum of electron, then its magnetic moment is given by
e  e   Ze  Ze 
1)  L 2) L 3) L 4) L
2m 2m 2m 2m
48. The force per unit length on a wire carrying current of 8A making an angle of 300 with a uniform
magnetic field of 0.15 T is
1) 1.2 N 2) 1.02 N 3) 0.6 N 4) 2.4 N
2
49. A card sheet divided into squares each of size 1mm is being viewed at a distance of 9cm through a
converging lens of focal length 10cm held close to the eye. The area of the each image of square is
1) 1 cm2 2) 100 cm2 3) 10 cm2 4) 81 cm2
50. Force between two identical bar magnets whose centres are r metre apart is 4.8 N, when their axes are
in the same line. If separation is increased to 2r, the force between them is reduced to
1) 2.4 N (2) 1.2 N (3) 0.6 N (4) 0.3 N

Pg. 5
 CHEMISTRY
SECTION – A
51. The electron in the hydrogen atom undergoes transition from higher orbits to orbit of radius
211.6pm. This transition is associated with
1) Lyman series 2) Balmer series 3) Paschen series 4) Brackett series
52. Assertion (A): Helium is placed in ‘p’ block of modern periodic table
Reason (R): Differentiating electron in Helium enters into ‘p’ orbital
1) Both A and R are true and R explains A
2) Both A and R are true but R doesn’t explain A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
53. The number of significant figures in 0.00025 is
1) 5 2) 3 3) 4 4) 2
54. Correct order of bond order is
1) N 2  N 2  N 22 2) N 2  N 2  N 22 3) N 21  N 2  N 2 4) N 2  N 22  N 2
55. No.of protons, electrons & neutrons in 27
13 Al 3 ion
1) 13,10,10 2) 13,10,14 3) 14,10,13 4) 10,13,14
56. For the reversible reaction NH 2COONH 4 (s )  2 NH 3 ( g )  CO2 ( g ), K p  4atm3 . Equilibrium
pressure would be.
1) 9 atm 2) 6 atm 3) 3 atm 4) 27 atm
57. In the formation of   bond, the atomic orbitals overlap in such a way that:
1) their axes remain parallel to each other and perpendicular to the internuclear axis
2) their axes remain parallel to each other and parallel to the internuclear axis
3) their axes remain perpendicular to each other and parallel to the internuclear axis
4) their axes remain perpendicular to each other and perpendicular to the internuclear axis

58. The product A is

1) 2) 3) 4)
59. The specific conductance of salt of 0.01M concentration is 1.06  10 4 mho.cm 1 Molar
conductance of same solution in mho.cm 2 .mol 1 is
1) 106.1 2) 10.61 3) 1.061 4) 1.061  10 4
60. If a gas absorbs 200 J of heat and expands by 500 cm3 against a constant pressure of
2 105 Nm2 , then change in internal energy is
1) -300J 2) -100 J 3) +100 J 4) +300 J

Pg. 6
 ( C6 H 5CO )2 O2
61. CH 3  C|  CH 2  HBr   X (major) Here the major product ‘X’ is
CH3

1) (CH3)2CBr CH3 2) (CH3)2 CH CH2Br

3) BrCH  CH |
 CH 3 4) CH 3  CHBr
|
 CH 3
CH 3 CH

62. The Lassaigne’s extract is boiled with a concentration HNO3 while testing for halogens. By
doing so it
1) Helps in the precipitation of AgCl
2) Increases the solubility product of AgCl
3) Increases the concentration of NO3 ions
4) Decomposes Na2 S and NaCN, if formed
63. Which of the following is not optically active?
3 3  
1)  Co(en)3  2)  Cr (ox)3  3) cis   CoCl2 (en)2  4) trans   CoCl2 (en)2 
64. Choose the wrong statement
1) Degree of dissociation of an electrolyte increases with dilution
2) Electrical conductance of a metallic conductor decreases with increase in temperature
3) Electrical conductance of a metallic conductor increases with increase in temperature
4) Electrical conductance of an electrolytic conductor increases with increase in temperature
65. Which one is a reducing sugar
1) Cellulose 2) Starch 3) Maltose 4) Sucrose
66. The major product formed in dehydrohalogenation reaction of 2-Bromo pentane is Pent-2-ene. This
product formation is based on?
1) Huckel’s Rule 2) Saytzeff’s Rule 3) Hund’s Rule 4) Hofmann Rule
67. For a reaction 2 A  3B , if the rate of formation of B is x mol/L, the rate of consumption of A is
1) x 2) 3x 3) 2 x 4) 3x
2 3
68. Which of the following has less pka value ?
1) 30 butyl alcohol 2) Iso butyl alcohol
3) n- butyl alcohol 4) sec butyl alcohol
69. Standard enthalpy of formation is zero for all the following except for
1) Red phosphorous 2) Graphite 3) Rhombic sulphur 4) Oxygen (g)
70. Which of the following species is not aromatic?

