CODE-I

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MOCK Test for NEET-2024

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers
1. (2) 41. (3) 81. (2) 121. (1) 161. (2)
2. (3) 42. (1) 82. (4) 122. (4) 162. (4)
3. (2) 43. (2) 83. (2) 123. (4) 163. (2)
4. (1) 44. (2) 84. (1) 124. (2) 164. (2)
5. (4) 45. (3) 85. (4) 125. (3) 165. (2)
6. (2) 46. (3) 86. (2) 126. (1) 166. (2)
7. (1) 47. (3) 87. (3) 127. (4) 167. (4)
8. (1) 48. (4) 88. (4) 128. (3) 168. (4)
9. (2) 49. (2) 89. (3) 129. (4) 169. (3)
10. (3) 50. (1) 90. (2) 130. (4) 170. (3)
11. (1) 51. (3) 91. (3) 131. (3) 171. (4)
12. (3) 52. (3) 92. (2) 132. (2) 172. (1)
13. (4) 53. (2) 93. (4) 133. (1) 173. (3)
14. (3) 54. (2) 94. (3) 134. (3) 174. (2)
15. (1) 55. (4) 95. (4) 135. (4) 175. (2)
16. (1) 56. (4) 96. (1) 136. (3) 176. (4)
17. (2) 57. (2) 97. (3) 137. (2) 177. (3)
18. (3) 58. (2) 98. (1) 138. (4) 178. (3)
19. (3) 59. (1) 99. (2) 139. (2) 179. (2)
20. (2) 60. (2) 100. (4) 140. (4) 180. (1)
21. (4) 61. (1) 101. (2) 141. (2) 181. (3)
22. (3) 62. (2) 102. (3) 142. (3) 182. (1)
23. (2) 63. (4) 103. (4) 143. (3) 183. (4)
24. (1) 64. (1) 104. (4) 144. (1) 184. (1)
25. (3) 65. (2) 105. (2) 145. (4) 185. (1)
26. (1) 66. (1) 106. (1) 146. (2) 186. (4)
27. (1) 67. (1) 107. (2) 147. (1) 187. (4)
28. (2) 68. (1) 108. (1) 148. (4) 188. (3)
29. (2) 69. (1) 109. (2) 149. (1) 189. (3)
30. (4) 70. (2) 110. (3) 150. (2) 190. (2)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (2) 191. (3)
32. (2) 72. (2) 112. (2) 152. (4) 192. (3)
33. (4) 73. (3) 113. (3) 153. (4) 193. (3)
34. (2) 74. (3) 114. (1) 154. (1) 194. (1)
35. (2) 75. (2) 115. (2) 155. (4) 195. (3)
36. (1) 76. (3) 116. (1) 156. (3) 196. (2)
37. (4) 77. (4) 117. (3) 157. (2) 197. (4)
38. (3) 78. (3) 118. (3) 158. (3) 198. (2)
39. (2) 79. (2) 119. (4) 159. (2) 199. (4)
40. (4) 80. (4) 120. (2) 160. (4) 200. (2)

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(Code-I) Mock Test for NEET-2024

CODE-I

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MOCK Test for NEET-2024

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers & Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 6. Answer (2)
1. Answer (2) 1 mm of Hg = 133 Pa
The current changes its direction 2 times in a 7. Answer (1)
cycle.
9
2. Answer (3) F = C  + 32
L 5
tan60º =
R 9
F = 10  + 32 = 18 + 32
3 2fL 5
=
1 R °F = 50
3R 8. Answer (1)
L=
2f Q = W + Uf – Ui
3. Answer (2) – 10 × 4.2 = – 10 + Uf – 50
TL – TH = 6mg  120 – TH = 60  TH = 60 N Uf = – 10 × 4.2 + 10 + 50
At highest point :
= – 42 + 10 + 50
mv 2
TH + mg = Uf = 18 J
l
9. Answer (2)
mv 2
= 60 + mg A → B → C → A is a cyclic process.
l
 U = 0
v = 70 m s−1
Total work done in cycle = W = area (ABC)
4. Answer (1)
kx1 = 4mg 1 1
= AB  BC =  3  (10 − 8)  104
2 2
4mg
x1 = = 3 × 104 = 30 kJ
k
1  4 mg 
2 Now, Q = W = 30 = 30 kJ
P.E = k
2  k  10. Answer (3)
2 2
8m g
=
k
5. Answer (4)
1
Random error 
Number of times
experiment repeated

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-I)

E = E1 – E2 1 1 1
 = +
2  feq 10 20
= −
20 r 20 r
20  10 20
 feq = = cm
= 20 + 10 3
d
20 17. Answer (2)
2

=
0 d
11. Answer (1)

1·sini = sinr1
r1 + 60º = 90º
3
1 sin i = 3 sin30  sin i =
2
i = 60°
a 18. Answer (3)
R=
2 h 6.6  10 −34
For photon 1 = =
V =
4q p 10 −26
a
40 h 6.6  10−34
2 For particle  2 = =
mv 4.2  10−30  4  106
2q 1 4.2  10 −30  4  106
V= = = 1680
0a 2 10−26
12. Answer (3)
19. Answer (3)
Transverse wave is reflected from a rigid support.
From conservation of linear momentum
Then change in phase on reflection will be  rad.
m1v1 = m2v2
13. Answer (4)
m1 v 2 8
m = =
T = 2 m2 v1 27
k
r13 8
k1 = 4k
3
=
r2 27
m
T1 = 2
k1 r1 2
=
r2 3
m
= 2 20. Answer (2)
4k
D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased
T
= 10  10
2 RAB = +5
10 + 10
14. Answer (3)
= 5 + 5 = 10 
E = h
21. Answer (4)
13.2  10−16
 = dV 0.85 − 0.75
6.6  10–34 Rd = =
di (6 − 2)  10 −3
= 2 × 1018 Hz
100
15. Answer (1) = = 25 
The central fringe for the given arrangement will 4
always be bright. 22. Answer (3)
16. Answer (1) Current throughout the conductor remains same.
1 1 1 i
= + Current density (J) =
feq f1 f2 A

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(Code-I) Mock Test for NEET-2024

Since area is increasing, therefore current density 30. Answer (4)

will decrease from P to Q. dv
a= = 6 + 18 t  aat t = 2 = 42 cm/s2 = 0.42 m/s2
1 dt
I (constant) = neAVd  Vd 
A 31. Answer (4)
23. Answer (2) Since all the molecules have their velocity in
Applying KVL in upper branch random direction hence the average velocity sums
30 up to zero.
30 – i1 × 10 – i1 × 5 = 0  i1 = =2 A
15 32. Answer (2)
24. Answer (1) This is simple application of a couple.
Work done by magnetic field on a moving charge 33. Answer (4)
is always zero. Hence 20 J of work is done by
electric field only. If Fext = 0, ext may also be zero, thus
Wm 0 L = constant
 = =0
WE 20 Also, ext = 0 , Fext may also be zero, thus
25. Answer (3) p = constant
Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil is A body initially in general motion continues the
 Ni same in the absence of an external force and
B= 0 torque.
2R
26. Answer (1) 34. Answer (2)
Since magnetic field lines always form closed F [MLT −2 ]
loops, hence field lines entering into a closed Ig =  = [M0LT −2 ]
m [M]
surface is always equal to field lines exiting the
closed surface. 35. Answer (2)
27. Answer (1) Fl mgl
We know, Y = =
For case - 1  m2g – T = m2a1 and T = m1a1 Ax Ax
m2 g 3g (500)(4)(10) 20000
 m2g = m2a1 + m1a1  a1 = =  Y = =
m1 + m2 m1 + m2 (100  10−6 )(10−3 ) 10−7
For case - 2  m1g – T = m1a2 Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2
and T – m2g = m2a2  g(m1 – m2) = a2(m1 + m2) SECTION-B
g 36. Answer (1)
 a2 =  a1 > a2
m1 + m2 v = –v jˆ
B, C 2
28. Answer (2)
v A, g = v1iˆ
v 0 = u cos iˆ + u sin jˆ and v p = u cos iˆ
v C, g = v 0 iˆ
vQ = u cos iˆ − u sin jˆ
 v A, C = (v1 − v 0 )iˆ
(v )OP = u cos iˆ − u cos iˆ − u sin jˆ = −u sin jˆ
w.r.t. pulley or block C both A and B will have the
| (v )OP | = u sin  same magnitude of velocity  v1 – v0 = v2
( v )OQ = u cos iˆ − u sin jˆ − u cos iˆ − u sin jˆ = −2u sin jˆ  v1 –v2 = v0
| ( v )OQ | = 2u sin  37. Answer (4)
First [Bt2] = [x]
u 2 sin2
[x] [L]
g u 2  2  sin   cos   [B ] = = 2 = [LT −2 ]
v avg =  = u cos  2
[t ] [T ]
2u sin  2  u  sin 
g Now, [Ax2] = [U][x]
29. Answer (2) [ML2 T −2 ][L]
[ A] = = [MLT −2 ]
Velocity is given by slope of position time graph. [L2 ]
30 Hence, [AB] = [MLT–2] [LT–2]
 Slope = = 2 m/s
15 = [ML2T–4]

