LPC Quick Guide Latest - Cleaned

TWIN OTTER (DHC-6 100/200/300/400) is an
un-pressurized, all-metal, high-wing, twin

turboprop aircraft and is certified in the
Normal Category by the Canadian
Department of Transportation. The Maldives
CAA has approved the aircraft for operations
with two flight crew, one cabin crewmember
and up to 18 passengers. It is powered by two
Pratt and Whitney PT6A-27 or PT6A-34 engines driving three bladed, reversible pitch, full feathering propellers. TMA
aircraft are configured with Wipline Model 13000 floats. These are straight floats of stressed skin construction
consisting of several watertight compartments. Each float is equipped with a rubber toe bumper, and four mooring
cleats.
SERIES DIFFERENCES
Modifications for float installation
 Propeller blade latches to started in
the zero thrust position. 100/200 300
 Bungee spring is installed in the
elevator control to aid in longitudinal T/O 11600 Lbs T/O 12500 Lbs
stability. +G 3.21 +G 3.17
 Fin-lets on the horizontal stabilizer to 680 Hp Flat R 550 Hp 680 Hp Flat R 620 Hp
aid in lateral stability. Tq 42.5 lbs Tq 50.0 lbs
 Limitation placards are changed to Less Vortex Generators More Vortex Generators
reflect the different restrictions for Vmc +67 Flaps 10 Vmc +70 Flaps 10
the floatplane. Vfe 100 F20 Vfe 102 F10
 Airspeed indicator markings changed 85 Full flaps 95 Full flaps
to reflect floatplane speeds and Va 129 Va 135
limitations. Vmo 158 till 10000’ Vmo 158 ↓1Kts/1000’ till
15000’
 Extra stall bar on the right wing
STANDARD TWIN OTTER DIMENSIONS WITH WIPLINE 13000 (OM-B 0.4)

GENERAL & LIMITATION
General Terminology
Unusable fuel: This is the quantity of the fuel that is not available for use in flight. For DHC-6, this is 23 lbs of fuel or
about 1% of total fuel quantity.
Land as soon as possible: means land without delay at the nearest suitable landing area that can be safely used
after giving due consideration to the landing surface, length and prevailing weather conditions.
Land as soon as practical: means land at the next available aerodrome that can safely be used after giving due
consideration to passenger convenience after landing and/or the possibility of having the aircraft serviced, as well as
suitability of the runway or landing area surface , length and the prevailing weather conditions.
Beta Range: This is the propeller operational mode in which the propeller blade angle is controlled by the beta
reverse valve, not by the propeller governor. Used during all ground manoeuvring (except take-off run), and during
final portion of approach and landing when max RPM (96% Np) is set.
Constant Speed Range: is the propeller operational mode in which propeller rotational speed is being controlled by
the propeller governor. The propeller governor continually adjusts blade angle in order to maintain the propeller
speed selected by the pilot using the propeller control lever. The propeller governor will control the propeller
between the range of 96% NP and 75% Np.
Flat Rating: refers to the practice of artificially limiting the power output of an engine to a lower power output than
the engine manufacturer designed the engine to produce. Installed in the DHC-6 the PT6A-27 engine was designed
to produce 680 HP which is equivalent to 53.3 PSI or torque, however was flat rated to 620 SHP / 50.0 PSI or torque
for normal operations.
Service Ceiling: is the maximum density altitude at which the aircraft can maintain a climb rate of 100 ft per minute
with both engines operating at MCP.
OM-A Chapters (Administrative) OM-B Chapters (Operational)

1. Organization & Responsibilities 1. General Information and Units of Measure
2. Operational Control & Supervision 2. Limitations
3. Management System 3. Normal Procedures
4. Crew Qualification 4. Abnormal & Emergency Procedures
5. Qualification Requirements 5. Performance
6. Crew Health Precautions 6. Flight Preparation and Management
7. Flight Time Limitations 7. Mass & Balance
8. Operating Procedures 8. Loading
9. Dangerous Goods & Weapons 9. Configuration Deviation list
10. Security 10. Minimum Equipment list
11. Handling, Notification & Reporting 11. Safety & Emergency Equip. including O2 &
Occurrences First aid.
12. Rules of the Air 12. Emergency Evacuation Procedures.
13. Leasing 13. Aircraft Systems.
14. Flight Operations Administrative Policy
15. Aviation First Aid Procedures
LIMITATIONS
What type of operation is DHC-6 approved for and Baggage compartment & floor loading limit (OM-B 1.3)
max passenger seating? (OM-B 1.1.2 & 1.2)
DHC-6 is approved for normal category operations.
Type certified for TMA is Day VFR for floatplane.
Aerobatics of any type are prohibited, including
steep turns in excess of 60˚ angle of bank and
maximum of 18 Passengers.
Where is the Datum located in the Short Nose & Long

nose variant?
- SN is approx. 6” forward of the nose cone fairing.
- LN is approx. 21” aft of the tip of the nose cone fairing
What is the CG range – T/O & LDG (all series @ all

weight on wipline floats? What is the Max ‘G” loadings for all series of DHC-6
Forward 207.74 in (25% MAC) 100/200 +3.21g & -1.5g
Aft 213.20 in (32% MAC) 300/400 +3.17g & -1.5g
Ref Datum 60” forward of front fuselage bulk
head.
Definition of Vref Speed (OM-B 1.7.4)
Mass limitations for all DHC-6 series (OM-B 1.6) Vref is a target speed for 50 ft AGL / or threshold
DHC-6 100/200 300/400 crossing speed. For safe operations, higher approach
M. T/O 11600 lbs 12500 lbs speeds are recommended for heights above 50 ft AGL.
M. LDG 11600 lbs 12500 lbs
Add 5 Kts to all Vref speeds in gusty wind conditions.
M. 0 Fuel 11400 lbs 12300 lbs
Manoeuvring speeds for all DHC-6 series (OM-B 1.7.6)
Airspeed limitations (OM-B 1.7)

Speed / V-Speed 100/200 300
SL 158
5000 ft 158 153
Vmo
10000 ft 148
15000 ft 143
Vp/Va & Vb 129 135
Vmc Fl a ps 10˚ 67* 70*
*Prop Fea t (Wi p) Fl a ps 20˚ 67*+ 67*
Vx 82
Vy 90 (TMA 100) Wing Limitation
Vyse Fl a ps 10˚ 86
Fl a ps 100 (0˚-20˚) 102 (0˚-10˚) Conditions Wind Speed
Vfe Head Wind 20 Kts
85 (20˚-37.5˚) 95 (10˚-37.5˚)
Tail Wind 10 Kts
Cosswind (Floats) 17 Kts
67*+ No or Inop auto feather, Vmc will be a higher value
Crosswind (Wheels) 27 Kts
with wind milling propeller.
Altitude limitations
APPROVALS ALTITUDE
Type Certification 25,000 ft
TMA - 10,000 ft (without supplemental O2 for
flight crew)
- 10,000’ – 13,000’ (for less than 30 min,
without supplemental O2 for passengers
and Cabin crew.
- 8,000’ with inoperative fuel boost pump.
OEI Climb 100/200 300/400 ISA+15)12,400 lbs
(ISA+15)11,600 lbs
OEI Service ceiling 500 feet 4000 feet
(100’/min)
OEI Absolute ceiling 2700 feet 6500 feet
(0’/min)
FLOAT LEAKAGE GUIDELINE

(OM-B 1.13.1.2 / 2.2.6.3) LIMITATION FOR CROSS GENERATOR STARTING
If a significant amount of water is found in a float (OM-B 1.14.1.1)
compartment (100+ pumps) then after every Except in an emergency (such as an air start).
flight that compartment is to be pumped out and Cross generator starting is prohibited. Because it
the amount recorded. The PIC shall report this to is detrimental to generator brushes and to
the Maintenance Department. Floats should be reverse current cut-out operation (which may
pumped before first and after last flight of the cause eventual contact welding), should be
day, ensure the bilge pump is completely empty avoided whenever possible and should to be
after each compartment and It is prohibited to recorded in the aircraft technical log.
carry out float pumping when the aircraft is
taxiing.
FUEL TANK CAPACITY WITH JET A-1 AT ISA.
Engine oil used (OM-B 1.15.2) Exxon or BP Turbo Oil

2380 / Approx. 1 ltr in 10 hours of operation, oil checked
within 10 min of engine shutdown.
Hydraulic system pressure (OM-B 1.15.3)

Hydraulic type is MIL-H-5606 and capacity is 2/3 USG.
System pressure is 1225 psi to 1625 psi
ENGINE LIMITATION FOR DHC-6 100/300 (OM-B 1.14.2)
DHC-6 100/200 Series
1. Max. permissible sustained

torque is; for 100/200 Series, 42.5
psi at 101.5 %NP which is equal to
550 hp and for 300/400 Series, 50 psi at 96 %NP which is equal to 620 hp. This is an airframe restriction.
2. For every 10º C below -30 °C ambient air temp, reduce max allowable NG by 2.2%
3. Normal oil pressure inflight is; for 100/200 & 300 Series 80 to 100 psi, at gas generator speeds above 72% with oil
temp between 60°C and 70°C. Oil pressure below 80 psi is undesirable and should be tolerated only for the
completion of the flight preferably at reduced power setting. Oil pressure below 80 psi inflight should be reported as
an engine discrepancy and should be corrected before the next take-off. Oil pressure below 40 psi is unsafe and
requires that either the engine be shut down or a landing made as soon as possible, using the min power required to
sustain flight. Oil pressures between 40 and 80 psi are acceptable during ground operations or when NG is below
72%.
4. For increased service life of the engine (e.g. time between oil changes) an oil temp between 74°C and 80ºC is
recommended. A min oil temp of 55ºC is recommended for fuel heater operation at take-off.
5. At idle, if the T5 temp approaches the 660ºC idle limit, either increase NG or reduce engine loads (e.g. turn off the
applicable generator) to stay below the idle temperature limit. If a significant mechanical load is anticipated when a
generator is to be brought online at idle speed, increase Ng appropriately prior to bringing the generator online.
6. These values are time-limited to 2 seconds. These acceleration limits exist to allow for rapid application of power
during abnormalities or (for example) during a balked landing or a go-around. The acceleration limits are based on
the assumption that the deviation above the normal limit is momentary and non-stabilized.
7. Reverse power operation is limited to 1 minute.
<<CAUTION>>
When ground running the engines (except during manoeuvring or taxiing) in ambient temp’s of 32ºC and above, the
aircraft must be headed into wind and operation in other than forward thrust must be kept to a min and in no case
exceed 1 min. At temps below 32ºC, ground operation in reverse thrust with aircraft headed into wind is limited to 1
minute.
8. Starting temp limits are not marked on the face of the T5 gauge. Temps as high as 925°C are acceptable without
time limitation for the entire duration of the start. Temps between 925ºC and 980ºC are acceptable provided that
the temp decreases to below 925ºC within 10 seconds. Temperatures between 980 ºC and 1090ºC are acceptable
provide the temp decreased to below 980º within 2 seconds. Starting temps above 850ºCare undesirable should be
reported and investigated for cause.
9. In the event of failure of the primary propeller governor to govern at 96%, it is acceptable to continue to use the
engine as long as the propeller over speed governor maintains the propeller speed at 101.5% or less. A landing
should be made as soon as practical and the problem must be corrected before further flight.
10. In-flight operation of the power levers aft of IDLE is prohibited.
11. 52% NG is the typical Idle Speed. Idle speed may increase with pressure altitude. Speeds below 72% NG are
deemed to be idle for the purpose of the limitations table.
12. CAS does not capture 10°C lower limit. Pilot to ensure oil temp at or above 10 °C prior to take-off or during
continuous power setting.
PROPELLER LIMITATION? (OM-B 1.14.7)
DHC-6 aircraft are equipped with a Hartzell all

metal, three bladed (optional 4 bladed), full
feathering, reversible pitch, constant speed
propeller. Optional blade latches for floats. Each
prop is 8’6”in diameter and has a pitch range of

-15˚ (reverse) to +87˚ (feather)
GENERATOR LOAD LIMITS (OM-B 1.15.4)

Maximum continuous single generator load is limited to:
Single generator operation: if generator load

exceeds above limitations, non-essential
services (e.g. cabin lights, reading lights, fans,
duplicated NAV/COM systems, etc.) should be
manually switched off within 2 min to meet the
load limitations specified.
Why is there a Torque Limitation on the -27

powered 100 & 200 Series?
The possibility of the loss of rudder control at
Limitation on windshield wipers (OM-B 1.15.5) maximum power during single engine operations
 Wipers are limited to operate below 100 at low airspeeds.
KIAS.
 Should not operate on dry windshield.
Why is the VP/VB. speed lower than the VNE
 Normal operations should be on FAST mode. speed?
 Slow mode is time limited to 2 min. To prevent possible structural damage to the
aircraft, when full and abrupt movement of the
flight controls are used, and also to help prevent
inadvertent high speed stall, if encountering gusty
wind conditions.
VFR AIRWORK (Training Guide)
STEEP TURN
PREPARATION TQ35, 38 LBS, 120 KIAS, HDG 270°,
THIS WILL BE A 45 DEGREE STEEP TURN TO ALT5000’, HASELL, LOOKOUT
THE LEFT/RIGHT, MAINTAINING 120KTS AT ENTRY TQ INCREASE (+3LBS), “CLEAR R/L”, AOB 45°, BACK
PRESSURE, RUDDER, LOOK OUT/ X CHECK INSIDE
5000FT. I WILL START FROM AN INITIAL
DURING THE TURN CROSS CHECK/ADJUST; MAINTAIN
HEADING OF 270 DEGREES AND ROLL OUT 5000’, 120 KIAS, AOB 45°, BACK PRESSURE, RUDDER,
ON HEADING 270 DEGREES. CALL ME 30 LOOK OUT/ X CHECK INSIDE
DEGREES BEFORE 270 DEGREES, ANY RECOVERY “30 TO GO” ROLL OUT 270°, TQ35-38LBS,
STRAIGHT/LEVEL/RUDDER, TRIM (if required), 120KIAS,
QUESTIONS? HDG270°, ALT 5000FT.
SLOW FLIGHT
PREPARATION TQ 35, 38 LBS, 120 KIAS, HDG 270°,ALT
THIS WILL BE A SLOW FLIGHT TURN, WITH 5000 FT, HASELL, BRIEFING COMPLETED, LOOKOUT.
30˚ OF FLAP, MAINTAINING 70 KTS AND ENTRY TQ 12 LBS, (100/200) 100 KIAS FLAPS 20°.(300)
5000FT. I WILL START FROM HEADING 270 102 KIAS FLAPS 10°, 95 KIAS, FLAPS 20°, MAINTAIN
80KIAS, FLAP 30°, STABILIZE & TRIM FOR 70 KIAS, TQ 20-
AND TURN LEFT/RIGHT WITH A BANK ANGLE 25LBS, MAINTAIN HDG & ALT, LOOK OUTSIDE, X CHECK
OF 20˚. CALL ME 20˚ BEFORE THE HEADING INSIDE
270, ANY QUESTIONS? TURNS LOOK OUT “CLEAR L/R”, AOB 20°, TURN TO HDG
___ ALT 5000 FT, 70KIAS, RUDDER, 20° TO GO”, ROLL OUT
HDG ___ MAINTAIN HDG & ALT, 70 KIAS, TRIM.
RECOVERY HDG ___, TQ 40 LBS, “FLAPS 10°”, 90 KIAS “FLAPS UP”, ALT 5000 FT, 120KIAS, TQ 35, 38 LBS, TRIM
“CRUISE POWER, CRUISE CHECKS”
APPROACH TO STALL
PREPARATION TQ 35-38 LBS, 120 KIAS, HDG
THIS WILL BE CLEAN APPROACH TO STALL AT 5000FT ON A 270°, ALT 5000’, HASELL, BRIEFING COMPLETED,
LOOKOUT.
HEADING OF 270. I WILL REDUCE POWER TO 12LBS,
ENTRY TQ 12 LBS, NO TRIM BELOW 100 KIAS,
MAINTAIN 5000FT AND AT 90 KNOTS CALL PROPS MAX MAINTAIN BACK PRESSURE, 90 KIAS “PROPS
RPM. ON THE FIRST INDICATION, STALL BUFFET, STALL MAX RPM.
LIGHT OR HORN, I WILL CALL STALL MAX PWR. I WILL RECOVERY “STALL MAX POWER”, RELAX BACK
RECOVER WITH MINIMAL LOSS OF ALTITUDE AND PRESSURE, MAINTAIN ALT & HDG
HEADING, ANY QUESTIONS? CRUISE 120 KIAS, “CRUISE POWER, CRUISE
CHECKS”, HDG 270°, ALT5000’, TRIM.
APPROACH TO STALL (FULL FLAP)