1) 2) 3) 4)
71. The best preferable reagent for the conversion of an alcohol into pure alkyl halide?
1) PCl5 2) PCl3 3) SOCl2 4) HCl / ZnCl2
72. On electrolysing a sample of acidified water, 22.4ml of hydrogen was obtained. The value of
oxygen in ml obtained is
1) 22.4 2) 44.8 3) 11.2 4) 2.24
73. The maximum oxidation state of oxygen is
1) – 1 2) + 1 3) + 2 4) 0
Pg. 7
74. All the following can undergo disproportionation except
1) MnO4 2) MnO42 3) Cu  4) Cl2
75. For a solution in which CHCl3 is dissolved in C6 H 6 , molality is 0.1m . Then mole fraction of
C6H6 in the solution is
1) 0.0077 2) 0.077 3) 0.642 4) 0.9922
76. Which of the following pairs of compounds illustrate the law of multiple proportions ?
A) MgO, Na2O B) SnO, SnO2 C) H2O, H2O2 D) H2S, SO2
1) A & D 2) B & D 3) A & C 4) B& C
77. Which of the following compound not only gives positive iodoform test but also gives positive
Fehling test

1) 2) C6 H5CHO 3) C6 H5COCH3 4) CH3CHO

78. . What are A and B respectively

1) 2)

3) 4)
79.  product . The no.of sp 2 carbon atoms present in the product
1) red hot Irontube 873 k
H  C  C  H  CO  HCl / AlCl3

1) 5 2) 6 3) 8 4) 7

80. . Compound ‘B’ is

1) 2) 3) 4)
81. Which one of the following is Lewis acid
1) H 2 SO4 2) AlCl3 3) H 2O 4) OH 
82. Choose incorrect stamen from the following
1) K2 MnO4 is green coloured
2) K2Cr2O7 is the primary standard in volumetric analysis
3) Cr2O3 is amphoteric
4) K 2CrO4 is orange coloured

Pg. 8
83. Two particles ‘A’ and ‘B’ have their debroglie wavelength ratio as 3 : 2 respectively. If the
mass ratio of A to B is 2 : 3 then the ratio of the velocities of A to B will be
1) 1 : 1 2) 9 : 4 3) 4 : 9 4) 1 : 3
84. Hydrolysis of ‘X’ is an example of disproportionation. ‘X’ is
1) XeF6 2) XeF2 3) XeF4 4) XeOF4
85. Wrong match is
1) CuSO4 - Cationic hydrolysis 2) Na2 B4O7 - Anionic hydrolysis
3) NaNO3 - No hydrolysis 4) NH4Cl - Both cationic and anionic hydrolysis
SECTION – B
86. At 0 C , ice and water are in equilibrium, H 2O( s )  H 2O(l ) , H  6kJ mol 1 . The value of S and
0

G for conversion of ice into liquid water at 0 0 C are

1) 2.19J K 1mol 1 and 0 2) 0.219J K 1mol 1 and 0
3) 21.9J K 1mol 1 and 0 4) 0.0219J K 1mol 1 and 0
87. The freezing point of an aqueous solution of 0.1m Hg2Cl2 will be: (if Hg2Cl2 is 80% ionized in the
solution to give Hg22 and Cl  )
1) 0.26K f 2) 2.6 K f 3) 4.6 K f 4) 0.42K f

88. . D in the above mentioned

reaction is.

1) 2)

3) 4)
89. Mole fraction of toluene in the vapour which is in equilibrium with a solution containing benzene
and toluene having 2 moles each is when vapour pressure of pure benzene and toluene are 120
torr and 80 torr respectively
1) 0.5 2) 0.25 3) 0.4 4) 0.6
2
90. Assertion (A): All the carbon atoms in H 2C  C  CH 2 are SP hybridized
Reason (R): CH 2  C  CH2 is a planar molecule
1) Both A and R are correct and the R is the correct explanation of the A
2) Both A and R are correct but R is not correct explanation of the A
3) A is correct but R is in correct
4) Both A and R are false
Pg. 9
91. t99.9% of a first order reaction is 100 minutes. Rate constant of the reaction is
1) 0.693 minutes 2) 2.303 minutes 3) 0.0693 minutes 4) 23.03 minutes
92. Select the correct stoichiometry and its K sp value according to given graphs

