Specimen Multiple choice paper

1. Which of the following is a method of non-conventional farming?

(A) Grow box
(B) Trough culture
All four are non-conventioal farming methods
(C) Organic farming
(D) Peri-urban farming

2. Which of the following is NOT a principle governing organic farming?

(A) Use of compost
(B) Strip cropping
(C) Biological pest control
(D) Protecting ecological balance

3. Which of the following occurs as a result of trade liberalisation?

(A) Local farmers face more foreign competition.
(B) More local farmers plant exotic crops.
(C) More people buy the crops locally.
(D) Foreign competition is kept out.

4. Which of the following groups of conditions adversely affects local and regional
agriculture?
(A) Praedial larceny, lack of extension service, adequate rainfall
(B) Poor marketing facilities, lack of credit, high technology usage
(C) Lack of appropriate technology, land fragmentation, praedial larceny
(D) Access to appropriate technology, lack of extension services, upgraded marketing
facilities

5. The funding of regional agriculture projects is usually undertaken by the

(A) Central Bank
(B) National Agricultural Bank
(C) National Development Bank
(D) Caribbean Development Bank

6. Which of the following is NOT a factor of production?

(A) Building
(B) Capital
(C) Labour
(D) Land

7. Farmer George intends to increase the size of his livestock farm by building an additional
pig
unit. Before doing this, farmer George should first prepare a
(A) partial budget
(B) farm inventory
(C) complete budget
(D) production record

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8. A budget is a useful decision-making tool because it
(A) is used to calculate depreciation costs
(B) is an audited statement of the past year
(C) is very accurate in the absence of records
(D) predicts production estimates and future prices

9. Demand is BEST defined as

(A) the willingness of consumers to buy goods and services
(B) a place where buyers and sellers meet to carry out business activities
(C) the desires of all individuals in a market to purchase a good or service
(D) the quantity that would be bought at a given price in a given time period

10. Supply is BEST defined as

(A) the willingness and ability of producers to make and sell products
(B) the willingness and ability to consume a given quantity of a good or service
(C) the willingness of sellers to sell more as the price goes higher for a good or a service
(D) the schedule or curve which shows the quantities which would be offered for sale at
various
prices

11. When the price of okra increases, consumers generally respond by

(A) buying less
(B) buying more
(C) not buying any okra
(D) buying the same amount

12. Marketing channels may also be described as

(A) communication channels
(B) channels of distribution
(C) intermediary channels
(D) promotional channels
13. When demand increases, price usually increases because
(A) the elasticity of demand for the good is equal to infinity
(B) producers will increase prices in response to a higher demand
(C) higher demand causes a shortage and competing buyers offer higher bids
(D) higher demand means the cost of production goes up so suppliers will increase prices

14. Increasing levels of inputs results in increasing levels of output up to a point, then there is
a decreasing rate of output. This response demonstrates the law of
(A) supply
(B) demand
(C) production function
(D) diminishing returns

15. A subsidy can be classified as an incentive given to farmers in the form of

(A) tax exemption
(B) a guaranteed price for crop export
(C) set minimum prices for agriculture produce
(D) financial assistance for the purchasing of farm equipment

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16. Advertising and sales promotion are referred to as
(A) market research
(B) market practices
(C) marketing strategies
(D) merchandising techniques

17. Which of the following groups of inputs BEST represents variable expenses?
(A) Feed, medication and feeders
(B) Depreciation and machinery
(C) Pens, waterers and feeders
(D) Machinery and labour

18. One of the MAIN characteristics of fixed cost is that they

(A) represent costs of capital items
(B) vary with the level of production
(C) can be controlled by the manager
(D) include wages of casual workers

19. Which of the following persons would MOST likely be a researcher in a CARICOM
agricultural
research institute?
(A) Pharmacist
(B) Cardiologist
(C) Microbiologist
(D) Forensic pathologist

