All India Integrated Test Series: JEE (Main) - 2022
All India Integrated Test Series: JEE (Main) - 2022
All India Integrated Test Series: JEE (Main) - 2022
JEE (Main)-2022
General Instructions:
Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-HCT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. The length of a wire between the two ends of a sonometer is 105 cm. Where should the two
bridges be placed so that the fundamental frequencies of the three segments are in the ratio of
1: 3: 15.
(A) 75 cm, 25 cm,
(B) 25 cm, 75 cm,
(C) 75 cm, 100 cm,
(D) None of these
2. A closed pipe and an open pipe sounding together produce 5 beats per second. If the length of
the open pipe is 30 cm, find by how much the length of the closed pipe must be changed to bring
the two pipe in unison:
(A) 14.86 cm
(B) 15.14 cm
(C) 15 cm
(D) 0.14 cm
3. In a sonometer experiment the bridges are separated by a fixed distance. The wire which may be
slightly elastic emits a tone of frequency n when held by tension T tension is increased to 4T, the
tone emitted by the wire will be of frequency.
(A) n
(B) 2n
(C) Slightly greater than 2 n
(D) Slightly less than 2 n
4. A uniform rope of length 12 metre & mass 6 kg, is swinging vertically from rigid base. From its
free end, one 2 kg mass is attached. At its bottom end one transverse wave is produced of
wavelength 0.06 metre. At upper end of rope, wavelength will be-
(A) 1.2 m
(B) 0.12 m
(C) 0.12 cm
(D) 0.12 mm
5. In the shown system m1 > m2. Thread QR is holding the system. If this thread is
cut, then just after cutting
(A) Acceleration of mass m1 is zero and that of m2 is directed upward
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6. The masses and the radius of the earth and the moon are M1 , M 2 and R 1 , R 2 respectively
their centres are at distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should
be projected from a point midway between the two centres so as to escape to infinity will be -
G
(A) 2 ( M1 M 2 )
d
G
(B) ( M1 M 2 )
d
G
(C) (M1 M 2 )
2d
G M1
(D) 2
d M2
7. The change in the value of acceleration of earth towards sun, when the moon comes from the
position of solar eclipse to the position on the other side of earth in line with sun is - (mass of
moon = 7.36 x 1022 kg, the orbital radius of moon 3.8×108 m .
(A) 6.73 × 10–2 m/s2
(B) 6.73 × 10–3 m/s2
(C) 6.73 × 10–4 m/s2
(D) 6.73 × 10–5 m/s2
9. One solid sphere, having mass 1kg & diameter 0.3m is suspended from a wire. If the twisting
couple per unit twist for the wire is 6 × 10–3 N-m/radian, then the time period of small oscillations
will be-
(A) 0.7 sec
(B) 7.7 sec
(C) 77 sec
(D) 777 sec
10. Two parallel and opposite forces, each 4000 N, are applied tangentially to
the upper and lower faces of a cubical metal block of 25 cm on a side. If
10
the shear modulus for the metal is 8×10 Pa, then the displacement of the
upper surface relative to the lower surface will be –
(A) 0.02 mm L = 0.25 m
(B) 0.2 mm
(C) 0.0002 mm
(D) 2 mm
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11. A solid sphere of mass m = 2 kg and specific gravity s = 0.5 is held stationary
relative to a tank filled with water as shown in figure. The tank is accelerating
vertically upward with acceleration a = 2 ms–2. Calculate tension in the thread
connected between the sphere and the bottom of the tank.
(A) 24 N
(B) 14 N
(C) 20 N
(D) 10 N
12. The figure shows an L-shaped tube filled with a liquid to a height H. What B
should be the horizontal acceleration a of the tube so that the pressure at the
H a
point A becomes atmospheric.
A
2H L
(A) g
L
H
(B) g
L
H
(C) g
2L
(D) None of these
13. An object of mass 5kg falls from rest through a vertical distance of 20 m and reaches a velocity of
10 m/s. How much work is done by the push of the air on the object?
(A) 350 J
(B) 750 J
(C) 200 J
(D) 300 J
14. A uniform circular disc placed on a rough horizontal surface is initially given a 0
velocity v 0 and angular velocity 0 as shown in figure. The disc comes to
v0
rest after moving some distance in the direction of motion. Then is- v0
r0
1
(A)
2
(B) 2
1
(C)
3
(D) 3
15. A disc of moment of inertia I is rotating about its axis, which is initially along the vertical direction,
making ‘n’ revolution per minute. The axis gradually tilts become horizontal and the disc rotates
about the horizontal axis with the same revolution per minute. The total time, taken in doing so is t
seconds then the torque acting on the body is–
(A) Zero
2nI
(B)
60 t
2 2 nI
(C)
60 t
(D) None of these
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16. A square of side 'a' is cut from a square of side '2a' as shown in the figure.
Mass of this square with hole is M. Then its moment of inertia about an axis a
passing through its CM and perpendicular to its plane will be – a 2a
2
Ma
(A)
6 2a
2Ma 2
(B)
6
4Ma 2
(C)
6
5Ma 2
(D)
6
17. A solid body rotates about a stationary axis so that its angular velocity depends on the rotation
angle as 0 k , where 0 and k are positive constants. At the moment t = 0, the angle
= 0. Find the time dependence of rotation angle-
(A) K. e –kt
0
0 –kt
(B) [e ]
K
0
(C) [1–e–kt]
K
K
(D) [e–kt – 1]
0
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20. A particle is released from a certain height H = 400 m. Due to the wind the particle gathers the
1
horizontal velocity vx = ay where a 5 sec and y is the vertical displacement of the particle
from point of release, then the horizontal drift (displacement) of the particle when it strikes the
ground is–
(A) 2.67 km
(B) 8.67 m
(C) 1.67 km
(D) 5.1 km
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
21. A closed vessel A having volume V contains Nitrogen N 2 at Pressure P and temperature T.
Another closed vessel B having the same volume V contains helium (He) at the same pressure P
but temperature 2T (twice that in vessel A). The ratio of masses of N 2 and He in vessels A and
B is X , then fin the value of X/2 .
22. Two sirens, situated at a distance of 1km are emitting sound of frequency 330Hz. An observer is
moving from one siren towards another with a velocity of 2 m/s. The beat frequency heard by the
observer will be
(v = 330 m/s.)
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
23. A calorimeter of water equivalent 15g contains 165g of water at 25 ° C. Steam at 100 ° C is
passed through the water for some time. The temperature is increased to 30ºC and the mass of
the calorimeter and its contents is increased by 1.5 g. Calculate the latent heat of vaporization of
water (in cal/g). Heat capacity of water is 1cal/g ° C.
3 3
24. A vessel of volume 8.0×10 m contains an ideal gas at 300 K and 200 kPa . The gas is allowed
to leak till the Pressure falls to 125 kPa . Calculate the amount of the gas (in moles) leaked
assuming that the temperature remains constant. (Take Gas Constant R = 8.3J/mol – K )
25. An aluminium rod 80 cm long clamped at the middle is used to create standing waves in a
Kundt’s tube experiment. If the tube is 1 meter long and the dust heaps accumulate at 6 cm,
intervals and velocity of sound in air is 330 m/s. then determine the velocity of sound (m/s) in the
rod.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
26. The below conversion can be carried out in multiple steps. Which of the following reagents
(May to be given in correct sequence) can be used?
CH
Br CH3
CH3
CH3
27. Which of the following statement is correct about the structure of CO2 as,
C O O
(A) Structure is incorrect because it contains more number of valence electrons.
(B) The formal charge on three elements left to right are 2, 2, 0 respectively.
(C) The above structure is incorrect because it has expanded the octet of central oxygen.
(D) Three elements in the above structure should not be collinear.
28. Which of the following elements/particles can be placed in the given nuclear reactions?
2 3
He
_____ 2 1H
238
U 12 C ____ 244 Cf
(Atomic number of U and Cf are 92 and 98 respectively)
(A)
4
He, positrons e 1
(B) alpha, beta particles
(C) duetrium, neutrons.
4
(D) He , neutrons
29. Which of the statement about A or B is correct?
Br
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AIITS-HCT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8
(A) 'A' is
(C) O 2N (D) OH
CH3
CH3
32. Among the following species, the least angle around the central atom is in:
(A) O3
(B) I3
(C) NO2
(D) PH 3
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33. Colour of the bead in borax bead test is mainly due to the formation of:
(A) metal oxides
(B) boron oxide
(C) metal metaborates
(D) elemental boron
36. 1g mixture of equal number of mole of Li 2CO3 and other metal carbonate M 2 CO3 required
21.6 mL of 0.5 N HCl for complete neutralisation reaction. What is the approximate atomic mass
of the other metal?
(A) 25
(B) 23
(C) 51
(D) 118
38. Calculate the work done by the system in an irreversible (single step) adiabatic expansion of 2
mole of a polyatomic gas ( 4 / 3 ) from 300 K and pressure 10 atm to 1 atm:
(A) 227 R
(B) 205 R
(C) 405 R
(D) 960 R
39. Which one of the following mixture does not act as a buffer solution?
(A) Boric acid and borax
(B) Sodium phosphate & disodium hydrogen phosphate
(C) Sodium propionate and propionic acid
(D) Sodium acetate and sodium propionate
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40. A solution is 0.10 M Ba NO3 2 and 0.10 M Sr NO3 2 . If solid Na 2 CrO 4 is added to the
solution, what is Ba when
2+
SrCrO 4 begins to precipitate?
K sp BaCrO4 1.2 1010 ; K sp SrCrO4 3.5 10 5
(A) 7.4 107
(B) 2.0 107
(C) 6.1107
(D) 3.4 107
41. Person working in cement plants and lime stone quarries are more prone to disease like:
(A) Asthma
(B) Cancer
(C) Silicosis
(D) Pneumoconiosis
42. Propene CH3CH = CH2 can be converted into 1-propanol by oxidation. Indicate which sets of
regents amongst the following is ideal to effect the above conversion?
(A) KMnO4 (alkaline)
(B) Osmium tetraoxide (OsO4/CH2Cl2)
(C) B2H6 and alkaline H2O2
(D) O3/Zn
43. H H
C C C
Br2
CCl4
A . Product A of the reaction is:
H3C C(CH3)2CH2OH
(A) Br (B) Br
H3C H CH3
CH3
H3C O H3C O CH3
(C) Br (D)
H3C CH3
O Br
H O CH3
(B) A plot of reciprocal concentration of the reactant vs time gives a straight line.
(C) The time taken for the completion of 75% reaction is thrice the t1/2 of reaction.
(D) The pre-exponential factor in Arrhenius equation has the dimensions of Joule.
45. Select the correct option(s):
(A) Pauli’s exclusion principle state that no two electrons in an atom can have the same spin
(B) Quantum number n, l , and m for 5 px orbital must be 5, 1 , and 1, respectively.
(C) In the ground state of chromium atom, five electrons have magnetic quantum number 1
(D) None of these
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SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
46. Find the number of molecules which is/are planar and having dipole moment:
SF4 , PCl3 F2 , PCl2 F3 , I 3 , BrF3 , ICl2 , XeF4
dP
47. For the reaction: 2 NO g H 2 g N 2O g H 2O g , the value of was found to
dt
be 1.5 Pa s 1 for a pressure of 372 Pa for NO and 0.25 Pa s 1 for a pressure of 152 Pa for NO,
dP
the pressure of H 2 being constant. If pressure of NO was kept constant, the value of was
dt
1 1
found 1.60 Pa s for a pressure of 289 Pa for H 2 and 0.79 Pa s for a pressure of 144 Pa for
H 2 . If the order of reaction with respect to NO and H 2 are a and b , respectively, then the
value of a b is:
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
48. Calculate the heat of formation of anhydrous Al2Cl6 (in kJ/mol) from the following data:
(i) 2Al s 6 HCl aq
Al2Cl6 aq 3H 2 1004.2kJ
(ii) H 2 g Cl2 g
2 HCl g 184.1 kJ
(iii) HCl g aq
HCl aq 73.2 kJ
(iv) Al2Cl6 s aq
Al2Cl6 aq 643.1 kJ
50. A hydrogen like atom of atomic number Z is in an excited state of principle quantum number x . It
x
can emit a maximum energy photon of 204 eV . If it makes a transition of shell, a photon of
2
energy 40.8eV is emitted. What is the minimum energy (in eV) of photons emitted by this atom
during de-excitation?
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SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1 cos x 1 cos x
51. Consider the function f ( x) x x, 2 then f x is
1 cos x 1 cos x
x
(A) cot
4 2
x
(B) tan
4 2
x
(C) cot
4 2
x
(D) tan
4 2
52. Ten Balloons targets are arranged as shown. If N be the number of different ways they can be
shot (One at a time) if no target can be shot until the target(s) below it has been shot. Find the
total number of divisor of N which are divisible by 10.
(A) 48
(B) 24
(C) 60
(D) 30
(A) 0
(B) b Δ=0
(C) c Δ=0
(D) Δ=0
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55. Let a1 ,a 2 , a 3 , a 4 and a 5 be such that a1 ,a 2and a 3 in A. P., a 2 ,a 3 and a 4 are in G.P. and
a, a 4 and a 5 are in H.P. Then log e a1 , log e a 3 and log ea 5 are in
(A) G.P.
(B) A.P.
(C) H.P.
(D) None of these
56. Let r, s and t be the roots of the equation 8x 3 +1001x+2008=0 the value of
r+s + s+t + t+r
3 3 3
(A) 251
(B) 751
(C) 735
(D) 753
58. Let P be the point (–3, 0) and Q be a moving point (0, 3t). Let PQ be trisected at R so that R is
nearer to Q. RN is drawn perpendicular to PQ meeting the x-axis at N. The locus of the midpoint
of RN is
(A) (x + 3)2 –3y = 0
(B) (y + 3)2 –3x = 0
(C) x2 –y = 1
(D) y2 –x = 1
59. If diagonals of a square be the lines y = x and y = – x, and area of square be 2 sq. units then
combined equation of two adjacent sides of the square is
(A) xy =1
(B) xy – x – y + 1 = 0
(C) xy – y = 0
(D) None of these
60. If |z1| = |z2| = |z3| = 1 and z1 + z2 + z3 = 0 then the area of the triangle whose vertices are
z1, z2, z3 is-
3 3
(A)
4
3
(B)
4
(C) 1
(D) None of these
61. The equation of the circle passing through the point of intersection of the circles
x2 + y2 – 6x + 2y + 4 = 0 and x2 + y2 + 2x – 6y - 6 = 0 and having its centre on y = 0 is
(A) 2x2 + 2y2 – 8x + 3 = 0
(B) 3x2 + 3y2 – 6x + 2y = 0
(C) x2 + y2 – 8x – y – 12 = 0
(D) none of these
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AIITS-HCT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 14
62. The locus of mid points of the chords of the circle x2 2x + y2 2y + 1 = 0 which are of unit length
is
3
(A) (x 1)2 + (y 1)2 =
4
(B) (x 1)2 + (y 1)2 = 2
(C) (x 1)2 + (y 1)2 = 4
(D) none of these
63. From any point P on the straight line x = 1 a tangent PQ is drawn to the parabola y 2 –8x + 24 = 0.
Then the abscissa of N where N is the foot of the perpendicular drawn from the point A (5, 0) to
PQ is
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) none of these
64. The centre of the circle which touches the parabola y2 = x at (1, 1) and passes through the point
(2, 0) is
1 1
(A) 3, 3
2 1
(B) 3 , 3
2 1
(C) ,
3 3
4 1
(D) 3, 3
65. If r1 and r2 are distances of points on the ellipse 5x2 + 5y2 + 6xy – 8 = 0 which are at maximum
and minimum distance from the origin then r12 r22 is equal to
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 3
(D) none of these
x2 y2
66. The normal at a variable point P on the ellipse
1 , a > b of eccentricity e meets the
a2 b2
axes of the ellipse at Q and R then the locus of the midpoint of QR is conic with a eccentricity e
such that
(A) e is independent of e
(B) e = 1
(C) e = e
(D) e = 1/e
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1 1
68. If a, and b, be the extremities of chord on hyperbola xy = 1, then line perpendicular to
a b
this chord will be equally inclined to co-ordinate axes if
(A) a2 = b 2
(B) a2b2 = 1
(C) (a + b)2 = 1
(D) none of these
70. For a hyperbola whose centre is at (1, 2) if asymptotes are parallel to lines 2x + 3y = 0 and x + 2y
= 1, then equation of hyperbola passing through (2, 4) is
(A) (2x + 3y 5) (x + 2y 8) = 40
(B) (2x + 3y 8) (x + 2y 5) = 40
(C) (2x + 3y 8) (x + 2y 5) = 30
(D) none of these
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
71. A GP consist of an even number of terms. The sum of all its terms is five times the sum of old
terms. Then the common ratio of this progression is______:
72. The number of real root (s) of the equation x 2 tan x 1 lie(s) between 0 and 2 is/are_____:
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
73. Number of ways in which 5 boys and 4 girls can be arranged on a circular table such that no two
girls sit together and two particular boys are always together is_____.
74. If 1 is a cube root of unity, and a b 21, a 3 b3 8001, then the value of
a 2
b a b 2 must be equal to______.
75. The sum of all integral values of a for which one root of equation a 5 x 2 2ax a 4 0 is
smaller than 1 and the other greater than 2 , must be equal to____.
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 16-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. If position time graph of a particle is since curves as shown, what will be its velocity-time graph?
x
t
(A) (B) V
(C) (D) V
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3 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
4. In the following diagrams three different liquids have been taken in three beakers and a ball make
of a material of specific gravity D remain in these three liquids as shown. If the three liquids X, Y,
Z have specific gravities Dx, Dy and Dz respectively, which of the following statement is correct?
5. A wooden block floats in a liquid with 40% of its volume inside the liquid. When the vessel
containing the liquid starts rising upwards with acceleration a = g/2, the percentage of volume
inside the liquid is
(A) 20%
(B) 60%
(C) 30%
(D) 40%
6. Two masses M and m are suspended together by a massless spring of force constant k. When
the masses are in equilibrium, M is removed without disturbing the system. The amplitude of
oscillation is:
Mg
(A)
k
mg
(B)
k
(C)
M m g
k
(D)
M m g
k
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
7. A particle starts SHM at time t = 0. Its amplitude is A and angular frequency is . At time t = 0 its
E
kinetic energy is . Assuming potential energy to be zero at mean position, the displacement
4
time equation of the particle can be written as:
(A) x A cos t / 6
(B) x A sin t / 3
(C) x A sin t 2 / 3
(D) x A cos t / 6
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
2g sin
(A) Acceleration of the bar is
1 sin 2
2g
(B) Acceleration of the ball is
cosec2 1
1 sin 2
(C) Tension in the cord is Mg
cos
2
cos 2
(D) Tension in the cord is Mg
1 sin
2
(A) Angular momentum of the particle about the point of suspension is not constant.
(B) Only the direction of angular momentum of the particle about the point of suspension is
constant.
(C) Only the magnitude of angular momentum about the point of suspension is constant.
(D) Net torque on the particle about the point of suspension is zero.
V3
11. Two moles of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic process = constant, if the
T2
temperature is raised by 300K then:
(A) Work done by the gas is 400 R
(B) Change in internal energy is 900 R
(C) Molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is 13R/6
(D) Molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is 3R/2
12. Two whistles A and B each have a frequency of 500 Hz. A is stationary and B is moving towards
the right (away from A) at a speed of 50 m/s. an observer is between the two whistles moving
towards the right with a speed of 25 m/s. The velocity of sound in air is 350 m/s. Assume there is
no wind. Then which of the following statements are true
(A) The apparent frequency of whistle B as heard by person at A is 444 Hz (approximately).
(B) The apparent frequency of whistle B as heard by the observer is 469 Hz (approximately)
(C) The difference in the apparent frequencies of A and B as heard by the observer is 4.5 Hz
(approximately).
(D) The apparent frequencies of the whistles of each other as heard by A and B are the
same.
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5 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
14. A wooden bar (10 kg) is placed on a smooth floor with its
both ends fixed (Fig. A). A gradual increasing force at
midpoint of it can break it at mid point when its value is F1 .
F1 F2
Now another identical bar is placed on the smooth floor with
two blocks (5kg) attached at the two ends. The maximum
force that can be applied without breaking it at midpoint is F2 .
Fig.A Fig.B
F
Then find the value of 2 .
F1
15. Pipe A has length twice the pipe B. Pipe A has both ends open & pipe B has one end open. If a
sound wave of same frequency was sent in both pipes. Which least harmonic of pipe A have a
frequency that matches with resonance frequency of pipe B.
16. A projectile is projected with velocity 10 m/s at angle 37°. Find out the distance of the point
where it lands from ground. Co-efficient of restitution for collision is 0.5. [Take the value of g =
10 m/s2]. (in m)
17. Two particles are performing circular motion in concentric circles of radii 10 m and 5m each, in
opposite sense. Velocities of the particles are 200 m/s and 79 m/s respectively. Find out the
angular velocity of line joining them, when they are farthest apart. (in red/sec)
18.
15 m/s
F ?
Water enters steadily in a U-shaped tube of uniform cross-section area as shown in figure. Find
out the magnitude of force F that is needed to keep the tube in equilibrium. (In N)
[Density of water = 1000 Kg/m3, cross-section area of the tube = 1 cm2]
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. Why does raising the pressure of a fixed mass of gaseous reactants at a constant temperature
cause an increase in the rate of reaction?
(A) More collisions occur per second when the pressure is increased.
(B) More molecules have energy greater than the activation energy at the higher pressure.
(C) Raising the pressure lowers the activation energy.
(D) All are correct
20. 4-chloroaniline is a pale yellow solid which in an important building block used for the production
of pesticides, drugs and dyestuffs.
Cl NH2
4-chloroaniline
Which of the following shows a suitable starting compound and sequence of steps to produce a
good yield of 4-chloroaniline?
Starting compound Step 1 Step 2
(A) Conc. HNO3, conc. H2SO4 Sn, conc. HCl following by NaOH
Cl (aq.)
21. High-energy irradiation in the stratosphere produces radicals from chlorofluoroalkanes, commonly
known as CFCs.
Which radical could result from this irradiation of CHFClCF2Cl?
(A) CHFCl C FCl
(B) C HClCF2Cl
(C) C HFCF2Cl
(D) C FClCF2Cl
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7 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
22. The bar chart shows the melting points of a series of consecutive elements arranged in order of
increasing atomic number. The elements sodium to chlorine form part of this series. Which bar
represents sodium?
(A) A = Na
(B) B = Na
(C) C = Na
(D) D = Na
23. Incomplete combustion of 20 cm3 of a gaseous hydrocarbon gave carbon dioxide and carbon
monoxide in a 6:1 ratio, as well as water vapour. It was found that the carbon dioxide took up a
volume of 51.4 cm3 whereas the water vapour took up a volume of 80 cm3. All gas volumes are
measured at the same temperature and pressure. What is the molecular formula of the
hydrocarbon?
(A) C2 H4
(B) C2 H6
(C) C3 H 6
(D) C3 H 8
24. The reaction of hydrogen peroxide with iodide ions in acidic solution can be monitored by an initial
rate method.
H 2O2 aq 2 H aq 2 I aq
2 H 2O l I 2 aq
The following results were obtained for a series of experiments with different volumes of each
regent used.
Experiment Volume of H2O2 Volume of H+ Volume of I- Volume of Time taken / s
number (aq.)/cm3 (aq.) / cm3 (aq.) / cm3 water / cm3
1 40 40 20 0 33
2 20 40 20 20 66
3 40 20 30 10 22
4 20 40 30 10 44
What could be the mechanism of this reaction?
(A) H O H
2 2 H O OH fast
2
OH 2 I H
H 2O I 2 slow
(B) H 2O2 I H 2O IO slow
H IO I I 2 H 2O fast
HIO H I I 2 H 2O fast
(C) 2 H 2 I
2 HI fast
2 HI H 2O2 I 2 2 H 2O slow
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
(D) H 2O2 I H
H 2O HIO fast
I 2 2 H 2O slow
HIO I
OH H
H 2O fast
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
25. The value of the ionic product of water, Kw, varies with temperature.
Temperature/°C Kw/mol2 dm-6
25 1.0×10-14
62 1.0×10-13
Which of the following statement is correct?
(A) The ionic dissociation of water is an endothermic process.
(B) Water is a neutral liquid at 62°C.
(C) pH<7 at 62°C for water
(D) pH>7 at 62°C for water
26. Which of the following has the same value as the standard enthalpy change of formation, H f ,
of carbon monoxide?
(A) H combustion C , graphite H combustion CO
(B) H f CO2 H combustion CO
1
(C) H f CO2
2
1
(D) H Combustion CO2
2
27. The radius and charge of each of the six ions are shown below.
Ion J L M 2 X Y Z2
Radius/nm 0.14 0.18 0.15 0.14 0.18 0.15
The ionic solids JX, LY and MZ are of the same lattice type. Which of the following statement are
correct?
(A) The melting point increases in the order LY<JX<MZ
(B) The numerical value of hydration energy of X is smaller than that of Z2
(C)
2
The solution containing M ions is more acidic than the solution containing J ions.
(D) The lattice energy of JX salt is highest among the given ionic solids.
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9 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
28. In which of the following pairs are the members, I and II,
Stereoisomers of each other, and the overall dipole moment of I is larger than that of II?
I II
(A) O 2N NO2 O 2N H
H H H NO2
Br Cl H Cl
(C) Br Br
Br H Br H
Br Cl
H Cl H Br
(D) Cl Cl Cl H
H H H Cl
29. The numerical value of the solubility product of nickel (II) carbonate is 6.6×10-9 while that of silver
carbonate is 2.1×10-11 at 25°C
Which of the following statements is/are FALSE?
(A) Addition of silver nitrate increases the solubility of silver carbonate
(B) The solubility of silver carbonate is higher than the solubility of nickel (II) carbonate.
(C) Addition of nitric acid to a solution containing nickel (II) carbonate increases the solubility
product of nickel (II) carbonate.
(D) Nickel (II) carbonate precipitates first when sodium carbonate is added to a solution
containing equal concentrations of nickel (II) and silver ions.
2
30. Polythionates are a series of sulfur-oxo anions with the general formula Sn O 6 , where n>2 . A
2
simple example is tetrathionate ion, S4 O 6 .
(A) If n=2, average oxidation state of sulphur =3
(B) If n=4, average oxidation state of sulphur =2.5
(C) If n=3, averageoxidation state of sulphur =10/3
(D) If n=5, average oxidation state of sulphur =6
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
31. At constant pressure what would be the percentage decrease in the density of an ideal gas for a
10% increase in temperature?
32. 200 mL of 0.5 N solution of acidified KMnO 4 was mixed with 300 mL of 0.6 N FeC2O4 solution and
the mixture is gently heated for complete reaction according to the following equation.
MnO 4 FeC2O 4 H Mn2 Fe3 CO2 H2O
What volume (in L) of CO2 gas is produced at STP in the reaction?
33. The percentage ionic character of a bond having 1.275 A0 as its length and 1.03 D its dipole
moment will be
(6) The order of energy of subshells in a given principle quantum level for an H-atom are
ns<np<nd<.
(7) in silver atom (at.no. 47), 23 electrons have a spin of one type and 24 electrons have a
spin of opposite type.
36. In 1869 Ladenburg suggested a structure for benzene, C6H6, in which one hydrogen atom is
attached to each carbon atom.
A compound C6H4Cl2 could be formed with the same carbon skeleton as the Ladenburg structure.
How many structural isomers would this compound have?
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11 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
n
37. Given that sin3 x. sin 3x c m cos mx, c n 0, is an identity. The value of n is
m0
(A) 2
(B) 4
(C) 6
(D) cannot be calculated
38. If the sum of first 100 terms of an arithmetic progression is -1 and the sum of the even terms lying
in first 100 terms is 1, then
13
(A) common difference is
50
7
(B) common difference is
50
151
(C) first term is
50
149
(D) first term is
50
39. If the focus of midpoints of portions of tangents intercepted between coordinate axes of hyperbola
x2 y2 9
1is 2 2 , then ( + ) is equal to
16 9 x y
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) 20
40. Seven different lecturers are to deliver lectures in seven periods of a class on a particular day. A,
B and C are three of the lectures. The number of ways in which a routine for the day can be made
such that A delivers his lecture before B and B before C, is :
(A) 210
(B) 420
(C) 840
(D) None of these
41. If |zi|2 and z1 = 5 + 3i, (where i 1) , then the maximum value of |iz+z1| is:
(A) 2 31
(B) 7
(C) 31 2
(D) 31 2
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12
r 1 A B C
42. If in triangle ABC, , then the value of tan tan tan is equal to:
r1 2 2 2 2
(A) 2
1
(B)
2
(C) 1
(D) None of these
43. The points (2, 3), (0, 2), (4, 5) and (0, t) are concyclic if the value of t is
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 17
(D) 3
The equation of four circles are x a y a a2 . The radius of the circle touching all the
2 2
44.
four circles is
(A) 2 1 a
(B) 2 2a
(C) 2 1 a
(D) 2 2 a
45. If the equation of the parabola is x2 + y2 – 2xy + 4x – 2y + 1= 0, then
(A) Axis is 2x – 2y + 3 = 0
5
(B) Tangent at vertex is 2x 2y 0
4
1 11
(C) Vertex is ,
8 8
3 15
(D) Focus is ,
8 8
46. Let us consider all complex numbers satisfying |z25i|15. Among all these complex numbers:
(A) complex number with least argument is tan1(3/4)
1
(B) complex number with maximum argument is tan (3 / 4)
(C) complex number with at least magnitude is 10
(D) complex number with maximum magnitude is 40
n
47. For n N, let S(k) r
r 0
k n
( Cr )2 , then
2n
(A) S(0) Cn
1 2n
(B) S(1) ( Cn )
2
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13 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
2n
(C) S(0) Cn1
n 2n
(D) S(1) ( Cn )
2
48. The number of ways of arranging seven persons (having A, B, C and D among them) in a row so
that A, B, C and D are always in order A-B-C-D(not necessarily together is:
(A) 210
(B) 5040
(C) 6× 7C4
(D) 7P
3
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
49. If a, b, c are distinct integers and 1 is a cube root of unity and if minimum value of
1
a b c2 a b2 c is 144 n , then the value of n must be equal to
52. Let normals are drawn to the parabola y2 = 8x from any point on the line y = -4. If the locus of
vertices of triangle formed by the corresponding tangents is (x – ) (y – ) = c, then the value of
– + c is ____
x 2 2x 3 x 6
2 3
54. If be the minimum value of y (sin x cosec x) 2 (cos x sec x) 2 (tan x cot x) 2 where
x R . Find 6
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 16-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A particle performing SHM undergoes displacement of A/2 (where A = amplitude of SHM) in one
second. At t = 0 the particle was located at either extreme position or mean position. The time
period of SHM can be: (consider all possible cases)
(A) 12s
(B) 2.4s
(C) 6s
(D) 1.2s
2. A cylinder of cross-sectional area 10 cm2 encloses He gas through a piston. Axis P0
3. A train accelerating uniformly passes three successive kilometre posts at time t = 0, t = 75 and
t = 125 (all in second). In respect of this motion, which of the following statements are true?
8 2
(A) The acceleration of the train is m / s
75
(B) The speed at the last of the three posts is 22.67 m/s
(C) The initial velocity of the train is 10 m/s
(D) The train will travel the next one kilometre in 15 second
4. The position-time (x–t) graphs for two children A and B returning from their x
school O to their homes P and Q respectively along straight line path (taken Q B
as x-axis) are shown in figure below: Choose the correct statement(s): P A
(A) A lives closer to the school than B
(B) A starts from the school earlier than B
(C) A and B have equal average velocities from 0 to t0. t
t0
(D) B overtakes A on the way
5. In the system shown in the figure the mass m moves in a circular arc
of angular amplitude 600. Mass 4 m is stationary. Then (strings and
pulley are ideal)
(A) The minimum value of coefficient of friction between the mass 4 m and the surface of the
table is 0.50
(B) The work done by gravitational force on the block m is positive when it moves from A to B
(C) The power delivered by the tension when m moves from A to B is zero
(D) The kinetic energy of m in position B equals to the work done by gravitational force on the
block when it moves from position A to B
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3 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
6. Inner and outer radii of spool are r and R, respectively. A thread is wound
over its inner surface and spool is placed over a rough horizontal surface.
Thread is pulled by a force F as shown in fig. In case of pure rolling which
of the following statements are false?
(A) Thread unwinds, spool rotates anticlockwise and friction acts leftwards.
(B) Thread winds, spool rotates clockwise and friction acts leftwards
(C) Thread winds, spool moves to the right and friction acts rightwards.
(D) Thread winds, spool moves to the right and friction does not comes into existence.
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
11. A diatomic molecule has atoms of masses m1 and m2 . The potential energy of the molecule for
the interatomic separation r is given by U r =A+B r-r0 , where
2
r0 is the equilibrium
separation, and A and B are positive constants. The atoms are compressed towards each other
from their equilibrium positions and released. What is the vibrational frequency of the molecule?
(Given m1 =1kg, m2 =2kg, B=1/3unit )
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
12. The temperature across two different slabs A and B are shown
in the steady state (as shown in figure). The ratio of thermal 60
C C 50
conductivities of A and B , is
0
Temperature
30
20 A B
10
0
0 1 2 3 4 5 6
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
14. A rod of uniform density and length is hinged at O and kept at /2
15. The light cone is in equilibrium under the action of hydrostatic forces of
two liquids of densities 1 and 2 . Find 1 2H
2 H 1 2
H
16. Two rods of same length and material transfer a given amount of heat in 125 sec, when they are
joined end to end but when they are joined lengthwise, they will transfer same heat in same
condition in how much time. (in s)
17. An aluminum wire of cross-sectional area 1 × 10–6m2 is joined to a copper wire of the same cross-
section. This compound wire is stretched on a sonometer, pulled by a weight of 10 kg. The total
length of the compound wire between the two bridges is 1.5m of which the aluminum wire is 0.6m
and the rest is the copper wire. Transverse vibrations are set up in the wire by using an external
force of variable frequency. The density of aluminum is 2.6×103 kg/m3 and that of copper
1.04×104 kg/m3. (g = 9.8 m/s2). Find the lowest frequency (in Hz) of excitation for which standing
waves are formed, such that the joint in the wire is a node.
18. A uniform thread in shape of a circular loop is rotating about an axis passing through its center
and normal to its plane with angular velocity 12.3 rad/sec. Find out velocity of transverse wave
pulse w.r.t. the medium in the thread. (in m/s)
Radius of loop is 0.4 m/s
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5 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
20. Which oxides do react with dilute sodium hydroxide to produce a salt?
(A) Al2O3
(B) P4O10
(C) SO2
(D) SiO2
21. Samples of the gases CH3CH 2 Cl and Cl2 are mixed together and irradiate with light. Which of
the following is/are not likely to be formed in the reaction?
(A) CH 3CHCl2
(B) CH 2ClCH 2Cl
(C) CH 3CH 2CH 2CH 2CH 3
(D) CH4
23. Which sequence shows the correct order of increasing pK b in an aqueous solution of equal
concentration?
(A) CH 3CH 2CH 2 NH 2 CH 3CH 2CH NH CH 3CH 2C N
(B) C2 H 5 NH 2 C6 H 5 NH 2 C2 H 5 NH 3 C2 H 5CONH 2
(C) C2 H 5 NH 2 C6 H 5 NH 2 C2 H 5CONH 2 C2 H 5 NH 3
(D) C2 H 5 NH 3 C2 H 5CONH 2 C2 H 5 NH 2 C6 H 5 NH 2
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
24. At very high pressure, the van der Waals equation reduces to
(A) PV = RT + Pb
aRT
(B) PV 2
V
RT
(C) P
V b
a
(D) PV RT
V
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
What is the total number of geometrical isomers that can be formed from the product of the
reaction of compound L with excess concentrated sulphuric acid at 170°C? (Do not consider
rearrangement of carbocation)
26. Total number of moles of hydro chloric acid react with one mole of borax to converts all boron
atoms to boric acid.
, , , N
H
,
, ,
O
O
28. How many of the following molecules or ions have sp3d hybridisation of their central atom?
I3 ,SbF6 ,F3 ,ClO 3 , XeO 2F2 , XeO 64 ,SF4
29. A commercial sample of H2O2 is labeled as ’10 volume’. What is its percentage strength (% w/v)?
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
31. How many of the following addition reactions are syn addition reaction.
H 3C CH 3 H 3C CH 3
(a)
C C
Br2
CCl4
(b)
C C
H 2 , Ni
H H D D
H 2 , Pd BaSO4
H 3C C C CH 3 H 3C C C CH 3
Na , Liq . NH 3
(c) (d)
(e)
BH 3 ,THF
H O ,OH
(f)
Cold dil . alkaline KMnO4
2 2
CH 3
(g)
1. PhCO3 H
2. H / H O
(h)
Br2 H 2O
2
CH 3
32. How many groups are o/p director in the electrophilic aromatic substitution?
(i) NH 2
(ii) CHO
(iii) NO2 (iv) COOH
(v) OMe (vi)
(vii) Et (viii) O
H
C N Me
(ix) Cl (x) SO3 H
33. If enthalpy of neutralization of HCl by NaOH is -57.2 kJ mol-1 and with NH4OH is -50.1 kJ mol-1.
Calculate enthalpy of ionization (in kJ/ mol) of NH 4 OH aq. .
34. Na2O2 is a strong oxidising agent. It oxidises chromic compounds into chromates. How many
moles of Na2O2 are required to convert one mole of Cr OH 3 into sodium chromate?
M
35. 2g NaOH is added to 100 ml H 2SO 4 solution and the resulting solution is obtained by
20
addition of 900 ml H2O. Assuming both the dissociation of H2SO4 to be 100%; the pH of resulting
solution at 25°C is (neglecting volume change due to reaction) (log 2 = 0.3)
36. The molar solubility of Mn OH 2 (KSP = 4.5 1014 ) in a buffer solution containing equal
amounts of NH 4 and NH3 ( K = 5.55 1010 ) at 25°C is x×10-5 M . The value of x is___
a NH 4
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
38. In a triangle, the length of the two larger sides are 10 and 9 respectively. If the angles are in A.P.,
then the length of the third side can be
(A) 5 6
(B) 3 3
(C) 5
(D) 5 6
40. If , be the roots of x2 – 2x – a + 1 = 0 and , the roots of x2 – 2(a + 1)x + a(a – 1) = 0 such
that and lie in the (, ), then
1
(A) a , 1,
4
1
(B) a ,1
4
(C) a lies in (-1, 1)
(D) a (1, )
41. If H(3,4) and O=(1,2) are orthocentre and circumcentre of PQR respectively and equation of
side PQ is xy+7=0, then:
(A) Equation of circumcircle of PQR is (x1)2+(y2)2=80
(B) Equation of circumcircle of PQR is (x1)2+(y2)2=100
Centroid of PQR is ,
5 8
(C)
3 3
(D) Midpoint of PQ is (–2, 5)
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9 AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
42. PQ is a double ordinate of the parabola y2=4ax. If the normal at P intersect the line passing
through Q and parallel to x-axis at G; then locus of G is a parabola with:
(A) vertex at (4a, 0)
(B) focus at (5a, 0)
(C) directrix as the line x3a=0
(D) length of latus rectum equal to 4a
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
1/3
43. If z1 2, z2 3, z3 4 and 2 z1 3z2 4 z3 9, then value of 8 z2 z3 27 z3 z1 64 z1 z2
is_____
44. A cricketer has score 4500 runs. Let an denotes the number of runs he scores in the n th match.
If a1 a2 ....a10 150 and a10 , a11 , a12 ..... are in A.P. with common difference 2 . If N be
the total number of matches played by him to score 4500 runs. Find the sum of the digits of
N_____
The least value of the expression sin cos ec cos sec R is______
2 2
45.