This will be a full flap approach to stall, at 5000ft on a 270°, ALT 5000’, HASELL, BRIEFING
heading of 270. I will reduce power to 12lbs, maintain COMPLETED, LOOKOUT.
5000ft and at Vfe (300s - 102kts Flaps 10 to maintain ENTRY TQ 12 LBS, (100 KIAS (100/200), “FLAPS
90knots or 100/200s - 100kts), flaps 20 to maintain 80) 20”, MAINTAIN 80 KIAS - 102 KIAS (300),
And then FULL FLAPS PROPS MAX RPM.I will maintain “FLAPS 10”, MAINTAIN 90 KIAS) “FULL FLAPS,
5000ft and wait for the airspeed to reduce. On the first PROPS MAX RPM”, NO TRIM AFTER SELECTION
indication, stall buffet, stall light, or horn, I will call STALL OF FULL FLAPS
MAX PWR FLAPS 10. Recover with a minimal loss of altitude RECOVERY “STALL MAX POWER FLAPS 10”,
& heading. Passing 90 kts, will call “flaps up” and at 120 kts RELAX BACK PRESSURE, 90 KIAS “FLAPS UP”,
“cruise power, cruise checks”, any questions?” TRIM IF REQUIRED, MAINTAIN ALT & HDG
CRUISE 120 KIAS, “CRUISE POWER, CRUISE
CHECKS”, HDG 270°, ALT5000’, TRIM.
APPROACH TO STALL (APPROACH TO LAND)
270°, ALT 5000’, HASELL, BRIEFING
This will be an approach to stall while turning, with flap
COMPLETED, LOOKOUT.
20, starting from a heading of 270 at 5000ft. Initially I will
ENTRY TQ 12 LBS, (100 KIAS (100/200), “FLAPS
reduce power to 12 lbs, maintain 5000 ft and at Vfe:
20”, MAINTAIN 80 KIAS - 102 KIAS (300),
(100/200 series100 kts call FLAPS 20 to maintain 80 kts
“FLAPS 10”, MAINTAIN 90 KIAS, FLAPS 20°
and below 90 kts PROPS MAX RPM - 300 series below 102
MAINTAIN 80 KIAS) 90 KIAS “PROPS MAX
kts call FLAPS 10 to maintain 90 kts and then FLAPS 20 to
maintain 80 kts and below 90 kts PROPS MAX RPM) RPM”, TQ 20-25 LBS, STABILIZE AT 80 KIAS,
Once the aircraft is trimmed and stabilized and on your TRIM, TQ 10 LBS, MAINTAIN ALT, BACK
PRESSURE, AOB 20°, LOOK OUTSIDE.
instruction I will reduce power to 10 Lbs. and make the
RECOVERY “STALL MAX POWER FLAPS 10”
necessary turns. On the first indication, stall buffet, light AILERONS NEUTRAL, LEVEL WINGS (RUDDER),
or horn, I will call STALL MAX PWR FLAPS 10. I will 90 KIAS “FLAPS UP”, TRIM IF REQUIRED,
smoothly stop the turn by neutralizing the ailerons and MAINTAIN ALT & HDG
then using opposite rudder and recover with a minimal CRUISE 120 KIAS, “CRUISE POWER, CRUISE
loss of altitude. Passing 90 kts I will call “flaps up” and at CHECKS”, HDG 270°, ALT5000’, TRIM.
120 kts cruise
FLAPLESS APPROACH AND GO AROUND

PREPARATION QRH, DESCENT CHECKS AND
THIS WILL BE A PRACTICE FLAPLESS APPROACH AND BRIEFING COMPLETED, 120 KIAS, INSPECT
FOR (LANDING DIRECTION).ON DOWNWIND I WILL LANDING AREA, EXTEND DOWNWIND.
MAINTAIN MIN 120 KTS AND APPROACH 105KTS. ONCE BASELEG AOB 15, ALT 5OO’, TQ 25 LBS, 150 KIAS
ESTABLISHED ON FINAL AND LANDING CONFIRMED I TRIM.
WILL REDUCE POWER/AIRSPEED TARGET VREF 95 KTS FINAL APPROACH AND LANDING AOB 15°, ALT
AND CALL PROPS MAX RPM, LANDING 500’, 105 KIAS, PROPS MAX RPM, FINAL LANDING
CHECKS.I WILL ADJUST POWER TO MAINTAIN THE CHECKS, TQ 15-18 LBS, Vref & TRIM, GLIDE SLOPE
DESCENT RATE AND VREF....KTS. GO AROUND WILL 2°, CAUTION ON TOUCH DOWN.
GO AROUND “GO AROUND MAX POWER”, 100
MAX POWER AND MAINTAIN 100 KTS
KIAS, 400 FT, AFTER TAKEOFF CHECKS.
RECOVERY PROCEDURES FOR NOSE HIGH AND NOSE LOW (UPRT)

 All details of the procedure and safety aspects of the training shall be briefed by the TRI before the flight.
 DHC-6 is flown in the ‘NORMAL’ category.
 Maximum bank angle is 60°. Nose pitch is +/-30°.
 Training will be conducted at a minimum of 5000 feet AGL.
 Recovery is done using Instruments.
 UPRT to be done once every 3 years during annual flight training.
Nose high (attitude indicator; altitude increasing, Nose Low (attitude indicator; altitude decreasing,
airspeed decreasing) airspeed increasing)
 Max Power  Reduce Power
 Bank towards the horizon  Level Wings
 Approaching horizon, level wings  Nose UP to horizon
 120 KIAS, Cruise power cruise checks  120 KIAS, Cruise power cruise checks.
HASELL Check
Height – sufficient for recovery / Airframe – flaps up / Security – seat belts, no loose items / Engine – parameters in
the green / Location - training area (bet 200R–225R & 15 to 25nm) / Look out – check for traffic
OPERATIONAL PROCEDURES (OM-B)
1. If the battery does not have enough charge to start the second engine, what can you do? (OM-B 2.4.3)
If there is any reason to doubt the ability of the battery to start both engines without a recharge, Select the
generator online and charge the battery, if the generator load is not within the limits, then advance the power level
of the running engine to idle Ng + 15% (depending of the type of dock), and charge the battery until the battery load
meter indicates 0.4 or less. Select the operating generator to OFF before starting the second engine.
2. When can you introduce fuel while starting an engine? (OM-B 2.4.3)
Let the Ng stabilized at the highest achievable and stabilized % before selecting the fuel lever to ON. The minimum
Ng required to obtain satisfactory light up is 15% (Company) (12% AFM). Any start attempt below this speed is
considered hazardous. If the engine fails to light up within 10 seconds of advancing the fuel lever, or if engine over
temperature seems imminent, select the fuel lever to OFF
to stop fuel flow and continue to motor the engine with
the starter for approximately 10 seconds. Observe the
required starter cooling period, and allow the engine to
come to a complete stop before attempting a new start or
engine clearing.
3. How do you know if the battery is weak after first start and what should you do? (OM-B 2.4.3.1)
It is important to recognize a weak battery and the potential for high generator loads after a start. If the battery is
weak during the first start (less than 17% Ng achieved) the battery should be charged prior to the second start. If a
battery is to be charged between starts, increase the engine speed of the operating engine to idle +15% for the
duration of the charge to ensure proper cooling.
With generator loads in excess of 0.5, power MUST be increased to idle Ng + 15%. <<CAUTION>> Charging a battery
between engine starts in a situation as described above may be impractical or unsafe if the aircraft is attached to a
floating platform or mooring buoy.
4. What is the use of propeller blade latches? (OM-B 2.4.3.2)

Propeller blade latches are installed on some float equipped aircraft. When installed, they serve to retain the
propeller blades at approximately +1°pitch (zero thrust) whiles the engines are shutdown. This is accomplished by
positioning the power levers at the zero thrust position; following engine shutdown, the blades of each propeller
move slowly toward the feather position as the oil pressure controlling the propeller drops, until arrested by the
latches. On engine start, the latches are retracted by centrifugal force when propeller rpm reaches 30%. A slight
movement of the power levers into reverse thrust, before the propeller RPM reaches 30%, will ensure blade latches
are retracted. <<CAUTION>> the power levers should always be pulled slightly into reverse to ensure the blade
latches are released prior to any power application.
5. Why is there a 1 min restriction on reverse in ambient temperatures of 32°C or above? (OM-B 2.4.3.2)
Aircraft must be headed into the wind and operation in other than forward thrust must be kept to a minimum and in
no case exceed one minute. At temperatures below 32°C, ground operation in reverse thrust with the aircraft
headed into the wind is limited to one minute. These restrictions must be observed to prevent overheat damage to
the internal nacelle and upper wing surface.
6. When can you do an emergency generator assisted start and what are the steps to it? (OM-B 2.4.3.4)
This procedure must only to be completed in an emergency for the purpose of relocating the aircraft to a
maintenance base. It requires one engine to be operating, after which it must also be entered into the logbook and
rectified at the maintenance base prior to the next flight.
1. Recharge battery with operating engine.
2. Reduce all possible electrical loads.
3. Check ignition C/B.
4. Advance the operating engine to idle Ng + 15 -20% minimum
5. Select the operating Generator – OFF
6. Select the inoperative engine starter – ON
7. When Ng peaks, select the operating Generator – ON
8. When the Ng peaks again then select the fuel –ON
7. Why is Cross-generator starting PROHIBITED and if a start is possible, when is it? (OM-B 2.4.3.6)
Cross-generator starting is detrimental to generator brushes and to reverse current relay cut-out operations (this
may eventually cause contact welding). Cross-generator starting is PROHIBITED except in an emergency such as an
Airstart.
8. Explain taxi speeds and why? (OM-B 2.5.1.1)

PIC should make a conscious effort to taxi slowly until the cabin crew is safely inside the aircraft. Taxi speeds should
be limited to 7 kts max in open water to prevent water spray from contacting the propellers and being ingested into
the engines. Taxi speed should be limited to 5 kts maximum when manoeuvring in the vicinity of the MLE jetty or
hanger facility to prevent unnecessary wake that would affect parked aircraft and working maintenance personnel.
Taxi speed should be less than 5 kts when operating in rough water and strong tailwind or when manoeuvring
through dhoni channels. Note: all doors must be closed during taxi operations. This included both flight
compartment pilot doors.
9. Why is Plow taxi prohibited during normal operations? (OM-B 2.5.1.3)

Due to excessive salt water spray that is ingested into the propellers, engines and fuel bay, it’s only permitted for
short distances when required under abnormal or emergency conditions and only in familiar areas of deep,
unobstructed water.
10. When should you avoid step taxing? (OM-B 2.5.1.4)

Step taxi should not be used in rough water conditions, tailwinds or when taxing into the sun when water depths and
reef features are indistinguishable. It is NOT permitted to use step taxi as means of backtracking for take-off.
11. How often should you do Auto feather and governor test? (OM-B 2.5.2.2 & 2.5.2.3)
Auto feather is done every week (7 Days) & recorded in ATL.
Over-speed governor test in done every day.
Auto feather test

Auto Fx system On
Over-speed governor test
Power levers (both) 30 lbs Tq
Power levers Idle
Auto Fx test switch List & Hold
Prop Levers Max RPM
Left Power lever Idle (Fx after 2 sec)
Prop Gov test switch Lift and hold
Right Power lever Idle (Right –fx)
Power levers Adv. both slowly + 20 Psi
Auto Fx test switch Release
Prop RPM Chk 70% at appx. 20 Psi
Power levers (both) 30 Lbs Tq
Power Levers Idle
Auto Fx test switch List & Hold
Prop Gov Test switch Release
Right Power lever Idle (Fx after 2 sec)
Left Power lever Idle (Left –fx)
CAUTION: Ensure that the PROP GOV TEST
Auto Fx test switch Release
switch is not selected or released while either
Left Power lever Advance 88% Ng (- arm)
engine Ng is above idle.
Right Power lever Advance 88% Ng (arm)
Left Power lever Retard - 88% Ng (-arm)
Right Power lever Retard below 88% Ng
12. What is the difference between Pre and post auto feather system?
Pre mode stays on feather until auto feather switch is released.
Post mode comes out of feather automatically when the switch is on and the relays have a 2 second delay before
allowing the auto feather.
TMA all aircrafts are replaced to Post Mode Auto feather system.
13. Can you operate the air-conditioning system while taxing with both generators online? (OM-B 2.5.3.2)
The Air Conditioning System demands a very high load on the aircraft electrical system which is equivalent to 0.4 (80
amps) per generator. During ground taxi operations, it MUST be ensured that generator electrical loads do not
exceed the POH idle Ng limitation of 0.5 (100 amps) per
generator when operating in COOL Mode. Due to this
limitation, flight crew must allow time to fully charge the
battery after starting the engines prior to COOL Mode
operations. On OM-B 2.5.4.2 the air conditioning system is
to be turned to OFF or FAN ONLY mode before the take-off run to avoid slow engine spool and higher T5 spikes due
to the additional electrical load on the generators.
14. When can you accept engine oil pressure to be in caution range? (OM-B 2.5.4.2)
It is acceptable during taxing at idle engine speed below 72% Ng, however pilots operating aircraft with the MVP-50,
will experience amber flashing annunciator and master caution light, pilots should ensure that when increasing
engine power for take-off and Ng rises above 72% will extinguishes amber annunciators and master caution lights
and the parameter is in normal range of 80 to 100 psi.
15. What are the limitations for turns after take-off? (OM-B 2.5.5.1)
After take-off, no turns are permitted prior to at least 400 ft AGL above the departure end, unless required by ATC;
for noise abatement; to prevent collision; or part of a departure procedure that is required to clear obstacles. If a
turn is appropriate after take-off, the following limitations shall apply:
a) Turns are not permitted below 50 ft above the runway / water surface, or before a speed of Vyse, whichever
occurs last.
b) Between the conditions described in (1) and 400 ft above the departure end of the waterway a maximum bank
angle of 15˚ is permitted, but flaps shall not be retracted during bank.
c) Higher than 400 ft above the departure end of the waterway, a maximum bank angle of 30˚ or a rate one turn is
permitted provided speed is greater than Vyse. If speed is less Vyse, then a maximum bank angle of 15˚ is
permitted.
16. When can PNF set climb power after take-off? (OM-B 2.5.5.1 B & C)
Power shall not be reduced from the take-off setting until the aircraft climbs to a safe altitude or 400 ft above the
departure end of the waterway. At 400 ft, flaps should be fully retraced from 10˚ to 0˚ and 100 KIAS or greater
should be achieved before power is reduced.
17. When can the Auto-feather be turned off? (OM-B 2.5.5.1)