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-I)

38. Answer (3) 43. Answer (2)

=−
d
= −(3t 2 − 6t ) P = qaiˆ + 2qajˆ
dt
| P | = (qa )2 + (2qa )2
at t = 1 s
 = – (3 – 6) = 3 V = 5 qa
3 44. Answer (2)
i= A = 30 mA
100 a1 I
= 1 = 
39. Answer (2) a2 I2
P = Vrms Irms cos 2
 a1 
 + 1
( )
2
R
= Irms  | Z | Irms Imax
=
( a1 + a2 )
2
= 2
a  =
 +1
|Z|
(a1 − a2 )2  a
(  − 1)
2 2
Imin 
 − 1
1
P = Irms
2
R
 a2 
320 = 2 × 2 × R  R = 80   + 1+ 2 
=
I (R +  L ) = 200 V
2 2 2
 + 1− 2 
45. Answer (3)
R2 + XL2 = 100
• Velocity of light in vacuum is maximum
XL = 1002 − R2 • Frequency remain same while moving from
one medium to another.
= 1002 − 802
46. Answer (3)
= 3600

= 60 
40. Answer (4)
2T cos
h=
gr
h2 r1
= =2
h1 r2 A B C = A + B D = A ·C E = B ·C Y = D + E
0 0 1 1 1 0
h2 = 2h1
= 2 × 30 = 60 mm 0 1 0 1 1 0
41. Answer (3) 1 0 0 1 1 0
Difference of 100°C = Difference of 180°F 1 1 0 1 1 0
180 47. Answer (3)
Difference of 60°C =  60 = 108
100 n2
r = r0
42. Answer (1) z
(4)2
r = (0.53 Å)  = 4.24 Å
2
z2
Total energy = −13.6
n2
(2)2
= −13.6
(4)2

1 q2 = – 3.4 eV
U= Kinetic energy = – (T.E) = 3.4 eV
2C
2
Potential energy = 2(T.E) = – 6.8 eV
Q 
 + CV  48. Answer (4)
=  
1 2
l 2
2 C R= , where V is volume of wire
V
2
1 Q  R 2l R
= C +V  =   100 = 2 × 0.2 = 0.4 %
2  2C  R l R

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(Code-I) Mock Test for NEET-2024

49. Answer (2) 50. Answer (1)

v ˆ v ˆ v ˆ dL
We know, Ig = − i − j− k We know,  =
x y z dt
 (Ig)x = – [– 3y(2x) + 3y2(1)] = 6xy – 3y2  =
d
dt
(3t 2 − 4t + 2 )
at (1, 1) : (Ig)x = 3 N/kg
 = 6t – 4
and, (Ig)y = – [– 3x2 (1) + 3x(2y)] = 3x2 – 6xy
I [ (t = 2)] = (t = 2)
at (1, 1) : (Ig)y = – 3 N/kg I(16) = 12 – 4
 Ig = 32 + 32 = 3 2 N/kg I=
8
= 0.5 kg m2
16

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 57. Answer (2)

51. Answer (3) Element aH° (kJ mol–1)
Interstitial compounds are those which are formed Sc 326
when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside Mn 281
the crystal lattices of metals. Co 425
52. Answer (3) Zn 126
58. Answer (2)
500  0.1
Equivalents of H+ = = 0.05
1000
53. Answer (2) 200  0.2
Equivalents of OH– ions = = 0.04
1000
So, amount of heat evolved = 57.1 × 0.04
= 2.284 kJ
59. Answer (1)

54. Answer (2)

60. Answer (2)

Borax is Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O having tetra
nuclear unit [B4O5(OH)4]2–
61. Answer (1)
55. Answer (4) The reactions of tertiary alcohol is conducted by
⚫ 1 g atom of nitrogen = 1 mole of N so, simply shaking the alcohol with concentrated HCl
1 mole of N = 14 g of N and 11.2 L of N2 at at room temperature.
1 62. Answer (2)
STP = mole of N2 = 1 mole of N
2
⚫ But 6.02 × 1023 N2 molecules = 1 mole of
N2 = 2 mole of N
56. Answer (4)
Due to presence of different bulky groups at the
d 2 2 and d 2 orbital have electron density along ortho position, the two phenyl rings become
x −y z
perpendicular to each other. So, there will be no
the axis while d xy , d yz and dzx orbitals have
plane of symmetry as a result the molecule will be
electron density in between the axis. optically active.

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-I)

63. Answer (4) 68. Answer (1)

H2SO4 → 2H+ + SO24− ( ) ( )
Hint: CSFE =  –0.4 nt2g + 0.6 neg  Δ0
 
2+
PbSO4 Pb + SO24− Sol:.
s s+0.4
Ksp = (s)(s + 0.4)
K sp 1.6  10 −8
s= = = 4  10−8
0.4 0.4
64. Answer (1)
Due to significantly weaker dipole-dipole
interactions in acetone, it requires less heat to
CFSE = – 6 × 0.4 Δ0 + 0 = –2.4 Δ0
vaporise 1 mol of acetone than 1 mol of water.
69. Answer (1)
65. Answer (2)

2,2,4-Trimethylpentane.
70. Answer (2)
o
m for weak electrolytes is obtained by using
Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions.
71. Answer (2)
In case, polynitro compounds are treated with
ammonium sulphide, one nitro group is reduced to
amino group.

72. Answer (2)

66. Answer (1) 73. Answer (3)

Purine Bases: Adenine and Guanine
Pyrimidine Bases: Cytosine, Thymine and uracil
74. Answer (3)
In CO2, carbon is in +4 oxidation state (maximum
oxidation state of carbon). So further oxidation of
are facial and meridional structure respectively carbon is not possible. So it will not act as reducing
and are optically inactive. agent.
67. Answer (1) 75. Answer (2)
From the reaction we can predict that Li2 Bond order = 1; Diamagnetic
concentration of reactants i.e., [H2] and [N2] will
Be2 Does not exist; Bond order = 0
decrease and concentration of product i.e., [NH3]
will increase as the time passes from t = 0 to B2 Bond order = 1; paramagnetic
t = teq and become constant. C2 Bond order = 2; Diamagnetic

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(Code-I) Mock Test for NEET-2024

76. Answer (3) 80  0.188  100

% of Br in compound = = 40%
188  0.2
83. Answer (2)
Concentration cell has same type of cathode and
o
anode therefore Ecell is always zero.
84. Answer (1)
z2
En = –13.6  eV
n2
For n = 4, z = 3

(∵ Tertiary alcohol does not undergo oxidation ( 3 )2

E4 = – 13.6 × = –7.65 eV
easily) ( 4 )2
77. Answer (4) 85. Answer (4)
• SnO2, PbO2 and SnO are amphoteric in r = k[A]1[B]2
nature. r′ = k[2A]1[2B]2
• GeO2 is acidic in nature.
r′ = 8r
78. Answer (3)
SECTION-B
86. Answer (2)
79. Answer (2)

where  = degree of dissociation 87. Answer (3)

C(1 − ) + C + C In case of Hydrogen like atoms, energy depends
i= = 1+ 
C on the value of principal quantum number (n). So,
Molal concentration = 0.1 m 3s and 3p will have same energy.
fT = i × kf × m 88. Answer (4)
0.21 = (1 + ) × 1.86 × 0.1 A + 3B → 2C + 3D, H = a (i)
0.21 B+X→C+D H = b (ii)
(1 + ) = = 1.1
1.86  0.1 Applying Hess’s law,
  = 1.1 – 1 = 0.1 A + B → 2X + D (iii)
80. Answer (4) H(iii) = H(i) – 2H(ii)
 = iCRT (for same C and T) = a – 2b
i 89. Answer (3)
⚫ For sucrose and urea i = 1 while for NaCl and ⚫ Lesser the stability of alkene, more is the heat
Na2SO4, i values are 2 and 3 respectively. of hydrogenation.
⚫ Higher the value of i, higher will be the  value. 90. Answer (2)
So,  will be highest for Na2SO4 among the CO has maximum field strength.
given options. 91. Answer (3)
81. Answer (2) Since half-life of a first order reaction does not
Cheilosis is caused due to deficiency to vitamin B2. depend on concentration of reactant, successive
82. Answer (4) half-life of first order reaction remains constant
188 g AgBr contains 80 g bromine 0.693
t1 =
80  0.188 2 k
0.188 g AgBr contains g bromine
188 for zero order reaction t 1  [ A] initial concentration
2

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-I)

92. Answer (2) 96. Answer (1)

− Stronger the intermolecular force of attraction,
NH3 + H2O NH+4 + OH
higher will be the B.P.
0.04 ⚫ In primary and secondary amines,
0.04 − 0.04 0.04 0.04 intermolecular hydrogen bonding exist
−
[OH ] = 0.04 = 0.04 × 0.05 whereas in tertiary amines, no hydrogen atom
is attached to nitrogen.
[OH−] = 0.002
 3 degree amines are not involved in hydrogen
pOH = −log[OH−]
bonding.
pOH = −log (2 × 10−3)
97. Answer (3)
pOH = –(log2 + log10–3)
pOH = 3 – log2
pOH = 3 – 0.301
pOH = 2.699
pH = 14 – pOH
H = 11.301 4
⚫ n-factor of ClO– is .
93. Answer (4) 3
98. Answer (1)
Intermolecular hydrogen bond is formed between
two different molecules of the same or different
substances.