20. Which of the following is a regional agricultural institution?

(A) CBI
(B) IDB
(C) OAS
(D) CARDI
21. Which of the above practices improves the oxygen and moisture content of the soil?
(A) Liming
(B) Weeding
(C) Mulching
(D) Ploughing

22. Which of the following is MOST effective in reducing the occurrence of blockage in the
nozzle of
a knapsack sprayer?
(A) Selecting the correct chemicals
(B) Ensuring the presence of filters
(C) Mixing the spray properly
(D) Replacing the nozzle

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23. While spraying with an insecticide, you realise that the delivery hose is blocked. To
correct this,
you should
(A) quickly remove the nozzle, and clear it under running water
(B) very carefully place nozzle to your mouth and blow it clear
(C) dismantle the spray unit and give it a thorough cleaning
(D) remove the lance, and clear the next section

24. A farmer needs to prune his tomato plants. Which of the following is the MOST
appropriate tool
for him to use?
(A) Cutlass
(B) Secateur
(C) Sharp knife
(D) Budding knife

25. Which of the following is BEST suited for the establishment of contour lines for
ploughing on a
slope?
(A) Knapsack sprayer
(B) Seed planter
(C) ‘A’ Level
(D) Ridger

26. The part of a bean seed which consists of the plumule and radicle is called the
(A) testa
(B) embryo
(C) cotyledon
(D) endosperm

27. Which of the following statements is NOT true of mitosis?

(A) The process of mitosis can be observed in the tip of a developing shoot.
(B) In asexual reproduction, cell division occurs by mitosis.
(C) Mitosis produces a diploid number of chromosomes.
(D) Mitosis produces female gametes in the ovary.
28. Minerals in soils result from
(A) the decomposition of rocks
(B) decomposition of organic materials
(C) a mixture of organic matter and clay
(D) the application of inorganic fertilizers

29. Which of the following are aspects of biotechnology?

I. Genetically engineered rice containing pro-vitamin A
II. Increased crop yield due to healthier planting material derived from tissue culture
III. DNA fingerprinting to allow faster development of improved genotypes
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III

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30. Soil conservation is of vital importance to a farmer because it maintains
I. soil fertility
II. the habitat of certain insect pests
III. the top soil at a rather constant depth
(A) I only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III

31. Which of the following groups of factors is necessary for successful germination of
seeds?
(A) Air, fertilizer, sunlight
(B) Moisture, air, suitable temperature
(C) Moisture, sunlight, suitable temperature
(D) Moisture, fertilizer, suitable temperature

32. Which of the following is NOT required for photosynthesis to occur?

(A) Light
(B) Water
(C) Oxygen
(D) Chlorophyll

33. Which of the following is a MAJOR difference between monocotyledons and

dicotyledons?
(A) The arrangement of the xylem and phloem
(B) The functions of the xylem and phloem
(C) The quantity of the xylem and phloem
(D) The size of the xylem and phloem
34. A natural vegetative process is establishing crops by
(A) seeds
(B) budding
(C) grafting
(D) stem tubers

35. The conservation of rain forests is of ecological importance because they

I. provide a source of great genetic diversity
II. provide ideal conditions for grazing livestock
III. play an important part in the water cycle by encouraging cloud formation
Which of the above statements are CORRECT?
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III

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36. A heterozygous tall plant is crossed with a homozygous short plant. Tall is dominant over
short.
The phenotype of the F1 generation will most likely be
(A) all tall
(B) all short
(C) 25% tall, 75% short
(D) 50% tall, 50% short

37. Postharvest losses are LEAST likely to occur in the process of

(A) storage
(B) labelling
(C) packaging
(D) transportation

38. ‘Damping off’ of tomato seedlings in a seed box is caused by

(A) a virus
(B) a fungus
(C) an aphid
(D) a nematode

39. Which of the following practices can BEST assist with both the maintenance of soil
fertility and
the control of pests and diseases?
(A) Heaving penmanuring
(B) Multiple cropping
(C) Soil fumigation
(D) Crop rotation
40. Which of the following crops is MOST likely to be attacked by leaf miner?
(A) Yam
(B) Tomato
(C) Banana
(D) Sugarcane