1) XY , Ks p  2  106 2) XY2 , Ks p  4 109

3) X 2Y , Ks p  9 109 4) XY2 , Ks p  1109
93. Identify correct statements
As the temperature increases
A) Rate of reaction increases
B) Number of activated molecules increases
C) Collision frequency increases
1) A only 2) A and C only 3) A, B and C 4) B only
94. Which of the following is correct acidic strength order for the marked hydrogen. The given
compound

1) a > d > b > c 2) a > b > d > c 3) c > d > b > a 4) a > c > b > d
95. Mass percentage of nitrogen in uracil is

1) 70 2) 50 3) 80 4) 25
3 3  1 0
96. Emf of the cell Al (s ) / Al (10 M ) || Ag (10 M ) / Ag at 298 K is ( Ecell  2.46V )
1) 2.46 V 2) 2.4 V 3) 2.52 V 4) 2.37 V
97. Polar molecule among the following is
1) XeO3 2) XeF2 3) XeF4 4) XeO4
98. Molar mass is maximum for
1) Phosphorous 2) Sulphur 3) Copper 4) Ozone

Pg. 10
99. The energies of activation for forward and reverse reaction for A2  B2  2 AB are
180kJ mol 1 and 200kJ mol 1 respectively. The presence of catalyst lowers the activation
energy of both (forward and reverse) reactions by 100kJ mol 1 . The enthalpy change of the
reaction ( A2  B2  2 AB) in the presence of catalyst will be (in kJ mol 1 )
1) 300 2) 120 3) 280 4) -20
100. Which of the following is the correct order of electronegativity
1) O < S > Se > Te 2) S > O < Te > Se
3) Te < Se < S < O 4) O < S < Se < Te
BOTANY
SECTION – A
101. Taxonomic categories are
(i) Morphological aggregations (ii) Artificial aggregations
(iii) Distinctive biological entities (iv) Non distinctive groups
1) i, ii 2) ii, iii 3) ii, iv 4) i, iii
102. In scientific name of mango
1) Mangifera is specific epithet
2) Author name appears after indica
3) Both parts of the name are underlined together
4) Name is derived either from Latin or Greek irrespective of their origin
103. Conidial, septate, mycelial fungi are
1) Algal fungi and imperfect fungi 2) Sac fungi and imperfect fungi
3) Sac fungi and club fungi 4) Algal fungi and club fungi
104. Match the following column I and Column II and identify the correct match from options given
under
Column I Column II
a. Volvox i. Dioecious sporophyte with dioecious gametophytes
b. Sphagnum ii. Oogamous alga
c. Selaginella iii. Heterosporous pteridophyte
d. Cycas iv. Monoceious leafy gametophyte
Options:
1) a-ii, b-iv, c-iii, d-i 2) a-iii, b-ii, c-i, d-iv
3) a-iv, b-i, c-ii, d-iii 4) a-i, b-iii, c-iv, d-ii
105. Unique character of Bryophytes is
1) Rhizoidal gametophyte
2) Independent saporophyte
3) Multicellular jacketed sex organs
4) Total (or) partical parasitic sporophyte on gametophyte
106. The flowering plant with highly reduced sporophyte and gametophytes is
1) Opuntia 2) Wolfia 3) Canary grass 4) Carrot grass
107. Wrongly matched of the following is
1) Prop roots – Adventitious roots 2) Sheathy leaf base - Grasses
3) Potato – Modified root 4) Flower – modified shoot
108. Pentamerous, zygomorphic flowers with ten microsporophylls and one megasporophyll can be
assigned to
1) Brassicaceae 2) Fabaceae 3) Solanaceae 4) Lilliaceae

Pg. 11
109. Pick out the correct statement from the following
1) Tracheids are universal conducting elements present in all trachaeophytes
2) Seive tubes are lignified conducting elements without nucleus
3) Secondary phloem is the major tissue in woody dicot stem
4) Secondary cortex is collenchymatous in woody stem
110. Vascular bundles are conjoint and closed in
1) Dicot stem and monocot stem 2) Dicot root and monocot root
3) Moncot stem and leaves 4) Monocot root and leaves
111. Periderm does not include
1) Secondary phloem 2) Phelloderm 3) Phellogen 4) Phellem
112. Which of the following is not a function of Golgi complex?
1) Intercellular transport of materials 2) Packaging of materials
3) Cell plate formation in plant cells 4) Formation of glycoproteins & glycolipids
113. “Cell organelles within other cell organelles” is applicable to
1) Basal body in flagellum 2) Nucleolus in Nucleus
3) ‘70’s ribosomes in eukaryotic cell 4) ‘80’s ribosomes in eukaryotic cell
114. Which of the following are nitrogen containing non polymeric biomicromolecules?
A) Lecithin B) Uridine C) Ribose D) Glucosamine
1) All excepts A 2) All excepts B 3) All excepts C 4) All excepts D
115. Which phase mitosis is represented by the following diagram?

