BIDYASAGAR CLASSES, BHUABNESWAR

OUAT-2016
PHYSICS
1. The acceleration due to gravity g and mean density of 9. A scientist says that the efficiency of his heat energy
the earth ρ re related by which of the following relations? which works at source temperature 127℃ and sink
(Where G is gravitational constant and R is the radius of temperature 27℃ is 26%, then
the earth) (a) It is impossible
(b) It is possible but less probable
(c) It is quite probable
(a) (b)
(d) Data are incomplete
10. Select the appropriate property of an ideal gas
(c) (d) (a) Its molecules are infinitesimally small
2. When a rubber ball is taken to the bottom of a sea of (b) There are no forces of interaction between its
depth 1400 m, its volume decreases by 2%. The bulk molecules
modulus of rubber ball is [density of water is 1 g cc and g (c) It strictly obeys the ideal gas laws
= 10 m/s2.] (d) All of these
(a) 7 × 108 N/m2 (b) 6 × 108 N/m2 11. By increasing the temperature of a gas by 6℃, its
(c) 14 × 108 N/m2 (d) 9 × 108 N/m2 pressure increases by 0.4% at constant volume. Then
3. Two cubical blocks identical in dimensions float in initial temperature of gas is
water in such a way that 1st block floats with half part (a) 1000 K (b) 1500 K
immersed in water and second block floats with 3/4 of its (c) 2000 K (d) 750 K
volume inside the water. The ratio of densities of the 12. A boy is swinging in a swing. If he stand, the time
blocks is period will
(a) 2 : 3 (b) 3 : 4 (a) first decrease and then increase
(c) 1 : 3 (d) 1 : 4 (b) decrease
4. If T is the surface tension of a fluid, the energy needed (c) increase (d) remain same
to break a liquid drop of radius R into 64 equal drops is: 13. In a simple harmonic wave, minimum distance
(a) 6π R2T (b) π R2T between particles in same phase always having same
(c) 12π R2T (d) 8π R2T speed, is
5. A seconds pendulum clock has a steel wire. The clock (a) λ/4 (b) λ/3
shows correct time at 25 0c. How much time does the (c) λ/2 (d) λ
clock lose or gain, in one week, when the temperature is 14. A uniform string resonates with a tuning fork, at a
increased to 35 0C? maximum tension of 32 N. If it is divided into two
[αSteel = 1.2 × 10−5/℃] segments by placing a wedge at a distance one-fourth of
(a) 321.5 s (b) 3.828 s length from one end, then to resonance with same
(c) 82.35 s (d) 36.28 s frequency the maximum value of tension for string will be
6. What is the dimensional formula for thermal resistance? (a) 2 N (b) 4 N
(a) [M−1L−2T−1K] (b) [M−1L2T−2K−1] (c) 8 N (d) 16 N
(c) [ML−3T2K−1] (d) [M−1L−2T3K] 15. Two equally charged identical small balls kept some
7. Select the correct statement for work, heat and change fixed distance apart exert a repulsive force F on each
in internal energy. other. A similar uncharged ball, after touching one of
(a) Heat supplied and work done depend on initial and them is p laced at the mid-point of line joining the two
final states bails. Force experienced by the third ball is
(b) Change in internal energy depends on initial and final (a) 4F (b) 2F
state only (c) F (d) F/2
(c) Heat and work depend on the path between the two 16. What is the amount of charge possessed by 1 kg of
points electrons ?
(d) All of the above (a) 1.76 × 1011C (b) 1.76 × 10−9C
8. A certain amount of an ideal monoatomic gas needs 20 (c) 1.76 × 10−7C (d) 1.76 × 10−5C
J of heat energy to raise its temperature by 10℃ at 17. Electric charge Q, Q and −2Q respectively are placed
constant pressure. The heat needed for the same at the three corners of an equilateral triangle of side a.
temperature rise at constant volume will be Magnitude of the electric dipole moment of the system is
(a) 30 J (b) 12 J
(c) 200 J (d) 215.3 J (a) (b)
(c) Qa (d) 2Qa

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OUAT-2016
18. Total electric flux associated with unit positive charge (d) sometimes less and sometimes more than g
in vacuum is 27. A copper rod of length l is rotated about one end
(a) 4πε0 (b) 1/4πε0 perpendicular to the uniform magnetic field B with
(c) 1/ε0 (d) ε0 constant angular velocity ω. The induced e.m.f. between it
19. If an electric field is given by calculate the electric two ends is
flux through a surface of area 10 units lying in yz
(a) 100 units (b) 10 units (a) Bωl2 b)
(c) 30 units (d) 40 units
20. A particle A has charge +q and particle B has charge
+4q with each of them having the same mass m. When (c) (d) 2 Bωl2
allowed to fall from rest through the same electric 28. An inductive circuit contains a resistance of 10 ohms
potential difference, the ratio of their speeds will become and an inductance of 2 henry. If an alternating voltage of
(a) 1 : 2 (b) 2 : 1 120 V and frequency 60 Hz is applied to this circuit, the
(c) 1 : 4 (d) 4 : 1 current in the circuit would be nearly
21. A capacitor with plate separation d is charged to V (a) 0.32 A (b) 0.80 A
volts. The battery is disconnected and a dielectric slab of (c) 0.48 A (d) 0.16 A
thickness d/2 and dielectric constant ‘2’ is inserted 29. If in a plano-convex lens, radius of curvature of
between the plates. The potential difference across its convex surface is 10 cm and the focal length of the lens is
terminals becomes 30 cm, the refractive index of the material of the lens will
(a) V (b) 2V be
(c) 3V/2 (d) 3V/4 (a) 1.5 (b) 166
22. A potential difference of 5 V is applied across a (c) 1.33 (d) 3
conductor of length 10 cm. If drift velocity of electrons is 30. Two transparent media A and B are separated by a
2.5 × 10−4 m/s, then electron mobility will be plane boundary. The speed of light in medium A is 2.0 ×
(a) 5 × 10−4 m2 V−1 s−1 (b) 5 × 10−6 m2 V−1 s−1 108 ms−1 and in medium B is 2.5 × 108 ms−1. The critical
−2 2 −1 −1 angle for which a ray of light going from A to B suffers
(c) 5 × 10 m V s (d) zero
23. A square frame of side l carries a current i. The total internal reflection is
magnetic field at its centre is B. The same current is (a) sin−1 ½ (b) sin−1 2/5
−1
passed through a circular coil having the same perimeter (c) sin 4/5 (d) sin−1 3/4