41. The purpose of the gizzard in the alimentary canal of a bird is to

(A) secrete digestive juices
(B) churn and grind up food
(C) store large amounts of food
(D) absorb water from the food

42. Roughages are typically high in

(A) fats
(B) fibre
(C) protein
(D) starches

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43. Hay is grass which has been
(A) cut, dried, and stored in bales
(B) cut and fed fresh to livestock
(C) cut, compressed and buried in an airtight pit
(D) cut, finely chopped and crushed between rollers

44. Chicks are debeaked in order to prevent

(A) pullorum
(B) coccidiosis
(C) pediculosis
(D) cannibalism

45. Which of the following statements is NOT true about drones in a hive of bees?
(A) They are infertile.
(B) They have no sting.
(C) Drones cannot secrete wax.
(D) They have the largest compound eyes.

46. How does a beekeeper recognise when a hive is about to swarm?

(A) Some workers start to build queen cells.
(B) There are no guard bees at the entrance.
(C) The bees become more aggressive.
(D) The workers stop eating honey.
47. In crossbreeding, the offspring are often of superior quality to either parent. This is
referred to as
(A) parthenogenesis
(B) paedogenesis
(C) homeostasis
(D) heterosis

48. The part of the egg which provides energy for the unhatched chick is the
(A) inner membrane
(B) albumen
(C) chalaza
(D) yolk

49. A balanced ration is BEST described as a

(A) high-protein diet given to pregnant and lactating animals
(B) feed which is given to young animals immediately after birth
(C) concentrate feed which has to be weighed, and must be very exact
(D) diet which contains all the food nutrients needed in the correct proportion

50. The purpose of the crop in the alimentary canal of the bird is to
(A) store ingested food
(B) secrete digestive enzymes
(C) churn and grind food to aid digestion
(D) absorb digested food in the blood stream

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51. Blotches, pimples and black scabs on the un-feathered parts of the bodies of poultry are
symptoms of
(A) roup
(B) cholera
(C) fowl pox
(D) Newcastle disease

52. The fusion between male and female gametes in sexual reproduction is called
(A) coition
(B) gestation
(C) copulation
(D) fertilization
53. Which of the following statements about artificial insemination (AI) are correct?
I. AI improves the chances of an egg being fertilized.
II. It increases the number of offspring produced by one male in a year.
III. AI prevents the spread of venereal diseases.
(A) I and II only
(B) I and III only
(C) II and III only
(D) I, II and III

54. The incubation period of a hen’s egg is

(A) 9 days
(B) 15 days
(C) 21 days
(D) 31 days

55. When should a rabbit, being a nocturnal animal, receive the larger portion of its ration?
(A) At midday
(B) Mid- morning
(C) Early morning
(D) Late afternoon

56. Coccidiosis in rabbits is caused by a

(A) virus
(B) fungus
(C) bacterium
(D) protozoan

57. Which of the following are freshwater fish?

(A) Trout, catfish, tilapia
(B) Grouper, snapper, sardine
(C) Cavalla, barracuda, kingfish
(D) Spanish mackerel, marlin, tuna

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58. If calves do not receive colostrum within the first 24 hours after birth, they may develop
(A) scours
(B) mastitis
(C) brucellosis
(D) anaplasmosis
59. Which of the following statements concerning the Barbados Blackbelly sheep is
INCORRECT?
(A) They are one of the most prolific breeds of sheep.
(B) They cannot survive in areas of poor vegetation.
(C) They have a high tolerance to worm infestation.
(D) They are very heat-tolerant.

60. The most common breed of dairy cattle reared in the Caribbean is the
(A) Zebu
(B) Jersey
(C) Holstein
(D) Brahman