CHAPTER 1.

Introduction to business
1. Whether an organization is classified as a business or not is dependent on its
(Tổ chức có được phân loại là DN hay ko phụ thuộc vào):
A. Vision
B. Mission
C. Primary objective
D. Plan
2. For a business, which of the following would be classified as secondary
objectives?
A. The business’s market share target for next year.
B. The business’s mission statement.
C. The business’s financial objective of owner’s wealth maximization.
D. The business’s stock price increasing.
3. An entity ensures it can meet the needs of the present without compromising
the ability of future generations to meet their own needs (đáp ứng nhu cầu
hiện tại mà ko ảnh hưởng tới khả năng đáp ứng như cầu của thế hệ tương
lai). Which of the following most accurately describes the way the entity is
behaving?
A. Responsibly
B. Ethically
C. Sustainably
D. Morally
4. Which of the following groups consists of only secondary stakeholders?
A. Directors, Managers, Employees, Customers.
B. Shareholders, Directors, Lenders, Suppliers.
C. Local community, Governments, Managers, Shareholders.
D. Shareholders, Suppliers, Lenders, Employees.
5. If a manager maintains or increases market share, ensures the survival, and
discourages competition, the objective of the business will be:
A. Wealth maximization.
B. Profit maximization.
C. Share price maximization.
D. Revenue maximization.
6. Company A has increased sales revenue by 8% in each of the last few years.
A stated objective of Borneo is to increase sales revenue by 10%. Which key
characteristic of quantitative operational goals does Company A’s objective
lack?
A. Being specific.
B. Being measurable.
C. Being achievable.
D. Being time-bound.
7. The following are examples of not-for-profit organizations, excepting:
A. Charities.
B. Local authorities.
C. Government agencies.
D. A multinational food producer.
8. Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of public sector?
A. Owned by the nation and managed by the government.
B. Provides the public goods and government services.
C. Consists of all privately owner, profit-oriented businesses.
D. Encompasses universal, critical services such as national defense, police
protection, taxation, and various social programs.
9. The combined output of individuals working together exceeds their
individual output refers to which of the organization’s advantages?
A. Time-saving
B. Knowledge sharing
C. Expertise pooling
D. Synergy effect (cộng hưởng)
10. Letting people specialize in what they do best and pool their expertise refer
to which of the organization’s advantages?
A. Time-saving
B. Knowledge sharing
C. Expertise pooling
D. Synergy effect
11. SMART in characteristics of operational objectives of a business means:
A. Special, Measurable, Achievable, Realistic and Time-bound.
B. Specific, Measurable, Achievable, Relevant and Time-bound.
C. Specific, Managerial, Assessable, Realistic and Time-bound.
D. Specific, Measurable, Assessable, Relevant and Time-bound.
12. Which of the following statements best describes the sustainability?
A. The ability to increase positive impacts and decrease negatives ones of a
business.
B. The ability to meet the needs of the present without compromising the
ability of future generations to meet their own needs.
C. The ability to use both tangible and intangible assets at the present.
D. The ability to deploy natural capital in order to satisfy the stakeholders.
13.Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of private sector?
A. Consists of all privately owner, for-profit businesses in the economy
B. Tends to make up a large share of the economy in free market.
C. Owned by the nation and managed by the government.
D. Has a goal of making profit.
14. ABC is a charity providing youth services in large cities. The chief
executive is involved in preparing a document outlining the services
provided by the charity. She wants to stress that it always seeks to operate at
maximum efficiency. In stressing this aspect of the charity’s operations, the
chief executive is highlighting the charity’s:
A. Vision
B. Mission
C. Plan
 D. Secondary objective
15.Company X runs bus services for local authorities. The chairman (chủ tịch)
of company has made the following two statements:
Statement (1): Increasing shareholder wealth is a secondary business objective
objective for the company.
Statement (2): Our primary business objective is long-term client satisfaction.
Identify whether each statement is accurate.
A. Statement (1) accurate; Statement (2) inaccurate
B. Statement (1) inaccurate; Statement (2) inaccurate
C. Statement (1) accurate; Statement (2) accurate
D. Statement (1) inaccurate; Statement (2) inaccurate

CHAPTER 2. Managing a business

1. Dividing a market into homogeneous groups of potential customers who
may be treated similarly for marketing purposes is known as:
A. Market mixing
B. Promotion
C. Segmentation (Phân khúc)
D. Demographics
2. The four major influences on an organization’s pricing policy are:
A. Cost-effectiveness, competitors, competence and customers.
B. Cost-effectiveness, commitment, competence and congruence.
C. Cost, commitment, corporate objectives and congruence.
D. Cost, competitors, corporate objectives and customers.
3. In relation to operations management, unit costs will be lowest if there is:
A. High volume output of a high variety of items.
B. Low volume output of a high variety of items.
C. High volume output of a low variety of items. (sản lượng lớn với số lượng
mặt hàng ít)
D. Low volume output of a low variety of items.
4. Research into products which have obvious commercial (công dụng thương
mại) or practical use (thực tiễn rõ ràng) is called:
A. Market research
B. Pure research
C. Applied research
D. Process Research
5. Which type of business culture is the most relevant to public sector
organizations?