as the square. The field at the centre of the circular coils is 31. Two waves having intensities in the ratio of 9 : 1
B’. The ratio of B and B’ is produce interference. The ratio of maximum to minimum
intensity is equal to
(a) 10 : 8 (b) 9 : 1
(a) (b) (c) 4 : 1 (d) 2 : 1
32. Two slits separated by a distance of 1 mm are
illuminated with red light of wavelength 6.5 × 10−7 The
(c) (d) interference fringes are observed on a screen placed 1 m
24. Two small bar magnets are placed in a line at certain from the slits. The distance between the third dark fringe
distance apart. If the length of each magnet is negligible and the fifth bright fringe on the same side of central
compared to d, force between them will be inversely maxima is
proportional to (a) 0.65 mm (b) 1.62 mm
(a) d2 (b) d (c) 3.25 mm (d) 4.88 mm
(c) d3 (d) d4 33. X-rays of wavelength 22 pm are scattered from a
25. If ϕ1 and ϕ2 the angles of dip in two vertical planes at carbon target at an angle of 85° to the incident beam. the
right angles to each other and ϕ is the true angle of dip Compton shift for X-rays is
then (a) 2.2 pm (b) 1.1 pm
(a) cot2 ϕ= cot2 ϕ1 + cot2 ϕ2 (c) 0.55 pm (d) 4.4 pm
(b) tan2 ϕ = tan2 ϕ1 + tan2 ϕ2 34. The angular speed of electron in the nth orbit of
(c) cot ϕ = cot ϕ1 + cot ϕ2 hydrogen atom is
(d) tan ϕ = tan ϕ1 + tan ϕ2 (a) directly proportional to n 2
26. A metallic ring with a cut is held horizontally and a (b) directly proportional to n
magnet is allowed to fall vertically through the ring, then (c) inversely proportional to n3
the acceleration of this magnet is (d) inversely proportional to n
(a) equal to g 35. Ratio of nuclear radii of 135Cs to 40Ca is
(b) more than g (a) 1.40 (b) 1.50
(c) less than g (c) 2.750 (d) 3.375
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OUAT-2016
36. The material suitable for making a solar cell is (a) 1 : √2 (b) 1 : 3
(a) PbS (b) GaAs (c) √3 : 1 (d) 3 : 1
(c) CdSe (d) Ge 48. If a ball is thrown vertically upwards with speed u, the
37. In semiconductors. which of the following relations is distance covered during the last t seconds of its ascent is
correct at thermal equilibrium?
(a) ni = ne = nh (b) ni2 = nenh
(c) ni = ne/nh (d) ni = ne + nh (a) ut (b)
38. The T.V. transmission tower in Delhi has a h eight of
240 m. The distance up to which the broadcast can be (c) (d) (u + gt)t
received, (taking the radius of earth to be 6.4 × 106 m) is
49. The position of a body moving along x-axis at time t is
(a) 100 km (b) 60 km given x = (t2 – 4t + 6) m. The distance travelled by body in
(c) 55 km (d) 50 km time interval t = 0 to t = 3 s is
39. Eddy currents are induced when (a) 5 m (b) 7 m
(a) metal block is kept in a changing magnetic field (c) 4 m (d) 3 m
(b) metal block is kept in a uniform magnetic field 50. If the displacement of a particle varies with time as √x
(c) a coil is kept in a uniform magnetic field = t + 7, then
(d) current is passed in a coil (a) velocity of the particle is inversely proportional to t
40. A magnetic needle of negligible breadth and thickness (b) velocity of the particle is proportional to t2
compared to its length, oscillates in a horizontal plane (c) velocity of t he particle is proportional to t
with a period T. The period of oscillation of each part (d) the particle moves with constant acceleration
obtained on breaking the magnet into n equal parts
51. The potential energy o f a particle varies with distance
perpendicular to the length is
x from a fixed origin as
(a) T/n (b) T
(c) Tn (d) /Tn
41. A proton and an alpha particle enter the same
magnetic field which perpendicular to their velocity. If (a) [ML7/2T−2] (b) [ML11/2T−2]
2 9/2 −2
they have same kinetic energy then ratio of radii of their (c) [M L T ] (d) [ML13/2T−3]
circular path is 52. If the percentage error in the measurement of
(a) 1 : 4 (b) 1 : 2 momentum and mass of an object are 2% and 3%
(c) 2 : 1 (d) 1 : 4 respectively, then maximum percentage error in the
42. The induced e.m.f. in a coil does NOT depend on calculated value of its kinetic energy is
(a) number of turns in the coil (a) 2% (b) 1%
(b) the rate of change of magnetic flux (c) 5% (d) 7%
(c) time of rotation 53. The velocities of A and B
(d) the resistance of the circuit
43. A current of 10 A is maintained in a conductor of are and .Velocity of B as
cross-section 1 cm2. If the number density of free observed by A is
electrons 9 × 1028 m−3, the drift velocity of free electrons
is (a) (b)
(a) 6.94 × 10−6 m/s (b) 5.94 × 10−2 m/s
−3
(c) 1.94 × 10 m/s (d) 2.94 × 10−4 m/s (c) (d)
44. If on the x-axis electric potential decreases uniformly 54. The horizontal ranges described by two projectiles
from 60 V to 20 V between x = −2 m to x = +2 m, then projected at angles (45° − θ) and (45° + θ) from the same
the magnitude of electric field at the origin point and same velocity are in the ratio
(a) must be 10 V/m (b) may be greater than 10 V/m (a) 2 : 1 (b) 1 : 1
(c) zero (d) is 5 Vim (c) 2 : 3 (d) 1 : 2
45. The dimensions of Planck’s constant equals to that of 55. The resultant of two vectors at angle 150° is 10 units
(a) Energy (b) Momentum and is perpendicular to one vector. The magnitude of the
(c) angular momentum (d) Power smaller vector is
46. The focal power of a lens ha the dimensions (a) 10 units (b) 10√3 units
(a) L (b) [ML2T−3] (c) 10√2 units (d) 5√3 units
−1
(c) [L ] (d) [MLT−3] 56. If the time of flight of a bullet over a horizontal range
47. The position time graphs of two cars A and B are R is T, then the angle of projection with horizontal is
straight lines making angles 30° and 60° with time axis (a) tan−1(gT2/2R) (b) tan−1(2R2/gT)
−1
respectively. The ratio of velocities of A and B is 2
(c) tan (2R/g T) (d) tan−1(2R/gT)
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57. The momentum p(in kg m/s) of a particle is varying 62. A ball of mass M moving with speed v collides
with time t(in s) as p = 2 + 3t2. The force acting on the perfectly in elastically with another ball of mass m at ret.