1) Prophase I 2) Metaphase I
3) Transition from prophase to metaphase 4) Transition from metaphase to Anaphase
116. Match the following and identify the correct match from the options given under
Column I Column II
i. Zygotene a. Chromatidal segregation
ii. Pachytene b. Synapsis
iii. Anaphase I c. Chromosomal segregation
iv. Anaphase II d. Crossing over
1) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d 2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a 3) i-a, ii-b, iii-d, iv-c 4) i-c, ii-a, iii-b, iv-d
117. A virus differs from a bacterium as its contains
1) A cell wall 2) Cytosol
3) DNA as genetic material 4) DNA or RNA as genetic material with no ribosome
118. Which of the following atmospheric gasses are utilized by N2 fixing cyanobacteria like Nostoc?
1) N2, CO2, O2 2) N2, O2 only 3) CO2, O2 only 4) N2 only
119. Identify the true statements from following
(i) Light phase in photosynthesis is light independent and temperature dependent
(ii) Photorespiration neither produces sugars nor ATP
(iii) Photo respiration is absent in C4 plants
(iv) Glycolysis neither consumes O2 nor evolves CO2
(v) Succinic dehydrogenase participates in both TCA cycle and ETS
1) i,ii,iii 2) i,iii,iv,v 3) i,iv,v 4) ii,iii,iv,v
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120. What is the yield of ATP for the complete oxidation of one molecule of Acetyl Co.A in Krebs cycle?
1) 12 2) 11 3) 9 4) 1
121. Match the following columns and identify the correct match
Column I Column II
(i) Auxins a. Fruit ripening
(ii) Gibberellic acid b. Root formation on stem cuttings
(iii) Cytokinin c. Produce new leaves
(iv) Ethylene d. Quick maturity of conifers
1) i-b, ii-c, iii-a, iv-d 2) i-b, ii-d, iii-c, iv-a
3) i-d, ii-a, iii-b, iv-c 4) i-c, ii-b, iii-d, iv-a
122. Branched rhizoids and leafy gametophytes are the characteristic of
1) Liverworts 2) Mosses 3) Ferns 4) Conifers
123. Match the columns I, II and III and choose the correct combination from the options given

Column I Column II Column III

a If the margins of sepals or petals overlap one 1 Vexillary K
another but not in any particular direction

b When sepals and petals just touch one another at the 2 Valvate L
margin, without overlapping