A. Internal process culture
B. Rational goal culture
C. Open system culture
D. Human relations culture
6. Which of the following is NOT the advantage of using intermediarities in
distribution?
A. Lower costs.
B. More efficient logistically.
C. Producers may not have sufficient resources to sell direct.
D. No need to share profit margins.
7. The five rights of procurement mix include:
A. Quality, quantity, price, place, time.
B. Quality, quantity, price, place, people.
C. Quality, quantity, price, place, promotion.
D. Quality, quantity, price, product, time.
8. Which of the following qualities are typical of a human relations culture:
A. Flexible and Outward-looking.
B. Flexible and Inward-looking.
C. Control and Outward-looking.
D. Control and Inward-looking.
9. A rational goal culture is best described as:
A. Goals are known and unchanged; methods and proceduces are defined.
B. The business is structured and controlled to deal effectively with the outside
environments.
C. The business must be highly flexible and open to new ideas.
D. The business aims to its existence and the well-being of staff.
10. Anticipating customer needs and then developing new ideas for products
and services to satisfy these needs would be a key function of which
department?
A. Purchasing
B. Manufacturing
C. Procurement
D. Research and development
11.To be market-oriented, a business should put whom in the center of its
marketing strategy.
A. Suppliers
B. Consumers
C. Investors
D. Debt holders
12.Which of the following variables in the marketing mix is NOT applied for
tangible products?
A. Product
B. Processes
C. Promotion
D. Place
13.Which of the following is NOT the characteristic of top managers?
A. Very numerous in number.
B. Responsible for overall direction and performance of the business
C. Holding the most power
D. Determining corporate strategy
14.Which of the following is NOT included in consumer durables?
A. White goods
B. Brown goods
C. Services
D. Soft goods
15.Which of the following factors is classified as hygiene factors by Frederick
Herzberg?
A. A sense of achievement
B. Working conditions of a job
C. Recognition
D. Responsibility
16.According to Henry Mintzberg, which of the following is NOT the action
that managers do in terms of decisional role?
A. Checking data received and passing it on to relevant people.
B. Dealing with an awkward client.
C. Allocating resources to operations.
D. Negotiating for what they need.
17.According to Bruce Tuckman, the order of four stages through which groups
proceed are:
A. Forming, norming, storming, performing
B. Forming, storming, norming, performing
C. Forming, storming, performing, norming
D. Forming, norming, performing, storming
18.What is the correct ascending order of accountability in the management
hierarchy?
A. Direct operational staff, First-line managers, Middle managers, Top
managers.
B. Direct operational staff, Senior managers, Middle managers, Top managers.
C. First-line managers, Direct operational staff, Middle managers, Top
managers.
D. Middle managers, First-line managers, Direct staff, Top managers.
19. “Competence” in the Harvard four Cs model of HRM means:
A. Assess employees’ motivation, loyalty and job satisfaction.
B. Employees’ skills, abilities and potential.
C. The extent to which management and employeees share a common vision
for the business.
D. Concerns operational efficiency.
CHAPTER 3. Organizational and business structures
1. Which of the following is Henry Mintzberg’s building blocks of an
organization?
A. Support Staff
B. Functional division
C. Scalar chain
D. Supervision
2. In term of structure, Platelet company is a wide, flat organization. Which of
the following characteristics is the company most likely to exhibit?
A. A little need to delegate.
B. Higher administration and overhead costs.
C. Many oppoturnities for promotion.
D. Large spans of control.
3. Morden management theorists emphasize two core values, including:
A. Multi-skilling and Flexibility.
B. Specification and Flexibility.
C. Multi-skilling and Stability.
D. Specification and Stability.
4. Which of the following is NOT the feature of entrepreneurial structure?
A. Entrepreneur has specialist knowledge of product/service.
B. Entrepreneur has total control over running of the business.
C. Similar to Mintzberg’s simple structure.
D. Business is split itno divisions.
5. The functional structure is most suitable where there is:
A. Complex of hi-tech industries.
B. Single product, stable environment and a smaller enterprise.
C. Larger, more diversified business.
D. A group of dissimilar products.
6. Which of the following is NOT the advantage of divisional structure?
A. Flexible in adapting to growth and diversification.
B. Release top management to concentrate on strategic issues.
C. Good for developing managers as they are given responsibility for divisional
profit.