particles at t = 3s will be The magnitude of impulse imparted to the first ball is
(a) 18 N (b) 54 N (a) Mv (b) mv
(c) 9 N (d) 15 N
58. A block of mass m as shown in figure is pulled by a
force 40 N. The tension at the middle of the block is (c) (d)
63. If radius of earth becomes n times its present value
without change in mass, then duration of day becomes
(a) 24/n2 (b) 24n2

(c) (d) 24(1 – n2)

(a) 10 N (b) 20 N 64. Three point masses m1, m2 and m3 are placed at the
(c) 25 N (d) 30 N corners of a thin mass less rectangular sheet (1.2 m ×0 m)
59. A block of mass 10 kg is released on rough incline as shown. Centre of mass will be located at the point
plane. Block start descending with acceleration 2 m/s2.
Kinetic friction force acting on block is
(take g = 10 m/s2)

(a) 10 N (b) 20 N
(c) 25 N (d) 30 N
60. In a conical pendulum the length of strings is l and θ is (a) (0.8, 0.6) m (b) (0.6, 0.8) m
the angle of string with vertical. The time period of (c) (0.4, 0.4) m (d) (0.5, 0.6) m
revolution is
65. As we go from the equator to the poles, value of ‘g’
(a) remains the same (b) decreases
(a) (b) (c) increases
(d) first increases and then decreases
66. The acceleration due to gravity on a planet is 1.96
(c) (d) infinite m/s2. If it is safe to jump from a h eight of 3 m on the
61. KE of a body is increased by 44%. What is the percent earth, the corresponding height on the planet will be
increase in the momentum? (a) 3 m (b) 6 m
(a) 10% (b) 20% (c) 9 m (d) 15 m
(c) 30% (d) 40%
CHEMISTRY
−7
67. The p H value of 10 M solution HCl is (a) turn blue litmus red
(a) equal to 1 (b) equal to 2 (b) turn red litmus blue
(c) less than 7 (d) equal to 0 (c) be neutral to litmus
68. Which causes. the change in the value of equilibrium (d) be alkaline
constant of any equilibria? 72. Phosphorous has the oxidation state +3 in
(a) Adding of inert gas at constant pressure (a) H3PO4 (b) H3PO3
(b) Increasing the pressure (c) HPO3 (d) H4P2O7
(c) Adding of inert gas at constant volume 73. The ratio of number of moles of KMnO4 and
(d) Decreasing the temperature K2Cr2O7 required to oxidize 0.1 mole Sn2+ in acid
+
69. The no. of H in 10 ml of a solution with pH = 13 is medium, is
(a) 1013 (b) 6.023 × 1028 (a) 6 : 5 (b) 5 : 6
10 13
(c) 6.023 × 10 (d) 6.023 × 10 (c) 1 : 2 (d) 2 : 1
70. Which will undergo cationic hydrolysis? 74. Oxidation numbers of A, B, C are +2, +5 and −2
(a) NaCI (b) CH3COONa respectively. Possible formula of compound is
(c) (NH4)2SO4 (d) H2CO3 (a) A2(BC2)2 (b) A3(BC4)2
−16
71. If ionic product of water is Kw = 10 at 4℃ then a (c) A 2 (BC )
3 2 (d) A2(B2C)2
solution with pH = 7.5 at 4℃ will 75. Which is NOT the compound of sodium?
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 BIDYASAGAR CLASSES, BHUABNESWAR
OUAT-2016
(a) Chile salt peter (b) Salt petre (c) NH4OH (d) FeSO4
(c) GIaubere’s salt (d) Soda ash 89. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
76. Which one of the following is present as an active (a) Electrons enter through cathode in an electrolytic cell.
ingredient in bleaching powder for bleaching action? (b) Electrons leave through anode in an electrolytic cell.
(a) CaCl2 (b) CaOCl2 (c) Cations in the electrolytic cell move towards cathode
(c) Ca(OCl)2 (d) CaO2Cl and anions toward anode.
77. Which allotrope of carbon leads to the formation of (d) Cations are reduced at anode and anions are oxidized
bucky ball? at cathode in an electrolytic cell.