The auto-feather system shall be turned off above 400 ft AGL and only during completion of the “After Take-off”
checks. Flaps must be retracted to 0º and climb / cruise power must be fully set prior to turning the auto-feather
system OFF.
18. What are the duties of PNF? (OM-B 2.5.5.1 E)

The PNF duties consist of:
a) Observing and, if required, calling critical performances as the aircraft achieves them.
b) Following behind on the power levers and once the propellers are stabilized at governing range, set the power at
the briefed take-off power setting.
c) Confirming appropriate operation of aircraft systems.
d) Making any selections to aircraft systems that are commanded by the PF.
e) Setting of engine controls.
19. How often should you record Engine trend in ATL? (OM-B 2.6.2.1 & ATL 1st Page & OM-A 8.1.11.2)
The trend monitoring information should be recorded no less than once per day if any of the sectors are flown above
1500 feet. Once established in cruise, allow the engine parameters to stabilize for at least 5 minutes before
recording and if possible in standard cruise power settings. <Caution> only one flight crewmember should record
trend information to avoid having both pilots attention inside the flight compartment and no one looking outside.
20. Why should you pause for at least 5 sec at 85% Ng on take-off slide? (OM-B 2.5.5.2)
Pausing for at least five seconds at 85% NG allows time for the engine compressor bleed valves to close and allows
the pilot the opportunity to confirm (by observing the engine temperatures) that both compressor bleed valves have
closed. This procedure also establishes airflow over the vertical stabilizer and rudder, which facilitates effective
directional control of the aircraft by rudder pedal input during the early stages of the take-off roll.
The axial compressor is more efficient at lower power settings than

the centrifugal compressor. Because of this, the axial compressor
could supply more air to the centrifugal compressor than the
centrifugal compressor could accept. If this were allowed to happen
the back pressure that would be created between the axial and
centrifugal compressors would disrupt the smooth flow of air over
the axial compressor blades causing them to stall. To avoid this, an
automatic compressor bleed system is incorporated. This bleed
system automatically dumps excess air from the axial compressor to
the atmosphere at low engine power settings. The compressor bleed
valve is located on the bottom of the gas generator case. It consists of
a piston valve operating within an open housing. A guide pin supports
the free moving piston. The valve operates automatically by comparing compressor P2.5 (axial compressor output)
and P3 (centrifugal compressor output) differential air pressure. If the axial compressor output pressure is greater
than the centrifugal compressor output, the valve will open, reducing axial pressure output until it matches what the
centrifugal compressor can accept. At higher engine speeds, when the centrifugal compressor is operating with
greater efficiency, the valve closes to ensure that all of the axial compressor air is supplied to the centrifugal
compressor. The bleed valve falls fully open due to gravity when the engine is shut down. It is normally open at idle
and taxi speeds and closed when the
engine is operating at cruise or take-
off power settings. The AFM take-off
procedure is to allow the engine to
stabilize at 85% NG for 5 seconds
prior to applying take-off power,
allowing the compressor bleed valve
to smoothly close and thus ensuring
stabilized airflow in the compressor
before take-off power is applied.
Generally speaking, the compressor
bleed valve will be fully closed when
the engine has stabilized at or above
80 to 85% NG. Variations in ambient
conditions and compressor
conditions make it difficult to specify
an exact NG value.
FAILURE TO CLOSE (TAKE OFF) FAILURE TO OPEN (WHEN REDUCING POWER)
 Low Torque  Banging Noise (Compressor Stalling)

 High T5
 High Ng (Max Ng for T/O = 101.5%)
21. What is the max descent rate? (OM-B 2.7.2.1 & 2.7.3)
The descent should be conducted at a rate of 500 FPM. If, however, a greater rate of descent is required, the PF
should brief the PNF accordingly. When passengers are carried, the rate of descent should never exceed 750 FPM.
The Descent checks should be completed
 Prior to reaching 5nm of the destination; or ‘
 If less than 5 nm of the destination, before joining the circuit; and
 Any amendments to the approach and landing briefing must be completed before commencing the final
approach for landing.
22. What are the standard approach speeds and flap settings? (OM-B 2.7.6.4)
23. What are the stabilized approach criteria? (OM-B 2.7.7.1)

An approach is considered stabilized when all of the following criteria are met at or above 200’AGL.
 All briefings and checklists have been completed.
 The airplane is on the correct flight path.
 Only small changes in heading and pitch are required to maintain the correct flight path.
 Airplane is lined up with the intended landing waterway.
 The airplane is in the correct landing configuration (i.e. final landing flaps are indicating and propellers at
Max RPM)
 The airspeed is not more than Vref+10 knots indicated airspeed and not less than Vref.
 Sink rate is not greater than 750 fpm; if an approach requires a sink rate greater than 750 fpm, a special
briefing should be conducted.
 Power setting is appropriate for the airplane configuration.
24. What are the operating limits during approach and landing? (OM-B 2.7.7.2)
 Turn onto final at or above 500’ AGL.
 No turns in excess of 30 of bank with 0 to 20 of flaps.
 No turns in excess of 15 of bank with more than 20 of flaps.
 Not more than 20 of flaps are to be extended until established on final approach.
 Propellers should be selected to MAX RPM immediately after the selection of the final landing flaps.
 Landing configuration must be achieved before reaching 200’ AGL.
 No turns below 100’ AGL no exceptions.
25. With what flap setting would you get the most effective crosswind control? (OM-B 2.7.7.3)
For strong crosswind operations consider using 30° of flap as final landing flap for more effective crosswind control.
26. Why should you wait for 30% Np on engine shutdown before moving prop levers into feather position? (OM-B
2.7.11.2)
If feathering a propeller; shutdown engine, and wait until the prop RPM has decreased to approx. 30% Np before
moving prop lever into feather position. This will prevent a forward surge, excessive load on the engines and
unwanted tension on the platform, mooring buoy, float ropes and fittings.
ABNORMAL & EMERGENCY PROCEDURES (OM-B)
MEMORY ITEMS FOR EMERGENCIES
E Eng. Failure after T/O Eng. Fire in flight

Oil Pressure Caution Range
M Eng. Fire after T/O Oil Pressure Caution Light on
E
R Eng. Failure in flight Prop. Overspeed ↑101.5% Prop. OS - NP exceeds set RPM
G Uncommanded Feather but is at or below 101.5%
Engine Fail/Fire, Max Pwr F/10 Identify Identify
W F Identify Confirm Confirm

O L
Confirm Max Pwr on G/E QRH
R O
K W Memory Items Memory Items
QRH QRH
1. Memory items for an abnormal start / Captain

NO LIGHTUP, HIGH T5, OR HUNG START
(No light up 10 seconds after fuel has been introduced, or failure to accelerate 10 seconds after fuel has been
introduced or T5 above limits.)
1. FUEL LEVER (Affected Engine) OFF
2. START SWITCH (Affected Engine) HOLD ON 10 SEC.
3. Perform ‘CLEARING AN ENGINE’ checklist before next start.
Hot Start: is an engine start that results in any of the following:

 T5 greater than 1090ºC at any time.
 T5 greater than 980º C (but less than 1090ºC) for more than 2 seconds.
 T5 greater than 925º C (but less than 980ºC) for more than 10 seconds.
T5 temperatures as high as 925ºC are allowable without time limitation for the entire duration of the start. Starting
temperatures above 850ºC are, however, abnormal and should be reported and investigated for cause.
Hung Start: is an engine start attempt during which the engine fails to accelerate up to normal idle speed after
ignition.
2. Memory items for a generator light fail to come on after start or shutdown / Captain
Note: On ground procedure only.
1. GENERATOR SWITCH (Affected Engine) OFF
If the GENERATOR light of the affected engine illuminates, this Is the end of the procedure.
If the generator light does not illuminate, continue as follows:
2. BUS TIE SWITCH OPEN
3. DC MASTER SWITCH OFF
4. Shutdown the engine following normal procedures.
3. Memory items for a low oil pressure at the end of the start procedure / Captain
If oil pressure is less than 40 PSI at the END of the start procedure:
NOTE: An oil pressure between 40 psi and 80 psi is common and acceptable during Idle Ng operations.
4. Memory Items for a rejected take off / PF only

If any malfunction occurs prior to airborne:
1. POWER LEVERS IDLE / REVERSE
2. Stop straight ahead.
5. Memory items for an engine failure after airborne prior to V1 / PF only

1. POWER LEVERS RETARD
2. FLAPS As required
3. Land straight ahead.
6. Memory items for an engine fire on ground / Captain

If applicable, consider to park/beach/secure the aircraft first, with the fire on the downwind side, before completing
the drill.
1. FIRE BELL (If Installed) MUTE
2. POWER LEVERS (Both Engines) IDLE
3. PROP LEVERS (Both Engines) FEATHER
4. FUEL LEVERS (Both Engines) OFF
5. FUEL EMERGENCY SWITCH (Affected Engine) OFF
6. FIRE PULL HANDLE (Affected Engine) PULL
7. BOOST PUMPS (Both Engines) OFF
8. INFORM ATC/ COMPANY (If applicable)
9. DC MASTER SWITCH OFF
Consider leaving DC MASTER Switch ON at night
10. EVACUATE AIRCRAFT When propellers have stopped spinning
11. PORTABLE FIRE EXTINGUISHER (if required & safe to do so) APPLY INTO EXHAUST
12. Consider emergency evacuation procedure
PF PNF
"Reject, Reject, Reject" ATC " Call sign Rejecting"
after landing, if insufficient room:
Prop Levers - both fea ther
Fuel Levers - Both Off
Emer Fuel s wi tch - Both Off
DC Ma s ter s wi tch - OFF
Captain takes control
"Evacuate, Evacuate, Evacuate ATC " Call sign Evacuating"
Left/Right side" or " Remain Seated"
NON-Memory Items
Propeller Overspeed - Np Exceeds Set RPM but is at or below
101.5%
PF PNF OIL PRESSURE IN CAUTION RANGE
"Confirm L/R Propeller is "Confirmed L/R Prop is PF PNF
Overspeeding" Overspeeding, Below 101.5%" "Confirm L/R Engine "Confirmed L/R Engine Oil
"QRH for Propeller Overspeed - Oil Pressure is Low" Pressure is at ___ PSI"
NP Exceeds Set RPM but is at or Initiate QRH "QRH for Oil Pressure in
Initiate QRH
below 101.5%" Caution Range"
7. Memory items for an engine fire/failure after Take-off – after V1?
1. FIRE BELL (If applicable & If Installed) MUTE

2. POWER AND PROP LEVERS (Both Engines) MAX POWER
3. FLAPS CONFIRM FLAPS 10°
4. CLIMB VYSE 86 KIAS WITH FLAPS 10°
5. AUTOFEATHER CHECK PROP FEATHERED
If propeller has NOT automatically feathered:
6. PROP LEVER (Affected Engine) FEATHER
At safe altitude (above 400 feet AGL):
7. POWER LEVER (Affected Engine) RETARD

11. FIRE PULL HANDLE (Affected Engine, If applicable) PULL
12. BOOST PUMP SWITCH (Affected Engine) OFF
13. PROP AUTOFEATHER SWITCH OFF
15. DC LOADMETER CHECK LOAD
16. ATC/ COMPANY/ PASSENGER ADVICE
17. AFTER TAKE-OFF, SINGLE ENGINE LANDING, SINGLE ENGINE GO-AROUND (page OT-2), & DESCENT & LND.
PF PNF
"Engine Failure Max Power, Flap 10" "Max Power Flap 10 Set & Indicating"
Mute fire bell (if engine fire)
"Confirmed L/R Engine Failed"
"Confirm L/R Engine Failed"
"Autofeather Confirmed" or "Negative feather"
"Manual Feather" "Confirm L/R Prop lever feather"
"Confirmed" "Feather"
"Checked"
"Memory Items for Engine "400 feet"
Failure/Fire After Take-Off"
"Confirm L/R Engine Power Lever Retard"
"Confirmed"
"Retard"
"Confirm L/R Prop lever feather"
"Confirmed"
"Feathered"
"Confirm L/R Engine Fuel Lever Off"
"Confirmed"
"OFF"
"Confirm L/R Engine Fuel Emergency Switch Off"
"Confirmed"
"OFF"
If Eng. Fire (Looks to Confirm) "Confirm L/R Engine Fire Handle Pull"
"Confirmed" "Pulled"
"Confirm L/R Fuel Boost Pump Off"
"Confirmed"
"OFF"
"Checked, QRH for Engine "Memory Items Complete"
Failure/Fire After Take-Off" "QRH For Engine Failure/Fire Complete"
8. Memory items for an engine fire, failure in flight, or inflight shutdown?
NOTE: This procedure is used when the auto feather system has been selected ’OFF’, following completion of the
AFTER TAKEOFF checklist.
1. FIRE BELL (If applicable & If Installed) MUTE
2. POWER & PROP LEVERS (Unaffected Engine) MAX POWER
3. POWER LEVER (Affected Engine) RETARD to 10 PSI
7. FIRE PULL HANDLE (Affected Engine, if applicable) PULL
8. BOOST PUMP SWITCH (Affected Engine) OFF
10. DC LOADMETER CHECK LOAD
11. FUEL SELECTOR SWITCH AS REQUIRED
12. ATC /COMPANY /PASSENGER ADVICE
13. Consider an AIRSTART (page EN-5)
14. Complete the following checklists at the appropriate time: SINGLE ENGINE LANDING, SINGLE ENGINE GO-
AROUND (page OT-2), and DESCENT AND LANDING.
ENGINE FAILURE IN-FLIGHT
PF PNF
"Engine Failure Max Power" "Max Power Set"
"Flaps 10" (If speed below 90 or Vyse) "Flaps 10 set"
"Confirm L/R Engine Failed" "Confirmed L/R Engine Failed"
"Memory Items for Engine Failure In-flight" (or power loss)
"Confirmed"
"Retard"
"Confirm L/R Prop lever feather"
"Confirmed"
"Feathered"
"Confirm L/R Engine Fuel Lever Off"
"Confirmed"
"OFF"
"Confirm L/R Engine Fuel Emergency Switch Off"
"Confirmed"
"OFF"
"Confirmed"
"OFF"
Failure In-flight" "QRH For Engine Failure/Fire Complete"
ENGINE FIRE IN-FLIGHT
PF PNF
Mute the fire bell
"Confirm L/R Engine ON FIRE" "Confirmed L/R Engine ON FIRE"
"Set Max Power L/R Engine" "Max Power Set"
"Memory Items for Engine FIRE In-flight"
"Confirmed"
"Retard"
"Flaps 10" (If speed below 90 or Vyse) "Flaps 10 set"
Same Memory Items

If Eng. Fire (Looks to Confirm) "Confirm L/R Engine Fire Handle Pull"
"Confirmed" "Pulled"
"Confirmed"
"OFF"
Failure/Fire In-flight" "QRH For Engine Failure/Fire Complete"
9. Memory items for oil pressure caution light on?
1. OIL PRESSURE GAUGE CHECK
If Oil Pressure Gauge indicates below 40 psi
2. POWER & PROP LEVERS (unaffected engine) MAX POWER
3. Shutdown the affected engine as per ENGINE IN-FLIGHT SHUTDOWN on Page EN-3.
PF PNF
"Confirm L/R Oil Pressure below 40 PSI" "Confirmed L/R Oil Pressure is at __ PSI"
"Memory Items for Oil Pressure Caution Light On" MI for Engine shutdown In-flight
10. List the memory items if Np exceeds above 101.5%?