c Standard petal overlap wings which in turn overlap 3 Twisted M

the keel

d If one margin of the appendage overlaps that of the 4 Imbricate N

next one and so on

1) a-2-K, b-3-N, c-1-L, d-4-M 2) a-3-K, b-1-L, c-2-M, d-4-N

3) a-3-N, b-4-K, c-2-M, d-1-L 4) a-4-K, b-2-M, c-1-L, d-3-N
124. How many male gametes and female gametes are produced by each male and female gametophytes
respectively in flowering plants?
1) One, One 2) Two, Two 3) One, Two 4) Two, One
125. Pick out the correct statement from following
1) Monosporic embryo sac contains seven genomes
2) Autogamy is obligatory in commelina
3) Pollen pistil interaction begins with pollination and ends with entry of pollen tube into ovary
4) Both autogamy and geitenogamy are not possible in papaya
126. Emasculation is
1) Removal of anthers from flower bud
2) Necessary for preventing self pollinationin the flowers of female parent
3) Necessary for avoiding desirable cross pollination
4) Both 1 and 2
127. Both phenotypical ratio and genotypical ratios are same in
(i) Monohybrid cross (ii) Monohybrid test cross
(iii) Dihybrid test cross (iv) Dihybrid cross
1) i,iii 2) iii,iv 3) ii,iii 4) i,iv
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128. Mendelian dihybrid cross does not explain
1) Law of dominance 2) Law of segregation
3) Law of independent assortment 4) Linkage
129. How many photosynthetic cell types does the leaf that fix CO 2 in C4 plants & C3 plants respectively
are?
1) One & Three 2) Three & One 3) One & Two 4) Two & One
130. In medelian dihybrid crosses, the probability of parental phenotypes in F2 progeny is
1) 2/16 2) 6/16 3) 9/16 4) 10/16
131. Which of the following is wrong w.r.t DNA polymerase?
1) It shows high efficiency and accuracy
2) It is DNA polymerase during DNA replication
3) It is RNA dependent DNA polymerase during transcription
4) It can-not initiate polymerisation of nucleotides by it’s own
132. Statement-I: Aminoacylation of tRNA occurs during translation.
Statement-II: Initiation of polypeptide chain begins with the encountering of small subunit of
ribosome with mRNA
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is wrong 4) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct
133. The repressor of lac operon is inactivated by the binding of
1) Glucose 2) Galactose 3) Galactosidase 4) Allolactose
134. The correct sequence of following events w.r.t action of restriction enzymes?
(i) Cutting of strands of DNA (ii) Binding to recognition site
(iii) Finding of recognition sequence (iv) Inspection of length of DNA sequence
1) i,ii,iii,iv 2) iv,iii,ii,i 3) ii,iii,iv,i 4) iv,i,iii,ii
135. In the process of rDNA technology, the fragmentation of DNA is immediately followed by
1) Ligation 2) Transformation
3) Isolation of desired DNA fragment 4) Culturing of host cells
SECTION – B
136. Statement-I: All Fungi have cell wall.
Statement-II: All protists have cell wall.
1) Both S-I and S-II are correct 2) Both S-I and S-II are incorrect
3) S-I is correct but S-II is incorrect 4) S-I is wrong but S-II is correct
137. Assertion (A): All enzymes are nitrogenous hetero polymers with catalytic activity.
Reason (R): Almost all enzymes are proteins and some are nucleic acids (ribozymes).
1) Both A and B are correct, R is the correct explanation to A.
2) Both A and B are correct, R is not the correct explanation to A.
3) A is correct but R is wrong
4) Both A and R are wrong
138. Wrongly matched of the following is
1) Orchids – Non endospermic seeds 2) Beans – Endospermic dicot seeds
3) Black pepper – Perispermic seeds 4) Mango – polyembryonic seeds
139. The main function of the stem is
1) Conduction of water, minerals & photosynthates
2) Storage of food, support, protection and vegetative propagation
3) Spreading out branches bearing leaves, flowers and fruits
4) All of the above

Pg. 14
140. How many ATP and NADPH 2 are respectively produced in the process of photorespiration?
1) 2 and 4 2) 1 and 2 3) 4 and 6 4) 0 and 0
141. Polymerase chain reaction does not require
1) DNA ligase 2) Oligonucleotide primers
3) DNA polymerase 4) Nucelotides
142. Bt toxins are
1) Insect species specific 2) Insect group specific
3) Not specific to any insects 4) Specific to pollinator insects
143. Respiratory quotient (R.Q) is
1) Volume of O2 evolved/Volume of CO2 consumed
2) Volume of CO2 evolved/Volume of O2 consumed
3) Volume of O2 consumed/Volume of CO2 evolved
4) Volume of CO2 consumed/Volume of O2 evolved
144. Assertion (A): Matured sieve elements are non-totipotent cells
Reason (R): Matured sieve elements are dead cells
1) Both A and B are true, R is the correct explanation to A
2) Both A and B are true but R is the correct explanation to A
3) A is true but R is false
4) Both A and R are false
145. Wrongly matched of the following is
1) LAB – Probiotic 2) Brewing- Bread making
3) Flocs – Aerobes 4) Glomus – Fungal biofertilizer
146. Which of the following are membrane bound cell organelles?
1) Ribosomes 2) Nucleosomes 3) Mesosomes 4) Microbodies
147. In tea plantations and hedge making, gardeners trim the plants regularly so that they remain bushy.
Scientific explanation behind this is
1) removal of apical dominance 2) growth of lateral buds
3) suppression of lateral buds 4) both 1 and 2
148. Wrongly matched w.r.t type of genetic material
1) T.M.V – ssRNA 2) QB Bacteriophage – ds DNA
3) T – even Bacteriophage – dsDNA 4) E.Coli – dsDNA
149. Which of the following are products of re - differentiation?
A) Medulla B) Secondary xylem
C) Primary phloem D) Secondary phloem
1) A,B 2) C,D 3) A,C 4) B,D
150. How many dsDNA molecules are present in each chromatid of metaphase chromosome?
1) 2 2) 1 3) 4 4) 8
ZOOLOGY
SECTION – A
151. What is common to silkworm, filarial worm and tapeworm?
1) Double ventral nerve cord 2) Complete gut
3) Bilateral symmetry 4) Sexual dimorphism
152. “The Evil Quartet” is he sobriquet used to describe
1) Conservation of biodiversity 2) Causes of biodiversity losses
3) Causes of distribution of biodiversity 4) Patterns of regaining lost biodiversity
153. Which hormones from the ovary are dominating ‘before’ (a) and ‘after’ (b) ovulation during
menstrual cycle?
1) (a) Progesterone; (b) Estrogen 2) (a) Estrogen; (b) Progesterone
3) (a) Relaxin; (b) FSH 4) (a) Estrogen; (b) Epinephrine
Pg. 15
154. Given below are four matchings of an animal and its kind of respiratory organs
A) Dolphin – Gills B) Locust – Trachea
C) Balanoglossus - Lungs D) Prawn – Gills
The correct matchings are:
1) B and D 2) A and C 3) B,C and D 4) A,B and C
155. FSH and LH are gonadotropins. In males FSH acts on
1) Spermatogonia and stimulates the process of spermiation
2) Sertoli cells and stimulates the process of spermiogenesis
3) Leydig cells to release male sex hormones
4) Sertoli cells and stimulate the secretions of epididymis
156. Which of the following represents the correct combination without any exception?