(a) Graphite (b) Diamond 90. An electrochemical cell has two half cell reaction as,
(c) Fullerene (d) Nano tube A2+ 2e →A E° = 0.34 V
78. Dimer Al2Cl6 is formed because X → X2+ + 2e E° = 2.37 V
(a) aluminium is electron rich The cell voltage will be
(b) aluminium is having lone pair of electron (a) 2.71 V (b) 2.03 V
(c) aluminium forms coordinate bonds with chlorine to (c) −2.71 V (d) −2.03 V
complete its octet 91. Which of the following is acidic flux?
(d) aluminium donates lone pair to form bridge (a) CaO (b) MgO
79. C-O bond length is maximum in (c) SiO2 (d) All of these
(a) CH3CHO (b) CO2 92. Extraction of zinc from zinc blend is achieved by
(c) CO (d) CO32− (a) electrolytic reduction
80. In which of the following compound Chiral C-atom is (b) roasting followed by reduction with carbon
present? (c) roasting followed by reduction with another metal
(a) CH3CHCl2 (d) roasting followed by self-reduction
(b) CH3CH(OH)CH3 93. The alloy used in dental filling contains
(c) CH3CH(OH)COOH (a) Ag and Sn (b) Ag and Sb
(d) CH3C(OH)2CH2COOH (c) Hg, Ag and Sn (d) Hg, Ag and Sb
81. Ice crystallizes in a hexagonal lattice having the 94. Which of the following amino acid is optically
volume of unit cell as 132 × 10−24 cm3. If density is 0.92 inactive?
gcm−3 at a given temperature, then number of H2O (a) Lysine (b) Glutamine
molecules per unit cell is (c) Serine ` (d) Glycine
(a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4 95. Which of the following carbohydrate CANNOT be
82. The compound produce after the ozonolysis of digested by human body?
benzene is (a) Starch (b) Cellulose
(a) Glyoxal (b) Methanal (c) Glycogen (d) All of these
(c) Ethanal (d) Hexanal 96. Which of the following is water soluble vitamin?
83. C6H5CH2CH3 can be prepared by (a) Vitamin-C (b) Vitamin-O
(a) Wurtz reaction (c) Vitamin-A (d) Vitamin-K
(b) Fittig reaction 97. An example of natural biopolymer is
(c) Wurtz Fittig reaction (a) Teflon (b) Rubber
(d) Frankland reaction (c) DNA (d) Nylon
84. The reaction of CH3CH = CH2 with HOCl will yield 98. Which of the following is mixed ketone?
(a) 2-chloro-1-propanol (b) 3-chloro-2-propanol (a) Pentanone (b) Acetophenone
(c) 1-chloro-2-propanol (d) 1-chloro-1-2propanol (c) Benzophenone (d) Propanone
85. Which of the following shows geometrical isomerism? 99. Benzyl alcohol and sodium benzoate is obtained by
(a) But-1-ene (b) But-2-ene the action of concentrated sodium hydroxide on
(c) Prop-1-ene (d) Pent-1-ene benzaldehyde. This reaction is known as
86. Which of the following crystal is represented by a (a) Perkin reaction
a ≠ b ≠ c and α ≠ β ≠ γ ≠ 90° ? (b) Cannizzaro reaction
(a) Orthorhombic (b) Monoclinic (c) Sandmeyer reaction
(c) Triclinic (d) Tetragonal (d) Claisen condensation
87. What is the relation between diamond and graphite? 100. Which is most reactive nucleophile in polar aprotic
(a) Polymorphous (b) Isomer solvent?
(c) Isotope (d) Isomorphous (a) F− (b) Cl−
88. Which of the following is NOT a strong electrolytes? (c) Br (d) I−
(a) NaCl (b) KNO3

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101. An SN3 reaction at an asymmetric carbon of a (c) para isomer due to symmetry
compound always gives (d) None of these
(a) an enantiomer of the substrate 113. Which of the following statement is TRUE?
(b) a product with opposite optical rotation (a) Molarity of solution is independent of temperature.
(c) a mixture of diastereomers (b) Molality of solution is independent of temperature.
(d) a product with 100% inversion (c) Mole fraction of solute is dependent on temperature.
102. Which of the following acts as a poisonous gas? (d) The unit of molality is mol dm−3.
(a) COCl2 (b) CCl2F2 114. The unit of rate constant and rate of reaction are
(c) Benzene (d) CH3Cl same for
103. Which of the following is used as fire extinguisher (a) First order (b) Zero order
under the name pyrene? (c) Second order (d) Third order
(a) CO2 (b) CCl4 115. The IUPAC name of phthalic acid is
(c) CH2 = CH-Cl (d) Cl-CH = CH-Cl (a) Benzene-1, 2-dicarboxylic acid
104. Drugs can be classified on the basis of (b) Benzene-1, 4-dioic acid
(a) Pharmacological effect (c) Cyclo-1, 3,5-trien-1, 2-dioic acid
(b) drug action (d) Benzene-1, 3-dicarboxylic acid
(c) chemical structure 116. Which of the following has NO unit ?
(d) All of these (a) Molality (b) Molarity
105. Soaps are sodium or potassium salt of long chain (c) Mole Fraction (d) Normality
fatty acid like Answer: (c)
(a) Palmitic acid (b) Oleic acid 117. Concentration of glucose in blood is 0.8 gL−1, the
(c) Stearic acid (d) All of these molarity of glucose in the blood should be
106. Which type of detergents are preferably used in (a) 5.5 × 10−3 (b) 4.4 × 10−5 M
−5
liquid dish washing? (c) 5.5 × 10 M (d) 4.4 × 10−3 M
(a) Cationic detergent 118. Which of the following is the main cause of late
(b) Anionic detergent discovery of neutron?