46. Let a, b and c be the side lengths of a triangle ABC and assume that a b and a c . If
bca ax
x , then find the minimum value of , where r and R denotes in radius
2 rR
circumradius of triangle ABC.
x2 y2
47. If P is a point on the ellipse =1 whose foci are S and S. Then PS + PS is______
16 20
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
147
49. The sum if an infinitely decreasing GP is 3.5 and sum of the squares of its terms is . The
16
sum of the cubes of the terms of the progression is:
50. If the straight line through the point P 3, 4 makes an angle with the x-axis and meets the line
6
3x 5 y 1 0 at Q, the length PQ is:
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AIITS-HCT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
51. The length of the perpendicular on the tangent at the point whole eccentric angle is from the
3
x2 y 2
focus of the ellipse 1 nearer to the tangent is P find 100P :
25 16
52. Let the normals are drawn form , to the hyperbola xy 1 and x i, yi , i 1, 2,3, 4 be the
feet of the co-normal points. If the algebraic sum of the perpendicular distance drawn from
xi, yi , i 1, 2,3, 4 on to a variable line vanishes, then the variable line passes through the point
. then the value of 256 must be:
2
53. If tan 2 ..... tan 2 7
tan 2
16 16 16
2
x y
and if x y : then fins
y x
10
Where x, y z :
54. If y 2 (y 2 -6)+x 2 -8x+24=0 and the minimum value of x 2 y 4 is m and maximum value is M;
m
then find the value of 1000M+
100
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2022
General Instructions:
Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2. A thin metal disc of radius r floats on water surface and bends the surface downwards
along the perimeter making an angle with the vertical edge of the disc. If the disc
displaces a weight of water W and surface tension of water is T, then the weight of metal
disc is
(A) 2rT + W
(B) 2rT cos – W
(C) 2rT cos + W
(D) W – 2rT cos
3. In order to do work :
(A) force must act at any angle to the displacement
(B) Force may not act along the same direction as is the displacement
(C) must act along the direction of displacement
(D) must act normal to the direction of displacement
4. A particle moves in a straight line so that after t second the distance x from a fixed point
2
O on the line is given by x t 2 t 5 . Then :
(A) after 2s, the velocity of particle is zero
(B) after 2s, the particle reaches at O
(C) the acceleration is negative when t < 3s
(D) all of the above
5. A uniform disc of radius R lies in the x – y plane, with its centre at origin moment of
inertia about z – axis is equal to its moment of inertia about line y = x + c. The value of c
will be –
R
(A)
2
R
(B)
2
R
(C)
4
(D) –R
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3 AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
6. An ideal gas after going through a series of four thermodynamic states in order, reaches
the initial state again (cyclic process). The amounts of heat (Q) and work (W) involved in
the states are
Q1 6000J; Q 2 5500J; Q3 3000J; Q 4 3500J
W1 2500J; W2 1000J; W3 1200J; W4 xJ
The ratio of net work done by the gas to the total heat absorbed by the gas is . The
value of x and are nearly
(A) 500J; 7.5%
(B) 700J; 10.5%
(C) 1000J; 21%
(D) 1500J; 15%
7. A firecracker exploding on the surface of a lake is heard as two sounds a time interval t
apart by a man on a boat close to water surface. Sound travels with a speed u in water
and a speed v in air. The distance from the exploding firecracker to the boat is (u > v)
uvt
(A)
uv
t(u v)
(B)
uv
t(u v)
(C)
uv
uvt
(D)
uv
8. If B is the bulk modulus of a metal and a pressure P is applied uniformly on all sides of
the metal with density D, then the fractional increase in density is given by
B
(A)
P
P
(B)
B
PD
(C)
B
BD
(D)
P
9. A gas bubble from an explosion under water oscillate with a period T proportional to p a
db Ec where p is the static pressure, d is the density and E is the total energy of
explosion. The values of a, b, c are
(A) a = 0, b = 1, c = 2
(B) a = 1, b = 2, c = 1
(C) a = 5/6, b = -1/2, c = ½
(D) a = -5/6, b = 1/2, c = 1/3
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 4
10. Two satellites of same mass are launched in the same orbit around the earth so as to
rotate opposite to each other. If they collide inelastically and stick together as wreckage,
the total energy of the system just after collision is
2GMm
(A)
r
GMm
(B)
r
GMm
(C)
2r
GMm
(D)
4r
11. A simple pendulum has time period T = 2s in air. If the whole arrangement is placed in a
1
nonviscous liquid whose density is times the density of bob. The time period of the
2
simple pendulum in the liquid will be
2
(A) s
2
(B) 4s
(C) 2 2s
(D) 4 2s
2 kg
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5 AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
(C) 6
16
(D)
3
15. A heavy disc is thrown on a horizontal surface with an initial linear velocity of v 0. It will
start pure rolling when its linear velocity becomes
v0
(A)
2
2v 0
(B)
3
3v 0
(C)
5
5v 0
(D)
7
16. A heater of power 2000 kW is switched on inside a body, so that its surface temperature
is maintained at 270C. The surrounding temperature is zero kelvin. If the voltage is
dropped by 19%, the new equilibrium temperature of body is (consider heat loss due to
radiation only)
(A) 3000C
(B) –30C
(C) 2700C
(D) –60C
17. A tank with vertical walls is mounted so that its base is at a height H above the horizontal
ground. The tank is filled, with water to a depth h. A hole is punched in the side wall of
the tank at a depth x below the water surface. To have maximum range of emerging
stream, the value of x is (h > H)
Hh
(A)
2
H
(B)
2
h
(C)
2
Hh
(D)
2
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 6
19. A body of mass 1kg is suspended from a massless spring having force constant 600
N/m. Another body of mass 0.5 kg moving vertically upwards hits the suspended body
with a velocity 3 m/sec and gets embedded in it. The frequency of oscillation and the
amplitude of motion are
10
(A) Hz, 10 Cm
10
(B) Hz,5 Cm
5
(C) Hz,5 Cm
5
(D) Hz,10 Cm
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
21. The pressure at the bottom of water in a lake is 3/2 times that at half its depth. The water
h
barometer reads 10 m at atmosphere. The depth of the lake (in m.) is h, then is
4
S2
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7 AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
23. A spring of force constant k is cut into two pieces such that one piece is four the length
of the other. Then the long piece will have a force constant “nk” where n is
24. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10.5, then tension in the string (in N.) will be
25. A planet revolves around the sun in an elliptical orbit of eccentricity. T is the time
5
period of the planet, then the shortest time spent by the planet between one end of
minor axis to the position closest to the sun is nT where n is
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
28. Which of the following compound can’t from any acid upon acidified permanganate
oxidation?
(A) CH3CH = CH2
(B) CH3CH = CHCH3
(C)
29. Which one of the following compounds will give in the presence of peroxide a product
different from that obtained in the absence of peroxide?
(A) 1-butene HCl
(B) 1-butene, HBr
(C) 2-butene, HCl
(D) 2-butene, HBr.
30. Each of the following pair contains species with the same geometry EXCEPT
(A) P O34 , S O24
(B) NH4 , BF4
(C) CO2, C2H2
(D) N2O, NO2
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31. A reaction mixture containing H2, N2 and NH3 has partial pressures 2 atm, 1 atm and 3
atm respectively at 725 K. If the value of Kp for the reaction, N2(g) + 3H2(g)
2NH3(g)
is 4.28 10–5 atm–2 at 725 K, in which direction the net reaction will go ?
(A) Forward
(B) Backward
(C) No net reaction
(D) Direction of reaction cannot be predicted.
32. A vessel contains 100 mL of 0.2 M aqueous solution of CH3COOH. How many moles of
CH3COONa is to be added to it so that the pH of resulting solution will be 6 [Ka of
CH3COOH = 10–5]
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 4
(D) 0.4
33. If for two gases of molecular weights MA and MB at temperature TA and TB, TAMB = TBMA,
then which property has the same magnitude for both the gases?
(A) density
(B) pressure
(C) KE per mole
(D) Urms
36. The least water pollutant gas among the following is:
(A) CO2
(B) NO2
(C) N2
(D) SO2
37. In each of the following total pressure set-up at equilibrium is assumed to be equal and
is 1 atm. With equilibrium constants Kp given as K1, K2 & K3 for I, II & III equilibria
respectively, which of the following is correct ?
I. CaCO3(s) CaO(s) + CO2(g), K1
II. NH4HS(s) NH3(g) + H2S(g), K2
III. NH2CO2NH4(s) 2NH3(g) + CO2(g), K3
(A) K1 = K2 = K3
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 10
38. Under the same reaction conditions, initial concentration of 1.386 mol dm –3 of a
substance becomes half in 40 seconds and 20 seconds through first order and zero
k1
order kinetics, respectively. Ratio of the rate constants for first order (k1) and zero
k0
order (k0) of the reaction is :
(A) 0.5 mol–1 dm3
(B) 1.0 mol. dm–3
(C) 1.5 mol. dm–3
(D) 2.0 mol–1. dm3
40. Aluminium chloride exists as a dimmer, Al2Cl6, in solid state as well as in solution of non-
polar solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives :
(A) Al3 3Cl
3
(B) Al H2O 3Cl
6
3
(C) Al OH 3HCl
6
(D) Al2O3 6HCl
41. Which of the following compounds is not formed by acidic hydrolysis of borax?
(A) H2B4O7
(B) HBO2
(C) H3BO3
(D) H2B2O3
Br
42. BF
CH3OH
3
Pr oduct
Cl
The major product of above reaction is
(A) Br (B) Br
H3C HO
Cl Cl
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11 AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
(C) Br (D) Br
Cl Cl
CH3 OH
44. Which of the following substance reacts with NaOH in a non-redox reaction?
(A) Cl2
(B) Si
(C) Al(OH)3
(D) S
45. Which one of the following compound has the highest dipole moment?
(A) BF3
(B) BF4
(C) BFCl2
(D) BCl3
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
46. The temperature of a sample of diatomic ideal gas is increased by 4.5 times of its initial
value. At this temperature the molecules are completely dissociated into atoms. How
many times will the gas velocity increase from initial value due to the change?
47. 10
1
10–1
P in atm 10–2
–3
10
–4
10
Time
The plot of partial pressure of the product and reactant is given above. What is the
value of Go in L atm unit at temperature ‘T’?
[Assume 2.303 RT = 4 L atm mol–1]
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 12
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
o
48. The energy of an electron of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV when it is 0.53 A away from the
nucleus. When the hydrogen atom is supplied with 12.75 eV energy the electron moves
o
to a higher orbit. What is the distance of that orbit from the nucleus in A unit?
49. 56.7 g anhydrous oxalic acid (H2C2O4) completely decolourises 200 mL of acidified
KMnO4 solution. What is the molarity of the KMnO4 solution?
50. A large number of structural isomers are possible with formula C4H11N
If x = Number of primary amines,
y = Number of secondary amines and
z = number of tertiary amines, then
What is (x + y + z)
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13 AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
51. If the axes are rotated through an angle of 45o in the clockwise direction about origin,
the coordinates of a point in the new system are (0, –2), then its original coordinates are
(A) 2, 2
(B) 2, 2
(C) 2, 2
(D) 2, 2
10
1
52. The 7 term in y 2 , when expanded in descending power of y, is
th
y
210
(A)
y2
y2
(B)
210
(C) 210y 2
(D) none of these
55.
If 1 y 1 2x 4x 2 8x3 16x 4 32x 5 1 y 6 , y 1 , then a value of
y
x
is
1
(A)
2
(B) 2
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 14
1
(C)
4
(D) 4
x2 y2
56. If P acos , b sin is a point on ellipse 1 , then ' ' is
a2 b2
(A) angle of OP line from positive direction of x – axis (O is origin)
(B) angle of OQ line from positive direction of x axis [when Q is acos ,a sin ]
(C) it depends on the point P
(D) none of the above
57. If x 0, ,tanm x cotm x attains
2
(A) a minimum value which is dependent of m
(B) a minimum value which is a function of m
(C) the minimum value of 2
(D) none of these
Which one of the above statements is correct?
2
58. If 0 a b c, and the roots , of the equation ax bx c 0 are imaginary, then
the incorrect option is
(A)
(B) 1
(C) 1
(D)
59. 1 1 1 ......to
(A) 1
(B) –1
(C)
(D) 2
n3
(D) 12 22 ....... n2
3
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15 AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
61. The largest value of the positive integer k for which nk 1 divides
1 n n2 ....... n127
(A) 8
(B) 16
(C) 32
(D) 64
7z
62. If f z , where z 1 2i, then f z is equal to
1 z2
z
(A)
2
(B) z
(C) 2z
(D) None of these
63. The chords of contact of the pair of tangents to the circle x 2 y 2 1 drawn from any
point on the line 2x y 4 pass through the point
1 1
(A) ,
2 4
1 1
(B) ,
4 2
1
(C) 1,
2
1
(D) , 1
2
64. A lamp post standing at a point A on a circular path of radius ‘r’ subtends an angle at
point B(different from A) on the path and AB subtends an angle of 45o at any other point
on the path, then the height of the lamp post is
r
(A) tan
2
(B) 2r tan
(C) 2 r cot
r
(D) cot
2
e7 x e x
65. The coefficient of x n in the expansion of is (where n is a non negative integer)
e3x
4n1 2
n
(A)
n!
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AIITS-HCT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 16
4n1 2n
(B)
n!
4 1
n 1 n 1
(C)
n!
4 2
n n
(D)
n!
12 12 22 12 22 3 2 12 22 ..... n2
66. The sum of the series .... ... equals
1.2! 2.3! 3.4! n. n 1 !
(A) e2
1
2
(B) e e 1
2
3e 1
(C)
6
4e 1
(D)
6
68. The number of values of x in 0,2 satisfying the inequation cos x sin x 2 is
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) none of these
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70. 6 boys and 4 girls sit in a line so that p is the number of arrangements when no two girls
sit together and q is the number of arrangements when all the girls sit together, then
p
is
q
(A) 1
7
(B)
2
(C) 5
(D) none of these
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
71.
The number of solutions of logsin x 2tan x 0 in the interval 0, is
2
x2
72. The number of real solutions of the equation 1 is
1 x 5
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
73. If x, y, z, t are odd natural numbers such that x y z t 20, then the number of
values of ordered quadruplet (x, y, z, t) is
74. If the distances of 2 points P and Q on parabola y 2 4ax from the focus of parabola
y 2 4ax are 4 and 9 respectively, then the distance of the point of intersection of
tangents at P and Q from the focus is k, where (2021.55)k equals to
75. The number of triangles whose vertices are at the vertices of an octagon but none of
whose sides happen to come from the sides of the octagon is m, where (2017.32)m is
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 30-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –0 mark for wrong answer.
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. Two spherical bodies A (of radius 6 cm) and B (of radius 18 cm) are at temperatures T1
and T2 respectively. The maximum intensity in the emission spectrum of A is at 500 nm
and in that of B is at 1500nm. Considering them to be black bodies, the ratio of the rate
of total energy radiated by A and B will be
(A) 3:1
(B) 9:1
(C) 27 : 1
(D) 81 : 1
3. The displacement (in cm) of a moving particle at any time t is given by the equation of
the form y 3 cos t 4 sin t where 2s1 . Its period of oscillation and its amplitude
of oscillation is
(A) 3.14s, 5cm
(B) 3.14s, 7cm
(C) 1.57s, 5cm
(D) 1.57s, 1cm
4. A particle moves along the y-axis of a coordinate system, with a force component
Fy = (2N/m3)y3 acting on it. As the particle moves from the origin to y = 3 m, how much
work is done on it by the force?
(A) 0J
(B) 40.5 J
(C) –40.5 J
(D) 162 J
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3 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
0°C
200°C
(A) temperature difference across AB and CD are equal.
(B) temperature difference across AB is greater than that of across CD.
(C) temperature difference across AB is less than that of across CD.
(D) temperature difference may be equal or different depending on the thermal
conductivity of the rod.
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
L
(C) Ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t =
3g
2L
(D) Ball hits the top of container at end Q after a time t =
3g
11. If A,B and C are non zero coplanar, choose the correct statements
(A) A BC 0
(B)
A. B C = 0.
(C)
A B . B C 0,
(D) A BC 0
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5 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
12. If the kinetic energy of a body is directly proportional to time ‘t’, the magnitude of the
force acting on the body is (Body is moving on straight line path)
(A) directly proportional to t
(B) inversely proportional to t
(C) directly proportional to the speed of the body
(D) inversely proportional to the speed of the body
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
13. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken along the cycle
ABCDA where AB is isochoric, BC is isobaric, CD is adiabatic
and DA is isothermal. Find the efficiency of the cycle. It is given
T v 1
that C 4, A . [ln2 = 0.693]
TA v D 16
14. A thin uniform metallic rod of mass m, length L,
Young modulus of elasticity Y and crosssectional A
Shaded region
area A is rotated by angular velocity about
extreme end AA’. Consider a section on the rod at
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
17. A stone is projected with initial velocity u 4 m / s at an angle = 30° with the horizontal,
find the angular velocity in rad/sec of the stone with respect to the point of projection,
when it is at its maximum height. (take g = 10 m/s2)
18. In the figure, find the minimum value of mass ‘m’ (in kg) of the rod
rod so that the block of mass M =12 kg remains stationary on
m
the inclined plane (take g = 10 m/s2) assume there is no friction = 0.5
between rod and block
M
30o
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7 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(C) (D)
N NH2
20. 0.1 mole of a carbohydrate with empirical formula CH2O contains 1g of hydrogen. What
is its molecular formula?
(A) C4H8O4
(B) C6H12O6
(C) C5H10O5
(D) All the correct
21. Which of the following electronic transition of carbon atom, is accompanied with increase
in paramagnetism?
(A) 2p 3s
(B) 2s 2p
(C) 2p 3p
(D) None of these
22. In which of the following case/s all carbon atoms do not have same hybridization?
(–)
H2C CH CH3 CH CH3 CH 3CHCH 3 H 2C C CH2
(I) (II) (III) (IV)
(A) I and II
(B) II and IV
(C) III and IV
(D) Only II
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
Cl
Cl
(A) Cl (B) Cl
Cl Cl
Cl
Cl
(C) H (D) All of these
Cl Cl
25. The pair(s) of molecules with different state of the hybridization of the central atom but
with the same shape is (are)
(A) [XeF2 , Br3 ]
(B) [CO 2 , I3 ]
(C) [XeF4 , Ni(CN) 42 ]
(D) [H 2O, SO2 ]
26. Which of the following contain(s) the decreasing order of ionization energies of the
concerned atoms?
(A) Li > Be > B > C
(B) S > P > Cl > Si
(C) Si > Mg > Al > Na
(D) F>N>O>C
27. Which of the following properties of alkali metals decrease(s) on moving down the
group?
(A) Hydrated radii of ions
(B) Ionisation energy
(C) standard reduction potential of Maq / M(s) couple
(D) Basic nature of oxides
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9 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
29. Consider the conformation given below and choose the correct CH3
statement(s):
(A) it is optically active
(B) it has centre of symmetry H Cl
(C) it is optically inactive H
(D) it does not have plane of symmetry
CH3 Cl
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
31. If an aqueous solution at 25°C has twice as many OH ─ as pure water its pOH will be
[log2 = 0.3010]
32. A gas cylinder containing cooking gas can withstand a pressure of 14.9 atm. The
pressure gauge of cylinder indicates 12 atm at 27°C. Due to sudden fire in building the
temperature starts rising. The temperature(oC) at which the cylinder will explode is.
33. Equal volumes of two solutions of a strong acid having pH 3 and pH 4 are mixed
together. The pH of the resulting solution will then be equal to [log 5.5 = 0.74]
34. The rate constant for a zero order reaction is 210–2 molL–1sec–1. If the concentration of
the reactant after 25 sec is 0.5 M, the initial concentration must have been
35. 5.40 gm of an unknown gas at 27C occupies the same volume as 0.14 gm of hydrogen
at 17C and same pressure. The molecular weight of unknown gas is
36. Rate of the chemical reaction: nA products, is doubled when the concentration of A
increased four times. If the half time of the reaction at any temperature is 16 min. then
time required for 75% of the reaction to complete is
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1 1
37. If cos 3 sin , then is equal to
1 3 sin2 1 3 sin 2
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
4
1
(D)
4
38. The side of a regular hexagon is 2 cm. The ratio of the radius of circumscribed circle to
the radius of inscribed circle is
3
(A)
2
1
(B)
2
(C) 2
2
(D)
3
39. If z 1 and arg z and arg z 5 iz then 2 cos equal to
4
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) None of these
b 3
40. Angles A, B and C of a triangle ABC are in AP. If , then angle A is
c 2
(A)
6
(B)
4
5
(C)
12
(D)
2
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11 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
41. If in ABC the equation of angle bisector of angle B is y = x and that of angle C is
y = –x, then the equation of line BC, the coordinates of A are given to be (5, 7) is
(A) x y 1 0
(B) 7y 5x 3 0
(C) 7y 5x
(D) None of these
42. If A = tan 6° tan 42° and B = cot 66° cot 78°, then
(A) A = 2B
1
(B) A B
3
(C) A=B
(D) 3A = 2B
43. A solution of the equation cot 1 2 cot 1 x cot 1 10 x where 1 < x < 9 is
(A) 7
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
44. The centre of a circle S = 0 lies on 2x 2y 9 0 and S 0 cuts orthogonally the circle
x 2 y 2 4 . Then the circle must pass through the point:
(A) (1, 1)
(B) (–1/2, 1/2)
(C) (5, 5)
(D) (–4, 4)
45. The equation (13x – 1)2 + (13y – 2)2 = (a2 – 2a +1) (5x +12y -1)2
represents an ellipse. Then ‘a’ can be
(A) 0 < |a -1| < 1
(B) |a -1| < 1
2
(C) 0 < |a -1| <
3
1
(D) 0 < |a -1| <
3
46. If a1,a2 ,......an are positive real numbers whose product is a fixed number c
minimum value of a1 a2 ......... an1 2an is n 2c
1/n
(A)
(B) maximum value of a1 a2 ........ an1 2a n cannot be calculated
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12
47. If 5, 12 and 24, 7 are the foci of a conic passing through the origin, then the
eccentricity of conic is
386
(A)
38
386
(B)
12
386
(C)
13
386
(D)
25
48. Let the parabolas y x 2 a x b and y x c x touch each other at the point (1, 0),
then
(A) a=–3
(B) b=1
(C) c=2
(D) b+c=3
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
r 1 A B C
49. If in triangle ABC, , then the value of tan tan tan is equal to:
r1 2 2 2 2
n
1
50. If the middle term of x 2 is 924 x 6 , then value of =
x
51. If the numbers 330, 486 and 604 divided by a positive number ’p’ leaving the remainder
7, 11 and 15 respectively, then the largest value of p is
The sum of all the coefficient of those terms in the expansion of a b c d which
8
52.
contains b but not c
53. Let n be the largest integer that is the product of exactly 3 distinct primes, x, y and 10x +
y; where x and y are digits. Then n is.
25
54. The complex number z satisfies the condition z 24 . The maximum distance from
z
the origin of co – ordinates to the point z is
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – III
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 30-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. Two particles undergo SHM along the same line with the
same time period (T) and equal amplitudes (A). At a A O B
particular instant one particle is at x = –A and the other is x=–A x=0 x=+A
at x = 0. They move in the same direction. They will
cross each other at time t and at position x then
4T
(A) t
3
3T
(B) t
8
A
(C) x
2
A
(D) x
2
V3
3. Two moles of a monatomic ideal gas undergoes a thermodynamic process
T2
constant, if the temperature is raised by 300K then
(A) work done by the gas is 400 R
(B) change in internal energy is 900 R
(C) molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is 13/6 R
(D) molar heat capacity of the gas for the process is 3/2 R
4. 10 gms of ice at 00C is mixed with 5 gms of steam at 1000C. If latent heat of fusion of ice
is 80 cal/gm and latent heat of vaporization is 540 cal/gm. Then at thermal equilibrium
(A) temperature of mixture is 00C
(B) temperature of mixture is 1000C
(C) mixture contains 13.33 gms of water and 1.67 gms of steam
(D) mixture contains 5.3 gms of ice and 9.7 gms of water
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3 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
5. A point mass of 1 kg collides elastically with a stationary point mass of 5 kg. After their
collision, the 1 kg mass reverses its direction and moves with a speed of 2 ms-1. Which
of the following statement(s) is (are) correct for the system of these two masses?
(A) Total momentum of the system is 3 kg ms-1
(B) Momentum of 5 kg mass after collision is 4 kg ms-1
(C) Kinetic energy of the centre of mass is 0.75 J
(D) Total kinetic energy of the system is 4 J
6. A cylinder is rotated clockwise and lowered slowly on a rough
inclined plane with ( = 0.8). Then:
(A) cylinder will start going upwards
(B) cylinder will start going downwards.
(C) frictional force will act upwards.
(D) frictional force will act downwards. 60°
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
D(P,2V)
A(P,V)
A B C
5m
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
11. A 20 cm long string, having a mass of 1.0 g, is fixed at both the ends. The tension in the
string is 0.5 N. The string is set into vibrations using an external vibrator of frequency
100 Hz. Find the separation ( in cm) between the successive nodes on the string.
12. Figure below shows a massless pulley, a spring of constant K = 250 N/m and a mass
1 kg. On displacing the mass slightly, find its frequency (approximate) of its vertical
oscillation
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
13. The speed of sound in air is 332 m/s at NTP. What will be the speed of sound (in m/s)
in hydrogen at NTP if the density of hydrogen at NTP is 1/16 that of air [assume
PH = Pair]?
14. The gravitational field in a region is E (10 N / kg) (iˆ 2 ˆj 3 k).
ˆ Find magnitude of work
done by external agent to slowly move a particle of mass 3 kg from origin to point (3m,
4m, 5m) in joules.
15. A bullet of mass 20 gm moving horizontally with speed 500 m/s passes through a
wooden block of mass 10 kg which was initially stationary on level surface. Bullet
emerges with speed 100 m/s from other side of block and block slides 20 cm on surface
before coming to rest. Find between block and surface. (Take: g = 10 m/s2)
16. A particle oscillating simple harmonically with an amplitude of 1.5 cm, has a maximum
energy of 0.25 J. At what displacement from the equilibrium position (in cm) will the
particle be acted upon by a force of 2.5 × 10–5 N?
17. A small bob of mass 50 g oscillates as a simple pendulum, with an amplitude of 5 cm
and period of 2s. Find the tension in the supporting thread (in N), when the velocity of
the bob is maximum. [Take g = 10 m/s2]
18. A thermodynamic system undergoes a cyclic process
as shown in the figure. Find the quantity of heat (in J)
supplied to the system over one complete cycle.
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5 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19.
X g
Y g Z g
At above equilibrium, the no. of moles of X, Y and Z gases are same. The equilibrium is
attained at 1200 K and 12 atm pressure. The reaction takes place in a one litre
container. Choose correct statements.
(A) the equilibrium constant KP is 4 atm
(B) for the reaction, KP = KC
(C) the equilibrium constant KC is equal to the equilibrium concentration of any one
species (X or Y or Z)
(D) The decomposition of X increases by increasing pressure at equilibrium
20.
AlCl3
ClCH2 CH2Cl Product s
21. Which of the following carbide(s) form CH4 when react(s) with water?
(A) Be2C
(B) CaC2
(C) Mg2C3
(D) Al4C3
22. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for the following reversible reaction?
2Mg s O 2 g
2MgO s
(A) KP < KC
1
(B) KP
p O2
(C) KC = [O2]
KP 1
(D)
K C RT
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
26. How many moles of KMnO4 can completely oxidize five moles of C2O24 ions in acidic
medium?
MnO 4 C2O24 H
Mn2 CO2 H2O
28. The r. m. s. velocity of CH4 at 800 K is equal to the most probable velocity of an
unknown gas at 300 K. What is the molecular mass of the unknown gas?
30. How many grams of NaOH should be added to 400 mL of 0.5 N HCl for complete
neutralization?
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
31. The energy of the first orbit of hydrogen atom is -13.6 eV. What will be the second
ionization energy of helium atom in eV unit?
32. The product of rate constant and half-life period of the first order reactions is equal to
33.
SO 2 g NO2 g
SO3 g NO g
One mole each of the above gases are taken in a one litre vessel. The mole fraction of
NO2 gas at equilibrium is 0.2. What will be the equilibrium mole of SO 3 in mol L–1 unit?
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7 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
34. If one mole of a monobasic ideal gas is heated at constant pressure of 2 atm from 25 oC
to 50oC, the change in internal energy in calories will be
Given (R = 1.937 cal K–1 mol–1)
36. The pH of 1 M ammonium acetate solution will be (Given PK a of acetic acid = 4.76 and
PK b of NH4OH = 4.75)
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
37. If Sn denotes the sum to n terms of the series 1 n 9 1 22 333 ... 999....9
9 times
then for n 2
(A) Sn Sn1
1
9
10n n2 n
(B)
Sn 10n n2 2n 2
(C)
9 Sn Sn1 n 10n 1
(D) S3 356
16
38. If the tangent at the point 4 cos , sin to the ellipse 16x 2 11y 2 256 is also a
11
tangent to the circle x y 2x 15, then equals
2 2
(A)
3
2
(B)
3
(C)
3
5
(D)
3
39. The solution of the equation 9 cos12 x cos2 2x 1 6 cos6 x cos 2x 6 cos6 x 2 cos 2x
is/are
(A) x n , n I
2
2
(B) x n cos 1 4 ,n I
3
2
(C) x n cos1 4 ,n I
3
(D) None of these
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9 AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
x2 y2
41. If the chord of contact of the tangents from P to the ellipse 1 always touches
a2 b2
the circle on the join of foci as diameter, then P moves on the ellipse
x2 y2 1
ak1 bk 2 ak 3 bk 4
(A) k1 k 2 8
(B) k1 k 2 0
(C) k3 k 4 4
(D) k3 k 4 0
42. The chord AB of parabola y2 = 4ax cuts the axis of the parabola at C. If
A (at12 ,2at1 ) and B (at 22 ,2at 2 ) and AC : AB = 1 : 3, then :
(A) t 2 2t1
(B) t 2 2t1 0
(C) t1 2t 2 0
(D) 6t12 t 2 (t1 2t 2 )
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
43. Let z be a complex number with minimum argument and z 1 z 2 i 2 then find
z
z
the value of cot n
5
2
44. If 4 sin 27o , then the value of is
5
46. Let a line with the inclination angle of 60o be drawn through the focus F of the parabola
y 2 8 x 2 . If the two intersection points of line and parabola are A and B and the
perpendicular bisector of the chord AB intersects the x – axis at point P. If the length of
3
bisector of the segment PF is , then is equal to
2
47. Let P , be a point in the first quadrant, circles are drawn through P touching the
co – ordinate axes such that the circles are orthogonal and 2 2 k then find the
value of k.
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AIITS-HCT-III (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
48. The number of solutions of sin2 x sin2 2x sin2 3x if x is
2
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
49. The sides of a triangle are three consecutive natural numbers and its largest angle is
twice the smallest one. Then semi perimeter of the triangle is equal to
51. The possible number of ordered triplets (m, n, p) where m,n,p N such that
1 m 100; 1 n 50;1 p 25 and 2m 2n 2p is divisible by 3 is
52. Sum of three numbers in G.P. is 21 and the sum of their squares is 189. If the common
ratio of the G.P. is ‘a’ or ‘b’ then a + b equals to
53. In a triangle ABC, the equation of the side BC is 2x y = 3 and its circumcentre and
orthocentre are at (2, 4) and (1, 2) respectively. The value of ‘ 61 sin B sin C’ is equal to
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – IV
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 06-06-2021
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2. The masses and the radius of the earth and the moon are M1 , M 2 and R 1 , R 2 respectively their
centres are at distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should be
projected from a point midway between the two centres so as to escape to infinity will be -
G
(A) 2 (M1 M 2 )
d
G
(B) (M1 M 2 )
d
G
(C) (M1 M 2 )
2d
G M1
(D) 2
d M2
3. The maximum velocity of a harmonic oscillator is and its maximum acceleration is . Its time
period will be-
2
(A)
2
(B)
(C) 2
(D)
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3 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
7. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct for a spherical body rolling without slipping on a
rough horizontal surface at rest?
(A) The tangential acceleration of the point of contact with the ground is zero
(B) The speed of some of the point (s) is/are zero
(C) Frictional force may or may not be zero
(D) Work done by friction is non Zero
8. A particle (A) of mass m1 elastically collides with another stationary particle (B) of mass m2.
Then–
m1 1
(A) and the particles fly apart in the opposite direction with equal velocities
m2 2
m1 1
(B) and the particles fly apart in opposite direction with equal velocity
m2 3
m1 2
(C) and the collision angle between the particles 60° symmetrically
m2 1
m1 2
(D) and the particles fly apart symmetrically at angle 90°
m2 1
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
10. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant vertical acceleration of 10m/s 2. The
fuel is finished in 1 minute and it continues to move up. (Take g = 10 m/s 2)
(A) The maximum height reached is 16
(B) The maximum height reached 36km
(C) After finishing of fuel will the maximum height be reached in 3 min.
(D) After finishing of fuel will the maximum height be reached in 1 min.
11. Two moles of helium gas ( = 5/3) are initially at 27ºC and occupy a volume of 20 liters. The gas
is first expanded at constant pressure until the volume is doubled. Then it undergoes an adiabatic
change until the temperature returns to its initial value
(A) The P–V diagram in adiabatic process is a hyperbola.
(B) The final pressure of the gas is 4.4 × 104 Pa .
(C) The work done by the gas in the whole process is 12450 J.
(D) The final volume of the gas is 113 litres
12. A body of mass 25 kg is dragged on a horizontal rough road with a constant speed of 20 km/hr. If
the coefficient of friction is 0.5 and specific heat of the material of the body is 0.1 cal. gm –1(ºC)–1
mark the correct option(s).
(A) The heat generated in one hour is 5.83 × 105 cal.
(B) If 50% of the heat is absorbed by the body, the rise in temperature is 116.4 ºC
(C) Work done by the friction is positive
(D) None of these
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
13. A sounding body emitting a frequency of 150 Hz is dropped from a height. During its fall under
gravity it crosses a balloon moving with constant velocity of 2 m/s one second after it started to
fall. Find the number of beats heard by observer in the balloon at the moment he crosses the
body. Velocity of sound in air is 300 m/sec.
14. A closed pipe and an open pipe sounding together produce 5 beats per second. If the length of
the open pipe is 30 cm, find by how much the length (in cm) of the closed pipe must be changed
to bring the two pipes in unison –
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5 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
15. For the arrangement shown in fig. Find the minimum and maximum M = 20 kg
value of the horizontal acceleration of the system (in m/s2) so that
the block remains stationary with respect to wedge. a µ = 0.5
(Take the value of g = 9.8 m/s2)
37º
16. A particle is suspended from a spring and it streches the spring by 1 cm on the surface of earth.
The same particle will stretch the same spring at a place 800 km above earth surface by (in cm)
18. The ladder shown in figure has negligible mass and rests on a
frictionless floor. The crossbar connects the two legs of the ladder at the
middle. The angle between the two legs is 60°. The fat person sitting on W
the ladder has a mass of 80 kg. Find the tension in the crossbar 1m
60º
(in N, take the value of g = 9.8 m/s2).
N T T N
1m
30º
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Conc. HNO3 +Conc. H 2SO4
OMe
(A) O (B) O
C O C O
NO2
OMe NO2 OMe
(C) O (D) O
C O C O
NO 2
OMe NO2
Br
CH3
(A) 4-Bromo-6-chloro-2-ethyl-1-methylcyclohex-1-ene
(B) 5-Bromo-1-chloro-3-ethyl-2-methylcyclohex-2-ene
(C) 5-Bromo-3-chloro-1-ethyl-2-methylcyclohex-1-ene
(D) 1-Bromo-5-chloro-3-ethyl-4-methylcyclohex-3-ene
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7 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
21. 50 mL of a solution, containing 1gm each of Na 2 CO3 , NaHCO3 and NaOH , was titrated
with 1N HCl . What will be the titrate reading (volume of HCl used) if only phenolphthalein is
used as indicator?
(A) 34.4 mL
(B) 55.8mL
(C) 21.3mL
(D) 38.2 mL
23. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction in aqueous solution is 0.90.
H 3BO 3 -glycerine
H 3 BO 3 +glycerine
How many moles of glycerine should be added per litre of 0.10M H 3 BO3 so that 80% of
the H 3 BO3 is converted to the boric acid-glycerine complex?
(A) 4.44
(B) 4.52
(C) 3.6
(D) 0.08
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
v
r
1
n n
(C) (D)
PE KE
1
n
n
26. Which is/are correct for real gases?
(A) lim PVm constant at constant high temperature
P 0
(C) lim
PVm 1at high temperature
P 0 RT
(D) lim
PVm R
V 0 RT
27. The reaction of nitrogen monoxide and hydrogen gas
2NO g +2H 2 g N 2 g 2H 2O g
is hypothesised to involve the following steps:
(I) NO+NO N 2 O 2 fast
(II) N 2O 2 +H 2 H 2O+N 2O slow
(III) N 2O+H 2 N 2 +H 2 O fast
Which of the following is true about the reaction?
(A) H 2 acts as a catalyst in this reaction.
(B) The overall order of the reaction is 2.
(C) There are 2 intermediates present in the reaction mechanism.
(D) Doubling the concentration of NO will increase the rate of reaction four times.
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9 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
31. Total number of isomers for C 4 H 6 Br2 containing cyclobutane ring are
(including stereoisomer)?
32. How many species from the following are aromatic?
(i) CH
+ (ii) CH
+ (iii) CH3
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
35. Calculate sum of bond order between same bonded atoms in Q and R compounds.
water
P+Q
0°C
Na 2 O 2
water
25°C P+R+S
36. When an equimolar mixture of Cu 2S and CuS is titrated with Ba MnO 4 2 in acidic medium,
2+ 2
the final products contain Cu ,SO 2 and Mn . If the molecular mass of Cu 2S , CuS and
Ba MnO 4 2 are M1 ,M 2 and M 3 respectively and equivalent mass of Cu 2S , CuS and
M1 M 2 M3
Ba MnO 4 2 are , and respectively. Then the value of x y z is
x y z
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11 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
37. If is the 2014th root of unity and z1 and z2 be any two complex numbers such that
z1 3, z2 4
2
2013
value of k 0
z1 k z2 is
(A) 50250
(B) 50350
(C) 50450
(D) 50550
1
1
88 r 1
38. Sum of the series is equal to
r 1
sin r 1 sin 2 1
2
cot 2
(A)
sin 2
cot 2
(B)
sin 2
(C) cot 2
cot 2
(D)
sin 2 2
2
40. The general solution of the equation 2cos 2 x 1 3.2 sin x is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12
8
2 1 1
42. The constant term in the expansion of x 2 y is
x y
(A) 4900
(B) 4950
(C) 5050
(D) 5151
43. In ABC , lengths of median AD and BE are and respectively. If AD BE , then which of
the following is – are true?
(A) Area of the is 6xy square units
(B) If 2 x y , then is obtuse
(C) Ration of side AB to median from C is 2:3
1
(D) Area of quadrilateral (DCEG) area of ABC . (G is centroid)
6
44. Let L1 : 3x 4 y 1 and L2 : 5 x 12 y 2 0 be two given lines. Let image of every point on L1
with respect to a line L lies on L2 then possible equation of L can be:
(A) 14 x 112 y 23 0
(B) 64 x 8 y 3 0
(C) 11x 4 y 0
(D) 52 x 45 y 7
45. Let A 1,1 and B 3,3 be two fixed points and P be a variable point such that area of PAB
remains constant equal to 1 for all position of P, then locus of P is given by:
(A) 2 y 2x 1
(B) 2 y 2x 1
(C) y x 1
(D) y x 1
46. If4a 2 5b2 6a 1 0 and the line ax by 1 0 touches a fixed circle, then:
(A) centre of circle is at 3, 0
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13 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
2 2
y x
49. Find the number of ordered pair (x, y) satisfying the equation 16 x 16 y 1
50. A1 A2 ....... A2 n is regular 2n side polygon. Find the ratio of number of obtuse triangles to the
number of acute triangles formed by joining the vertices of the polygon
A
then find …..
4
52. In the figure AB is tangent at A to circle with centre O; point D is interior to circle and DB
intersects the circle at C. If BC=DC=3, OD=2 and AB=6, then find the radius of the circle..
D 3
C
3
A 6 B
53. Given a convex quadrilateral ABCD circumscribed about a circle of diameter 1. Inside ABCD,
2 2 2 2
there is a point M such that MA MB MC MD 2 . Find the area of ABCD …
x2 y2
54. A transversal cut the same branch of a hyperbola 1 in P, P ' and the asymptotes in
a 2 b2
Q, Q ', then find PQ PQ ' P ' Q ' P ' Q :
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – IV
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 06-06-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. Which of the following statement(s) is/are incorrect for a spherical body rolling without slipping on a
rough horizontal surface at rest?
(A) The tangential acceleration of the point of contact with the ground is Nonzero
(B) The speed of some of the point (s) is/are zero
(C) Frictional force may or may not be zero
(D) Work done by friction is non Zero
3. At a harbour enemy ship is at a distance 1803m from the security cannon having a muzzle
velocity of 60m/s. The angle of elevation of the cannon to hit the ship can be.
(A) 45
(B) 30
(C) 60
(D) 15
4. A stone with weight W is thrown vertically upward in the air with initial speed v0 . If a constant
force F due to air drag acts on the stone throughout its flight:
v 02
(A) The maximum height reached by the stone is
F
2g 1
W
1/ 2
WF
(B) The speed of the stone upon impact with the ground is v 0
WF
v02
(C) The maximum height reached by the stone is
F
2 g 1
W
1/2
W F
(D) The speed of the stone upon impact with the ground is v0
W F
5. A uniform rod of mass M and length a lies on a smooth horizontal plane. A particle of mass m
a
moving at a speed v perpendicular to the length of the rod strikes it at a distance from the
4
centre and stops after the collision.