94. Answer (3)

Aromatic isomers of C7H8O are

99. Answer (2)

Fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine but
due to its small size and high inter electronic
95. Answer (4) repulsion it has less electron affinity than chlorine.
(a) Sodium azide or Barium azide : Pure nitrogen 100. Answer (4)
For weak electrolytes,  m cannot be determined
o
(b) Haber process : Ammonia
(c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid by graphical method.
(d) Deacon's process : Chlorine

BOTANY

SECTION-A 103. Answer (4)

101. Answer (2) Types of gametes = 2n
Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused due to presence n = number of heterozygous pair
of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting
into karyotype of 47, XXY. Such individual has Here n = 3
overall masculine development, however, the  23 = 8
feminine development is also expressed. Such
individuals are sterile. 8 different type of gametes are produced by the
102. Answer (3) organism.
Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution 104. Answer (4)
of glutamic acid by valine at the sixth position of The phenotypic ratio of the monohybrid test-cross
the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin if the F2 progeny is heterozygous is 1 : 1.
molecule.

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(Code-I) Mock Test for NEET-2024

105. Answer (2) 116. Answer (1)

Oxygen, pollination and flood control are broadly The correct sequence of phases during cell cycle
utilitarian ecosystem services. is G1 → S → G2 → M.
106. Answer (1) 117. Answer (3)
According to IUCN (2004), the total number of The homologous chromosomes moves toward the
plant and animal species described so far is opposite poles of the cell during anaphase-I.
slightly more than 1.5 million. 118. Answer (3)
107. Answer (2) Interkinesis is the phase between two sequential
cycles of nuclear division of meiosis. Interkinesis
Fermentation takes place under anaerobic does not involve DNA replication.
condition in many prokaryotes and unicellular
119. Answer (4)
eukaryotes.
Genus comprises a group of related species which
108. Answer (1) have similar characters in common in comparison
Xylem parenchyma is a living component of xylem, to species of other genera.
and phloem parenchyma, companion cells are 120. Answer (2)
living components of phloem. Phloem fibres are Most fungi are heterotrophic and absorb soluble
made up of sclerenchymatous cells. At maturity, organic matter from dead substrates and hence
these fibres lose their protoplasm and become are called saprophytes. Those that depends on
dead. living plants and animals are called parasites.
109. Answer (2) 121. Answer (1)
Intercalary meristems occur between mature Phycomycetes can be obligate parasites on
tissues. They appear early in plant life and plants. Asexual reproduction takes place by
contribute to the formation of primary plant body. zoospores or by aplanospores.
Apical meristem occupies the tip of root and shoot. 122. Answer (4)
Lateral meristems are secondary meristems.
Pea and bean have marginal, lemon has axile and
110. Answer (3) sunflower has basal placentation.
Difference in shapes of leaves produced in air and 123. Answer (4)
those produced in water in buttercup also Coconut has edible endosperm.
represent the heterophyllous development due to
124. Answer (2)
environment.
Floral diagram is of Brassicaceae which shows
111. Answer (3) imbricate and valvate aestivation for sepals and
Wind-pollinated flowers often have a single ovule petals, respectively.
in each ovary. 125. Answer (3)
112. Answer (2) Stored food of brown algae is laminarin or mannitol
and the stored food of red algae is floridean starch.
In a majority of flowering plants, one of the Sargassum is a brown alga.
megaspores is functional while the other three
degenerate. Only the functional megaspore 126. Answer (1)
develops into female gametophyte. The pteridophytes are classified into four classes
113. Answer (3) Classes Example
Gas vacuole provides buoyancy to bacteria. (i) Lycopsida – Selaginella
114. Answer (1) (ii) Sphenopsida – Equisetum
Acrosome of sperm is modified golgi apparatus. (iii) Psilopsida – Psilotum
SER is involved in detoxification of drugs.
Lysosome brings autodigestion by the process of (iv) Pteropsida – Adiantum
autolysis. Microfilaments represent the contractile
127. Answer (4)
system of the cell and are involved in cytoplasmic
streaming. Biogas is produced by the microbial activity.
Biogas is a mixture of gases containing
115. Answer (2) predominantly methane.
Plasma membrane allows certain substances to 128. Answer (3)
enter the cell or come out from the cell. Growth rate of a stable population is almost zero.

(10)
Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-I)

129. Answer (4) In young anther, a group of compactly arranged

homogenous cells called sporogenous tissues
Small invertebrate animals called detritivores feed
occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
on detritus.
In fragmentation, detritus is broken down into fine Pollen grains can be stored for several years in
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
particles by earthworm.
–196°C.
130. Answer (4)
141. Answer (2)
DNA from every tissue from an individual show the
same degree of polymorphism. Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular
structure formed by the process of packaging in
131. Answer (3) the golgi apparatus. Lysosomes are rich in almost
Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins. all types of hydrolytic enzymes optimally active at
acidic pH.
132. Answer (2)
142. Answer (3)
Promoter gene possesses site for RNA
polymerase attachment. During S-phase of interphase, centriole duplicates
in the cytoplasm of the cell.
133. Answer (1)
143. Answer (3)
Translocation is movement of ribosomes on
mRNA. Lactobacillus converts milk into curd.
134. Answer (3) Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness. Ustilago
Jan Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential is smut fungus.
to the plant process. 144. Answer (1)
135. Answer (4) The floral formula of Malvaceae is
Peter Mitchell proposed chemiosmotic hypothesis.
SECTION-B
136. Answer (3) 145. Answer (4)
The presence of oxygen is vital, since it drives the Vascular tissues are absent in bryophytes, eg.
whole process of ETS by removing hydrogen from Sphagnum.
the system. 146. Answer (2)
137. Answer (2) Alexander Fleming discovered the first antibiotic
from fungi Penicillium notatum.
147. Answer (1)
The integral form of exponential growth equation
is Nt = N0 ert
In the progeny, the blood groups would be AB and
B only. where,
138. Answer (4) Nt = Population density after time t.
Sclerenchyma consists of long, narrow cells with N0 = Population density at time zero
thick and lignified cell walls.
e = The base of natural logarithms.
Collenchyma occurs in layers below epidermis in
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase.
dicotyledonous stem.
Xylem vessels are absent in gymnosperms. 148. Answer (4)

139. Answer (2) Net primary productivity is 0.8-4% of incident

radiation or 1.6-8% of PAR.
All GAs are acidic. They also delay senescence
and hastens maturity period in juvenile conifers. 149. Answer (1)
Ethylene is highly effective in fruit ripening. The 3D structure of the tRNA was proposed to be
140. Answer (4) inverted L-shaped.
A typical microsporangium is generally 150. Answer (2)
surrounded by four wall layers. AUG is the only codon that codes for methionine.

