The Clat Post - May, 2024 WGN
The Clat Post - May, 2024 WGN
The Clat Post - May, 2024 WGN
1. Polity and Governance 03 25. India’s Pronouncements at the 19th Session of the
1. Social Media Misuse in Judicial Proceedings ............. 03 UNFF .............................................................................................74
2. Article 244(A) and Autonomy Issue in Assam ......... 06 26. Achieving Net Zero Emissions in the Agrifood
3. Draft Explosives Bill, 2024................................................. 09 System: WB................................................................................77
4. State Budgets and Legislative Actions in India (2023) 27. World Migration Report 2024 ..........................................80
........................................................................................................ 11 28. Asia Hit Hardest by Disasters in 2023: WMO Report
5. Implementation of Guidelines for Eliminating .........................................................................................................83
Corporal Punishment ........................................................... 13 29. Alok Shukla Wins Goldman Prize for Hasdeo Aranya
6. Article 31C and Its Impact on Fundamental Rights Campaign ....................................................................................87
and Private Property ............................................................ 16 30. Changes in Glacial Lakes in the Indian Himalayan
7. Tamil Nadu Bans 23 ‘Ferocious’ Dog Breeds After River Basins ..............................................................................89
Attack........................................................................................... 19 31. Great Nicobar Island Project .............................................92
8. Kerala Temples Ban Oleander After Woman’s Death 32. Earth Day, 2024 .......................................................................95
........................................................................................................ 22 33. India’s Tree Cover Loss ........................................................97
9. Arvind Kejriwal Released on Interim Bail: The Case
7. How to Prepare for CLAT 2025 in Months?
So Far ........................................................................................... 24
10. India Proposes Digital Competition Bill, 2024 Against 8. Science & Technology 100
Tech Giants................................................................................ 28
34. Hydrocarbons Exploration and Extraction…………100
11. Sixth Schedule Demand of Ladakh ................................. 31
35. Indian Space Situational Assessment Report (ISSAR)
12. Unopposed Election of BJP Candidate in Surat Lok
2023………………………………………………………………...103
Sabha Constituency ............................................................... 33
36. Greater Ice on Moon Critical for
2. Economy & Governance 40 Missions…………………………………………………………...106
37. WEF Report on Earth Observation Data……………..109
13. RBI Guidelines for Asset Reconstruction Companies
38. WHO Releases Progress Report on Neglected
........................................................................................................ 36
Tropical Diseases………………………………………………112
14. UN Secretary-General's Panel on Critical Energy
Transition Minerals............................................................... 40 9. Miscellaneous 115
15. Rising Share of Personal Income Tax and Indirect Tax 39. Dr. Naima Khatoon's Appointment as Vice Chancellor
........................................................................................................ 43 of AMU ...................................................................................... 115
16. Trillions More Need to be Invested if SDGs are to be 40. Advertisers to Submit Self-Declarations Before
Rescued: UN Report .............................................................. 46 Promoting Products in Media: SC Orders……………117
17. Global Trade Update: UNCTAD ........................................ 49 41. Smart Cities Mission Status……………………………….120
18. Regional Economic Outlook for Asia and Pacific 42. WHO’s New Global Malaria Strategy for 2030…….123
Report .......................................................................................... 53 43. WHO Amendments to International Health
Regulations (2005)…………………………………………...125
3. What’s happening in your FamiLE 44. Border Roads Organisation's 65th Raising
Day……………………………………………………………..…...129
4. International Relations 57 45. World Bank Report on Agri-food System……………132
19. Panama Electing Jose Mulino as President ................ 46. Hindu Population Share Dipped 7.82%: PM-EAC..135
........................................................................................................ 57 47. Idashisha Nongrang Appointed Meghalaya’s First
20. Vladimir Putin's Inauguration for Fifth Term........... 60 Woman DGP……………………………………………………..138
21. EU Adopts First Law Against Violence Towards 48. Indian Literary Works in UNESCO’s Memory of the
Women ........................................................................................ 62 World Register………………………………………………….142
22. UN General Assembly Supports Palestinian UN
10. LE Online Comping Batches
Membership Bid ..................................................................... 65
23. India and Iran Sign Long-Term Bilateral Contract on 11. Important One Liners ....................................................... 144
Chabahar Port Operation ................................................... 68
12. LE Online Comping Batches
5. The Great Indian CLAT Show
13. CLAT POST Mock Test ...................................................... 185
6. Biodiversity and Environment 71
1. Question Paper ..................................................................... 185
24. Marine Heatwaves and Coral Bleaching in the
Lakshadweep Sea ................................................................... 71 2. Answer Key and Explanation ......................................... 213
2
Polity & Governance
Social Media Misuse in Judicial Proceedings
Why in news?
The Supreme Court of India has expressed significant concerns over the misuse of social media platforms in relation to
ongoing judicial cases. This issue has arisen due to instances where individuals spread false information about pending
court matters.
Key Features of Social Media Misuse in Judicial Proceedings
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which section of the Information Technology Act grants (a) Noam Chomsky (b) Marshall McLuhan
the Central and State governments the power to (c) Michel Foucault (d) Pierre Bourdieu
intercept, monitor, or decrypt information in computer
resources? 4. Under Section 79(1) of the IT Act, 2000, which of the
(a) Section 66 (b) Section 67 following conditions would qualify an intermediary for
(c) Section 69 (d) Section 65 liability exemption?
(a) Initiating the transmission of data
2. Which two justices emphasized the need to address (b) Modifying the content of data
misleading claims on social media due to their (c) Providing access to a communication system
interference in judicial proceedings? (d) Selecting the recipient of data
(a) Justices Aniruddha Bose and Bela M Trivedi
(b) Justices N V Ramana and Indu Malhotra 5. In which case did the Supreme Court of India strike
(c) Justices D Y Chandrachud and Hima Kohli down Section 66A due to concerns over freedom of
(d) Justices S A Bobde and R F Nariman speech?
(a) Indra Sawhney vs Union of India
3. Who introduced the concept of the "global village" and (b) Kesavananda Bharati vs State of Kerala
highlighted concerns about the media's influence on (c) Shreya Singhal vs Union of India
society? (d) T N Godavarman vs Union of India
8.9 Lakhs
registered voters
Smallest Constituency in
VI Schedule Managed by two
Assam in terms of voter
autonomous councils:
population
Karbi Anglong
Autonomous Council
6 Assembly
segments
that span
Karbi Zeme Naga
across Dimasa Bodo
3 Districts
Karbi Anglong
West Karbi
Anglong
Hmar
Kuki
Garo
Assamese
Dima Hasao
-known for their significant Rengma Naga Gorkha
tribal populations
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many Assembly segments does the Diphu Lok Cachar Hills Autonomous Council
Sabha constituency cover across its three tribal-majority
hill districts? 4. In which year did Meghalaya achieve statehood
(a) Four (b) Six following the movement for a separate hill state in
(c) Eight (d) Ten undivided Assam?
(a) 1965
2. Which of the following states is not covered under the (b) 1970
Sixth Schedule of the Indian Constitution for the (c) 1972
administration of tribal areas? (d) 1975
(a) Assam (b) Tripura
(c) Nagaland (d) Meghalaya 5. Which article of the Indian Constitution was referenced
by the Karbi Anglong region's leaders to remain with
3. Which two autonomous councils govern the three tribal- Assam instead of seeking a separate state?
majority hill districts within the Diphu Lok Sabha (a) Article 244(A)
constituency? (b) Article 371(A)
(a) Bodoland Territorial Council and Dima Hasao (c) Article 370
Council (d) Article 123
(b) North Cachar Hills Council and Bodoland Council
(c) Karbi Anglong Council and Assam Hill Council
(d) Karbi Anglong Autonomous Council and North
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which act is the Government of India planning to (a) Kodavas (b) Gonds
replace with the new Explosives Bill 2024? (c) Bhils (d) Santhals
(a) Indian Arms Act 1959 (b) Explosives Act 1884
(c) Mines Act 1952 (d) Arms Act 1878 4. Which explosive is made by stabilizing nitroglycerin
with an absorbent material like clay?
Under which Ministry does the Petroleum and (a) Ammonium Nitrate (b) Dynamite
2. Explosives Safety Organisation (PESO) operate? (c) RDX (d) TNE
(a) Ministry of Home Affairs
(b) Ministry of Environment 5. Which explosive compound is derived from toluene and
(c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry is used in military shells and underwater blasting?
(d) Ministry of Defence (a) TNT (b) TNE
(c) RDX (d) Ammonium Nitrate
3. Which tribal community in the Kodagu (Coorg) district is
one of the few in India allowed to possess a gun without a
license?
2. Correct Answer: (c) Ministry of Commerce and Industry 5. Correct Answer: (a) TNT
Explanation: PESO operates under the Department for Explanation: 2,4,6-Trinitrotoluene is a yellow, odorless
Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT), which solid that does not occur naturally in the environment. It
is a part of the Ministry of Commerce and Industry. is commonly known as TNT and is an explosive used in
military shells, bombs, and grenades, in industrial uses,
3. Correct Answer: (a) Kodavas and in underwater blasting.
Explanation: The Kodavas, a martial community from the
Kodagu (Coorg) district, are one of the few tribes in India
allowed to possess a gun without a license. They have been
exempted from the Indian Arms Act since 1834.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was PRS Legislative Research established? (c) Five (d) Six
(a) 2001 (b) 2003
(c) 2005 (d) 2007 4. Which commission emphasized the importance of timely
decisions on bills in its recommendations on Centre-
2. Which state led in tabling the most reports by the Public State Relations?
Accounts Committee (PAC) in 2023? (a) Punchhi (b) Malimath
(a) Tamil Nadu (b) Maharashtra (c) Sarkaria (d) Nanavati
(c) Bihar (d) Delhi
5. Which state was the first to establish a Lokayukta?
3. How many states did not table any reports by the PAC in (a) Kerala (b) Gujarat
2023? (c) Tamil Nadu (d) Maharashtra
(a) Three (b) Four
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which section of the Indian Penal Code provides (c) Section 325 (d) Section 302
safeguards for acts not intended to cause death,
performed in good faith for a person's benefit? 4. In which case did the State High Court hold that "whenever
(a) Section 89 (b) Section 88 a ward is sent to school, the parents must have given an
(c) Section 90 (d) Section 91 implied consent on their ward being subjected to
punishment and discipline"?
2. Which body's guidelines are incorporated into the GECP (a) Ambika S. Nagal Vs State of Himachal Pradesh
for eliminating corporal punishment in schools? (b) Rajesh Sharma Vs State of Uttar Pradesh
(a) UNESCO (b) WHO (c) Meera Dhawan Vs State of Karnataka
(c) UNICEF (d) NCPCR (d) Anil Kumar Vs State of Bihar
3. Which of the following sections of the Indian Penal Code, 5. What does Section 89 of the Indian Penal Code protect?
1860 does not specifically relate to causing harm? (a) Adults (b) Property
(a) Section 305 (b) Section 323 (c) Children (d) Animals
4. Correct Answer: (a) Ambika S. Nagal Vs State of Himachal 5. Correct Answer: (c) Children
Pradesh Explanation: Section 89 of the Indian Penal Code protects
Explanation: In the case of Ambika S. Nagal Vs State of actions done in good faith for the benefit of a child or an
Himachal Pradesh, 2020, the State High Court made a insane person, with the consent of their guardian. This
controversial ruling stating that when a child is sent to section is designed to offer legal protection for actions
school, it is implied that parents consent to their child undertaken by individuals such as teachers or caregivers,
being subjected to punishment and discipline. This as long as these actions are performed in good faith with
statement from the court underscores the complexities the intent of benefiting the child.
Article 31C
Key Features
Protection for Directive Principles: Article
31C protects laws enacted to ensure the
distribution of material resources to serve the
common good (Article 39(b)) and prevent the
concentration of wealth to the common
detriment (Article 39(c)).
Context: Response to the Supreme Court's decision in the Bank Nationalisation Case
(Rustom Cavasjee Cooper vs Union Of India, 1970), where the court struck down the
Banking Companies (Acquisition and Transfer of Undertakings) Act, 1969, due to
inadequate compensation principles.
Original Text: Article 31C initially stated that no law giving effect to the policy of the
State towards securing the principles specified in Article 39(b) or 39(c) would be void for
being inconsistent with fundamental rights under Articles 14, 19, or 31.
Rottweiler: About
Origin and Purpose: Rottweilers are a breed of
domestic dogs originally bred in Germany. They were
used to drive cattle and pull carts for butchers.
Characteristics: Known for their strength,
intelligence, and loyalty, Rottweilers can exhibit
aggressive behavior if not properly trained and
handled.
Risks and Safety Concerns: Due to their powerful
bite and physical strength, Rottweiler attacks can
result in serious injuries or fatalities. Proper training
and handling are crucial to managing their behavior
and ensuring public safety.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many dog breeds were recently prohibited by the 4. In which landmark case did the Supreme Court of India
Tamil Nadu Animal Husbandry Department for being rule that every species has a legal right to life and safety,
deemed 'ferocious'? extending the interpretation of Article 21 of the
(a) 10 (b) 15 Constitution to include animal life?
(c) 20 (d) 23 (a) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
2. What is the country of origin for the Rottweiler breed? (c) Animal Welfare Board of India v. Nagaraja and Others
(a) United States (b) Germany (d) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(c) France (d) Australia
5. In which city did the incident occur that led to the
3. Which section of the IPC deals with the punishment for acts regulatory ban on certain dog breeds?
of cruelty such as killing, poisoning, or maiming animals? (a) Mumbai (b) Delhi
(a) Section 121 (b) Section 428 (c) Chennai (d) Kolkata
(c) Section 300 (d) Section 377
Extended Custody
Kejriwal's custody was extended multiple times, with the most recent extension being until May 20, 2024.
April 9, 2024
Rejection of Bail Petition
The Delhi High Court rejected Kejriwal's petition challenging his arrest.
On May 10, the Bench decided to grant Kejriwal interim bail until
June 1, the day voting for the 2024 Lok Sabha elections will
close. The Supreme Court rejected the argument that granting
interim bail would place politicians in a “benefic” position
compared to other citizens. The court stated that it always
considers the peculiarities associated with the person and the
surrounding circumstances, noting that the General Elections are
the most “significant and important event this year” and are of
“prodigious importance.” Supreme
Court Decision
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In connection with which case was Arvind Kejriwal, the B) State of Rajasthan v. Balchand
Delhi Chief Minister, arrested? C) Sanjay Chandra v. Central Bureau of Investigation
(a) Coal Allocation Scam D) State of Bihar v. Rajendra Agrawallia
(b) 2G Spectrum Case
(c) Delhi Excise Policy Case 4. What is the role of an 'amicus curiae' in legal
(d) Commonwealth Games Scandal proceedings?