(c) Non-ionic detergent (a) Neutron in nucleus moves very fast.
(d) All of these (b) Neutron is highly unstable particle.
107. Biodegradable detergent should have (c) Neutron is charge less particle.
(a) Phenyl side chain (d) All of these
(b) Aromatic side chain 119. For ‘p’ electron, the orbital angular momentum is
(c) Normal unbranched side chain
(d) Branched side chain (a) (b)
108. Major point of difference between antiseptic and (c) h (d) 2h
disinfectant is Answer: (b)
(a) antiseptic prevents growth of micro organism 120. The partial pressure hydrogen in a flask containing
(b) disinfectant kills micro-organism 2g H2 and 32g SO2 is—— of total pressure.
(c) disinfectant are not safe to be applied to living tissues (a) 1/16th (b) 1/9th
(d) Both (A) and (B) (c) 2/3rd (d) 1/8th
109. Which of the following is NOT a constituent of 121. The temperature of a gas is raised from 27℃ to
talcum powder? 927℃. The root mean square speed of the gas
(a) Talc (b) Zinc sulphide (a) remains same (b)
(c) Zinc stearate ` (d) Perfume (c) gets halved (d) gets doubled
110. Grignard reagent is suitable reagent for the 122. What is the correct increasing order of liquefiability
preparation of which of the following from carbonyl of the gas?
compound? (a) H2 < N2 < CH4 < CO2
(a) 1° alcohols (b) 2° alcohols (b) H2 < CO2 < CH4 < N2
(c) 3° alcohols (d) All of these (c) CO2 < CH4 < N2 < H2
111. Phenols can be distinguished from alcohols by (d) CO2 < CH4 < H2 < N2
(a) FeCl3(neutral) (b) Fehling solution 123. Which of the following is largest in size?
(c) Tollen’s reagent (d) 2, 4-DNP (a) N3− (b) O2−
112. In Reimer – Tiemann reaction, the major product is (c) F −
(d) All of these
(a) ortho isomer due to intra molecular H-bonding 124. The least electronegative element has the following
(b) meta isomer electronic configuration:

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2 3 2 4
(a) ns np (b) ns np 129. A cylinder contains either ethylene or propylene of
(c) ns2np3 (d) ns2np6 12 ml of gas required 54 ml of oxygen for complete
125. The group of elements in which the last electron is combustion. The gas is
present in the anti-penultimate shell of atom is called (a) Ethylene (b) Propylene
(a) f-block elements (b) d-block elements (c) 1 : 1 mixture of two gases
(c) p-block elements (d) s-block elements (d) 1 : 2 mixture
126. In PO43− ion, no. of bond pair and lone pair of 130. Calorific value of ethane, in Kj/g if the reaction is
electrons on phosphorous atom respectively are 2C2H6 + 7O2 → 6CO2 + 6H2O, ∆H = −6 Kcal
(a) 5, 1 (b) 4, 1 (a) −12.4 (b) −52
(c) 3, 1 (d) 5, 0 (c) −24.8 (d) −104
127. At 25℃ and 730 mm pressure, 380 ml of dry oxygen Answer: (b)
was collected. If the temperature is constant what volume 131. Exothermic reaction among the following is
will the oxygen occupying at 760 mm pressure? (a) combustion of N2 from NO
(a) 569 ml (b) 365 ml (b) decomposition of H2O
(c) 265 ml (d) 621 ml (c) conversion of diamond to graphite
128. The surface tension of which of the following liquid (d) dehydrogenation of ethane to ethene
is maximum? 132. When an ideal gas undergoing, expansion in vacuum
(a) C2H5OH (b) CH3OH shows
(c) H2 (d) C6H6 (a) ∆U = 0 (b) W = 0
(c) q = 0 (d) All of these
BIOLOGY
133. Two cells A and B are contiguous. Cell A has Column II
osmotic pressure 10 atm, turgor pressure 7 atm and 1. Pineal gland, regulate the circadian behaviour
diffusion pressure deficit 3 atm. Cell B has osmotic 2. Posterior pituitary, facilitates birth
pressure 8 atm, turgor pressure 3 atm and diffusion 3. neck region, proliferation and regulation of T-
pressure deficit 5 atm. The result will be lymphocyte
(a) no movement of water 4. gonads, maintains pregnancy and uterus wall thickening
(b) equilibrium between two cells (a) a-2, b-4, c-3, d-1
(c) movement of water from cell A to B (b) a-3, b-2, c-4, d-1
(d) movement of water from cell B to A (c) a-4, b-2, c-1, d-3
134. A long day plant flowers only if exposed to alight (d) a-1, b-2, c-3, d-4
period 138. How parasympathetic neural signal is associated with
(a) more than its critical day length heart?
(b) less than its critical day length (a) Both heart and cardiac output increases.
(c) equal to its critical day length (b) Heart rate decreases but cardiac output increases
(d) slightly less than its critical day length (c) Both heart rate and cardiac output reduce.
135. The strand of DNA acting as template for mRNA (d) Heart date is increased without affecting the cardiac
transcription is output.
I. Coding strand II. non-coding strand III. sense strand 139. DNA fingerprinting is used for the detection of
IV. anti-sense strand criminals, paternity test etc. What is the basis of DNA
Choose the correct one from the codes given below fingerprinting?
(a) I & II (b) II and IV (a) The relative amount of DNA in the ridges and grooves
(c) I and III (d) II and III of the fingerprint.
136. Germinal epithelium of ovary has (b) Satellite DNA occurring as highly repeated short
(a) cuboidal cells (b) columnar cells DNA segments.