(11)
(Code-I) Mock Test for NEET-2024

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby
151. Answer (2) prevent conception.
Spermatozoa are haploid cells (n) formed during 162. Answer (4)
spermatogenesis in human males. Male germ In amniocentesis, some of the amniotic fluid of the
cells, spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes developing foetus is taken to analyse the foetal
are diploid cells. cells and dissolved substances. This technique is
152. Answer (4) used to test for the presence of genetic disorders
such as down syndrome, haemophilia, etc.
Chordae tendinae are thread-like structures that
prevent bicuspid and tricuspid valves from There is a statutory ban on amniocentesis in India
collapsing back into the atria during powerful for sex determination to legally check the
ventricular contractions. increasing menace of female foeticides.
153. Answer (4) 163. Answer (2)
Cerebral aqueduct is a canal which passes Ornithorhynchus is a mammal and is unique in
through the midbrain and is considered as a part possessing ear pinnae and four chambered heart.
of midbrain. The forebrain consists of cerebrum, Calotes is a reptile and it shows crawling/creeping
thalamus and hypothalamus. mode of locomotion with three chambered heart.
154. Answer (1) Both are oviparous and show direct development.
Based on the hypothesis proposed by Oparin and 164. Answer (2)
Haldane, S.L. Miller provided an experimental Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete
evidence of the chemical evolution in year 1953 in nitrogenous wastes as uric acid in the form of
a laboratory set-up. pellet or paste with a minimum loss of water and
155. Answer (4) are called uricotelic animals.
The binding of neurotransmitters with their specific Psittacula and Struthio are birds. Periplaneta is an
receptors present on post-synaptic membrane insect.
opens ion channels which can generate either Hemidactylus is a reptile.
excitatory or inhibitory potential in the post-
synaptic neuron. Hippocampus is a bony fish.
156. Answer (3) 165. Answer (2)
PCR is used to amplify the DNA fragments. Gel The definition given by EFB is as follows:
electrophoresis is used to check the progression “The integration of natural science and organisms,
of restriction enzyme digestion. cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for
157. Answer (2) products and services”
EFB – European Federation of Biotechnology
WHO – World Health Organisation
NACO – National AIDS Control Organisation
158. Answer (3) GEAC – Genetic Engineering Approval
Molluscs are unsegmented. Aplysia and Octopus Committee
belong to the phylum Mollusca.
166. Answer (2)
Physalia and Sycon are diploblastic.
Duration of different phases of a normal menstrual
Culex and Pheretima are segmented
cycle of 28 days in a human female are
invertebrates.
159. Answer (2) 1. Menstrual phase – 3rd - 5th days
Corals have a skeleton composed of calcium 2. Proliferative/Preovulatory/Follicular phase
carbonate. = 9 – 11 days
160. Answer (4) 3. Post ovulatory/Secretory phase – 14 days
Inability to conceive or produce children even after 167. Answer (4)
2 years (twenty four months) of unprotected The nervous system of frog is organised into a
sexual cohabitation is called infertility. central nervous system (brain and spinal cord), a
161. Answer (2) peripheral nervous system (cranial and spinal
Terminal method of contraception is termed nerves) and an autonomic nervous system
‘sterilisation’. In this technique, surgical (sympathetic and parasympathetic).

(12)
Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-I)

168. Answer (4) synthesized by the hypothalamus and are

transported axonally to neurohypophysis.
178. Answer (3)
Osteoporosis is a bone related disorder. Bones
have a hard and non-pliable ground substance
rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
179. Answer (2)
Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells
which destroy foreign organisms entering the
body. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin,
heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory
reactions. Eosinophils resist infections and are
also associated with allergic reactions.
169. Answer (3)
A reduction in the number of thrombocytes from
In our country, the National AIDS Control
its normal range leads to clotting disorders.
Organisation (NACO) and other non-
governmental organisations (NGOs) are doing a 180. Answer (1)
lot to educate people about AIDS. Dipterans – Mosquitoes, flies
170. Answer (3) Coleopterans – Beetles
For determining the cause of allergy, the patient is
Lepidopterans – Armyworm
exposed to or injected with very small doses of
possible allergens, and the reactions are then 181. Answer (3)
studied.
171. Answer (4)
PCR is a laboratory technique that serves the
purpose of early diagnosis, it amplifies a specific
segment of DNA into millions and billions of
copies.
172. Answer (1)
Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is
made of a number of muscle bundles or fascicles
held together by a common collagenous
connective tissue layer called fascia.
173. Answer (3) Km represents the concentration of substrate at
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the which reaction velocity reaches half of the
myosin head binds to the exposed active sites on maximum velocity.
actin to form cross bridge. 182. Answer (1)
174. Answer (2)
In directional selection, more individuals acquire The tracheae, primary, secondary and tertiary
value other than the mean character value. bronchi, and initial bronchioles are supported by
175. Answer (2) incomplete cartilaginous rings.
Vertebrate hearts are example of homologous 183. Answer (4)
structures as they have similar anatomical Transgenic animals that produce useful biological
structures. products can be created by the introduction of the
176. Answer (4) portion of DNA which codes for a particular
Component % of the total product. These attempts are being made for
cellular mass treatment of emphysema, phenylketonuria (PKU)
Water 70-90 and cystic fibrosis.
Proteins 10-15 184. Answer (1)
Carbohydrates 3
CO2 + H2O HCO3− + H+
Carbonic Carbonic
Lipids 2 Anhydrase
H2CO3 Anhydrase

Nucleic acids 5-7 185. Answer (1)

Ions 1 Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid
177. Answer (3) artery can recognise changes in CO2 and H+
Neurohypophysis also known as posterior concentration and send necessary signals to the
pituitary, stores and releases two hormones called rhythm centre. The role of oxygen in the regulation
oxytocin and vasopressin, which are actually of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant.

(13)
(Code-I) Mock Test for NEET-2024

SECTION-B of an ovum collected from a donor into the

186. Answer (4) fallopian tube of another female who cannot
When we do physical exercise, the energy produce one, but can provide suitable
demand of the body is increased for maintaining environment for fertilisation. In vitro fertilisation is
an increased muscular activity. Increase in heart performed outside the body in almost similar
rate (decrease in duration of cardiac cycle) and conditions as that in the female body.
increased blood flow by vasodilation of blood 194. Answer (1)
vessels are responsible for increased muscular
activity.
187. Answer (4)
Frog has different types of sense organs, namely
organs of touch (sensory papillae), taste (taste
buds), smell (nasal epithelium), vision (eyes) and
hearing (tympanum with internal ears). Out of
195. Answer (3)
these, eyes and internal ears are well organised
Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and
structures and the rest are cellular aggregations
water from the distal parts of the renal tubule.
around nerve endings.
188. Answer (3) ANF can cause vasodilation and thereby
In human females, a primary oocyte completes its decrease the blood pressure.
first meiotic division after puberty leading to 196. Answer (2)
formation of two unequal, haploid cells. Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high
189. Answer (3) temperature and high pressures, while enzymes
The rDNA technology involves several steps in get damaged at high temperature.
specific sequence such as 197. Answer (4)
• Isolation of DNA from a bacterial cell Adipose tissue – Stores fats
• Fragmentation of DNA by restriction
Compactly packed – Dense connective
endonucleases
fibres and tissue
• Isolation of a desired DNA fragment
fibroblasts
• Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
• Transferring the rDNA into the host Areolar tissue – Contains
• Culturing the host cells in a medium at large fibroblasts,
scale and extraction of the desired product macrophages and
190. Answer (2) mast cells
Restriction endonucleases function by inspecting
Connect muscles to – Tendons
the length of a DNA sequence and they make cuts
bones
at specific positions within the DNA.
DNA ligases are called molecular glue. 198. Answer (2)
191. Answer (3) The percentage of ‘ss’ is 49%, which means
It is important to note that HIV/AIDS is not spread q2 = 0.49.
by mere touch or physical contact; it spreads only  q = 0.7
through body fluids.  p + q = 1 (As population is in H.W equilibrium)
The progeny viruses released in the blood attack
other helper T-lymphocytes. This is repeated p = 1 – 0.7 = 0.3
leading to a progressive decrease in the number The percentage of SS is 9%, means p2 = 0.09
of helper T-lymphocytes in the body of an infected If ‘S’ is completely dominant over ‘s’, then,
person. frequency of probable phenotypes will be
192. Answer (3) (a) p2 and 2pq = 0.09 + 0.42 = 0.51
Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ (b) q2 = 0.49
and water from the distal parts of renal tubule. So, two probable frequencies are 0.51 and 0.49
193. Answer (3) 199. Answer (4)
In AI (Artificial Insemination), the semen collected By the end of nine months of pregnancy, the
from either husband or a healthy donor is foetus is fully developed and is ready for delivery.
artificially introduced either into the vagina or into 200. Answer (2)
the uterus (IUI – Intra-Uterine Insemination) of the In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood
female. which is oxygenated by the gills and supplied to
the body parts from where deoxygenated blood is
GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) involves
returned to the heart (single circulation).
in vivo fertilisation as this method involves transfer