M
(A) The velocity of the centre of the rod just after the collision is v.
m
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3 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
5mv
(B) The angular velocity of the rod about its centre just after the collision is
Ma
m
(C) The velocity of the centre of the rod just after the collision is v.
M
3mv
(D) The angular velocity of the rod about its centre just after the collision is
Ma
6. A 5 g piece of ice at 20C is put into 10g of water at 30C . Assuming that heat is exchanged
only between the ice and the water. Specific heat capacity of ice = 2100 J/kg– C , specific heat
capacity of water = 4200 J/kg– C and latent heat of fusion of ice = 3.36 × 105 J/kg.
(A) The final temperature is 0C
(B) The final temperature is 5C
(C) Finally a mixture of ice and water will be left.
(D) Finally only water will be left
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
1.0 m
8. In figure there is no friction between m and M, and all other
surfaces are smooth and pulleys light. The acceleration of m
2 Xmg
is found to be . Then find the value of X.
M+5m
42 cm
56 cm
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
a = 6 cm
such that liquid just fills horizontal part of the tube. Now, one of the
open ends is sealed and the tube is then rotated about a vertical
axis passing through the other vertical arm with angular velocity
0 = 10 radians/sec. If length of each vertical arm be a = 6 cm,
calculate the length of air column in the sealed arm (in cm). = 21 cm
m 2 +km1
12. The period of free oscillations of the system shown here is 2 , if
k
the mass m1 is pulled down a little and the force constant of the spring is k m2
and the masses of the fixed pulleys are negligible. Then find the value of k
k
m1
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
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5 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
16. A uniform rope of a length 12 m and mass 6 kg hangs vertically from a rigid support. A block of
mass 2 kg is attached to the free end of the rope. A transverse pulse of wavelength 0.06 m is
produced at the lower end of the rope. What is the wavelength of the pulse when it reaches the
top of the rope (in cm)?
17. A column of air and a tuning fork produce 4 beats per second when sounded together. The tuning
fork gives the lower note. The temperature of air is 15 C . When the temperature falls to 10 C ,
the two produce 3 beats per second. Find the frequency of the fork (in Hz).
18. What will be the acceleration (in m/s2) due to gravity on the surface of the moon if its radius is
1/4th the radius of the earth and its mass is 1/80th the mass of the earth. Take the value of
acceleration due to gravity at the surface of the earth to be 9.8 m/s 2
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
21. Which of the following does/do not impart characterstic colour to the flame?
(A) MgSO 4
(B) CaCl2
(C) NaNO3
(D) BeCl2
22. Which of the following compound(s) is/are formed in the given reaction?
CH3
1 Hg OAc , CH OH
2
2 NaOD,OD
3
OMe OMe
D H
H D
OH
H D
D H
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7 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
3 1 3 1
Given that the initial [B] is 2.0 mol dm and units for the rate constant is mol dm min , which
of the following statements is FALSE.
(A) The reaction is elementary
(B) The half-life of the reaction remains constant when a catalyst is added.
(C) The gradient of tangent at t=0 min increases by four times when the initial [B] doubles
(D) The half-life of the reaction remains constant when [A] doubles but halved when [B]
doubles.
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
-
D 2 O/DO
Prolonged
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
Conc.HNO3
Conc.H 2SO 4 'A'
Br2 / Fe
'B'
CH3
29. The compound S4 N 4 decomposes completely into N 2 and S x vapour. If all measurements are
made under same conditions of temperature and pressure, it is found that for each volume of
S4 N 4 decomposed, 2.5 volumes of gaseous products are formed. The value of x is………..
30. How many monochlorinated products (possible) are formed in the below reaction?
CH3
Cl2 / hv
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
31. Consider a large number of hydrogen atoms with electrons randomly distributed in the
n=1, 2, 3 and 4 orbits. How many different wavelength of light are emitted by these atoms as the
electrons fall into lower energy orbits:
32. A buffer solution 0.04 M Na2HPO4 and 0.02 M Na3PO4 is prepared. The electrolytic oxidation of 1
milimole of the organic compound RNHOH is carried out in 100 mL of the buffer. The reaction is:
RNO 2 4 H 4e
RNHOH+H 2O
The approximate pH of solution after the oxidation is complete is:
[Given: for H 3 PO4 , pKa1 2.2; pKa2 7.20; pKa3 12 , log2=0.30]
33. If 91 g V2 O 5 is dissolved in acid and reduced to V 2 by treatment with zinc metal, how many
grams of I 2 could be reduced by the resulting V 2 solution (in acidic medium), as it is oxidized
to VO
2
? V=51, I=127
34. Solubility of K 2 Zn 3 Fe CN 6 is s mol/ltr and its K sp = x×s y . Then value of x+y is…
2
35. A container contains CH 4 and Helium gas in such a ratio that for every helium atom there are
sixteen hydrogen atoms present. Now this mixture is allowed to escape from very small pin hole.
The rate of decrease of hydrogen atoms w.r.t. helium atoms from the container is x time more.
Then value of x is………
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9 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
36. A2 B3 g
AB g +AB2 g Kp1 =x atm1
A 2 B 4 g
2AB 2 g Kp 2 =8atm 1
These two equilibria are simultaneously existing in a vessel at 298 K. If initially only AB and AB2
are present in 3: 5 mole ratio and total pressure at equilibrium is 5.5 atm with pressure of AB2
at 0.5 atm. Then x is……
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
37. If P 2
1, lie inside or on the triangle ABC , where equation
3 1 1
of AB is x y 3, BC : y m1 x 0, m1 , and AC : y m2 x 0, m2 ,1 , then
2 2 2
3
(A) 2,1 for m1 1 and m2
4
3 1 3
(B) 2,1 for m1 , and m2
2 2 4
1
(C) 2,1 for m1 1 and m2 ,1
2
3 1 1
(D) 2,1 for m1 , and m2 ,1
2 2 2
38. A tangent with the slope m to the parabola y 2 4 x which bisect exactly two distinct chords of
hyperbola x 2 4 y 2 4 0 drawn from 2, 0 , then
1
(A) m
2
2
(B) m 1
7
1
(C) m
2
(D) m0
39. Let P lie inside the ABC , angle B 90 and each side subtends an angle of 120 at P . If
PA 10, PB 6 , then
(A) PC 33
(B) PC 12
(C) AB 14
(D) AB 12
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11 AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
Q respectively, then Q 6
3
(A) PQ is of length 6 2 O3 O1 O2
(B) PQ is of length 5 2 C3
C2
(C) Length of chord AB is 8 7
C1
(D) Length of chord AB is 4 14
41. Let PAand PB be the pair of tangents drawn to hyperbola 9 x 2 4 y 2 36 from point P 2, 1 ,
then
(A) Equation of tangent from point P is x 2 0
(B) Equation of tangent from point P is x 2 0
(C) Equation of tangent from point P is 5 x 2 y 8 0
1
(D) Area of PAB is sq. units
4
2
42. Consider the complex numbers z , z , z 3 , z 4 . If these taken in order form a cyclic quadrilateral,
then (take ang z , 0, 2 )
(A) Circum-circle of given point has unit radius
(B) can lie in interval ,
4
5
(C) can lie in ,
6
3 7
(D) can lie in ,
2 4
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
43. If p,q, r and s are nonzero numbers such that ‘r’ and ‘s’ are roots of x2 px q 0 and p,q are
the roots of x 2 rx s 0 , then find the value of 4p q 2r s .
44. If a, b are complex number and one of the roots of the equation x2 + ax + b = 0 is purely real,
whereas the other is purely imaginary and a2 – a-2 = kb, then k is _______
45. A director circle is drawn to the circle x2 + y2 = 4. Then a director circle is drawn to this director
circle. If this process is performed n number of times, so that the equation of last of these circles
is x2 + y2 = 64. Then n is equal to:
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AIITS-HCT-IV (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12
47. Minimum area of circle which touches the parabola’s y = x2 + 1 and y2 = x 1 is A. Evaluate
32
A
48. Any normal to the hyperbola x 2 2y 2 4 meet its axis in M and N. The rectangle OMPN is
completed where O is centre of hyperbola. If locus of P is a hyperbola then the value of b2 a2 is
________ (where a, b are length of transverse axis and conjugate axis of the locus of P)
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded‐off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
147
49. The sum if an infinitely decreasing GP is 3.5 and sum of the squares of its terms is . The
16
sum of the cubes of the terms of the progression is:
50. If the straight line through the point P 3, 4 makes an angle with the x-axis and meets the line
6
3x 5 y 1 0 at Q, the length PQ is:
51. The length of the perpendicular on the tangent at the point whole eccentric angle is from the
3
x2 y 2
focus of the ellipse 1 nearer to the tangent is P find 100P :
25 16
52. Let the normals are drawn form , to the hyperbola xy 1 and x i, yi , i 1, 2,3, 4 be the
feet of the co-normal points. If the algebraic sum of the perpendicular distance drawn from
xi, yi , i 1, 2,3, 4 on to a variable line vanishes, then the variable line passes through the point
. then the value of 256 must be:
2
53. If tan 2 ..... tan 2 7
tan 2
16 16 16
2
x y
and if x y : then fins
y x
10
Where x, y z :
54. The sum of the roots of equation cos 4 x 6 7 cos 2 x over the interval 0,314 in , then the
numerical quantity must be:
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – IV
JEE (Main)-2022
TEST DATE: 25-04-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-HCT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1
1. The dimensions of 0E2 0 permitticity of free space; E = electric field is
2
(A) MLT 1
(B) ML1T 2
(C) MLT 2
(D) ML2 T 1
3. A projectile is thrown with a velocity of 10 2 m/s at an angle of 45o with horizontal. The interval
between the moments when speed is
125 m / s is g 10 m/s2
(A) 1.0 s
(B) 1.5 s
(C) 2.0 s
(D) 0.5 s
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3 AIITS-HCT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
8. A solid uniform sphere rotating about its axis with kinetic energy E1 is gently placed on a rough
horizontal plane at time t = 0, Assume that, at time t t1, it starts pure rolling and at that instant
total KE of the sphere is E2. After sometime, at time t t 2 , KE of the sphere is E3. Then
(A) E1 E2 E3
(B) E1 E2 E3
(C) E1 E2 E3
(D) E1 E2 E3
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9. A planet of mass m is in an elliptical orbit about the sum m Msun with an orbital period. T. If A
be the area of orbit, then its angular momentum would be
2mA
(A)
T
(B) mAT
mA
(C)
2T
(D) 2mAT
10. A capillary is dipped in water vessel kept on a freely falling lift, then
(A) water will not rise in the tube
(B) water will rise to the maximum available height of the tube
(C) water will rise to the height observed under normal condition
(D) water will rise to the height below that observed under normal condition
11. Two wires of equal length and cross-section are suspended as shown.
Their Young’s modulii are Y1 and Y2 respectively. The equivalent Young’s
modulus will be
(A) Y1 Y2
Y1 Y2
(B)
2
Y1Y2
(C)
Y1 Y2
(D) Y1Y2
12. Let T1 and T2 be the time periods of two springs A and B when a mass m is suspended from
them separately. Now both the springs are connected in parallel and same mass m is suspended
with them. Now let T be the time period in this position. Then
(A) T T1 T2
T1T2
(B) T
T1 T2
(C) T 2 T12 T22
1 1 1
(D)
T 2 T12 T22
13. A particle is subjected to two mutually perpendicular simple harmonic motions such that its x and
y-coordinates are given by
x sin t; y 2 cost The path of the particle will be
(A) an ellipse
(B) a straight line
(C) a parabola
(D) a circle
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5 AIITS-HCT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
14. If 1 and 2 are the lengths of air column for the first and second resonance when a tuning fork of
frequency n is sounded on a resonance tube, then the distance of the antinode from the top end
of the resonance tube is [Hint – Consider the end correction.]
(A) 2 2 1
1
(B) 21 2
2
2 3 1
(C)
2
2 1
(D)
2
15. A string of length ' ' is fixed at both ends. It is vibrating in its 3rd overtone with maximum
amplitude ‘a’. The amplitude at a distance from one end is
3
(A) a
(B) 0
3a
(C)
2
a
(D)
2
P0
16. One mole of an ideal gas undergoes a process P 2
. Hence, P0 and V0 are constants.
V0
1
V
Changes in temperature of the gas when volume is changed from V V0 to V = 2V0 is
2P0 V0
(A)
5R
11 P0 V0
(B)
10 R
5P V
(C) 0 0
4R
(D) P0 V0
T 2
17. Pressure P, volume V and temperature T of a certain material are related by P . Here,
V
is a constant. The work done by the material when temperature changes from T 0 to 2 T0 while
pressure remains constant is
(A) 6T03
3 2
(B) T0
2
(C) 2T02
(D) 3T02
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AIITS-HCT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 6
18. A body is displaced from 0,0 to 1 m, 1 m along the path x y by a force F x 2 ˆj yiˆ N. The
work done by this force will be
4
(A) J
3
5
(B) J
6
3
(C) J
2
7
(D) J
5
20. A wooden block is floating in a liquid. 50% of its volume is inside the liquid when the vessel is
stationary. Percentage of volume immersed when the vessel moves upwards with an
acceleration a = g/2 is
(A) 75%
(B) 25%
(C) 50%
(D) 33.33%
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
21. A wooden cube of side 10 cm and density 0.8 gm / cm 3 is floating in water (density = 1 gm / cm3).
A mass of (100x) gm is placed over the cube so that cube is completely immersed without
wetting the mass. Find value of x.
22. A machine gun fires a bullet of mas 40 g with a velocity 1200 ms-1. The man holding it, can exert
a maximum force of 144 N on the gun. How many bullets can be fired per second at the most?
23. A wheel starting from rest is uniformly accelerated with angular acceleration of 4 rad / s 2 for 10
seconds. If is then allowed to rotated uniformly for next 10 seconds and finally brought to rest in
next 10 seconds by uniform angular retardation. Total angle rotated is (100 n) radian. Find value
of n.
24. Force constant of a weightless spring is 16 N/m. A body of mass 1 kg suspended from it is pulled
down through 5 cm from its mean position and then released. The maximum kinetic energy of
system (spring + system) is x joule. Find value of x?
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25. Two identical container joined by small pipe initially contain the same gas at pressure Po and
absolute temperature to one container is now maintained at the same temperature while the other
is heated to 2T0 the common pressure of the gases will be X P0 . find the value of x?
26. Two identical conducting rods are first connected independently to two vessels, one containing
water at 100o C and the other containing ice at 0o C. In the second case, the rods are joined end
to end and connected to the same vessels. Let q1 and q2 be the rate of melting of ice in two cases
q
respectively. The ratio of 1 is x. Find value of x.
q2
20x
27. A standing wave y A sin cos 1000t is set up in a taut string where x and y are in
3
A
metre. The distance two successive points oscillating with the amplitude can be equal to (x)
2
cm. Find value of x.
28. A horizontal platform with an object placed on it is executing SHM in the vertical direction. The
amplitude of oscillation is 4 10 3 m. The least period of these oscillations, so that the object is
not detached from the platform is second. Find the value of x. Take g = 10 m/s2.
5x
29. A ball of mass 1 kg falls from a height of 5 m above the free surface of water. The relative density
2
of the solid ball is s . The ball travels a distance of 2 m under water and becomes stationary.
3
The work done by the resistive forces of water is 100n J. Find value of n.
30. A small ball rolls off the top landing of the staircase. It strikes the mid-point of the first step and
then the mid-point of the second step. The steps are smooth, and identical in height and width.
The coefficient of restitution between the ball and the first step is x. Find value of x.
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AIITS-HCT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
31. When the concentration of ‘A’ is 0.1 M, it decomposes to give ‘X’ by a first order process with a
rate constant of 6.93 × 10–2 min–1. The reactant ‘A’ in the presence of catalyst gives ‘Y’ by a
second order mechanism with a rate constant of 0.2 min–1 M–1. In order that half-life of both the
processes is 10 min, one should start with an initial concentration of ‘A’ is
(A) 0.01 M
(B) 5.0 M
(C) 10.0 M
(D) 0.5 M
32. One gram of hydrogen and 112 g of nitrogen are enclosed in two separate containers each of
volume V L at 27oC. If the pressure of hydrogen is 1 atm, the pressure of nitrogen would be
(A) 12 atm
(B) 4 atm
(C) 8 atm
(D) 16 atm
33. Calculate the pressure of O2 (in atm) over a sample of NiO at 25oC if G0 = 212 kJ for the
reaction.
1
NiO(s) Ni(s) O 2 (g)
2
(A) 4.9 10 75 atm
(B) 7 10 38 atm
(C) 4.9 10 38 atm
(D) 7 10 75 atm
(B) –OR
(C)
OC6H6
(D)
O
NO 2
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37. O
(i) CF 3 C O O H (1 eq.)
C C CH3
+
(ii) H3O
Identify the product?
(A) (B)
C C CH3 HO C C CH3
HO OH OH
(C) H O (D) OH
C C CH3 C C CH3
OH OH
38. A hydrocarbon C6H10 forms an insoluble silver salt when treated with silver nitrate in ethanolic
ammonia. Acid catalyzed hydration with a HgSO4 catalyst generates a single C6H12O ketone, and
permanganate oxidation yields a C5H10O2 carboxylic acid. This compound is most likely which of
the following?
(A) cyclohexene
(B) methylenecylopentane
(C) 1-hexyne
(D) 3-hexyne
Keq
CH3
CH3
Equilibrium constant for above reaction is:
(A) K=1
(B) K>1
(C) K<1
(D) K=0
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AIITS-HCT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 10
41. Which of the following reaction is an examples of used of water gas in the synthesis of other
compounds?
(A) CH4 (g) H2O(g)
1270K
(Ni)
CO(g) H2 (g)
(B) CO(g) H2O(g)
673K
(Katalyst )
CO2 (g) H2 (g)
(C) CnH2n 2 nH2O(g)
1270K
(Ni)
nCO (2n 1)H2
(D) CO(g) 2H2 (g)
cobalt
(catalyst )
CH3 OH(l)
42. Excess of KI and dilute H2SO4 were mixed in 50 ml H2O2. The I2 liberated requires 20 ml of 0.1
(N) Na2 S2 O3 . The volume strength of H2O2 will be
(A) 0.12
(B) 0.224
(C) 0.39
(D) 0.52
47. Which of the compound has odd e – molecule and central atom is sp3 hybridised?
(A) NO2
(B) ClO2
(C) ClO3
(D) NO
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48. Which of the following is example of strongest bond if the molecular axis is x axis?
(A) 2p x 4p x
(B) 2p y 2p y
(C) 2p y 3dxy
(D) 2p z 4p z
49. In which case maximum number of atoms are present in same plane?
(A) B3N3H6
(B) C(CN)4
(C) I2Cl6
(D) IF7
C O C O C C
H Cl H H
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D) None of these
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
51. How many reagents reacts with H2O2 but not with ozone?
K 4 [Fe(CN)6 ]; K 3 [Fe(CN)6 ] KOH; PbS;
SnCl2 HCl; KI H ; KMnO4 H
52. Buckminster Fullerence (C60) has x1 vertices, x2 six membered ring and x3 five membered ring.
x x
Find out 1 1 .
x3 x2
53. If for a reaction A B, H 10kJmol1 and Ea 50kJmol1 , then energy of activation for
reaction B A will be (in kJ mol–1)
54. When FeS2 is burnt in air, it converts to Fe2O3. The change in percentage by weight of iron in the
process is (Fe = 56)
55. A gas present in a cylinder, fitted with a frictionless piston, expands against a constant pressure
of 1 atm from a volume of 2 litre to a volume of 6 litre. In doing so, it absorbs 800 J heat from
surroundings. The increase in internal energy (in Joule) of process is (1 atm.litre = 101.26 Joule)
56. What will be the resultant pH when 200 mL of an aqueous solution of HCl (pH = 2) is mixed with
300 mL of an aqueous solution of NaOH (pH = 12)?
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57. A glass tumbler containing 243 mL of air at 100 kPa and 20oC is turned upside down and
immersed in a water bath to a depth of 20.5 metre. The air in the glass is compressed by the
weight of water above it. Calculate the volume (in mL) of air in the glass assuming the
temperature and the barometric pressure have not changed. (g = 9.81 m/s2)
58. A metal oxide has the formula X2O3. If can be reduced by hydrogen to give free metal and water.
0.1596 g of metal oxide requires 6 mg of hydrogen for complete reduction. The atomic mass of
metal in amu is:
60. The rate constants k1 and k 2 for two different reactions are 1016 e2000/ T and 1015 e 1000/ T ,
respectively. The temperature (in K) at which k1 = k2 is:
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Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
61. If on a given base, a triangle be described such that the sum of the tangents of the base angle is
constant, the locus of the vertex is
(A) a circle
(B) a parabola
(C) a straight line
(D) none of these
62. A focal chord of y2 16x is a tangent to the circle x 6 2 y 2 2 . Then the orthocentre of
triangle formed by the tangent and chord of contact is
(A) (0, 0)
(B) (4, 0)
(C) 4, 2
(D) 4, 2
63. The straight line x 2y 4 0 is one of the common tangents of the parabola y2 4x and
x2 y2
1 . The equation of the another common tangent of these curves is
4 b2
(A) x 2y 4 0
(B) x 2y 4 0
(C) x 2y 2 0
(D) x 2y 2 0
x2 y2 y2 x2
64. If e, e are the eccentricities of hyperbolas 1 and 1, then
a2 b2 b2 a
(A) e = e
(B) e = –e
(C) e e = 1
1 1
(D) 1
2
e e2
x 2 3x 4
3
x 2 4
65. The number of positive integral solutions of 0
x 5 5 2x 7 6
(A) Four
(B) Three
(C) Two
(D) Only one
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66. Values of a for which exactly one root of 5x 2 a 1 x a 0 lies in the interval 1 < x < 3 is
(A) a>2
(B) 12 a 3
(C) a>0
(D) None of these
2cos y 1 x y
67. If cos x , where x,y 0, , then tan .cot is equal to
2 cos y 2 2
(A) 2
(B) 3
1
(C)
2
1
(D)
3
68. The equation tan4 x 2 sec 2 x a2 0 will have at least one solution if
(A) a 4
(B) a 2
(C) a 3
(D) None of these
69. A pole 5 m high is fixed on the top of a tower. The angle of elevation of the top of the pole
observed from a point A on the ground is 60o and the angle of depression of the point A from the
top of the tower is 45o. Find the height of the tower.
(A)
5
2
3 1 m
(B)
2
5
3 1 m
(C)
5
2
38 m
(D) None of these
1 3 7 15
70. .........'n' terms, is equal to
2 4 8 16
n
1
(A) 2n 2
2
n
1
(B) n2
2
n
1
(C) n 1
2
(D) None of these
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The value of
2 1 , where [x] represents integral part of x, is
6
72.
(A) 199
(B) 198
(C) 197
(D) 196
73. Let f n 10n 3.4n 2 5, n N . The greatest value of the integer which divides f n for all n is
(A) 27
(B) 9
(C) 3
(D) None of these
a ib
74. tan i ln
a ib , where a,b R , is always equal to
(A) 2ab
a 2 b2
2ab
(B)
a2 b2
ab
(C)
a2 b2
ab
(D)
a2 b2
(A)
(B)
(C)
76. A five-digit number divisible by 3 has to formed using the numerals 0, 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5 without
repetition. The total number of ways in which this can be done is
(A) 216
(B) 240
(C) 600
(D) 3125
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77. The point P divides line joining the points A (–5, 1) and B (3, 5) in the ratio : 1 internally. Points
Q and R are (1, 5) and (7, 2) respectively. Area of PQR is 2, for =
19
(A)
5
31
(B)
9
(C) 23
(D) 19
78. Line ax by p 0 makes angle with x cos y sin p, p R . If these lines and the line
4
x sin y cos 0 are concurrent, then
(A) a2 b2 1
(B) a2 b2 2
(C)
2 a2 b2 1
(D) none of these
79. A straight line is drawn through the center of circle x2 y2 2ax parallel to the straight line
x 2y 0 and intersecting the circle at A and B. Then the area of AOB is
a2
(A)
5
a2
(B)
7
2
a
(C)
3
a2
(D)
2
80. P and Q are two points on a line passing through (2, 4) and having slope m. If a line segment AB
subtends a right angles at P and Q, where A (0, 0) and B (6, 0), then range of values of m is
23 2 23 2
(A) ,
4 4
23 2 23 2
(B) , ,
4 4
(C) 4, 4
(D) , 4 4,
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17 AIITS-HCT-IV-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
81. For the equation 3x 2 px 3 0 , p > 0 if one of the roots is the square of the other then p
is____.
a 2 1 b2 1 c 2 1
82. Let a, b, c are positive real numbers. Then, minimum value of is …………
bc ca ab
83. Let the centre of the circle represented by zz 2 3i z 2 3i z 9 0 be (x, y), then the
value of x2 y2 xy is ………..
1
84. If the points 2, 0 , 1, and cos , sin are collinear the number of values of
3
[0, 2] is____.
85. If a circle passes through the points of intersection of the coordinate axes with the lines
x y 1 0 and x 2y 3 0 , then the value of is
86. If P1, P2, P3, are the points on ellipse 3x 2 y 2 12 0 and P1 ',P2 ',P3 ' are their corresponding
points on the auxiliary circle, then the area of triangle P1 'P2 'P3 ' is times the area of triangle
P1P2P3 , then 2 is.
dy
87. If the family of integral curves of the differential equation x 3 y x is cut by the line x = 2; the
dx
tangents at the points of intersection are concurrent at , . Then the value of .
x 1 y 1 z 2
88. If is the angle between the line and the plane 2x + y – 3z + 4 = 0, then
3 2 4
cosec2 is equal to
s
ˆi ˆj kˆ 2
, then ˆi kˆ kˆ is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – V
JEE (Main)-2022
TEST MONTH: JULY-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2. A mass M, attached to a horizontal spring, executes SHM with a amplitude A1. When the mass M
passes through its mean position then a smaller mass m is placed over it and both of them move
A1
together with amplitude A2. The ratio of is:
A2
M
(A)
M+m
M+m
(B)
M
1/2
M
(C)
M+m
1/2
M+m
(D)
M
3. A metal sphere is suspended from one pan of a sensitive balance and is immersed completely in
water. The other pan carries weights to balance the immersed sphere. The water is then heated
to a high temperature and the weights may have to be removed or added to balance the sphere
immersed in hot water. Which one of the following observations is correct?
(A) Sphere expands, water is displaced; weights are to be removed
(B) Sphere expands, water is displaced; weights are to be added
(C) Water expands, sphere sinks; weights are to be added
(D) Water expands, sphere sinks; weights are to be removed
1
(A)
2 2
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3 AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
4
1
(D)
2
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 4
8. A simple pendulum is making oscillations with its bob immersed in a liquid of density n times
lesser than. The density of the bob what is its time period?
(A) 2
ng
(B) 2
1
1 g
n
(C) 2
g
(D) 2
n 1 g
9. Two wooden blocks A & B float in a liquid of density L as in B
figure. The distance L & H are shown. After some time, block
B falls into the liquid so that L decreases & H increase. If A L
density of block B is B , find the correct option: H
(A) L B
(B) L B
(C) L B
(D) Unpredictable
10. A ball falling in a lake of depth 200m shows a decrease of 0.1% in its volume at the bottom. The
bulk modulus of the elasticity of the material of the ball is (g=10 m/s2)
(A) 109 N / m2
(B) 2 109 N / m 2
(C) 3 109 N / m 2
(D) 4 109 N / m 2
11. Two circular discs A & B are of equal masses and thicknesses but made of metal with densities
d A and d B d A dB . If their moments of inertia about an axis passing through their centres
and perpendicular to circular faces are I A & I B , then:
(A) IA IB
(B) IA IB
(C) IA IB
(D) IA IB
12. If velocity V; acceleration A & force F are taken as fundamental quantities instead of mass M,
length L & time T, the dimension of Young’s modulus Y would be:
(A) FA2V 4
(B) FA2V 5
(C) FA2V 3
(D) FA2V 2
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5 AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
13. 125 water droplets each of radius r, coalesce to form a single drop. The energy released raises
the temperature of drop. If represent surface tension, represent density, S represent
specific heat & J represent mechanical equivalent of heat then the rise in temperature of the
drop is:
12
(A)
5Jr S
12
(B)
7JrS
2
(C)
S r
(D) Zero
14. When a mass of 8kg is suspended from a string its length is 1 if a mass 10 kg is suspended, its
length is 2 , lengths when a mass of 16 kg is suspended from it is given by:
(A) 2 2 1
(B) 2 2 1
(C) 4 2 31
(D) 4 2 3 1
15. Three particles A,B,C each of mass m lies on the vertices of an equivalent triangle of side a .
The system is released from rest what will be the net momentum of two particles A & B when
separation between the particles remains a / 2 :
2Gm3
(A)
a
Gm3
(B)
a
6Gm3
(C)
a
2Gm3
(D)
3a
16. The angle between two vectors A & B is θ . The resultant of these vectors makes on angle θ/2
with A. Which of the following is true?
(A) A=2B
(B) A=B/2
(C) A=B
(D) AB=1
17. A circular ring of mass M & radius a is placed in a gravity free space. A small particle of mass m
placed on the axis of the ring at the distance 3 a from the centre of ring, is released from rest.
The velocity with which the particle passes through the centre of the ring is:
Gm
(A)
a
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 6
Gm M
(B)
2a m
Gm M
(C)
3a m
GM M
(D)
a M+m
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7 AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
21. The second overtone of an open pipe is in resonance with the first overtone of a closed pipe of
length 2m. Length of the open pipe is:
rd
1
22. The amplitude of a damped oscillator becomes in 2 second. If its amplitude after 6 second
3
1
is times the original amplitude, the value of n is:
n
23. Temperature of two stars is in ratio 3 : 2 . If wavelength of maximum radiation from first body is
4000Å , what is corresponding wavelength of second body (in Angstrom)?
24. A closed vessel contains 8g of oxygen & 7g of nitrogen. The total pressure is 10 atm at a given
temperature. If now oxygen is absorbed by introducing a suitable absorbent the pressure of the
remaining gas in atm will be:
25. The intensity level of two sounds are 90dB and 50dB what is the ratio of their intensities?
27. A broad vessel with a square base of edge a=10cm is separated into A
two halves A & B by a smooth vertical piston. A spring of spring B
constant k=1500 N/m is filled across the compartment A &
compartment B which is filled with water up to a height 20 cm. Find
the compression in the spring (in cm). Take g = 10 m/s^2:
a
28. On doubling the temperature of source, the efficiency of heat energy becomes triple. The new
percentage efficiency is:
29. Consider the situation shown in figure. A uniform rod of length L can
rotate freely about hinge A in vertical plane pulley & strings are light &
friction loss. If rod remains horizontal at rest when the system is released
then. Mass of the rod is:
M
2M
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
31. When a hydrogen atom, emits a photon of energy 10.20eV , the orbit angular momentum
changes by:
(A) 1.05 1034 J sec
(B) 2.111034 J sec
(C) 3.16 1034 J sec
(D) 4.22 1034 J sec
32. Consider the following reaction scheme.
Step I
Cl O
O OH
M
Step IV
Cl
Cl
Which of the following statements about this reaction scheme are correct?
(A) Step I requires a catalyst.
(B) Compound M is a planar molecule.
(C) Step IV is a substitution reaction
(D) None of these
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9 AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
36. The pressure p of a gas is plotted against its absolute temperature T for two different constant
volumes, V1 and V2 . When V1 V 2 , the
(A) Curves have the same slope and do not intersect
(B) Curves must intersect at some point other than T 0
(C) Curve for V2 has a greater slope than that for V1
(D) Curve for V1 has a greater slope than that for V2
37. The temperature (T) dependence of the equilibrium constant (K) of a chemical reaction is
correctly described by the following statement:
(A) For an endothermic reaction, the slope of lnK v/s 1/T plot is positive.
(B) For an exothermic reaction, K is directly proportional to T.
(C) For an exothermic reaction, K at a higher temperature is lower than K at a lower
temperature.
(D) If ΔH is independent of temperature the change in K is also independent of
temperature.
38. What volume of 0.2 M C2O4-2 will completely reduce 11.2 L SO2 gas at STP to pure Sulphur?
(A) 10 L
(B) 5L
(C) 2.5 L
(D) 7.5 L
39. A 10L flask containing 10.8 g of N2O5 is heated to 373K, which leads to its decomposition
4NO 2 g O 2 g . If the final pressure in the flask
according to the equation 2N 2 O5 g
40. The rate constant (k) for nth order reaction, in general, is given by:
1 1 1
k n 1
n 1
n 1 t a x a
The above relation is valid when there is only one reactant or many reactants with same initial
concentration and same coefficient.
The ratio of t3/4 : t1/2 for nth order reaction is:
(A) 2n + 1
1
(B) 1
2n
n–1
(C) 2 +1
(D) 21 – n + 1
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 10
41. CH3CHO (g) undergoes decomposition at very high temperature according to first order parallel
reactions:
k1
CH3 CHO g CH4 g CO g
k2
CH3CHO g CH2CO g H2 g
The mol % of CH4 in the reaction mixture excluding CH3CHO would be:
50k1
(A)
k1 k 2
100k1
(B)
k1 k 2
150k1
(C)
k1 k 2
200k1
(D)
k1 k 2
42. Me 2 N: :NMe2
1 1
T T
(C) (D)
ln k p ln k p
1 1
T T
44. Mark the wrong option in the following.
(A) Acid rains is mainly due to oxides of nitrogen and sulphur
(B) CO2 is responsible for global warming
(C) Ozone layer does not permit Infrared radiation from the sun to reach the earth
(D) None of these
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11 AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
HBr
OH X, X is
OH Br
OH
OH
Br
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 12
H3C
CH3
H3C
humulene
Which products are obtained from the reaction of Humulene with hot acidified concentrated
KMnO4?
(A) CH 3COCH 2 CH 2CO 2 H
(B) CH 3COCH 2 CO 2H
(C) HO2 CCH 2 C CH 3 2 CO 2 H
(D) All of these
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
54. Copper (II) ions are pollutants found in water. One method of purification is via precipitation of
Cu OH 2 or CuS .
K sp , CuS 6.3 1036 , K sp , Cu OH 2.0 1019
2
2 2
The minimum concentration of Cu for a precipitate of CuS to form in 10ppm S solution is
32 3
x 10 mol / dm . (1 ppm = 1 mg/L). The value of x is?
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13 AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
H H
H H
O O
What is the degree of unsaturation in the hydrocarbon?
PVm x dP
57. If = for a real gas at a temperature where =0 . What is the value of 'x' ?
RT 24 dVm
Alc.KOH
'D'
60. How many mole of NO2 will be liberated when 1 mole each of LiNO3 and NaNO3 is heated__
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 14
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
61. If
1 i x 2i 2 3i y i i then the real values of x and y are given by
3i 3i
(A) x 3, y 1
(B) x 3, y 1
(C) x 3, y 1
(D) x 1, y 3
2
62. If z 2 1 z 1 , then z lies on.
(A) Circle
(B) The imaginary axis
(C) The real axis
(D) An ellipse
2
63. The angle between the lines represented by 6 x xy y 2 0 is
(A)
2
(B)
3
(C)
4
(D) None of these
2
64. The locus of a point, the tangents from which to the circle x y 2 1 include a constant angle ,
is
(A) x 2
y 2 2 tan x2 y 2 1
(B) x 2
y 2 2 tan 2 x 2 y 2 1
(C) x 2
y 2 2 2 x 2 y 2 1 tan
(D) None of these
2 2
65. The circle x y 4 x 12 y 4 0 and x2 y 2 2 x 4 y 4 0
(A) Touch each other externally
(B) Touch each other internally
(C) Cut each other
(D) Cut each other orthogonally
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15 AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
2
66. The length of the normal chord to the parabola y 4 x which subtends a right angle at the vertex
is.
(A) 6 3
(B) 3 3
(C) 2
(D) 1
2
67. The angle between the tangents drawn from the origin to the parabola y 4a x a is.
(A) 90
(B) 30
1
(C) tan 1
2
(D) 45
68. The eccentricity of the curve represented by the equation.
x2 2 y2 2x 3 y 2 0
(A) 0
1
(B)
2
1
(C)
2
(D) 2
x2 y2
69. Let P be a variable point on the ellipse 2 2 1 with foci F1 and F2 . If A is the area of the
a b
triangle PF1 F2 , then the maximum value of A is.
(A) 2abe
(B) abe
1
(C) abe
2
(D) None of these
x2 y 2
70. The equation of triangle to the hyperbola 1 and which are perpendicular to
4 3
x 2 y 0 are
(A) y 13 2 x
(B) y 2 x 13
(C) y 2 x 19
(D) y 2 x 15
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 16
71. The condition for the line px qy r 0 to be tangent to the rectangular hyperbola
c
x ct , y is
t
(A) p 0, q 0
(B) p 0, q 0
(C) p 0, q 0
(D) None of these
1 sin 1 sin
72. If lies in the second quadrant, then
1 sin 1 sin
(A) tan
(B) 2 tan
(C) 2 cot
(D) cot
73. If A 0, B 0 and A B , then maximum value of tan A tan B is
3
1
(A)
2
1
(B)
3
1
(C)
4
1
(D)
6
75.
3
The co-efficient of x in the expression of log 1 5 x 6 x
2
is
8
(A)
3
(B) 9
37
(C)
3
35
(D)
3
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3
77. The sides of triangle are in A.P. and its area is (area of an equilateral triangle of the same
5
perimeter). Then the ratio of the sides is.
(A) 1: 2 : 3
(B) 3: 5: 7
(C) 1: 3 : 5
(D) None of these
4 1 3x x 2
78. Co-efficient of x in the expansion of is
ex
25
(A)
24
24
(B)
25
4
(C)
25
5
(D)
24
1 1 1
1 .......
79. 2! 4! 6! is equal to
1 1 1
1 .......
3! 5! 7!
e2 1
(A)
e2 1
e2 1
(B)
e2 1
(C) e2 1
(D) e2 1
x
80. The value of a for which the equation 4 a.2 x a 3 0 has at least one solution are given by.
(A) a 2,
(B) a 2,
(C) a 0, 2
(D) None of these
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AIITS-HCT-V-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 18
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
3
81. The number of solution of the form x x 2 4 x 2sin x 0
83. An observer on the top of a cliff 200m above the sea level, observes the angles of depressions of
two ships on the opposite sides of the cliff to be 45 and 30 respectively. The distance between
the ships if the line joining them points to the base of the cliff is.
x 1 1
84. The numbers of integral solution of is____
x2 2 4
13 13 23 13 2 3 33
85. The sum of the series .... upto 16 terms is______
1 1 3 1 3 5
86. The 10th common term between the series 3 7 11 ...... and 1 6 11 ....... is__
87. The number of ways in which 21 identical balls can be distributed among 3 boys A, B and C such
that A always gets even number of balls:
n n
1 1 4 x 1 1 4 x 1 5
88. If a0 a1 x .... a5 x , then the value of n is:
4 x 1 2 2
90. The number of ways in which 21 identical balls can be distributed among 3 boys A, B and C such
that A always gets even number of balls____
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – V
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST MONTH: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2 The first allowed excited state of a hydrogen atom is 10.2 eV above its lowest energy
(ground) state. To what temperature should hydrogen gas be raised so that inelastic
collisions may excite an appreciable number of atoms to their first excited state?
(A) 4.58×104 K
(B) 7.88×104 K
(C) 8.28×10 4 K
(D) None of these
3. A hot body placed in air cooled down according to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of
decrease of temperature being k times the temperature difference from the surrounding.
Starting from t=0 , find the time in which the body will lose half the maximum heat it can
lose.
ln 2
(A)
k
2 ln 2
(B)
k
(C) Cannot be determent
(D) None of these
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6. Three rods of identical cross-sectional area and made from the A T
same metal, form the sides of an isosceles triangle ABC right
angled at B as shown in the figure. The points A and B are
maintained at temperature T and 2T respectively in the steady 90o
state. Assuming that only heat conduction takes place, temperature B C
of point C will be 2T
2
(A)
2 1
2
(B)
2 1
3T
(C)
2 1
T
(D)
3( 2 1)
7. A thin uniform rod of mass m and length is free to rotate about its upper end. When it is
at rest, it receives an impulse J at its lowest point, normal to its length. Immediately, after
impact-
(A) The angular momentum of rod is J
3J
(B) The angular velocity of rod is
m
3J 2
(C) The kinetic energy of rod is
2m
3J
(D) The linear velocity of midpoint of rod is
2m
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10. In the figure shown, water drains out through a small hole
of a large tank (P0 : atmospheric pressure)- A
(A) Pressure at the point C is atmospheric H/2
H H B
(B) Gauze pressure at the point B is g
2 C
H
(C) Gauze pressure at the point B is less than g
2
(D) Velocity head at the point B is negligible
11. Two concentric spherical shells have masses m1 and m2 and radii m2 m1 m3
r2
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
13. A body of mass 25 kg is dragged on a horizontal rough road with a constant speed of 20
km/hr. If the coefficient of friction is 0.5, If 50% of the heat is absorbed by the body, find
the rise in temperature in an hour (in degree Celsius). Specific heat of the material of the
-1
body is 0.1cal.gm -1 °C . (g=9.8m/s2)
17. The potential energy U in joule of a particle of mass 1 kg, moving in the XY plane, obeys
the law U = 3x + 4y, where (x, y) are the coordinates of the particle in meter. If the
particle is at rest at (6, 4) at time t = 0, then find the work done by the external force from
the position of rest of the particle and the instant of the particle crossing X-axis.