(c) quamous cells (d) stratified cells (c) The relative proportions of purine and pyrimidine in
137. Some hormones are given in Column I. Match the DNA
source and function with Column II and choose the correct (d) The relative difference in the DNA occurrence in the
code. blood skin and saliva.
Column I 140. During prolonged fastings, in what sequence are the
a. Oxytocin following organic compounds used up by the body?
b. Progesterone (a) First carbohydrate, next fats and lastly proteins
c. Thymus (b) First fats, next carbohydrates and lastly proteins
d. Meltonin

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(c) First carbohydrates, n ext proteins and lastly (a) space travel (b) blood transfusion
carbohydrates (c) air pressure (d) blood pressure
(d) First proteins, next lipid and lastly carbohydrates 149. Given below is the ECG of a normal human, which
141. Duodenum has characteristic Burnner’s gland which one of its components is correctly interpreted below?
secrete two hormones called
(a) kinase, estrogen
(b) Secretin, cholecystokinin
(c) prolactin, parathormone
(d) estradiol, progesteron
(a) Complex Q RS-one complete pulse
142. The richest source of Vit. B12 is
(b) Peak T-initiation of total cardiac concentration
(a) goat’s liver and spirulina
(c) Peak P and Peak R together systolic and diastolic
(b) chocolate and green gram
blood pressure
(c) rice and hen’s egg
(d) Peak P-initiation of left atrial contraction only
(d) carrot and chicken’s breast
150. If due to some injury the chordate tendineae of the
143. Which one of the following mammalian cells is NOT
tricus pid valve of the human heart is partially non-
capable of metabolizing glucose to carbon dioxide
functional, what will be the immediate effect?
aerobically?
(a) flow of blood into the aorta will be slowed down.
(a) Unstriated muscle cells
(b) The pace maker will stop working.
(b) Liver cells
(c) blood will tend to flow back into the left atrium.
(c) Red blood cells
(d) flow of blood into the pulmonary artery will be
(d) White blood cells
reduced.
144. If for some reason our goblet cells are non-tuncional,
151. Angiotensinogen is a protein produced and secreted
this will advarsely affect
by
(a) production of somatostatin
(a) Juxtaglomerular cells (JG cells)
(b) secretion of sebum from the sebaceous glands
(b) macula densa cells
(c) maturation of sperms
(c) endothelial cells (cells lining the blood vessels)
(d) stop movement of foods down the intestine
(d) liver cells
145. Two friends are easting together on a dining table.
152. A person who is on a long hunger strike and is
One of them suddenly starts coughing while swallowing
surviving only on water will have
some food. This coughing have been due to improper
(a) less amino acids in his urine
movement of
(b) more glucose in his blood
(a) epiglottis (b) diaphragm
(c) less urea in his urine
(c) neck (d) tongue
(d) more sodium in his urine
146. Listed below are four respiratory capacities (i – iv)
and four jumbled respiratory volumes of normal human 153. A fall in glomerular filtration rate (GFR) activates
adult. (a) Juxtaglomerular cells to release renin
Respiratory capacities Respiratory volume (b) Adrenal cortex to release aldosterone
i. Residual volume 2500 ml. (c) Adrenal medulla to release adrenaline
ii. Vital capacity 3500 rnl. (d) Posterior pituitary to release vaspressin
iii. Inspiratory reserve 4500 ml. 154. The contractile protein of skeletal muscle involving
Which one of the following is that correct matching of ATPase activity is
two capacities and volumes? (a) troponin (b) tropomyosin
(a) (ii) – 2500 ml, (iii) – 4500 ml, (c) myosin (d) a-actinln
(b) (iii) – 1200 ml, (iv) – 2500 ml 155. In gymnosperm, the pollen chamber represents
(c) -3500ml., (i) – 1200 ml. (a) a cell in the pollen grain in which the sperms are
(d) (i) – 4500 ml., (ii) – 3500ml. formed
(b) a cavity in the ovule in which pollen grains are stored
147. What is TRUE about RBC’s in humans?
after pollination
(a) They carry about 20-25 percentage of CO2
(c) an opening in the megagametophyte through which
(b) They transport 99.5% of O2.
the pollen tube approaches the egg
(c) They transport about 80% oxygen only and the rest
(d) the microsporangium in which pollen grains develop
20% of its is transported in dissolved state in blood
156. Triploblastic unsegmented, acoelomate exhibiting
plasma.
bilateral symmetry and reproducing body asexually and
(d) They do not carry CO2 at all
sexually, with some parasitic arms.
148. ‘Rh factor’ is related with
The above description is the characteristic of phylum.
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(a) Annelida (b) Platyhelminthes (a) A-illium, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-
(c) ctenophore (d) Cnidaria Ischium, E-Pubis
157. Proton gradient is very important across the (b) A-Stapes, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-
membrane because Ischium, E-Pubis
(a) building up of proton gradient release energy (c) A-incus, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-
(b) building up of proton gradient increase the pH Ischium, E-Pubis
towards lumen side of thylakoid membrane (d) A-coccyx, B-Acetabulum, C-Pubic symphysis, D-
(c) breakdown of proton gradient release CO2 Ischium, E-Pubis
(d) breakdown of proton gradient release energy 164. In females, the hormone inhibin is secreted by
158. In the electron transport system p[resent in the inner (a) granulose and theca cells
mitochondrial membrane, complexes I and IV are (b) granulose cells and corpus luteum
respectively. (c) granulose and cumulus oophorous cells
(a) NADH dehydrogenase and FADH2 (d) granulose and zona pellucida
(b) NADH dehydrogenase and ctyochrom-C oxidase 165. Which of the following Chargaff’s rule is incorrect?
complex (a) The DNA molecule has equal A-T and G-C base
(c) NADH dehydrogenase and ATP synthase pairs.