1. POWER & PROP LEVERS (Unaffected Engine) MAX POWER
2. Shutdown the affected engine as per ENGINE IN-FLIGHT SHUTDOWN on page EN-3
PF PNF
"Confirm L/R Prop is Overspeeding" "Confirmed L/R Prop Overspeeding above 101.5%"
"Memory Items Prop Overspeed above 101.5%" MI for Engine Shutdown In-flight
11. Memory items for an uncommanded feather?
1. POWER AND PROP LEVERS (Unaffected Engine) MAX POWER
2. POWER LEVER (Affected Engine) IDLE
If the auto feather system is selected on:
3. AUTUFEATHER SWITCH OFF
If the propeller does not unfeather:
4. Shutdown the affected engine as per ENGINE IN-FLIGHT SHUTDOWN on page EN-3.
5. Land as soon as practical
PF PNF
"Confirm L/R Prop Feathered" "Confirmed L/R Prop Feathered"
"Memory Items Uncommanded Feather" "Confirm L/R Power Lever Idle"
"Confirmed" "Auto Feather Off"
If Negative Unfeather MI for Engine Shutdown In-flight
12. Memory items for an emergency decent at low speed and high speed (PF ONLY)
EMERGENCY DESCENT – LOW SPEED (FULL FLAPS)
1. CABIN SECURE
2. ATC/COMPANY (If applicable) ADVICE
3. POWER LEVERS IDLE
4. PROP LEVERS MAX RPM
5. FLAPS Select full flaps (37.5°) once Vfe is reached
6. AIRSPEED MAINTAIN 90 KIAS on 300 and 85 KIAS on 200 (Approximately 22° nose down pitch)
7. Begin recovery 500 feet above desired altitude.
EMERGENCY DESCENT – HIGH SPEED (ZERO FLAP)

1. CABIN SECURE
2. ATC/COMPANY (If applicable) ADVICE
3. FLAPS UP
4. POWER LEVERS IDLE
5. PROP LEVERS MAX RPM
6. AIRSPEED VMO (DO NOT EXCEED VMO) (Approximately 12° nose down pitch)
7. Begin recovery 500 - 1000 feet above desired altitude.
8. Consider Emergency Landing Checklist on OT-4 and Emergency Evacuation Procedure on OT-5 (if applicable) on
both Emergency descent.
13. What are the limitations in regards to reset of a circuit breaker or fuse? (OOM-B 3.1.1.4)
a) If a failed system is required for the completion of the flight, an attempt may be made to return it to
service. If it is not required, the system should remain out of service.
b) Unless otherwise indicated in the SOP’s, QRH, or POH, an essential system circuit breaker that has
opened may be reset a maximum of 1 time to attempt to return a needed item to service. The reset
should not be attempted until after a cool down period of 1 minute and if the circuit breaker opens a
second time, no attempt should be made to reset it.
c) DO NOT reset power distribution circuit breakers.
 CB reset means to pull out (open) the CB, wait approximately 2 seconds, then push in (close0 THE CB. If the
CB is found to be popped out, reset means to push in (close) the CB.
 “PULL” a CB means to pull it out (open it), and to leave it pulled out.
 “CHECK” a CB means to observe and note the state of the CB only, and not to take any action.
14. What would you consider a pilot to be incapacitated and the procedure? (OM-B 3.2 & OM-A 8.3.14.2)
A pilot is deemed to be incapacitated should one or both of the following occur:
1. The pilot does not respond intelligently to 2 radio, intercom, or directly spoken communications; and/or
2. The pilot does not respond to a single verbal challenge and a significant deviation from a standard flight
profile has occurred.
Should a pilot advise of an incapacitating condition or behave as incapacitated, the following procedures and
considerations apply.
 The other pilot shall assume control immediately and ensure a safe condition of flight.
 Call cabin crew to the flight deck and utilize for any assistance that may be required.
 With cabin crew assistance, the incapacitated pilot’s shoulder harness should be locked and the seat moved
fully back. Any other actions should be taken that reduce the likelihood that the incapacitated pilot could
adversely affect the control of the aircraft.
 Advice ATC and Company. Make advanced arrangements for medical care and handling of the incapacitated
pilot.
 Transponder – 7700, Mode A and Mode C
 The remaining pilot should fly the aircraft from their normal seating position: do not change seats unless
there is a requirement to access certain aircraft controls.
 The aircraft should be landed at the nearest suitable aerodrome where appropriate medical assistance is
available. No specific landing limitations or procedures apply.
NOTE: Regardless of which pilot was assigned as PIC at the beginning of the flight, after a pilot incapacitation
incident, the remaining pilot shall be ”in command” for the remainder of the flight.
15. What’s the difference between power lever “retard” and “Idle” and why is retard used in all engine failures?
Retard is power lever 1 inch ahead of IDLE position. (10 to 12 Lbs of Torque) Because of the blade angle in the retard
position which gives less drag in an engine failure.
16. When can you not initiate a missed approach on OEI? (OM-B 3.6.8)
A Go-Around on floats with OEI must not be attempted at airspeeds below 80 KIAS and must not be attempted with
flaps set more than 20˚. Flaps should remain at 10˚ until landing is assured.
17. In what situation can you land Flapless? (OM-B 3.7.4.2)

A flapless landing may only be performed in an emergency. Landing distance required will be approximately 2.5
times greater than the distance determined by use of Landing Distance Chart (OM-B 4.4.8). Ensure that sufficient
landing distance is available, if possible with smooth but not glassy surface conditions. Perform the approach and
landing directly into wind as much as possible. During a flapless landing, the aircraft demonstrates a tendency to
pitch nose down at touchdown.
18. What are the removable emergency equipment’s on the aircraft? (OM-B 10.1.3)
2x Long Rope, 2x Short Rope, Emergency Anchor (Chains and rope), 2x Float Pump, 3x Flash Light, 2x Infant Jackets,
Life Jacket under each seat, 1x demo life vest, 2x portable fire extinguisher, 2x Infant Loops & Extensions, 1x Crash
Axe and First Aid Kit.
RULES OR AIR & PROCEDURES (OM-A)
1. Explain QNH, QFE & Flight level?

A surface of constant atmospheric pressure which is related to a specific pressure datum, 1013.2 hectopascals (hPa),
and is separated from other such surfaces by specific pressure intervals.
Note 1 – A pressure type altimeter calibrated in accordance with the Standard Atmosphere:
a) When set to a QNH altimeter setting, it will indicate altitude;

b) When set to a QFE altimeter setting, it will indicate height above the QFE reference datum;
c) When set to a pressure of 1013.2 hPa, it will indicate flight levels.
2. What is the minimum VFR visibility? (OM-A 12.2.1 & 8.1.3.2)

Except when a clearance is obtained from an air traffic control unit, VFR flights shall not take off or land at an
aerodrome within a control zone, or enter the aerodrome traffic zone or traffic pattern:
a) When the ceiling is less than 450 m (1500 ft); or
b) When the ground visibility is less than 5 km.
VFR flights between sunset and sunrise, or such other period between sunset and sunrise as may be prescribed by
the Director, shall be operated in accordance with the conditions prescribed by the Director.
3. When can you not operate VFR flights? (OM-A 12.2.1)

Unless authorized by the Director, VFR flights shall not be operated:
a) At night;
b) Above FL 200;
c) At transonic or supersonic speeds
4. What are the Minimum VFR altitudes? (OM-A 12.2.1 & 12.4.2 & 8.1.1.1)
Except when necessary for take-off or landing, or except by permission from the Director, a VFR flight shall not be
flown:
a) Over the congested areas of cities, towns or
settlements or over an open-air assembly of
persons at a height less than 300 m (1000 ft)
above the highest obstacle within a radius of 600
m (2000 ft) from the aircraft;
b) Elsewhere than as specified above, at a height
less than 150 m (500 ft) above the ground or
water.
5. Write down the VFR minimum visibilities &

distances from the cloud? (OM-A 12.2.1 &
8.1.4.1)
Except when operating as a Special VFR flight,
VFR flights shall be conducted so that the
aircraft is flown in conditions of visibility and
distance from clouds equal to, or greater than
those specified in the table below. In all cases
such flight shall be conducted clear of cloud and
in sight of the surface.
6. VFR cruising levels? (OM-A 12.2.2)
7. What are the conditions for an approval for a Special VFR (SVFR) from Male’AACC? (OM-A 12.2.3 & 8.1.4.2)
 SVFR flights may commence when the visibility is not less than 3 km.
 SVFR flights may be conducted when visibility is not less than 1.5 km.
 The aircraft is radio and VOR / DME or GPS equipped.
 When traffic conditions permit.
8. What are the prohibited and restricted areas? (OM-A 12.4.6 & VFR Route Manual)
Unless with prior permission from CAA, VFR aircraft shall not over-fly the island of Male’, Hulhumale’, Funadhoo,
Dhoonidhoo, Aarah, Villingili & Girifushi.
9. Explain the Right of way operations? (OM-A 12.5.6)

Converging
An aircraft which has another aircraft or a vessel on its right shall give way so as to keep well clear. Except as follows:
 Power-driven aircraft shall give way to airships, gliders, and balloons.
 Airships shall give way to gliders and balloons.
 Gliders shall give way to balloons.
 Power-driven aircraft shall give way to aircraft which are seen to be towing other aircraft or objects.
Approaching head-on
An aircraft approaching another aircraft or a vessel head-on or approximately so, shall alter its heading to the right
to keep well clear.
Overtaking
An aircraft that is being overtaken has the right of way and the overtaking aircraft shall keep out of the way of the
other aircraft by altering its heading to the right.
Landing and taking off.
Aircraft landing on or taking off from the water shall, in so far as practicable, keep well clear of all vessels and avoid
impeding their navigation. Aircraft at the higher level shall give way to aircraft at the lower level.
10. Regulations in regards to alcohol? (OM-A 6.1.3)

 Crew member shall not consume alcohol of any nature less than 10 hours prior to the specified reporting time
for flight duty or the commencement of standby duty.
 Should not commence an FDP with a blood alcohol level in excess of 0.2 promille.
 Should not consume alcohol during an FDP or when on standby duty
11. Guidelines to fly after Scuba Diving? (OM-A 6.1.5)

 Crewmembers engaged unpressurized aircraft operations, will not be restricted from diving activities prior to
flying duties. However, it is recommended that flight altitudes be restricted to 1000ft or below when flying
immediately after diving.
 Crewmembers engaged in pressurized aircraft operations or in commercial or decompression diving must allow
a minimum period of 24 hours after diving before commencing flight duty.
12. What are the documents required by the flight crew? (OM-A 2.1.2.3)
Pilot’s license, Class 1 Medical Assessment, National ID card, Company ID card and Airport Security Pass.
13. What are the light gun signals & how do
you acknowledge? (OM-A 12.12.4)
Acknowledgement by an aircraft
When in flight: By rocking the aircraft’s
wings;
(Note: This signal should not be expected on
the base and final legs of the approach) Or,
during darkness, by flashing on and off twice
the aircraft’s landing lights or, if not so
equipped, by switching on and off twice its
navigation lights.
When on the ground: By moving the aircraft’s
ailerons or rudder; Or, during darkness, By
flashing on and off twice the aircraft’s landing
lights or, if not so equipped, by switching on
and off twice its navigation lights.
14. What is the guideline regarding Pregnancy with crew and passengers? (OM-A 6.1.10)
If the aviation medical examination indicates a completely normal pregnancy, the crewmember will be assessed as
fit until the end of the 26thweek of pregnancy. Following the 26th week, licence privileges may be resumed upon
satisfactory confirmation of full recovery following birth or termination of the pregnancy. No specific regulations for
passengers (PIC discretion).
15. Write down the flight and duty hour limitations for the day VFR floats? (OM-A 7.1.7.1 & 7.1.7.2)
16. Define the Water Aerodrome Categories? (OM-A 8.1.2.3)

 Category A: least demanding, poses no performance limitation for TO / LDG and no significant obstacle
considerations.
 Category B: Licensed & non-licensed aerodromes not included in the normal TMA route structure, special
consideration for passenger transfers (beaching or mooring) and Obstructions…etc.
 Category C: additional considerations to a CAT-B aerodrome, Non-standard approach patters, unusual local
weather or water conditions, performance limitations or any other relevant considerations like mandatory over-
fly inspections, water activities, obstructions, physical layout, noise abatement…etc.
17. DHC-6 twin otters are under which performance class? (OM-A 8.1.2.5)
Class A: Multi-engine turbojet powered aircraft and multi-engine turbo propeller powered aircraft with a maximum
approved passenger seating configuration, of more than 9, or a maximum take-off mass exceeding 5700 Kg.
18. How do you determine if you have sufficient oil? (OM-A 8.1.7)
Even though oil checking and topping procedures is the responsibility of the maintenance department, it still
remains the ultimate responsibility of the PIC to ensure that the maintenance personnel have accomplished this task
by referring to the aircraft technical log and that oil supplies are sufficient for a flight.
19. What are the standard flight crew & passenger mass values? (OM-A 8.1.8.6)
20. What is the standard carryon baggage size and weight allowed per person? (OM-A 8.2.2.2)
Only one handbag less than 5 kg and smaller than 33x20x28 cm is allowed as carryon baggage per person.
21. As a general guideline what is the maximum allowable weight per bag? (OM-A 8.2.2.2)
The Company maintains a general guideline of maximum 70 lbs (32 kg) for a single bag. If a bag is weighing more
than 70 lbs, the crew or the company should employ extra assistance in the form of ground or outstation personnel
to assist with loading or off-load. When possible, the GOM will arrange ahead of time additional assistance for the
handling of heavy bags.
22. Define Off-block and On-Block? (OM-A 8.1.10.2)