Characteristics Class
1) Mouth terminal; moist skin without scales; two pairs of limbs; eyes with Amphibia
eye lids
2) Bony endoskeleton; gills with operculum; skin with placoid scales; Osteichthyes
internal fertilisation
3) Body covered by cornified skin; external ear openings absent; three – Reptilla
chambered heart; internal fertilisation
4) Body covered with feathers; bony endoskeleton; oviparous; direct Aves
development
157. Given below are two statements: one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R):
Assertion (A): Hugo deVries believed that it is mutation which causes evolution and not the minor
heritable variation that Darwin talked about.
Reason (R): Evolution for Darwin was gradual, while deVries believed mutation caused speciation
and hence called it saltation.
In the light of above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1) A and R are true and r is not the correct explanation of A.
2) A is true, R is false
3) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
4) Both A and r are false
158. Follow the features:
a) Fibres and fibroblasts are compactly packed
b) It is mesodermal in origin
c) Many fibres are oriented differently.
Where do you find the connective tissue with the above features?
1) Skin 2) Tendons 3) Elastic ligaments 4) Nephrons
159. Read the following statements and pick out the correct option:
Statement-I: Oral contraceptive pills inhibit ovulation and implantation.
Statement-II: Surgical contraceptive methods are highly effective but their reversibility is very
poor.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Statement I is correct, Statement II is wrong
4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
160. In frog, urinary bladder is located
1) Dorsal to rectum 2) Ventral to rectum 3) Ventral to stomach 4) Dorsal to stomach
161. In HGP, the sequence of which chromosome was completed in May 2006?
1) X Chromosome 2) Chromosome 1 3) Y Chromosome 4) Chromosome 10

Pg. 16
162. Given below are two Statement : one is labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is labelled as Reason
(R)
Assertion (A): Despite occupying about 70percent of the surface, the productivity of oceans are only
55 billion tons.
Reason (R): In deep sea productivity is limited by light and nitrogen
In the light above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
1) A is true, R is false.
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
4) Both A and R are false
163. DNA finger printing is a technique which works on the principle of
1) Non- heritable DNA mutations
2) Polymorphism in DNA sequences
3) Bulk genomic DNA major peaks
4) Polymorphism in nucleo proteins
164. During peak summer and winter frogs take shelter in deep burrows to protect them from extreme
heat and cold. Select the best option from the following statements in relations to this.
I) They have the ability of camouflage
II) They exhibit protective colouration, mimicry
III) They are eurythermal and euryhaline organisms.
IV) They perform only cutaneous respiration during aestivation and hibernation.
1) Only II 2) Only IV 3) I and III 4) II and IV
165. Observe the below given diagrammatic representations of the operation of natural selection