A) A co-accused in the case
2. Under which section of the CrPC is anticipatory bail B) A witness for the prosecution
granted? C) A legal advisor providing impartial advice to the court
(a) Section 420 (b) Section 302 D) The primary defendant
(c) Section 144 (d) Section 438
5. In which year did the Code of Criminal Procedure (CrPC)
3. In which case was the judgment highlighted that "bail is come into effect in India?
a right and jail is an exception"? (a) 1974 (b) 1988
A) Gurbaksh Singh Sibbia v. State of Punjab (c) 1982 (d) 1990
Predictive Regulation
Proactive Approach: The Bill introduces a proactive regulatory approach (ex-ante) designed
to anticipate and prevent anti-competitive practices before they occur.
Current Framework: This differs from the current reactive (ex post) framework under the
Competition Act, 2002, which addresses anti-competitive behavior after it has occurred.
Significant Entities
Systematically Significant Digital Enterprises (SSDEs): The Bill proposes identifying SSDEs based
on criteria such as turnover, user base, and market influence. These are large digital platforms
with substantial market power.
Restrictions on Practices: SSDEs will be prohibited from engaging in specific practices,
including self-preferencing (favoring their own products or services over competitors') and anti-
steering (restricting users from choosing other service providers).
3 4
Arbitrary Decision-Making Impact on Small Businesses
Some critics worry about the potential for Concerns have been raised about the possible
arbitrary decision-making by the Competition negative impacts on platform-based small
Commission of India (CCI), which could lead to businesses, which might struggle to comply
inconsistent enforcement of the rules. with the new regulations.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which Act does the Digital Competition Bill, 2024, draw (d) CCPA - California Consumer Privacy Act
inspiration from?
(a) GDPR - General Data Protection Regulation 2. What does SSDE stand for in the context of the Bill?
(b) CCA - Consumer Credit Act (a) Systematically Significant Digital Enterprises
(c) DMA - Digital Markets Act (b) Substantially Sized Digital Enterprises
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the UN Declaration on the Rights of Which of the following states is NOT covered by the Sixth
Indigenous Peoples adopted? Schedule of the Indian Constitution?
(a) 1997 (b) 2002 2. (a) Assam (b) Meghalaya
(c) 2012 (d) 2007 (c) Manipur (d) Tripura
Which treaty is a foundational document recognizing 5. What is the altitude range of Ladakh?
the rights of the Maori people? (a) 5,000 feet to 15,000 feet
(a) Treaty of Taipei (b) Treaty of Waitangi (b) 7,000 feet to 20,000 feet
(c) Treaty of Lisbon (d) Treaty of Versailles (c) 9,000 feet to 25,170 feet
(d) 10,000 feet to 30,000 feet
Under which article of the Indian Constitution is the
Sixth Schedule provided for?
(a) Article 340 (b) Article 244
(c) Article 356 (d) Article 370
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the minimum age requirement for an elector to not genuine
contest the Lok Sabha election as specified in the (d) If the candidate is under 25 years of age
Representation of the People Act, 1951?
(a) 21 years (b) 25 years 4. What happens if the number of candidates is less than
(c) 18 years (d) 30 years the number of seats to be filled in a Lok Sabha election?
(a) A re-election is scheduled
2. How many proposers are required for candidates set up (b) The candidates are declared elected unopposed
by unrecognized parties and independents to file a (c) The election is declared void
nomination for the Lok Sabha election? (d) Additional candidates are nominated by the
(a) One proposer (b) Five proposers President
(c) Ten proposers (d) Fifteen proposers
5. What led to the rejection of the Congress party
3. Under what condition can the Returning Officer reject a candidate's nomination papers in the Surat Lok Sabha
nomination paper according to the Representation of constituency?
the People Act, 1951? (a) The proposers were from a different constituency
(a) If the proposer is not from the same constituency (b) The signatures of his proposers were alleged not to
(b) If the candidate submits more than four nomination be genuine
papers (c) He was below the age requirement
(c) If the signature of the candidate or proposer is found (d) He did not submit the required deposit
Function
Role under SARFAESI Act, 2002: ARCs are crucial entities empowered by the SARFAESI Act to manage and
resolve distressed assets. They help in the recovery process by purchasing non-performing assets from
financial institutions.
Mechanism of Debt Acquisition: These companies acquire bad debts from lenders using cash or a
combination of cash and security receipts, aiding in the decongestion of the lenders' balance sheets and
allowing them to focus on new credit disbursements.
Business Model
Purchasing Stressed Loans: By buying stressed loans at a discount, ARCs assist financial institutions in
managing their non-performing assets, thereby helping maintain liquidity and credit flow in the financial
system.
Issuance of Security Receipts: In return for acquiring these loans, ARCs issue security receipts to the original
lenders, which are redeemable upon successful recovery of the debts. ARCs charge a management fee,
typically ranging from 1.5% to 2% of the asset value annually, and share the recovery proceeds with the
lenders.
Challenges
Handling Aged Non-Performing Assets (NPAs): ARCs often deal with long-standing NPAs, which can be
challenging to value and recover due to their prolonged delinquent status.
Coordination in Debt Aggregation: The process of aggregating debt from multiple lenders to a single
borrower involves intricate negotiations and agreement, making it a complex aspect of ARC operations.
Capital Constraints: Limited ability to raise funds can restrict the capacity of ARCs to purchase large volumes
of distressed assets or to provide adequate support for the revival of distressed entities.
Asset Valuation Complexities: Determining a fair value for the acquisition and recovery of distressed assets
is often complicated, especially in cases involving assets that are illiquid or legally entangled.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. How many members are there in the Monetary Policy 4. What has been established by banks to aggregate and
Committee (MPC) established under Section 45ZB of the consolidate stressed assets for subsequent resolution?
amended RBI Act, 1934? (a) National Asset Reconstruction Company Limited
(a) Three (b) Four (b) Financial Stability Board Company Limited
(c) Six (d) Seven (c) Debt Recovery Tribunal Company Limited
(d) Special Purpose Vehicle Company Limited
2. Who is the current Governor of the Reserve Bank of India?
(a) Urjit Patel (b) Shaktikanta Das 5. What is the term duration for directors appointed to the
(c) Raghuram Rajan (d) Arvind Subramanian central board of the Reserve Bank of India?
(a) Two years (b) Three years
3. Under which act are Asset Reconstruction Companies (ARCs) (c) Four years (d) Five years
empowered to manage and resolve distressed assets?
(a) Companies Act, 2013
(b) Banking Regulation Act, 1949
(c) Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016
(d) SARFAESI Act, 2002
United Nations
Mission and Principles
Guided by its founding Charter.
Focuses on maintaining international peace and security,
Founded in 1945 protecting human rights, delivering humanitarian aid,
Comprises 193 Member States promoting sustainable development, and upholding
Main Organs international law.
General Assembly
Security Council
History of the UN Foundation
Economic and Social Council
Trusteeship Council
International Court of Justice Early Initiatives
UN Secretariat 1899: International Peace Conference in The Hague.
All established in 1945. 1902: Established the Permanent Court of Arbitration.
2. Which element is crucial in the production of 5. Which international organization was created under the
permanent magnets for motors? Treaty of Versailles in 1919?
(a) Copper (b) Titanium (a) International Labour Organization
(c) Graphite (d) Neodymium (b) International Peace Conference
(c) United Nations
3. What global commitment made at COP28 is directly (d) Permanent Court of Arbitration
linked to a significant increase in the supply of critical
minerals?
(a) Doubling global forest cover
(b) Tripling renewable energy capacity
(c) Reducing plastic waste
(d) Decreasing greenhouse gas emission
2. Correct Answer: (d) Neodymium 5. Correct Answer: (b) International Labour Organization
Explanation: Neodymium is a rare earth element used in Explanation: The International Labour Organization (ILO)
manufacturing permanent magnets. These magnets are was created in 1919 under the Treaty of Versailles,
vital for the motors in various electronic devices and promoting labor rights globally.
renewable energy systems.
These are considered progressive, as they These are considered regressive because
impose a greater tax burden proportionately they are applied uniformly to all consumers,
on those with higher incomes. regardless of income.
Direct taxes include personal income Indirect taxes include union excise duties
tax and corporate tax. and the Goods and Services Tax (GST).
Trends in Direct taxes: The share of Trends in Indirect taxes: Contrarily, the share
direct taxes in total revenue has been of indirect taxes has been on the rise,
declining. reversing a trend of decline since the 1980s.
2. Which scheme is aimed at settling pending tax disputes 5. Which platform was launched by the Prime Minister of
to promote voluntary income-tax compliance in India? India to honor honest taxpayers and bring transparency
(a) GST Samadhan (b) Jan Dhan Yojana to the tax system?
(c) Make in India (d) Vivad se Vishwas (a) Honoring the Honest Scheme
(b) Transparent Taxation - Honoring The Honest
3. What does Securities Transaction Tax (STT) apply to? (c) Honest Taxpayer Initiative
(a) Land and buildings (b) Fuel purchases (d) Honest Taxpayer Recognition Program
(c) Import/export trade (d) Stocks
2. Correct Answer: (d) Vivad se Vishwas 5. Correct Answer: (b) Transparent Taxation - Honoring The
Explanation: The Vivad se Vishwas scheme aims to Honest
resolve pending tax disputes by allowing taxpayers to file Explanation: The 'Transparent Taxation - Honoring The
declarations for settlement. This helps generate timely Honest' platform was launched by the Prime Minister to
revenue for the government while reducing litigation honor honest taxpayers and enhance transparency in the
costs for taxpayers. income tax system.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is India's rank in the United Nations SDG Index 4. Under which treaty was the League of Nations
and Dashboards Report 2023? established?
(a) 100th (b) 112th (a) Treaty of Versailles (b) Treaty of Lisbon
(c) 121st (d) 130th (c) Treaty of Paris (d) Treaty of Geneva
2. What is the primary objective of Sustainable 5. The 5th United Nations Conference on the Least
Development Goal 1? Developed Countries (LDC5) concluded with the
(a) Zero Hunger (b) Quality Education adoption of which declaration by world leaders?
(c) No Poverty (d) Gender Equality (a) Geneva Declaration
(b) Tokyo Declaration
3. In which year was the Bretton Woods Conference, (c) Doha Political Declaration
which set up the international financial system, held? (d) New York Accord
(a) 1938 (b) 1940
(c) 1942 (d) 1944
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which year was the United Nations Conference on (c) Africa (d) South America
Trade and Development (UNCTAD) established?
(a) 1954 (b) 1964 3. Which of the following is NOT a report published by the
(c) 1974 (d) 1984 United Nations Conference on Trade and Development
(UNCTAD)?
2. Which continent experienced a significant increase in (a) Global Competitiveness Report
intra-regional trade in 2023? (b) Trade and Development Report
(a) Asia (b) Europe (c) World Investment Report
Overview
The International Monetary Fund (IMF) is an
international organization providing financial
assistance and advice to member countries.
Established during the Bretton Woods
Conference in July 1944.
Objectives
Promote global monetary cooperation
and financial stability.
Provide financial assistance to member
countries in crisis.
Facilitate international trade and
sustainable economic growth.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which organization released the Regional Economic (a) Bretton Woods Conference
Outlook for Asia and the Pacific Report in April 2024, (b) Geneva Convention
highlighting India's economic performance? (c) United Nations Conference
(a) World Bank (d) Paris Peace Conference
(b) Asian Development Bank
(c) International Monetary Fund 4. What are CCUS technologies primarily designed to do?
(d) UNESCAP (a) Generate renewable energy
(b) Increase greenhouse gas emissions
2. How is Core Inflation calculated? (c) Enhance oil drilling efficiency
(a) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation + Food and Fuel Items (d) Capture and utilize or store carbon dioxide
(b) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation - Food and Fuel Items
(c) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation / Food and Fuel Items 5. When did India join the International Monetary Fund as
(d) Core Inflation = Headline Inflation * Food and Fuel Items a founding member?
(a) December 1944 (b) December 1945
3. During which event was the International Monetary Fund (c) December 1946 (d) December 1947
(IMF) conceived?
Panama City
Darien Gap as a Transit Point: Panama serves as a critical transit point for migrants moving from South America to
the United States, crossing the perilous Darien Gap.
President-elect's Stance on Migration: President-elect Mulino has plans to close this migration route to curb illegal
crossings, addressing safety and security concerns associated with the hazardous journey through the Darien Gap.
Vladimir Putin
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What was Vladimir Putin's profession before his 4. Which treaty concerning nuclear arms is set to expire in 2026
political career? and is currently under discussion for renewal or renegotiation?
(a) Lawyer (b) Economist (a) New START (b) INF Treaty
(c) Military officer (d) Intelligence officer (c) SALT I (d) Treaty of Versailles
2.
Where was Vladimir Putin born? 5. What significant action did Vladimir Putin take in 2022
(a) Moscow (b) Kiev that marked a critical point in his leadership and affected
(c) Leningrad (d) Kazan Russia's relations with Western countries?
(a) Diplomatic outreach
3. Who held the position of President of Russia from 2008 (b) Economic reform
to 2012? (c) Military deployment in Ukraine
(a) Boris Yeltsin (b) Dmitry Medvedev (d) Trade agreement signing
(c) Mikhail Gorbachev (d) Sergey Lavrov
The newly enacted law aims to protect women from a variety of gender-related violence. It includes several
critical measures designed to address and criminalize different forms of abuse.
Criminalization of Offenses
Online Stalking and Harassment: The legislation criminalizes acts of online stalking and harassment,
recognizing the increasing prevalence of cyber violence.
Non-Consensual Sharing of Intimate Images: It makes the non-consensual sharing of intimate images a
criminal offense, addressing a significant issue in the digital age.
Incitement to Violence or Hatred: The law also criminalizes incitement to violence or hatred based on
gender, aiming to reduce harmful rhetoric and its potential consequences.
Punishments
Imprisonment Terms: Offenses under this law are punishable by imprisonment, with terms ranging from
one to five years, depending on the severity of the crime.
Enhanced Penalties: If the victim is a minor or has a close familial relationship with the perpetrator (such
as a spouse or ex-spouse), the law allows for enhanced penalties, reflecting the heightened severity and
impact of such offenses.
Emphasis on Victim Support: The legislation places a strong emphasis on providing support and improving
protections for victims of domestic abuse, including children.
Specific Measures:
Child Safety: In cases where a child reports a crime committed by someone with parental
responsibilities, authorities are required to ensure the safety of the child before informing the alleged
perpetrator. This measure prioritizes the child’s immediate security and well-being, ensuring they are
protected from further harm.
Incorporation into National Laws: EU member states are required to incorporate these new rules into
their national laws within three years. This timeline is set to ensure that the measures are implemented
uniformly across all member states.
Harmonization of Laws: The harmonization of these laws across the EU is expected to:
Strengthen Legal Response: Bolster the legal response to gender-based violence, ensuring consistent
and effective legal measures.
Ensure Significant Penalties: Ensure that perpetrators face significant penalties, acting as a deterrent
against gender-based violence.