OFF BLOCK: Time the heel rope is untied, or parking brake is released (wheels), marking the commencement of the
flight.
ON BLOCK: The time the heel rope is tied, to the dock / floating platform (floats) or the parking brake is set (wheels)
after the completion of the flight.
23. What is the validity period of daily inspection from the maintenance department on the aircrafts? (OM-A
8.1.11.4)
Daily Inspections are to be completed and certified by Aircraft Maintenance Department at the end of each day’s
flying. When the aircraft does night shutdowns away from base, the validity of a Daily Inspection should not exceed
48 hrs, provided a Pre-flight inspection has been carried out.
24. What is the list of documents to be carried on board? (OM-A 8.1.12.1)

 Certificate of Registration
 Certificate of Airworthiness
 Airworthiness Review Certificate
 Noise Certificate
 Air Operator Certificate (AOC)
 Insurance Certificate
 Aircraft Radio License (if applicable)
 Valid Crew licenses with appropriate ratings (TMA may retain crewmember licenses on file for DAY VFR float
operations)
 Extra documents (refer OM-A 8.1.12.2 & 8.1.12.3)
25. Explain sterile flight deck? (OM-A 8.3.10.4)

Sterile cockpit means there should be no conversation other than that required for assigned work or for the
operation of the aircraft, including non-operational radio transmissions during the below mentioned periods.
1. Completion of the “Before Take-off” Check until top of climb or 1000 ft AGL, whichever occurs first.
2. From top of descent, or descending through 1000 ft AGL, whichever occurs last; until the aircraft has left the
landing area at the completion of the flight.
3. During the handling of any abnormal situation
26. How do you calculate fuel for a trip from MLE to KUR? (OM-A 8.1.7.3 / OM-B 5.2.1)
For all domestic VFR floatplane operations, the PIC shall ensure that the pre-flight calculation of usable fuel required
for the flight includes:
Route MLE – KUR

Distance 82 nm
Duration (82nm/135 kts) x 60
36 mins
+2 mins Additional 2 min for climb
38 mins
Taxi Fuel 30 Lbs Departure & Arrival
Trip Fuel 38 min x 10 lbs/min
380 lbs + 30 lbs (taxi fuel)
410 lbs
Reserve 50 lbs Contingency Fuel
300 lbs VFR min reserve
350 lbs
Extra fuel 0 lbs PIC Discretion
TOTAL 760 lbs
27. What is contingency fuel? (OM-A 8.1.7.2)

An amount of fuel to fly for 5 minutes at holding speed at 1500 ft (450 m), above the destination aerodrome in
standard conditions.
28. When should the PIC dip the fuel tanks and what is the procedure? (OM-A 8.1.7.4)
Prior to the first fight of the day, the PIC shall dip the fuel tanks using the approved dipstick. All accuracies and
inaccuracies will be recorded on the fuel log sheet and must allow at least 12 hours duration between the last flight
and the next fuel tank dip in order to get an accurate fuel dip reading. Should start with the FWD tank first.
29. What are the standard fuel density values for JET-A1 at ISA+15? (OM-A 8.1.8.3)
30. When can you not refuel an aircraft? (OM-A 8.2)

 Refuelling and/or defueling inside a building is prohibited with the exception of jetty M1 located under cover of
the MLE hanger. (OM-A 8.2.1.3)
 Fuelling must be interrupted when Fuel spill occurs.
 If there is a thunderstorm approaching.
 Fuelling with an engine running. (OM-A 8.2.1.4)
 Fuelling with passengers on board. (OM-A 8.2.1.5)
 Fuelling with an APU/GPU in operation (OM-A 8.2.1.8) when an APU is connected to the aircraft however not
operating, at least one crewmember must be present at the aircraft during refuelling procedures.
31. What are the procedures to follow in an event of fuel spillage? (OM-A 8.2.1.6)
1. The moment there is spillage, refuelling ceases immediately.
2. All ground equipment is immediately shutdown (fuel pump).
3. The person refuelling notifies the PIC, Co-Pilot or Flight Dispatch
4. When in MLE, the Flight Dispatcher and or the PIC will immediately notify the control tower that a spillage has
occurred. The control tower automatically notifies the MLE airport fire and rescue unit. The airport fire and
rescue unit will then dictate the procedure to be followed.
5. When at an outstation lacking a control tower and fire and rescue control unit the PIC will assume complete
charge and be responsible to ensure adequate fire prevention measures are carried out.
6. The PIC must submit a detailed occurrence report to the Company Safety Manager.
32. State the conditions for multiple occupancy of a seat by 1 adult and by 1 infant? (OM-A 8.2.2.1 A & 8.2.2.11)
Multiple occupancy of a seat by 1 adult and by 1 infant is permitted provided the adult is above 16 years of age, not
disabled and is not seated adjacent to an emergency exit and that the infant is held securely in the adult’s arms for
take-off and landing or an infant loop belt supplementary to the adults safety belt harness is used.
A maximum of 2 infants will be permitted per flight. For transportation of more than 2 infants, the required number
of infant life vests must be placed on board and prior approval must be obtained from the FOM.
Two years of age or older must be allocated a separate seat.
33. State the rule for Unacceptable passengers? (OM-A 8.2.2.1 E, F & G / 8.2.3)
As a rule, the following passengers will not be accepted for transportation:
1. Persons whose medical condition, behaviour or type of nursing care might be hazardous or offensive to other
passengers.
2. Persons with such a degree of illness that the trip is likely to result in complications or death (this is not
applicable to MEDIVAC flights provided a trained medical doctor or nurse is on board the aircraft for that flight).
3. Persons requiring individual nursing or care during flight and who are not accompanied by a suitable attendant.
4. Cases requiring information about the person's medical condition (diagnosis) where the physician or the patient
refuses to divulge such information.
5. Carriage of Inadmissible passengers, Deportees or Persons in custody shall not be carried on board company
aircraft unless the aircraft is chartered for the purpose. The passenger(s) must be accompanied by police or
security personnel and the PIC must be satisfied that these passenger(s) can be restrained if required.
6. No person is permitted to enter or be on board a company aircraft when under the influence of alcohol or drugs
to the extent that the safety of the aircraft or its occupants is likely to be endangered.
34. With what categories of incapacitated passenger should the PIC be informed prior to the trip? (OM-A 8.2.2.1)
1. Incapacitated passengers or groups, who are immobile and unable to walk.
2. Sick passengers, who are already known to be sick prior to departure.
3. Passenger with reduced mobility.
35. Can a passenger use a child restraint system on the seat? (OM-A 8.2.2.4 D)
Child restraint systems such as prams, seats etc will normally be accepted as part of normal checked baggage.
However any such devise carried in the cabin shall be taken from the passenger just prior to boarding and stowed in
the rear baggage compartment until reaching the destination.
36. What is the procedure if an in-flight fuel check identifies the expected remaining fuel on arrival at the
destination is less than the required fuel? (OM-A 8.3.7.2)
If an in-flight fuel check identifies the expected remaining fuel on arrival at the destination is less than the required
fuel, the PIC must decide to proceed to the destination aerodrome to or divert so as not to land with less than final
reserve fuel. When considering the course of action the PIC must take into account existing traffic and the
operational conditions prevailing en-route, at the destination aerodrome and any alternate aerodromes.
37. Under what conditions should

oxygen be provided and used?
(OM-A 8.8.1)
Non-pressurized aircraft
conducting domestic commercial
air transport flights are not
permitted to plan en-route flight
altitudes above pressure altitudes
of 10,000 ft unless sufficient
supplemental oxygen is available
on board for crewmembers and
passengers.
38. What rules should be followed when avoiding Vortices? (OM-A 8.3.9)
To avoid vortices the following rules can be taken into account:
1. When preparing for take-off, note the rotation point of the preceding aircraft and if possible plan an earlier
rotation to remain above the preceding aircraft’s wake. If this cannot be accomplished consider delaying the
take-off depending on the size of the preceding aircraft and wind direction.
2. During approach, arrange the descent path to be above the path of the preceding aircraft a fly the approach
slightly above the normal approach path.
3. Float aircraft crossing the approach or departure path of runway 18 / 36 should plan to cross the extended
centre line above the arrival or departure path of heavy aircraft traffic. Alternatively, tracking direct to the
button of the runway and to cross overhead at or above 500 ft will normally ensure being above any wake
turbulence produced by a recently departed or landing heavy aircraft.
4. For landing, plan to touchdown after the touchdown point of the preceding aircraft, provided the runway length
permits such a manoeuvre.
The following NON-RADAR separation minimum must be applied:

Departing Aircraft:
The minimum spacing listed below is to be applied between successive aircraft, for both IFR and VFR flights.
Following aircraft departing from an intermediate take-off point:
 LIGHT or MED aircraft follows a HEAVY aircraft: 3 min
 LIGHT aircraft follows a MEDIUM aircraft:3 min
The above departure separation applies to the following conditions:
1. Aircraft using the same runway.
2. Aircraft using opposite runway directions.
3. Aircraft using parallel runways less than 2,500 ft apart (e.g. Runway 18 / 36 and the North Left or South Right
water runways).
4. Aircraft using parallel runways more than 2,500 ft apart if the projected flight path of the second aircraft will
cross or converge with the flight path of the first aircraft at the same altitude or below (e.g. Departure path from
South Left water runway converges with the centre line of Rwy 18).
5. Aircraft using converging runways (e.g. Departures from Westbound water runway or arrivals to the eastbound
water runway must cross Rwy 18 / 36).
39. When can a crew seat be occupied other than flight crew? (OM-A 8.3.13 / 8.7.2.3)
It is strictly forbidden under any circumstances, to allow a passenger to occupy a flight crewmembers seat during
flight or to manipulate any of the flight controls of an aircraft.
 TMA maintenance engineers may occupy the right hand pilot’s seat during selected maintenance check flights.
With approval from the FOM and the aircraft PIC, a professional photographer or cinematographer may occupy the
right hand pilot’s seat for the purpose of taking pictures out the right hand flight compartment window under the
following conditions:
1. PIC and Co-Pilot shall be at the controls for take-off and landing.
2. The aircraft shall not be flown below 500 ft AGL.
3. Co-Pilot shall be seated in the first row centre seat and available immediately if needed and seated in the first
row centre seat.
4. The photographer shall be briefed on the safety precautions before take-off.
5. No fare paying passengers should be carried on such flights.
6. All relevant ATS provisions must be complied with.
7. Only professional photographers may occupy the right hand pilot’s seat.
8. Records of such persons occupying the seat shall be kept for 1 year.
9. Minimum Manoeuvring Speeds of 120 kts - 0° Flaps, 90 kts - 10° Flaps, 80 kts - 20° Flaps. In no case shall
manoeuvring speed be below 80 kts and flap setting more than 20°.
10. Maximum angle of bank 30°.
DHC-6 SYSTEMS
AIR FRAME AND FLIGHT CONTROLS
1. The Flaps installed on the Otter are called

and how do they operate?
Full Span Double Slotted Fowler Flaps.
Series of slots add energy to the wing’s boundary

layer, delays airflow separation, and produces
less drag initially and creating more lift.
The flaps are hydraulically actuated by an

actuator in the cabin roof through a system of push-pull rods,
levers, and bell cranks. The flap selector is located on the
overhead console. Moving the selector lever actuates a cable
linkage to position a selector valve thus directing aircraft system
hydraulic pressure to the flap actuator piston. As the flaps
move, a follow-up cable driven by the flap actuating mechanism
repositions the selector valve to a null position. This stops the
flaps at the desired angular point.
Restrictors in the hydraulic lines to the flap actuator limit the

rate of fluid flow, thereby limiting flap extension and retraction
speeds. Flaps extend more rapidly than they retract. This is
deliberate to minimize the subsidence and out-of-trim control
forces that would occur if flaps were allowed to rapidly retract
during a go-around.
2. What does geared servo tabs do?

It deflects in the Opposite Direction of the Control Surface
movement, providing aero-dynamic assistance to lessen the
force required to move the Control surfaces. (Located on both
inside of Aileron and bottom of Rudder)
3. What does a Trim Tab do?

It is manually set to a Required Deflection to Remove Control Pressure. (Located Left Aileron, Left Elevator and Top
of rudder) Cable, drum and screw-jacks are used to transmit trim inputs to the elevator and rudder. An electric
motor installed inside the left aileron is used to actuate the trim.
4. What is the purpose of the Flap-Elevator Inter-Connect Tab?

Flap Elevator Interconnect tab is located on the trailing edge of the right elevator and provides for automatic
adjustment to lessen the Pitch-up Moment of the Aircraft when Flaps are extended, which is more effective after 10˚
flaps.
5. What’s the use of Wing fence?

Wing fence direct the span wise air flow along the wing towards the trailing edge making the aileron more effective
in slow speeds.
6. How many Stall Bars need to be installed on the Otter if floats are installed and how do they help?
Three stall bars; one on the left wing and two on the right wing. The metal stall bar disrupts airflow over a small area
of the wing at high angles of attack. This disruption causes a noticeable buffet on the elevator directly behind it. The
buffet can be felt on the control column, providing a clear warning to the crew of the impending stall, thus giving
aileron control effectiveness to recover before the wing stalls. Two stall bars are installed on the right wing to make
both wings to stall evenly.
7. What is the purpose of the Stall Vane?

Two lift detecting vanes are mounted on the leading edge of the left wing. The vanes are electrical switches that,
when raised, provide power to the STALL light and horn. The lower vane is always functional. The upper vane is
active through a micro-switch in the flap actuator when the flaps are extended beyond 12˚. The system is designed
to provide a stall warning between 4 and 9 knots above the stall speed. To delay the actuation of the Upper Stall
Vane until greater than 12 degrees of flap are extended
8. What do the Elevator and Rudder gap/viper seals do?

Gap Seals are designed to enhance performances during low speed conditions and large angles of control deflection
by preventing air leakage. Damaged or missing gap seals will decrease the effectiveness of the flight control and
usually result in non-standard control feel.
9. What is the use of Vortex Generators?

Vortex Generators enhance rudder and elevator effectiveness at low airspeeds. Creating mini wingtip vortices, which
spiral through the boundary layer and free-stream airflow. These vortices mix the high-energy free-stream air into
the lower energy boundary layer, allowing the airflow in the boundary layer to withstand the adverse pressure
gradient longer.
10. Explain bonding straps and static wicks use?