❑ ❑ ❑
(14)
 CODE-J

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MOCK Test for NEET-2024

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers
1. (2) 41. (3) 81. (4) 121. (2) 161. (2)
2. (2) 42. (2) 82. (2) 122. (1) 162. (2)
3. (4) 43. (2) 83. (2) 123. (3) 163. (3)
4. (2) 44. (1) 84. (3) 124. (2) 164. (1)
5. (4) 45. (3) 85. (3) 125. (3) 165. (4)
6. (4) 46. (4) 86. (4) 126. (3) 166. (3)
7. (2) 47. (2) 87. (2) 127. (2) 167. (3)
8. (2) 48. (3) 88. (1) 128. (1) 168. (4)
9. (1) 49. (4) 89. (3) 129. (2) 169. (4)
10. (1) 50. (1) 90. (1) 130. (1) 170. (2)
11. (3) 51. (4) 91. (4) 131. (2) 171. (2)
12. (1) 52. (1) 92. (3) 132. (4) 172. (2)
13. (2) 53. (2) 93. (4) 133. (4) 173. (2)
14. (3) 54. (4) 94. (2) 134. (3) 174. (4)
15. (4) 55. (2) 95. (3) 135. (2) 175. (2)
16. (2) 56. (4) 96. (2) 136. (2) 176. (4)
17. (3) 57. (2) 97. (3) 137. (1) 177. (2)
18. (3) 58. (3) 98. (4) 138. (4) 178. (3)
19. (2) 59. (4) 99. (3) 139. (1) 179. (2)
20. (1) 60. (3) 100. (2) 140. (2) 180. (3)
21. (1) 61. (2) 101. (4) 141. (4) 181. (4)
22. (3) 62. (3) 102. (3) 142. (1) 182. (1)
23. (4) 63. (3) 103. (1) 143. (3) 183. (4)
24. (3) 64. (2) 104. (2) 144. (3) 184. (4)
25. (1) 65. (2) 105. (3) 145. (2) 185. (2)
26. (3) 66. (2) 106. (4) 146. (4) 186. (2)
27. (2) 67. (1) 107. (4) 147. (2) 187. (4)
28. (1) 68. (1) 108. (3) 148. (4) 188. (2)
29. (1) 69. (1) 109. (4) 149. (2) 189. (4)
30. (2) 70. (1) 110. (1) 150. (3) 190. (2)
31. (4) 71. (2) 111. (3) 151. (1) 191. (3)
32. (1) 72. (1) 112. (2) 152. (1) 192. (1)
33. (2) 73. (4) 113. (4) 153. (4) 193. (3)
34. (3) 74. (2) 114. (4) 154. (1) 194. (3)
35. (2) 75. (1) 115. (1) 155. (3) 195. (3)
36. (1) 76. (2) 116. (2) 156. (1) 196. (2)
37. (2) 77. (1) 117. (4) 157. (2) 197. (3)
38. (4) 78. (2) 118. (3) 158. (3) 198. (3)
39. (3) 79. (2) 119. (3) 159. (3) 199. (4)
40. (3) 80. (4) 120. (1) 160. (4) 200. (4)

(1)
(Code-J) Mock Test for NEET-2024

CODE-J

Corporate Office: Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005, Ph.011-47623456

MOCK Test for NEET-2024

MM : 720 Time : 3 Hrs. 20 Min.

Answers & Solutions

PHYSICS
SECTION-A 8. Answer (2)
1. Answer (2) v 0 = u cos iˆ + u sin jˆ and v p = u cos iˆ
Fl mgl
We know, Y = = vQ = u cos iˆ − u sin jˆ
Ax Ax
 Y =
(500)(4)(10)
=
20000 (v )OP = u cos iˆ − u cos iˆ − u sin jˆ = −u sin jˆ
(100  10−6 )(10−3 ) 10−7
Y = 2 × 1011 N/m2
| (v )OP | = u sin 
2. Answer (2) ( v )OQ = u cos iˆ − u sin jˆ − u cos iˆ − u sin jˆ = −2u sin jˆ
−2
F [MLT ] | ( v )OQ | = 2u sin 
Ig =  = [M0LT −2 ]
m [M]
3. Answer (4) u 2 sin2
g u 2  2  sin   cos 
If Fext = 0, ext may also be zero, thus v avg =  = u cos 
2u sin  2  u  sin 
L = constant g
Also, ext = 0 , Fext may also be zero, thus 9. Answer (1)
p = constant For case - 1  m2g – T = m2a1 and T = m1a1
A body initially in general motion continues the m2 g 3g
same in the absence of an external force and  m2g = m2a1 + m1a1  a1 = =
m1 + m2 m1 + m2
torque.
4. Answer (2) For case - 2  m1g – T = m1a2
This is simple application of a couple. and T – m2g = m2a2  g(m1 – m2) = a2(m1 + m2)
5. Answer (4) g
 a2 =  a1 > a2
Since all the molecules have their velocity in m1 + m2
random direction hence the average velocity sums
up to zero. 10. Answer (1)
6. Answer (4) Since magnetic field lines always form closed
loops, hence field lines entering into a closed
dv
a= = 6 + 18 t  aat t = 2 = 42 cm/s2 = 0.42 m/s2 surface is always equal to field lines exiting the
dt closed surface.
7. Answer (2) 11. Answer (3)
Velocity is given by slope of position time graph. Magnetic field at the centre of a circular coil is
30 0 Ni
 Slope = = 2 m/s
15 B=
2R

(2)
Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-J)

12. Answer (1) 19. Answer (2)

Work done by magnetic field on a moving charge
is always zero. Hence 20 J of work is done by
electric field only.
Wm 0
 = =0
WE 20
13. Answer (2) 1·sini = sinr1
Applying KVL in upper branch r1 + 60º = 90º
30 3
30 – i1 × 10 – i1 × 5 = 0  i1 = =2 A 1 sin i = 3 sin30  sin i =
15 2
14. Answer (3) i = 60°
Current throughout the conductor remains same. 20. Answer (1)
i 1 1 1
Current density (J) = = +
A feq f1 f2
Since area is increasing, therefore current density 1 1 1
will decrease from P to Q.  = +
feq 10 20
1
I (constant) = neAVd  Vd  20  10 20
A feq = = cm
15. Answer (4) 20 + 10 3
21. Answer (1)
dV 0.85 − 0.75
Rd = = The central fringe for the given arrangement will
di (6 − 2)  10 −3 always be bright.
100 22. Answer (3)
= = 25 
4 E = h
16. Answer (2) 13.2  10−16
 =
D1 is forward biased and D2 is reverse biased 6.6  10–34
10  10 = 2 × 1018 Hz
RAB = +5 23. Answer (4)
10 + 10
= 5 + 5 = 10  m
T = 2
17. Answer (3) k
From conservation of linear momentum k1 = 4k
m1v1 = m2v2 m
T1 = 2
m1 v 2 8 k1
= =
m2 v1 27
m
3
= 2
r 8 4k
1
=
3
r 27 T
2 =
r1 2 2
= 24. Answer (3)
r2 3
Transverse wave is reflected from a rigid support.
18. Answer (3) Then change in phase on reflection will be  rad.
h 6.6  10 −34 25. Answer (1)
For photon 1 = =
p 10 −26
h 6.6  10−34
For particle  2 = =
mv 4.2  10−30  4  106
1 4.2  10 −30  4  106
= = 1680
2 10−26

(3)
(Code-J) Mock Test for NEET-2024

a 30. Answer (2)

R=
2 1 mm of Hg = 133 Pa
4q 31. Answer (4)
V = 1
a Random error 
40
2 Number of times
experiment repeated
2q
V= 32. Answer (1)
0a
kx1 = 4mg
26. Answer (3) 4mg
x1 =
k
2
1  4 mg 
P.E = k
2  k 
8 m 2g 2
=
k
33. Answer (2)
TL – TH = 6mg  120 – TH = 60  TH = 60 N
E = E1 – E2 At highest point :
2  mv 2
= − TH + mg =
20 r 20 r l
 mv 2
= = 60 + mg
d l
20
2 v = 70 m s−1
 34. Answer (3)
=
0 d L
tan60º =
R
27. Answer (2)
3 2fL
A → B → C → A is a cyclic process. =
1 R
 U = 0
3R
Total work done in cycle = W = area (ABC) L=
2f
1 1 35. Answer (2)
= AB  BC =  3  (10 − 8)  104
2 2 The current changes its direction 2 times in a
= 3 × 104 = 30 kJ cycle.
SECTION-B
Now, Q = W = 30 = 30 kJ
36. Answer (1)
28. Answer (1)
dL
Q = W + Uf – Ui We know,  =
dt
– 10 × 4.2 = – 10 + Uf – 50
Uf = – 10 × 4.2 + 10 + 50  =
d
dt
(
3t 2 − 4t + 2 )
= – 42 + 10 + 50  = 6t – 4
Uf = 18 J I [ (t = 2)] = (t = 2)
29. Answer (1) I(16) = 12 – 4
9 8
F = C  + 32 I= = 0.5 kg m2
5 16

9 37. Answer (2)