Provide Comprehensive Support: Provide comprehensive support for victims, enhancing their
protection and access to justice.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which organization recently adopted its first law to All Forms of Discrimination Against Women adopted?
combat violence against women? (a) 1969 (b) 1979
(a) NATO (b) UNICEF (c) 1989 (d) 1999
(c) European Union (d) ASEAN
4. Which treaty established the European Union in 1993?
2. What is the minimum maximum penalty that must be (a) Maastricht Treaty (b) Treaty of Versailles
imposed for female genital mutilation across all EU (c) Treaty of Rome (d) Treaty of Lisbon
member states under the new law?
(a) 2 years (b) 3 years 5. How many official languages are used by the European Union?
(c) 4 years (d) 5 years (a) 12 (b) 19
(c) 24 (d) 27
3. In what year was the Convention on the Elimination of
Principal Organ
One of the six principal organs of the United
Nations
Main deliberative, policymaking, and
representative body
Membership
193 member states
Each country has an equal vote
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is one right the UNGA resolution does NOT grant (a) 2009 (b) 2011
Palestine in the General Assembly? (c) 2013 (d) 2015
(a) Speak (b) Vote
(c) Propose (d) Participate 3. Which of the following countries did Israel NOT recall its
ambassador from in response to the recognition of a
2. In what year did Palestine first deliver its application Palestinian state?
for UN membership? (a) Ireland (b) Norway
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the MoU for the development of Chabahar (a) Rice (b) Pulses
Port signed? (c) Wheat (d) Corn
(a) 2016 (b) 2015
(c) 2017 (d) 2014 4. Where is Chabahar Port situated?
(a) Gulf of Oman (b) Persian Gulf
2. Which port is considered a strategic alternative to (c) Gulf of Aden (d) Arabian Sea
Chabahar port?
(a) Karachi (b) Mumbai 5. What is the duration of the recently signed contract for
(c) Gwadar (d) Bandar Abbas the operation of Chabahar port?
(a) 5 years (b) 10 years
3. What significant commodity has India trans-shipped (c) 15 years (d) 20 years
through Chabahar to Afghanistan?
Lakshadweep Sea
Location and Significance: The Lakshadweep Sea is
positioned in the southeastern part of the Arabian Sea,
bordered by the western coast of India and named after the
Lakshadweep archipelago. The region is celebrated for its
rich marine biodiversity, supporting a wide variety of
marine flora and fauna.
Economic Importance: This sea is a crucial fishing ground,
providing sustenance and economic activity for local Indian
fishermen. It also plays a significant role in the regional
ecology and economy, supporting various marine species
and contributing to the scenic beauty of the area.
Predictive Regulation
Main Objective: The report aims to provide actionable solutions that countries can implement
to enhance food security, improve the agrifood system’s resilience to climate change, and
safeguard vulnerable groups during the transition to net zero emissions.
Target Audience: The report addresses all countries, providing specific recommendations
tailored to high-, middle-, and low-income nations.
1 2
Agrifood System High-Income Countries:
Identified as a major, untapped source of low-cost Should lead by example and provide increased
climate change mitigation. support to low- and middle-income countries.
Capable of reducing emissions and naturally Adoption of low-emission farming methods and
sequestering carbon from the atmosphere. technologies is crucial.
3 4
Middle-Income Countries: Low-Income Countries
Have a critical role, as they can reduce up to Have the chance to avoid repeating the mistakes
three-quarters of global agrifood emissions. of richer nations.
Encourage greener practices, including reducing Embrace climate-smart strategies to develop
emissions from livestock and rice production. greener, more competitive economies.
World Bank
Established Date: July 1944.
Legislative Basis: Created during the Bretton Woods
Conference and began operations in 1946.
Former Name: International Bank for Reconstruction and
Development (IBRD)
Headquarter: Located in Washington, D.C., USA.
Purpose: The World Bank was established to help rebuild
Europe and Japan after World War II.
Structure Functions:
The World Bank is part of a larger group that includes five international Financial Support: Offers loans,
organisations: grants, and credits for development
International Bank for Reconstruction and Development (IBRD) projects in transportation,
International Development Association (IDA) education, health, and
International Finance Corporation (IFC) environmental sustainability.
Multilateral Investment Guarantee Agency (MIGA) Research and Data Collection:
International Centre for Settlement of Investment Disputes (ICSID) Engages in thorough research and
Membership: As of now, the World Bank has 189 member countries, offers extensive data and analysis
making it a global institution. on global development issues.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What portion of global greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions World Bank, which of the following countries is among
is contributed by the agrifood sector? the top three in terms of total annual agrifood system
(a) One-tenth (b) One-fourth emissions?
(c) One-third (d) One-half (a) United States (b) Russia
(c) Australia (d) India
2. According to the Recipe For A Livable Planet Report of
Asia:
Indian Subcontinent: The region has witnessed significant climate-related displacement. For instance,
the 2022 floods in Pakistan resulted in nearly 1,700 deaths and more than 8 million displacements.
Bangladesh: A low-lying country that records thousands of displacements every year due to natural
disasters.
Central Asia: Faces issues such as increasing desertification, glacial melt, and dam failures, leading to
floods and displacement.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When did India join the IOM as a Member State? 2. Which country hosts the largest number of international
(a) 1998 (b) 2000 migrants from India?
(c) 2008 (d) 2010 (a) Canada (b) UAE
Chart. Trends in mean surface air temperature for the six WMO regions and the global mean
(degree Celsius) over four sub-periods using the six datasets. Source: WMO
Extreme Weather:
Many countries in the region experienced their hottest year on record in 2023, with extreme conditions ranging from
droughts and heatwaves to floods and storms.
A prolonged heatwave affected much of Southeast Asia in April and May, extending westwards into Bangladesh,
eastern India, and parts of China.
Future Outlook
The report suggests that climate change will continue to increase the frequency and intensity of extreme weather
events, posing compounding and cascading risks, particularly for vulnerable communities.
The example of the glacial lake outburst flood in Sikkim highlights the growing risks faced by mountain communities
due to climate change-induced glacier retreat.
Evolution of WMO
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When did the International Meteorological Organization (a) 50 (b) 79
(IMO) transform into the World Meteorological (c) 100 (d) 120
Organization (WMO) as a specialized agency of the
United Nations? 4. How many tropical cyclones formed in the North Indian
(a) 1945 (b) 1950 Ocean over the Indian subcontinent in 2023?
(c) 1951 (d) 1960 (a) 4 (b) 5
(c) 6 (d) 7
2. Where is the headquarters of the World Meteorological
Organization located? 5. Which country in Asia experienced its hottest summer
(a) Paris (b) New York on record in 2023?
(c) London (d) Geneva (a) Japan (b) India
(c) China (d) Thailand
3. According to the WMO report, how many extreme
weather, climate, and water-related events did Asia face
in 2023?
2. What is the rank of Chhattisgarh in terms of forest 5. Who founded the Goldman Environmental Prize?
coverage among Indian states? (a) Richard and Rhonda Goldman
(a) First (b) Second (b) Michael and Susan Goldman
(c) Third (d) Fourth (c) David and Laura Goldman
(d) Jonathan and Angela Goldman
3. Which forest is known as the "lungs of Chhattisgarh"?
(a) Sarguja Forest (b) Kanger Valley
(c) Achanakmar (d) Hasdeo Aranya
Scope: Has jurisdiction over all civil cases Composition: Includes the Chairperson, Judicial
involving substantial environmental questions. Members, and Expert Members.
Unique Position: In October 2021, the Supreme Term Limit: Members hold office for a term of
Court recognized NGT’s unique status with suo three years or until the age of sixty-five,
motu powers to address environmental issues whichever is earlier, with no eligibility for
nationwide. reappointment.
Roles: Adjudicatory, preventative, ameliorative, Chairperson Appointment: Appointed by the
and remedial. Central Government in consultation with the
Jurisdiction: Holds both original and appellate Chief Justice of India.
jurisdiction. Selection Committee: Formed by the Central
Procedural Guidance: Not bound by the Code of Government to appoint the Judicial Members and
Civil Procedure 1908, but guided by principles of Expert Members.
natural justice. Membership Range: There are to be at least 10
Principles Applied: Includes sustainable and a maximum of 20 full-time Judicial members
development, the precautionary principle, and and Expert Members.
the polluter pays principle.
Enforcement and Remedies:
Can order relief and compensation to
pollution victims.
Orders restitution of property and
environmental restoration.
An NGT order is executable as a decree of a
civil court.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which body issued a stay on the ₹72,000 crore Great 2. Which international shipping corridor is Great Nicobar
Nicobar Island project? Island positioned near, where a large portion of global
(a) Supreme Court of India shipping trade passes through?
(b) Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (a) North-South shipping corridor
(c) National Green Tribunal (b) East-West international shipping corridor
(d) Central Pollution Control Board (c) Trans-Pacific shipping route
(d) Arctic sea route
2. When did the United Nations officially recognize April 5. By what year does India aim to achieve Net Zero GHG
22 as International Mother Earth Day? emissions?
(a) 2009 (b) 1970 (a) 2040
(c) 1990 (d) 2000 (b) 2050
(c) 2070
3. Which landmark agreement related to environmental (d) 2100
protection was signed on Earth Day 2016?
(a) The Kyoto Protocol (b) The Paris Agreement
(c) The Montreal Protocol (d) The Copenhagen Accord
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. In which case did the Supreme Court of India establish a 3. Which Indian state had the highest rate of tree cover loss
"broad and all-encompassing" definition of forest in due to fires from 2001 to 2022?
1996? (a) Arunachal Pradesh (b) Nagaland
(a) T N Godavarman case (b) Minerva Mills case (c) Odisha (d) Assam
(c) Indra Sawhney case (d) Vishakha case
4. When was the National Action Plan on Climate Change
2. Which state in India has the largest forest cover in (NAPCC) launched?
terms of area, according to the India State of Forest (a) 2005 (b) 2008
Report 2021? (c) 2010 (d) 2015
(a) Maharashtra (b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Arunachal Pradesh (d) Chhattisgarh 5. Which year recorded the maximum tree cover loss due
to fires in India, according to the data?
(a) 2002 (b) 2008
(c) 2015 (d) 2020
LEGALEDGE
3. 7676564400 [email protected] www.toprankers.com 99
Science & Technology
Hydrocarbons Exploration and Extraction
Why in news?
Hydrocarbons have played a pivotal role since the Industrial Revolutions, which were powered by the extraction and use
of these substances, resulting in significant environmental repercussions.
Their ongoing exploitation continues to lead to substantial contamination of air, water, and the atmosphere,
intensifying the global warming crisis.
There is a growing imperative on a global scale to adopt less environmentally detrimental methods of hydrocarbon
utilization due to their role in exacerbating climate change.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the primary source of hydrocarbons found 4. How many sedimentary basins are there in India, and
underground, often in rocky formations? what is the total area they cover?
(a) Kerogens (b) Silicates (a) 10 basins, 1.5 million square kilometres
(c) Carbonates (d) Sulfides (b) 15 basins, 2.5 million square kilometres
(c) 26 basins, 3.4 million square kilometres
2. Which type of hydrocarbons consists only of single (d) 32 basins, 4.0 million square kilometres
bonds between carbon atoms and follows the general
formula Cn H2n+2? 5. Which exploration and production policy was approved
(a) Alkenes (b) Alkynes by the Government of India to replace the New
(c) Aromatic compounds (d) Alkanes Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP)?
(a) Pradhan Mantri Ujjwala Yojana
3. Which country is the largest oil producer, responsible (b) Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy
for 22% of global oil production? (c) National Gas Hydrate Program
(a) Russia (b) Saudi Arabia (d) Open Acreage Licensing Programme
(c) China (d) United States
Wings of ISRO
Antrix Corporation
Established: Founded in September 1992, Antrix Corporation Limited is the commercial arm of
the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO).
Purpose: It was set up to promote and commercially exploit the products, services, and
technologies developed by ISRO.
NewSpace India Limited (NSIL)
Established: Incorporated in March 2019, NSIL is a Government of India company under the
administrative control of the Department of Space (DOS).
Purpose: NSIL was set up to commercially exploit the research and development work carried
out by ISRO in the field of space. Its aim is to scale up industry participation in Indian space
programmes.
InSPACe (Indian National Space Promotion and Authorization Centre)
Established: InSPACe was officially established in 2020 as part of a significant reform aimed at
fostering greater private sector participation in the Indian space sector.
Purpose: The primary purpose of InSPACe is to function as a facilitator and regulator of space
activities conducted by private entities.
Subsurface Ice Distribution: The study points out a notable amount of water ice
within the first couple of meters below the lunar surface, significantly more
abundant than the ice at the surface in both poles.
Regional Differences: Data indicates that the northern polar region of the
Moon contains double the amount of water ice compared to the southern
polar region, suggesting regional disparities in ice distribution.
Source and Formation: The subsurface water ice at the lunar poles is
believed to primarily derive from outgassing related to volcanism during the
Moon's Imbrian period. Additionally, the distribution of this ice is influenced
by Mare volcanism and patterns of impact cratering.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which lunar region contains more water ice? (a) Radar (b) Laser
(a) Southern (b) Equatorial (c) Thermal radiometer (d) Neutron spectrometer
(c) Northern (d) Western
4. According to the recent study by SAC/ISRO and
2. What historical period is believed to contribute collaborators, how much larger is the amount of
primarily to the subsurface water ice at the lunar poles? subsurface ice compared to surface ice in the lunar
(a) Nectarian (b) Imbrian poles?
(c) Copernican (d) Eratosthenian (a) 2 to 3 times (b) 5 to 8 times
(c) 10 to 12 times (d) 15 to 20 times
3. Which instrument on the Lunar Reconnaissance Orbiter
was used for detecting hydrogen, an indicator of water
presence?
2
1
Founded by Klaus Schwab in 1971,
originally as the European
Management Forum.
Schwab, a German professor,
introduced the concept of
ANNUAL MEETING
"stakeholder capitalism." The Davos meeting gathers
around 3,000 participants,
including political, and
business leaders, economists,
celebrities, and journalists.
3
It features up to 500 sessions
FUNDING AND VENUE discussing global, regional,
and industry-specific issues.
Funded largely by partnering
corporations with annual turnovers
greater than $5 billion.
Chosen for its serene environment,
Davos was inspired by Thomas
Mann’s novel The Magic Mountain.
IMPACT AND
4
INITIATIVES
5
Influenced the creation of the G20, initially
proposed to include major developing and
developed economies focusing on global finance.
The G20 was elevated to a summit level in 2008 to
address the global economic crisis.
Global Initiatives:
WHO 2021-2030 Roadmap: This strategic framework focuses on
more than just treating NTDs; it aims for meaningful impacts
through integrated health approaches, improved sanitation, and
community engagement. It also motivates countries to manage
and sustain their NTD efforts independently.