18. The difference between the apparent frequency of a source of sound as perceived by an
observer during its approach and recession is 2% of the natural frequency of the source.
Find the velocity of the source (in m/s). Take the velocity of sound as 350 m/s. (assume,
velocity of source to be very small as compared to the velocity of sound)
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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(A) (B) HO OH
CH3
CH3
CH3
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23. The equilibrium constant for the following reaction in aqueous solution is 0.90.
H 3 BO3 -glycerine
H3 BO3 +glycerine
How many moles of glycerine should be added per litre of 0.10M H 3 BO 3 so that 80% of
the H 3 BO 3 is converted to the boric acid-glycerine complex?
(A) 4.44
(B) 4.52
(C) 3.6
(D) 0.08
v
r
1
n n
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(C) (D)
KE
PE
1
n
n
(C) lim
PVm 1at high temperature
P 0 RT
(D) lim
PVm R
V 0 RT
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
31. The number of products obtained after monochlorination Cl2 , hv of compound 'A' are?
, AlCl3
Cl
'A'
32. How many of the following can be used as method of preparation of alkene?
Wurtz reaction, dehydration of alcohol, dehydrohalogenation, Reduction of alkyne,
oxidation of alcohol, hydration of alkyne, hydration of alcohol, hydrogenation of
alkanes_____
2
33. If 91 g V2 O 5 is dissolved in acid and reduced to V by treatment with zinc metal, how
2
many grams of I 2 could be reduced by the resulting V solution, as it is oxidized
4
to V ? V=51, I=127
V2O5 10 H 6e 2V 2 5 H 2 O
V 2 I 2 H 2 O 2 I VO 2 2 H
34. How many pairs are, in which first species has lower ionisation energy than second
species?
(i) N and O (ii) Br and K
(iii) Be and B (iv) I and I
(v) Li and Li + (vi) O andS
(vii) Ba andSr
35. 2.0 mol of ideal diatomic gas at 300k and 0.5M Pa are expanded adiabatically to a final
pressure of 0.2M Pa against a constant pressure of 0.1M Pa. Then the magnitude of
change in internal energy U (in KJ) is?
1
36. A plot of Vs time is linear for the reaction
BrO
3BrO aq.
BrO3 aq. 2Br aq. . What is the order of the reaction with respect
to the hypobromite ion, BrO ?
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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
n
1
37. Let a n = 1+ . Then for each n N
n
(A) an 2
(B) an 3
(C) an 4
(D) None of these
39. Two chords are drawn from the point (h, k) on the circle x2 + y2 = hx + ky. If the y-axis
divides both the chorde in ratio 2 : 3 then
(A) K2 > 15h2
(B) 15k2 > h2
(C) h2 = 15k2
(D) None of these
40. If the lines y = mx and y = nx intersect the line x + y = 4 at point A and B respectively
mn
OA, AB and OB are in A.P. (O is origin) thus min value of is :
1 mn
(A) 3
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) None of these
2
41. The circle |z| = 2 intersects the curve whose equation is Z2 Z 4i in the points A, B, C,
D. If z1, z2, z3, z4 represent the affices of these points, then
(A) Z1Z2Z3Z4 = 1
(B) Z1 0
(C) Z 2 1
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2
42. If then cos cos 2 cos3 .....cos1004 is equal to
2009
(A) 0
1
(B) 2008
2
1
(C) 1004
2
1
(D)
21004
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
2 x 2 4 x 4 2 x 3 4 x 5
43. If a 1 .... and b x .... where is non-real cube root of
2 4 3 5
unity then:
(A) a2 – b2 = 1
ex ex
(B) a
2
(C) a2 + b22 + 1 = 0
(D) None of these
44. If seven letter words can be formed by using the letter of the word SUCCESS so that
(A) If two C are together but no two S are together, no. of ways is 24
(B) If two C are together but no two S are together, no. of ways is 12
(C) If no two C and no two S are together then no. of ways is 120
(D) If no two C and no two S are together then no. of ways is 96
47. If locus of the orthocentre of triangle formed by the focal chord of the parabolas y2 = 4ax
and normal drawn at its extremities is S = 0 then
(A) length of latus rectum of S = 0 is a
(B) Vertex of S = 0 is (2a, 0)
(C) Centre of S = 0 is (3a, 0)
(D) Equation of directrix is 4x = 11a
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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
49. Let ABC be a non equilateral triangle with integer side Let D and E be respectively the
mid points of BC and CA Let G be the centroid of triangle ABC. Suppose D, C , E, G are
concyclic. Find the least perimeter of triangle ABC_____
1
50. Let a=3 223 +1 and for all n 3 , let f(n)= n C 0 .a n-1 - n C1.a n-2 + n C 2 .a n-3 -......+(-1) n-1.n C n-1.a 0 . Find
f(2007)+f(2008)
the value of
0.7
343
51. Let a and b be positive integer. The value of xyz is 55 and when a,x,y,z,b are in
55
arithmetic and harmonic progression respectively. Find the product
of λ1×λ 2 ×(a+b)×ab×0.2 where 10a+b has two values λ1 and λ 2
52. If y 2 (y 2 -6)+x 2 -8x+24=0 and the minimum value of x 2 y 4 is m and maximum value is
m
M; then find the value of 1000M+
100
1 x3 1 x x2
54. Given n 4, n N and | x | < l, let f x and g x 2
if coefficient of xn in
1 x 1 x
product f(x).g(x) is an + b then a + b is_________.
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – V
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST MONTH: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. Three identical adiabatic containers A, B and C contain helium, neon and oxygen
respectively at equal pressure and equal number of moles. The gases are pushed to
half their original volumes.
(A) The final temperatures in the three containers will be the same
(B) The final pressures of helium and oxygen will be the same but that of neon will
be different
(C) The final pressure of helium and neon will be the same but that of oxygen will be
different
(D) The final temperatures of helium and neon will be the same but that of oxygen
will be different
B
(A) If B is closed sand is poured A center of mass first falls and then rises.
(B) If shell is completely filled with sand and B is opened, then center of mass falls,
initially
(C) If shell is slightly filled with sand and B is opened, then center of mass falls
(D) None of these
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3 AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
4. A thin rod, suspended from ceiling is free to rotate about its upper end. When it is at rest,
a particle strikes the rod, moving perpendicularly to the rod. Just after the collision the
particle comes to rest
(A) The angular momentum of rod and the particle is conserved about the hinge.
(B) The impulse of hinge reaction on the rod is opposite to the velocity of the particle
before collision.
(C) The impulse of hinge reaction on the rod is along the velocity of the particle
before collision.
(D) Kinetic energy may not be conserved
(A) For H=3h/2, the liquid will reach the topmost surface before touching bottom
(B) For H=4h/3, the liquid will touch topmost surface before touching bottom
(C) For H=21h/10, the liquid will touch bottom before reaching topmost surface
(D) For H=5h/2, the liquid touches bottom and top simultaneously
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
7. Two particles P and Q describe simple harmonic motions of same period, same
amplitude, along the same line about the same equilibrium position O. When P and Q
are on opposite sides of O at the same distance from O they have the same speed of 1.2
m/s in the same directions. When they cross their speed is 1.6 m/sec. The maximum
velocity in m/s of either particle is
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9. A particle moving in a straight line is acted by a force, which works at a constant power
and changes its velocity from u to v in passing over a distance x . The time taken
n v2 u2
is 3 x , find the value of n:
2 v u 3
10. A mass 4 kg, attached to a horizontal spring, executes SHM with amplitude A1 . When
the mass M passes through its mean position, a block of mass 12 kg is placed over it
A1
and both move together with amplitude A 2 . The ratio of is:
A2
11. An automobile of mass m accelerates, starting from rest, while the engine supplies
1/2
8P 3/2
constant power P. The position is given as function of time by, s= t , then find
xm
the value of 'x'
12. The figure shows an L-shaped tube filled with a liquid to a height B
H. What should be the horizontal acceleration a of the tube so
a
that the pressure at the point A becomes atmospheric (H=5m, H
L=10m). A
L
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
13. If 6 Hz, 12 Hz, 16 Hz are the fundamental frequencies of the three segments into which
a string is divided by placing required number of bridges below it. Then the fundamental
frequency of the string is (nearest integer value)
14. Two identical sonometer wires have fundamental frequencies of 500 vibration/sec, when
kept under the same tension. What fractional increase in the tension of one wire would
cause an occurrence of 5 beats per sec. When both wires vibrate together?
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5 AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
17. A wire of mass 6 gm lying horizontal on the surface of water. Find the minimum length of
wire so that it may not sink. (In meters)
(Surface Tension T = 70 × 10–3N/m, g = 9.8 m/s2)
18. A particle is suspended from a spring, and it stretches the spring by 1 cm on the surface
of earth. The same particle will stretch the same spring at a place 800 km above earth
surface by:
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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. Which of the following does/do not impart characterstic colour to the flame?
(A) MgSO 4
(B) CaCl2
(C) Sr NO3 2
(D) BeCl2
21. When an equimolar mixture of Cu 2S and CuS is titrated with Ba MnO4 2 in acidic
medium, the final products contain Cu 2+ ,SO 2 and Mn 2 . If the molecular mass of Cu 2S ,
CuS and Ba MnO4 2 are M1 ,M 2 and M 3 respectively then:
(A) Equivalent mass of Cu 2S is M1 /8
(B) Equivalent mass of CuS is M 2 /6
(C) Equivalent mass of Ba MnO4 2 is M 3 /5
(D) Cu 2S and CuS both have same equivalents in mixture
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7 AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
CH3
(C) CH 4 (D) O
O O
HO OH
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
A2 B3 g x
26. AB g AB2 g Kp1 atm1
10
A2 B4 g
2 AB 2 g Kp2 8atm 1
These two equilibria are simultaneously existing in a vessel at 298 K. If initially only AB
and AB2 are present in 3 : 5 mole ratio and total pressure at equilibrium is 5.5 atm with
pressure of AB2 at 0.5 atm. then x is……
29. A container contains CH 4 and Helium gas in such a ratio that for every helium atom
there are sixteen hydrogen atoms present. Now this mixture is allowed to escape from
very small pin hole. The rate of decrease of hydrogen atoms w.r.t. helium atoms in the
container is x times. Then value of x is………
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30. Which of the following mentioned positions in the given compound is more reactive
towards electrophilic substitution?
4
5 3
6 2
7 N
1
H
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
31. Vander wall’s gas equation can be reduced to virial equation and viral equation (in terms
B C
of volume) is Z A .....
vm vm 2
Where A = first virial coefficient, B = second virial coefficient,
C = third virial coefficient.
2
The third virial coefficient of Hg(g) is 625 cm /mol . 2
What volume (L) is available for movement of 10 moles He(g) atoms present in 50L
vessel?
32. The internal energy change in the conversion of 1 mole of calcite form of CaCO3 to the
aragonite form is +0.21kJ. The enthalpy change (J) in the conversion at 2.7 bar is:
(Given the densities of solid calcite & aragonite are 2.7g cm-3 & 3.0g cm-3 respectively)
33. A liquid aromatic organic compound (A) containing carbon (92.3%) and hydrogen (7.7%)
decolourised KMnO4, and on ozonolysis gave methanal and another compound (B). The
molecular mass of (A) is 104. What is the molecular mass (g/mol) of compound 'B'?
Cl 2 +hv Dichlorination
Cl 2 hv
M number of isomers including stereoisomers
Dichlorination
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9 AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
35. How many sp 2 hybridised carbon atoms are there in compound 'A'?
O3 /H 2 O
A C8H10 Acid B C 4 H 6 O 2
or
acidic KMnO 4
4 mol
of H 2 Pt
C
36. 25 mL of household solution was mixed with 30 mL of 0.50 M KI and 10 mL of 4N acetic
acid. In the titration of the liberated iodine, 48mL of 0.25 N Na2S2O3 was used to reach
the end point. The molarity of the household bleach solution is?
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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
π
37. The sum of three positive numbers α,β,γ is equal to . If e cotα ,e cotβ ,e cotγ form a GP then
2
Which of the following holds good?
(A) cotα= cotα
(B) 2cotβ=cotα+cotγ
(C) cotαcotγ=3
(D) 4 cosα= sin2α
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11 AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
ab bc
44. For a, b, c R {0} ,let , b, are in A.P. If , are roots of the quadratic
1 ab 1 bc
equation 2acx 2 +2abcx ( a c) 0 , then find the value of (1 )(1 ) .
2 i 2 2 i 6 2 i 56
45. Consider a triangle formed by the points A e , B e and C e . If
3 3 3
2 2 2
P(z) be any point on its incircle, then AP +BP +CP is equal to:
46. If N denotes the number of non-empty subsets of {1,2,3……,12} having property that the
sum of largest element and smallest element is 13, then number of divisors of N divisible
by 5 is:
20
2 10 r a7
47. Let (2 x 3x 4) a x
r 0
r , then the value of
a13
is.
9 15 23 33
48. If sum of the series ........up to is k find [k] (where[.] represent
3! 4! 5! 6!
greatest integer function)
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AIITS-HCT-V (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
49. If a, b, c are positive integers forming G.P. and b – a is a perfect cube and log6a + log6b
+ log6c = 6, then a + b + c =
50. For each positive integer n consider the point p with abscissa n on the curve y2 – x2 = 1.
If d n represents the shortest distance from the point p to the line g = x then lim n dn
n
51. A variable circle is described to pass through (1, 0) and touch the line y = x. The locus of
the center of the circle is a parabola, whose length of latus rectum is ____________.
52. Triplet x, y , z chosen from the set {1, 2, 3, 4………n} x y > z. If number of such
n
triplets possible is 165 then is ________.
2
3 4 5 6 –1
53. Let S denote sum of the series ... , then the values of s is_____.
23 24.3 26.3 27.5
logx1 3 2x x 2 x 3 x has.
54. Number of solutions of the equation x 1
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VI
JEE (Main)-2022
TEST MONTH: JULY-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
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3 AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
5. A pendulum bob of mass 10-2 kg is raised to a height 510-2m and then released. At the
bottom of its swing, it picks up a mass 10-3kg. To what height will the combined mass
rise?
(A) 0.6 m
(B) 0.54 m
(C) 0.41 m
(D) 0.8 m
R w g Mg
(A) 3
2
2 2
(B) R w g Mg
3
4 3
R w g Mg
(C) 3
2
4 3
(D) R w g Mg
3
8. A pipe’s lower end is immersed in water such that the length of air column from the top
open end has a certain length 25 cm. The speed of sound in air is 350 m/s. The air
column is found to resonate with a tuning fork of frequency 1750 Hz. By what minimum
distance should the pipe be raised in order to make the air column resonate again with
the same tuning fork?
(A) 7 cm
(B) 5 cm
(C) 35 cm
(D) 10 cm
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 4
9. What change in surface energy will be noticed when a drop of radius R splits up into
1000 droplets of radius r, surface tension of T?
(A) 4R2 T
(B) 7 R2 T
(C) 16 R2 T
(D) 36 R2 T
x
10. A transverse wave is described by the equation y y 0 sin 2 (ft ) the maximum
particle velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if
(A) y0 / 4
(B) y 0 / 2
(C) y 0
(D) 2y 0
11. Forces acting on a particle moving in a straight line varies with the velocity of the particle
as F where is constant. The work done by this force in time interval t is
v
(A) t
1
(B) t
2
(C) 2t
(D) 2 t
12. A thin uniform metallic rod of mass m, length L,
Young modulus of elasticity Y and crosssectional A
Shaded region
area A is rotated by angular velocity about
extreme end AA’. Consider a section on the rod at
3 M2L2 cos2
(A)
8 A
3 M L sin2
2 2
(B)
4 A
3 M L sin2
2 2
(C)
8 A
(D) None of these
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5 AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
13.
If (1) represents isothermal and (2) represents adiabatic, which of the graphs given
above in respect of an ideal gas are correct?
(A) (I) and (II)
(B) (II) and (III)
(C) (I), (II) and (III)
(D) Only (III)
14. A string of length 1m and linear mass density 0.01 kg m–1 is stretched to a tension of 100
N. When both ends of the string are fixed, the three lowest frequencies for standing
wave are f 1, f2 and f3. When only one end of the string is fixed, the three lowest
frequencies for standing wave are n1, n2 and n3. Then
(A) n3 = 5n1 = f3 = 125 Hz
(B) f3 = 5f1 = n2 = 125 Hz
(C) f3 = n2 = 3f1 = 150 Hz
f f
(D) n2 = 1 2 = 75 Hz
2
16. A boat having length of 3 metres and breadth 2 metres is floating on a lake. The boat
sinks by one cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(A) 60 kg
(B) 62 kg
(C) 72 kg
(D) 128 kg
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 6
17. A viscous liquid flows through a horizontal pipe of varying cross sectional area. Identify
the option which correctly represents the variation of height of rise of liquid in each
vertical tube
(A) (B)
A A
B B
20. The centre of mass of a non uniform rod of length L whose mass per unit length
Kx 2
where K is a constant and x in the distance from one end is:
L
3L
(A)
4
L
(B)
8
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7 AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
L
(C)
K
3L
(D)
K
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
21. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10.5, then find tension in the string.
23. Two rods are of same material and have same length and area. Heat R flow through
them in 12 minutes, when they joined side by side. If now both the rods are joined in
parallel, then in what time (in minutes) the same amount of heat R will flow.
2 kg
25. A bullet losses 19% of its kinetic energy when passes through an obstacle. Find the
fractional change in its speed
26. A SHM is represented by the equation x = 20sin [t+(/6)] in S. I. Units. Find its
amplitude,
27. A block of mass 2kg is gently placed over a massive plank moving horizontally over a
smooth surface with velocity 6 m/s. The coefficient of friction between the block and
plank is 0.2. Find the distance (SI unit) travelled by the block till it slides on the plank is
(g = 10 m/s2)
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8
28. A string of length 1 m and mass 10 gm is tightly clamped at its ends. The tension in the
string is 4 N. Identical wave pulses are produced at one end at equal intervals of time t.
What is the minimum value of t (in sec.) which allows a constructive interference
between successive pulses?
30. A cubical body floats in a mercury bath with half of its volume submerged. What fraction
of the body will be inside mercury if a layer of water is poured on the mercury covers the
body completely? (Sp. gr. of mercury = 13.6)
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9 AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
31. In which of the following compounds nitrogen exhibit more than one oxidation state?
(A) (NH4)3N
(B) N2O5
(C) (NH4)NO3
(D) N2H4
32. What is the equivalent weight of H3PO3 (Mo = Molar mass) in the reaction
4H3PO3 3H3PO4 PH3
2MO
(A)
3
MO
(B)
2
3MO
(C)
2
MO
(D)
6
34. Which of the following is correct order of shielding effect of electron in a given subshell.
(A) s<p<d<f
(B) s>p>d>f
(C) s<d<p<f
(D) s<p<f<d
35. The unit of rate of reaction and rate constant for a reaction of second order are
respectively
(A) mol L–1 sec–1, mol–1Ls–1
(B) mol–1 L sec–1 for both
(C) mol L–1 s–1 for both
(D) mol L–1 sec–1, mol–2L2s–1
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 10
36. Which of the following reactions will proceed towards the forward reaction with decrase
in pressure?
(A)
H2 g Cl2 g
2HCl g
(B)
N2O4 s
2NO2 g
(C)
N2 g 3H2 g
2NH3 g
(D)
2SO2 g O2 g
2SO3 g
37.
BaCO3 s 2 2
Ba aq CO3 aq
Addition of which of the following compound make the above solubility reaction proceeds
towards the forward reaction
(A) KCl
(B) NaOH
(C) HCl
(D) NaNO3
39. Which of the following mixture upon heating forms inorganic benzene?
(A) H3BO3 + HNO3
(B) B2O3 + N2
(C) B2H6 + NH3
(D) H3BO3 + NH3
40. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption line of
lowest frequency is
(A) n = 1 to n = 2
(B) n = 3 to n = 8
(C) n = 2 to n = 1
(D) n = 4 to n = 1
HO heat Na CO
41. SiCl4
2
A B
2
Heat
3
C
The compound(C) is
(A) SiO2
(B) Si
(C) SiC
(D) Na2SiO3
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11 AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
NO2
(C) (D)
CH2 CH2
CH3 C(CH3)3
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 12
Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl Cl
Cl Cl Cl
(X ) (Y) (Z)
(A) X>Y>Z
(B) X>Z>Y
(C) Z>X>Y
(D) Y > X> Z
47. OH
H
P, P is
HO
OH
[info there is interconversion between the given compounds
CH2 ]
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
48. Solubility of AgCl in water, 0.01M CaCl2, 0.01M NaCl and 0.05M AgNO3 are S1, S2, S3
and S4 respectively then.
(A) S1 S2 S3 < S4
(B) S1 > S3 > S2 > S4
(C) S1 > S2 = S3 > S4
(D) S1 > S3 > S4 < S2
49. Aluminium chloride exists as a dimmer, Al2Cl6, in solid state as well as in solution of non-
polar solvents such as benzene. When dissolved in water, it gives :
(A) Al3 3Cl
3
(B) Al H2 O
6
3Cl
3
(C) Al OH 3HCl
6
(D) Al2O3 6HCl
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50. A mixture of two gases is formed when an organic acid heated with conc.H2SO4 when
the gaseous mixture is passed through KOH solution, one gas is absorbed. The
unabsorbed gas combines with chlorine and forms a poisonous gas. The organic acid
and the two gases evolved with conc. H2SO4 are respectively:
(A) CH3COOH, CO2, CO
(B) oxalic acid, CO2, CO
(C) HCOOH, CO, H2O
(D) None of these
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
53. How much volume (in mL) of 0.1 M acetic acid should be added to 50 mL to 0.2 M
sodium acetate to prepare a buffer of pH = 4.91?(pKa = 4.76)
55. In a process, 701 J of heat is absorbed by a system and 394 J of work is done by the
system. What is the change in internal energy for the process (in Joules)
56. A sample of H2SO4(density 1.8 g/ml) is 90% by weight. What is the volume of the acid
(in mL) that has to be used to make 1 L of 0.2 M H2SO4?
58. The energy required to ionize a helium atom is equal to 24.6 eV. The energy required to
remove both the electrons from the helium atom (in eV) would be
59. The density of steam at 100oC and 105 Pa pressure is 0.6 Kg m–3. Calculate the
compressibility factor of steam.
60. Enthalpy of neutralization of acetic acid by NaOH is -50.6 kJ mol–1. Calculate H for
ionization of CH3COOH(in kJ mol). Given the heat of neutralization of a strong acid with
a strong base is -55.7 kJ/mol
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 14
Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
2
61. If three distinct real numbers a, b and c satisfy a a p b2 b p c 2 c p where
p R , then value of bc ca ab is
(A) –p
(B) p
(C) 0
p2
(D)
2
2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2
62. Suppose A, B, C are defined as A a b ab a c ac , B b c bc a b ab
and C a 2c ac 2 b2c bc 2 ,
where a b c 0 and the equation Ax 2 Bx C 0 has equal roots, then a, b, c
are in
(A) A.P.
(B) G.P.
(C) H. P.
(D) A. G.P.
3 4
63.
3
Let a and b be the coefficient of x in 1 2x x 3x 2
and
4
1 2x x 2
3x 3 4x 4 respectively. Find the value of (a – b).
(A) 1
(B) 3
(C) 0
(D) –1
64. The locus of mid points of the chords of the circle x2 2x + y2 2y + 1 = 0 which are of
unit length is
3
(A) (x 1)2 + (y 1)2 =
4
(B) (x 1)2 + (y 1)2 = 2
(C) (x 1)2 + (y 1)2 = 4
(D) None of these
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15 AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
65. Let z1 = a + ib and z2 = c + id be two complex numbers such that |z1| = |z2| = 1 and
Re z1z2 = 0.If a, b > 0 and c < 0, then
(A) 0 z1 z2 2
(B) 0 < z1 z2 < 2
(C) 2 z1 z2 2
(D) 2 z1 z2 2
a3 2 a 2
66. The locus of vertices of the family of parabolas y x x 2a, is
3 2
105
(A) xy
64
3
(B) xy
4
35
(C) xy
16
64
(D) xy
105
67. If a, b, c are related by 4a2 9b2 9c 2 12ab 0 then the greatest distance between
any two lines of the family of lines ax by c 0 is:
4
(A)
3
2
(B) 13
3
(C) 3 3
(D) 0
69. If the line x + y = 1 touches the parabola y2 – y + x = 0, then the co-ordinates of the point
of contact are
(A) (1, 1)
1 1
(B) ,
2 2
(C) (0, 1)
(D) (1, 0)
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 16
zi
71. Perimeter of the locus represented by arg (where i = –1) is equal to
z i 4
(A) 3/2
(B) 3/2
(C) /2
(D) 2
73. If , are the roots of the equation 2x 2 4x 5 0 , the equation whose roots are the
reciprocals of 2 3 , and 2 3 is
(A) 11x 2 10x 1 0
(B) x 2 10x 11 0
(C) x 2 10x 11 0
(D) 11x 2 10x 1 0
1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1
74. If 1
... , then value of ... is
3 5 7 9 11 4 1.3 5.7 9.11
(A)
8
(B)
6
(C)
4
(D)
34
75. If a vertex of triangle is (1, 1) and the mid points of two sides through this vertex are
(–1, 2) and (3, 2), then the centroid of the triangle is
(A) (1, 7/3)
(B) (1/3, 7/3)
(C) (–1, 7/3)
(D) (–1/3, 7/3)
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x2 y2
76. The length of intercept, which is the largest on any tangent line by ellipse + =1, is
4 16
(A) 4 units
(B) 20 units
(C) 8 units
(D) 6 units
77. If the latus rectum of an ellipse is equal to half the minor axes then its eccentricity is
equal to
(A) 1/2
(B) 3/2
(C) 1/4
(D) 3/4
78. A circle is drawn on the major axis of the ellipse 9x 2 +16y 2 =144 as diameter. The
equation of the circle is
(A) x2 + y2 = 4
(B) x2 + y2 = 3
(C) x 2 + y 2 = 16
(D) x2 + y2 = 9
79. The curve represented by x = 2(cos t + sin t), y = 5(cos t sin t), is
(A) a circle
(B) a parabola
(C) an ellipse
(D) a hyperbola
x2 y 2
80. PQ and PR are tangents drawn from a point P to the hyperbola - =1 . If equation of
9 4
QR is 4x 3y 6 = 0, then the coordinates of P are
(A) (2, 6)
(B) (6, 2)
(C) (3, 4)
(D) None of these
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
81. We have 21 identical balls, which needs to be distributed among 3 boys A, B, C such
that A always gets even number of balls. If number of possible ways of doing this is ‘n’
then =
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AIITS-HCT-VI-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 18
84. From a group of 6 Indians and 8 foreigners a committee is formed then number of
committee in which at least 2 Indians are always selected and number of foreigner is
double of number of Indian, is
85. If the midpoint of the common chord of circle x 2 y 2 2x 6y 6 0 and the circle is
(1, 3) then find the radius of circle C. (where the centre of circle C is (2, 1))
86. A (5, 0) and B (–5, 0) are two fixed point and P is moving point such that PA = 3.PB and
2
radius of P is r then 4r =?
87. Find the number of 2 digit numbers of ‘n’ for which 7n 3n is divisible by 10.
2 7 12
88. If a series 1 ........... (upto infinite terms) is given, then the value of S is
3 3 2 33
25
90. If in an increasing G.P., the sum of second and sixth term is and the product of third
2
and fifth term is 25, then the sum of fourth term, sixth term and eight term is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VI
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(A) 1 3 kg
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
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3 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
5. A pendulum bob of mass 10–2 kg is raised to a height 5 10-2 m and then released. At
the bottom of its swing, it picks up a mass 10–3 kg. To what height will the combined
mass rise?
(A) 0.6 m
(B) 0.54 m
(C) 0.41 m
(D) 0.8 m
R w g Mg
(A) 3
2
2 2
(B) R w g Mg
3
4 3
R w g Mg
(C) 3
2
4 3
(D) R w g Mg
3
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
Mg
(C) acceleration of man is
(M m)
(D) measured mass of man is M.
10. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into
two equal parts at its highest point, one part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will fall at a distance R beyond target
(B) will fall at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target
(D) have nine times kinetic energy of first
12. Two particles are projected from the same point with same speed u at angles of
projection and from horizontal strike the horizontal ground. The maximum heights
attained by projectiles is h1 and h2 respectively, R is the range for both and t1 and t2 are
their time of flights respectively then:
(A)
2
(B) R 4 h1h2
t1
(C) tan
t2
(D) tan h1 / h2
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5 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
13. A stone is projected with initial velocity u 2 2 m / s at an angle = 450 with the
horizontal, find the angular velocity in rad/sec of the stone with respect to the point of
projection, when it is at its maximum height. (take g = 10 m/s2)
15. Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side length a. The only forces acting on the particles are their mutual gravitational forces.
It is desired that each particle moves in a circle while maintaining the original mutual
separation a. Find the initial velocity (assuming all values in S.I. units) that should be
GM
given to each particle. take a
20
17. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the
shortest possible path in 15 min. Find the velocity of the river water in km/ hr.
18. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10.5, then find tension in the string.
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. In which of the following molecules all the carbons are in the same hybridisation state
(A) CH2 = CH – C CH
(B) CH2 = CH – CHO
(C) CH2= CH – CN
(D) CH2 = CH – CH2OH
20. The volume strength of a sample of H2O2 is ‘9.08 V’. The mass of H2O2 present in 250
mL of this solution is
(A) 0.4 g
(B) 27.2 g
(C) 6.8 g
(D) 108.8 g
21. The expression for compressibility factor for one mole of an Van der Waal’s gas at
Boyle’s temperature is
b2
(A) 1
V V b
b2
(B) 1
V2
b
(C) 1
V
b2
(D) 1 2
V
(C) (D)
23. Which of the following solution when added to a solution of CH3COONa can give a
buffer?
(A) CH3COOH
(B) HF
(C) HCl
(D) All of these
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7 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
25. The reversible expansion of an ideal gas under (P1, V1, T1)
adiabatic and isothermal conditions is shown in
figure. Which of the following statements is (are) P
correct? (W 1, W 2 are the work done by the ideal 1
gas) (P2, V2, T2)
(A) T1 = T 2 2
(B) T3 > T 1 (P3, V3, T3)
(C) W1 > W2
V
(D) U1 U2
26. Find out the correct statements about dianion of squaric acid.
O O
O O
(A) it is more stable than phenoxide ion
(B) its all C – O bonds are of same length
(C) its C – C bonds are of same length
(D) it has four equivalent resonance structure
27. A solution containing a mixture of 0.05 M NaCl and 0.05 M NaI is taken(Ksp AgCl = 10–10,
Ksp AgI = 4 10–16). When AgNO3 is added to such a solution
(A) conc. of Ag+ required to precipitate Cl– is 2 10–9 M
(B) conc. of Ag+ required to precipitate l– is 8 10–15 M
(C) AgCl and AgI will ppt together
(D) first AgI will precipitate
CN OH
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
(C) Cl (D) SH
Br SH
AlCl
CH3 3 C COCl
3
?
COC(CH3)3
H CH3
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
32. The ionization energy for hydrogen atoms is 13.6 eV. What would be I.E for Li2+ ion in
ground state in eV?
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9 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
33. The product(P) obtained in the reaction given below has molar mass Mo, then
OH
Br
2
H O
'P '
2
Mo
then is ? (atomic mass of Br = 80)
5
34. A weak acid type indicator was found to be 60% dissociated at pH = 9.18. What will be
percentage dissociation at pH = 9.0? (log 2 = 0.3, log 3 = 0.48)
35. Find the bond enthalpy (in kJ/mol) of three centre two electron bond in B2H6 from the
following data
Hof [BH3(g)] = 100 kJ/mol, Hof [B2H6(g)] = 36 kJ/mol,
Ha[B(s)] = 565 kJ/mol, Ha[H2(g)] = 436 kJ/mol
36.
The equilibrium constant for the reaction N2 g O2 g
2NO g is 0.09 at 3500 K.
The fraction of equimolar mixture of N2 and O2 converted to NO is
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1 xn
37. Let xn 1 , x N and xk x1 35 , then k can be
1 xn
(A) 35
(B) 37
(C) 36
(D) 38
n
38.
If R 7 48 , n N then the value of 4 R 3 R R R 4 , where [R] is integral
part of R is.
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
39. The length of three unequal edges of a rectangular solid block are in GP. The volume of
block is 216cm3 and total surface are is 252cm2. The length of the shortest edge is
(A) 3
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
40. If 0 < x < /2, then the minimum value of (9sec2x + 4 cosec2x) is N, then N17 =
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
41. If is a complex seventh root of unity, then the equation whose roots are 2 4
and 3 5 6 is x 2 x c 0 where c is ____
(A) 2
(B) 7
(C) 8
(D) 9
42. Five digit numbers divisible by 9 are to be formed by using the digits 0, 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 7
without repetition. The total numbers of such numbers is 3, then is
(A) 5
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 9
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11 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
43. If 5, 12 and 24, 7 are the foci of a conic passing through the origin, then the
eccentricity of conic is
386
(A)
38
386
(B)
12
386
(C)
13
386
(D)
25
3p 25
44. If p is a positive integer, then can be a positive integer, then all possible
2p 5
value(s) of p
(A) 3
(B) 9
(C) 5
(D) 35
45. Let the parabolas y x 2 a x b and y x c x touch each other at the point (1, 0),
then
(A) a=–3
(B) b=1
(C) c=2
(D) b+c=3
2 2 2 1 2m
46. If then
1!13! 3!11! 5!9! 7!7! n!
(A) m + n =27
(B) m2 = 1 + 2n
(C) n2 – m2 = 27
(D) n=1+m
47. If the equation ax2+2bx+4c=16 has no real roots and a + c > b + 4, then integral value of
c can be equal to
(A) 2
(B) 6
(C) 12
(D) 20
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12
48. The equation a 8 x 8 a 7 x 7 a 6 x 6 ..... a0 0 has all its roots positive and real
(where a8 = 1, a7 = 4, a0 = 1/28), then
1
(A) a1
24
1
(B) a1 8
2
7
(C) a2 4
2
1
(D) a3 2
2
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
49. If a0, a1, a2, a3, …….. and b0, b1, b2, b3, …………. are two geometric progressions with
101
52
a1 = 23 and b1
9
3 if 3a99b99 = 104, and a b = k then
i 0
i i =
50. 3 circles with radii r1,r2 ,r3 where r1 r2 r3 touch each other externally. If they have a
r1 r
common tangent, then the value of 1 is
r2 r3
4n 4n2 1 40
51. If Tn
2n 1 2n 1
, and Tn k then
n 1
x2 y2 9
53. If the lines x – 2y = 12 is tangent to the ellipse 2
2 1 at the point 3, , then the
a b 2
length of the latus rectum of the ellipse is
2 2 2 2
54. Let x, y, z, t be real numbers such that x y 9,z t 4 and xt yz 6 then the
greatest value of xz.
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VI
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
FIITJEE Ltd., FIITJEE House, 29-A, Kalu Sarai, Sarvapriya Vihar, New Delhi -110016, Ph 46106000, 26569493, Fax 26513942
website: www.fiitjee.com
AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
6
1. A wave pulse in a horizontal string is represented by a function y x,t 2
2 x 3t
(c. g .s system) then
(A) wave is propagating along ‘+x’ axis
(B) amplitude of the wave is 4 cm
(C) velocity of the wave is 3 cm/sec
(D) amplitude of wave is 6 cm
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3 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
8. A long cylindrical glass vessel has a small hole of radius r at its bottom. If the depth
upto to which the vessel can be lowered vertically in a deep water bath (surface tension
xT
‘T’ and density of water ‘’) without any water entering inside is, d = then find ‘x’.
rg
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
10. An object is displaced from point A(1m, 2m, 3m) to a point B(2m, 3m, 4m) under a
constant force F 2iˆ 3ˆj 4kˆ N . Find the work done by this force in this process. (in
joule)
11. A bus is moving towards a huge wall with a velocity of 5 m/s. The driver sounds a horn
of frequency 200 Hz. The frequency of the beats heard by a passenger of the bus will be
(In Hz) nearly (velocity of sound in air = 338 m / s )
12. If P-V diagram of a diatomic gas is plotted, it is a straight line passing through origin.
The molar heat capacity of the gas in the process is nR where n is an integer. Find the
value of ‘n’.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
13. Two blocks of masses 3kg and 1kg are placed on a frictionless surface and connected
by a spring. An external kick gives a velocity of 9 m/s to the heavier block in the direction
of lighter one. Calculate the velocity gained by the centre of mass.
14. For what value of m (in kg), the pulley P1 remains at rest.
15. The displacement x (in m) of particle of mass m (in kg) is related to time t (in second) by
9
x t 2 3 . Find the work (in J) done in the first two seconds. (take m = kg)
32
16. A boat which has a speed of 1.25 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along
the shortest possible path in 60 min. Find the velocity of the river water in km/ hr.
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5 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
1
17. A particle of mass kg starts from origin and move in xy-plane. The velocity of the
8
particle is given by v 2iˆ 3 1 4y ˆj where y is the y-coordinate of the position of the
particle. Find the magnitude of average force (in N) acting on the particle.
xF
acceleration is given by a . What is the value of ‘x’. R
5m m
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. In which of the following species bond angle is expected to be more than 120o?
(A) PCl4
(B) NO2
(C) NO2
(D) XeF2
21. An acid-base indicator has Ka = 10–5. The acid form of the indicator is red and basic form
is blue. Which of the following is/are correct?
(A) At pH = 4.52, solution is red
(B) At pH = 5.47, solution is blue
(C) At pH = 6, solution is 75% red
(D) At pH = 8, solution is 75% blue
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7 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
24. Which of the following is/are major/minor products obtained in the reaction?
OH Conc H2SO 4
?
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
25. The spin only magnetic moment of a second period element in excited state is 2 6 B.M.
What is the atomic number of the element?
26. What is the minimum pH at which precipitation of ZnS is not possible from a solution of
0.01 M ZnCl2 saturated with 0.1 M H2S? If K a1 K a2 of H2S = 10–20 M and Ksp of ZnS is
10–21 M?
28.
Consider the reaction 2CaCO3 s 2 CO2 g
2 CaC2 s 5 O2 g . If KP =
KC(RT)n, n for the above reaction is
29. In the reaction: 2L B 2H6 BH2L 2 BH4 , among the given lewis base(L), how
many will give the above reaction
CO, NH3, CH3NH2, (CH3)2NH, (CH3)2N, Et2S, PF3, PPh3
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
30. Examine the structural formulas shown below and find out how many compounds will
show oxidation reaction with acidic KMnO4.
CH3
, , , ,
Ph
CH = CH2 Ph Ph
, ,
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
32. The electron gain enthalpy of chlorine is 3.7 eV. How much energy in Kcal is released
when 2 g of chlorine is completely converted to Cl– ion in gaseous state?
(1 eV = 23.06 kcal/mol)
33. The van der Waal’s constant ‘b’ of Ar is 3.22 10–5 m3 mol–1. Calculate the molecular
diameter of Ar(in nm)
34. The bond energies of C = C and C – C at 298 K are 590 and 331 kJ mol–1 respectively.
The enthalpy of polymerization per mole of ethylene in kJ/mol is
35. The vapour density of N2O4 at a certain temperature is 30. Calculate the percentage
dissociation of N2O4 at this temperature.
36. The volume of CH4 obtained at STP in L when 4.6 g of ethanol reacts with CH3MgBr as
per reaction
C2H5OH CH3MgBr C2H5OMgBr CH4
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9 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
37. If and be the roots of the equation x 2 2x 2 0 , then the value(s) of n for which
n
1 is:
(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 8
(D) 10
38. A van has 3 seats in the front (inclusive of driver’s seat) and four seats at the back of a
car. If 2 girls and 4 boys be seated in the van and one particular girl and one particular
boy only know driving, then the total number of ways they can be seated is
(A) 2(6!)