D. No interdivisional trading problem.
7. Wide span of control is suitable when:
A. Subordinates do similar tasks and can help each other.
B. Subordinates do similar tasks.
C. There is more non-supervisory work in a manager’s workload.
D. Time consuming problems that a manager might have to help surbordinates
with.
8. Which of the following is NOT the characteristics of tall business?
A. Narrow control spans.
B. Small group enable team members to participate in decisions.
C. A large number of steps on the promotional ladder.
D. Quick decision-making and responses.
9. Standardization of outputs in coordinating mechanism refers to:
A. Specification of results such as the setting of targets.
B. Requiring workers to have particular skills or qualifications.
C. Laying down standard operating procedures.
10. Company A is being run in the business set up in the technological industry
in which innovation is the critical success factor. Company A provides an
online platform with a complex trading environment for market
participants. The company is being run by competent and flexible
operational staff who can deal with the dynamic external environment and
complex tasks. Company A would be expected to have:
A. A simple structure.
B. A functional structure.
C. A divisional structure.
D. A matrix structure.
11. Spitzbergen company wants to decentralize as many aspects of its activities
as it can. However, it is facing difficulties in achieving the required level of
decentralization of the company’s finance function. Which of the following
characteristic is least likely to have created difficulties in achieving
decentralization?
A. homogeneous financial requirements across the company.
B. The company’s large size.
C. The authoritarian leadership style of the finance director.
D. Poor downward communication.
12. Which of the following factors directly limits how many subordinates
should report to a single manager?
A. The size of the business.
B. Where the manager is situated in the management hierarchy.
C. How far the manager is engaged in dealings with customers and suppliers.
D. The length of the scalar chain.
13. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of limited liability
companies?
A. Perpetual succession.
B. Separate legal personality.
C. The company’s obligation is unlimited.
D. Regulation under the Companies Act.
14. Which of the following statements about sole tradership is correct?
A. The business has perpetual succession.
B. The owner has limited liability for unpaid business debts.
C. The business may issue securities to raise funds.
D. The business may borrow money against a fixed charge on the sole trader’s
assets.
15.A sole tradership is an organizational structure by which
A. Two or more people agree to conduct a business with a view of profit.

B. A single proprietor owns the business, taking all the risks, and enjoying all
the rewards of the business.
C. The existence depends on the relationship among partners.
D. The owners have limited liability for unpaid debts.
16. The following are features of a partnership, excepting:
A. Partners take drawing from the business.
B. A share in a partnership is not a form of property and selling it can be
difficult.
C. The entity can issue securities to raise funds.
D. There is no perpeptual succession.
17. The following are the advantages of a company, excepting:
A. The separate legal personality of the company,
B. The company does not need to make financial information publicily.
C. The limited liability of its shareholders.
D. Shareholders in a company can sell their shares either to other shareholders
or to outsides.
18. Porteous company and Reynold company have formed a new company to
exploit the possibilities of a new technology. Porteous company has a 40%
stake in the new company and Reynold company has the balance. Porteous
company and Reynold company will contribute in similar proportions to the
management of the new company. This arrangement is an example of a:
A. Licensing agreement
B. Joint venture
C. Strategic alliance
D. Group structure
19. Romulus company and Remus company have recently agreed to cooperate
to exploit the possibilities that both companies have in a particular overseas
market. No separate company has been established for this purpose because
the companies’ chief executives, who have known each other for many
years, have agreed matters informally. This arrangement is an example of a:
A. Licensing agreement
B. Joint venture
C. Strategic alliance
D. Group structure
20. In 2014, Uber, a service provider, announced to collaborate with Spotify
which is a media and streaming service provider. By which, Uber riders are
able to stream their Spotify music playlists in the Uber cars. This has made
Uber users to have better experiences during their rides, and simultaneously
encourages them to upgrade Spotify Premium. As the result, both brands
 have gained access to boarder audiences and riders. What method of
collaboration did Uber and Spotify apply?
A. A group structure
B. A joint venture
C. A licensing agreement
D. A strategic alliance
21.Which of the following is the disadvantage of a company?
A. Separation of ownership and control.
B. Unlimited liability of its shareholders.
C. There is no perpeptual succession.
D. Difficulty in transferring of interest.
22. Which of the following is NOT the disadvantage of a sole tradership?
A. There are limits to the skills and the time of one individual.
B. Sole traders frequently overwork and find it difficult to take a holiday.
C. It is hard to expand unless there are new ideas and new capital.
D. Owners do not have the right to participate in the day-to-day management of
the entity.

CHAPTER 4.
1. Joe is performing a detailed strategic analysis for the Smertin company. He
is working on the internal analysis. Which of the following strategic
management techniques will Joe most likely use in undertaking his analysis?