F = 10  + 32 = 18 + 32
5 v ˆ v ˆ v ˆ
We know, Ig = − i − j− k
°F = 50 x y z
 (Ig)x = – [– 3y(2x) + 3y2(1)] = 6xy – 3y2
(4)
Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-J)

at (1, 1) : (Ig)x = 3 N/kg 43. Answer (2)

and, (Ig)y = – [– 3x2 (1) + 3x(2y)] = 3x2 – 6xy
P = qaiˆ + 2qajˆ
at (1, 1) : (Ig)y = – 3 N/kg
| P | = (qa )2 + (2qa )2
 Ig = 32 + 32 = 3 2 N/kg
38. Answer (4) = 5 qa
l 2
44. Answer (1)
R= , where V is volume of wire
V
R 2l R
=   100 = 2 × 0.2 = 0.4 %
R l R
39. Answer (3)
n2
r = r0
z
(4)2
r = (0.53 Å)  = 4.24 Å
2 1 q2
U=
2C
z2
Total energy = −13.6 2
n2 Q 
 + CV 
=  
(2)2 1 2
= −13.6 2 C
(4)2
2
= – 3.4 eV 1 Q 
= C +V 
Kinetic energy = – (T.E) = 3.4 eV 2  2C 
Potential energy = 2(T.E) = – 6.8 eV 45. Answer (3)
40. Answer (3) Difference of 100°C = Difference of 180°F
180
Difference of 60°C =  60 = 108
100
46. Answer (4)
2T cos
h=
gr
A B C = A + B D = A ·C E = B ·C Y = D + E h2 r1
0 0 1 1 1 0 = =2
h1 r2
0 1 0 1 1 0
h2 = 2h1
1 0 0 1 1 0
= 2 × 30 = 60 mm
1 1 0 1 1 0
47. Answer (2)
41. Answer (3)
P = Vrms Irms cos
• Velocity of light in vacuum is maximum
R
• Frequency remain same while moving from = Irms  | Z | Irms
one medium to another. |Z|
42. Answer (2) P = Irms
2
R
a1 I 320 = 2 × 2 × R  R = 80 
= 1 = 
a2 I2
2
I (R 2 + 2L2 ) = 200 V
 a1 
 + 1
( )
2
Imax
=
( a1 + a2 ) 2
= 2
a  =
 +1 R2 + XL2 = 100
(a1 − a2 )2  a
(  − 1)
2 2
Imin  XL = 1002 − R2

1
− 1
 a2 
= 1002 − 802
 + 1+ 2 
= = 3600
 + 1− 2 
= 60 

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(Code-J) Mock Test for NEET-2024

48. Answer (3) [ML2 T −2 ][L]

[ A] = = [MLT −2 ]
d [L2 ]
=− = −(3t 2 − 6t )
dt Hence, [AB] = [MLT–2] [LT–2]
at t = 1 s = [ML2T–4]
 = – (3 – 6) = 3 V 50. Answer (1)
3 v = –v jˆ
B, C 2
i= A = 30 mA
100 v A, g = v1iˆ
49. Answer (4)
vC, g = v 0 iˆ
First [Bt2] = [x]
[x] [L]  v A, C = (v1 − v 0 )iˆ
 [B ] = 2 = 2 = [LT −2 ]
[t ] [T ] w.r.t. pulley or block C both A and B will have the
same magnitude of velocity  v1 – v0 = v2
Now, [Ax2] = [U][x]  v1 –v2 = v0

CHEMISTRY

SECTION-A 57. Answer (2)

51. Answer (4)
r = k[A]1[B]2
r′ = k[2A]1[2B]2
where  = degree of dissociation
r′ = 8r C(1 − ) + C + C
52. Answer (1) i= = 1+ 
C
z2 Molal concentration = 0.1 m
En = –13.6  eV
n2 fT = i × kf × m
For n = 4, z = 3 0.21 = (1 + ) × 1.86 × 0.1
0.21
( 3 )2 (1 + ) =
1.86  0.1
= 1.1
E4 = – 13.6 × = –7.65 eV
( 4 )2   = 1.1 – 1 = 0.1
53. Answer (2) 58. Answer (3)
Concentration cell has same type of cathode and
anode therefore Eocell is always zero. 59. Answer (4)
54. Answer (4) • SnO2, PbO2 and SnO are amphoteric in
188 g AgBr contains 80 g bromine nature.
80  0.188 • GeO2 is acidic in nature.
0.188 g AgBr contains g bromine 60. Answer (3)
188
80  0.188  100
% of Br in compound = = 40%
188  0.2
55. Answer (2)
Cheilosis is caused due to deficiency to vitamin B2.
56. Answer (4)
 = iCRT (for same C and T)
i
⚫ For sucrose and urea i = 1 while for NaCl and
Na2SO4, i values are 2 and 3 respectively.
⚫ Higher the value of i, higher will be the  value.
(∵ Tertiary alcohol does not undergo oxidation
So,  will be highest for Na2SO4 among the
easily)
given options.

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-J)

61. Answer (2) 69. Answer (1)

Li2 Bond order = 1; Diamagnetic From the reaction we can predict that
concentration of reactants i.e., [H2] and [N2] will
Be2 Does not exist; Bond order = 0
decrease and concentration of product i.e., [NH3]
B2 Bond order = 1; paramagnetic will increase as the time passes from t = 0 to
C2 Bond order = 2; Diamagnetic t = teq and become constant.

62. Answer (3) 70. Answer (1)

In CO2, carbon is in +4 oxidation state (maximum

oxidation state of carbon). So further oxidation of
carbon is not possible. So it will not act as reducing
agent.
63. Answer (3)
Purine Bases: Adenine and Guanine are facial and meridional structure respectively
and are optically inactive.
Pyrimidine Bases: Cytosine, Thymine and uracil
71. Answer (2)
64. Answer (2)

65. Answer (2)

In case, polynitro compounds are treated with
ammonium sulphide, one nitro group is reduced to
amino group.

66. Answer (2)

o
m for weak electrolytes is obtained by using
Kohlrausch law of independent migration of ions.
67. Answer (1)

2,2,4-Trimethylpentane. 72. Answer (1)

68. Answer (1) Due to significantly weaker dipole-dipole

 ( ) ( )
Hint: CSFE =  –0.4 nt2g + 0.6 neg  Δ0

interactions in acetone, it requires less heat to
vaporise 1 mol of acetone than 1 mol of water.
Sol:. 73. Answer (4)

H2SO4 → 2H+ + SO24−

PbSO4 Pb2+ + SO24−

s s+0.4
Ksp = (s)(s + 0.4)
K sp 1.6  10 −8
s= = = 4  10−8
CFSE = – 6 × 0.4 Δ0 + 0 = –2.4 Δ0 0.4 0.4

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(Code-J) Mock Test for NEET-2024

74. Answer (2) 82. Answer (2)

Due to presence of different bulky groups at the

ortho position, the two phenyl rings become 83. Answer (2)
perpendicular to each other. So, there will be no
plane of symmetry as a result the molecule will be
optically active.
75. Answer (1)
The reactions of tertiary alcohol is conducted by
simply shaking the alcohol with concentrated HCl
at room temperature.
84. Answer (3)
76. Answer (2)
Borax is Na2[B4O5(OH)4].8H2O having tetra
nuclear unit [B4O5(OH)4]2–
77. Answer (1)
85. Answer (3)
Interstitial compounds are those which are formed
when small atoms like H, C or N are trapped inside
the crystal lattices of metals.
78. Answer (2) SECTION-B
500  0.1 86. Answer (4)
Equivalents of H+ = = 0.05
1000
For weak electrolytes,  mo cannot be determined
200  0.2
Equivalents of OH– ions = = 0.04 by graphical method.
1000
87. Answer (2)
So, amount of heat evolved = 57.1 × 0.04
= 2.284 kJ Fluorine is more electronegative than chlorine but
due to its small size and high inter electronic
79. Answer (2)
repulsion it has less electron affinity than chlorine.
Element aH° (kJ mol–1)
88. Answer (1)
Sc 326
Intermolecular hydrogen bond is formed between
Mn 281
two different molecules of the same or different
Co 425
substances.
Zn 126
80. Answer (4)
d and d orbital have electron density along
x2 −y 2 z2

the axis while d xy , d yz and dzx orbitals have

electron density in between the axis.
81. Answer (4) 89. Answer (3)
⚫ 1 g atom of nitrogen = 1 mole of N so,
1 mole of N = 14 g of N and 11.2 L of N2 at
1
STP = mole of N2 = 1 mole of N
2
⚫ But 6.02 × 1023 N2 molecules = 1 mole of
4
N2 = 2 mole of N ⚫ n-factor of ClO– is .
3

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-J)

90. Answer (1) pOH = –(log2 + log10–3)

Stronger the intermolecular force of attraction, pOH = 3 – log2
higher will be the B.P. pOH = 3 – 0.301
⚫ In primary and secondary amines, pOH = 2.699
intermolecular hydrogen bonding exist
pH = 14 – pOH
whereas in tertiary amines, no hydrogen atom
H = 11.301
is attached to nitrogen.
95. Answer (3)
 3 degree amines are not involved in hydrogen
bonding. Since half-life of a first order reaction does not
91. Answer (4) depend on concentration of reactant, successive
(a) Sodium azide or Barium azide : Pure nitrogen half-life of first order reaction remains constant
(b) Haber process : Ammonia 0.693
t1 =
(c) Contact process : Sulphuric acid 2 k
(d) Deacon's process : Chlorine for zero order reaction t 1  [ A] initial concentration
92. Answer (3) 2