(B) 1440
(C) 3×4!×5!
(D) 2×5!×3!
2 3
3 1 4 1 5 1
39. If Sn represents sum of series .... up to n terms,
1 2 2 2 3 2 3 4 2
then which of the following is/are true
191
(A) S5
192
1
(B) S11 1
3 213
3
(C) S7 1
4
(D) S11>1
40. A point on the straight line, 3x 5y 15 which is equidistant from the coordinate, axes
will lie only in:
(A) 4th quadrant
(B) 2nd quadrants
(C) 1st quadrant
(D) 3rd quadrants
41. Let S be the set of all R such that the equation, cos2 x + sin x = 2 – 7 has a
solution. Then integral values of S are
(A) 3
(B) 4
(C) 5
(D) 7
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AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
42. The common tangent(s) to the parabola y2 = 12x and the hyperbola 8x2 – y2 = 8.
(A) y = 3x +1
(B) y = -3x +1
(C) y = 3x - 1
(D) y = -3x -1
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
43. ABC is inscribed in a unit circle. The three bisectors of the angles A, B and C asre
extended to intersect the circle at A1, B1 and C1 respectively. Then the value of
A B C
AA1 cos BB1 cos CC1 cos
2 2 2 is
sin A sinB sinC
44. In a book with page numbers from 1 to 100, some pages are torn off. The sum of the
numbers on the remaining pages is 4949, then number of pages which are torn off, is
2
z z3 2z1
45. If z1, z2 ,z3 are the vertices of an equilateral triangle, then 2 is
z 2 z3
46. If the area of the triangle whose one vertex is at the vertex of the parabola,
y 2 4 x a 2 0 and the other two vertices are the points of intersection of the
parabola and y – axis, is 250 sq. units, then a value of ‘a’ is:
47. If the equation x32x2+px+2=0 and x37x2+px+d=0 have two roots in common. Then, the
sum of non-common roots will be
48. In a triangle ABC, b c 2a and A 60o . Let O be an interior point and its distance
from three sides 3,4,5 units , then circum radius of triangle ABC is
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
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11 AIITS-HCT-VI (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
54. The sum of the squares of the lengths of the chords intercepted on the circle,
x 2 y 2 16, by the lines, x y n,n N , where N is the set of all natural numbers is k
then =
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VII
JEE (Main)-2022
TEST MONTH: JULY-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – A
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. The two masses collide in air and get stick together. After how m Just dropped
much time combined mass will fall to the ground (calculate the
time from the starting when the motion was started) (g = 10
m/s2)
(A) 1 2 s 20 m
20 m/s
(B) 2 2s
(C) 2 2 s m
(D) 3 1 s
2. A boat having length of 3 metres and breadth 2 metres is floating on a lake. The boat
sinks by one cm when a man gets on it. The mass of the man is
(A) 60 kg
(B) 62 kg
(C) 72 kg
(D) 128 kg
3. Two sound waves of slightly different frequently have amplitude ratio 11/9. What is the
different of sound levels in decibels of maximum and minimum intensities head at a
point?
(A) 100
(B) 10
(C) 16
(D) 20
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3 AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
M, R
6. A sphere of mass M and radius R rolls on a horizontal
y
surface with velocity v0 as shown in figure. Its angular v0
momentum about a fixed point O on the surface is
(A) Mv0R O
x
2
(B) MR 20
5
1 2
(C) Mv 0R MR2 0
25
2
(D) Mv 0R MR 2 0
5
7. A sphere of mass m moving with a constant velocity u hits another stationary sphere of
the same mass. If e is the coefficient of restitution, then ratio of final velocity of the
sphere moving initially to the final velocity of the sphere initially at rest is:
1 e
(A)
1 e
1 e
(B)
1 e
e 1
(C)
e 1
e 1
(D)
e 1
8. A projectile is throw horizontally from a big tower with a speed of 20 ms1. If g = 10 ms2,
the speed of the projectile after 5 second will be nearly,
(A) 0.5 ms1
(B) 5 ms1
(C) 54 ms1
(D) 500 ms1
10. If error in the measurement of mass is 0.8 of and in volume it is 0.4% then error in the
measurement of density is
(A) 1.2 %
(B) 0.4 %
(C) 0.8 %
(D) 1%
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11. A moving body in straight line is covering the distance directly proportional to the square
of time. The acceleration of the body is:
(A) Increasing
(B) decreasing
(C) zero
(D) constant
12. An open pipe is closed at one end. As a result the frequency of the third harmonic of the
closed pipe is found to be higher than the fundamental frequency of the open pipe by
100 Hz. What is the fundamental frequency of the open pipe?
(A) 50 Hz
(B) 100 Hz
(C) 200 Hz
(D) 300 Hz
(B) 3m
0
(C) 4m 1 2 3 4 5 t(s)
(D) 5m 1
2
15. Two racing cars of masses m1 and m2 are moving in two circular paths of radii R1 and R2
with same speed. The ratio of respective coefficient of friction so that the cars just take
the safe turn is
(A) R1 R 2
(B) R 2 R2
1 2
(C) R 2 R1
(D) R 2 R2
2 1
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16. A body of mass m is situated in a potential field U x = U0 (1 cosx) when U0 and are
constants. The time period of small oscillations of the mass is
m
(A)
uo 2
m
(B) 2
uo 2
2m
(C) 2
uo 2
3m
(D) 2
uo 2
17. One half mole of a monoatomic ideal gas absorbs 1200 J of heat energy while
performing 2196 J of work. The temperature of the gas changes by
(A) 1600C
(B) 800C
(C) 400C
(D) –1600C
18. In a tug of war, the team that exerts a larger tangential force on the ground wins.
Consider the period in which a team is dragging the opposite team by applying a larger
tangential force on the ground. Which of the following works are negative?
(A) work by the loosing team on the winning team.
(B) work by the ground on the winning team.
(C) work by the ground on the loosing team.
(D) None of these
19. P–V diagram of a diatomic gas is a straight line passing through origin. The molar heat
capacity of the gas in the process will be
(A) 4R
(B) 25R
(C) 3R
(D) 4R/3
20. The escape velocity of a body on an imaginary planet which is thrice the radius of the
earth and double the mass of earth is (v0 is the escape velocity of earth)
(A) 2 / 3v 0
(B) 3 / 2v 0
(C) 2 / 3v 0
(D) 2 / 3v 0
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SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
S2 S3
22. The density of a newly discovered planet is twice that of earth. The acceleration due to
gravity at the surface of the planet is equal to that at the surface of the earth. If the
R
radius of Earth is R, the radius of planet would be , where ‘x’ is
x
d2 x
23. The time period of the SHM represented by 2
42 x 0, where x is the displacement
dt
at time t, in seconds is
24. A moving car encounters air resistance which is proportional to the square of the speed
2 Power required at 40 kmph
of the car. Find the value of
Power required at 80 kmph
1 k
connected as shown. The new frequency is ‘x’ times of . Find M M
2M
the value of ‘x’. k2
26. A simple pendulum has time period T1. The point of suspension is now moved upward
according to the relation. y = Kt2. (K = 1m/s2) where y is vertical displacement. The time
T2
period now become T2. The ratio of 12 is (g = 10 m/s2)
T2
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30. A hollow sphere and a solid sphere have equal mass and equal moment of inertia about
the respective diameter. Find the ratio of their square of radii is given by
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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8
Chemistry PART – B
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
31. Which quantum number is different for the unpaired electrons of carbon atom?
(A) Principal quantum number
(B) Azimuthal quantum number
(C) Magnetic quantum number
(D) Spin quantum number
32. Which of the following molecule has the highest value of dipole moment?
(A) PF2Cl3
(B) PBr3Cl2
(C) PCl5
(D) PCl2F3
33.
T1
T2
Fraction of
molecules
V1 V2 V3 V4 V5
Velocity
Which of the following velocity is expressed correctly?
3RT1
(A) V1
M
2RT2
(B) V4
M
2RT1
(C) V2
M
3RT2
(D) V3
M
34. Which of the following substance absorbs CO2 and evolves O2 gas in a single reaction?
(A) CaO
(B) KO2
(C) Na2O
(D) Li2O
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35.
2Mg s O 2 g
2MgO s
Above reaction attains equilibrium at 80oC and 0.5 atm pressure. The equilibrium
constant Kp of the reaction is:
(A) 1.5 atm–1
(B) 0.5 atm–1
(C) 2 atm–1
(D) 2.5 atm–1
36. Which of the following solution mixture does not behave as buffer?
(A) CH3COOH + NaOH (2 : 1 molar ratio)
(B) NH4OH + HCl (1 : 2 molar ratio)
(C) CH3COOH + NH4OH (1 : 1 molar ratio)
(D) CH3COONa + CH3COOH (8 : 1 molar ratio)
38. The entropy of a reversible process at equilibrium is 150 J K–1 mol–1 at 25oC. What would
be the entropy of the surrounding?
(A) 75 J K–1 mol–1
(B) –150 J K–1 mol–1
(C) 150 J K–1 mol–1
(D) –75 J K–1 mol–1
CH3
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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 10
45. Which of the following substance on ozonolysis does not form CH3CHO?
(A) 2-butene
(B) 2-pentene
(C) 2-hexene
(D) 3-hexene
46.
Electrolysis
COONa Product
(B)
CH2 - CH2
(C)
(D)
CH2
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47. Which does not form precipitate with ammonical solution of AgNO3?
(A) CH3CH2CH2C CH
(B) CH3 – C C – CH3
(C) HC CH
(D) CH3 – C CH
Me - C Et - C
Me Et
Ph - C PhCH2 - C
Ph CH2Ph
49. Which of the following gases deplete ozone layer in the upper atmosphere?
(A) CHF3 and NO2
(B) CF2Cl2 and NO
(C) CFCl3 and N2O
(D) CH2Cl2 and NO
Rate
Rate
(Initial concentration)2
Initial concentration
(C) (D)
t1/2
Rate
Initial concentration.
Initial concentration
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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 12
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
53. The atomic number of iron is 26. How many maximum number of electron(s) of an iron
atom has/have s = +½?
54. What is the translational kinetic energy of one mole of an diatomic ideal gas at 480 K in
calorie unit?
55. What volume in mL of 0.4 M acidified KMnO4 solution can completely oxidize 0.9612
moles of Fe2+ into Fe3+ ions?
56. A container contains 240 mL of 0.2 M HCl solution. 360 mL of 0.2 M H2SO4 solution was
added to it. What volume in litre of 0.16 M NaOH solution can completely neutralize the
acid solution?
57. A g B g C g
In above first order reaction, gas A was taken in a container at 142 mm of Hg. What will
be the partial pressure of A(g) in the container in mm of Hg unit after three half-lives?
58. An acyclic compound(A) contains six carbon atoms and the required number of
hydrogen atoms. It can absorb one molecules of H2 in presence of metal catalyst. It
forms one monochloro substituted product when reacts with Cl2 in presence of light.
What is the mass of all CH3 groups present in (A) in g mol–1 unit?
60. A
1200
T (in K)
C
400 B
4 12
V(in L)
One mole of an ideal gas is subjected to the above thermodynamic process. What is the
pressure of the system in atm unit?
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Mathematics PART – C
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
8 16 24 128
61. Let S ........ 18 , then
5 65 325 2 1
1088
(A) S
545
545
(B) S
1088
1056
(C) S
545
545
(D) S
1056
62. If the curve y = x2 + bx + c touches the straight line y = x at the point (1, 1), then b and c
are given by
(A) –1, 1
(B) –1, 2
(C) 2, 1
(D) 1, 1
63. The number of pairs of integer (x, y) that satisfy the following two equations
cos xy x
tan xy y
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
3
64. The total number of solutions of In sin x x 2 2x in , is equal to
2 2
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) None of these
65. In triangle ABC, base BC and area of triangle are fixed. Locus of the centroid of
triangle ABC is a straight line that is
(A) parallel to BC
(B) right bisector of side BC
(C) right angle of BC
(D) inclined at an angle sin1 to side BC
BC
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66. Let AD be a median of the ABC. If AE and AF are medians of the triangle ABD and
ADC, respectively. And AD m1, AE m2 , AF m3 , then a2/8 is equal to
(A) m22 m23 2m12
(B) m12 m22 2m32
(C) m12 m32 2m22
(D) none of these
n 1 n
k
67. The value of
r 1 k 1
Cr 1 (where r, k, n N) is equal to
n 1
(A) 2 2
(B) 2n 1 1
(C) 2n 1
(D) None of these
2001
1 2001
68. If bn1
1 bn
for n 1 and b1 b 3 , then br 1
r is equal to
(A) 2001
(B) –2001
(C) 0
(D) None of these
69. The number of points (p, q) such that p, q 1,2,3,4 and the equation px 2 qx 1 0
has real roots is
(A) 7
(B) 8
(C) 9
(D) none of these
70. On the portion of the straight line x y 2 which is intercepted between the axes, a
square is constructed, away from the origin, with this portion as one of its side. If p
denotes the perpendicular distance of a side of this square from the origin, then the
maximum value of p is
(A) 2 3
(B) 3 2
2
(C)
3
3
(D)
2
71. If common chord of the circle C with centre at (2, 1) and radius r and the circle
x 2 y 2 2x 6y 6 0 is a diameter of the second circle, then value of r is
(A) 3
(B) 2
(C) 3/2
(D) 1
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x2 y2
72. If PQ is a double ordinate of the hyperbola 1 such that OPQ is an equilateral
a 2 b2
triangle, O being the centre of the hyperbola. Then the eccentricity e of the hyperbola,
satisfies
2
(A) 1 e
3
2
(B) e
3
3
(C) e
2
2
(D) e
3
75. If a,b,c R and a b c 0 , then the quadratic equation 3ax 2 2bx c 0 has
(A) at least one root in [0, 1]
(B) at least one root in [1, 2]
3
(C) at least one root in , 2
2
(D) None of these
76. Let a and b be non – zero real numbers. Then the equation
ax 2 by 2 c x 2 5xy 6y 2 0 represents
(A) four straight lines, when c = 0 and a, b are of the same sign.
(B) two straight lines and a circle, when a = b and c is sign opposite to that of a.
(C) two straight lines and a circle, when a = b and c is of sign opposite to that of a
(D) a circle and an ellipse, when a and b are of the same sign and c is of sign
opposite to that of a.
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AIITS-HCT-VII-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 16
77. If x=9 is the chord of contact of the hyperbola x2 - y2 = 9, then the equation of the
corresponding pair of tangents is
(A) 9x 2 8y 2 18x 9 0
(B) 9x 2 8y 2 18x 9 0
(C) 9x 2 8y 2 18x 9 0
(D) 9x 2 8y 2 18x 9 0
78. If laturs recturm of the ellipse x 2 tan2 y 2 sec 2 1 is ½, then (0 < < ) is equal to
(A) /12
(B) /6
(C) 7/12
(D) None of these
79. If the circle x2 + y2 = 1 cuts the rectangular hyperbola xy = 1 in four points (xi, yi) i = 1, 2,
3, 4, then
(A) x1x2x3x4 = 1
(B) y1y2y3y4 = 1
(C) x1 + x 2 + x 3 + x 4 = 0
(D) All of the above
80. Let z1, z2 be two complex numbers represented by points on the circle z 1 and z 2
respectively, then
(A) max 2z1 z 2 4
(B) min z1 z2 1
1
(C) z2 3
z1
(D) All of the above
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
sin2 x
tan x 4
81. If number of roots of the equation 2 4
2 0.25 cos 2x 1 0 are p then (p+1)/4 is
82. If AEX, T is the midpoint of XE, and P is the midpoint of ET. If APE is equilateral of
side length equal to unity, then the value of (AX)2 / 2 is
6
5
83. The remainder when 20 C2k 1 is divided by 11, is k then k/9 is
k 1
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2
84. If 4 sin 27o , then the value of is
5
85. If cos 4x a0 a1 cos2 x a 2 cos 4 x is true for all values of x R, then the value of
5a0 a1 a2
86. If A = tan 6° tan 42° and B = cot 66° cot 78°, then 3A / 2B is
90. The number of solutions of 3 sec 5 4 tan in 0, 4 is k then k/5 is
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VII
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
3. Two narrow cylindrical pipes A and B have the same length. Pipe A is open at both ends
and is filled with a monatomic gas of molar mass MA. Pipe B is open at one end and
closed at the other end, and is filled with a diatomic gas of molar mass MB. Both gases
are at the same temperature. If the frequency of the second harmonic in pipe A is equal
to the frequency of the third harmonic in pipe B, what is the value of MA/MB?
100
(A)
189
200
(B)
189
400
(C)
189
500
(D)
189
4. Two soap bubbles of radii 2mm and 4mm are brought in contact. If the surface tension of
liquid is 7 x 10-2 Nm-1. Then the radius of the common surface is
(A) 2 10 3 m
(B) 4 103 m
(C) 6 10 3 m
(D) 8 10 3 m
5. Two planets are revolving around the earth with velocities v1, v2 and in radii r1 and
r2 (r1 > r2) respectively. Then
(A) v1 v 2
(B) v1 v 2
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3 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
(C) v1 v 2
v1 v 2
(D)
r1 r2
6. An ideal gas is allowed to expand freely against a vacuum in a rigid insulated container.
The gas undergoes
(A) an increase in its internal energy
(B) a decrease in its internal energy
(C) neither an increase or decrease in temperature or internal energy
(D) an increase in temperature
8. A point moves with deceleration along the circle of radius R so that at any time its
tangential and normal acceleration are equal in magnitude. At the initial moment t =0,
the velocity of the point is v 0 . The velocity of the point will be
v0
(A) v at t second
v0t
1
R
S / R
(B) v v0e after displacements
(C) v v 0 eSR after displacements
v0
(D) v at t second
v0t
1
R
9. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
12. A block of mass 1 kg moves under the influence of external forces on a rough horizontal
surface. At some instant, it has a speed of 1 m/s due east and an acceleration of 1 m/s2
due north. The force of friction acting on it is F
(A) F acts due west
(B) F acts due south
(C) F acts in the south west direction
(D) the magnitude of F cannot be found from the given data
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
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5 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
16. A satellite is moving round the earth. In order to escape it the velocity of satellite must be
increased by what percent?
17. Two spherical bodies of masses M and 5M and radii R and 2R respectively are released
in free space with initial separation between their centres equal to 12R. If they attract
each other due to gravitational force only, then the distance covered by smaller body just
before collision is …….times R
18. The pressure at the bottom of water in a lake is 3/2 times that at half its depth. The water
barometer reads 10 m at atmosphere. The depth of the lake, in meters is
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. For which of the following substance the hydration energy is much larger than the lattice
energy?
(A) Be(OH)2
(B) Mg(OH)2
(C) Ca(OH)2
(D) Ba(OH)2
20. Which of the following molecule has square planar shape?
(A) SF4
(B) CF4
(C) XeF4
(D) SeF4
21. The white precipitate. Al(OH)3 is not soluble in
(A) NaOH
(B) HCl
(C) NH4OH
(D) H2SO4
22. Which has the highest value of boiling point?
(A) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (B) CH3CH2NHCH3
(C) CH3 - N - CH3 (D) CH3CH2CH3
CH3
23. C2H5
Catalyst
CH3CH2OH
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7 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
(C) OH (D) Cl
Cl
26. The central atom(s) of which of the following molecule use(s) d-orbital for bond
formation?
(A) H2S
(B) SO2
(C) SCl2
(D) SO3
27.
AgCN aq
Ag aq CN aq
Which of the following substance can increase the solubility of AgCN according to above
reaction?
(A) NaCl
(B) HNO3
(C) KCN
(D) NH4OH
30. Which of the following substance(s) exist(s) in two different forms in aqueous solution?
(A) CH3CH2CH2NH2 (B) CH3COCH2CH3
CH3CH2CHCH2CHO
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
31. The half-life of a second order reaction is 8.4 minute. How much time in minute is
required to complete 75% of reaction?
33. The root mean square velocity of C2H6 at 400 K is equal to the most probable velocity of
neon at temperature TK. What is the value of T? [At. Wt of Ne = 20]
35. OH
CH3
Conc.H SO
2 4
High Temperature
Product s
How many total number of hyperconjugation structures can be formed by all the cyclic
products of above reaction?
36.
40
t1/2
(in sec)
20
0.4 0.8
[A] (in mol L–1)
Above graph is drawn for a particular chemical reaction. If the rate constant of the
reaction is expressed as 10–x mol L–1 s–1, what is x?
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9 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
37. The range of values of ‘a’ such that the angles between the pair of tangents drawn
from (a, 0) to the circle x2 + y2 = 1 satisfies , is
2
(A) (1, 2)
(B) (1, 2 )
(C) ( 2 , –1)
(D)
2, 1 1, 2
x2 y2
38. Three points A, B, C are taken on the ellipse 1with accentric angles , +
a 2 b2
and 2, then
(A) the area of ABC ab sin2
(B) the area of ABC is independent
3
(C) the maximum value of area is ab
4
3 3
(D) the maximum value of area is ab
4
41. A hyperbola has focus at origin, its eccentricity is 2 and corresponding directrix is
x y 1 0 . The equation of one of its asymptotes is
(A) x 1 0
(B) x 2 0
(C) y 1 0
(D) y 2 0
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
42. P is a point on x 2 2y 2 2 with foci S and S ' . Consider the locus of incentre of
triangle PSS’ then the length of latus rectum of the locus is
(A) 3 2
(B) 42 2
(C) 53 2
(D) 64 2
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
43. If 16a2 +25b2 – c2 = 40ab, then the family of lines ax + by +c = 0 is concurrent at the
point(s)
(A) (4, -5)
(B) (-4, -5)
(C) (- 4, 5)
(D) none of these
1 2
2
44. For 0 x 2, then 2cos ec x y y 1 2
2
(A) is satisfied by exactly one value of y
(B) is satisfied by exactly two value of x
(C) is satisfied by x for which cos x = 0
(D) is satisfied by x for which sin x = 0
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11 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
48. The solution of the equation 9 cos12 x cos2 2x 1 6 cos6 x cos 2x 6 cos6 x 2cos 2x
is/are
(A) x n , n I
2
2
(B) x n cos1 4 ,n I
3
2
(C) x n cos1 4 ,n I
3
(D) none of these
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
49. The sum of the digits in the tens place of all numbers formed with the help of 4, 5, 6, 7
taken all at a time is given by . Then =
5
50. The number of values of x between 0 and 2 that satisfies the equation
n
sin x sin 2x sin3x cos x cos 2x cos 3x is ‘n’ then =
5
51. A ray emanating from the point (–3, 0) is incident on the ellipse 16x 2 25y 2 400 at the
point P with ordinate 4. If the equation of the reflected ray after first reflection is
4x 3y , then the value of is
16
53. The sides of a triangle are three consecutive natural numbers and its largest angle is
twice the smallest one. Then semi perimeter of the triangle is equal to
54. If the number of ordered pairs (S, T) of subsets of 1,2,3,4,5,6 are such that S T
contains exactly three elements is , then the value of is
16
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
HALF COURSE TEST – VII
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: AUGUST-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into
two equal parts at its highest point, one part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will fall at a distance R beyond target
(B) will fall at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target
(D) have nine times kinetic energy of first
4. An ideal gas has a molar heat capacity Cv at constant volume. The molar heat capacity
of this gas as a function of its volume, V
R V
(A) is Cv if the gas undergoes the process T T0 e
V
2R V
(B) is Cv if the gas undergoes the process T T0 e
V
R V
(C) is Cv if the gas undergoes the process P P0e
(1 V)
R V
(D) is Cv if the gas undergoes process P P0e
V
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3 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
5. Two bodies of mass 1 kg and 2 kg move towards each other in mutually perpendicular
direction with the velocities 3 m/s and 2 m/s respectively. If the bodies stick together
after collision the energy loss will be
(A) 13 J
13
(B) J
3
(C) 8J
(D) 7J
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
9. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the
shortest possible path in 15 min. Find the velocity of the river water in km/ hr.
10. If A B A B and A & B are 2 2 and 3 respectively, determine C A B .
11. Two cars leave one after the other and travel with an acceleration of 0.4 m/s2. Two
minutes after the departure of the first, the distance between the cars becomes 1.9 km. If
a
time interval between the departure of the cars is min, then a =
6
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
13. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken along the cycle
ABCDA where AB is isochoric, BC is isobaric, CD is adiabatic
and DA is isothermal. Find the efficiency of the cycle. It is given
T v 1
that C 4, A . [ln2 = 0.693]
TA v D 16
14. The displacement x (in m) of particle of mass m (in kg) is related to time t (in second)
by x t 2 3 . Find the work (in J) done in the first two seconds.(take m = 0.5 kg)
15. A block of mass 1 kg lies on a horizontal surface in a truck. The coefficient of static
friction between the block and the surface is 0.6. If the acceleration of the truck is 5 m/s 2,
then what frictional force acting on the block (in newton.)
16. A block of silver of mass 4 kg hanging from a string is immersed in a liquid of relative
density 0.72. If relative density of silver is 10.5, then tension in the string (in Newton) will
be
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5 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
20. The half-life of a chemical reaction is directly proportional to the initial concentration of
reactant. The characteristic(s) of the reaction is/are
(A) the rate of reaction does not depend on the concentration of reactant
(B) the unit of rate constant is mol L-1s–1
(C) rate of reaction increases with decreasing temperature
(D) rate constant is independent of temperature
21. Which of the following compound(s) is/are formed if potassium is treated with oxygen?
(A) K2O
(B) K2O2
(C) KO2
(D) KO
Cl
Which of the following solvent(s) can be used in above reaction?
(A) Nitrobenzene
(B) H2O
(C) Phenol
(D) 1, 3-dinitrobenzene
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
25. How many unpaired electron(s) is/are present in chlorine at third excited state?
CH2 = CH - CH - CH = CH - CH = CH - CH3
?
CH3
27.
2NO g O2 g
2NO2 g
0.2 moles of each of NO, O2 and NO2 gases are present in a one litre container at above
equilibrium. If one mole each of NO and O2 are added. What will be the equilibrium
constant?
29. The rate constant of a chemical reaction is 5 10–2 mol L–1 s–1. If the reaction starts with
0.4 mol L–1 of reactant, how much time in second is required to reduce the concentration
of reactant from 0.4 to 0.1 mol L–1?
30. What is the sum of the number of oxygen atoms and oxygen ions present in anhydrous
sodium perborate?
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
31. 80 g 128 g
CH4 SO2
VL VL
TK TK
If the ratio of the rate of effusion of both gases through identical orifices is expressed as
x : y, the value of x + y is
33. P g B g C g
In above first order reaction, the initial pressure of P is 400 mm of Hg. After 42 second
the total pressure becomes 600 mm of Hg. How much time in second is required to
complete 75% of the reaction?
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7 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
Cl2(1 eq)
FeCl Q
3
CH3
The sum of molar masses of P and Q in g mol–1 unit is
36. The solubility product constant of M(OH)4 is 25 10–17. What is the pH of its saturated
solution?
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
n
1
37. In the expression of x 2 1 2 , n N ,
x
(A) number of terms is 2n + 1
(B) coefficient of constant term is 2n1
(C) coefficient of x 2n 2 is n
(D) coefficient of x 2 in n
an21
38. Consider a sequence an with a1 2 and an for all n 3, terms of the sequence
an 2
being distinct. Given that a 2 and a5 are positive integers and a5 162 then the possible
value(s) of a5 can be
(A) 162
(B) 64
(C) 32
(D) 2
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9 AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
42. A tangent to a parabola y2 = 4ax is inclined at with the axis of the parabola. The point
3
of contact is
(A) (a/3,. -2a/ 3 )
(B) (3a, –2 3 a)
(C) (3a, 2 3 a)
(D) (a/3, 2a/ 3 )
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
43. If the equation sec cos ec c , then the least integer which c 2 can be
n
45. If sin cos , then the integer n which satisfies the above equation is __
2n 2n 2
n
r
47. The sum of all digits of n for which r 2 2 2n10 is:
r 1
48. The number of points in interval , , where the graphs of the curves y cos x and
2 2
y sin3x, x intersects is___________
2 2
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
x2 y2
49. If e1 is the eccentricity of the ellipse
1 and e 2 is the eccentricity of the
16 b2
x2 y2 b2
hyperbola 2 1 and e1e2 1, then equal to
9 b 100
50. Let N denotes the number of odd integers between 550 and 800 using the digits 4, 5, 6,
N
7, 8 and 9. Then =.
4
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AIITS-HCT-VII (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
r 1 A B C
51. If in triangle ABC, , then the value of tan tan tan is equal to:
r1 2 2 2 2
4 1
52. The least value of ‘a’ for which a, has at least one solution in the
sin x 1 sin x
interval 0, is , then the value of is
2 4
53. The total number of integral values of n so that sin x(sin x cos x) n has at least one
solution is , then the value of is
4
54. Suppose x and y are real numbers and that x2 + 9y2 – 4x + 6y + 4 = 0 then the minimum
value of (4x – 9y) is k then k/48 is
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 02-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
r1r2
(A)
r2 r1 T2
T1
(B) r2 r1
r2 r1
(C)
r1r2
r
(D) loge 2
r1
3. A particle which is attached to a massless spring oscillates horizontally with SHM with a
1
frequency of Hz and total energy of 10J. If the maximum speed of the particle is 0.4
m/s, the force constant of the spring and maximum potential energy of the spring during
this motion are:
(A) 50 N/m, 5J
(B) 5 N/m, 10 J
(C) 10 N/m, 10J
(D) 500 N/m, 10J
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3 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
4. Steam is passed into 54 gm of water of 300C till the temperature of mixture becomes
900C. If the latent heat of steam is 536 cal/ gm, the mass of the mixture will be
(A) 80 gm
(B) 60 gm
(C) 50 gm
(D) 24 gm
(A)
2
/2
(B)
2
2
(C)
2
(D) 2
7. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4
10. A cannon shell is fired to hit a target at a horizontal distance R, however it breaks into
two equal parts at its highest point, one part returns to the cannon. The other part
(A) will fall at a distance R beyond target
(B) will fall at a distance 3R beyond target
(C) will hit the target
(D) have nine times kinetic energy of first
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
13. A boat which has a speed of 5 km/hr in still water crosses a river of width 1 km along the
shortest possible path in 30 min. Find the velocity of the river water in km/ hr.
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5 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
14. Three points masses A, B, C each having mass m are kept on the x-axis at the points
(0, 0), (a, 0) and (2a, 0) respectively. Initially, they are all at rest. They start moving due
to the gravitational force between themselves. Then the instantaneous acceleration of
1 Gm
the centre of mass of the system consisting of (B + C) will be
n a2
17. The power of sound from the speaker of a radio is 20 mW. By turning the knob of
volume control the power of sound is increased to 60 mW. What is the power increase
as compared to the original power?
18. A body of mass 1 kg is suspended from a massless spring having force constant 600
N/m. Another body of mass 0.5 kg moving vertically upwards hits the suspended body
with a velocity 3 m/sec and gets embedded in it. The frequency of oscillation (in Hz) is
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
20. Which is the correct relationship between three bond angles given below;
O O O
P P P
1 2 3
Cl Cl Br Br F F
Cl Br F
(A) 1 2 3
(B) 1 3 2
(C) 3 1 2
(D) 1 2 3
21. How many radial nodes is/are associated with the orbital of sodium that contains one
valence electron?
(A) Zero
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three
22. Of the following transitions in hydrogen atom, the one which gives an absorption line of
lowest frequency is
(A) n = 1 to n = 2
(B) n = 3 to n = 4
(C) n = 2 to n = 1
(D) n = 4 to n = 3
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7 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
24. A solution of HCl is diluted so that its pH changes by 0.3. How does concentration of H+
ion change?
(A) 0.5 times of initial value
(B) 0.3 times of initial value
(C) 10–3 times increases
(D) None of these
25. Which of the following expression(s) of ionization energy of magnesium is/are correct?
(A) I.E2 > I.E1
(B) I.E3 >> I.E1
(C) I.E3 – I.E1 > I.E2 – I.E1
(D) I.E1 > I.E2 > I.E3
27. In which species nitrogen atom show(s) more than one oxidation state?
(A) NH4NO3
(B) (NH4)N3
(C) (NH4)3N
(D) NH4NO2
29. Which of the following carbonium ion(s) is/are more stable than CH2
(A) (B)
CH2 CH - CH3
(C) (D)
CH - CH3
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 8
30. Aluminum metal is not corroded when exposed to atmosphere because of formation of
which compounds on it’s surface?
(A) Al2O3
(B) Al(OH)3
(C) Al2(CO3)3
(D) Al2S3
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
31. 8 g of 51.2 g
Helium of SO2
V = 10 L V = 10 L
If the ratio of relative rates of effusion of the gases from the vessels is x : y, what is
(x + y)?
32.
A g 2B g
C g
The equilibrium concentrations of A, B and C gases are 4 mol L–1 each. The reaction is
carried out in an one litre container. How many moles of (A) should be added at
equilibrium so that the concentration of ‘C’ will be 5 M at the new equilibrium.
33. NaOH pellets and gas(P) react in 1 : 1 molar ratio to produce a solid(Q). Reaction of (Q)
with NaOH produces(R). Reaction of (R) with chlorine produces NaCl, NaOCl and CO 2.
If molar mass of (Q) is x g mol–1 and molar mass of (P) is y g mol–1, then (x - y) is
34. The half-life of a first order reaction R P is 4.2 minutes. If the fraction of reactant
remains unreacted after 16.8 minutes from the start of reaction is expressed as x : y,
then (x + y) is
[1 mole of reactant is taken for reaction]
35. How many hyperconjugation structure(s) is/are possible for the following compound?
CH3
H3C - CH = CH C
C2H5
36. A secondary symmetrical and acyclic alkyl chloride (A) containing five carbon atoms
reacts with sodium metal in presence of dry ether producing a saturated hydrocarbon
(B). (B) forms four monochloro products out of which two chlorides show optical
isomerism. What is the molar mass of (A) in g mol–1 unit?
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9 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
37. If a, b, c are unequal and different from 1 such that the points
a3 a 2 3 b3 b 2 3 c3 c2 3
, , , and , are collinear, then
a 1 a 1 b 1 b 1 c 1 c 1
(A) bc ca ab abc 0
(B) a b c abc
(C) bc ca ab abc
(D) bc ca ab abc 3 a b c
1
n
38. If 5 2 6 m f, where n and m are positive integers and 0 f 1, then f is
1 f
equal to
1
(A)
m
(B) m
1
(C) m
m
1
(D) m
m
8 16 24 128
39. Let S ........ 18 , then
5 65 325 2 1
1088
(A) S
545
545
(B) S
1088
1056
(C) S
545
545
(D) S
1056
2001
1
40. If bn1
1 bn
for n 1 and b1 b3 , then b
r 1
r
2001
is equal to
(A) 2001
(B) –2001
(C) 0
(D) none of these
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10
41. The number of pairs of integer (x, y) that satisfy the following two equations
cos xy x
is
tan xy y
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
42. The value of a for which the equation x 3 2ax 2 0 and x 4 2ax 2 1 0 have a
common root is
17
(A)
8
17
(B)
8
15
(C)
8
15
(D)
8
44. An equation of the straight line which meets the circle x2 y 2 a2 at points which are at
a distance d from a point A , on the circle is:
(A) 2x 2y 2a2 d2
(B) 2x 2y 2a2 d2
(C) 2x 2y 2a2 d2
(D) 2x 2y 2a2 d2
45. A circle ‘S’ is described on the focal chord of the parabola y 2 4x as diameter. If the
focal chord is inclined at an angle of 45o with axis of x, they which of the following is/are
true?
(A) Radius of the circle is 4
(B) Centre of the circle is (3, 2)
(C) The line x 1 0 touches the circle
(D) The circle x 2 y 2 2x 6y 3 0 is orthogonal to ‘S’
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11 AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
46. The area of the triangle formed by the lines x y 0, x y 0 and any tangents to the
hyperbola x 2 y 2 a2 is A where A can not be equals to
(A) 2a2
(B) 4a2
(C) a2
(D) 3a2
1 x x
100
If coefficient of x n in 1 x
101 2
48. is non zero, then n can be of the form
(where n and t are positive integers)
(A) 3t 1
(B) 3t
(C) 3t 2
(D) None of these
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
value of 2019 a2 b2 must be
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AIITS-OT (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 12
51. The slopes of sides BC, CA, AB of triangle ABC whose orthocentre is origin are –1, –2,
m
–3 respectively. If locus of centroid of triangle ABC is y x, where m, n are
n
relatively prime then find value of 2021.35 n m .
53. A circle passes through the vertex C of a rectangle ABCD and touches its sides AB and
AD at M and N, respectively. If the distance from C of the line segment MN is equal to 5
units and the area of the rectangle ABCD is S sq. units, then the value of (2020.5)S is
54. Let N denotes the number of all 9 digits numbers if (a) the digits of each number are all
from the set (5, 6, 7, 8, 9) and (b) any digit that appears in the number, repeats at least
three times. Then the value of N is
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 02-05-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
3. A metallic circular disc having a circular hole at its centre rotates about an axis passing
through its centre and perpendicular to its plane. When the disc is heated:
(A) its speed will decrease
(B) its diameter will decrease
(C) its moment of inertia will increase
(D) its speed will increase
4. A particle is projected at an angle = 30º with the horizontal, with a velocity of 10 m/s
then
(A) After 2 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(B) At 1 s the velocity of particle makes an angle of 60º with initial velocity vector
(C) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 10 m/s
(D) The magnitude of velocity of particle after 1 s is 5 m/s
5. A 10 kg block is resting on a rough horizontal F (N)
surface. A horizontal force F is applied to it for 4s.
The variation of force with time is shown in the 10 kg F 100 N
figure. (µs = µk = 0.5, g = 10 m/s2). Then
(A) At t = 1 sec, velocity of block is 5 m/s 4s
(B) At t = 1 sec, velocity of block is zero
(C) At t = 4 sec, velocity of block is 20 m/s
(D) At t = 4 sec, velocity of block is 5 m/s
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3 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
6. A turning fork is found to give 5 beats in three seconds when sounded in conjunction
with a stretched string vibrating transversely under a tension of either 10.2 kgf or 9.9 kgf,
Then
(A) Frequency of the fork is approximately 224 Hz
(B) Frequency of the fork is approximately 125 Hz
(C) Frequency of the string vibrating under a tension of either 10.2 kgf is
approximately 125 Hz
(D) Frequency of the string vibrating under a tension of either 9.9 kgf is
approximately 222 Hz
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
8. Three particles, each of mass m, are situated at the vertices of an equilateral triangle of
side length a. The only forces acting on the particles are their mutual gravitational forces.
It is desired that each particle moves in a circle while maintaining the original mutual
separation a. Find the initial velocity (assuming all values in S.I. units) that should be
GM
given to each particle. take a
16
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 4
A
P0
B
V
V0 2V0 3V0
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
13. A motor cycle starts form rest and accelerates along a straight path at 25 m/s2. At the
starting point of the motor cycle, there is a stationary electric siren. How far has the
motor cycle gone when the driver hears frequency of siren at 94% of its value when
motor cycle was at rest (Speed of sound = 330 m/s)
x
14. A transverse wave is described by he equation y y 0 sin 2 ft . The maximum
particle velocity is equal to four times the wave velocity if ny 0 where n is
15. The centrifugal force per unit mass (F) acting on a satellite in a circular orbit around the
sun satisfies (T : time period of the satellite) F Tn where n is
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5 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
18. The mass collide in air stick together. After how much time m Just dropped
combined mass will fall to the ground (calculate the time from
the starting when the motion was started) (g = 10 m/s2)
20 m
20 m/s
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. In each option one litre solution containing different quantity of acids, bases and salt are
given. In which option the pH of the solution mixture is/are correct? [log2 = 0.3]
10 2 mol HCl
(A) 10 2 mol HNO3 pH 1.7
2
10 mol NaCl
10 M HCl
4
(B) 10 5 M NaNO3 pH 2
2
10 M NaOH
10 M NaOH
4
(C) 10 4 M KOH pH 10.3
3
10 M KNO3
10 6 M H3O
(D) 10 2 M NaCl pH 6
4
10 M KNO3
20. Which of the following substance(s) form(s) polymers under given processes?
(A) (CH3)2SiCl2 upon hydrolysis
(B) BeCl2 vapour upon solidification
(C) Sodium (Na) metal upon heating
(D) Na2CO3 upon crystallization
21. CH2Cl
NaNH excess CH Br excess
2
P
3
Q
CH2Cl
The characteristics of compound(Q) is/are
(A) it forms trans-alkene when treated with Na in liquid NH3
(B) it forms cis-alkene when treated with H2/Ni
(C) it forms 2-butanone upon treatment with H2O/HgSO4/H2SO4
(D) it is oxidized to formic acid
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7 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
O
22. Which of the following isomer(s) of has/have higher boiling point?
(A) OH
(B) O
(C) O
(D)
OH
23. The product(s) of which of the following reactions form(s) gas(es) when react with
water?