Bonding straps are provided on all flight surface hinge locations to enhance the electrical grounding qualities of the
aircraft structure. Proper grounding will minimize the potential damage caused at hinge locations by a lighting strike.
Static wicks are provided on all flight control trailing edges to discharge static build up.
11. Why do you require Fin-lets, top and bottom of the horizontal stabilizer with floats?
To enhance lateral stability. Stability about the aircraft’s longitudinal axis, which extends from the nose of the
aircraft to its tail, is called lateral stability. This helps to stabilize the lateral or “rolling effect” when one wing gets
lower than the wing on the opposite side of the aircraft. Design factors that make an aircraft laterally stable are
Dihedral, Keel effect and weight distribution. Laterally stable aircraft are constructed so that the greater portion of
the keel area is above and behind the CG. Thus, when the aircraft slips to one side, the combination of the aircraft’s
weight and the pressure of the airflow against the upper portion of the keel area (both acting about the CG) tends to
roll the aircraft back to wings-level flight. Twin otter’s greater portion of the keel area is below and front of the CG,
due to the length of the floats and the location of their vertical surface area in relation to the CG.
12. What is the use of spring strut and where do you find it?
It’s used to bring the control wheels to the neutral position and they are fitted behind the co-pilot’s control column.
HYDRAULIC SYSTEM
The Twin otter hydraulic system is powered by a 28 VDC motor with a gear type pump (powered by the Left DC bus)
with a back-up hand pump. The system provides pressure for Wing flaps, wheel brakes, nose wheel steering and
wheel ski operations (if installed).
1. What type of hydraulic fluid is used in the

system? Mil-H-5606 (Red in colour)
2. How much fluid does the hydraulic reservoir

contain? Approximately 2/3 of a U.S. gallon.
3. What type of motor is used in the system?

It’s a gear-type pump and a 28VDC motor
mounted on the power package tray. The motor
is powered from the left DC bus and protected by
a 35-apm CB labelled HYD OIL PUMP located on
the main CB panel. The pump operates
intermittently through short pulses of 3 to 5
second.
4. What Component controls the operation of

the hydraulic system? Pressure switch is
responsible for maintaining the hydraulic
pressure within the desired range by controlling a
relay that supplies power to the electric pump.
5. With what pressures do the pressure switch

turns the pump on/off?
To reduce the frequency of the pump operation,
the pump turns off between 1525 and 1625 and
allows the pressure to drop by 150 - 300 psi
before turning on again.
6. Normal operating hydraulic pressure limits on

both pre and post mod aircraft? 1225 - 1625 psi.
7. Which Buss does the hydraulic pump and the pump fail light get its power from and what does the Hyd. CB
warning light give indication of? Left D.C. Buss. Hyd. CB warning light indicated if the CB is not properly engaged.
8. The hydraulic pump circuit breaker has popped in flight is it considered ok to reset it?
No, because the pump may have seized up.
9. Does the pressure switch have any effect on the standby hand pump?
No, it has no effect on hand pump operation.
10. If using the hand pump, is it necessary to pump full system pressure to operate the flaps?
No, and if a leak is suspected, this would lead to further and more rapid loss of the remaining fluid.
11. Could the fluid level be checked in flight and on ground, and if so by what means?
On some aircrafts only. (Dipstick.), Some aircraft use a sight gauge on the fluid reservoir.
12. What precaution would have to be taken prior to adding fluid in flight?
Electric pump would need to be turned off, and left off.
13. What would be an appropriate action if the Hydraulic System was noticed to cycling fairly frequently?
Turn off the electric pump. (Pull CB Out)
14. If the flap selector was set to approx. 20 degrees, and the flap position indicator was indicating some other
number, would pumping the hand pump result in any pressure building up on the pressure gauge, Is this possible
scenario a problem? No, there can be no pressure built up until the selector valve and the actual Flap setting agree.
Not at all, the pressure will start to build when the flap position equal’s the flap selection. (Provided there is fluid in
the system.)
15. Is it necessary to pump up full

system pressure by hand in order to
operate the various systems ( IE. 1300
/1600 PSI.)?
No, flap and steering systems can
selected and pumped as required.
16. If hydraulic pressure is reading

zero and the flaps are selected down
on the ground, will the flaps extend?
Yes, the weight of the flaps will cause
them to fully extend.
17. If direct pumping flaps down in

flight, what indication might you see
on the gauge?
Pressure fluctuating between 0 and
750 psi until the flaps are at the
selected value.
18. What is the hydraulic hand pump

used for? And how many strokes
would it take to build 1500 PSI?
Emergency back-up for the electric
pump and 30 to 40 strokes to build up
to 1500 PSI.
19. What is the use of pressure relief valves and what are the two pressure limits for the two different system
pressure relief valves? In the event of a system fault causing the electric pump to run continuously (ie: pressure
switch failure), a system pressure relief valve permits fluid to circulate in a loop between the electric pump and the
reservoir. And the system relief valve opens above 1750 PSI. and 1950 PSI.
20. If you noticed a little bit of red fluid on the front spreader bar while doing pre-flight, what would you do?
Leak in the hydraulic system (Power package tray), Inform engineers to find the problem.
21. If a passenger complains of a red fluid falling on them during flight, what would
you suspect, what’s your action and why? Suspect a leak in the flap actuator. (QRH)
Shut off the electrical pump, to preserve as much fluid as possible for the hand pump
operation.
22. What is the purpose of the hydraulic accumulators?

Accumulator is a tube with a nitrogen gas pre-charge in one end, hydraulic fluid in the
other end, and a free-floating piston in the middle separating the gas and the fuild. The
pressure of the nitrogen gas is 750 PSI. When hydraulic pressure in the system drops,
as would happen when a hydarulic subsystem such as flap is operated, the gas
pressure acting on the piston forces the fluid out of the accumulator to operate and
when the pump turns on, fluid is forced back into the accumulator working as a
dampner.
23. While flying you notice hydraulic pressure indicating 1750 or 1950, Is it ok? And why is this indicating?
Pressure switch failure and the pressure relief valve is circulating the Hyd. Fluid in a loop between the electric pump
and the reservoir. You can notice this not only from the gauge but also hear the electrical pump running frequently.
Turn off the Hyd. Pump (pull the CB out), cause this could lead to overheating the pump and possible fire. You can
reset the CB when required to land or plan for a flapless landing.
24. What will be the indication of both gauges (cockpit and hydraulic chamber gauge) if the system is working
properly? Same as indicated in the cockpit gauge.
25. If the cockpit gauge is reading zero, what will be the reading on the other gauge?
750 Psi (nitrogen pre charge on the accumulator)
26. What is the purpose of Nitrogen in the cylinder and what if N2 is not there?
It helps as a cushioning when system is working and if N2 is not present could mean a burst of Hyd. Liquid high
pressure could lead to a bursting pipe in the system.
27. Why two figures on the Hyd. Pressure relief valve?

The initial hydraulic system pressure relief valve setting of 1750 psi was increased to 1950 psi by mod 6/1570 (TAB
658/6) at air-craft 511 to accommodate the higher system pressure switch setting of 1575 ± Psi including possible
switch malfunctions or excessive pump pressure build up that may occur in the hydraulic system. Operators
replacing the lower pre mod 6/1570 hydraulic pump system pressure switch with the latest system pressure switch
must install the higher 1950 psi pressure relief valve at the same.
28. What happens if you have a complete hydraulic fluid leak in the system?
If a leak occurs upstream of the brake system the flap and nose wheel steering services will be lost. A check valve
installed on the brake system traps a limited amount of pressure in the brake system accumulator. This trapped fluid
should be sufficient for one strong application of the brakes upon touchdown. If a leak occurs downstream of the
brake system all hydraulic fluid will be lost and no services will be available.
29. Could you use the flaps with a complete fluid loss?
If the flaps were at zero at the point of complete fluid loss, they will remain at zero. If complete fluid loss occurred
after flap extension there is a check valve at the flap control valve that is designed to maintain flap position by
trapping the hydraulic fluid until retraction is selected.
30. What makes the flap

retraction slow and why?
Restrictors in the hydraulic lines
to the flap actuator limit the
rate of fluid flow, thereby
limiting flap extension and
retraction speeds. Flaps extend
more rapidly than they retract.
This is deliberate to minimize
the subsidence and out-of-trim
control forces that would occur
if flaps were allowed to rapidly
retract during go-around.
31. What prevents reserve flow

through the electric motor
pump if the hand pump is
being utilized?
Two check valves are located on
the Hyd. Package. One check
valve prevents reserve flow through the electric motor pump if the hand pump is being utilized. The other on the
package is to make the brake accumulator be a storage device.
FUEL SYSTEM
Fuel is stored in the belly of the
aircraft under the cabin floor.
There are two separate tanks
which are known as the
forward (FWD) tank distributing
to Right Engine and the aft
(AFT) tank to the left Engine.
Each tank has four
interconnected flexible nylon
rubber cells #1 to #4 is Fwd and
#5 to #8 is Aft, #1 & #7 being
the fuel filler cells to both tanks
and #4 and #5 being the
collector cells. Each collector
cell contains two boost pumps,
a low level float switch, a quick
drain outlet, a fuel capacitance
probe, a level control valve, and
a sump drain. One fuel
capacitance probe is installed
inside each feeder cell. There
will be a minimum of four fuel
drains on the belly of the aircraft, one in each collector cell and one at the lowest part of each fuel transfer manifold.
1. How does Fuel move from the Filler Cell to the other Cells when fuelling? Via the interconnecting Fuel Manifold
Plumbing.
2. How many vents are located in each fuel cell and the airframe? What is the use of this?
There two vents in each cell, one on each side. (top left and top right) The left and right sets of vents are connected
to a vent fitting under each wing, outboard of the wing struts. The vent outlet is designed to maintain a very slight
positive pressure in each cell to prevent collapse of the flexible tanks that would occur if a negative pressure existed.
3. How are the Fuel Vents protected from icing over and lightning?
Each vent opening is provided with a lightning protection tunnel around the vent and a wooden bullet shaped fitting
mounted forward of the vent opening to prevent ice formation on the vent.
4. How many fuel drains are installed on the belly of the twin otter?
A minimum of 4 (1 in each collector cell and 1 at the lowest part of each fuel transfer manifold) to provide a method
to check for water contamination. There is also one on each nacelle fuel filter.
5. Is there a fuel return line to the tanks from the engine? Fuel in excess of engine requirements is returned to the
aft tank only.
6. When can you use the fuel dipstick for a quantity check? (OM-B 2.2.6.2)
An accurate dip of the fuel tanks may not be obtainable until the fuel in the tank has had time to equalize in each
fuel tank cell. This may take 12 hours from the time the boost pumps were last operated and 15 minutes following
refuelling.
7. What is the fuel capacity of the FWD and AFT fuel tanks? FWD 1235 lbs & AFT 1231 lbs.
8. Normally, a low fuel light would indicate how many lbs of fuel remaining?
75 lbs in the forward tank and or 110 lbs remaining in the aft tank.
9. What are the advantages of having collector cells?
a) Changes to aircraft CG are minimized because the two collector cells are located in the centre of the aircraft.
b) The possibility of uncovering the boost pump intake during turbulence of extreme nose up or nose down attitudes
is minimized since this cell is normally always full.
10. When you use fuel from the tank where does the CG move and why?
CG moves aft and this is because, more of the fuel cells are FWD of the CG and as fuel gets used the weight moves
AFT of the aircraft. (Something to consider if you get an AFT CG index while using the wheel)
11. Where is the fuel emergency shutoff valve located and do they require
electricity?
A fuel emergency shutoff valve is motor operated gate type valve with bi-
directional thermal relief, located behind each engine nacelle in the lower aft face
of the rear firewall. Two switches on the fire control panel left in normal
throughout normal operation. Switches powered from the Left and Right DC bus
through 5 amp CB labelled FUEL SOV L & R on the main CB panel. DC power must
be available for the shutoff valves to function.
12. Which two Cells have no flapper valve installed in the bottom and why? Cells number One and Seven. To
facilitate rapid re-fuelling of the aircraft.
13. Why do the Collector Cell Flapper Valves, not have a hole in them? To prevent the rapid return of the Fuel to
the other Cells. The Collector Cell must remain nearly full to help prevent fuel starvation in normal flight.
14. How does the collector cell indicate that it is full?
When the collector cell is full, a level control valve in the collector cell ensures that no more fuel will enter the
collector cell through the flapper valve.
15. What is the primary and secondary function of boost pump?

Primary is to boost relatively low pressure fuel (22psi, 450pph) to the engine driven high pressure pump and
secondary is to transfer fuel from the feeder cells to its respective collector cells.
16. What equipment is located in the collector cell?

a) 2x Boost pump
b) A low level float switch
c) A fuel capacitance probe
d) A level control valve
e) A quick drain outlet
f) A Sump drain
17. How are the Boost Pumps cooled? They are Cooled and Lubricated by Fuel
only.
18. What is the normal Fuel Pressure provided by the Main Fuel tank Boost pumps? Approximately 22 PSI.
19. How is the boost pump caution lights controlled?

Each caution light is controlled and energized by a pressure switch in the base of the corresponding boost pump and
if the fuel pressure output of the pump falls below 2 to 3 psi, the respective caution light will illuminate.
20. Why is the #2 boost pump caution lights not illuminated in normal flight, when the #1 boost pumps are
operating?
Although there is no pressure present at the #2 boost pump pressure switches, the caution lights for the #2 boost
pumps will extinguish when the pressure output is sensed at the #1 boost pump. The lights are inhibited so they do
not distract the crew during flight.
21. What type of fuel quantity indicating system does the twin otter use, and what unit of measurement does this
system use?
A capacitance type fuel quantity indicating system provides an accurate indication of fuel quantity in the FWD and
AFT fuel tanks. Fuel quantity in lbs. FWD 1235 lbs & AFT 1231 lbs.
22. What does the fuel quantity gauge push button test actually test?
The test only examines the calibration of the indicators (the zero point of the dials themselves) and does not test the
function of calibration of the fuel quantity probes.
23. How is fuel transferred from the feeder cells to the collector cell?
Fuel is transferred from the end cells of each tank (#1 cell, and #8 cell) to the collector cell via an ejector valve, the
venturi effect from the ejector valve draws fuel from the feeder cells into the collector cells via the fuel transfer
manifold.
24 The book says that each pump will produce approx. 450 LBS. of Fuel per hour. Explain how one pump will keep
both engines running at max power?
A serviceable pump will produce 450 lbs/hr against a head of 22 PSI. If only one pump is providing fuel for both
engines, the head of pressure is reduced to almost zero, allowing the pump to provide a greater volume of fuel.
(Approx. 950 lbs per hour, The Fuel pressure will be greatly reduced)
25. What type of electrical power do the fuel quantity gauges use? What happens if electrical power is lost?
The gauges are powered from the 115 VAC bus. If the AC power is lost, the needles will continue indicating the
amount they indicated at the time of AC power loss (AC lies & DC dies)
26. What type of electrical do the fuel flow indicators use? 26 VAC
27. How can you test the fuel pump low pressure switch to ensure it is working?
When completing pre-flight, it is important to check that all 4 boost pump caution lights are illuminated when the
boost pumps are turned off, as this is the only functional check that ensure the respective pressure switch will detect
a low pressure condition.
28. How does the automatic electrical changeover system work?