(d) NADH dehydrogenase and cytochrome a3 (b) Purine (A + G) are always equal to pyrimidines
159. In haemoglobin, which amino acid acts as a blood (T+C).
buffer? (c) The amount of A is always equal that of ‘T’ and the
(a) Histidine (b) Glutamine amount of ‘G’ is always equal to that of C.
(c) Aspartic acid (d) Lysine (d) The base ratio A+T/G+C varies for a given species.
160. RAS is associated to which of the following 166. Histones are a set of positively charged proteins
hormones? which are rich in
(a) Mineralocorticoids (b) Glucocorticoids (a) lysine and asparagine
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these (b) lysine and arginine
161. Lipids are found in acid insoluble fraction during the (c) valine and glutamine
analysis of chemical composition of tissues. Give the (d) valine and serine
reason. 167. Select the correct option
(a) It has very high molecular weight. Direction of RNA Direction of reading of
(b) It is polymer. Synthesis the template DNA strand.
(c) On grinding, the biomembranes are broken down into (a) 6′ → 3′ 3′ → 5′
pieces and form insoluble vesicles. (b) 3′ → 5′ 5′ → 3′
(d) It has low molecular weight.
162. Match the following columns. (c) 5′ → 3′ 5′ → 3′
Column I Column II
a. Bt tobacco 1. Vitamin-A (d) 3′ → 5′ 3′ → 5′
b. Lepidopterans 2. High yield and pest
resistance 168. Volk mann’s canal connects
c. Bt cotton 3. Manduca sexta (a) Osteocyte with matrix
d. Golden rice 4. Tobacco budworm (b) different bones
(a) a-3, b-4, c-2, d-1 (b) a-1, b-2, c-4, d-3 (c) haversian canal with matrix
(c) a-4, b-2, c-3, d-1 (d) a-3, b-1, c-2, d-4 (d) haversian canal with other haversian canals.
163. Consider the given diagram and identify the lebels A, 169. Assertion: A widely used diagnostic test for AIDs is
B, C, D and E. enzyme linked immunosorbent assay (ELISA)
Reason : Western blotting test is employed for
confirmation of ELIZA negative cases.
(a) Both assertion and reason are true and reason is the
correct explanation of assertion.
(b) Both assertion and reason are true but reason is not
the correct explanation of assertion.
(c) Assertion is true but reason is false
(d) Both assertion and reason are false.
170. In the pedigree shown in the figure, individuals with
Choose the correct option identifying the lebels. the solid symbols suffer from a genetic disease caused by
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a recessive allele at an autosomal locus. You would (a) NO2 and SO2 from burning tossil fuels
counsel the couple marked A and B, that the probability (b) production of NH3 by industries.
that each of their children will have the disease is (c) release of CO by incomplete combustion
(d) formation of CO2 by combustion and animal
respiration
177. Which of the following combination represents the
vector of cloninq capacity of DNA from smaller to
bigger?
(a) BAC, YAC, Plasmid, Cosmid
(b) Plasmid, BAC, YAC, Cosmid
(a) 0% (b) 25%
(c) YAC, Plasmid, BAC, Cosmid
(c) 50% (d) 75%
(d) Plasmid, Cosmid, BAC, YAC
171. Which of the following is correct order of the
evolutionary history of man? 178. Group of sporangia or sporophyll is known as
(a) Inducium (b) Prothallus
(a) Peking man, Homo sapiens, Neanderthal man, Cro
magnon Man (c) Sorus (d) Strobilus
(b) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Heidelberg man, Cro 179. Teichoic acid is found in the cell wall of
magnon man (a) Clostridium (b) Salmonella
(c) Peking man, Heidelberg man, Neanderthal man, Cro (c) Anabaena (d) Rhizobium
magnon man 180. If 400 pollengrains are produced in a single
(d) Peking man, Neanderthal man, Homo sapiens, monothecus anther then, what was the number of pollen
Heidelberg man grain mother cells in each of the sporangia?
172. The linkage map of a chromosome of Drosophila has (a) 200 (b) 100
66 units, with yellow body (y) gene at one end bobbed (c) 50 (d) 25
hair (b) gene at other end. What would be the 181. Zygospore differs from zoospores by
recombination frequency between these two genes ‘Y’ and (a) being diploid
‘b’? (b) being activity motile
(a) 100% (b) ≤50% (c) being sexual spore
(c) 66% (d) >50% (d) helps in dispersal species
173. A health disorder myxoedema that results from the (e) does not undergo meiosis before germination.
deficiency of thyroxine in adult leads to (a) a, c, and d only (b) b, d and e only
I. a low metabolic rate (c) a and c only (d) All except b
II. increase in body weight 182. How many of t he listed character are NOT indicative
III. tendency to retain water in tissues Down’s Syndrome?
IV. rise in body temperature Big and wrinkled tongue, Gynaeco mastia,
Choose the correct code: Simple palmerease under developed feminine characters,
(a) I and IV (b) IV only Broad flat face Azoospermia, Congenital heart disease.
(c) II and IV (d) I,II, III and IV (a) 2 (b) 1 (c) 3 (d) 4
174. On which part of the brain a ‘drunk’ has the earliest 183. ‘Myotonic dystrophy’ in human is controlled by
effect? (a) X linked recessive gene
(a) Cerebrum (b) X linked dominant gene
(b) Pons varolii (c) autosomal dominant gene
(c) Cerebellum (d) autosomal recessive gene
(d) Medulla oblongata 184. From the following listed molecules how many are
175. If you were outside for a long time on a hot, dry day nucleosides? Thymidylate, Guanosine, Uridine, Cytosine
without anything to drink, which of the following would Guanilic acid, Adenosine, Adenylate
happen? (a) 4 (b) 3 (c) 2 (d) 6
(a) The production of thyroxin by thyroid gland would 185. Which of the following statements is correct?
increase. (a) In chlorophyceae the stored food material is starch
(b) The osmotic pressure of blood would decrease. and the major pigments are chlorophyll a and b.