2012 London Declaration: This declaration is a global pact that
acknowledges the burden of NTDs and advocates for a collective
strategy to eradicate these diseases.
Indian Initiatives:
Elimination Efforts: India has declared the eradication
of diseases like guinea worm, trachoma, and yaws. The
country has also set a target to eliminate lymphatic
filariasis by 2027 through the Accelerated Plan for
Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis (APELF).
Partnerships with WHO: India actively collaborates
with WHO and neighboring countries such as
Bangladesh and Nepal, focusing on the early detection
and treatment of diseases like Kala-azar since 2005.
Mass Drug Administration (MDA): This initiative
periodically distributes free anti-parasitic medicines in
regions vulnerable to NTDs to help curb their
transmission.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which new disease was added to the list of neglected for Elimination of Lymphatic Filariasis (APELF) for
tropical diseases in 2023? elimination by 2027?
(a) Ebola (b) Zika (a) Lymphatic Filariasis (b) Yaws
(c) Noma (d) Malaria (c) Guinea worm (d) Trachoma
2. Where is the 77th session of the World Health Assembly 4. As of December 2023, how many countries have
(WHA77) scheduled to take place? successfully eliminated at least one neglected tropical
(a) New York (b) Paris disease (NTD)?
(c) Geneva (d) Tokyo (a) 25 (b) 50
(c) 75 (d) 100
3. Which disease is the target of India's Accelerated Plan
Establishment and Founder: Aligarh Muslim University (AMU) was originally established as the
Muhammadan Anglo-Oriental College in 1875 by Sir Syed Ahmad Khan and later became Aligarh
Muslim University in 1920.
Location: The university is located in Aligarh, Uttar Pradesh, India.
Academic Offerings: AMU offers a broad spectrum of undergraduate, postgraduate, and doctoral programs
across various disciplines including arts, science, commerce, law, and engineering.
Diversity and Contribution:
Student Body: The university boasts a diverse student body, drawing students from across India and
abroad.
Role in Society: Recognized for its significant contributions to education, research, and social
empowerment, AMU plays a crucial role in the educational landscape of India.
Overview
Establishment: Founded in 2006 by Baba Ramdev and Acharya Balkrishna.
Headquarters: Located in Haridwar, Uttarakhand, India.
Purpose: Established to integrate Ayurveda with modern technology and promote natural and herbal
products.
Products and Services: Offers a broad range of products, including food, beverages, cleaning agents,
personal care items, and Ayurvedic medicines, all emphasizing natural components.
Market Approach: Known for its focus on health and wellness, competing strongly in India's fast-
moving consumer goods sector.
Growth of Company
Market Presence
Retail Network: Operates a widespread network through Patanjali Arogya Kendra and Patanjali
Chikitsalaya outlets, alongside availability in mainstream retail stores.
Expansion: Has shown rapid growth in market presence, challenging both local and international
consumer goods companies.
Growth and Strategy
Achievements of the Hasdeo
Manufacturing Aranya
Capabilities: OwnsCampaign
multiple manufacturing units in India, including a major facility in
Haridwar.
Promotional Strategies: Engages in vigorous marketing, often featuring its founders who are
prominent in the fields of yoga and Ayurveda.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Which rule prohibits the advertisement of Ayurvedic, Act, 2006, is deceptive advertising made punishable?(a)
Siddha, or Unani drugs without the approval of licensing Section 50 (b) Section 51
authorities? (c) Section 52 (d) Section 53
(a) Rule 150 (b) Rule 160
(c) Rule 170 (d) Rule 180 4. In which year did the Consumer Protection Act come
into force?
2. Under which department does the Central Consumer (a) 1985 (b) 1986
Protection Authority (CCPA) operate? (c) 1987 (d) 1988
(a) Department of Consumer Affairs
(b) Department of Consumer Protection 5. Under which section of the Consumer Protection Act,
(c) Department of Consumer Welfare 2019, is a misleading advertisement defined?
(d) Department of Consumer Services (a) Section 1 (28) (b) Section 4 (28)
(c) Section 8 (28) (d) Section 2 (28)
3. Under which section of the Food Safety and Standards
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the theme for World Malaria Day 2024? 3. In which year was the WHO founded?
(a) "Towards a Malaria-Free Future" (a) 1942 (b) 1945
(b) "Fighting Malaria Worldwide" (c) 1948 (d) 1950
(c) "Ending Malaria Now Globally"
(d) "Accelerating the Fight Against Malaria" 4. Which region is the most affected by malaria, accounting for
95% of global malaria deaths and 94% of total cases as of 2022?
2. Which body determines the financial policies and (a) South America (b) Europe
approves the budget of the WHO? (c) Asia (d) Africa
(a) Economic and Social Council
(b) UN Development Programme 5. Where is the World Health Assembly (WHA) held annually?
(c) WHO Executive Board (a) Geneva, Switzerland (b) New York, USA
(d) World Health Assembly (c) Vienna, Austria (d) Paris, France
Key Features:
The IHR encompasses a broad spectrum of public health emergencies, including those related to infectious diseases,
chemical agents, and radioactive materials.
It mandates member countries to report specific disease outbreaks and health events to the WHO.
The regulations require countries to bolster their public health capabilities to meet these international standards.
Operational Mechanisms:
An Emergency Committee advises the WHO Director-General on the issuance of Public Health Emergency of
International Concern (PHEIC) declarations.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the International Health Regulations (IHR) 4. What will happen if a country rejects the amendments to
first adopted? the IHR?
(a) 1969 (b) 2005 (a) It must still implement them
(c) 1998 (d) 1987 (b) It can challenge them
(c) It is exempt from the amendments
2. What organization facilitates the International Health (d) It will lose WHO membership
Regulations?
(a) UN (b) CDC 5. Who is the current Director-General of the World Health
(c) WHO (d) UNICEF Organization (WHO)?
(a) Dr. Margaret Chan
3. Which group is responsible for discussing the proposed (b) Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
changes to the International Health Regulations (IHR)? (c) Dr. David Nabarro
(a) G7 (b) ILO (d) Dr. Gro Harlem Brundtland
(c) UNDP (d) WGIHR
2. Correct Answer: (c) WHO 4. Correct Answer: (b) Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus
Explanation: The World Health Organization (WHO) Explanation: Dr. Tedros Adhanom Ghebreyesus has been
facilitates the International Health Regulations, which the Director-General of the World Health Organization
aim to strengthen global preparedness for health (WHO) since 2017. He oversees the organization’s global
emergencies. health policies and initiatives.
Atal Tunnel (Rohtang Tunnel): The world’s longest highway tunnel at 9.02 km, built at an altitude of 3,000
meters in Himachal Pradesh. This tunnel provides all-weather connectivity between Manali and Lahaul-Spiti.
Delaram-Zaranj Highway: A strategically important 218 km road constructed in Afghanistan, facilitating
connectivity to the Iranian border, completed in 2009.
Dhola-Sadiya Bridge: Known as India’s longest river bridge at 9.15 km, it spans the Lohit River in Assam,
connecting Assam to Arunachal Pradesh.
Umling La Pass and Others: Including the construction of the world’s highest motorable road at 19,300 feet
in Eastern Ladakh. Additional strategic projects include Sela Tunnel, Kailash-Mansarovar Road, and
extensive networks of roads along the India-China border in various states like Arunachal Pradesh, Sikkim,
Uttarakhand, and Ladakh, all contributing to enhanced border connectivity and defense preparedness.
The forthcoming Shinkun La Tunnel, set to be the world’s highest tunnel at 15,800 feet, will surpass the
Mila Tunnel in China. Spanning 4.10 km, it aims to enhance connectivity between the Ladakh and Lahaul and
Spiti regions, signifying a major advancement in high-altitude infrastructure development.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. When was the Border Roads Organisation (BRO) established? (d) Over the Yamuna River, connecting Delhi to Uttar
(a) 1950 (b) 1955 Pradesh
(c) 1960 (d) 1965
4. What is the motto of the Border Roads Organisation
2. Which of the following was one of the original projects (BRO)?
of the Border Roads Organisation when it was (a) "Vidya Sarvasva Bhushanam"
established? (b) "Karma Brahma Bhavitam"
(a) Project Tusker (b) Project Delta (c) "Dharma Rakshati Rakshitah"
(c) Project Summit (d) Project Horizon (d) "Shramena Sarvam Sadhyam"
3. Where is the Dhola-Sadiya Bridge located and what is 5. Which tunnel is currently the world's highest before
its significance? being surpassed by the forthcoming Shinkun La Tunnel?
(a) Over the Brahmaputra River, connecting Tripura to (a) Zhongnan Mountain Tunnel
Mizoram (b) Mila Tunnel
(b) Over the Lohit River, connecting Assam to Arunachal (c) Taihang Mountain Tunnel
Pradesh (d) JinPing Underground Laboratory
(c) Over the Ganges River, connecting Bihar to Jharkhand
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. What is the title of the World Bank report highlighting 4. Who holds the largest share of votes in the World Bank
the agrifood sector's impact on greenhouse gas Group?
emissions? (a) United States
(a) Global Warming Facts (b) Sustainable Farming (b) Japan
(c) Agrifood Emissions (d) Recipe for a Livable Planet (c) Germany
(d) United Kingdom
2. Which country is not a member of the International
Centre for the Settlement of Investment Disputes 5. What is the name of the specialized stomach
(ICSID)? compartment where enteric fermentation occurs in
(a) USA (b) Japan ruminants like cows, sheep, and goats?
(c) India (d) Germany (a) Gizzard
(b) Pancreas
3. By what year does the World Bank report aim to (c) Rumen
achieve net-zero emissions in the agrifood sector? (d) Cecum
(a) 2040 (b) 2050
(c) 2060 (d) 2070
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Who chaired the Meghalaya Security Commission that (c) Director of Public Prosecutions
supervised the selection process for the new DGP? (d) Director of State Security
(a) LR Bishnoi (b) Conrad K Sangma
(c) RP Meena (d) GP Singh 4. Who did Idashisha Nongrang replace as the Director
General of Police in Meghalaya?
2. Which of the following is not one of the matrilineal (a) Conrad Sangma (b) Deepak Mishra
communities in Meghalaya? (c) Lajja Ram Bishnoi (d) Vinay Chaubey
(a) Khasis (b) Garos
(c) Jaintias (d) Munda 5. Which of the following officers was not recommended by
the Union Public Service Commission (UPSC) for the
3. What was Idashisha Nongrang's position before being position of Director General of Police in Meghalaya?
appointed as the Director General of Police in Meghalaya? (a) Ram Prasad Meena (b) Deepak Kumar
(a) Director General of Police Training (c) Idashisha Nongrang (d) Vinay Tiwari
(b) Director General of Civil Defence and Home Guard
Ramcharitmanas
Panchatantra
Sahṛdayaloka-Locana
Author: Attributed to the literati Rājaśekhara, who flourished in the 9th to 10th centuries AD.
Content: Renowned for synthesizing aesthetic theories, featuring discussions on dramaturgy and poetics. It
provides insights into Sanskrit theatrical traditions.
Significance: Builds on the ‘rasa’ theory initially formalized by Bharata in the ‘Natya Shastra.’ Despite not
being as widely known, it holds significance for its in-depth analysis of emotional aspects in performance arts.
PRACTICE QUESTIONS
1. Where was the tenth meeting of the Memory of the initiated?
World Committee for Asia and the Pacific (MOWCAP) (a) 1982 (b) 1992
held, during which three Indian literary works were (c) 2002 (d) 2012
added to the register?
(a) Beijing, China (b) Tokyo, Japan 4. As of May 2023, how many inscriptions are there on the
(c) New Delhi, India (d) Ulaanbaatar, Mongolia International Memory of the World Register?
(a) 294 (b) 394
2. Who is the author attributed to the literary work (c) 494 (d) 594
Sahṛdayaloka-Locana?
(a) Rā jaśekhara (b) Vishnu Sharma 5. Who is attributed as the author of the Panchatantra?
(c) Kalidasa (d) Vā lmīki (a) Valmiki (b) Vyasa
(c) Vishnu Sharma (d) Kalidasa
3. When was UNESCO's Memory of the World Programme
8th June Weekend For Freshers & Droppers Platinum | CLAT - 2025
(Saturday)
4:00 PM Weekend For Freshers & Droppers Gold | CLAT - 2025
22nd June Weekend For Freshers & Droppers Platinum | CLAT -2025
(Saturday)
Weekend For Freshers & Droppers Gold | CLAT - 2025
4:00 PM
Indian Army and Punit Balan Group Collaborate to Develop India’s First Constitution Park
The Indian Army and the Punit Balan Group joined hands to inaugurate the nation’s first Constitution Park in Pune.
The ceremony, led by Lt. Gen.
Ajai Kumar Singh, emphasized the importance of citizens honoring their duties outlined in the Constitution to drive
India towards development by 2047.
Kathmandu Tops the List of Cities With ‘unhealthy air’ in the World
The Ministry of Health and Population of Nepal has urged residents to wear masks due to the alarming increase in air
pollution levels in the Kathmandu valley.
Uttarakhand Tourism Announced India’s First Astro Tourism Campaign Named ‘Nakshatra Sabha’
The Uttarakhand Tourism Development Board has joined hands with Starscapes, a leading astro-tourism company, to
introduce Nakshatra Sabha, a new initiative to provide a comprehensive Astro Tourism experience to people.
The campaign will offer a range of activities, including stargazing, special solar observations, astrophotography
contests, camping under the stars, and more. The initiative aims to bring together astronomy enthusiasts, adventurers,
and travellers to marvel at the wonders of the cosmos, as reported by ET Travel.
Bengaluru’s Flying Wedge Defence Unveils India’s First Indigenous Bomber UAV
Flying Wedge Defence, a Bengaluru-based defense and aerospace technology firm, recently revealed the FWD-200B,
India’s inaugural indigenous bomber unmanned aircraft.
The company plans rigorous flight testing followed by certification from the Centre for Military Airworthiness &
Certification (CEMILAC).
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The Hindu Triumphs at 6th International Newspaper Design Competition
The Hindu secured three prestigious awards at the 6th International Newspaper Design Competition organized by
newspaperdesign.in.
The Hindu clinched the highest honor, the ‘Best of Show’ award, recognizing its outstanding contribution to
newspaper design excellence.
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DRDO Collaborates With IIT Bhubaneshwar for AI-Driven Surveillance Projects
India’s Defence Research and Development Organisation (DRDO) has collaborated with the Indian Institute of
Technology (IIT) Bhubaneswar for undertaking artificial intelligence (AI) driven surveillance and other projects,
according to a PTI report republished by the Indian Defence Research Wing.
Head of the School of Electrical Sciences at IIT, Prof S.R. Samantaray, emphasized that the collaboration is aligned with
the evolving needs of defence applications, contributing to the vision of ‘Atma Nirbhar Bharat’ (Self-reliant India). He
believes this collaboration will bolster defence research programs, fostering sustainability and contributing to the
national ecosystem.