In the above A and B more individuals acquire

1) A – other than mean character value, B – mean character value
2) A – mean character value, B – peripheral character value
3) A – other than mean character value, B – peripheral character value
4) A – mean character value, B – other than mean character value
166. Maximum reabsorption occurs in which part of nephron
1) DCT 2) Ascending limb of Henle’s loop
3) PCT 4) Collecting duct
167. Secondary lymphoid organs provide the sites for interaction of (A) with the (B), then (A) proliferate
to become effector cells.
Fill the blanks with correct option:
1) (A) – Lymphocytes, (B) – antigens 2) (A) – Memory cells, (B) – lymphocytes
3) (A) – Auxillary cells, (B) – antibodies 4) (A) – Antigens, (B) – antibodies
168. Residual volume is not taken into consideration in measuring of these two capacities of the lungs
1) Vital capacity and expiratory capacity
2) Total lung capacity and expiratory capacity
3) Total lung capacity and functional residual capacity
4) Inspiratory capacity and functional residual capacity
169. Study the following and choose the incorrect:
1) Morphin and Heroin are opioids
2) Marijuana and Hashish are cannabinoids
3) Crack and smack are coca alkaloids
4) Atropa and Datura are plants with hallucinogenic properties
Pg. 17
170. Deoxygenated blood pumped into the pulmonary artery is passed on to the lungs from where the
oxygenated blood is carried by the pulmonary veins into the left atrium. This pathway constitutes
1) Systemic circulation 2) Portal circulation
3) Coronary circulation 4) Pulmonary circulation
171. α-1 antitrypsin is used to treat which disease
1) Phenylketonuria 2) Cystic fibrosis 3) Emphysema 4) Asthma
172. Which statements of the following are true for formed elements?
I) Leucocytes are generally short lived
II) Eosinophils resist infections and are also associated with allergic reactions.
III) Platelets are cell fragments produced from thrombocytes.
IV) Neutrophils and basophils are phagocytic cells.
1) III & IV 2) I & II 3) I & IV 4) II & III
173. In which of the following interactions both partners are adversely affected?
1) Sea anemone and clown fish
2) Flamingoes and resident fishes in South American lakes
3) Fig tree and pollinator wasp
4) Epiphytic orchid on a mango branch
174. Which of the following statements is correct?
1) The ascending limb of loop of Henie allows passage of small amounts of urea into the medullary
interstitium.
2) Distal convoluted touble reasorbs 70-80 percent of electrolytes and water
3) The collecing duct is lined by simple columnar ciliated epithelium.
4) Proximal convoluted tubule is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
175. The producer which breed only once in its life time is?
1) Salmon 2) Bamboo 3) Both 1 & 2 4) Calotropis
176. Read the following statements about colour blindness and choose the correct option:
Statement-A: It is an autosome linked dominant disorder.
Statement-B: The affected male should have an affected father.
1) Both statement A and statement B are wrong
2) Both statement A and Statement B are true
3) Statement A is correct, Statement B is wrong
4) Statement A is wrong, Statement B is correct
177. When number of immigrations and births is more than emigrations and deaths, the growth curve of
the population will show
1) Declining phase 2) Acceleration phase
3) Lag phase 4) Asymptote phase
178. Below given figure shows a diagrammatic view of ribs and rib case, select the correct identification
of A, B, C and D

1) A – vertebral column, which attaches to sternum

2) B – False ribs, they do not attach to sternum
3) C – True ribs, they attach directly to sternum
4) D – Sternum, to which true ribs attach with the help of hyaline cartilage

Pg. 18
179. Consider the following statements on ecological pyramids and pick out the correct statements:
A) Pyramids of energy can never be inverted, because when energy flows from a particular trophic
level to the next trophic level, some energy is always lost as heat at each step
B) In all ecosystems, the pyramids of number and of biomass are upright
C) The pyramid of biomass of sea is generally inverted because the biomass of fishes far exceeds
that of phytoplankton
1) Only A 2) A and B only 3) A and C only 4) All A,B and c
180. In myelinated axons, the gaps between two adjacent myelin sheaths are called
1) Axon hillock 2) synapses 3) nodes of Ranvier 4) axon terminal
181. Which among these is the correct combination of poisonous snakes?
1) Naja, Ptyas,Hemidactylus 2) Python, Calotes, Bangarus
3) Python, Calotes, Bangarus 4) Bangarus, Naja, Vipera
182. Which one of the following is a form of hyperthyroidism?
1) Disfigurement of face 2) Formation of ketone bodies
3) Exopthalmic goitre 4) Piloerection and over sweating
183. Which is considered as store house of calcium ion’s in muscle fibre?
1) Sarcosomes 2) Sarcolema
3) Sarcoplasmic Retculum 4) All the above
184. Hormone that enhances cellular glucose uptake and utilization is secreted by
1)  - cells of Islets of Langerhans 2)  - cells of Islets of Langerhans
3)  - cells of pancreas 4) f – cells of pancreas
185. The hormone which suppress immune responses is?
1) Adrenalin 2) Thyroxin 3) Melatoxin 4) Cortisol
SECTION – B
186. Cranium and vertebral column are cartilaginous in which vertebrate of the following?
1) Pterophyllum 2) Psittacula 3) Petromyzon 4) Pteropus
187. Out of ‘X’ serially arranged units of vertebrae in humans only ‘Y’ and ‘Z’ are fused units.
Select the option that correctly represents the value of X and provides Y and Z explanation.
(1) X=26, Three bones are fused to form sternum and four caudal vertebrae are
Y=sternum, fused to form coccyx.
Z=coccyx,
(2) X=26, Five sacral vertebrae and four coccygeal vertebrae are fused to form
Y=sacrum, sacrum and coccyx.
Z=coccyx,
(3) X=33, Five caudal vertebrae and four sacral vertebrae are fused to form
Y=coccyx, coccyx and sacrum
Z=sacrum,
(4) X=33, Seven cervical vertebrae and four sacral vertebrae are fused to form
Y=cervicum, cervicum and sacrum
Z=sacrum,
188. HGP was closely associated with the rapid development of a new area in biology called
1) Biopiracy 2) Biochemistry 3) Biostatistics 4) Bioinformatics
189. Convergent evolution is explained by
1) Vertebrate hearts 2) Thorn and Tendrils of Bougainvillea and Cucurbita
3) Eye of octopus and Mamuls 4) Vertebrate brains
190. Read the following Assertion and Reason and select the correct option given below:
Assertion (A): In ECG the P-wave represents the electrical excitation of the atria, which leads to the
contraction of both the atria.
Reason (R): Atrial systole increases the flow of blood into the ventricles by about 70percent.
1) A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
2) A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
3) A is true, R is false
4) Both A and R are false