(A) CaC2 N2
High temperature
(B) CaO C
air
(C) Mg
oxygen
(D) Na
24. Which of the following compound(s) is/are more reactive than phenol towards
electrophilic substitution reaction with a common electrophile E+ in solvents like
C2H5OC2H5?
(A) ONa (B) NH2
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
25. The characteristic properties of the ionic compound MnF2 are given below:
x = Number of unpaired electrons present in it.
y = Number of p-orbital electrons present in the compound
y
Find the value of x
8
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 8
26. How many of the following species has bond order equal to 2.
N2 , O2+ +
2 , NO , CN
O 2 , N22 , NO , NO+2
NO, NΘ2 , O+2 , NO 2+
28. The vapour density of a gas is 32. How many moles of the gas weighs 128g?
29. How many moles of B2O3 is formed by decomposition of one mole of borax(Na2B4O7)?
30. OH
Conc.H SO
2 4
Pr oducts
,
If x = Maximum number of exocyclic products
y = Maximum number of 1, 2-dimethylcyclohex-1-ene
& z = Maximum number of 1, 6-dimethylcyclohex-1-ene
What is (x + y + z)?
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
31. A g 2B g C g
Following data are given for above reaction
Expt [A]0 in mol L–1 [B]0 in mol L–1 Rate in mol L–1 s–1
1. 0.2 0.2 4 10–6
2. 0.4 0.4 8 10–6
3. 0.4 0.8 8 10–6
4. 0.8 0.4 16 10–6
If the rate constant of the reaction is expressed as (y 10–6) in proper unit. What is ‘y’?
32. What is the pH of 100 mL of an aqueous solution containing 0.01 mole of CH3COO– and
0.01 moles of Cl– ion?
[pka of CH3COOH = 4.78]
33. How many geometrical isomer(s) is/are possible for the given diene?
C2H5CH = CH – CH = CHC2H5
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9 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
B H ,THF
34. CH3CH CH2
2 6
NaOH,H O
Product
2 2
35. The solubility product constant of a sparingly soluble base M(OH)2 is 32 10–12. What is
the pH of the saturated solution of the base?
[log2 = 0.3]
36. Siderite is an ore of iron. It contains FeCO3 with impurities. How much gram of pure
FeCO3 should be added to 200 mL of 0.4 M acidified KMnO4 solution in order to
decolourize it completely?
[At. Wt of Fe = 56]
MnO4 Fe2 H Mn2 Fe3 H2O
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 10
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
37. Which of the following expansions will not have term containing x 3 ?
25
1 3
(A) x 2x 5
5
24
3
1
(B) x 2x
5 5
23
3
1
(C) x 2x
5 5
22
3
1
(D) x 2x
5 5
1 1
38. A solution (x, y) of the system of equations x y and cos2 ( x) sin2 ( y) is given
3 2
by :
7 5
(A) ,
6 6
2 1
(B) ,
3 3
5 7
(C) ,
6 6
13 11
(D) ,
6 6
A B C
39. If in the triangle ABC, tan , tan and tan are in harmonic progression, then the
2 2 2
B
least value of cot is M where M can not be equals to
2
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 2
(D) 5
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11 AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022
40. All the chords of the hyperbola 3x 2 y 2 2x 4y 0 subtending a right angle at the
origin pass through the fixed point (h, k). Which of the following do not represent (h, k)
(A) (1, –2)
(B) (–1, 2)
(C) (1, 2)
(D) (–1, –2)
1 nz 1
c n
41. If 1 c 2 nc 1 and z ei , then
2n z
(A) 1 c cos
(B) 2c cos2 1 c
2
(C) 1 2c cos
(D) 2c cos2 1 c
2
42. If , are the roots of the equation 375 x2 25x 2 0 and Sn n n , then
n
Lt Sr is A where A can not be equals to
n
r 1
7
(A)
12
1
(B)
12
35
(C)
12
5
(D)
12
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
43. If x,y 0,10 , then the number of solutions (x, y) of the inequation
2
x 1
3sec 9y 2 6y 2 1 equals to
4 3i
44. The reflection of the complex number , in the straight line iz z is x + iy where
1 2i
3x + y equals to
45. Let a, b, c be distinct positive numbers such that each of the quadratics
2
ax 2 bx c, bx 2 cx a and cx ax b is non – negative for all x R . If
2 2 2
a b c
R , then number of integral values of R is
ab bc ca
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AIITS-OT (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE(Advanced)/2022 12
46. If p(x) = ax2 + bx and q(x) = lx2 + mx + n with p(1) = q(1), p(2) – q(2) = 1, and p(3) – q(3)
= 4, then p(4) – q(4) is equal to
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
1
49. The orbit of the earth is an ellipse with eccentricity with the sun at one focus, the
60
major axis being approximately 186 106 miles in length. If the shortest and longest
distance of the earth from the sun is m and M then M m 104 equals to
50. How many numbers greater than 0 and less than a million can be formed with the digits
from 0 to 9, whose sum of digits equals to 18.
x 1
y 2 1 and x 7 y 10 4 increases
2 2 2 2
51. Let the radii of the circles
uniformly by 0.3 unit/sec and 0.4 unit/sec respectively with respect to time. If t1 and t 2
are the time when they touch externally and internally respectively, then the value of
t
(235.79) 2 is ________
t1
52. The points on the axis of the parabola 3y 2 4y 6x 8 0 from where 3 distinct
2
normals can be drawn is given by a, where the least integral value of a is k, then
3
(1079.5)k equals to
1 1 P
53. For x 1, , if P x 3 3
and Q x , If the minimum value of 2 equals to M,
x x Q
then 105 3 M equals to
54. If the point of concurrency of the lines ax by c 0 , where a, b, c satisfy the relation
3a 2b 4c 0 is (x, y) then (x + y) equals to
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FIITJEE
ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
OPEN TEST
JEE (Main)-2022
TEST DATE: 28-02-2021
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 300
General Instructions:
Section-A (01 – 20, 31 – 50, 61 – 80) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 30, 51 – 60, 81 – 90) contains 30 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. A table is rotating about its axis with angular speed 5 rev/sec. A source of sound of frequency
1
1000 sec is fixed on the table at a distance 0.70 m from the axis. What are the maximum and
minimum frequency heard by listener at rest at a certain distance from the table? The speed of
sound at room temperature is 352 m/s.
(A) 966 Hz, 941 Hz
(B) 1250 Hz, 1052 Hz
(C) 1000 Hz, 960 Hz
(D) 1066 Hz, 941 Hz
2. The length of a wire between the two ends of a sonometer is 105 cm. Where should the two
bridges be placed so that the fundamental frequencies of the three segments are in the ratio of
1: 3 :15 .
(A) 75 cm, 25 cm,
(B) 25 cm, 75 cm,
(C) 75 cm, 100 cm,
(D) None of these
3. Two identical sonometer wires have fundamental frequencies of 500 vibration/sec, when kept
under the same tension. What fractional increase in the tension of one wire would cause an
occurrence of 5 beats per second. When both wires vibrate together?
(A) 1.020
(B) 1.20
(C) 0.20
(D) 0.020
4. n1 and n 2 moles of two ideal gases of thermodynamics constant 1 and 2 respectively are
C
mixed, P for the mixture is –
CV
1 2
(A)
2
n1 1 n2 2
(B)
n1 n2
n1 2 n2 1
(C)
n1 n2
n1 1 2 1 n2 2 1 1
(D)
n1 2 1 n2 1 1
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3 AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
5. A lump of 0.10 kg of ice at – 10 C is put in 0.15 kg of water at 20 C. How much ice will be found in
the mixture when it has reached in thermal equilibrium (specific heat of ice = 0.50 kcal/kg while its
latent heat 80 kcal/kg.)
(A) 68.75 gm
(B) 181.25 gm
(C) 90.75 gm
(D) 145.25 gm
6. A piston weighing W = 3 kg has the form of a circular disc of radius R = 4 cm.
The disc has a hole into which a thin - walled pipe of radius r = 1 cm in
inserted. Initially the piston is at the bottom of the cylinder. What height will h
the piston rise to if m = 700 g of water is poured into the pipe?
(A) 5 cm
(B) 10 cm
(C) 20 cm H
(D) 12 cm
7. Water rises in a capillary tube upto a height of 10 cm whereas mercury depresses in it by 3.42 cm. If
the angle of contact and density of mercury are 135 and 13.6 gm/cc respectively then find the
ratio of the surface tensions of water and mercury.
(A) 1/7
(B) 5/26
(C) 3/14
(D) 2/13
8. A heavy plank of mass 100 kg hangs on three vertical wires of equal
length arranged symmetrically (see fig.). Find the tension in the steel
wire. All the wires have the same cross-section. Take the modulus of copper steel copper
elasticity of steel to be double that of copper (g= 10 ms -2).
(A) Zero
(B) 250 N
(C) 500 N A B C
(D) 1000 N
9. An elastic string of natural length meters is extended by a mass m kg suspended from it. Find
the length of the string when with its weight it makes n revolutions per second as a conical
pendulum.
(A) 4 π2 n 2 a 2
(B) g-5 2 n 2 a
g
(C)
g-4 2 n 2 a
(D) g 4 2 n 2 a
10. Periodic time of oscillation T1 is obtained when a mass is suspended from a spring if
another spring is used with same mass then periodic time of oscillation is T2 . Now if k1
this mass is suspended from series combination of above springs then time period m
will be-
(A) T12 T22
k2
(B) T1 T2
m
(C) T12 T22
(D) T12 T22
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11. For a simple pendulum, graph between velocity (v) & displacement (x) is-
(A) Parabolic
(B) Circular
(C) Elliptical
(D) Straight line
12. Four particles, each of mass m, are placed at the corners of square and moving along a circle of
radius r under the influence of mutual gravitational attraction. The speed of each particle will be -
Gm
(A) (2 2 + 1)
r
Gm
(B)
r
Gm 2 2 1
(C)
r 4
2 2Gm
(D)
r
14. The masses and the radius of the earth and the moon are M1 , M 2 and R 1 , R 2 respectively their
centres are at distance d apart. The minimum speed with which a particle of mass m should be
projected from a point midway between the two centres so as to escape to infinity will be -
G
(A) 2 ( M1 M 2 )
d
G
(B) ( M1 M 2 )
d
G
(C) ( M1 M 2 )
2d
G M1
(D) 2
d M2
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15. An ideal massless spring can be compressed 2 metre by a force of 200N. This spring is placed at
the bottom of a frictionless inclined plane which makes an angle θ=30° with the horizontal. A 20
kg mass is released from rest at the top of the inclined plane and is brought to rest momentarily
after compressing the spring 4 metre. Through what distance does the mass slide before coming
to rest?
(A) 4.17 m
(B) 1.00 m
(C) 8.17 m
(D) 2.17 m
16. A certain physical quantity is calculated from the formula (a2 – b2) h, where h, a and b are all
3
length. The quantity being calculated can be-
(A) Velocity
(B) Length
(C) Area
(D) Volume
2
17. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant vertical acceleration of 10 m/s .
The fuel is finished in 1 minute and it continues to move up.
(a) The maximum height reached.
(b) After how much time from then will the maximum height be reached?
(Take g = 10 m/s2)
(A) 36km, 1 min
(B) 6km, 1 min
(C) 36km, 1 sec
(D) 36 km, 1 sec
18. Two boats A and B move away from a buoy anchored at the middle of a river along
mutually perpendicular straight line. The boat A moves along the stream and the boat B across
the river. After moving off an equal distance of 500 metre from the buoy both the boats returned
to their original position. The ratio of the time taken by boat A to that taken by boat B if the
velocity of each boat with respect to water is 20 m/s and the stream velocity is 10 m/s, will be-
(A) 2: 3
(B) 3:2
(C) 4: 3
(D) 3:4
19. The semi-major axes of the orbits of Mercury and Mars are respectively 0.387 and 1.524 in
astronomical units. If the period of Mercury is 0.241 year, what is the period of Mars?
(A) 1.2 years
(B) 3.2 years
(C) 3.9 years
(D) 1.9 years
20 Three liquids having densities 1 , 2 and 3 are filled in a U-tube. Atmoshpere Atmoshpere
Length of each liquid column is equal to . 1 2 3 and liquids
remain at rest (relative to the tube) in the position shown in figure. It is
possible that: 3
1
(A) U-tube is accelerating leftwards
2
(B) U-tube is accelerating upwards with acceleration g
(C) U-tube is moving with a constant velocity
(D) None of these
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SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
21. A hot body placed in air cooled down according to Newton's law of cooling, the rate of decrease
of temperature being k times the temperature difference from the surrounding. Starting from t = 0,
ln 2
the time in which the body will lose half the maximum heat it can lose is find the value of k
4
a = 6 cm
tube such that liquid just fills horizontal part of the tube. Now, one of
the open ends is sealed and the tube is then rotated about a
vertical axis passing through the other vertical arm with angular
velocity 0 10 radians/sec. If length of each vertical arm be a = 6
cm, calculate the length (in cm) of air column in the sealed arm. = 21 cm
23. The difference between the apparent frequency of a source of sound as perceived by an observer
during its approach and recession is 2% of the natural frequency of the source. Find the velocity
(in m/s) of the source. Take the velocity of sound as 350 m/s.
24. Three moles of an ideal gas at 300K are isothermally expanded to five times its volume and
heated at this constant volume so that the pressure is raised to its initial value before expansion.
In the whole process 83.14 KJ heat is required. Calculate the ratio CP/CV of the gas. loge5 = 1.61
and R = 8.3 Joules/mole –K.
26. When the speed of a body is increased by 100% the K.E. of the body is increased by
27. Two satellites A and B of masses m1 and m2 ( m1 2 m2 ) are moving in circular orbits of radii r1
and r2 ( r1 4 r2 ) respectively, around the earth. If their periods are TA and TB , then the ratio
TA / TB is
28. Two particles P and Q describe simple harmonic motions of same period, same amplitude, along
the same line about the same equilibrium position O. When P and Q are on opposite sides of O at
the same distance from O they have the same speed of 1.2 m/s in the same directions. When
they cross their speed is 1.6 m/sec. The maximum velocity in m/s of either particle is
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30. A boy throws a table tennis ball of mass 20 g upward with a velocity u0 = 10 m/s at an angle 0
with the vertical. The wind imparts a horizontal force of 0.08 N, so that the ball returns to the
starting point then, the angle 0 must be such that, tan 0 is
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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
31. Phosphorous pentachloride when heated in a sealed tube at 700 K it undergoes decomposition
as:
PCl3 g Cl2 g , K p 38 atm
PCl5 g
The value of Kp increases on increasing the temperature, the reaction is?
(A) Endothermic
(B) Exothermic
(C) May be endothermic or exothermic
(D) Unpredictable
33. When CaCO3 is heated to a high temperature, it undergoes decomposition into CaO and
CO 2 whereas it is quite stable at room temperature. The most likely explanation of it is:
(A) The enthalpy of reaction ΔH overweighs the term T S at high temperature.
(B) The term T S overweighs the enthalpy of reaction at high temperature.
(C) At high temperature, both enthalpy of reaction and entropy change become negative.
(D) None of these
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35. A Geigger Muller counter is used to study the radioactive process. In the absence of radioactive
substance A, it counts 3 disintegration per second (dps). At the start in the presence of A, it
records 23 dps; and after 10 min 13 dps. What does it count after 20 min?
(A) 8dps
(B) 6dps
(C) 7 dps
(D) 5dps
36. The decreasing order of basic characters of the following compounds is:
NH 2
NH2
NH
N N
H
I II III IV
(A) III>I>IV>II
(B) II>I>IV>III
(C) IV>III>II>I
(D) I>II>III>IV
37. The solubility of solid silver chromate, Ag 2CrO4 , is determined in three solvents.
(I) Pure water
(II) 0.1M AgNO3
(III) 0.1M Na 2CrO4
Predict the relative solubility of Ag 2CrO 4 in the three solvents. ( K sp of Ag 2 CrO 4 9 10 12 )
(A) I=II=III
(B) I<II<III
(C) II=III<I
(D) II<III<I
38. Which of the following are resolvable?
(A) CH3 (B) OH
CH(Me)
H
OH
CH
CH3 3 H H
H CH3
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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 10
MeO 1 H+
2 Br2 , FeBr3
'A'
OH
Br
Br
O
Br
H3C CH3
Br
40. Which of the following reaction would produce racemic mixture as the product?
(A) Br (B) Cl
HCl
Br2 Br
CCl4
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45. According to molecular orbital theory, which of the following species is the most likely to exist?
(A) H 2+
2
(B) N 2+
2
(C) Be 2
(D) O 2+
2
47. At a certain temperature and 2 atm pressures equilibrium constant K p is 25 for the reaction
SO3 g +NO g
SO2 g +NO2 g
Initially if we take 2 moles of each of the four gases and 2 moles of inert gas, what would be the
equilibrium partial pressure of NO2 ?
(A) 1.33atm
(B) 0.1665atm
(C) 0.133atm
(D) None of these
40% yield
48. H 2 O 2 +2KI I 2 +2KOH
50% yield
H 2 O 2 +2KMnO 4 +3H 2SO 4 K 2SO 4 +2MnSO 4 +3O 2 +4H 2 O
150 mL of H 2O 2 sample was divided into two parts. First part was treated with KI and formed
KOH required 200 mL of M/2 H 2SO 4 for neutralisation. Other part was treated with KMnO4
yielding 6.72 litre of O 2 at 1 atm, and 273 K. Using % yield indicated find volume strength of
H 2O 2 sample used:
(A) 5.04
(B) 10.08
(C) 3.36
(D) 33.6
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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 12
49. The first ionization energy of Na, Mg , Al and Si are in the order:
(A) Na Mg Al Si
(B) Na Mg Al Si
(C) Na Mg Al Si
(D) Na Mg Al Si
(C) O (D) O
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
53. Following is the graph between log t1/2 and log a ( a initial concentration) for a given reaction
at 27°C .
45°
log t1/2
log a
Find the order of reaction.
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13 AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
54. If 10 g of a gas at atmospheric pressure is cooled from 273ºC to 0ºC, keeping the volume
constant, its pressure (in atm) would become
55. A 10 g mixture of NaHCO3 and KOH is dissolved in water to make 1000 mL solution.
100 mL of this solution required 50 mL of 0.2 M HCl for complete neutralisation in the presence
of phenolphthalein as indicator. What is the percentage of NaHCO3 in the mixture?
56. If a reaction A + B C is exothermic to the extent of 30 kJ/ mol and the forward reaction has
an activation energy of 70 kJ/mol. The activation energy (in kJ/mol) of reverse reaction is_____
57. What is the value of a+b+c+d+e in balanced chemical equation given below
a P4 + b NaOH + c H2O d PH3 + e NaH2PO2
58. What is the hardness (in terms of ppm of CaCO3) of a sample of water containing 10.8 mg of
MgSO4(mol. Mass 120) per kg of water?
OH
OHC
60. What is the heat of formation (in kJ, magnitude) of 2.8 mol. of SO2 from its elements, sulphur and
oxygen?
3
S s O2 g SO3 g H 395.2 kJ / mol.
2
2SO2 g O2 g
2 SO3 g H 198.2 kJ / mol
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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 14
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
z z
61. The number of complex number z satisfying the conditions 1, z 1 and
z z
arg z 0, 2 is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 8
3 1 1 1
63. The number of rational value of x satisfying the equation x 3
x2 2 6 x 7 0
x x x
is:
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 2
(D) 4
4 2
64. The set of values of a for which the equation sin x a 2 sin x a 3 0 possesses
solution, is:
(A) , 3
(B) 2,
(C) 3, 2
(D) 0,
3k 3
65. The remainder when 3 26k 27 is divided by 276 is (where k 2 )
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C) 13
(D) 27
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15 AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
66. Six different letters are placed in boxes of the figure as shown below such that no row is empty.
(In each box, only letter can be placed).
1 1 1 1 1
67. The sum of the infinite series .... upto infinity is:
15 35 63 99 143
1
(A)
6
1
(B)
4
1
(C)
3
1
(D)
2
p q r
68. If , , are in H.P. then:
q r 2 p r p 2q p q 2r
(A) p, q, r are in AP
(B) p, q, r are in GP
(C) p, q, r are in HP
(D) q pr
69. A rectangle PQRS joins the points P, Q, R, S. Co-ordinates of P and R be (2, 3) and (8, 11)
respectively. The line QS is known to be parallel to the y-axis. Then coordinates of Q and S are:
(A) 0, 7 and 10, 7
(B) 5, 2 and 5,12
(C) 7, 6 and 7,10
(D) 7, 2 and 7,12
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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 16
73. Let ABC be a triangle whose vertices are A 5, 5 and B 7, 1 . If vertex C lies on the circle
2
whose director circle has equation x y 2 100 , then the locus of orthocenter of ABC is:
(A) x 2 y 2 4 x 8 y 30 0
(B) x 2 y 2 4 x 8 y 30 0
(C) x 2 y 2 4 x 8 y 30 0
(D) x2 y2 4x 8 y 0
74. Let A, B, C be three points on a straight line such that B lying between A and C. Consider all
circles passing through B and C. The points of contact of the tangents from A to these circles lie
on:
(A) A straight line
(B) A parabola
(C) A circle
(D) Ellipse
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2 2
75. The four sides of a quadrilateral are given by equation xy 12 4 x 4 y 2 x 2 y . The
equation of a line with slope 3 which divides area of quadrilateral in two equal parts is:
(A) y 3 x 4
(B) y 3x 4
(C) y 3 x 4 4
(D) y 3 x 4
x2 y 2
76. From any point P on the hyperbola 1 , tangents are drawn to the hyperbola
9 4
x2 y 2
1 . The area cut-off by the chord of contact and the asymptotes of the first hyperbola:
18 8
(A) Depends only on abscissa of the point P
(B) Depends only on ordinate of point P
(C) Is 48 sq. unit
(D) Is 24 sq. unit
77. Tangents a drawn from , to the hyperbola 3 x 2 2 y 2 6 and are inclined at angles 1 , 2
to the positive x-axis. If tan 1 , tan 2 2, then value of 2 2 2 is equal to:
(A) 7
(B) 11
(C) 5
(D) 6
2
78. Line y x 2 is a tangent to the parabola y 8 x . Let M be the point on this line from where
other tangent is drawn which is perpendicular to this tangent. The distance of M from
N 1, 2 2 is:
(A) 2
(B) 3
(C) 1
(D) 5
79. The number of points with integral coordinates that lie in the interior of the region common to be
circle x 2 y 2 16 and the parabola y 2 4 x is:
(A) 10
(B) 16
(C) 17
(D) 13
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AIITS-OT-PCM-JEE (Main)/2022 18
2 2
80. Given a circle x 4 y 2 25 . Another circle is drawn passing through 4, 2 and
touching the given circle internally at the point A 4, 7 , AB is the chord of length 8 units of the
larger circle intersecting the other circle at the point C. Then AC will be:
(A) 4 units
(B) 17 units
(C) 5 units
(D) 3 units
SECTION – B
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 10 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
2
81. If tan A and tan B are the roots of the quadratic equation, 4 x 7 x 1 0 then evaluate
4sin 2 A B 7 sin A B .cos A B cos 2 A B .
83. The 10th common term between the series 3 7 11 ...... and 1 6 11 ....... is_____
84. An observer on the top of a cliff 200m above the sea level, observes the angles of depressions of
two ships on the opposite sides of the cliff to be 45 and 30 respectively. The distance between
the ships if the line joining them points to the base of the cliff is_______
13 13 23 13 2 3 33
85. The sum of the series .... upto 16 terms is____
1 1 3 1 3 5
86. If the normal to the curve x t 1, y 3t 2 6 at the point 1, 6 make intercepts a and b on x
a + 12b
and y-axes respectively, then the value of is ______
100
2n
i Hi Hi 1 4
87. If H1 , H 2 , H 3 ,...., H 2n+1 are in H.P., then (1) H H
i1 i
is equal to
i 1 7
n , then is equal
to
88. The number of ways in which 21 identical balls can be distributed among 3 boys A, B and C such
that A always gets even number of balls:
n n
1 1 4 x 1 1 4 x 1 5
89. If a0 a1 x .... a5 x , then the value of n is:
4 x 1 2 2
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 06-12-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
Displacement, (m)
particle is shown in figure. Then the instantaneous velocity at t = 20 2
sec is –
(A) –0.05 m/s
1
(B) –0.1 m/s
(C) 0.1 m/s
(D) 1.0 m/s 0
0 10 20 30 40 50 60
Time, sec
2. Two guns are pointed at each other one upwards at an angle of elevation of
30º and other at the same angle of depression, the muzzle being 30 m
apart. If the charges leave the gun with velocities of 350 m/s and 300 m/s 30
respectively. Find when will they meet?
30°
(A) 3/65 sec
(B) 5/65 sec
(C) 3/95 sec
(D) 3 /15 sec
–2
t in s
(A) 10 N-s
(B) 4 N-s
(C) 8 N-s
(D) zero
mMg
(A)
nm M
mMg
(B)
nM m
(C) mg
(D) mng
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3 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
5. All pulleys and strings shown in figure are light and there 0.5 8kg 6kg
0.4
is no friction in any string and pulley. The acceleration of
hanging block if mass of hanging block is 9 kg -
m
9
(A) m/s2
31
10
(B) m/s2
31
10
(C) m/s2
41
11
(D) m/s2
32
6. A rigid body is made of three identical thin rods, each of length L fastened together in the form of
the letter H. The body is free to rotate about a horizontal axis that runs along the length of one of
the legs of the H. The body is allowed to fall from rest from a position in which the plane of the H
is horizontal. What is the angular speed of the body when the plane of H is vertical?
5 g
(A)
2 L
3 g
(B)
2 L
g
(C)
L
(D) None of these
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4
KR 2 0 2
(A) Work done by the force F is mgR sin +
2
(B) Potential energy stored in the spring increases during consequent motion.
(C) Gravitational potential energy of the block + earth system increases during consequent
motion.
(D) Work done by the force F is mgR sin + KR 2 0 2
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5 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
11. A stone with weight W is thrown vertically upward in the air with initial speed v o. If a constant
force F due to air drag acts on the stone throughout its flight:
v02
(A) The maximum height reached by the stone is : h =
F
g 1
W
1/2
W F
(B) The speed of the stone upon impact with the ground is v = v 0
W F
v 02
(C) The maximum height reached by the stone is : h =
F
2g 1
W
1/ 2
WF
(D) The speed of the stone upon impact with the ground is v = v 0
WF
12. A car of mass M is moving on a horizontal circular path of radius r. At an instant its speed is v and
is increasing at a rate a -
(A) the acceleration of the car is towards the centre of the path
(B) the magnitude of the frictional force on the car is greater than mv 2/R
(C) the friction coefficient between the ground and the car is not less than a/g
(D) the friction coefficient between the ground and the car is µ = tan –1v2/Rg
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer XXXX.XX.
13. An engine driver of a passenger train travelling at 40 m/s sees a goods train, ahead of his. The
goods train is travelling in the same direction as the passenger train, with a constant speed of 20
m/s. The passenger train driver has reaction time of 0.5 sec. He applies the brakes which causes
the train to decelerate at the rate of 1 m/sec2, while the goods train continues with its constant
speed. By what least distance (in m) last compartment of the goods train should be ahead of the
engine of the passenger train in order to avoid the crash?
14. In the figure at the free end a force F is applied to keep the suspended mass of 18 kg at rest. The
value of F is (in N)- (take g = 10 m/s2)
18 kg
15. A spot light S rotates in a horizontal plane with a constant angular velocity of 0.1 rad/s. The spot
of light P moves along, the wall at a distance 3m. What is the velocity (in m/s) of the spot P when
= 45° ?
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 6
16. A ball of mass m = 1kg is hung vertically by a thread of length = 1.50 m. 1.50m
Upper end of the thread is attached to the ceiling of a trolley of mass M = 4kg. m M
m
Initially, trolley is stationary and it is free to move along horizontal rails without v0
friction.
A shell of mass m = 1kg, moving horizontally with velocity v0 = 6 ms–1, collides with the ball and gets
stuck with it. As a result, thread starts to deflect towards right. Calculate its maximum deflection (in
degrees) with the vertical. (g = 10 ms–2)
17. The velocities of A and B are marked in the figure. The velocity 3m / s
(in m/s) of block C is (assume that the pulley are ideal and
string inextensible):
C B
1m / s
A
18. A car 2 m long and 3 m wide is moving at 13 m/sec when a bullet 2m Vcar
-1
hits it in a direction making an angle θ=tan 3/4 with the car as
seen from the street. The bullet enters one edge of the corner and 3m 13 m/s
passes out at the diagonally opposite corner. Neglecting any
interaction between bullet and car find the time for the bullet to cross θ
the car: V
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7 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. When 1g of an ideal gas A is introduced into an evacuated vessel at 300 K , the pressure was
found to be 1 atm. Two grams of another ideal gas B is then added to A and the pressure is now
found to be 1.5 atm. What is the ratio between the average speeds of A and B at the same
temperature?
(A) 2 :1
(B) 1: 2
(C) 1: 4
(D) 4 :1
20. In a reaction, 4moles of electrons are transferred to one mole of HNO3. The possible product
obtained due to reduction is:
(A) 0.5 mole of N2
(B) 0.5 mole of N2O
(C) 1 mole of NO2
(D) 1 mole of NH3
21. If K1 and K 2 are the equilibrium constants for a reversible reaction at T1 K and T2 K
temperature T1 T2 and the reaction takes place with neither heat evolution nor absorption,
then:
(A) K1 K 2 at high temperature
(B) K1 K 2 at high temperature
(C) K1 K 2 only at high temperature
(D) K1 K 2 at any temperature
22. The polymerization of propene to form polypropene occurs readly at room temperature?
H C H CH3 H
3
n C C C C
H H H H n
What is the correct signs of G, H and S respectively for the polymerization reaction at
room temperature?
(A) ve, ve, ve
(B) ve, ve, ve
(C) ve, ve, ve
(D) ve, ve, ve
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 8
23. Mg s 2 HCl
MgCl2 H 2
The rate of the redox reaction between HCl and Mg can be followed by measuring the time
taken for the same volume of H 2 to be produced from a range of hydrochloric acid
concentrations.
To find the order with respect the HCl , which would be the most suitable graph to plot using the
data?
(A) HCl against time
(B) Volume of H 2 against time
(C) HCl against 1/time
(D) Volume of H 2 against 1/time
25. Van der Waals’ constants for three different gases are given:
Gas a b
X 3.0 0.025
Y 10.0 0.030
Z 6.0 0.035
Which of the following is correctly matched?
(A) Maximum critical temperature Y
(B) Most ideal behaviour X
(C) Maximum critical volume Z
(D) Maximum critical pressure X
27. During which of the following reactions/process entropy of system will increase?
(A) Ag aq. Cl aq. AgCl s
(B) CaCO3 s
CaO s CO2 g
(C) PCl3 g Cl2 g
PCl5 g
(D) Raw egg
Boiled egg
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9 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
28. Gaseous particle X has a proton number n and a charge of +1. Gaseous particle Y has a proton
number n 1 and is isoelectronic with X. Which statement about X and Y is/are correct?
(A) When placed in an electric field, the angle of deflection for ‘X’ is the same as that of Y.
(B) X requires more energy than Y when a further electron is removed from each particle.
(C) ‘X’ has a larger radius than Y.
(D) ‘X’ releases less energy than Y when an electron is added to particle.
30. When 25ml of 0.10M strong monobasic acid was titrated against 0.20M of a weak base X,
12.50ml of the base was required to completely neutralise the acid. Which statement is/are
correct for this experiment?
(A) Bromocresol green p k In
=4.7 is a suitable indicator for this titration.
(B) 1 mol of X reacts with 2 mole of the monobasic acid.
(C) A solution of maximum buffer capacity was formed when 6.25ml of the base was added.
(D) The pH of the solution would be less than 7 at equivalent point
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer XXXX.XX.
31. For 3s orbital of hydrogen atom, the normalised wave function is:
3/ 2 r
1 1 18r 2r 2 3a0
3s 27 2 e
81 3 a0 a0 a0
d
If distance between the radial nodes is d , calculate the value of
1.73 a0
32. N 2 g reacts with H 2 g in either of the following ways depending upon supply of H 2 g :
N 2 g H 2 g
N2 H 2 l
N 2 g 2 H 2 g
N2 H 4 g
If 5L N 2 g and 3L H 2 g are taken initially (at same temperature and pressure), calculate
the contraction in volume after the reaction (in L)?
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10
33. A solution is saturated in SrCO3 and SrF2 . The CO32 was found to be 103 mol/L. If the
concentration of F - in solution is represented as y×102 M then what is the value of y ?
[Given: K sp SrCO3 2.5 10 ; K sp SrF2 1010 ]
10
34. Solid NH4I on rapid heating in a closed vessel at 357°C develops a constant pressure of 380 mm
Hg owing to the partial decomposition of NH4I into NH3 and HI but the pressure gradually
increases further (when excess solid residually remain in the vessel) owing to the dissociation of
HI. The final pressure developed under equilibrium is x atm. Then the value of x is?
NH 3 g +HI g
NH 4 I s
H 2 g +I 2 g , K p =1/16 pressure being in atm terms
2HI g
35. A 3 mol sample of triatomic non-linear ideal gas (consider only translational and rotational degree
of freedom) at 300 K is allowed to expand under reversible adiabatic condition from 5 L to 40 L.
The magnitude of work done (in kJ) in this process is:
8
36. A-diatomic molecules has a dipole moment of 1.2D . If the bond length is 1.0×10 cm , what
fraction of charge does exist each atom?
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11 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
is equal to
(A) 0
(B) 3
(C) 11
(D) 44
40. Let be the equation of tangent to a parabola at the point (7, 13). If the focus of
the parabola is at (-1, -1), its directrix is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
41. If the line is a tangent to a parabola for any real value of m, then
the equation of the parabola is
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 12
Let y 4ax be a parabola and PQ be a focal chord. Let R be the point of intersection of the
2
43.
tangents at P and Q, then:
( PQ ) 2
(A) Area of circum circle of PQR is
4
(B) orthocentre ofPQR lies at the directrix
(C) Incentre of PQR lies at the vertex
minimum area of the circumcircle of PQR is 4 a
2
(D)
45. Let L1 : 3 x 4 y 1 and L2 : 5 x 12 y 2 0 be two given lines. Let image of every point on
L1 with respect to a line L lies on L2 then possible equation of L can be:
(A) 14 x 112 y 23 0
(B) 64 x 8 y 3 0
(C) 11x 4 y 0
(D) 52 x 45 y 7
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13 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
46. Let A 1,1 and B 3,3 be two fixed points and P be a variable point such that area of PAB
remains constant equal to 1 for all position of P, then locus of P is given by:
(A) 2 y 2x 1
(B) 2 y 2x 1
(C) y x 1
(D) y x 1
47. If 4a2 5b2 6a 1 0 and the line ax by 1 0 touches a fixed circle, then:
(A) centre of circle is at 3, 0
(B) the radius of circle is 5
(C) the radius of circle is 3
(D) the circle passes through 1,1
48. P is a point which moves in the x-y plane such that the point P is nearer to the centre of square
then any of the sides. The four vertices of the square are a, a . The region in which P will
move is bounded by parts of parabolas of which one has the equation:
(A) y 2 a 2 2ax
(B) x 2 a 2 2ay
(C) y 2 2ax a 2
(D) None of these
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. Each question, when worked out will result in numerical answer Type
with answer XXXX.XX.
The normal to the parabola y 8 x at the point (2, 4) meets it again at 18, 12 . If length of
2
49.
The locus of a point that divides a chord of slope 2 of the parabola y 4 x internally in the ratio
2
50.
1: 2 is a parabola. If the vertex of parabola is , , then the value of 129 must be:
2
51. Let 1 be the area of ΔPQR inscribed in an ellipse and Δ 2 be the area of the ΔP ' Q ' R '
whose vertices are the points lying on the auxiliary circle corresponding to the points P, Q, R
4 3
respectively. If the eccentricity of the ellipse is then the ratio 343 2 must be:
7 1
52. The area of the triangle formed by tangents form the point 4,3 to be circle x 2 y 2 9 and the
line segment joining their points of contact is square unit, then the value of 250.5 must
be:
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 14
54. If roots of the equationx 2 10cx 11d 0 are a, b and those of x 2 10ax 11b 0 are c, d ,
then the value of a b c d must be equal to a, b, c and d are distinct numbers.
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER – 2
TEST DATE: 06-12-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. The displacement-time graph of a body acted upon by some forces is shown in figure.
B C
s
A
O
t
Select the correct alternative(s) :
(A) Work done by the forces during BC is zero
(B) Work done by the forces during AB is zero
(C) Work done by the forces during AB is positive
(D) Work done by the forces during OA is positive (OA is a part of a parabola)
(A) No matter how the cannon balls are fired; the railroad car cannot travel more than L.
(B) No matter how the cannon balls are fired; the railroad car cannot travel more than L/2.
(C) No matter how the cannon balls are fired; the railroad car cannot travel more than 2L.
(D) Linear momentum of the whole system is conserved in horizontal direction.
3. A greased block P may slide along any of the three frictionless slopes P
A, B, or C, to reach the ground. The work done on the block by the
block’s weight Mg, are WA, WB, and WC for the three slopes
respectively. Then- A B C
4. A particle (A) of mass m1 elastically collides with another stationary particle (B) of mass m1 .
Then –
m1 1
(A) and the particles fly apart in the opposite direction with equal velocities
m2 2
m1 1
(B) and the particles fly apart in opposite direction with equal velocity
m2 3
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3 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
m1 2
(C) and the collision angle between the particles 60º symmetrically
m2 1
m1 2
(D) and the particles fly apart symmetrically at angle 90º
m2 1
30º
T.V Camera
(A) The rate of increase in the distance between the car and the camera is 20 m/s
(B) The rate of increase in the distance between the car and the camera is 40 m/s
(C) The angular speed with which the camera should be rotated 3/4 rad/sec
(D) The angular speed with which the camera should be rotated 1 rad/sec
6. A balloon starts rising upward with constant acceleration a and after t 0 second a packet is
dropped from it which reaches the ground after t second. What is the value of t .
at g
(A) t = 0 1 1
g a
at 0 g
(B) t= 1 1
g a
(C) Just after leaving the balloon the packet keeps on moving in the upward direction for
some time
(D) Just after leaving the balloon the packet starts on moving in the downward direction.
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
7. In an experiment the spring constant of two springs were measured to be as given below.
K1 5.0 0.2 N/m and K 2 10.0 0.1N/m . Find their percentage error in equivalent spring
constant in parallel;
2 xmg
8. In figure the acceleration of m is assuming that there
M 5m
is no friction between m and M, and all other surfaces are
smooth and pulleys light. Then find the value of x.
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4
9. A smooth table is placed horizontally and a spring of unstretched length l0 and force constant k has
one end fixed to its centre. To the other end of the spring is attached a mass m which is making n
X 2 n 2 m 0 k
revolutions per second around the centre. If Tension in the spring is , then find the
(k 4 2 n 2 m)
value of X.
10. Consider a one dimensional elastic collision between a given incoming body A and body B,
initially at rest. What should be the ratio of mass of A to the mass of B in order that B should
recoil with greatest kinetic energy?
12. The potential energy (in Joule) of a particle of mass 1 kg moving in the XY plane obeys the law
= 3x + 4y, where (x, y) are the co- ordinates of the particle in metre. If the particle is at rest at
6, 4 at time t = 0, then find out the magnitude of x-component of its acceleration m/s 2 .
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
2
13. A rocket is fired vertically up from the ground with a resultant vertical acceleration of 10 m/s . The
fuel is finished in 1 minute and it continues to move up. Find out the maximum height reached.
2
(in m) (Take g = 10 m/s )
14. A small block of mass m1 =2kg is placed at rest on a large block of mass m 2 =3kg as shown in
the fig. The coefficient of friction between the two blocks is =0.3 and the horizontal surface is
smooth.
2
(Take g = 10 m/s )
m1
m2
smooth
A constant horizontal force F is applied on the lower block. What is the maximum value of F at
which both the blocks move together (in N)?
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5 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
15. A 0.5 kg, block slides from the point A on a horizontal track
with an initial speed 3m/s towards a weight less horizontal
spring of length 1m and force constant 2 N/m. The part AB of D
the track is frictionless and the part BC has the coefficient of A B
C
static and kinetic friction as 0.22 and 0.20 respectively. (see
figure) If the distance AB and BD are 2m and 2.14m
respectively, find the total distance (in m) through which the
block moves before it comes to rest completely. (g = 10
m/s 2 )
16. The centre of a solid cylinder is attached to a horizontal massless spring, so that it can roll without
slipping along a horizontal surface. The force constant k of the spring is 3.0 N/m. If the system is
released from rest at a position in which the spring is stretched 0.25 metre, find the rotational
kinetic energy of the cylinder as it passes through the equilibrium position in (milli Joules).