Mines Secretary Inaugurates Registered Office of Khanij Bidesh India Limited (KABIL) in New Delhi
Secretary, Ministry of Mines Shri V L Kantha Rao inaugurated the Registered Office of Khanij Bidesh India Ltd (KABIL)
at Sansad Marg, New Delhi in presence of Senior officials of Ministry & KABIL.
KABIL, a Joint Venture Company formed by NALCO, HCL and MECL, the CPSEs under the Ministry of Mines, is entrusted
with the important mission of identifying, exploring, acquiring, and developing critical & strategic mineral assets
overseas.
Hero MotoCorp Becomes First Indian Two-Wheeler Company To Join ONDC Network
Hero MotoCorp has become the first two-wheeler player in India to join the ONDC Network, bringing a host of its
products to the platform. The company says joining the ONDC network will provide easy digital accessibility to
customers. Hero MotoCorp will initially offer two-wheeler parts, accessories, and merchandise on the open network.
Through ONDC’s buyer apps like Paytm and Mystore, customers gain access to Hero genuine parts with greater ease.
This integration facilitates faster local deliveries, leveraging Hero MotoCorp’s extensive physical distribution network.
Ultimately, the initiative aims to benefit over 115 million Hero customers nationwide, ushering in a new era of
convenience and efficiency in two-wheeler retail.
L&T Bags Project For Constructing Medical College And Hospital In Kolkata
Larsen & Toubro has secured a significant order for its Buildings & Factories (B&F) business. The company will
construct a Medical College and Hospital Campus at Rajarhat, Kolkata, as part of a project commissioned by the
Institute of Neurosciences Kolkata.
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What Happened: L&T announced the news on Friday. The project, to be executed in two phases over 60 months, will
include a 605-bed hospital, a medical college with an annual intake capacity of 150 students, and hostels for students,
interns, nurses, and residents. The total built-up area will be 1.21 million square feet. The infra giant said that this is
a “significant” order valued between ₹1,000 crore to ₹2,500 crore.
Tata Motors partner with Bajaj Finance to finance their passenger and electric vehicle dealers
Tata Motors’ subsidiaries, Tata Motors Passenger Vehicles (TMPV) and Tata Passenger Electric Mobility (TPEM), have
partnered with Bajaj Finance to offer a financing programme for authorised passenger and electric vehicle dealers.
TMPV and TPEM have been leading the Indian automotive market with their innovative efforts in both the Internal
Combustion Engine (ICE) and Electric Vehicle (EV) segments.
First Ever Emergency Medical Response System inaugurated by Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari
Source: The Economic times
In order to provide expert guidance and definitive care during medical emergencies of serving personnel and their
families of the Indian Air Force (IAF) across the nation, an Emergency Medical Response System (EMRS), was
inaugurated by Air Chief Marshal VR Chaudhari, Chief of the Air Staff, Indian Air Force at Command Hospital Air Force
Bangalore (CHAFB) on 21 May 2024.
The EMRS is a first of its kind 24/7 telephonic medical helpline for serving IAF personnel and their families across
India. The system aims to provide prompt response by a team of medical and paramedical professionals to the caller
experiencing the emergency anywhere across the country.
India’s project ISHAN to streamline air traffic, benefit airlines and passengers
India has initiated the process of consolidating its four airspace regions into a single entity spanning the entire nation,
in order to refine and strengthen air traffic management (ATM).
The Airports Authority of India (AAI) has called for expressions of interest to prepare a detailed project report for the
Indian Single Sky Harmonized Air Traffic Management (ISHAN) initiative, centered in Nagpur.
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INTERNATIONAL
Zimbabwe Introduced New Currency amid Skepticism
Zimbabwe has launched a new currency called the ZiG (short for Zimbabwe Gold) in an attempt to address the
country’s long-running currency crisis.
The ZiG, backed by Zimbabwe’s gold reserves, was introduced electronically in early April and has now been released
in banknote and coin form.
Despite being the sixth currency since the collapse of the Zimbabwe dollar in 2009, the ZiG is already facing mistrust
and rejection from some quarters.
Solomon Islands Elects Pro-China Leader Jeremiah Manele as New Prime Minister
In a significant political development, the Solomon Islands has elected former Foreign Minister Jeremiah Manele as its
new prime minister, indicating that the South Pacific island nation is likely to maintain close ties with China.
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Jose Raul Mulino wins Panama’s Presidential election
José Raúl Mulino has won Panama’s presidential election after three of his nearest rivals conceded defeat. The 64-
year-old former security minister has secured nearly 35% of the counted votes, with more than 92% of the votes
counted. He has an unassailable 9 per cent lead over his nearest rival.
Jose Raul Mulino was initially chosen as a Vice-Presidential candidate by former president Ricardo Martinelli, who
was himself the Presidential candidate.
Nepal introduce new Rs 100 currency note featuring Indian territories
Nepal recently announced the printing of a new Rs 100 currency note featuring a map that includes the Indian
territories of Lipulekh, Limpiyadhura, and Kalapani, a move that has been contested by India.
In a meeting chaired by Nepali Prime Minister Pushpakamal Dahal Prachanda, the council of ministers decided to
incorporate the controversial territories into the new map of Nepal, government spokesperson Rekha Sharma
informed the media during a briefing.
India’s Adani Green Energy signs PPA with Sri Lanka for two wind projects
Adani Green Energy has secured a 20-year power purchase agreement (PPA) with Sri Lanka for the development of
two wind projects.
A cabinet statement from the Sri Lankan government confirmed the agreement, which involves projects in the town
of Mannar and the village of Pooneryn in the country’s Northern province.
The renewable energy company, led by Indian billionaire Gautam Adani, received approval in February 2023 to invest
$442m in the construction of wind projects with a total capacity of 484MW.
The Sri Lankan Cabinet has established a negotiation committee to assess the project proposal submitted by Adani
Green, Adani will receive $0.0826 per kilowatt hour (kWh) for the energy supplied.
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Climeworks opens world's largest plant to extract CO2 from air in Iceland
Climeworks has opened the world’s largest operational direct air capture (DAC) plant to suck carbon dioxide out of
the atmosphere, with its Mammoth plant in Iceland almost ten times larger than the current record holder.
Worsening climate change and inadequate efforts to cut emissions have led U.N. scientists to estimate billions of tons
of carbon must be removed from the atmosphere annually to meet global climate goals.
Nepal climber Kami Rita Sherpa climbs Mt Everest for 29th time
Nepali Sherpa climber Kami Rita has scaled Everest for the 29th time, surpassing his own record of 28 ascents. He
now holds the record for the most ascents of the world's tallest peak in its 71-year climbing history.
Kami Rita Sherpa, also known as 'Everest man,' embarked on the Spring Season Everest expedition from Kathmandu,
accompanying a team of approximately 28 climbers. Seven Summit Treks organised the expedition to conquer the
world's highest peak.
India, Oman to jointly undertake research on sharks and rays in Arabian Sea
A joint initiative between India and Oman to boost research and conservation of sharks and rays in the Arabian Sea
will be launched at an upcoming workshop at ICAR-Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI).
Experts from both countries will take part in the workshop which is expected to take place shortly, here, which will
take up the collaborative research works and capacity building in elasmobranch research.
India and Iran Ink Long-Term Deal for Chabahar Port Operations
In a significant milestone for the India-Iran relationship and to foster close cooperation to make Chabahar Port a
regional trade transit and connectivity hub, the two countries signed a long-term contract for operating the Shahid-
Beheshti Port Terminal in presence of Indian and Iranian Ministers.
The Indian delegation to Iran was led by Union Minister of Ports, Shipping and Waterways Sarbananda Sonowal, while
Mehrdad Bazrpash, Minister for Roads and Urban Development, was present from the Iranian side.
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PhonePe partners with LankaPay, enables UPI payments for users travelling to Sri Lanka
PhonePe on Wednesday announced a partnership with LankaPay to allow its users to pay using UPI across Sri Lanka.
At an event to mark the collaboration, PhonePe said its app users travelling to Sri Lanka can make payments using UPI
across LankaPay QR merchants, The transactions will be facilitated by the Unified Payments Interface (UPI) and
LankaPay National Payment Network.
India To Soon Take Delivery Of Russian Man-Portable Igla-S Air Defence Systems
The Indian Army is set to receive another batch of Russian-made man-portable Igla-S very short-range air defence
systems (VSHORADs) by the end of May or early June.
Man-portable VSHORADs like Igla-S and American Stinger are shoulder-fired missiles that can be used to shoot down
low-flying helicopters, fighter jets, drones, and cruise missiles.
IIT Delhi - Abu Dhabi campus to commence its first Academic Session in 24-25
The first international campus of IIT Delhi will commence its first academic session in 2024-25 in Abu Dhabi, United
Arab Emirates (UAE). Initially, the IIT Delhi Abu Dhabi campus will offer undergraduate courses.
As part of the central government’s effort to internationalise the Indian education sector, the prestigious Indian
Institute of Technology (IIT) has set up two campuses outside India. IIT Madras has set up a campus in Zanzibar,
Tanzania, which commenced its academic season in 2023-24 and IIT Delhi Abu Dhabi will start its academic season
this year.
Indian Oil signs second long-term LNG deal with France's TotalEnergies
Indian Oil signs second long-term LNG deal with France's TotalEnergies. This is the second long-term contract
between the two countries within the past one year. In July last year they had signed an agreement for supply of 0.8
mmtpa to IndianOil.
Jyoti Ratre, 55, becomes oldest Indian woman to conquer Mount Everest
Jyoti Ratre, an entrepreneur and fitness enthusiast from Madhya Pradesh, has become the oldest Indian woman to
conquer Mount Everest. The 55-year-old mountaineer reached the summit at 6:30 a.m. on Sunday, May 19.
Ratre's accomplishment comes precisely six years after Sangeeta Bahl, at 53, earned the title of ‘India’s oldest woman
to climb Mount Everest' on May 19, 2018. This was Ratre's second attempt to summit the highest peak in the world.
In 2023, she had to return from 8,160 mt due to harsh weather.
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Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi Passes Away In a Chopper Crash
Source: India Today
Iranian President Ebrahim Raisi and his foreign minister died when their helicopter crashed as it was crossing
mountain terrain in heavy fog, The helicopter, carrying the 63-year-old President Raisi, Foreign Minister Hossein
Amir-Abdollahian, and other officials, lost contact approximately 30 minutes into the flight.
RITES signs pact with Bangladesh Railway to supply 200 passenger coaches
State-owned RITES Ltd signed a contract with Bangladesh Railways to supply 200 broad-gauge passenger carriages
to the neighbouring country, The export arm of Indian Railways, RITES has won the USD 111.26 million (approx. Rs
915 crore) contract, funded by European Investment Bank (EIB), through a global competitive bidding process.
RITES will offer its expertise in design, spare parts support and training, under the terms & conditions. The contract
has a supply with commissioning period of 36 months, followed by a warranty period of 24 months. The agreement
was signed by officials of RITES and Bangladesh Railway in the presence of Minister of Railways, Bangladesh, Md. Zillul
Hakim in Dhaka on 20 May, 2024.
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Google to tie-up with Taiwan’s Foxconn Technology to manufacture Pixel phones in Tamil Nadu
Source: Reuters
Alphabet Inc-owned Google will partner with Taiwan’s Foxconn Technology Group to set up a plant in Tamil Nadu to
manufacture Pixel smartphones.
Tamil Nadu, chief minister MK Stalin on Thursday said that the decision to start its production unit was a result of
negotiations initiated by the state government with Google management.
Setu unveils Sesame, India's first domain-specific LLM for BFSI sector
Setu, a leading Indian fintech company and part of the Pine Labs Group, unveiled Sesame, India’s first Large Language
Model (LLM) specifically designed for the banking, financial services, and insurance (BFSI) sector.
Developed in collaboration with indigenous AI research firm Sarvam AI, the company said this marks a "ChatGPT
moment" in financial services. The unveiling took place at Adbhut India, an event organised by the non-profit
People+ai, in the presence of Nandan Nilekani (co-founder and director of EkStep Foundation), Shankar Maruwada
(co-founder and chief executive officer of EkStep Foundation), Tanuj Bhojwani (head of People+ai), and other
prominent figures in fintech, AI, and digital public infrastructure.
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Google launches wallet app in India for Android users
Tech giant Google announced the launch of the Google Wallet app in India, enabling users to save their travel tickets
gift cards and event passes in one place. It however does not support payment features such as saving credit cards or
debit cards in the wallet for on-tap payments.
This Wallet app offers fast and secure access to everyday essentials, enabling people to conveniently store and retrieve
important digital documents like boarding passes, loyalty cards, movie tickets, and more. Google Wallet complements
Google Pay, which will continue to serve the payments needs of users across India.
Infosys Receives ISO 42001:2023 Certification for Artificial Intelligence Management System
Infosys a global leader in next-generation digital services and consulting, announced that it has been certified with
ISO 42001:2023, world's first international standard on AI management systems, by TUV India (part of TÜV Nord
Group), a leading independent provider of technical quality and safety services.
Infosys is among the first IT services companies globally to have earned the certification for implementing an Artificial
Intelligence Management System (AIMS) framework that fosters responsible AI practices and adherence to regulatory
requirements for enhanced efficiency and accountability in AI initiatives.
Kadet Defence systems introduces India's first loitering aerial munitions for Armed Forces
Kadet Defence Systems (KDS) has achieved a significant milestone in bolstering India's defence capabilities by
pioneering the development of India's first Loitering Aerial Munitions (LAM). Through a distinctive Development cum
Production Partner (DCPP) arrangement with the Defence Research Development Organisation (DRDO).
The LAM Systems, achieved through continuous innovation and strategic collaboration, comprise a wide array of
advanced technologies. These include Canister Aerial Loitering Munition (CALM), Combat UAVs equipped with stand-
off capabilities for munition release, and Tactical VTOL UAVs. Kadet's LAMs mark a significant shift in modern warfare
tactics.
Gopi Thotakura becomes 1st Indian space tourist on Blue Origin's private astronaut launch
Source: News18
Gopi Thotakura, an entrepreneur and a pilot, on Sunday May 19, became the first Indian to venture into space as a
tourist aboard Amazon founder Jeff Bezos's Blue Origin’s NS-25 mission.
Thotakura was selected as one of the six crew members for the NS-25 mission, making him the first Indian space
tourist and the second Indian to venture into space after the Indian Army's Wing Commander Rakesh Sharma in 1984.
Blue Origin's seventh human flight, NS-25, lifted off from Launch Site One in West Texas on Sunday morning, the
company announced on social media.
L&T Technology Services Launches Simulation Centre of Excellence for Airbus in Bengaluru
L&T Technology Services inaugurated a simulation centre of excellence (CoE) for Airbus at its Bengaluru campus. The
CoE is designed to provide engineering support for Airbus aircraft structural simulation activities across its business
units in France, Germany, the UK, and Spain.