Pg. 19
191. A haemophilic father passes the defective gene
1) to all his daughters 2) either to his son or to his daughter
3) to all his sons 4) neither to his sons nor to his daughters
192. Match the following common diseases (Column-I) with their causative agent (Column-II) and select
the correct option:
Column-I Column-II
(A) Pneumonia (i) Wuchereria
(B) Ringworm (ii) Salmonella
(C) Typhoid (iii) Haemophilus
(D) Filariasis (iv) Epidermophyton
1) A – (iv), B – (iii), C – (ii), D – (i) 2) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (i), D – (ii)
3) A – (iv), B – (ii), C – (iii), D – (i) 4) A – (iii), B – (iv), C – (ii), D – (i)
193. Depolarization of nerve fibre is due to?
1) Efflux of Na+ 2) Efflux of K+ 3) Influx of K+ 4) Influx of Na+
194. Flippers of penguins and dolphins are the example of
1) Analogy 2) Homology 3) Divergent evolution 4) Stabilising selection
195. Match the following:
List-I List-II
(I) Correction of a genetic (a) Injecting functional ADA to the patient
defect
(II) Pro-insulin (b) Delivery of a normal gene into the individual
(III) Enzyme replacement therapy (c) Needs to be processed to become mature and functional
(IV) Recombinant therapeutics (d) Do not induce unwanted immunological responses
1) I – (c), II – (b), III – (a), IV – (d) 2) I – (b), II – (c), III – (d), IV – (a)
3) I – (b), II – (c), III – (a), IV – (d) 4) I – (c), II – (b), III – (d), IV – (a)
196. In the ovary of female human, degeneration of a large number of primary follicles occurs during
which phase?
1) From menarche to menopause 2) From birth to puberty
3) From foetal stage to birth 4) From menopause to death
197. If a person in infected with some deadly microbes to which quick immune response is required as in
tetanus, we need to inject
i) Preformed antibodies ii) Vaccines
iii) Antitoxins iv) Mature cells
Select the correct option from the following:
1) i and iii only 2) i, iii and iv only 3) ii, iii and iv only 4) i, ii, iii and iv
198. In which technique of the following, the semen collected from husband/donor is artificially
introduced into the uterus of the female?
1) Zygote intra fallopian transfer 2) Intra cytoplasmic sperm injection
3) Gamete intra fallopian transfer 4) Intra – Uterine insemination
199. Read the following statements:
Statement – I: Induced abortions are considered relatively safe during the first trimester i.e., upto 12
weeks of pregnancy.
Statement – II: The Medical Termination of Pregnancy (Amendement) Act, 2017 was enacted by
the government of India with the intension of reducing the illegal abortions.
1) Both Statement I and Statement II are wrong
2) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
3) Statement I is correct, statement II is wrong
4) Statement I is wrong, Statement II is correct
200. Failure of segregation of chromatids during cell division cycle results in ‘aneuploidy’. Down’s
syndrome results due to
1) Gain of extra copy of chromosome 18 2) Gain of extra copy of chromosome 21
3) Loss of an X chromosome in human females 4) Loss of one of the chromosome 21

Pg. 20