17. A thin uniform bar lies on a frictionless horizontal surface and is free to move in
any way on the surface. Its mass is 0.16 kg and length is ( 3 ) m. Two
particles, each of mass 0.08 kg are moving on the same surface and towards A
10 m/s
the bar in a direction perpendicular to the bar, one with a velocity of 10 m/s and
the other with 6 m/s as shown in figure. The first particle strikes the bar at point C
A and the other at point B. Point A and B are at a distance of 0.5 m from the
centre of the bar. The particles strike the bar at the same instant of time and B
6 m/s
stick to the bar on collision. Calculate the loss of KE of the system in the above
collision process (In joules).
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
19. Sodium sulphate is soluble in water, whereas barium sulphate is sparingly soluble because:
(A) The hydration energy of sodium sulphate is more than its lattice energy
(B) The lattice energy of barium sulphate is more than its hydration energy
(C) The lattice energy has no role to play in solubility
(D) The hydration energy of sodium sulphate is less than its lattice energy.
20. In order to increase the kinetic energy of ejected photoelectrons, there should be an increase in:
(A) Intensity of radiation
(B) wavelength of radiation
(C) Frequency of radiation
(D) both wavelength and intensity of radiation
21. Which of the following compounds can be oxidised further with a strong oxidising agent?
(A) CrO3
(B) Al2O3
(C) SO2
(D) MnO3
22. In the given figure bulb contains an excess of volatile solid A. At 250 C equilibrium formed as
shown below
A ' g H2S g
A g
A s
At equilibrium; total pressure inside bulb is 10 mm whereas partial pressure of H 2S inside bulb is
4 mm. If some A(g) is removed from bulb at equilibrium
(A) Decomposition equilibria will shift forward
(B) Sublimation equilibria will shift forward
(C) Total pressure when equilibrium restablished will be equal to 10 mm.
(D) A g will form till its partial pressure becomes 2 mm Hg.
23. From the position of elements in periodic table and the physical properties of the compounds,
which compounds are covalent?
(A) CH3 2 SiCl2 b. p. 70C
(B) GeCl2 b. p. 86C
(C) AlBr3 b. p. 265C
(D) I2 m. p. 114C
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7 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
25. Washing soda Na 2 CO 3 .10H 2 O is widely used in softening of hard water. If 1 L of hard water
requires 0.0143 g of washing soda, what is hardness of water in terms of ppm of CaCO3 ?
26. How many of the following species have bond order of 2.5 ?
i N
2 ii N 2
iii O2 iv O2
v NO vi CN
27. The number of correct options is:
(a) P2 O 5 >ZnO>MgO>Na 2 O 2 acidic strength
(b) Tl 2 O 3 >Tl 2 O>Ga 2 O 3 >Al 2 O3 basic strength
(c) MnO>P2 O 5 >CrO 3 >Mn 2 O 7 ionic character
(d) H 2 O>HF>NH 3 melting point
(e) H 2 O>HF>NH 3 boiling point
28. Consider the following species and find out total number of species which are polar and can act
as Lewis acid
CCl4 , CO2 , SO2 , AlCl3 , HCHO, SO3 , SiCl4 , BCl3 , CF4
29. A sample of 20ml of 0.20M FeSO 4 solution is titrated against 0.05M KMnO4 in the
presence of excess fluoride ions. It is found that 20ml of the manganate (VII) solution is
requires to reach the end point. What is the oxidation number of manganese at end-point?
x
30. For the reaction: M MnO4
MO3 Mn 2 . If one mole of MnO 4 oxidizes 1.67 moles
M x of to MO3 , the value of x in the reaction is:
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 8
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
2 2
31. 2.5 mL of
5
M weak monoacidic base K b 1 1012 at 25C is titrated with
15
M HCl
The value of concentration of H 10 at equivalence point is
in water at 25°C.
K w 11014 at 25C
32. The volume strength of 10% (w/w) aqueous H2O2 solution of specific gravity 1.19 is:
33. 0.7875g of crystalline barium hydroxide is dissolved in water. For the neutralization of this
solution 20 mL of N/4 HNO3 is required. How many moles of water of crystallization are present
in one mole of this base? (Given: Atomic mass Ba=137, O=16, N=14, H=1 )
34. A mixture of nitrogen and water vapours is admitted to a flask at 760 torr which contains a
sufficient solid drying agent. After long time the pressure attained a steady value of 722 torr. If
the experiment is done at 27°C and drying agent increases in mass by 0.9 gm, what is the volume
of the flask? Neglect any possible vapour pressure of drying agent and volume occupied by
drying agent?
ii B K
Q,following observation is made
II
2M 2M
Concentration Concentration
1M 1M
0.5M A B
30 60 30
Time min Time min
kI
Calculate , where k I and k II and rate constant for the respective reaction:
K II
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9 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
37. Tangents are drawn to the circle x2 + y2 = 50 from a point ‘P’ lying on the x-axis. These tangents
meet the y-axis at points ‘P1’ and ‘P2’. Possible coordinates of ‘P’ so that area of triangle PP1P2 is
minimum, are
(A) (10, 0)
(B) (10 2 , 0)
(C) (–10, 0)
(D) (–10 2 , 0)
x2 y2
39. The parametric angle , where – < , of the point on the ellipse = 1 at which
a2 b2
the tangent drawn cuts the intercept of minimum length on the co-ordinates axes, is/are :
–1
b
(A) tan
a
–1 b
(B) –tan
a
–1
b
(C) – tan
a
–1
b
(D) + tan a
x2 y2
40. If a chord AB of the hyperbola 2
2 1 subtends an angle at the origin then.
a b 2
1 1 1 1
(A) maximum value of 2
2
2 2
OA OB a b
1 1 1 1
(B) maximum value of 2
2
2 2
OA OB a b
1 1 1 1
(C) The value of is constant and equal to 2 2
OA 2 OB 2
a b
(D) Area of OAB is constant
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AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10
41. The area of a triangle is 5 sq. units. Two of its vertices are 2,1 and 3, 2 . The third vertex
lies on y x 3 . The co-ordinates of the third vertex can be:
3 3
(A) ,
2 2
3 3
(B) ,
4 2
7 13
(C) ,
2 2
1 11
(D) ,
4 4
x2 y2
42. Consider the ellipse 1 and f x is a positive decreasing
f k 2 2k 5 f k 11
function, then:
(A) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is x-axis is 3, 2
(B) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is , 2
(C) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is , 3 2,
(D) the set of values of k, for which the major axis is y-axis is 3,
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
43. If the equation ax 2 xy y 2 bx cy d 0 represents pair of lines whose slopes are m and
m2 , then number of possible values of a is….
44. A line intersect a hyperbola at 2, 6 and 4, 2 one of the asymptote at 1, 2 . If the centre
45. If the quadratic polynomial f x a 3 x 2 2ax 3a 7 ranges from 1, for every
x R , then the value of a is…..
47. Three normals drawn from any point to the parabola y 2 4ax cut line x 2 a in points whose
ordinates are in arithmetic progression. If the slope of normals be m1 , m2 and m3 then
m1 m3
is equal to:
m2 m2
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11 AIITS-PT-I (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
49. If the roots of 10 x 3 cx 2 54 x 27 0 are in harmonic progression, then the value of c must
be equal to:
50. If and are the roots of the equation x 2 px q 0 and also x3900 p1950 x1950 q1950 0
x n 1 x 1 0, then the value of n must be equal to:
n
and if , are the roots of
51. If the lengths of external and internal common tangents to two circles
x 2 y 2 14 x 4 y 28 0 and x 2 y 2 14 x 4 y 28 0 are and the value of
must be:
The circle x y 1 cuts the x-axis at P and Q, another circle with centre at Q and variable
2 2
52.
radius intersects the first circle at R above the x-axis and the line segment PQ at S. If the
maximum area of the QSR is sq. unit, then 27 2 must be:
53. The equation of the ellipse referred to its centre whose minor axis is equal to the distance
between the foci and whose latusrectum is 10 is mx 2 ny 2 100 , when m, n N , then the
value of 10m 20n must be:
x2 y2
54. If the normal at an end of a latusrectum of an ellipse 1 passes through one extremity
a2 b2
625 2e 2 1 must be:
2
of the minor axis. If e be the eccentricity of the ellipse then the value of
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – I
JEE (Main)-2022
General Instructions:
Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. “Consider the situation shown in figure. Both the pulleys and the
string are light and all the surfaces are frictionless”
The force exerted by the clamp on the pulley A in the figure is–
2Mg
(A)
3
2Mg
(B)
4
2Mg
(C)
5
(D) None of these
4. A body of mass m was slowly hauled up the rough hill by a force F which at
each point was directed along the surface of the hill. Work done by the force:
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3 AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
5. The kinetic energy of a projectile at its highest position is K. If the range of the projectile is four
times the height of the projectile, then the initial kinetic energy of the projectile is:
(A) 2K
(B) 2K
(C) 4K
(D) 2 2K
6. A block X slides down upon a frictionless inclined plane when
released from the top of the inclined plane while another block
falls freely from the same point then:
(A) momentum of the system (particle +wedge) will be not be conserved in x-direction
(B) speed of wedge will be maximum when particle is at B and particle’s velocity is in positive
x-direction
(C) particle cannot reach D during the course of subsequent motion
(D) particle cannot reach A during the course of subsequent motion
9. Three identical thin rods each of mass m & length l are placed along x, y & z-axis respectively
they are placed such that, one end of each rod is at origin 'O'. Then moment of inertia of this
system about z-axis is:
m 2
(A)
3
2m 2
(B)
3
(C) m2
m 2
(D)
4
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 4
10. A solid cylinder rolls without slipping down the rough inclined surface as
shown. Choose the correct alternative (s):
(A) If is decreased, the force of friction will decreases
(B) frictional force is dissipative
(C) frictional force is necessarily equal to mg cos
(D) None of these
31
(A) v0
8
5
(B) v0
16
5v0
(C)
16
v0
(D)
2
12. A cockroach of mass m is moving on the rim of a disc with velocity v (w.r.t ground) in the
anticlockwise direction. The moment of inertia of the disc about its own axis is I and it is rotating in
the clockwise direction with angular speed . If the cockroach stops moving then the angular
speed of the disc will be
l
(A)
l mr 2
l mvr
(B)
l mr 2
l mvr
(C)
l mr 2
l mvr
(D)
l
13. A uniform rod AB of length 7m is undergoing combined rotational
and translational motion such that, at some instant of time,
velocities of its end point A and centre C are both perpendicular to
the rod and opposite in direction, having magnitude 11 m/s and 3
m/s respectively as shown in the figure. Velocity of centre C and
angular velocity of the rod remains constant
(A) Acceleration of point A is 56 m/s2
(B) Acceleration of point C is 56 m/s2
(C) At the instant shown in the figure acceleration of point B is more than that of point A.
(D) Angular velocity of the rod is 14 rad/sec
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5 AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
14. A uniform wire is bent in the form of a circle of radius r = 0.4 m. It is initially
at rest and its diameter OA is horizontal. It is then released and allowed to
swing about point O in the vertical plane. During its motion when the
diameter occupies the position OB, then its angular speed is
(A) 4 rad/sec
(B) 3 rad/sec
(C) 5 rad/sec
(D) None of these
15. A uniform rod of mass M is hinged at its upper end. A particle of mass m moving horizontally
strikes the rod at its midpoint elastically. If the particle comes to rest after collision the find value
of M/m
(A) 1
(B) 1/ 4
(C) 1/ 2
(D) 3/ 4
16. A cube of side ‘a’ and of mass M is moving with a uniform velocity ‘v’
along the horizontal smooth surface hits with a small obstacle at P
and topples about it. The angular velocity of the cube just after the
impact is
(A) 3v / 4a
(B) v / 4a
(C) v/a
(D) v / 2a
17. A slender uniform rod of length l is balanced vertically at a point P on a horizontal surface having
some friction. If the top of the rod is displaced slightly to the right, the position of its centre of
mass at the time when the rod becomes horizontal:
(A) lies at some point to the right of P
(B) lies at some point to the left of P
(C) must be l / 2 to the right to P
(D) lies at P
19. A body weighs 6 gms when placed in one pan and 24 gms when placed on the other pan of a
false balance. If The beam is horizontal when both the pans are empty, the true weight of the
body is:
(A) 13 gm
(B) 12 gm
(C) 15.5gm
(D) 15gm
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 6
20. A uniform ball of radius R rolls without slipping between two rails such that the horizontal distance
is d between two contact points of the rail to the ball. If R=10cm, d=16cm and the angular velocity
is 5rad/s then find the velocity of centre of mass of the ball.
(A) 0.3m/s
(B) 0.2 m/s
(C) 1.2 m/s
(D) 0.5 m/s
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
21. Force F is applied on upper pulley. If F 30t where t is time in second. Find the
time when m1 loses contact with floor: (Take g 10 m / s 2 )
22. A stone falls from rest. The total distance covered by it in the last second of its motion is equal to
the distance covered in the first three seconds of its motion. How long does the stone remain in
the air?
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
23. Position time graph of two bodies A and B of the same mass ‘m’ is given
a coefficient of restitution for collision is 0.5. Find the speed of B after
collision.
24. Two balls A (0.10 kg) and B of are connected by a stretched spring. The system is placed on a
smooth table. The initial acceleration of ball B is 2 m/s 2 westward when the system is released.
The acceleration of ball B is 5 m/s2 in eastward. The mass of B would be (in kg)……
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7 AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
26. A balloon of helium gas of radius r0 is released from sea-level, it rises above in atmosphere but
within troposphere. Then the radius of balloon at elevated heights is:
(A) Less than r0 because temperature decreases.
(B) More than r0 because temperature and pressure increases.
(C) Less than r0 because pressure decreases.
(D) Not equal to r0 because pressure and temperature decreases differently with height of
atmosphere.
3/2 Z
1 2Z Z 2 2 3a0 r
27. r , , .r .e .sin cos cos ( is angle with Z axis) which orbital
81 a0 a02
represents the above wave function:
(A) 3p x
(B) 3d xz
(C) 3d Z 2
(D) 2s
28. When two moles of N 2 g are mixed with one mole of O 2 g at the same temperature and
pressure, which of the following statement is incorrect considering ideal behaviour of gas?
(A) S surrounding 0
(B) S system 0
(C) Suniverse 0
(D) None of these
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8
30. Ca OH 2 and PbCl2 both have limited solubility in neutral water. When acid is added, the
solubility of above salts varies. Which is the correct statement?
(A) Acid reaction with Ca 2+ ions and solubility of Ca OH 2 increases
(B) Acid reacts with Cl ions and solubility of PbCl2 increases.
(C) Acid increases the solubility of any sparingly soluble salt so solubility of both salts
increases.
(D) The solubility of Ca OH 2 goes way up but that of PbCl2 does not change.
33. Which of the following molecules does not exist or unstable at normal conditions:
(A) SH 6
(B) HFO 4
(C) FeI3
(D) All of these
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9 AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
nb
nc
na
n=number of molecules
with a given energy
A B C
molecular energy
Which statements are correct for the number of molecules with molecular energies A, B and C?
(A) nc decreases when more gas M is added at the same temperature.
(B) n a increases when temperature is lowered.
(C) The above curve is symmetrical about the maximum value.
(D) The above curve becomes more broader when molar mass of gas increases.
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 10
38. 2A+B
C
0.05
A
M
0.025
0.0125
0 20 40 time min
Given that the initial B 4.0M and units of the rate constant is mol
1
dm3 min 1 . Which of the
following is true?
(A) The half life of the reaction remains constant when A doubles but halved when B
doubles.
(B) The reaction is elementary reaction.
(C) The half life of the reaction remains constant when catalyst is added.
(D) The gradient of tangent at t 0 min increases by four times when the initial B
doubles.
39. Which of the following statement, best explained why helium has the highest 1 st ionisation energy
among all elements in periodic table?
(A) It is unreactive.
(B) It is the least electronegative element.
(C) It has only one completely filled principle quantum shall.
(D) Its valence electron is poorly shielded and is very close to the nucleus.
G G
kJ/mol kJ/mol
O
O T K T K
(C) (D)
G
O
T K
kJ/mol
G
kJ/mol
O T K
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11 AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
41. Which property of the period 3 elements increases consistently across the period?
(A) Enthalpy change of atomisation
(B) Number of unpaired electrons
(C) Electronegativity
(D) Atomic radius
20
temperature C
15
12
time minutes
3
Given that the specific heat capacity of the solution is 4.18 J cm K 1 , what is the enthalpy
change of the reaction ΔH r ?
(A) +33.44 kJ/mol
(B) -33.44 kJ/mol
(C) +20.90 kJ/mol
(D) -20.90 kJ/mol
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 12
44. R g S
P g Q g
The stoichiometry of a catalysed reaction is shown by equation above:
Which changes in the conditions might explain the results shown?
experiment 1
Amount of R experiment 2
time
(A) A different catalyst was used in experiment 2.
(B) Product S was continuously removed from the reaction vessel in experiment 2.
(C) A lower pressure was used in experiment 2.
(D) The results in experiment 2 can only be obtained when temperature is less than
experiment 1.
45. 1, 3, 5 – triazine is an aromatic compound and its structure resembles that of benzene.
N
N N
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
46. Maximum number of atoms that can be present in one plane in CO CH 3 2 is?
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
48. If 30 ml of 0.15M solution of Na 2CO3 .NaHCO3 solution is titrated against 0.04M HCl ,
using phenolphthalein and methyl orange as indicators. The difference in the titrate readings (in
ml) of above two titrations is?
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49. In a piston, the addition of 16.7kJ of heat to 100g sample of a liquid at constant temperature of
35.2C caused the liquid to vaporise. The vaporised gas expanded against on external pressure
of 1.80 atm and a volume change of 12.7L was observed. (1 atm L = 101.3J).
What was the change in the internal energy ΔU is kJ ?
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 14
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
52. The lines 5 x 12 y 10 0 and 5 x 12 y 40 0 touch a circle of radius 3 units. If the centre
of circle lies in the first quadrant, then the coordinates of centre is:
(A) 5,3
(B) 5,1
(C) 5, 2
(D) 5, 6
53. Let A 2, 0 and B 2, 0 , then the number of integral values of a, a 10, 10 for
which line segment AB subtends an acute angle at point C a, a 1 is:
(A) 15
(B) 17
(C) 19
(D) 21
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3 1
55. Two circles C1 and C2 of radii and respectively touch each other externally and ' ' is
2 2
their common tangent as shown in figure:
56. Vertices of a variable triangle are 3, 4 , 5 cos , 5sin and 5sin , 5cos . Then locus
of its orthocenter is:
x y 1 x y 7 100
2 2
(A)
x y 7 x y 1 100
2 2
(B)
x y 7 x y 1 100
2 2
(C)
x y 7 x y 1 100
2 2
(D)
58. The base of a triangle passes through a fixed point f , g and its sides are bisected at right
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 16
a b c
59. If 2 where a, b, c 0 , then the family of lines a x b y c 0 always
bc c b
passes through the fixed point:
(A) 1, 1
(B) 1, 1
(C) 1, 2
(D) 1, 1
60. A line of fixed length 2 units moves so that its one end is on the positive x-axis and other end on
that part of the line x y 0 which lies in the second quadrant. The locus of the mid-point of the
line is given by:
(A) x 2 5 y 2 4 xy 1 0
(B) x 2 5 y 2 4 xy 1 0
(C) x 2 5 y 2 4 xy 1 0
(D) 4 x 2 5 y 2 4 xy 1 0
61. Variable ellipse are drawn with x 4 as a directrix and origin as corresponding fico. The locus
of extremities of minor axes of these ellipse is:
(A) y2 4x
(B) y2 2x
(C) y2 x
(D) y2 4 y
62. An endless inextensible string of length 15m passes around two pins, A & B which are 5m apart.
This string is always kept tight and a small ring, R, of negligible dimensions, inserted in this string
is made to move in a path keeping all segments RA, AB, RB tight (as mentioned earlier). The
ring traces a path, given by conic C, then:
(A) Conic C is an ellipse with eccentricity 1 / 2
(B) Conic C is an hyperbola with eccentricity 2
(C) Conic C is an ellipse with eccentricity 2 / 3
(D) Conic C is a hyperbola with eccentricity 3 / 2
63. Let PQ and RS be 2 perpendicular focal chords of a rectangular hyperbola, which are not
parallel to its axes, then:
(A) PQ RS
PQ 2 RS latus rectum
2 2
(B)
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17 AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
e1 e2
64. If a variable line has intercepts of e1 and e2 on the co-ordinate axes, where & are the
2 2
eccentricities of a hyperbola and its conjugate, then the line always touches a fixed circle
x 2 y 2 r 2 , then ' r ' is:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
65. P is a point on the circle x 2 y 2 1 . Line OP, where O is origin, and x = 1 meet at Q. L1 is a
line parallel to x-axis drawn from Q. A line is drawn parallel to x axis from P meeting x = 1 at R.
OR meets L1 at S. Then locus of S is:
(A) Circle
(B) Parabola
(C) Ellipse
(D) Hyperbola
68. The curve y 2 x3 1 touches a circle whose centre is 4, 0 . Then abscissa of point of contact
of these curves can be:
(A) –1
(B) –2
(C) 3/4
(D) 1/3
69. Tangents drawn from the point P 1,8 to the circle x 2 y 2 6 x 4 y 11 0 touch the circle
at the points A and B. The equation of the circumcircle of the triangle PAB is:
(A) x 2 y 2 4 x 6 y 19 0
(B) x 2 y 2 4 x 10 y 19 0
(C) x 2 y 2 2 x 6 y 29 0
(D) x 2 y 2 6 x 4 y 19 0
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AIITS-PT-I-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 18
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
71. Parabola, P1 has focus at S 2, 2 and y-axis is its directrix. Parabola, P2 is confocal with P1
and its directrix is x-axis. Let Q x1 , y1 and R x2 , y2 be real points of intersection of
RS
parabolas P1 and P2 . If the ratio a b b find a b (given x2 x1 and a, b N )
QS
5
72. From point P , 2 variable straight lines are drawn to meet the curve y 2 x at A & B .
4
Q is a point on this line such that PA.PB PQ , then locus of point Q is the line ax y b ,
2
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
(x-4) 2 (y-3) 2
73. The equation of the curve obtained by reflecting the ellipse + =1 about the line
16 9
x-y-2=0 is 16x 2 +9y 2 +k1x-36y+k 2 =0 , then k1 k2 is _____.
A point M moves on the circle x 4 y 8 20 . Then it breaks away from it and starts
2 2
74.
moving along a tangent to the circle, cutting the x- axis at the point 2, 0 . If a, b a, b R
a
be the point on the circle at which the moving point breaks away then equals :
b
75. The exhaustive values of ' a ' for which a unique circle passes through the points of intersection
2 1
of the rectangular hyperbola x 2 y 2 a 2 and the parabola y x 2 is a , then
b c
b 2 c 2 equals:
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –1
TEST DATE: 20-12-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Two Sections: Section-A & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) contains 18 multiple choice questions which have ONLY
ONE CORRECT ANSWER. Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for
wrong answer.
Section-A (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43 – 48) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31– 36, 49 – 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
1. The mathematical forms for three sinusoidal traveling waves are given by
Wave 1: y x,t 2cm sin 3x 6t
Wave 2 : y x,t 3cm sin 4x 12t
Wave 3 : y x,t 4cm sin 5x 11t
Where x is in meters and t is in seconds. Of these waves:
(A) wave 1 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed
(B) wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 1 has the greatest maximum transverse
string speed.
(C) wave 3 has the greatest wave speed and the greatest maximum transverse string speed.
(D) wave 2 has the greatest wave speed and wave 3 has greatest maximum transverse
string speed.
2. Shown in figure, a conical container of half-apex angle 37o filled with certain quantities of
kerosene and water. The force exerted by the water on the kerosene is approximately, (Take
atmospheric pressure = 105 Pa)
P0 10 5 P a
Kerosene
10 m sp.gr. = 0.8
Water
8m sp.gr. = 1.0
(A) 3 107 N
(B) 4 107 N
(C) 2 107 N
(D) 5 107 N
3. If specific heat capacity of a substance in solid and liquid state is proportional to temperature of
the substance, then if heat is supplied to the solid initially at –20oC (having melting point 0o C) at
constant rate. Then the temperature dependence of solid with time will be best represented by
(A) (B)
T T
t t
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3 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
(C) (D)
T T
t t
4. A resistor has initial resistance 'R0 ' at 0o C. Now, it is connected to an ideal battery of constant
emf = ‘v’. If the temperature co-efficient of resistance is , then after how much time, will its
temperature be ' T o C'. Mass of the wire is m, specific heat capacity of the wire is S. (Assume the
resistance varies linearly with temperature. Also neglect heat loss to the surrounding)
mSR0 T
(A)
v2
m0 SR0
(B) T / 2
v2
mSR0 T 2
(C) T
v2 2
mSR0
(D) T 1 T
v2
5. A copper calorimeter of mass m1 = 1 kg, contained with water of mass m1 = 1 kg, their common
temperature t = 10o C. Now a piece of ice of mass m3 = 2 kg and temperature is – 11oC dropped
into the calorimeter. Neglecting any heat loss, the final temperature of system is [specific heat of
copper = 0.1 Kcal/kgoC, specific heat of water = 1 Kcal/kgoC, specific heat of ice = 0.5 Kcal/kgoC,
latent heat of fusion of ice = 78.7 Kcal/kg]
(A) 0o C
(B) 4o C
(C) –4o C
(D) –2o C
6. A planet is at an average distance d from the sun, and its average surface temperature is
constant and equal to T. Assume that the planet receives energy only from the sun, and loses
energy only through radiation from its surface. Neglect atmospheric effects. If T d n , the value
of n is (Power of sun assumed to be constant)
(A) 2
(B) 1
1
(C)
2
1
(D)
4
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4
7. An air column in a pipe closed at one end is made to vibrate in its second overtone by a tuning
fork of frequency 440Hz. The speed of sound wave in air is 330 m/s. End corrections may be
neglected. Let P0 denote the mean pressure at any point in the pipe, and P0 the maximum
amplitude of pressure variation. Then:
15
(A) length of the pipe is m
16
9
(B) length of the pipe is m
16
(C) the maximum pressure at the open end is P0
(D) the minimum pressure at the open end is P0
8. A string is holding a solid block below the surface of the liquid as shown in figure. Now if the
system is given an upward constant acceleration a, then as compared to previous state.
a
(A) Tension is string will be 1 times
g
a
(B) Tension is string will be 1 times
g
a
(C) Upthrust force on block become 1 times
g
a
(D) Upthrust force on block becomes 1 times
g
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5 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
2
(A) Centre of mass of the rod is at a distance of m from the hinged end
3
3
(B) Centre of mass of the rod is at a distance of m from the hinged end
4
20
(C) Force exerted by the rod on the hinge support is N
3
(D) It the displace the rod slightly by rotating downwards, it will oscillate
11. A train is moving with constant speed along a circular track. If length of the train is one fourth of
length of circular track then which of the following is/are correct options (Assume that sound
source is at engine and speed of engine is very less then speed of sound):
(A) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from
front and rear end) will continuously increase.
(B) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from
front and rear end) will remain constant but more than actual frequency.
(C) Frequency observed by a passenger who is sitting in the middle of train (equidistant from
front and rear end) will remains constant and equal to actual frequency.
(D) Wavelength observed by the person who is on the rear end of train is more than the
actual wavelength of sound wave.
12. For a body executing S.H.M. with amplitudes A, time period T, maximum velocity vmax and phase
constant zero, which of the following statements are correct?
A v
(A) At y , v max
2 2
v A
(B) v max for y
2 2
T A
(C) For t , y
8 2
A T
(D) For y , t
2
8
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
13. A mercury drop of radius 1 cm is sprayed into 106 droplets of equal size. Calculate the energy
spent if surface tension of mercury is 35 x 10–3 N/m. Write in (mJ).
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 6
14. Two satellites of earth move in a common plane along circular orbits, the radii being r and
r r r r . What is the time interval (in hr) between their periodic approaches to each other
over the minimum distance? Take Me = 6 x 1024 kg, r = 7000 km, r = 70 km.
15. By observing an alternating doppler shift of a spectral line, the astronomers can deduce the
existence of a binary star system, which otherwise cannot be resolved visually. Suppose that an
astronomical observation shows that the sources of light is eclipsed once every 18 h. The
wavelength of the spectral line observed changes for a maximum of 563 nm to a minimum of 539
nm. Assume that binary star consists of two identical stars. Determine the separation between
the objects. Answer in term of 108.
max
max
Observer
16. A source of sound emits wave isotropically in three dimensions. If the intensity at a distance r0
from source is I0 , at what distance from the source is the intensity of 0.100 I0 (in terms of r0 )?
17. In a pitcher when water is filled some water comes to outer surface slowly through its porous
walls and gets evaporated. Most of the latent heat needed for evaporation is taken from water
inside and hence this water is cooled down. If 10 kg water is taken in the pitcher and 12 gm
water comes out and evaporated per minute, find the time (in minute) in which the temperature of
water in pitcher decreases by 5oC. Neglect the transfer by convection and radiator to surrounding.
18. A lead ball is 25oC is dropped from a height of 2 km. It is heated due to air resistance and it is
assumed that all of its kinetic energy is used in increasing the temperature of ball. If specific heat
of lead is Z = 126 J/kg oC, find the increase in temperature of ball in oC.
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Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
19. C7H9N has how many isomeric forms that contain a benzene ring?
(A) 4
(B) 5
(C) 6
(D) 7
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 8
26. The reaction of biphenyl with HOCl in the presence of a strong acid gives
(A) Cl (B) Cl
(C) (D) Cl
Cl
Cl
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SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
31. How many of the following pairs, first intermediate is more stable than the second one?
(1) H3C CH CH; H2C CH CH 2 (2) CCl 3; CF 3
(4) CH CH3; CH NH 2
(3) ;
CH 2 CH 2
(5) ; (6) ;
OCH 3 Cl
(9) ,
CH 2
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10
32. How many optical isomers are possible for the following compound?
CHO
H OH
H OH
H OH
CH 2OH
33. How many isomers are possible with the formula C2ClBrFI?
CH 2BrCl, , ,
H CH3 H H
NO 2 O 2N
H3C CH3 H CH3
C C C H Cl
, ,
H3C H CH3 H
I I Cl H
36. What is the oxidation state of oxygen of H 2O2 in the final product when it reacts with ClO3 ?
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11 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
37. The maximum value of the expression sin2 x 2a2 2a 2 1 cos2 x , where a and x are real
number is :
(A) 2
(B) 1
(C) 3
(D) none on these
n
39. 4n
n 1
4
1
equals to :
(A) 0
(B) 1
(C)
(D) 1/4
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 12
n r
If 4x 2 1 ar 1 x 2
n
41. x 2r , then the value of ar is :
r 0
(A) n
Cr 1 4r
(B) n
Cr 3r
(C) n
Cr 4 r
(D) n
Cr 1 3r
(A) 159
(B) 160
(C) 161
(D) none of these
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
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13 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
z
46. Consider E 8
x5y I f,0 f 1
(A) If x = 5, y = 2, z = 100, then number of irrational terms in expansion of E is 98.
(B) If x = 5, y = 2, z = 100, then number of rational terms in expansion of E is 4
(C) If x = 16, y = 1 and z = 6, then I = 197
6
(D) If x = 16, y = 1 and z = 6, then f = 2 1
47. The number of ways in which we can choose 2 distinct integers from 1 to 100 such that
difference between them is at most 10 is:
(A) 100
C2 90 C2
(B) 100
C98 90 C88
(C) C2 90 C88
100
n
2 sin2
48. Let fn , then which of the following is/are correct?
n 1 cos 2 cos 4n
(A) f5 2
8
(B) f3 4
12
(C) f2009 0
4
(D) f51 2 3
6
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX.
49. If a, b, c are non-zero real numbers, then the minimum value of the expression
a 4 3a 2 1 b 4 5b2 1 c 4 7a2 1
is
a 2 b2 c 2
k k 1 k 1 , then
225
k
equals:
52. If circumradius of ABC is 3 units and its area is 6 units and DEF is formed by joining foot of
perpendiculars drawn from A, B, C on sides BC, CA, AB respectively. Find the perimeter of
DEF.
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-1)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 14
1
53. Let a 3 223 1 and for all n 3, let
f n n C0 .an 1 n C1.an 2 n C2 .an3 ...... 1 n 1.nCn 1.a0 .
If the value of f 2007 f 2008 33 k , find k.
54. Let complex number ‘z’ satisfy the inequality 2 | z | 4. A point P is selected in this region at
1
random. The probability that argument of P lies in the interval , is , then K =
4 4 K
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Advanced)-2022
PAPER –2
TEST DATE: 20-12-2020
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 198
General Instructions:
Each Part is further divided into Three Sections: Section-A, Section – B & Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 06, 19 – 24, 37– 42) this section contains 18 multiple choice questions.
Each question has FOUR options. ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four option(s) is (are)
correct answer(s).
For each question, choose the option(s) corresponding to (all) the correct answer(s)
Answer to each question will be evaluated according to the following marking scheme:
Full Marks : +4 If only (all) the correct option(s) is (are) chosen:
Partial Marks : +3 If all the four options are correct but ONLY three options are chosen;
Partial Marks : +2 If three or more options are correct but ONLY two options are chosen and
both of which are correct;
Partial Marks : +1 If two or more options are correct but ONLY one option is chosen and it is
a correct option;
Zero Marks : 0 If none of the options is chosen (i. e. the question is unanswered);
Negative Marks : 2 In all other cases
Section-B (07 – 12, 25 – 30, 43– 48) contains 18 Numerical based questions with Single digit
integer as answer, ranging from 0 to 9 and each question carries +3 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.
Section-C (13 – 18, 31 – 36, 49– 54) contains 18 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and 0 marks for wrong answer.
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
1. Ideal liquid of density is filled in a cylindrical container upto (3/4)th height. Now the liquid is
being rotated about vertical axis passing through its axis of symmetry with constant angular
velocity , such that liquid is on the verge of falling out of the container and free surface of liquid
forms a paraboloid. Whole situation is shown in the figure. Choose the correct options.
y
h0
h x
h
(A) h0
4
gh
(B)
R2
dp
(C) 2 x
dx
dp
(D) g
dy
2. A solid spherical planet of mass 2m and radius ‘R’ has a very thin tunnel along its diameter. A
small cosmic particle of mass m is at a distance 2 R from the centre of the planet as shown. Both
are initially at rest, and due to gravitational attraction, both start moving toward each other. After
some time, the cosmic particle passes through the centre of the planet. (Assume the planet and
the cosmic particle are isolated from other planets)
2m
2R
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3 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
4R
(A) Displacement of the cosmic particle till that instant is
3
(B) Acceleration of the cosmic particle at that instant is zero
8Gm
(C) velocity of the cosmic particle at that instant is
3R
2Gm2
(D) total work done by the gravitational force on both the particle is
R
3. When the temperature of a copper coin is raised by 80o C, its diameter increases by 0.2%. Then
choose the correct option(s):
(A) percentage rise in the area of a face is 0.4%
(B) percentage rise in the thickness is 0.4%
(C) percentage rise in the volume is 0.6%
(D) coefficient of linear expansion of copper is 0.25 10 4 / o C.
4. When a capillary tube is dipped in a liquid, the liquid rises to a height h in the tube. The free liquid
surface inside the tube is hemispherical in shape. The tube is now pushed down so that the
height of the tube outside the liquid is less than h. Choose the correct option(s):
(A) The liquid will come out of the tube like in a small fountain.
(B) The liquid will come out of the tube slowly.
(C) The liquid will fill the tube but not come out of its upper end.
(D) The free liquid surface inside the tube will not be hemispherical.
5. An ideal gas is filled in a fixed adiabatic cylinder as shown in figure. The initial temperature,
pressure and volume of the gas are T0 ,P0 and V0 respectively where P0 is atmospheric pressure.
A light non conducting and smooth piston of area A is connected to a spring of spring constant K,
which is initially in natural length. Now the gas is heated slowly for some time, due to which the
piston moves out slowly by a distance ‘x’. Then
atmosphere
Heater
Moveble Piston
Kx
(A) Pressure of the gas is P0
A
Kx Ax
(B) Temperature of the gas is 1 1 T0
P0 A V0
(C) The gas is undergoing constant pressure process
1
(D) Work done by the gas is Kx 2
2
6. For an equi-molar gaseous mixture of argon and oxygen (P = Gas sample pressure)
(A) Isothermal bulk modulus is P
(B) Isothermal bulk modulus is 1.5 P
(C) Adiabatic bulk modulus is P
(D) Adiabatic bulk modulus is 1.5 P
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 4
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
2 gm/sec,
Spray
water
0 o
C,50gm H cal./sec,
8. A solid cube of side a, density d and specific heat ‘s’ is at temperature 400 K. It is placed in an
ambient temperature of 200 K. Take : a = 0.9 m, d 4.8 103 Kg/m3 ,s 2.0 103 J/kg/K,
Stefan’s constant 6 10 8 W/K 4 m2 . Consider the cube to be a black body. If the time for
the temperature of the cube to drop by 5 K is 1000(X) seconds, find X in nearest integer.
9. The degree of freedom per molecule for a gas is 6. At constant pressure work done by gas is
25 J. The heat supplied to the gas for this purpose is 25x Joule then x is:
of oscillations is 2
k 2
3 R
. Find the value of k (axis
R
kg
of cylinder is fixed and horizontal).
11. A rope, under tension of 200 N and fixed at both ends, oscillates in a second harmonic standing
wave pattern. The displacement of the rope is given by
x
y 0.10 m sin sin 12t , where x = 0 at one end of the rope, x is in meters and t is in
3
seconds. Find the length of the rope in meters.
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5 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
12. The velocity of liquid (v) in steady flow at a location through cylindrical pipe is given by
r2
v v0 1 2 . Where r is the radial distance of that location from the axis of the pipe and R is
R
the inner radius of pipe. If R = 10 cm, volume flow rate through the pipe is / 2 10 2 m3 s 1 and
the coefficient of viscosity of the liquid is 0.75 N sm-2, find the magnitude of the viscous force per
unit area, in Nm2 at r = 4 cm.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
14. A black metal container of negligible heat capacity is filled with water. The container has sides of
length 10 cm. It is placed in an evacuated chamber at 27o C. How long will it take for the
temperature of water to change from 30o C to 29o C. (in minutes)
15. A mass M attached to a spring with a period of 2 sec. If the mass is increased by 2 kg. The
period increases by one second find the initial mass M in kg.
16. An open organ pipe filled with air has a fundamental frequency of 500 Hz. The first harmonic of
another organ pipe closed at one end and filled with CO2 has the same frequency as that of the
first harmonic of the open organ pipe calculate the length of closed organ pipe. The velocity of
sound in air and CO2 are 300 m/s and 264 m/s respectively (in cm).
17. What force (N) must be applied to detach two wetted photographic plates 9 12 cm2 in size
from each other without shifting them? The thickness of the water layer between the plates is
0.05 mm and wetting is complete.
18. A satellite moves in an elliptical orbit around the earth. It was put in the orbit at a point with a
speed 1.2 V, where V is the speed for a circular orbit at that point. Find the distance of maximum
to minimum distance of satellite from the earth.
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 6
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
(B)
(C)
H2C CH
(D)
21. When an inorganic compound (X) having 3c-2e as well as 2c-2e bonds reacts with ammonia gas
at a certain temperature, gives a compound (Y) iso-structural with benzene. Compound (X) with
ammonia at a high temperature, produces a hard substance (Z). Then
(A) (X) is B2H6
(B) (Z) is known as inorganic graphite
(C) (Z) having structure similar to graphite
(D) (Z) having structure similar to (X)
AgNO3
A
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7 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
25. Number of following nitrates gives the same gaseous products on thermal decomposition?
KNO3 ,Pb(NO3 )2 , NaNO3 , Cu(NO3 )2 ,LiNO3 ,Ca(NO3 )2 , Ba(NO3 )2
CH3
26. How many products are formed by the nitration of compound?
CH3
27. How many methods can be used for the preparation of the isopropyl benzene?
H2SO4 CH3
H2SO4
(i) Benzene H3C (ii) Benzene H3C
CH2 Cl
CH3 AlCl
3
(iii) Benzene H3C AlCl3
(iv) Benzene H3C
Cl Cl
CH3
H2SO4
(v) Benzene H3C C CH2
28. Out of the following how many groups are meta directing?
(i) – COOH (ii) – CN (iii) – COCH3 (iv) – NHCOCH3
29. How many methods can be used for the preparation of iodobenzene?
(i) C6H6 I2 (ii) C2H6 I2
HNO3
(iii) C6H5N2 Cl KI (iv) C6H6 HI
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 8
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
31. A metal M readily forms water soluble sulphate, and water insoluble hydroxide M(OH) 2. Its oxide
MO is amphoteric, hard and having high melting point. Atomic mass of the alkaline earth metal
M is
32. How many cyclopentane structures (including stereo) are possible for C7H14?
33. 0.205 g of an organic compound on complete combustion gave 0.66 g of CO2 and 0.225 g of
water. The mass of 68 ml of its vapour at 100 C and 750 mm of pressure was found to be 0.18 g.