Aromatic isomers of C7H8O are 96. Answer (2)

CO has maximum field strength.
97. Answer (3)
⚫ Lesser the stability of alkene, more is the heat
93. Answer (4) of hydrogenation.
98. Answer (4)
A + 3B → 2C + 3D, H = a (i)
B+X→C+D H = b (ii)
Applying Hess’s law,
A + B → 2X + D (iii)
H(iii) = H(i) – 2H(ii)

94. Answer (2) = a – 2b

− 99. Answer (3)
NH3 + H2 O NH+4 + OH In case of Hydrogen like atoms, energy depends
0.04 on the value of principal quantum number (n). So,
0.04 − 0.04 0.04 0.04 3s and 3p will have same energy.
[OH−] = 0.04 = 0.04 × 0.05 100. Answer (2)
[OH−] = 0.002
pOH = −log[OH−]
pOH = −log (2 × 10−3)

BOTANY

SECTION-A 104. Answer (2)

101. Answer (4) Promoter gene possesses site for RNA
Peter Mitchell proposed chemiosmotic hypothesis. polymerase attachment.
102. Answer (3) 105. Answer (3)
Jan Ingenhousz showed that sunlight is essential Less than 2% of the genome codes for proteins.
to the plant process. 106. Answer (4)
103. Answer (1)
DNA from every tissue from an individual show the
Translocation is movement of ribosomes on same degree of polymorphism.
mRNA.
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(Code-J) Mock Test for NEET-2024

107. Answer (4) 120. Answer (1)

Small invertebrate animals called detritivores feed The correct sequence of phases during cell cycle
on detritus. is G1 → S → G2 → M.
In fragmentation, detritus is broken down into fine
121. Answer (2)
particles by earthworm.
108. Answer (3) Plasma membrane allows certain substances to
enter the cell or come out from the cell.
Growth rate of a stable population is almost zero.
109. Answer (4) 122. Answer (1)
Biogas is produced by the microbial activity. Acrosome of sperm is modified golgi apparatus.
Biogas is a mixture of gases containing SER is involved in detoxification of drugs.
predominantly methane. Lysosome brings autodigestion by the process of
110. Answer (1) autolysis. Microfilaments represent the contractile
The pteridophytes are classified into four classes system of the cell and are involved in cytoplasmic
streaming.
Classes Example
123. Answer (3)
(i) Lycopsida – Selaginella
Gas vacuole provides buoyancy to bacteria.
(ii) Sphenopsida – Equisetum
124. Answer (2)
(iii) Psilopsida – Psilotum
In a majority of flowering plants, one of the
(iv) Pteropsida – Adiantum megaspores is functional while the other three
111. Answer (3) degenerate. Only the functional megaspore
develops into female gametophyte.
Stored food of brown algae is laminarin or mannitol
and the stored food of red algae is floridean starch. 125. Answer (3)
Sargassum is a brown alga.
Wind-pollinated flowers often have a single ovule
112. Answer (2) in each ovary.
Floral diagram is of Brassicaceae which shows
126. Answer (3)
imbricate and valvate aestivation for sepals and
petals, respectively. Difference in shapes of leaves produced in air and
113. Answer (4) those produced in water in buttercup also
represent the heterophyllous development due to
Coconut has edible endosperm.
environment.
114. Answer (4)
127. Answer (2)
Pea and bean have marginal, lemon has axile and
sunflower has basal placentation. Intercalary meristems occur between mature
115. Answer (1) tissues. They appear early in plant life and
contribute to the formation of primary plant body.
Phycomycetes can be obligate parasites on
Apical meristem occupies the tip of root and shoot.
plants. Asexual reproduction takes place by
Lateral meristems are secondary meristems.
zoospores or by aplanospores.
116. Answer (2) 128. Answer (1)
Most fungi are heterotrophic and absorb soluble Xylem parenchyma is a living component of xylem,
organic matter from dead substrates and hence and phloem parenchyma, companion cells are
are called saprophytes. Those that depends on living components of phloem. Phloem fibres are
living plants and animals are called parasites. made up of sclerenchymatous cells. At maturity,
117. Answer (4) these fibres lose their protoplasm and become
dead.
Genus comprises a group of related species which
have similar characters in common in comparison 129. Answer (2)
to species of other genera.
Fermentation takes place under anaerobic
118. Answer (3) condition in many prokaryotes and unicellular
Interkinesis is the phase between two sequential eukaryotes.
cycles of nuclear division of meiosis. Interkinesis
130. Answer (1)
does not involve DNA replication.
119. Answer (3) According to IUCN (2004), the total number of
plant and animal species described so far is
The homologous chromosomes moves toward the slightly more than 1.5 million.
opposite poles of the cell during anaphase-I.

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-J)

131. Answer (2) 142. Answer (1)

Oxygen, pollination and flood control are broadly The floral formula of Malvaceae is
utilitarian ecosystem services.
132. Answer (4)
The phenotypic ratio of the monohybrid test-cross 143. Answer (3)
if the F2 progeny is heterozygous is 1 : 1.
Lactobacillus converts milk into curd.
133. Answer (4)
Trypanosoma causes sleeping sickness. Ustilago
Types of gametes = 2n
is smut fungus.
n = number of heterozygous pair
144. Answer (3)
Here n = 3
During S-phase of interphase, centriole duplicates
 23 = 8 in the cytoplasm of the cell.
8 different type of gametes are produced by the
organism. 145. Answer (2)
134. Answer (3) Lysosomes are membrane bound vesicular
Sickle cell anaemia is caused by the substitution structure formed by the process of packaging in
of glutamic acid by valine at the sixth position of the golgi apparatus. Lysosomes are rich in almost
the beta globin chain of the haemoglobin all types of hydrolytic enzymes optimally active at
molecule. acidic pH.
135. Answer (2) 146. Answer (4)
Klinefelter’s syndrome is caused due to presence A typical microsporangium is generally
of an additional copy of X-chromosome resulting surrounded by four wall layers.
into karyotype of 47, XXY. Such individual has
In young anther, a group of compactly arranged
overall masculine development, however, the
homogenous cells called sporogenous tissues
feminine development is also expressed. Such
occupies the centre of each microsporangium.
individuals are sterile.
SECTION-B Pollen grains can be stored for several years in
liquid nitrogen having a temperature of
136. Answer (2)
–196°C.
AUG is the only codon that codes for methionine.
147. Answer (2)
137. Answer (1)
All GAs are acidic. They also delay senescence
The 3D structure of the tRNA was proposed to be
and hastens maturity period in juvenile conifers.
inverted L-shaped. Ethylene is highly effective in fruit ripening.
138. Answer (4) 148. Answer (4)
Net primary productivity is 0.8-4% of incident
radiation or 1.6-8% of PAR. Sclerenchyma consists of long, narrow cells with
thick and lignified cell walls.
139. Answer (1)
Collenchyma occurs in layers below epidermis in
The integral form of exponential growth equation
dicotyledonous stem.
is Nt = N0 ert
where, Xylem vessels are absent in gymnosperms.
Nt = Population density after time t. 149. Answer (2)
N0 = Population density at time zero
e = The base of natural logarithms.
r = Intrinsic rate of natural increase.
140. Answer (2)
In the progeny, the blood groups would be AB and
Alexander Fleming discovered the first antibiotic
B only.
from fungi Penicillium notatum.
150. Answer (3)
141. Answer (4)
The presence of oxygen is vital, since it drives the
Vascular tissues are absent in bryophytes, eg. whole process of ETS by removing hydrogen from
Sphagnum. the system.