Launched about 18 months ago with a specialised core team, the CoE is likely to be scaled up over the next two years,
The establishment of the simulation CoE marks a decade of collaboration between LTTS and Airbus India.
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APPOINTMENT & RESIGNATIONS
Pratima Singh (IRS) Appointed as Director in DPIIT
The Department of Personnel & Training (DoPT) has announced the appointment of Pratima Singh, an officer of the
Indian Revenue Seravice (IRS), as the Director in the Department of Promotion of Industry and Internal Trade (DPIIT).
MCA Approves Hitesh Sethia as Jio Financial Services’ MD and CEO for 3 Years
The Ministry of Corporate Affairs (MCA) has granted its approval for the appointment of Hitesh Kumar Sethia as the
Managing Director and Chief Executive Officer of Jio Financial Services for a three-year period, effective from
November 15, 2023.
Bhavesh Gupta, Paytm COO and President, resigns; cites personal reasons
Paytm, the digital payments and financial services firm, announced the resignation of its COO and president, Bhavesh
Gupta, via a regulatory filing on 4 May, 2024.
He, however, expressed his intention to continue supporting the company in an advisory capacity within the chief
executive's office.
Paytm Money appoints Rakesh Singh as its CEO; Varun Sridhar moves to become Paytm Services' CEO
Paytm Money, a subsidiary of One97 Communications, has appointed Rakesh Singh as the new CEO following Varun
Sridhar's resignation, as per reports on Mint. Sridhar will now lead Paytm Services, which focuses on distributing
mutual funds and wealth management products.
Singh, with over 18 years of experience in the banking sector, has previously served as the head of Fisdom, a discount
brokerage firm. Under Sridhar's leadership, Paytm Money became profitable in the fiscal year 2023, with a net profit
of Rs. 42 crore and revenue nearly doubling to Rs. 131 crore.
Gurugram Administration Appoints Yuzvendra Chahal as brand ambassador to Boost Voter Turnout
Ahead of the Lok Sabha elections in Gurugram scheduled for May 25, the district administration has roped in India
cricketer Yuzvendra Chahal as the brand ambassador to boost voter turnout, Popular singers MD Desi Rockstar and
Naveen Punia, are also appointed brand ambassadors.
Yuzvendra Chahal, the ace leg-spinner currently playing for the Rajasthan Royals in the Indian Premier League (IPL),
will soon be making an appeal to the voters of Gurugram to actively participate in the polling process.
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Qualification - According to section 110 of the Central Goods and Service Tax Act 2017, a person who has been the
Judge of the Supreme Court or has been the Chief Justice of a High Court can be appointed as the President of the GST
Appellate Tribunal.
SBI General Insurance Appoints Jaya Tripathi as Head of Key Relations Group
SBI General Insurance, one of India’s leading general insurers, has announced the appointment of Ms. Jaya Tripathi as
Head – Key Relations Group. In her new role, Ms. Tripathi will lead the expansion of new business opportunities and
partnerships, drive sales team growth, and deepen partner relationships to enhance profitability.
With a diverse background spanning general insurance, fashion retail, and tourism, Ms. Tripathi brings an array of
experience to her new position. Her extensive background includes holding senior leadership roles at renowned
organizations such as Mahindra Holidays, ICICI Lombard, Forevermark Diamonds (De Beers Group), and Aditya Birla
Group, where she has significantly contributed to business and strategic development.
Vice Admiral Sanjay Bhalla, Assumes Charge as The Chief of Personnel of Indian Navy
Vice Admiral Sanjay Bhalla, AVSM, NM assumes charge as the Chief of Personnel of the Indian Navy, on 10 May 24. He
was commissioned in the Indian Navy on 01 Jan 1989. In a career spanning 35 years, he has held a number of
specialists, staff and operational appointments, both afloat and ashore.
Vice Admiral Bhalla specialised in Communication and Electronic Warfare. He served aboard several frontline
warships, honing his skills and expertise. Subsequently, he had the privilege of holding commanding roles at sea,
including the coveted appointment of Flag Officer Commanding Eastern Fleet (FOCEF).
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During his tenure as FOCEF, Vice Admiral Bhalla served as the Officer in Tactical Command for the prestigious
President’s Fleet Review (PFR – 22) and the Sea Phase of the Indian Navy’s flagship multinational exercise MILAN –
22, which witnessed an unprecedented participation from friendly foreign countries.
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Director. However, Mr. Venkataraman shall continue as the Chairman & Non-Executive Director on the Board of the
Company. The Board believes that the separation of the posts of Chairman and Managing Director is better aligned
with good corporate governance standards.
NASA appoints their first Chief AI Officer, following the Executive Order
NASA has named David Salvagnini its new chief artificial intelligence (AI) officer. David Salvaginini used to be NASA’s
chief data officer. His new role is an expansion of his current position.
NASA uses various AI tools to benefit humanity by supporting mission and research projects across the agency,
analyzing data to reveal trends and patterns, and developing systems capable of autonomously supporting spacecraft
and aircraft.
Senior IPS Officers A.Y.V. Krishna & N. Venu Gopal Appointed as Additional Directors in CBI
Senior IPS officers A Y V Krishna and N Venu Gopal have been appointed as additional directors in the Central Bureau
of Investigation (CBI). Krishna, a 1995-batch Indian Police Service (IPS) officer of Assam-Meghalaya cadre, is currently
working as Inspector General in the Central Reserve Police Force (CRPF).
He has been inducted as the additional director of CBI for a tenure up to August 6, 2028, an order issued by the
Personnel Ministry said, Krishna's batchmate Venu Gopal (Himachal Pradesh cadre) is presently working as joint
director in the CBI.
SC Approves Appointment Of Justice Susmita Phukan Khaund And Justice Mitali Thakuria As Permanent Judges
Of Guwahati HC and more
The Supreme Court Collegium has approved the proposal for appointment of two Additional Judges, namely Justice
Susmita Phukan Khaund and Justice Mitali Thakuria as permanent Judges of the Guwahati High Court.
The Supreme Court Collegium also approved the proposal for the appointment of Mr Justice Rajesh Sekhri, Additional
Judge, High Court of Jammu & Kashmir and Ladakh, for a fresh term of one year with effect from 29 July 2024.
The recommendation was made by Supreme Court Collegium comprising Chief Justice of India Dhananjaya Y
Chandrachud, Justice Sanjiv Khanna, and Justice BR Gavai.
Sanjiv Puri, ITC MD elected CII President for 2024-25 and more
Source: The Print
Chairman and Managing Director of ITC, Sanjiv Puri, has been elected as the President of the Confederation of Indian
Industry (CII) for 2024-25. Sanjiv Puri replaces R Dinesh, Chairman of TVS Supply Chain Solutions as the President of
CII.
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Rajiv Memani has been appointed as the new President-Designate, and R Mukundan has been elected as the new Vice
President of the CII for 2024-25
Mohammad Mokhber, appointed acting President of Iran
Source: The Hindi
Iran's first Vice President Mohammad Mokhber was appointed as acting President of the Islamic Republic on May 20
after the death of President Ebrahim Raisi in a helicopter crash in the country's northwest.
Born on June 26, 1955, in Dezful, Iran, is a prominent figure in Iranian politics. He holds two doctoral degrees, one in
international law and another in management, along with a master’s degree in management.
BARC India appoints Dr Bikramjit Chaudhuri as chief of measurement science & analytics
Broadcast Audience Research Council (BARC) India has appointed Dr Bikramjit Chaudhuri as its new chief of
measurement science & analytics. He will succeed Dr Derrick Gray, a veteran audience measurement and advanced
analytics executive, who has been a well-respected member of the BARC India family for six years.
Chaudhuri is a Ph.D. from IIT Bombay and holds a Master of Statistics degree from the Indian Statistical Institute, Delhi.
He comes in with a rich experience spanning over three decades in the areas of Statistics, Stochastic Modelling, Market
Measurement, Consumer Segmentation, AI & ML, Demand Forecasting and Big Data Analytics. He has several research
papers, publications, and patents in these aspects under his belt.
Government appoints Shri Ramesh Babu V as Member in Central Electricity Regulatory Commission
Source: PIV Govt
Shri Ramesh Babu V. has taken oath of office and secrecy as Member, Central Electricity Regulatory Commission, on
May 21, 2024. The oath of office and secrecy was administered to him, by the Union Minister for Power and New &
Renewable Energy Shri R. K. Singh.
Shri Ramesh Babu V. holds M. Tech Degree in Thermal Engineering and B. Tech degree in Mechanical Engineering. He
held the post of Director (Operations), NTPC from May 2020 till his retirement, before which he served in various
positions in NTPC.
World Economic Forum Founder Klaus Schwab To Step Back From Executive Role
Source: NDTV
Klaus Schwab, the founder and executive chairman of the World Economic Forum, will be stepping down from his
executive role. He will be transitioning to a non-executive role by January 2025, The Forum's governance is also set to
change as a consequence of the move and Schwab hasn't yet named a successor.
The WEF, which the 86-year-old founded in 1971, organises a yearly gathering of world leaders in finance, economy
and politics in Davos, Switzerland as well as several smaller events throughout the world.
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AWARDS & RECOGNITION
Eminent Personalities Honoured with Prestigious Pandit Lacchu Maharaj Award
Noted Hindi film superstars Hema Malini and Saira Banu, along with other prominent personalities from the fields of
art and culture, will be honoured with the prestigious Pandit Lacchu Maharaj Award.
The award ceremony will take place on 31 August 2024 in Lucknow, Uttar Pradesh.
Dr. Bina Modi Honoured for Outstanding Contribution to Corporate Social Responsibility
Dr. Bina Modi, Chairperson and Managing Director of Modi Enterprises – KK Modi Group, was honoured by the
esteemed Vice President of India, Jagdeep Dhankar, for her ‘Outstanding Contribution to the cause of Corporate Social
Responsibility (CSR)‘.
Purnima Devi Barman Gets the ‘Green Oscar’ Whitley Gold Award 2024
Dr. Purnima Devi Barman, a wildlife biologist from Assam, has been recognized with the prestigious Whitley Gold
Award for her exemplary conservation efforts aimed at protecting the endangered Greater Adjutant Stork and its
wetland habitat.
Dr. Barman’s journey in conservation began with her childhood fascination for the Greater Adjutant Stork, locally
known as “Hargila” in Assamese.
Journalism Category
Public Service - Pro Publica. Pro Publica is a non-profit investigative journalist body in California. It was given the award
for the investigative work of its reporters Joshua Kaplan, Justin Elliott, Brett Murphy, Alex Mierjeski and Kirsten Berg.
Investigative Reporting - Hannah Dreier of The New York Times International Reporting - Staff of The New York Times.
The award was given for its wide-ranging and revelatory coverage of Hamas’ lethal attack in southern Israel on October
7, Israel’s intelligence failures and the Israeli military’s response in Gaza.
Editorial Writing - David E. Hoffman of The Washington Post Newspaper.
Breaking News Photography - Photography Staff of Reuters news agency.
Feature Photography - Photography Staff of Associated Press news agency.
Audio Reporting - Staff of the Invisible Institute and USG Audio.
Book Drama and Music Category
Fiction - Night Watch. The novel has been written by American novelist Jayne Anne Phillips.
Drama - Primary Trust. The Primary Trust has been written by American playwright Eboni Booth,
History - No Right to an Honest Living: The Struggles of Boston’s Black Workers in the Civil War Era. The book was written
by American historian Jacqueline Jones.
Biography - two books have been chosen this time.
King: A Life, by Jonathan Eig, is a biography of American Black civil rights activist Martin Luther King Jr.
Master Slave Husband Wife: An Epic Journey from Slavery to Freedom, by Ilyon Woo
Memoir and Autobiography - Liliana’s Invincible Summer: A Sister’s Search for Justice, by Cristina Rivera Garza.
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Poetry - Tripas: Poems, by Brandon Som. Brandom Som is an American poet.
Music - Adagio (For Wadada Leo Smith), by Tyshawn Sorey.
General nonfiction - A Day in the Life of Abed Salama: Anatomy of a Jerusalem Tragedy, by Nathan Thrall.
Oxford Bookstore Honors Bhavi Mehta with 9th Book Cover Prize and Reveals Art Book Prize 2024
Oxford Bookstores announced Bhavi Mehta as the winner of the 9th edition of Oxford Bookstore Book Cover Prize at
a celebratory event hosted at the India Habitat Centre. Mehta won the prize for the book jacket of “The Book Beautiful”
published by Hachette India and authored by Pradeep Sebastian.
The winner was felicitated with a trophy, certificate and 1 Lakh Indian Rupees cash prize by Dr. Alka Pande, Museum
curator, art historian, author and jury chair; Dr. Shashi Tharoor, well-known author, politician and Member of
Parliament; H.E Ms. May-Elin Stener, Ambassador of Norway to India, Ms. Anja Riedeberger, Director Information
Services South Asia Goethe-Institut / Max Mueller Bhavan and Mr. Swagat Sengupta, CEO, Apeejay Oxford Bookstores,
in the presence of designers, publishers, artists and literary enthusiasts from the industry.
Pawan Sindhi Honored with Global Pride of Sindhi Award 2024 for Outstanding Social Work
In a glittering ceremony held at the Mukesh Patel auditorium in Juhu, Mumbai, social worker Mr. Pawan Sindhi was
bestowed with the prestigious Global Pride of Sindhi Award 2024. The event, attended by esteemed saints, Mahatmas,
and sadhus, was a celebration of Mr. Sindhi’s remarkable contributions to society.
The Global Pride of Sindhi Award 2024 is a well-deserved honor for Pawan Sindhi, recognizing his exceptional efforts
in making a positive impact on society. His dedication to the betterment of humanity serves as an inspiration to others,
encouraging them to actively contribute to the welfare of society.
Prez Droupadi Murmu Conferred Padma Shri To Romalo Ram Of J&K In Field Of Art
President Droupadi Murmu conferred Padma Shri to Romalo Ram of Jammu and Kashmir in the field of Art in New
Delhi. Akashvani Jammu Correspondent reports that Romalo Ram is a Dogri Folk artist of the Jammu region and is
known as the real founder of the Dogri folk song Geetru. He revived the dying folk form “Geetru and Bhakh” with his
dedication and hard work. He published a book ‘Geetruyen Di Fouhar’.
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Ruskin Bond receives Sahitya Akademi Fellowship
Eminent English author Ruskin Bond was awarded the prestigious Sahitya Akademi Fellowship at his Mussoorie
home.
Born on May 19, 1934, in Kasauli, Himachal Pradesh, Ruskin Bond has been an active and influential voice in the
literary world for over 50 years. His diverse body of work spans various genres, including short stories, novels,
autobiographical works, non-fiction, romance, and children’s books. However, his favourite genres remain essays and
stories.