If the pressure output of the #1 boost pump falls below 2-3 psi, the caution light of that pump illuminates and the #2
boost pump on the same side is automatically energized?
29. Give a brief description of the cross-feed valve?

Two position DC electric valve that permits fuel from one tank to
be fed to both tanks. Under normal operations this valve is close.
It is only open for fuel balancing purposes or abnormal
conditions.
30. What happens when the fuel selector switch is moved to

“BOTH ON FWD” position?
a) Cross-feed valve opens. b) #2 boost pump from the FWD tanks
turns on c) #1 boost pump from the AFT tank turns off. This
creates a pressure output from the FWD tank only.
31. You have been transferred to a second or 3rd airplane during the day. You note 250 lbs, of fuel per tank
remaining. You fuel up for the trip, After 20 minutes of flight you note the fuel level is dropping in one tank much
faster than the other tank. Is there a potential problem and if so, what might it be and how would you handle?
Yes, the Cross Feed valve may be failed in the open position. Can use the cross feed valve to select the fuller tank
periodically, to keep the fuel balanced. The pump that has the higher pressure will provide the fuel. The selector
knob via the auto change over system will turn off the non-desired pumps as long as cross Feed is selected. And the
#2 standby pump is not selected on!
32. Normally, a low fuel light would indicate how many lbs of fuel remaining? 75lbs in the FWD & 110lbs in the AFT
33. What might be another problem that could be indicated by a low level light and how would you verify this
problem?
It might be a failed Fuel Transfer pump. (Ejector pump clogged), By checking the Fuel Level remaining on the gauge,
checking the opposite gauge and the time the engines have been running.
34. What conditions could cause the fuel low level light to illuminate when approximately 330lbs of fuel remain in
the fuel tank?
a) Ejector valve becomes blocked.
b) Level control valve fails
c) Boost pump supply failure
35. What is the reason you get fuel AFT low level light
in the first flight of the day on pre-flight with 400 Lbs
of fuel on each tank?
Due to aircraft angle while parked, overnight most of
the fuel moves to the very last cell #8 creating the low
level float switch in the collector cell to detect low fuel.
Activating the boost pumps will transfer the fuel back
to the collector cell, extinguishing the caution light.
36. What might be a possible result of failing to pull

the circuit breaker on a failed Boost pump as per the
emergency check list for a failed pump? It is possible to overheat a seized pump resulting in a fuel tank fire.
37. Why do you pull the circuit break for a boost pump 1 failure and why not switch the boost pump off?
Because switching off deactivates the automatic switch over system.
38. What could be the possible problems if you have illumination of two boost pumps in the same tank?
a) Failure of the #1 boost pump along with failure of the automatic changeover system.
b) Double boost pump failure.
39. What indications would you receive if you have a simultaneous failure of the #1 boost pump and also a failure
of the automatic electric changeover system? And how would you deal with this?
#2 boost pump would not be automatically activated. Both #1 & #2 boost pump caution lights would be activated.
Call for QRH and turn #2 boost pump switch “on”.
40. What are the two conditions where the standby boost pump switch may be used?
a) #1 boost pump failure and simultaneous failure of the automatic change over system.
b) #1 boost pump failure and simultaneous failure of the #1 pressure switch.
41. What could result from a simultaneous failure of the #1 boost pump and #1 boost pump pressure switch?
There would be no automatic change over to the number 2 boost pump because there would be no means of
detecting that the #1 pump had failed, in this case the engine would be running with no boosted fuel pressure while
none of the caution lights would be illuminated, (would be using the high pressure engine driven pump) and a
possibility of a flameout condition if flying above 8000ft due to the high pressure pump cavitating.
This could be detected during the engine shutdown checklist following the flameout. When the FWD BOOST or AFT
BOOST switch is moved to the OFF position normally the respective number 1 and 2 boost pump caution lights
illuminate. In this case, because the pressure switch controls the caution lights, when the switch is selected OFF, the
caution lights would not illuminate. If this happened it would be possible to restart the engine either by selecting the
STBY BOOST PUMP EMER switch for the affected tank ON, or by switching the fuel selector so that both engines are
fed from the other (non-affected) tank.
WING TANK
42. What is the normal

pressure for the optional wing
tank Boost pumps? Normally
23 to 24 PSI.
43. Why is this pressure

higher than the main tank
pumps? To ensure that fuel is
used from the wing tanks
when they are selected. (The
pump that has the higher
pressure will deliver the fuel
to the engine).
44. What is supposed to ensure that the wing tanks are not overfilled, when refuelling them from the belly tanks?
The Fuel Level Control Valve Located in each wing tank.
45. Why may we not transfer Fuel to the wing tanks in flight? The possibility of the Fuel Level Control Valve failing
and allowing Fuel to be transferred overboard unnoticed by the flight crew.
46. Why are the main boost pumps left “on” when using fuel from the wing
tanks?
To prevent the possibility of a Low fuel pressure flame-out when the wing tanks
are emptied.
ELECTRICAL SYSTEM
The electrical system is a 28.5 VDC single wire installation using the airframe as the ground, with primary DC power
created by two starter generators which have a max. rated output of 200 amps. A 24 VDC, 48 amp hour lead acid
battery is provided for back-up power and engine starts. Electrical power is distributed by two main buses (Left &
Right), A hot battery bus provides power at all times for boarding and baggage area light. AC is generated by two
inverters which are powered by the DC buses.
1. Explain starter generator and its function?

A 200 amp starter generator is mounted on the upper rear
face of the engine accessory gear case. Starter generator is
cooled by air drawn from the engine intake area forward of
the engine rear fire seal, cooling air hose is routed and
clamped to a duct assembly on the rear of the starter
generator. Each generator has a nominal regulated output
of 28.5 Volts, at 200 amps to supply the aircraft electrical
system.
The engine accessory gearbox drives each starter generator.
With both generators online and operating as separate
systems (BISS TIE switch open), Left generator powers the L
DC buss, battery and charges the battery, Right generator
power the R DC buss. With the bus-tie switch closed
(normal position), the generators are connected in parallel; thus, if the remaining online generator fails, one
generator supplies all buses.
The generator is provided with several types of protection. A voltage regulator regulates generator output. Reverse
current and under-voltage protection are provided by the reverse current relay, Over-voltage protection is by an
overvoltage relay. The Reverse-current circuit breaker or current limiters ensure the generator does not give too
much power to the battery.
2. What kind of battery do we have in our twin otter?24 VDC, 48 amp hr lead acid battery.
3. Where is the generator control box located, and what does it contain?
Located in the cabin roof on the left hand side of the fuselage just above row 3, contains: Reverse Current Relays,
Bus tie relay, Reverse current circuit breaker or Current limiters and possibly over voltage relays.
4. How is the each started generator connected to its respective buss? Through a reverse current relay (RCR)
5. What’s the purpose of the reverse-current relay?
The purpose of the reverse-current relay is to provide a connection between the generator and the battery or bus
and to provide reverse-current protection in the event of generator failure or loss of generator voltage.
6. Where are the reverse current relays located? And what are their functions?
Located in the generator control box and has two functions
a) Connects battery or external power to the starter for starting.
b) Connects the starter generator power output to the DC system.
7. What conditions must be met before the RCR will allow the generator output to connect with its respective DC
buss?
a) Generator voltage must be greater than 22V
b) Must be a positive (+) DC output
c) Generator voltage must be 0.5V higher than the battery voltage
d) Flow must be from the generator to the buss.
8. When would the RCR open?

If the RCR senses reverse current flow, this could happen if the battery voltage was higher than the generator output
voltage.
9. What does selecting the generator switch to the reset position do?
This action excites the generator field allowing the RCR to close and remain closed as current flows from the starter
generator to the buss, as long as the generator switch is in the on position. The generator reset circuit is protected
by a 5-amp CB labelled GEN RESET located inside the engine nacelle lower cowling. Excessive reset attempts under
faulty conditions will adversely affect the shunt coil field, resulting in possible damage to the generator.
10. What’s the use of CB (GEN CONTROL L AND GEN CONTROL R) located on the overhead console CB panel?
When the generator control switch is selected to RESET the generator shunt field are excited to increase generator
voltage and current output for system demand, If the output voltage is greater than the over voltage protection,
field circuits of the starter generators are protected by 10-amp CB labelled GEN CONTROL L & R.
11. What does the DC voltmeter indicate?

The Voltage that is present on the left DC buss.
12. Give a brief description of the DC load meter?

It displays the load on either the left generator, right
generator or the battery.
Spring loaded to the BATT position.
When in BATT position 0.1 = 10 amps
When in L GEN or R GEN position 0.1 = 20 amps.
13. Why does the load meter indicate 0 battery load during start?
The load meter is disconnected during engine start; this is because the starter draws more amperage than the load
meter can register.
14. What is the function of the reverse current circuit breaker (RCCB)?
RCCB protects the main battery from high sustained charging currents and possible overheat, which could damage
the battery. RCCB would protect the battery by tripping open and disconnecting the main battery from the left DC
buss.
15. When would the RCCB trip open? If the sustained charging current ever exceeds 450 amps.
16. How would the crew notice a popped RCCB?

The crew may not realize this during the flight as the generators supply the entire electrical system with power.
The crew would most likely notice this upon engine shutdown when the generators are selected off (all DC and AC
power will be lost)
17. What are current limiters?
Current limiters are time delay, slow blow fuses, rated at 150 amps. There are six limiters
in total; three in the generator control box and there in the main battery enclosure.
18. What is the purpose of the time delay design of the current limiters?
Permits high current flows of 800 to 1000 amps to the starter generators during the
short time needed to start the engines.
19. How do the current limiters isolate the battery from the generators?
Should a high battery charge current (in excess of 450 amps) exist for a prolonged time,
the current limiters will melt, electrically isolating the main battery from the generators.
20. If one current limiter melts, would battery service be available?

If one current limiter melts, battery service will still be available, but now limited to 300
amps sustained. This would be difficult to identify by the crew during flight or shutdown.
This partial failure will most likely lead to total failure of this system during the next
engine start due to the melting of the remaining limiters.
21. Describe voltage regulators?

Two voltage regulators automatically adjust the generator output current to produce a constant voltage output
under varying speeds and loads. An equalizing circuit is included to ensure equal generator loading (within 20 amps)
when the buss tie switch is in the NORMAL position.
22. At what voltage would the voltage regulator drop a high output generator?
Between 32-34 V and the over-volt relay drops the high output generator.
23. What happens if the equalization circuitry is faulty or senses more than 0.1 (20 amps) load sharing from the
generators? It will drop the low amperage generator offline (GEN CAUTION light will illuminate)
24. How do you determine if the equalization

circuitry is faulty?
Open the buss tie switch. Reset the failed
generator. If the generator stays on then the
problem may have been the equalization circuitry.
25. Describe a situation in which a total electrical

failure is possible?
a) Equalization circuitry drops the low output
generator.
b) Excessive charge isolated the battery (burns our
the current limiters)
c) Over-voltage is sensed at 32-34V and the over-
voltage relay drops the high output generator.
26. What is the purpose of the distribution circuit

breakers, and where are they located?
Distribution circuit breakers reduce the possibility
of a power loss to an entire DC buss if a fault was
present on one of the distribution lines. Each CB
panel is provided with power by three parallel
distribution lines which are individually protected
by CB’s at each end.
27. Can the crew reset a distribution CB?

If a power distribution CB pops, it indicates a
serious electrical problem, and should NOT be
reset by the crew.
28. Give a brief description of the Inverters?
Two static inverters are installed to convers DC power into AC power for supply to the AC powered systems. The
inverters are located in the rear fuselage, behind the baggage compartment shelf, each Inverter can supply 115 VAC
and 26 VAC at 400 Hz.
29. How many inverters supply AC buses with power at any one given time?
Only one inverter supplies AC power at any one given time.
30. Where do the inverters receive their DC power from?

#1 inverter receives DC power from the left DC buss; #2 inverter receives DC power from the right DC buss.
31. What would happen if the buss tie is open and the inverter switch is selected to #2 while the generator is
offline? No DC power would be available on the R DC buss to supply the #2 inverter, this would result in a loss of all
AC operated avionics and indications.
32. The #1 inverter and the Right generator have failed, and the Buss Tie Switch is open, can you get A.C. Power
back? Yes, Close the Buss Tie Switch and select #2 Inverter.
33. List the types and voltage of the power output from the Inverters?
There are two AC buses on the series 300 aircraft. 400 Cycle, both 115 and 26 Volt A.C.
34. How is AC power changed from 115 VAC to 26 VAC?

There is a step down transformer located after the 115 VAC buss to reduce the voltage to 26 VAC.
35. Which instruments/indications use AC power, and specify the voltage?

115 VAC BUSS 26 VAC BUSS
Heading Indicator Torque Gauges
Attitude Indicator Oil Pressure Gauges
Fuel Quantity Gauges Fuel Flow Gauges
36. What indication would be there be of a loss of 26 VAC power?

400 cycle light
Torque gauges are spring loaded to fall to zero upon loss of AC power
Oil pressure and fuel flow would freeze (AC lies, DC dies)
37. What would happen if the 400 Fail fuse is pulled and/or blown?
The 400 cycle light will illuminate steadily although you should still have 26 VAC power.
38. What indication would there be for a loss of 115 VAC power?
AC powered gyroscopic flight instruments are equipped with flags to alert the crew to a loss of 115 VAC power.
40. How many Inverter Relays are installed in the 310 series?
None are installed, as both L. & R. Inverters operate simultaneously.
41. In 310 series which instruments are powered from the Left & Right AC buss?
LEFT AC BUSS RIGHT AC BUSS
Heading Indicator Captain Side Co-pilot side
Attitude Indicator Captain Side Co-pilot side
Torque Gauges
Oil Pressure Gauges
Fuel Flow Gauges
Fuel Quantity Gauges
43. You turn off the Left Inverter and the 400 Cycle Light goes out, your action is?
Your action should be to leave the Inverter Switch OFF, as this indicates a Buss Failure. (QRH)
44. You turn on the Master Switch prior to start. A 400 Cycle Light Is illuminated. A possible cause might be?
An Inverter has failed or a Failure of a BUSS.
45. What is the purpose of the Inverter Relay?

To energise either the #1 Inverter or the #2 Inverter
46. Which D.C. Busses do the Inverters get its power from?
#1 from Left DC buss and #2 from the Right D.C. Buss.
47. How many positions are there on the Inverter Switch?

Two positions, #1 and #2
48. The #1 Inverter fails and you cannot get #2 inverter on line. The most likely cause is?
Failed Inverter Relay.
49. #2 Inverter has failed in flight, you cannot get #1 Inverter on line. Name two possible causes.
- #1 inverter is also unserviceable or
- the Inverter relay has failed. The Right D.C. Buss only.
50. What does a illuminated 400 cycle caution light give an indication of?
Warning of a loss of 26 VAC power or inverter failure.
51. You have a failed generator and the buss tie is open, will all the Caution lights work?
No, several Caution Lights are powered from the Opposite Buss.
ENGINE
1. What does the abbreviation PT6 A-27 stand for?