(c) The re-absorption of fluids from kidney tubules would (b) In phaeophyceae, laminarin is the stored food and
decrease. major pigments are chlorophyll a and b.
(d) The secretion of anty-diuretic hormone from pituitary (c) In rhodophyceae, floridean starch is the stored food
gland would increase. and the major pigments are chlorophyll a, d and
176. Acid rain is produced by excess phycoerythrin.
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(d) Both (a) and (c) (c) primary oocyte in the graffian follicle
186. The type of epithelial cells which line the inner (d) ogonial cell in the graffian tollicle
surface of fallopian tubes, bronchioles and small bronchi 194. Hot spots are the area of in situ conservation. The
are known as key criteria for determining a hot spot is/are
(a) squamous epithelium (b) columnar epithelium (a) location in developed/undeveloped cavity
(c) ciliated epithelium (d) cubical epithelium (b) vicinity to the sea
187. Synaptonemal complex is formed during which stage (c) Number of endemic species and degrees of threat
of meiosis? (d) All of these
(a) Pachytene (b) Diplotene 195. Which of the following triat is controlled by
(c) Diakinesis (d) Zygotene dominant autosomal genes?
188. Which one of the following is NOT an auto immune (a) Polydactyly
disease? (b) Huntington’s chorea
(a) Grave’s disease (c) PTC (phenyl thio carbamide) tastinq
(b) Addison’s disease (d) All of these
(c) Rheumatoid arthritis 196. ——— produced by bacterium streptococcus and
.(d) Insomnia modified by genetic engineering is used as a clot buster
189. A probe which is a molecule used to locate specific from removing clots from the blood vessels of patients
sequences in a mixture of DNA or RNA molecules could which have undergone myocardial infarction leading to
be heart attack.
(a) a single stranded DNA (a) Lipase
(b) a single stranded RNA (b) Sterptokinase
(c) either RNA or DNA (c) Cyclosporine
(d) can be ss DNA but not ss RNA (d) Antibiotic streptomycin
190. In a strand ECG which one of the following alphabet 197. Ectopic pregnancy is
is the correct representation of the respective activity of (a) abnormal growth of the foetus in the womb
the human heart? (b) foetus growing half in fallopian tube and half in uterus
(a) S-Start of systole (c) implantation near the cervix
(b) T-Depolarisation of ventricles (d) growth of the foetus outside the uterus
(c) P-depolarisation of the atria 198. Which of the following situation will be fatal to first
(d) R-repolarisation of ventricles foetus?
191. Catalytic converters are fitted into automobiles to (a) If Rh+ man marries Rh+ woman
reduce emission of harmful gases. Catalytic converters (b) If Rh− man marries Rr+ woman
change unburnt hydrocarbons into (c) If Rh+ man marries Rh− woman
(a) carbondioxide and water (d) If Rh− man marries Rh− woman
(b) carbon dioxide 199. The placenta of human beings belong to the category
(c) methane of
(d) carbondioxide and methane (a) haemochorialis
192. Which of the following relations is correct? (b) syndermochorialis
(a) Ψw =Ψs – Ψp (c) endotheliochorialis
(b) Ψw = Ψm + Ψs (d) epitheliochorialis
(c) Ψw = Ψs + Ψp 200. The presence of arginase confirms that
(d) Ψw = Ψm – Ψs + Ψp (a) urea is being produced in excess
193. Vitellogenesis occurs during the formation of (b) Urea cycle may be operating
(a) ootid in the fallopian tube (c) arginine is being converted into ornithine
(b) secondary oocyte in the fallopian tube (d) arginine is being converted to citrulline
ANSWERS
1. A 9. C 17. B 25. B 33. A 41. B 49. D 57. A 65. C 73. A
2. A 10. D 18. C 26. B 34. C 42. D 50. C 58. B 66. D 74. B
3. A 11. B 19. A 27. C 35. B 43. A 51. A 59. B 67. C 75. B
4. C 12. D 20. A 28. D 36. B 44. A 52. D 60. B 68. D 76. B
5. D 13. C 21. D 29. C 37. B 45. C 53. B 61. B 69. B 77. C
6. D 14. A 22. B 30. C 38. C 46. C 54. B 62. C 70. B 78. A
7. D 15. C 23. A 31. C 39. A 47. B 55. B 63. B 71. B 79. D
8. B 16. A 24. B 32. B 40. C 48. C 56. A 64. C 72. B 80. C
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81. D 93. C 105. D 117. D 129. B 141. B 153. A 165. B 177. D 189. C
82. A 94. D 106. B 118. C 130. B 142. A 154. C 166. B 178. C 190. C
83. C 95. B 107. C 119. B 131. C 143. C 155. B 167. B 179. A 191. A
84. C 96. A 108. D 120. C 132. B 144. D 156. B 168. D 180. C 192. C
85. B 97. B 109. B 121. D 133. C 145. A 157. B 169. B 181. D 193. C
86. C 98. B 110. D 122. B 134. A 146. C 158. B 170. B 182. A 194. C
87. B 99. A 111. A 123. A 135. C 147. B 159. C 171. D 183. C 195. B
88. C 100. A 112. A 124. C 136. C 148. B 160. A 172. C 184. A 196. B
89. C 101. D 113. B 125. B 137. A 149. C 161. C 173. D 185. D 197. D
90. B 102. A 114. B 126. 138. A 150. D 162. A 174. C 186. B 198. C
91. C 103 B 115. A 127. B 139. B 151. D 163. A 175. D 187. A 199. A
92. B 104. D 116. C 128. C 140. A 152. C 164. B 176. A 188. D 200. B

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