NTPC secures 3rd rank at ATD BEST Awards 2024 for Talent Development
Source: ET Govt
The public sector company NTPC was awarded the third rank in the world for the Talent Development category at the
ATD BEST Awards 2024. The award ceremony was held in New Orleans, United States of America, on 21 May 2024,
Ms. Rachana Singh Bhal, NTPC's chief general manager strategic HR & talent management, accepted the award.
The Association of Talent Development (ATD), USA, gives the ATD BEST Awards in the field of Learning and
Development. The award was instituted in 2003, The award recognises small and large private, public and not-for-
profit organisations that use talent development as a strategic business tool and demonstrate enterprise-wide success
through effective employee development practices.
NHPC conferred with - The Economic Times HR World Future Ready Organization Award 2024-25
NHPC, India’s premier hydropower company, has been conferred with the prestigious ‘The Economic Times HR World
Future Ready Organization Award 2024-25’. The Award has been given to NHPC in recognition of its preparedness in
the areas of upskilling of employees, Environmental, Social and Governance (ESG) interventions, Diversity, Equity &
Inclusion (DE&I) initiatives, constant technological upgradations, Employee Engagement processes, robust Corporate
Governance strategies etc. which establish it as a trusted brand amongst all its stakeholders.
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Thiruvananthapuram International Airport Becomes India’s First Airport to receive Zero Waste To Landfill
Accolade
Thiruvananthapuram International Airport became India's first airport to receive the famous zero waste to landfill
(ZWL) certification. The Confederation of Indian Industry (CII-ITC) Centre of Excellence for Sustainable Development
has recognized the airport's dedication to ecologically friendly practices.
Thiruvananthapuram International Airport has adopted exceptional waste management measures, as evidenced by
an impressive 99.50 percent trash diversion from landfills. This achievement demonstrates the airport's commitment
to sustainability and establishes a high example for others to follow.
Goa Governor P.S. Sreedharan Pillai releases "Heavenly Islands of Goa" book
Governor P.S. Sreedharan Pillai of Goa is on a literary journey to showcase the state's abundant natural heritage through
captivating books. His recent work, "Heavenly Islands of Goa," reflects his commitment to preserving and promoting Goa's
lesser-known aspects.
IMPORTANT DAY
Gujarat Foundation Day 2024:
Gujarat Day, celebrated on May 1st, commemorates the formation of the vibrant state of Gujarat on May 1st, 1960.
Gujarat was carved out of the Bombay State on May 1, 1960, following the enactment of the Bombay Reorganisation
Act.
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World Press Freedom Day 2024 Celebrates on May 3rd
On May 3rd, the global community will come together to observe World Press Freedom Day.
This year, World Press Freedom Day falls on a Friday, and the theme for 2024 is “A Press for the Planet: Journalism in
the Face of the Environmental Crisis.”
World Press Freedom Day was first proclaimed by the United Nations General Assembly in December 1993.
International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action 2024 Observed on May 4th
The International Day of Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action, observed annually on April 4th, serves as a
poignant reminder of the ongoing threats posed by landmines and explosive remnants of war (ERW) worldwide.
The theme for the 2024 International Day for Mine Awareness and Assistance in Mine Action, observed on April 4, is
centered on survivors of explosive hazards with disabilities and those living with disabilities in conflict.
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Rabindranath Tagore Jayanti 2024
Every year, Tagore's birth anniversary is observed with a lot of respect and honour by the Bengalis. According to the
Gregorian calendar, his birth anniversary – affectionately referred to as Rabindra Jayanti – falls on May 7. However,
according to the Bengali calendar, Rabindra Jayanti will be observed on May 8 this year.
Rabindranath Tagore is celebrated as a timeless poet, novelist, author, playwright, songwriter and philosopher in
West Bengal. The poet is known all over the world for his huge volume of work. Tagore is the first non-European to
receive the Nobel Prize in Literature in the year 1913.
Mother's Day
Mother's Day annually falls on the second Sunday of May. This year, it is on May 12. Mother's Day honours mothers
and mother figures around the globe. It is a day to express our gratitude, love and appreciation for them through
words, gifts, selfless gestures, and a reminder that one day is not enough to thank them for all the sacrifices they have
made for us in the past.
Mother's Day was first celebrated by Anna Jarvis in the early 20th century, inspired by her own mother's dedication
to humanitarian work. Mother's Day is a special occasion celebrated on the second Sunday in May around the world
to honour mothers and motherhood.
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International Day of Families
International Day of Families is observed every year on 15 May. The day highlights the importance of families. The UN
focuses on some important issues that are central to the well-being of families across the world like health, education,
children's rights, gender equality, work-family balance, and social inclusion among others.
The theme for International Day of Families 2024 is “Families and Climate Change.” Climate change is a pressing issue
of our times. The changes in climate and weather patterns can have serious consequences to human life, leading to
loss of livelihood and displacement of families. Climate change can lead to “economic disruption in industries sensitive
to climate impacts such as agriculture and fisheries,” notes the UN.
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involving young people in beekeeping and pollinator conservation efforts, recognizing them as the future stewards of
our environment.
International HR Day
Source: HR-ON
Every year, International HR Day, or IHRD, is a celebration of the revolutionary impact that HR has on both individuals
and organizations. The European Association for People Management established it in 2019 with the goal of
highlighting the important role that HR professionals and practices play within the organization and increasing public
awareness of the changing demands and vital role that HR professionals play in today's dynamic workplace and their
crucial role in the success of organizations.
This year's International HR Day theme is HR shaping the new future, focusing on four sub-themes:
Ethical use of technology and AI
Future workplaces
People leadership
Continued innovation in skills and education
Buddha Purnima
Source: Hindustan times
Buddha Purnima also popularly known as Buddha Jayanti or Vesak, is an immensely important festival celebrated by
Buddhist followers all around the world. This special day honours the birth of Gautam Buddha, the founder of
Buddhism.
This festival falls on the full moon day of the lunar month of Vesakha, which is usually in the month of May, according
to the Buddhist calendar.
International Week of Solidarity with the Peoples of Non-Self-Governing Territories 25-31 May
The U.N. commemorates International Week of Solidarity with Peoples of Non-Self-Governing Territories annually
from May 25 to May 31.
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The U.N. describes a Non-Self-Governing Territory as a territory “whose people have not yet gained a complete degree
of self-government.” This day aims to request the administering Powers to protect and respect the rights of the peoples
in these territories to their natural resources and their property rights. Currently, there are 17 non-self-governing
territories left in the world.
OBITUARY
Playback Singer Uma Ramanan Bids Adieu at 72
Renowned playback singer Uma Ramanan, who predominantly sang in Tamil, passed away at the age of 72 in Chennai.
The veteran singer, known for her melodious voice and extensive repertoire, has left an indelible mark on the Indian
music industry.
Shrontz, an attorney by training, was Boeing’s chief executive officer from 1986 to 1996. It was an era of innovation,
from designing ground-breaking new jets such as the Boeing 777 to elevating quality standards after he studied
processes pioneered by Japanese automakers such as Toyota Motor Corp. Boeing needed all that to compete against
its European rival Airbus SE.
Roger Corman, Hollywood mentor, Oscar-winning 'King of the Bs', Passes Away at 98
Roger Corman, the Oscar-winning King of the Bs who helped turn out such low-budget classics as Little Shop of
Horrors and Attack of the Crab Monsters and gave many of Hollywood's most famous actors and directors early
breaks, has died. He was 98.
Roger William Corman was an American film director, producer, and actor. Known under various monikers such as
"The Pope of Pop Cinema", "The Spiritual Godfather of the New Hollywood", and "The King of Cult", he is known as a
trailblazer in the world of independent film.
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Birubala Rabha, activist who campaigned against witch hunting, passed Away
Assam-based social activist Birubala Rabha, who campaigned against witch hunting in the state, died in Guwahati after
battling with cancer.
She was honoured with the Padma Shri award by the central government in 2021 and nominated for the Nobel Peace
Prize in 2005.
Alice Munro, Nobel Prize winner and ‘master of the short story,’ dies at 92
Alice Munro, the Nobel Literature Prize winner best known for her mastery of short stories and depictions of
womanhood in rural settings, has died in Ontario, Canada, at the age of 92. The news was confirmed to CNN “with
great sadness” by a spokesperson at her publisher, Penguin Random House.
Born in 1931 in Wingham, Ontario, Munro grew up on what she described as the “collapsing enterprise of a fox and
mink farm, just beyond the most disreputable part of town” in a 1994 interview with “The Paris Review.” Amid familial
struggles, Munro found an escape in reading as a child. Her early enthusiasm for renowned writers such as Emily
Brontë, Charles Dickens, and Lucy Maud Montgomery, among others, reflected an appreciation for literature beyond
her age.
Veteran Congress Leader and Former Governor Kamla Beniwal Passes Away
Veteran Congress leader and former governor of Gujarat Kamla Beniwal died at a private hospital in Jaipur on
Wednesday, She was 97.
Born on January 12, 1927, in Gorir, Jhunjhunu district, Rajputana Agency, British India, Beniwal’s journey was deeply
rooted in the Indian independence movement. At the tender age of 15, she joined the Indian National Congress and
actively participated in the Quit India Movement, showcasing her unwavering dedication to the cause of freedom.
Padma Shri awardee writer Malti Joshi dies at the age of 90 years
Noted storyteller and Padma Shri awardee Malti Joshi passed away at the age of 90 years at her residence in New Delhi
on 15 May 2024. She was suffering from oesophagus cancer. Malti Joshi was known for her work in Hindi and Marathi
language. She was awarded Padam Shri in 2018.
Legendary banker and former ICICI Bank Chairman N Vaghul Passes Away
Source: Mint
Narayanan Vaghul, legendary banker and former ICICI Bank Chairman, passed away at Apollo hospital, Chennai,
earlier today. According to people familiar with the development, Vaghul was unconscious and critical for the last two
days after he had a fall at home.
During his decades-long career path, Vaghul was instrumental in building ICICI Bank from an early-stage financial
institution into a full-fledged bank. Vaghul mentored many senior executives at the bank, including the likes of KV
Kamath.
RANKING
Indian EdTech Giants Shine on TIME’s Global Ranking
In a remarkable achievement, Emeritus, the Indian edtech startup, has secured the coveted top spot in TIME
Magazine’s “World’s Top EdTech Companies of 2024” ranking. Founded in 2015 by Ashwin Damera and Chaitanya
Kalipatnapu.
Emeritus is not alone in this prestigious recognition, as the list features 14 more Indian edtech firms
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World Press Freedom Index 2024 Announced, India Ranked 159th Out of 180 Countries
In the latest edition of the World Press Freedom Index published annually by Reporters Without Borders (RSF), India
finds itself at a concerning position, ranking 159th out of 180 countries.
India trails behind its neighboring nation Pakistan, which holds the 152nd position, while Sri Lanka stands at 150th
place.
India surpassed Japan to become 3rd largest solar power generator in 2023
India's rapid solar energy deployment has pushed it past Japan to become the third-largest solar power generator in
the world in 2023. India was ranked ninth in solar energy deployment in 2015 by global energy think tank Ember.
In 2023, solar energy accounted for 5.5 percent of global electricity production. Following the global trend, India
generated 5.8 per cent of its electricity from solar last year, Ember's "Global Electricity Review" reported.
Mukesh Ambani and Gautam Adani in World’s Top 15 Super Rich List
Source: Business today
Mukesh Ambani and Gautam Adani have been included in the top 15 world’s super-rich list of the Bloomberg
Billionaires Index. Gautam Adani made it to the list after he lost his place in 2023 due to short selling in his company's
stock after the publication of the Hinderberg report.
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The short selling in 2023 led to an erosion in Adani's wealth, leading to his exit from the top 15 super-rich list. For the
first time, every individual included in the top 15 super rich in the world has a networth of $100 billion or more.
India Climbs to 39th Position in World Economic Forum’s Travel & Tourism Development Index 2024
India has climbed to the 39th position in the World Economic Forum’s Travel & Tourism Development Index 2024,
while US topped the list. India also ranks the highest in South Asia among the lower-middle-income economies. Earlier,
India was ranked 54th in 2021 published index.
On an overall index score of 7, where 1 is the worst, and 7 the best, India scored 4.25. India’s significant leap in the
rankings underscores its growing competitiveness in the global tourism landscape. The biennial index analyzed the
travel and tourism sectors of 119 countries, evaluating them on a range of factors and policies that foster tourism
development.
Oxford Economics’ Global Cities Index: Delhi highest ranked among Indian city
Source: The Financial Express
Delhi has scored the 350th rank in the Oxford Economics’ Global Cities Index, which has compared the world's 1000
largest cities on parameters ranging from economics to human capital, The index contains five categories: Economics,
Human Capital, Quality of Life, Environment, and Governance, which are aggregated to create an overall score for each
city.
New York ranks first on the index, followed by London, San Jose, Tokyo, Paris, Seattle, Los Angeles, San Francisco,
Melbourne and Zurich.
In India, Bengaluru is ranked 411, Mumbai 427, Chennai 472, Kochi 521, Kolkata 528, Pune 534, Thrissur 550,
Hyderabad 564 and Kozhikode 580, Chandigarh (584), Tiruchirappalli (634), Pondicherry (646), Kottayam (649),
Ahmedabad (654), Mysore (667), Coimbatore (669), Jalandhar (672), Thiruvananthapuram (686), Madurai (691),
Bhubaneswar (704), Amritsar (717), Vellore (729), Ludhiana (730), Nagpur (744), Dehradun (745), Vasai-Virar (748),
Kannur (759), Srinagar (761), Hubli-Dharwad (766), Salem (767), Guwahati (770), Jaipur (772), Belgaum (777),
Mangalore (779) and Bhopal (792)
SPORTS
ICC Imposes Five-Year Ban on West Indies Cricketer Devon Thomas for Anti-Corruption Breaches
The International Cricket Council (ICC) has taken strong action against West Indies player Devon Thomas by imposing
a five-year period of ineligibility from all cricket after he admitted to breaching multiple anti-corruption codes.
Thomas accepted breaching seven counts of the anti-corruption codes of Sri Lanka Cricket (SLC), the Emirates Cricket
Board (ECB), and the Caribbean Premier League (CPL).
Amul Becomes Lead Sponsor for USA and South Africa in T20 World Cup 2024
The renowned Indian dairy giant Amul has been named the Lead Arm sponsor for the USA and South Africa cricket
teams during the highly anticipated T20 World Cup in June.
Japan win 2024 Men’s AFC U-23 Title by beating Uzbekistan in final
Japan defeated Uzbekistan in the final to win the Men’s AFC U-23 Asian Cup for the second time. Japan had earlier won
the tournament title in 2016.
In the final match played at the Jassim bin Hamad Stadium in Doha, Qatar, Japan won by a solitary goal and also
qualified for the 2024 Paris Olympics.
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Thomas & Uber Cup 2024: China secure both men’s and women’s crowns
The People’s Republic of China has reclaimed its throne as the top badminton nation, clinching both the men’s and
women’s titles at the prestigious 2024 BWF Thomas & Uber Cup Finals in Chengdu.