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(Code-J) Mock Test for NEET-2024

ZOOLOGY
SECTION-A 158. Answer (3)
151. Answer (1) Osteoporosis is a bone related disorder. Bones
have a hard and non-pliable ground substance
Receptors associated with aortic arch and carotid
rich in calcium salts and collagen fibres.
artery can recognise changes in CO2 and H+
concentration and send necessary signals to the 159. Answer (3)
rhythm centre. The role of oxygen in the regulation Neurohypophysis also known as posterior
of respiratory rhythm is quite insignificant. pituitary, stores and releases two hormones called
oxytocin and vasopressin, which are actually
152. Answer (1) synthesized by the hypothalamus and are
CO2 + H2O
Carbonic
H2CO3
Carbonic
HCO3− + H+ transported axonally to neurohypophysis.
Anhydrase Anhydrase

153. Answer (4) 160. Answer (4)

Transgenic animals that produce useful biological Component % of the total
products can be created by the introduction of the cellular mass
portion of DNA which codes for a particular Water 70-90
product. These attempts are being made for
treatment of emphysema, phenylketonuria (PKU) Proteins 10-15
and cystic fibrosis. Carbohydrates 3
154. Answer (1) Lipids 2
The tracheae, primary, secondary and tertiary Nucleic acids 5-7
bronchi, and initial bronchioles are supported by Ions 1
incomplete cartilaginous rings. 161. Answer (2)
155. Answer (3) Vertebrate hearts are example of homologous
structures as they have similar anatomical
structures.
162. Answer (2)
In directional selection, more individuals acquire
value other than the mean character value.
163. Answer (3)
Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the
myosin head binds to the exposed active sites on
actin to form cross bridge.
164. Answer (1)
Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is
Km represents the concentration of substrate at made of a number of muscle bundles or fascicles
which reaction velocity reaches half of the held together by a common collagenous
maximum velocity. connective tissue layer called fascia.
156. Answer (1) 165. Answer (4)
PCR is a laboratory technique that serves the
Dipterans – Mosquitoes, flies
purpose of early diagnosis, it amplifies a specific
Coleopterans – Beetles segment of DNA into millions and billions of
Lepidopterans – Armyworm copies.
166. Answer (3)
157. Answer (2)
For determining the cause of allergy, the patient is
Neutrophils and monocytes are phagocytic cells exposed to or injected with very small doses of
which destroy foreign organisms entering the possible allergens, and the reactions are then
body. Basophils secrete histamine, serotonin, studied.
heparin, etc., and are involved in inflammatory 167. Answer (3)
reactions. Eosinophils resist infections and are
In our country, the National AIDS Control
also associated with allergic reactions.
Organisation (NACO) and other non-
A reduction in the number of thrombocytes from governmental organisations (NGOs) are doing a
its normal range leads to clotting disorders. lot to educate people about AIDS.

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-J)

168. Answer (4) 174. Answer (4)

In amniocentesis, some of the amniotic fluid of the
developing foetus is taken to analyse the foetal
cells and dissolved substances. This technique is
used to test for the presence of genetic disorders
such as down syndrome, haemophilia, etc.
There is a statutory ban on amniocentesis in India
for sex determination to legally check the
increasing menace of female foeticides.
175. Answer (2)
Terminal method of contraception is termed
‘sterilisation’. In this technique, surgical
intervention blocks gamete transport and thereby
169. Answer (4)
prevent conception.
The nervous system of frog is organised into a
176. Answer (4)
central nervous system (brain and spinal cord), a
peripheral nervous system (cranial and spinal Inability to conceive or produce children even after
nerves) and an autonomic nervous system 2 years (twenty four months) of unprotected
(sympathetic and parasympathetic). sexual cohabitation is called infertility.
170. Answer (2) 177. Answer (2)
Duration of different phases of a normal menstrual Corals have a skeleton composed of calcium
cycle of 28 days in a human female are carbonate.
1. Menstrual phase – 3rd - 5th days 178. Answer (3)
2. Proliferative/Preovulatory/Follicular phase Molluscs are unsegmented. Aplysia and Octopus
= 9 – 11 days belong to the phylum Mollusca.
3. Post ovulatory/Secretory phase – 14 days Physalia and Sycon are diploblastic.
171. Answer (2) Culex and Pheretima are segmented
invertebrates.
The definition given by EFB is as follows:
179. Answer (2)
“The integration of natural science and organisms,
cells, parts thereof, and molecular analogues for
products and services”
EFB – European Federation of Biotechnology
WHO – World Health Organisation 180. Answer (3)
NACO – National AIDS Control Organisation PCR is used to amplify the DNA fragments. Gel
GEAC – Genetic Engineering Approval electrophoresis is used to check the progression
Committee of restriction enzyme digestion.
172. Answer (2) 181. Answer (4)
Reptiles, birds, land snails and insects excrete The binding of neurotransmitters with their specific
nitrogenous wastes as uric acid in the form of receptors present on post-synaptic membrane
pellet or paste with a minimum loss of water and opens ion channels which can generate either
are called uricotelic animals. excitatory or inhibitory potential in the post-
synaptic neuron.
Psittacula and Struthio are birds. Periplaneta is an
insect. 182. Answer (1)
Hemidactylus is a reptile. Based on the hypothesis proposed by Oparin and
Haldane, S.L. Miller provided an experimental
Hippocampus is a bony fish. evidence of the chemical evolution in year 1953 in
173. Answer (2) a laboratory set-up.
Ornithorhynchus is a mammal and is unique in 183. Answer (4)
possessing ear pinnae and four chambered heart. Cerebral aqueduct is a canal which passes
Calotes is a reptile and it shows crawling/creeping through the midbrain and is considered as a part
mode of locomotion with three chambered heart. of midbrain. The forebrain consists of cerebrum,
Both are oviparous and show direct development. thalamus and hypothalamus.

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(Code-J) Mock Test for NEET-2024

184. Answer (4) 191. Answer (3)

Chordae tendinae are thread-like structures that Aldosterone causes reabsorption of Na+ and
prevent bicuspid and tricuspid valves from water from the distal parts of the renal tubule.
collapsing back into the atria during powerful ANF can cause vasodilation and thereby
ventricular contractions. decrease the blood pressure.
185. Answer (2) 192. Answer (1)
Spermatozoa are haploid cells (n) formed during
spermatogenesis in human males. Male germ
cells, spermatogonia and primary spermatocytes
are diploid cells.
SECTION-B
186. Answer (2)
In fishes, the heart pumps out deoxygenated blood 193. Answer (3)
which is oxygenated by the gills and supplied to In AI (Artificial Insemination), the semen collected
the body parts from where deoxygenated blood is from either husband or a healthy donor is
returned to the heart (single circulation). artificially introduced either into the vagina or into
the uterus (IUI – Intra-Uterine Insemination) of the
187. Answer (4)
female.
By the end of nine months of pregnancy, the foetus GIFT (Gamete Intra Fallopian Transfer) involves
is fully developed and is ready for delivery. in vivo fertilisation as this method involves transfer
188. Answer (2) of an ovum collected from a donor into the
fallopian tube of another female who cannot
The percentage of ‘ss’ is 49%, which means
produce one, but can provide suitable
q2 = 0.49.
environment for fertilisation. In vitro fertilisation is
 q = 0.7 performed outside the body in almost similar
conditions as that in the female body.
 p + q = 1 (As population is in H.W equilibrium)
194. Answer (3)
p = 1 – 0.7 = 0.3 Aldosterone stimulates the reabsorption of Na+
The percentage of SS is 9%, means p2 = 0.09 and water from the distal parts of renal tubule.
If ‘S’ is completely dominant over ‘s’, then, 195. Answer (3)
frequency of probable phenotypes will be It is important to note that HIV/AIDS is not spread
(a) p2 and 2pq = 0.09 + 0.42 = 0.51 by mere touch or physical contact; it spreads only
through body fluids.
(b) q2 = 0.49
The progeny viruses released in the blood attack
So, two probable frequencies are 0.51 and 0.49 other helper T-lymphocytes. This is repeated
189. Answer (4) leading to a progressive decrease in the number
of helper T-lymphocytes in the body of an infected
Adipose tissue – Stores fats person.
196. Answer (2)
Compactly packed – Dense connective
fibres and tissue Restriction endonucleases function by inspecting
fibroblasts the length of a DNA sequence and they make cuts
at specific positions within the DNA.
Areolar tissue – Contains DNA ligases are called molecular glue.
fibroblasts, 197. Answer (3)
macrophages and
mast cells The rDNA technology involves several steps in
specific sequence such as
Connect muscles to – Tendons • Isolation of DNA from a bacterial cell
bones • Fragmentation of DNA by restriction
endonucleases
190. Answer (2)
• Isolation of a desired DNA fragment
Inorganic catalysts work efficiently at high
temperature and high pressures, while enzymes • Ligation of DNA fragment into a vector
get damaged at high temperature. • Transferring the rDNA into the host

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Mock Test for NEET-2024 (Code-J)

• Culturing the host cells in a medium at large these, eyes and internal ears are well organised
scale and extraction of the desired product structures and the rest are cellular aggregations
198. Answer (3) around nerve endings.
In human females, a primary oocyte completes its 200. Answer (4)
first meiotic division after puberty leading to When we do physical exercise, the energy
formation of two unequal, haploid cells. demand of the body is increased for maintaining
199. Answer (4) an increased muscular activity. Increase in heart
rate (decrease in duration of cardiac cycle) and
Frog has different types of sense organs, namely
increased blood flow by vasodilation of blood
organs of touch (sensory papillae), taste (taste
vessels are responsible for increased muscular
buds), smell (nasal epithelium), vision (eyes) and
activity.
hearing (tympanum with internal ears). Out of

❑ ❑ ❑

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