Find the %age of Carbon in the given organic compound.
34. How many grams of calcium oxide required to neutralize 852 g of P4O10?
35. Hydrogen peroxide solution (20 ml) reacts with a solution of KMnO 4(20 ml) acidified with dil.
H2SO4 The same volume of KMnO4 solution is just decolorised by 10 ml of MnSO4 in neutral
medium simultaneously forming a dark brown ppt. of hydrated MnO 2. The Brown ppt. dissolved
in 10 ml of 0.2 sodium oxalate in in the presence of dil. H2SO4. find the Molarity of H2O2.
36. Electrolysis of molten MgCl2 in the final production step in the isolation of magnesium from sea
water by Dow’s process assuming that 35.6 g of Mg forms. Find the number of moles of electrons
are required.
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9 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – A
(One or More than one correct type)
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has FOUR options (A), (B), (C) and
(D). ONE OR MORE THAN ONE of these four options is(are) correct.
sin4 x cos 4 x 1
37. If , then which of the following holds good?
3 5 8
5
(A) tan2 x
3
3
(B) tan2 x
5
sin6 x cos6 x 1
(C)
9 25 64
6 6
sin x cos x 1
(D)
9 25 8
sec 2
38. The value of in the interval , satisfying the equation 3 tan4 2 tan2 :
2 2
(A)
4
(B)
4
(C)
(D) None of these
39. Let a1,a2 ,a3 ,............and b1,b 2 ,b3 ............ be arithmetic progressions such that a1 25, b1 75
and a100 b100 100. Then:
(A) the difference between successive terms in progression ‘a’ is opposite of the difference in
progression ‘b’
(B) an bn 100 for any n.
(C) a1 b1 , a2 b2 , a3 b3 ,.......... are in A.P.
100
(D) a
r 1
r br 10000
2
40. Let cis , 6 , 7 , 2 ,then :
11
1
(A)
Re 2 3 4 5 2
(B)
2
3
......
9 10 0
(C) i i i ....... i i
2 3 10
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AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022 10
n
r n
n2 3n 3
41. If
r 0
n
Cr r 0 2.n Cr
then n can be:
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) None of these
42. Internal bisector of A of a triangle ABC meets side BC at D.A line drawn through D
perpendicular to AD intersects the side AC at E and the side AB at F. If a, b, c represent sides of
ABC, then:
(A) AE is harmonic mean of b and c
2bc A
(B) AD cos
bc 2
4bc A
(C) EF sin
bc 2
(D) the triangle AEF is isosceles
SECTION – B
(Single Digit Integer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a Single Digit integer ranging from
0 to 9, both inclusive.
43. 1 cot1 1 cot 2 1 cot 3 ... 1 cot 44 2 . If n 10k k and k N, then k =
0 0 0 0 n
44. The number of pairs of integer (x, y) that satisfy the following two equations:
cos(xy) x
is:
tan(xy) y
sin(nx) a b b
1 abc
45. If
n0
3 n
c
and sin x where 0 x , then the value of
3 2 8
, where a, b, c
20
a7
ar x r , then the value of
10
46. Let 2x 2 3x 4 is:
r 0 a13
47. No. of ways in which 38808 can be expressed as a product to two co-prime factors are:
1 1 1
48. If 3 a 4 b 5 c where a, b, c are positive numbers and ab + bc + ca = 1, then
a b c
1 a 2
1 b 2
1 c
2
5 ..........
1 a 2
1 b 2
1 c2
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11 AIITS-PT-II (Paper-2)-PCM-JEE (Advanced)/2022
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 06 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the SECOND
DECIMAL PLACE; e.g. XXXXX. XX).
49. If xi ,i 1,2,3,4 be four real numbers of same sign, then the minimum value of
4 4 a a
2 2
j 1 i 1
i
aia j
j
,i, j 1,2,3,4,i j is:
360 1
50. k is the ratio of two relative prime positive integers m and n. The value of
k 1 k 1
k 1 k
(m + n) is equal to:
52. In ABC, A 600 , B 450 , c 5 and CM AB. A circle with CM as diameter cuts CA and CB at
c
Q and S respectively so that SQ
u u
, then 1 10 c 2 u3
A B C
53. If in ABC,1 2cos A cosB cos C cos A cosB, then 115 is________.
54. The number of ways in which 1111 can be written as the product of three factors.
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ALL INDIA INTEGRATED TEST SERIES
PART TEST – II
JEE (Main)-2022
General Instructions:
Each part has only three sections: Section-A, Section-B and Section-C.
Section-A (01 – 20, 26 – 45, 51 – 70) contains 60 multiple choice questions which have only one
correct answer. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong
answer.
Section-B (21 – 22, 46 – 47, 71 – 72) contains 6 Numerical based questions with answer as
numerical value from 0 to 9 and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no
negative marking.
Section-C (23 – 25, 48 – 50, 73 – 75) contains 9 Numerical answer type questions with answer
XXXXX.XX and each question carries +4 marks for correct answer. There is no negative marking.
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 2
Physics PART – I
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(A) F
T 112 2 22 A
1 2
Y1 Y2
(B) F
T 11 2 2 A
1 2
Y1 Y2
1 2
A
Y1 Y2
(C) F
11 2 2
T 1 2 A
(D) F 1 2
1Y1 2 Y2
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3 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
2T
(A) cos
r
Q
T
(B)
r cos
2T
(C)
r cos
4T
(D) cos
r
4. A liquid is kept in a cylindrical vessel which is being rotated about a vertical axis through the
centre of the circular base. If the radius of the vessel is r and angular velocity of rotation is , then
the difference in the heights of the liquid at the centre of the vessel and the edge is:
r
(A)
2g
r 2 2
(B)
2g
(C) 2gr
2
(D)
2gr 2
5. A uniform solid brass sphere is rotating with angular speed o about a diameter. If its temperature
is now increased by 100oC, what will be its new angular speed? (Given B 2.0 10 5 / o C )
(A) 1.10
(B) 1.010
(C) 0.9960
(D) 0.820
6. An electric heater is placed inside a room of total wall area 137m 2 and maintained at a
temperature 20oC inside, outside temperature –10oC. the walls are made up of three composite
materials. Innermost layer is made up of wood of thickness 2.5 cm, middle layer is of cement of
thickness 1 cm and the exterior layer is 25 cm thick. Assuming there is no loss of heat through
any other way, the power of electric heater is [the thermal conductivity of wood = 0.125 W/m2oC,
cement = 1.5 W/m2oC and brick = 1 W/m2oC]:
(A) 9000 W
(B) 8500 W
(C) 8800 W
(D) 9400 W
7. If a particle is fired vertically upwards from the surface of earth and reaches a height of 6400 km,
the initial velocity of the particle is (Assume R = 6400 km and g = 10 m s –2):
(A) 4 km/sec
(B) 2 km/sec
(C) 8 km/sec
(D) 16 km/sec
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 4
8. Ice starts freezing in a lake with water at 0oC when the atmospheric temperature is –10oC. If the
time taken for 1 cm of ice to be formed is 12 minutes, the time taken for the thickness of the ice to
change from 1 cm to 2 cm will be
(A) 12 minutes
(B) Less than 12 minutes
(C) More than 12 minutes but less than 24 minutes
(D) More than 24 minutes
(B) 2P0 V0
2 P0 O
P0 V0
(C)
2 P0 D
(D) Zero A
V
V0 2V0
10. The temperature of an isolated black body falls from T1 to T2 in time t. Let C be a constant. Then
1
(A) t C T1
T2
1 1
(B) t C 2 2
T2 T1
1 1
(C) t C 3 3
T
2 T1
1 1
(D) t C 4 4
T2 T1
11. An ideal heat engine working between temperatures T H and TL has efficiency . If both the
temperatures are raised by 100 K each, the new efficiency of the heat engine will be
(A) Equal to
(B) Greater than
(C) Less than
(D) Greater or less than depending upon the nature of the working substance
12. A particle executing SHM while moving from one extremity is found at distances x 1, x2 and x3 from
the centre at the end of three successive seconds. The time period of oscillation is
2
(A)
(B)
(C)
(D)
2
x x3
where cos1 1
2x 2
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5 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
13. One end of a spring of force constant k is fixed to a vertical wall and the other to a body of mass
m resting on a smooth horizontal surface. There is another wall at a distance x 0 from the body.
The spring is then compressed by 2x0 and released. The time taken to strike the wall is
x0
A B
2x0 C
k
(A)
6 m
k
(B)
m
2 m
(C)
3 k
k
(D)
4 m
25
14. An object of mass 0.2 kg executes simple harmonic motion along x-axis with frequency of
Hz. At the position x = 0.04 m, the object has a kinetic energy of 0.5 J and potential energy of
0.4 J. The amplitude of oscillation (in m) is equal to
(A) 0.05
(B) 0.06
(C) 0.01
(D) 0.03
15. Two equal masses m and m are hung from a balance whose scale pans differ in vertical height by
h. The error in weighing in terms of density of the earth is
(A) Gmh
1
(B) Gmh
3
8
(C) Gmh
3
4
(D) Gmh
3
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 6
18. A sonometer wire resonates with a given tuning fork forming standing waves with five antinodes
between the two bridges when a mass of 9 kg is suspended from the wire. When this mass is
replaced by a mass M, the wire resonates with the same tuning fork forming three antinodes for
the same positions of the bridges. The value of M is
(A) 25 kg
(B) 5 kg
(C) 12.5 kg
1
(D) kg
25
19. Two sound sources are moving in opposite directions with velocities v1 and v2 v1 v 2 . Both
are moving away from a stationary observer. The frequency of both the sources is 900 Hz. What
is the value of v1 v 2 so that the beat frequency observed by the observer is 6 Hz? Speed of
sound v = 300 m/s. Given that v1 and v 2 v .
(A) 1 m/s
(B) 2 m/s
(C) 3 m/s
(D) 4 m/s
20. The speed of longitudinal waves in a thin brass rod is 3480 m per second. If the rod is clamped
at one end and gives a fundamental frequency of 435 Hz, the length of the rod is
(A) 0.5 m
(B) 1.0 m
(C) 2.0 m
(D) 4.0 m
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
21. A concrete sphere of radius R has a cavity of radius r which is packed with sawdust. The specific
gravities of concrete and sawdust are respectively 2.4 and 0.3 for this sphere to flow with its
entire volume submerged under water. Ratio of mass of concrete to mass of sawdust will be
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7 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
22. In an industrial process 10 kg of water per hour is to be heated from 20oC to 80oC. To do this
steam at 150oC is passed from a boiler into a copper coil immersed in water. The steam
condenses in the coil and is returned to the boiler as water at 90oC. How many kg of steam is
required per hour? Sp. heat of steam = 1 cal per gm per oC, Lsteam = 540 cal/gm.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
23. A sample of ideal gas 1.4 is heated at constant pressure. If an amount of 100 J is supplied
to the gas, the work done by the gas is
24. The frequency of a sonometer wire is 100 Hz. When the weights producing the tension are
completely immersed in water the frequency becomes 80 Hz and on immersing the weights in a
certain liquid the frequency becomes 60 Hz. The specific gravity of the liquid is
25. A spherical bubble of air has a radius of 1 mm at the bottom of a tank full of water. As the bubble
rises it goes on becoming bigger and bigger. On reaching the surface the radius becomes 2 mm.
The depth of the tank (in m) is
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 8
Chemistry PART – II
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
(B)
CH NOH
(C) O
O
(D)
O
H
H H H H
Me CH3
(I) (II)
(A) Conformers
(B) Position
(C) Optical
(D) Geometrical
Cl
(B) CH3 CH NOH
(C)
(D) All
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9 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
31. C6H12(A) has chirality but on hydrogenation A is converted into C 6H14(B) in which chirality
disappears. Hence A is
(A) 3-Methyl-1-pentene
(B) 2- Methyl-2-pentene
(C) 2,3-dimethyl-2-butene
(D) 3, 3-dimethyl-1-butene
(B)
(C)
(D)
Cl2 H2 O
33. CCl3 CH CH2 A, A is
(A) HO
Cl
Cl 3C
(B) Cl
OH
Cl 3C
(C) Cl3C
Cl Cl
(D) Cl3C CH2
OH OH
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 10
34. Which of the following alkene has the slowest rate of hydrogenation?
(A) H3C
CH2
H3C
(B) CH3
H3C
(C)
H3C CH3
(D) CH3
H
H3PO4
35. CH3 CH CH2 'A'. A is
(A) CH3
H2C C CH3
H
(B) H3C
H3C C CH3
(B) NO 2
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11 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
(C) Cl
(D)
(A) Cl (B) Cl
O 2N NO 2 HO NO 2
NO 2 NO 2
(C) OH (D) OH
Cl NO 2 O 2N NO 2
NO 2
NO 2 NO 2
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 12
40. The three tribomobenzenes can be identified by the korner method. The number of mononitro
products of I, II and III tribromobenzenes are respectively.
Br Br Br
Br Br
Br Br Br
Br
41. A metal ‘M’ readily forms water soluble sulphate and water insoluble hydroxide, M(OH)2. Its oxide,
MO, is amphoteric, hard and possesses high melting point. The hydroxide is also amphoteric in
nature. The alkaline earth metal ‘M’ must be
(A) Be
(B) Mg
(C) Ca
(D) Ba
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13 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
50. An orange solid (X) on heating, gives a colourless gas (Y) and a only green residue (Z). Gas (Y)
on treatment with Mg, produces a white solid substance P. Find molar mass of final product (P).
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 14
SECTION – A
(One Options Correct Type)
This section contains 20 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and
(D), out of which ONLY ONE option is correct.
51. If the equation x 4 4x 3 ax 2 bx 1 0 has four positive roots, then the value of (a + b) is :
(A) -4
(B) 2
(C) 6
(D) can not be determined
1 1 1 1 1
53. Find the sum of the infinite series ......
9 18 30 45 63
1
(A)
3
1
(B)
4
1
(C)
5
2
(D)
3
54. The number of three digit number of the form xyz such that x < y and z y is:
(A) 156
(B) 204
(C) 240
(D) 276
55. A dice is rolled 4 times, the number appearing listed. The number of different throws, such that
the largest number appearing in the list is not 4, is:
(A) 175
(B) 625
(C) 1040
(D) 1121
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15 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
56. A batsman can score 0, 2, 3 or 4 runs for each ball he receivers. If N is the number of ways of
scoring a total of 20 runs in one over of six balls, then N is divisible by:
(A) 5
(B) 7
(C) 14
(D) 16
If 1 x
2010
57. C0 C1x C2 x 2 ....... C2010 x 2010 , then the sum of series
C2 C5 C8 ........ C2009 equals to :
1
(A)
2
2 2010
1
1
(B)
3
2 2010
1
1
(C)
2
2 2009
1
1
(D)
3
2 2009
1
58. 26
C0 26 C1 26 C2 ....... 26 C13 is equal to :
1
(A) 225 . 26 C13
2
1
(B) 2 . 26 C13
25
2
(C) 213
1
(D) 226 . 26 C13
2
n
59. Let represents the combination of ‘n’ things taken ‘k’ at a time, then the value of the sum
k
99 98 97 3 2
..... equals:
97 96 95 1 0
99
(A)
97
100
(B)
96
99
(C)
98
100
(D)
97
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 16
62. Let x
1
x
2 i where i 1 . Then the value of x 2187
x
1
2187
is :
(A) i 2
(B) i 2
(C) –2
i
(D)
2
63. Let P and Q be two points on the circle |w| = r represented by w1 and w2 respectively, then the
complex number representing the point of intersection of the tangents at P and Q is
w 1w 2
(A)
2 w1 w 2
2w 1w 2
(B)
w1 w 2
2w 1w 2
(C)
w1 w 2
2w 1w 2
(D)
w1 w 2
64. If z1,z2 ,z3 are complex number, such than |z1| =2, |z2| = 3, |z3| = 4, then maximum value of
| z1 z2 |2 | z 2 z 3 |2 | z3 z1 |2 is :
(A) 58
(B) 29
(C) 87
(D) None of these
65. If all values of x a,b satisfy the inequality tanx tan3x < - 1, x 0, , then the maximum
2
b a is:
(A)
12
(B)
3
(C)
6
(D)
4
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17 AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022
sin A 3 cos A 5
66. If and ,0 A,B then tan A + tan B is equal to :
sinB 2 cosB 2 2
3
(A)
5
5
(B)
3
3 5
(C)
5
3 5
(D)
3
67. The number of solution of the equation 4 sin2 x tan2 x cot 2 x cos esc 2 x 6 in 0,2 :
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 3
(D) 4
A C 1
68. In a triangle ABC, if tan tan and ac = 4, then the least value of b is :
2 2 3
(notation have their usual meaning)
(A) 1
(B) 2
(C) 4
(D) 6
a b c b c a c a b a b c
69. The expression is equal to :
4b 2 c 2
(A) cos2 A
(B) sin2 A
(C) cos A cosBcosB
(D) sin A sin B sin C
(where symbols used have usual meanings)
70. Two ships leave a port at the same time. One goes 24 km/h in the direction North 45o East and
other travels 32 km/h in the direction South 75 o East. The distance between the ships at the end
of 3 h is approximately.
(A) 81.4 km
(B) 82 km
(C) 85 km
(D) 86.5 km
SECTION – B
(Single digit integer type)
This section contains 02 questions. The answer to each question is a single Digit integer ranging from 0
to 9, both inclusive.
71. Number of ways in which the letter of the word DECISIONS be arranged so that letter N be
9
somewhere to the right of the letter “D” is . Find .
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AIITS-PT-II-PCM-JEE(Main)/2022 18
72. Complex number z1 and z2 satisfy z z 2 | z 1|and arg z1 z 2 . Then the value of
4
lm z1 z 2 is:
SECTION – C
(Numerical Answer Type)
This section contains 03 questions. The answer to each question is a NUMERICAL VALUE. For each
question, enter the correct numerical value (in decimal notation, truncated/rounded-off to the second
decimal place; e.g. XXXXX.XX).
3
73. In ABC, tan A = 2, tan B = and c 65 , then circumradius of the triangle is:
2
74. In a triangle ABC with altitude AD, BAC 45o ,DB 3 and CD = 2. The area of the triangle ABC
is
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FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. Each Section is further divided into Two Parts: Part-A & B in the OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(i) Part-A (08-13) – Contains six (06) multiple choice questions which have ONLY ONE CORRECT answer
Each question carries +3 marks for correct answer and -1 marks for wrong answer.
(ii) Part-B (01-05) contains five (05) Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries
+3 marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
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website: www.fiitjee.com.
022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-2
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1. Cv and Cp denote the molar specific heat capacities of a gas at constant volume and constant
pressure, respectively. Then
(A) Cp Cv is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monoatomic ideal gas.
(B) Cp + Cv is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monoatomic ideal gas.
(C) Cp/Cv is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monoatomic ideal gas.
(D) Cp. Cv is larger for a diatomic ideal gas than for a monoatomic ideal gas.
2. The displacement of a particle of mass 100 gm from its mean position is given by
y = 0.05 sin 4 (5t + 0.4). Then
(A) the time period of motion is 0.1 s.
(B) the maximum acceleration of the particle is 10 2 m/s2.
2
(C) Total energy of oscillation of the particle is 0.05 joule.
(D) the force acting on the particle is zero when displacement is 0.05 m.
3. A linear harmonic oscillator of force constant 2 106 Nm–1 has a total mechanical energy of 160 J. Its:
(A) maximum potential energy is 100 J. (B) maximum kinetic energy may 160 J.
(C) maximum potential energy is 160 J. (D) minimum potential energy is zero.
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-3
6. For a certain stretched string, three consecutive resonance frequencies are observed as 105, 175,
245 Hz respectively. Then select the correct alternative (s)
(A) the string is fixed at both ends
(B) the string is fixed at one end only
(C) the fundamental frequency is 35 Hz
(D) the fundamental frequency is 52.5 Hz
7. In case of earth:
(A) Potential is minimum at the centre of earth.
(B) Potential is same, both at centre and infinity but not zero.
(C) Potential is zero, both at centre and infinity
(D) Field is zero, both at centre and infinity
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
9. Young’s moduli of two wires A and B are in the ratio 7 : 4. Wire A is 2 m long and has radius R. Wire
B is 1.5 m long and has radius 2 mm. If the two wires stretch by the same length for a given load, then
the value of R is close to:
(A) 1.3 mm (B) 1.5 mm
(C) 1.7 mm (D) 1.9 mm
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-4
12. If the angular momentum of a planet of mass m, moving around the Sun in a circular orbit is L, about
the center of the Sun, its areal velocity is:
L 4L
(A) (B)
m m
L 2L
(C) (D)
2m m
13. A cylinder of radius R is surrounded by a cylindrical shell of inner radius R and outer radius 2R. The
thermal conductivity of the material of the inner cylinder is K1 and that of the outer cylinder is K2.
Assuming no loss of heat, the effective thermal conductivity of the system for heat flowing along the
length of the cylinder is:
K1 K 2
(A) (B) K1 K 2
2
2K1 3K 2 K1 3K 2
(C) (D)
5 4
This section contains 05 questions. Numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or
negative numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30) and each question carries +3
marks for correct answer and there will be no negative marking.
1. Two satellites, A and B, have masses m and 2m respectively. A is in a circular orbit of radius R, and B
10k
is in a circular orbit of radius 2R around the earth. The ratio of their kinetic energies, TA/TB, is .
20
Find the value of k.
2. A solid sphere of radius R has a mass m distributed in its volume with a mass density = kra, where k
and a are constants and r is the distance from its centre. If gravitational field at r = R/2 is 1/8 times
that at r = R, find the value of a.
3. When an ideal diatomic gas is heated at constant pressure, the fraction of the heat energy supplied
5
which increases the internal energy of the gas is . Find the value of x.
10x
4. A particle executes simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 5 cm. When the particle is at 4 cm
from the mean position, the magnitude of its velocity is SI units is equal to that of its acceleration.
10k
Then, its periodic time in seconds is . Find the value of k.
3
5. A closed organ pipe has a fundamental frequency of 1.5 kHz. The number of overtones that can be
distinctly heard by a person with this organ pipe will be k. Find the value of 10k. (Assume that the
highest frequency a person can hear is 20,000 Hz)
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-5
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
2. Enol isomer of which of the following forms six membered stable ring through intramolecular
H-bonding?
O
||
(A) CH3 CH2 NO 2 (B) CH3 CH2 C H
O
O
O O C H
|| ||
(C) CH3 C CH2 C CH3 (D)
3. In a pair of diastereomers,
(A) Both can be laevo-rotatory or both can be dextro-rotatory
(B) Both can be optically inactive
(C) One can be optically active other can be optically inactive
(D) Presence of two chiral carbons is must in both of the isomer
4. In which of the following pair(s), the first one is more stable than the second ?
(A) C6H5 — CH2 , CH2 CH — CH 2
(B) CH3 — CH2 , CH2 CH
CH3 CH3
CH2 CH2 | |
(C) , (D) CH3 CH C CH3 , CH3 N C CH3
| |
CH3 CH3
O
5. Which of the following have larger C—O bond length than C═O bond length of CH3 C CH3 ?
O O
(A) (B)
O
O
(C) (D)
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-6
NH2 NHC6C5
(C) (D)
O
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
8. Arrange the following compounds in increasing order of length of their C—N bond.
NH2 CH2 NH2 O
(I) (II) (III) CH3 CH NH (IV) CH3 C NH2
(A) IV < III < I < II (B) I < IV < III < II
(C) III < IV < I < II (D) IV < I < III < II
NO 2 F Cl
(A) IV < III < I < II (B) II < III < IV < I
(C) IV < III < II < I (D) I < II < III < IV
H3C H
CCl4
11. C C Cl2 Product
H CH3
Number of product is
(A) 2 (B) 1
(C) 4 (D) 3
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-7
(A) (B)
(C) (D)
NO 2
Br
(A) (B)
Br
NO 2
O 2N
(C) (D) O 2N Br
Br
This section contains 05 questions. The answer to each question is a single-digit integer, ranging from 0 to
9. The correct digit below the question number in the OMR is to be bubbled.
4. How many different isomeric alkynes on catalytic hydrogenation can give 2,3,4-trimethyl heptane?
5. An aromatic compound has molecular formula C7H8O. How many isomers are possible for this
compound with a phenyl ring in each of them?
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-8
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
6
m 1 m
1. For 0 < <
2
, the solution(s) of cosec
m1
4
cosec
4 2 is(are)
4
(A) (B)
4 6
5
(C) (D)
12 12
2 2
2. The solution of the equation 3sin 2x 2cos x
31sin 2x 2 sin x
28
(A) (2n + 1) , n I (B) n , n I
2 4
(C) 2n (D) none of these
1
3. Let a, b and a2 + b2 0. Suppose S z : z , t , t 0 , where i 1 .
a ibt
If z = x + iy and z S, then (x, y) lies on
1 1
(A) the circle with radius and centre , 0 for a > 0, b 0
2a 2a
1 1
(B) the circle with radius and centre 2a , 0 for a < 0, b 0
2a
(C) the x-axis for a 0, b = 0
(D) the y-axis for a = 0, b 0
a b c
4. If a, b, c are the sides of a triangle then can take value(s)
c ab abc bc a
(A) 1 (B) 2
(C) 3 (D) 4
6. If z1, z2 be two complex numbers (z1 z2) satisfying z12 z22 z12 z22 2z1z2 , then
(A) |arg z1 – arg z2| = (B) |arg z1 – arg z2| =
2
z1 z1
(C) is purely imaginary (D) is purely real
z2 z2
7. The number of ways of choosing triplet (x, y, z) such that z max{x, y} and x, y, z {1, 2, …, n, n + 1}
is
n+1 n+2 1
(A) C3 + C3 (B) n(n + 1)(2n + 1)
6
(C) 12 + 22 + … + n2 (D) 2(n + 2C3) – n + 1C2
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-9
This section contains 06 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2n 2n 1
8. Let the coefficients of xn in 1 x and 1 x be P and Q respectively then
(A) P = Q (B) 2P = Q
(C) P = 2Q (D) none of these
9. A seven digit number without repetition and divisible by 9 is to be formed by using 7 digits out of 1, 2,
3, 4, 5, 6, 7, 8, 9. The number of ways in which this can be done is;
(A) 9! (B) 2 (7!)
(C) 4 (7!) (D) none of these
10. In a triangle ABC, C = 120. If h be the harmonic mean of the lengths of the sides BC and CA, then
the length of the bisector of BCA is
h
(A) h (B)
2
h 3
(C) (D) h
2 2
x 1 2y
11. If x, y > 0, then the range of sin1 sin 2
is
1 x2 1 y
(A) [0, ] (B) (– , ]
2 2
(C) 0, (D) 0,
3 3
13. The mean of the data set comprising of 16 observations is 16. If one of the observation valued 16 is
deleted and three new observations valued 3, 4 and 5 are added to the data, then the mean of the
resultant data, is
(A) 16.0 (B) 15.8
(C) 14.0 (D) 16.8
This section contains six (05) numerical based questions, the answer of which maybe positive or negative
numbers or decimals (e.g. 6.25, 7.00, -0.33, -.30, 30.27, -127.30)
1. The number of ways in which 420 can be resolved into three positive factors other than unity and
having L.C.M. 420 is
4. A triangle ABC is inscribed in a circle of radius 1 and centre at O. The lines AO, BO, CO meet the
1 1 1
opposite sides at D, E, F. Then is equal to
AD BE CF
9 9
2
5. If xi 5 9
i1
and x 5
i 1
i 45 , then the standard deviation of the 9 items x1, x2 , …… , x9 is
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-1-PCM(000000.1)-10
ANSWERS
PHYSICS (SECTION –I)
1. B, D 2. A, C 3. B, C 4. C, D
5. A, C 6. B, C 7. A, D 8. A
9. C 10. C 11. D 12. C
13. D 1. 0.20 2. 2.00 3. 0.70
4. 0.80 5. 0.60
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FIITJEE – Phase Test (JEE-Advanced)
PHYSICS, CHEMISTRY & MATHEMATICS
Pattern - CPT-1 QP Code: PAPER - 2
Time Allotted: 3 Hours Maximum Marks: 183
Please read the instructions carefully. You are allotted 5 minutes specifically for
BATCH – 022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 LOT PH–III
this purpose.
You are not allowed to leave the Examination Hall before the end of the test.
INSTRUCTIONS
Caution: Question Paper CODE as given above MUST be correctly marked in the answer
OMR sheet before attempting the paper. Wrong CODE or no CODE will give wrong results.
A. General Instructions
1. Attempt ALL the questions. Answers have to be marked on the OMR sheets.
2. This question paper contains Three Sections.
3. Section-I is Physics, Section-II is Chemistry and Section-III is Mathematics.
4. All the section can be filled in PART-A of OMR.
5. Rough spaces are provided for rough work inside the question paper. No additional sheets will be
provided for rough work.
6. Blank Papers, clip boards, log tables, slide rule, calculator, cellular phones, pagers and electronic
devices, in any form, are not allowed.
(iii) Part-A (15-18) - This section contains Two paragraphs. Based on each paragraph, there are Two multiple
choice questions. Each question has only one correct answer and carries +3 marks for the correct answer
and -1 marks for wrong answer.
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website: www.fiitjee.com.
022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-2
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– II :: P
PHHY
YSSIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
1. The figure shows the P-V plot of an ideal gas taken through a cycle P
ABCDA. The part ABC is a semi-circle and CDA is half of an ellipse. Then, A
3
(A) the process during the path A B is isothermal
(B) heat flows out of the gas during the path B C D 2 B
D
(C) work done during the path A B C is zero 1
C
(D) positive work is done by the gas in the cycle ABCDA
0
1 2 3 V
2. If force (F) versus displacement (x) and displacement (x) versus time graph of a particle performing
SHM is shown in figure. Then choose correct statement
160
(A) mass of the particle kg
2
(B) mass of the particle 160 π2 kg
(C) maximum kinetic energy of particle is 80 J
(D) maximum kinetic energy of particle is 40 J
3. Two satellites of same mass of a planet in circular orbits have periods of revolutions 32 days and 256
days. If the orbital radius of the first is R, then
(A) the kinetic energy of the second is less than that of the first
(B) the total mechanical energy of the second is greater than that of the first
(C) Radius of the orbit of second is 4R
(D) Radius of the orbit of second is 8R
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-3
6. Two spherical planets have the same mass but densities in the ratio 1 : 8. For these planets, the
(A) acceleration due to gravity will be in the ratio 4 : 1
(B) acceleration due to gravity will be in the ratio 1 : 4
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
8. A musician using an open flute of length 50 cm produces second harmonic sound waves.
A person runs towards the musician from another end of a hall at a speed of 10 km/h. If the wave
speed is 330 m/s, the frequency heard by the running person shall be close to:
(A) 666 Hz (B) 753 Hz
(C) 500 Hz (D) 333 Hz
9. The length of a sonometer wire AB is 110 cm. Where should the two bridges be placed from A to
divide the wire in three segments whose fundamental frequencies are in the ratio of
1:2:3?
(A) 30 cm, 90 cm (B) 60 cm, 90 cm
(C) 40 cm, 70 cm (D) None of these
10. A particle executes simple harmonic motion between x = –A and x = + A. The time taken by it to go
A A
from 0 to is T1 and to go from to A is T2. Then
2 2
T T2
(A) T1 T2 (B) 1
(C) T1 T2 (D) T1 2T2
11. A stationary source emits sound waves of frequency 500 Hz. Two observers moving along a line
passing through the source detect sound to be of frequencies 480 Hz and 530 Hz. Their respective
speeds are, in ms–1 (Given speed of sound = 300 m/s)
(A) 16, 14 (B) 12, 16
(C) 8, 18 (D) 12, 18
12. A block body is at a temperature 2880 K. The energy radiation emitted by this object with wavelength
between 499 nm and 500 nm is U1, between 999 mm and 1000 nm is U2 and between 1499 nm and
1500 nm is U3 then (Wien’s constant b = 2.88 106 nm-K)
(A) U 1 U 2 (B) U 2 U 1
(C) U1 0 (D) U 3 0
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-4
13. One mole of an ideal monatomic gas is taken from temperature T0 to 2T0 by the process
PT–4 = C. Considering the following statements. Choose the correct alternative.
3R
I. Molar heat capacity of the gas is
2
3R
II. Molar heat capacity of the gas is
2
III. Work done is 3RT0
IV. Work done is 3RT0
(A) Statements I and IV are correct. (B) Statements I and III are correct.
(C) Statements II and IV are correct. (D) Statements II and III are correct.
14. Two waves having the intensities in the ratio of 9 : 1 produce interference. The ratio of maximum to
minimum intensity is equal to
(A) 10 : 8 (B) 9 : 1
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 2 : 1
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
Four particles, each of mass m, are situated at the vertices of a square of side A a B
length a. The only forces acting on the particles are their mutual gravitational
forces. It is desired that each particle moves in a circle while maintaining the a a
original mutual separation a.
Then answer the following questions.
D a C
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-5
A fixed thermally conducting cylinder has a radius R and height L0. The cylinder is 2R
open at its bottom and has a small hole at its top. A piston of mass M is held at a
distance L from the top surface, as shown in the figure. The atmospheric pressure L
is P0.
L0
17. The piston is now pulled out slowly and held at a distance 2L from the top.
The pressure in the cylinder between its top and the piston will then be
P
(A) P0 (B) 0
2 Piston
P0 Mg P0 Mg
(C) (D)
2 R 2 2 R2
18. While the piston is at a distance 2L from the top, the hole at the top is sealed. The piston is then
released, to a position where it can stay in equilibrium. In this condition, the distance of the piston
from the top is
2P R2 P R2 Mg
(A) 2 0 2L (B) 0 2L
R P Mg R2P
0 0
P0 R2 Mg P0 R2
(C)
R2P 2L R P Mg
(D) 2 2L
0 0
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-6
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIII :: C
CHHE
EMMIIS
STTR
RYY
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
3. Which of the following sets of reagent when applied sequentially, on 2-butyne will produce a meso
product ?
(A) H2 Pt (B) Na/NH3(l) then Br2/CCl4
(C) Pd/BaSO4/H2 then Br2 - CCl4 (D) Pd/BaSO4/H2 then OsO4/NaHSO3
4. Which of the following will evolve hydrogen gas on heating with potassium metal?
(A) (B)
(C) (D
6. In which of the following reaction, the Kolbe’s electrolysis product is correctly mentioned?
COOK
Electrolysis
(A)
COOK
(B) Electrolysis
KOOC COOK
COOK Electrolysis
(C) COOK
Electrolysis
(D) CH3 CH2 CH COOK
CH3
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-7
7. Which of the following cannot be the product for the following reaction ?
CH3
Mg/Et2 O D2 O
Product
Br
CH3
H3C
OH
(A) (B)
CH3
H3C MgBr
(C) (D)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
2
N
1
H
(A) 3 (B) 2
(C) 2 and 3 equally (D) 1
OH O
(A) (B)
O O
(C) (D
11. Which compound below has maximum tendency to form a salt when treated with HBr ?
O O
(A) (B)
(C) O (D)
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-8
Cl CF3
(A) (B)
CF 3 Cl Cl
Cl
Cl CF 3
CF3
(C) (D)
Cl Cl
The addition of bromine to cyclopentene provides evidence for bromonium ion immediate in bromine addition.
It follows ionic mechanism. When cyclopentene reacts with bromine in presence of CCl4 anti addition occurs
and gives trans isomer so addition of halogen to an alkene is a stereospecific reaction. cis alkene on addition
with halogen gives racemic mixture and trans alkene on addition may give meso products.
H3 C H
HOCl
15. A
H CH3
The first step in this reaction is
(A) attack of hydroxonium ion (B) attack of chloronium ion
(C) attack of proton (D) None
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-9
Amide is a conuugated system, exhibit resonance. Following are formamide and structures that bear some
relationship to the Lewis structure of formamide.
H
+
O O OH O O
C H C H C C C H
H N H N H N H N H N
H H H H H
(I) (II) (III) (IV) (V)
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-10
S
SEEC
CTTIIO
ONN –– IIIIII :: M
MAAT
THHE
EMMA
ATTIIC
CSS
PART – A: (Multi Correct Answer Type)
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONE OR MORE may be correct.
2. In a triangle, the lengths of the two larger sides are 10 and 9, respectively. If the angles are in A.P.,
the length of the third side can be
(A) 5 6 (B) 3 3
(C) 5 (D) 5 6
2 2 2
4. If z1 and z2 are two non-zero complex numbers such that z1 z 2 z1 z2 , then
z1 z1
(A) is purely real (B) is purely imaginary
z2 z2
z z
(C) z1z2 z1z2 0 (D) arg 1 arg 1 0
z2 z2
n
5
5. For a positive integer n, if the expansion of 2 x 4 has a term independent of x, then n can be
x
(A) 18 (B) 21
(C) 27 (D) 99
1
6. If sin x + cos x = y , x [ 0, ], then
y
(A) x = /4 (B) y = 0
(C) y = 1 (D) x = 3/4
This section contains 07 multiple choice questions. Each question has four choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out
of which ONLY ONE is correct.
10
x 1 x 1
8. In the expansion of 2/3 1/3
1/2
, the term which does not contain x, is equal to
x x 1 x x
10 10
(A) C0 (B) C7
10
(C) C4 (D) none of these
9. If (1 + i) (1 + 2i) (1 + 3i) …..(1 + ni) = + i, then 2.5.10 …(1 + n2) is equal to
(A) i (B) 2 2
2 2
(C) + (D) none of these
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-11
10. A man X has 7 friends, 4 of them are ladies and 3 are men. His wife Y also has 7 friends, 3 of them
are ladies and 4 are men. Assume X and Y have no common friends. Then the total number of ways
in which X and Y together can throw a party inviting 3 ladies and 3 men, so that 3 friends of each of X
and Y are in this party, is:
(A) 485 (B) 468
(C) 469 (D) 484
11. The number of integers greater than 6,000 that can be formed, using the digits 3, 5, 6, 7 and 8,
without repetition, is
(A) 192 (B) 120
(C) 72 (D) 216
12. Let Tn be the number of all possible triangles formed by joining vertices of an n-sided regular polygon.
If Tn+1 Tn = 10, then the value of n is
(A) 5 (B) 10
(C) 8 (D) 7
–1
13. If 1 < x < 0, then sin x equals
x
(A) cos
–1
1 x2 (B) tan
–1
1 x2
1 x2
–1
(C) – cot x (D) cosec–1x
tan3x tan2x
14. The set of values of x for which 1 is
1 tan3x tan2x
(A) (B) {/4}
(C) {n + /4, n = 1, 2, 3, …} (D) {2n + /4, n = 1, 2, 3, …}
This section contains 2 paragraphs. Based upon the paragraphs 2 multiple choice questions have to be
answered. Each of these questions has 4 choices (A), (B), (C) and (D) out of which ONLY ONE is correct.
In argand plane |z| represent the distance of a point z from the origin. In general |z1 – z2| represent the
distance between two points z1 and z2. Also for a general moving point z in argand plane, if arg(z) = , then
z = |z|ei, where ei = cos + i sin
16. z1 and z2 are the two fixed points in the argand plane. For a moving point z if |z – z1| = |z – z2|, then
locus of z will be
(A) a straight line (B) circle
(C) hyperbola (D) none of these
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-12
Let n be a positive integer, such that (1 + x + x2)n = a0 + a1x + a2x2 + a3x3 + … a2nx2n, then
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022 A/B/W/R/X/T1 Lot-Ph-III-Paper-2-PCM(000000.1)-13
ANSWERS
PHYSICS (SECTION–I)
1. B, D 2. A, C 3. A, B, C 4. A, B, C, D
5. B, C 6. B, D 7. A, C 8. A
9. B 10. A 11. D 12. B
13. B 14. C 15. A 16. B
17. A 18. A
CHEMISTRY (SECTION–II)
1. A, B, D 2. A, B 3. B, D 4. A
5. A, C, D 6. A, B, D 7. A, B, D 8. B
9. B 10. D 11. C 12. C
13. A 14. C 15. B 16. D
17. D 18. C
MATHEMATICS (SECTION–III)
1. C, D 2. A, D 3. A, C 4. B, C, D
5. A, B, C, D 6. A, C 7. A, B, C 8. C
9. C 10. A 11. A 12. A
13. B 14. A 15. D 16. A
17. A 18. B
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