PT stands for Propeller Turbine, 6 stands for engine family, A stands for two stage gearbox, and -27 stands for engine
series.
2. What does the term Free Turbine mean?

There is no mechanical coupling between the gas generator section and the power section.
3. In reference to Twin Otter Limitations, what does the capital letter “P” always mean?
The capital P always stands for pressure.
4. What does the capital letter “N” always stand for?

Rotational speed.
5. What does the small letter “p” stand for?

Propeller.
6. In reference to the Twin Otter, what does SHP stand for, and what location?
Shaft horse power at the propeller hub.
7. Describe ESHP. In reference to the Twin Otter?

Shaft horse power at the prop hub plus thrust from the exhaust stacks.
8. How many stages of compression are there in the PT6-27 Engine?

There are four stages, three axial and one Centrifugal.
9. What is the speed of the compressor assembly at 100%?

37,500 rpm at 100%.
10. What is the speed of the power turbine at 100%.

Approximately 33,000 rpm at 100%.
11. How many fuel manifolds are installed on the PT6 -27 engine?
There are Two Fuel Manifolds.
12. How many fuel nozzles are installed on the -27 engine?
There are 14 fuel nozzles installed.
13. How many fuel nozzles are providing fuel initially, when fuel lever is first turned on?
10 nozzles only
14. How and when do you activate the other 4 fuel nozzles?
You do not activate them, they come on automatically at 32 to 36 % Ng, and they are activated by increased fuel
pressure due to increased RPM.
15. What are the reduction ratios in the two stage gear box?
3 to 1 and 5 to 1, for a total reduction of 15 to 1.
16. How many fire detection probes are installed in each engine nacelle and what temperature do they acticate?
There are four in each nacelle. The post mod probes activate at 450 degrees C. The rear probes activate at 300
degrees C.
19. How many probes need to be activating in order to get a fire warning?
Any “ONE” probe will activate the fire warning system.
20. On your walk-around you notice the yellow burst disc is missing from the engine, this would indicate what?
It would most likely indicate an intentional discharge.
21. This has happened on your morning inspection at a resort; can you fly the airplane home?
You would first have to check the MEL.
22. What is the engine fire bottle filled with?

Freon 13 B 1
23. What conditions have to be met in order to actually activate the engine fire bottle?
Pull the handle, but, the Master Switch has to be on.
24. What oil temperature is recommended for fuel heat to function at take off?
55 degrees C.
25. What is the time limit for operation in the reverse range?
1 minute.
26. Why is this limit in effect?

Possible heat damage to the cowling and wing leading edge.
27. How long may the generator reset switch be held in the reset position?
No longer than 2 seconds.
28. What reduction must be applied to the Ng is operating below -30 C.?
2.2 % NG for each 10 degrees C. Below -30 C.
29. Name the three things that happen when the fuel control lever is turned on?
Fuel is fed to the fuel nozzles, the manifold drain is closed, and the starter Is switched to series for increased starter
speed.
30. Why is it important to pause in the on position momentarily before resetting the generator?
To ascertain the generator did not reset itself.
PROPS & GOVERNERS
1. How does the Fuel Topping governor differ in operation from the other governors?
The Fuel Topping Governor restricts fuel only to prevent over-speeds.
2. Which governor controls maximum prop RPM in the reverse range of operation?
The Fuel Topping Governor
3. What “controls” the flow of oil to the propeller in the Beta-Reverse range?
The Beta Reverse Valve (Actuated by the power lever in the reverse range)
4. At what speed is the propeller limited too in the reverse range? 91% (+or–1%)
5. If the prop RPM were to exceed this limit what should happen?
The Fuel Topping governor should begin to restrict fuel to the engine.
6. How does it do this? By bleeding off “PY” reference air and restricting fuel to the engine.
7. What purpose does the “Reset Arm” serve in relation to Reverse Beta operation?
It lowers the Datum of the Fuel Topping governor from 102% to 91%
8. If the CSU were to fail at Max. Power which governor would limit the RPM, and at what RPM?
The Over-speed Governor should function first at 101.5 %
9. Is the Over-speed Governor functional in the Beta reverse range?

Yes, it is functional, but would not normally actuate because The Fuel Topping Governor should restrict the RPM to
91 % only.
10. What is the diameter of the Twin Otter propeller? 8 feet 6 inches in diameter
11. The standard Propeller on the Twin Otter is a Hartzell 3 bladed reversing and full feathering Propeller. Are
other types of Propellers approved?
Yes, McCauley makes a four bladed prop for the Twin Otter.
12. If engine oil pressure were lost, what effect would this have on the propeller? The Propeller would go to
feather.
13. Is 80 to 100 PSI. IE, Engine only Oil Pressure, enough to control the Propeller?
No, the CSU boosts Engine oil pressure to approx. 300/400 PSI.
14. Is the Beta Valve normally open or normally closed during operation in the constant speed range?
The Beta valve is normally fully open in the constant speed range.
15. The Engines have been shut down on the Latches, where should the Prop Levers be positioned for Start-up?
The Full Feathered position in the Maldives, due to the temperature and altitude.
16. Why? So that the engine receives only Min, Flow Fuel for the start, resulting in cooler engine starts.
17. You are in cruise at 76 % prop RPM. You notice the following. Props out of sync, torque decreasing, and Ng
speed decreasing. What has likely happened?
The CSU likely has a fault and the Fuel topping governor is controlling the engine RPM to prevent an over-speed.
(approx.6% above prop setting)
18. You are at maximum power for take-off and the CSU fails, what will the Rpm. Indication be on the Np?
You would likely see 101.5 %.
19. Which governor is controlling the RPM? The Over-speed Governor is controlling the speed of the prop.
20. If both the CSU and the Over-speed governor were to fail, at max. Power what would be the indications in the
cockpit?
102 % Np, and decreasing Ng, as the Fuel Topping governor starts restricting fuel to control the over-speed.
21. At what N.P. Does the auto feather normally arm? 86/ 88 % NP
22. Which arming relay provides power from the Buss, to the left time delay switch In order to actuate the auto
feather sequence of the left engine? The Right Arming Relay.
23. What function does the test switch perform regarding the power lever switches, when performing the auto
feather test sequence?
The Test Switch bypasses the Power Lever micro switches.
24. Are the power lever switches wired in series, or in parallel, for the auto feather system?
They are wired in Series.
25. What position do the power levers have to be at in order to Arm, the Auto Feather system?
They must both be at or above 86/88 % NP.
26. During an X wind take off, auto feather on, the left power lever is at 50 PSI, and the right power lever is at
approx. 40 PSI. Will the auto feather be armed?
Yes, as the Np. would be at or above 86/88 % on both sides.
27. What could cause the Prop Reset light to illuminate?

Prop. Levers below 91% & or power levers below 75% Ng.
How does fuel flow decrease at high altitude?

what's the speed that the edp throws fuel in to the engine?
Primary fuel nozzles activate at 12 to 15% Secondary fuel nozzles activate - automatically at 32 to 36% Ng. They are
activated by increased fuel pressure due to increased RPM.
PNEUMATIC/ICING SYSTEM
1. What systems of the aircraft does bleed air operate?

Environmental, de-ice boots, intake deflectors, and autopilot.
2. What pressure is the bleed air regulated to for the operation of the de-ice boots? 18 PSI.
3. What is the maximum pressure allowed for the bleed air system? 25 PSI.
4. What is the time for a complete boot cycle in auto-fast -mode? 1 minute (5-5-3-3), then 44 seconds off.
5. What is the time for a complete cycle in auto-slow-mode? 3 minutes 5-5-3-3, then 164 seconds off
6. If equipped, what do the two blue lights for the tail boots indicate when illuminated?
Only that pressure is available for boot inflation.
7. Illumination of the pneumatic low pressure light indicates what?

That there is not enough pressure available to inflate the boots.
8. What is needed for the operation of the optional propeller boots?

Electrical power and oil pressure above 40 PSI.
MEL (OM-A 8.6)
1. What is the difference between an MMEL and an MEL?
MMEL from the aircraft manufacturer, ATA, and the Aviation Authority. And an MEL is made by the Operator and the
Aviation Authority.
2. What is the purpose of the MEL?

To allow for continued service with some defects while maintaining an adequate level of safety.
3. If an item on the MEL has a category letter “B” this means what?
The item may be deferred for a maximum of three days.
4. The symbol M# is placed next to an item on the MEL. This means what?
Maintenance personnel required to defer the item.
5. The symbol “O” is placed next to an item on the MEL, this means what?
The item has an effect or restriction on the operation of the aircraft that the pilot must comply with either before or
during operation of the aircraft.
6. The word “Category” as from the MEL means what?
The Repair Interval allowed
7. How many “Categories” are there in the Twin Otter MEL?

Four.
8. Name them?
“A” Must be repaired as per the remarks column
“B” Three days
"C” Ten days.
“D” One Hundred and Twenty days
9. What are the 6 steps the pilot must follow in the deferral of an item?
1. Check the MEL first,
2. Enter the item in the journey log book
3. Defer the item in the log book.
4. Enter the item in the deferred log.
5. Fill in and place the placard sticker.
6. Advise MTX.
10. What has to be written on the in-operative sticker?

ATA chapter #, Item #, Category letter, Log Sheet #.
11. Where is the MEL located in our Twin Otters?

Under the Captains seat.
12. Why are Flight Controls not listed in the MEL?

Because Flight Controls are obviously required.
13. A “Category-B” item has expired, may it be re-deferred?

No it may not be. The reason for the MEL is to allow Operation for a limited time only for
repairs , or getting parts.
14. An item has been legally deferred on an Aircraft, is the pilot now forced to accept the aircraft for service?
No, he is not!!! The pilot must first assure himself that the flight can be concluded with an acceptable level of safety,
Only then may the flight proceed!
QUESTIONS TO BE ORGANISED AND RESERCHED?
When do you put the engine on IDle?
Why do you put the engine on retard on an engine failure?

To avoid the drag factor when put on idle at 11 deg of blade angle. How do you know if you are on retards 10 lbs of
torque or 1" from idle power setting.
What is a pylon?
It's the frame under the wing struts.
Why do engines get more spool when generators off line?

Due to the generator creating a electro magnetic field which opposes the turning force to get the engines spooled.
It's like a simple circuit with a battery which creates a magnetic field. Read on Electro Magnetic Flux - why and how.
What do you do if you find something missing that is not in the MEL.
It's a no go.
When do you do auto feather test and governed test?

Auto feather every 7 days and governed test every day.
What happens to the T5 when climbing to higher altitude?

Due to the less dense air at higher altitude. Read on this and find out the air intake percentage 25 percent on
combustion and 75 percent for cooling.
How many gps are in a aircraft?

4 aspen is a GPS.
What is better on performance aft CG or forward CG. Why due to the fact elevator has an negative angle of attack
which creates more drag on forward CG. Read on why negative angle of attack and helps what stability it helps.
What does EMMA stand for and how many are there?
Equal Maintenance for maximum availability and 48 different EMMAs. Read and find about the different EMMA’s
Why should you not hammer the power lever?
With an Aspen on board and if you loose all electrical power, would the aspen work?
What could make the high t5 in normal operation?

With a tail wind, FCU adding more fuel, with a weak battery and starter is not rotating enough to get air.. etc
Why do you have to wait for the gen lights to come on after start switch is released?
What is the bungee cord used for and what advantages are there with a bungee cord.
How do you get the prop reset lights?
What are the limitaions for wind shield vipers? Explain each one.
What is a sterile cock pit?
When does the red disk get discharged?

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TWIN OTTER (DHC-6 100/200/300/400) is an

un-pressurized, all-metal, high-wing, twin

STANDARD TWIN OTTER DIMENSIONS WITH WIPLINE 13000 (OM-B 0.4)

OM-A Chapters (Administrative) OM-B Chapters (Operational)

Where is the Datum located in the Short Nose & Long

What is the CG range – T/O & LDG (all series @ all

Manoeuvring speeds for all DHC-6 series (OM-B 1.7.6)

Airspeed limitations (OM-B 1.7)

FLOAT LEAKAGE GUIDELINE

FUEL TANK CAPACITY WITH JET A-1 AT ISA.

Engine oil used (OM-B 1.15.2) Exxon or BP Turbo Oil

Hydraulic system pressure (OM-B 1.15.3)

1. Max. permissible sustained

DHC-6 aircraft are equipped with a Hartzell all

prop is 8’6”in diameter and has a pitch range of

GENERATOR LOAD LIMITS (OM-B 1.15.4)

Single generator operation: if generator load

Why is there a Torque Limitation on the -27

APPROACH TO STALL (FULL FLAP)

FLAPLESS APPROACH AND GO AROUND

RECOVERY PROCEDURES FOR NOSE HIGH AND NOSE LOW (UPRT)

4. What is the use of propeller blade latches? (OM-B 2.4.3.2)

8. Explain taxi speeds and why? (OM-B 2.5.1.1)

9. Why is Plow taxi prohibited during normal operations? (OM-B 2.5.1.3)

10. When should you avoid step taxing? (OM-B 2.5.1.4)

Auto feather test

17. When can the Auto-feather be turned off? (OM-B 2.5.5.1)

18. What are the duties of PNF? (OM-B 2.5.5.1 E)

The axial compressor is more efficient at lower power settings than

FAILURE TO CLOSE (TAKE OFF) FAILURE TO OPEN (WHEN REDUCING POWER)

 Low Torque  Banging Noise (Compressor Stalling)

23. What are the stabilized approach criteria? (OM-B 2.7.7.1)

MEMORY ITEMS FOR EMERGENCIES

E Eng. Failure after T/O Eng. Fire in flight

Engine Fail/Fire, Max Pwr F/10 Identify Identify

W F Identify Confirm Confirm

1. Memory items for an abnormal start / Captain

Hot Start: is an engine start that results in any of the following:

4. Memory Items for a rejected take off / PF only

5. Memory items for an engine failure after airborne prior to V1 / PF only

6. Memory items for an engine fire on ground / Captain

1. FIRE BELL (If applicable & If Installed) MUTE

At safe altitude (above 400 feet AGL):

7. POWER LEVER (Affected Engine) RETARD

Same Memory Items

10. List the memory items if Np exceeds above 101.5%?

EMERGENCY DESCENT – HIGH SPEED (ZERO FLAP)

17. In what situation can you land Flapless? (OM-B 3.7.4.2)

1. Explain QNH, QFE & Flight level?

a) When set to a QNH altimeter setting, it will indicate altitude;

2. What is the minimum VFR visibility? (OM-A 12.2.1 & 8.1.3.2)

3. When can you not operate VFR flights? (OM-A 12.2.1)

5. Write down the VFR minimum visibilities &

9. Explain the Right of way operations? (OM-A 12.5.6)

10. Regulations in regards to alcohol? (OM-A 6.1.3)

11. Guidelines to fly after Scuba Diving? (OM-A 6.1.5)

16. Define the Water Aerodrome Categories? (OM-A 8.1.2.3)

22. Define Off-block and On-Block? (OM-A 8.1.10.2)