A. Competitor analysis.
B. The value chain.
C. PESTEL analysis.
D. Five forces analysis.
2. The chief executive of Dallas company is considering several strategic
options for the company. The Johnson and Scholes criteria against which
these can be judged are:
A. Economy, Effectiveness and Efficiency.
B. Economy, Expectation and Efficiency.
C. Acceptability, Congruence and Feasibility.
D. Suitability, Feasibility and Acceptability.
3. SWOT analysis refers to the analysis of the organization’s:
A. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, Threats.
B. Skills, Weakness, Opportunities, Threats.
C. Strength, Workload, Opportunities, Threats.
D. Strength, Weakness, Opportunities, Thrusts.
4. Abraham works as a consultant for Boots company’s strategy project. He
needs to undertake an external analysis of the company as a part of the
planning review. Which of the following techniques can be applied to do this
task?
A. Porter’s five forces analysis.
B. Ansoff’s Matrix.
C. The BCG Matrix.
D. Resource audit.
5. As a business consultant for ICT Company, an emerging technology firm,
Michael is conducting an industry and sector analysis by adopting Porter’s
five forces model. Which of the following factors is NOT included in
Michael’s report?
A. Threat of new entrants.
B. Power of supplier.
C. The company’s resources and capabilities.
D. Power of customers.
6. William, a strategic analyst of Castel Company recently conducted a
company’s product lines analysis by applying the BCG matrix for a project
of product development. For one particular product, code AOF22, the model
indicated that a ‘build’ strategy should be adopted. Which of the following
did the BCG matrix classify the AOF22?
A. A dog
B. A star
C. A cash cow
D. A question mark
7. Three levels of strategy from top to down are:
A. Business, Corporate, Functional.
B. Business, Corporate, Operational.
C. Corporate, Business, Functional.
D. Corporate, Operational, Business.
8. Which of the following determinants least likely belong to the political
factors in the PESTEL analysis?
A. Social welfare policy
B. Taxation policy
C. Size of population
D. Government stability
9. In general, who will determine the corporate strategy?
A. A board of a company.
B. First-line managers.
C. Operational managers.
D. Head of department.
10. The right order of four key stages in a formal approach to strategic planning
are:
A. Analysis, choice, implementation, review and control.
B. Choice, analysis, implementation, review and control.
C. Analysis, choice, review and control, implementation.
D. Choice, implementation, analysis, review and control.
11. Which of the following tools is NOT used for internal analysis?
A. Competitor analysis.
B. Value chain.
C. Supply chain.
D. BCG matrix.
12.The sequential steps to determine the relevant strategy are:
A. Strategic options generation, Strategic options evaluation, Strategy selection.
B. Strategic options generation, Strategy selection, Strategic options evaluation.
C. Strategy selection, Strategic options generation, Strategic options evaluation.
D. Strategy selection, Strategic options evaluation, Strategic options generation.
13.PESTEL stands for:
A. Political, Economic, Social, Technology, Ecology, and Legal.
B. Physical, Economic, Social, Technology, Environment, and Legal.
C. Political, Econometric, Sociology, Technology, Ecology, and Legal.
D. Physical, Economic, Sociology, Technology, Environment, and Legal.
14.Which of the following is NOT included in the three levels of strategy in a
business?
A. Corporate strategy.
B. Business strategy.
C. Operational strategy.
D. Political strategy.
15.The most relevant strategy for a product with high market growth and low
relative market share is:
A. Build.
B. Hold or harvest.
C. Build or harvest.
D. Hold or divest.
16.Entry barriers for new entrants might be lowered if:
A. Scale of operations increases, the cost per unit of the product falls.
B. The market as a whole is not growing.
C. Existing firms in an industry may have built up a good brand image and
strong customer loyalty over a long time period.
D. Investment requirements are low.
17. The bargaining power of customers is strong when:
A. There is a few large customers.
B. Switching costs are high.
C. Products are important to customers.
D. Products are specialized.
18. When is the bargaining power of suppliers is strong?
A. Switching costs of buyers are low.
B. Large number of suppliers relative to buyers.
C. Buyers rely heavily on sales from suppliers.
D. Substitutes are available.
19.What are the characteristics of growth stage in the product life cycle?
A. There is a slow growth in sales. Unit costs are high because of low output
and expensive sales promotion.
B. Sales increase sharply and the product starts to make profits. As sales and
production rise, unit costs fall.
C. The rate of sales growth slows down and the product reaches a period of
maturity.
D. Sales begin to decline so that there is over-capacity of production in the
industry. Severe competition occurs, profits fall and some producers leave
the market.
20.A cash cow SBU has which of the following features?
A. A high market growth.
B. A low market growth.
C. A low relative market share.
D. A high initial investment.