Lando Norris wins F1 Miami Grand Prix for historic maiden victory
Lando Norris of McLaren won his first-ever Grand Prix victory in a pulsating showdown at the Miami Grand Prix.
Lando Norris is a British and Belgian racing driver currently competing in Formula One with McLaren, racing under
the British flag.
Yuzvendra Chahal Creates History to Become First Indian Bowler to 350 T20 Wickets
Yuzvendra Chahal continues to create history in the ongoing edition of the Indian Premier League. The Rajasthan
Royals’ leg-spinner reached yet another historic feat after picking the wicket of the Delhi Capitals skipper, Rishabh
Pant at the Arun Jaitley Stadium in New Delhi,
Earlier Chahal became the first bowler to reach 200 IPL wickets. Now he also went on to become the first Indian
bowler to reach 350 wickets in T20 cricket following his lone scalp against DC.
Coca-Cola India announces its first ever partnership with Hockey India
The Coca-Cola India Foundation, announces its first ever partnership with Hockey India, for the National Women's
Hockey League 2024. The 1st Phase of the tournament commenced on 30thApril, and it will conclude on 9thMay 2024,
in Ranchi, Jharkhand. The domestic league promises an exhilarating showcase of talent and skill.
The National Women's Hockey League features teams that secured top-eight positions in Pune's recently concluded
14thHockey India Senior Women National Championship 2024. The participating athletes represent various states,
including Haryana, Maharashtra, Jharkhand, Madhya Pradesh, Bengal, Mizoram, Manipur, and Odisha.
Indian Contingent Bags 43 Medals at ASBC Asian U-22 And Youth Boxing Championships
In boxing, the Indian contingent wrapped up their electrifying journey at the ASBC Asian U-22 and Youth Boxing
Championships with a remarkable haul of 43 medals in Astana, Kazakhstan. This includes 12 gold, 14 silver, and 17
bronze medals from both categories.
The Indian U-22 team finished with 21 medals, including seven gold, five silver, and nine bronze medals, yesterday,
while the youth section bagged 22 medals, including five gold, nine silver, and eight bronze medals, on Monday. India
finished with the second-highest medal count, only behind the hosts, Kazakhstan, who have won 48 medals.
Amul becomes ‘Official Sponsor’ Of Sri Lanka Men’s Team For ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024
Sri Lanka Cricket has announced that Indian milk producer Amul has become the ‘Official Sponsor’ of the Sri Lanka
Men’s Team for the duration of the ICC Men’s T20 World Cup 2024.
CEO of Sri Lanka Cricket Ashley De Silva said that Amul’s partnership with Sri Lanka Cricket is an excellent move, as
associating with an international sports brand is going to help the firm gain market growth and further enhance its
brand visibility among the international audience.
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India won three gold, two bronze medal at the Asian Open Pickleball
The Indian team put out a dominant show in the Asian Open Pickleball Championship in Vietnam with a total of five
medals.
In the mixed doubles intermediate 35+ category, Sachin Pahwa and Priyanka Chhabra bagged the gold medal after a
thrilling 11-9, 5-11, 11-9 win over Ruben Hellberg and Chitlada Hemasee.
Continuing the winning streak, Isha Lakhani and Pei Chuan Kao emerged victorious in the women's doubles open
category with a commanding 15-7, 15-3 win against Dang Kim Ngan and Tyak K.
In the men's doubles event, Aniket Patel and Rohit Patil overcame Nik Alessandro Isagan and Lester Ga in a hard-
fought match to claim the gold medal. They won 5-11, 11-6, 11-8.
Vijay Menon secured a bronze medal by defeating Yu Hsuan Cher in the men's singles advanced 35+ category. Priyanka
Chhabra won a bronze in the women's singles intermediate 35+ category, defeating Marissa Phongsirikul.
New Zealand’s Colin Munro announces retirement after being ignored for ICC T20 World Cup 2024
Colin Munro, the hard-hitting New Zealand top-order batsman, has announced his retirement from international
cricket after being ignored for the upcoming ICC T20 World Cup 2024.
Munro represented New Zealand in 1 Test, 57 ODIs, and 65 T20Is, amassing a total of 3,010 runs. However, it was in
the shortest format of the game that Munro truly showcased his batting prowess, earning a reputation as a T20
specialist.
In T20Is, Munro struck runs at an impressive strike rate of 156.44, a testament to his ability to take the opposition
attack apart. The 37-year-old remains one of the few players to have scored upwards of 10,000 runs across all T20
competitions, a remarkable feat in itself.
India’s Star Javelin Thrower Neeraj Chopra Seals Second-Place Finish In Doha Diamond League 2024
India’s star javelin thrower, Neeraj Chopra sealed a second-place finish in the Doha Diamond League 2024. With an
unusual slow start, Chopra’s spear landed at 88.36 metre, just 2 cenitmetres short of event topper Jakub Vadlejch’s
88.38 metre. The windy conditions in Doha played an unfriendly part in Chopra’s attempt to win the second Doha
season in a row.
Fellow Asian Games medallist Kishore Jena, returned disappointed as he was eliminated at the halfway stage after a
throw of 76.31 metre.
Japan defeated Pakistan to win the 30th Sultan Azlan Shah Trophy
Japan won its maiden Sultan Azlan Shah Hockey trophy by defeating Pakistan 4-1 in the penalty shoot-out in the final.
The final was played at the Azlan Shah Stadium in Ipoh, Malaysia, on 11 May 2024, It was the first Sultan Azlan Shah
Title for Japan.
The Japanese men’s hockey team defeated Pakistan to claim its first Sultan Azlan Shah Trophy. In the final, the match
ended at 2-2 after the end of the normal. In the penalty shoot-out, Japan defeated Pakistan by 4-1.
The Pakistani team, also popularly called the Green Shirts, was appearing in the final of the Azlan Shah for the 10th
time. It last played the final in 2011, which it lost to Australia. Pakistan has won the Sultan Azlan Shah trophy three
times.
R Praggnanandhaa Beats World Number One Magnus Carlsen - Grand Chess Tour
In Chess, India’s R Praggnanandhaa scored yet another victory over world number one Magnus Carlsen of Norway to
keep himself afloat even as Wei Yi of China stretched his lead to a massive 2.5 points in the Superbet rapid and blitz
tournament.
With nine rounds still to go in the blitz event, Wei Yi has amassed 20.5 points with seven wins on the first day of blitz.
Ending the day with 7.5 out of a possible nine, Yi seems like a man possessed and is poised to win the first leg of the
Grand Chess Tour.
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Mumbai City FC beat Mohun Bagan Super Giant 3-1 to win the Indian Super League 2023-24
Mumbai City FC beat Mohun Bagan Super Giant 3-1 in the Indian Super League 2023-24 final at the Salt Lake Stadium
in Kolkata. Incidentally, Mumbai City FC's first title, in the 2020-21 season, came after beating ATK Mohun Bagan in
the final.
The 2023–24 Indian Super League was the 10th season of the Indian Super League (ISL) and the 28th season of the
top-tier in Indian football. It commenced on 21 September 2023 and concluded with the ISL Cup final on 4 May 2024.
Magnus Carlsen wins the Superbet Rapid & Blitz Poland 2024 with a score of 26.0
World number-one Magnus Carlsen posted an incredible 10-game winning streak to overhaul GM Wei Yi and win the
2024 Superbet Rapid & Blitz Poland despite starting the day 2.5 points behind. Carlsen caught Wei by beating him in
the fourth round of the day. His rival didn't crack, but couldn't keep up the pace as he had to settle for second place, a
full six points ahead of third-placed GM Jan-Krzysztof Duda.
With this victory, Carlsen further solidified his position as the undisputed king of rapid chess. His ability to stage a
remarkable comeback from a significant deficit showcased his unwavering determination and exceptional skills,
leaving his opponents in awe of his prowess.
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Brazil won with 119 votes versus 78 for the joint European entry, boosted by a technical evaluation from world
governing body FIFA that gave a high score for its commercial plan and stadiums purpose-built for the 2014 Men’s
World Cup.
Nikhat Zareen & Minakshi Clinch Gold Medals at Elorda Cup in Kazakhstan
In Boxing, India’s reigning world champion, Nikhat Zareen and Minakshi clinched gold medals at the Elorda Cup 2024
in Astana, Kazakhstan. Nikhat in the women’s 52 kg category, triumphed over Zhazira Urakbayeva of Kazakhstan with
a 5-Nil victory, while Minakshi defeated another Uzbekistan boxer Rahmonova Saidahon, 4-1 in the women’s 48 kg
event.
Meanwhile, Anamika in the 50kg and Manisha in the 60kg suffered losses to end their campaigns with silver medals.
Anamika conceded a 1-4 loss against reigning world champion China’s Wu Yu while Manisha faced a nil-5 defeat
against Kazakhstan’s Viktoriya Grafeeva.
The Indian pugilists concluded their Elorda Cup 2024 campaign with 12 medals, including two gold, two silver and
eight bronze medals.
Deepthi Jeevanji wins gold with world record time in 400m T20 class in World Para C'ships
Source: Orissa post
India's Deepthi Jeevanji clinched the gold medal with a world record time of 55.07 seconds in the women's 400m T20
category race at the World Para Athletics Championships here on Monday ( May 20, 2024 ).
Deepthi smashed American Breanna Clark's earlier world record of 55.12 seconds set during last year's edition of the
championships in Paris.
Nandini Dairy becomes the official sponsor of the Scotland team for T20 World Cup
Source: Best MediaInfo
The management of the Scotland cricket team unveiled its jersey with a logo of Karnataka’s home-grown Nandini dairy
for the upcoming T20 World Cup. The Karnataka Milk Federation (KMF) that runs the Nandini brand is the official
sponsor of the Scotland team, and this is the first time the milk brand has gone international.
Nandini is also an official sponsor of the Ireland cricket team, which will play in the T20 World Cup, which is scheduled
for the West Indies and the United States of America.
Alexander Zverev and Iga Swiatek win Singles Title of Italian open and more
Source: India today
Alexander Zverev won the single title of the Italian Open tennis tournament, while the women’s singles title was won
by the world no.1 player Iga Swiatek. This was the second Italian open title for Alexander Zeverv, while it was the third
Italian title for Iga Swiatek.
In the men’s doubles the pair of Marcell Granollers (Spain) and Horacio Zeballos (Argentina) defeated the pair of Mate
Pavic(Croatia) and Marcelo Arevalo (El Salvador) in straight sets 6-2 6-2.
In the women’s doubles, the Italian pair of Sara Errani and Jasmine Paolini defeated the pair of Coco Gauff (America)
and Erin Routliffe (New Zealand) in the final.
Max Verstappen Wins Emilia Romagna Grand Prix 2024, Lando Norris Finishes Second
Source: Business today
Red Bull's Max Verstappen clinched the Emilia Romagna Grand Prix as McLaren's Lando Norris finished second, less
than a second behind the leader, and ahead of Ferrari's Charles Leclerc here on Sunday – 19 May. It was the 59th career
win for the three-time Formula 1 world champion who kept Norris at bay despite struggling with his car. Verstappen
took his third consecutive win in Imola to take his season's tally to five in seven races.
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Ekta wins gold in club throw at World Para Athletic Championships
Source: The Hindu
India's Ekta Bhyan secured the gold medal with a season's best throw of 20.12m in the women' F51 club throw
competition at the World Para Athletic Championships.
A day after Deepthi Jeevanji clinched the gold medal in women's 400m T20 category race, Indian athletes continued
their impressive run with Ekta producing the goods to finish in the top, while Kashish Lakra took the silver with an
effort of 14.56m. Nadjet Boucherf of Algeria won the bronze with a score of 12.70m.
Atalanta wins the Europa League ends Bayer Leverkusen's unbeaten run
Source: News18
The Italian football club Atalanta BC defeated the German football club Bayer Leverkusen 3-0 in the final of the 2023-
24 UEFA Europa League, played at the Aviva Stadium in Dublin, Republic of Ireland, on 23 May 2024. The defeat ended
Bayer Leverkusen's 51-match unbeaten record.
First European Trophy for Atalanta Football Club - Serie A Italian football club, Atalanta BC, was playing its first
European final. It was Bayer Leverkusen's third European final, having won one and lost two.
In the final, Ademola Lookman scored twice to give a 2-0 lead to the Atalanta side at half-time and scored his third and
final goal of the match in the 75 minutes of the match to seal a historic victory for his side.
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The meeting was co-chaired by ASEAN-Singapore SOM Leader, Albert Chua, and the SOM Leader of India, Jaideep
Mazumdar. Senior Officials of ASEAN Member States (AMS) or their representatives, the Deputy Secretary-General for
ASEAN Political-Security Community were in attendance, along with representatives from Timor-Leste who were
present as Observer.
ICG and Hindalco Industries signes MoU for supply of indigenous marine-grade aluminum for construction of
ships
Indian Coast Guard (ICG) and Hindalco Industries, on May 09, 2024, inked a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU)
in New Delhi for the manufacturing and supply of indigenous marine-grade aluminium to Indian public and private
shipyards for the construction of ships. The MoU will also provide benefits such as quarterly pricing, priority in
supplies and Turnover discount.
The ICG fleet is presently operating 67 ships with aluminium hull with capability of operating in shallow waters. To
further boost coastal security, it has planned to induct more such vessels where the indigenously manufactured
marine-grade aluminium will be utilised.
Ministry of Skill Development & Entrepreneurship signs MoU with Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd.
Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd to conduct two Pilot Projects under the Drone Didi Yojana.
Secretary, Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship Shri Atul Kumar Tiwari; Group CEO & MD, Mahindra
Group Dr. Anish Shah and senior officials of the MSDE were present at the event. Launched earlier this year, the scheme
aims to train 15,000 women to operate drones for agricultural purposes such as fertilising the crop, monitoring crop
growth and planting seeds, thereby creating new livelihood opportunities for women through imparting skills in new
technology areas.
UAE-India CEPA Council and Indian Chamber of Commerce inks MoU to enhance bilateral relations
The UAE-India CEPA Council (UICC) signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with the Indian Chamber of
Commerce (ICC), commencing a strategic partnership to bolster economic and trade ties between the UAE and India.
In alignment with their respective mandates, the UICC and the ICC will synergise efforts, resources, and ideas, and
collaborate on increasing awareness within the UAE and India of the significant potential of the UAE-India bilateral
economic partnership.
Nepal’s Ambassador to India arrives in Sikkim to attend 38th India-Nepal Foundation Board Meeting
Dr. Shankar Prasad Sharma, Nepal’s Ambassador to India, has arrived in Sikkim accompanied by his spouse, Mrs.
Kalpana Sharma, to attend the 38th Board Meeting of the India Nepal Foundation.
The ambassador was warmly welcomed at the Rangpo Facilitation Centre by local dignitaries including Mr. Thendup
Lepcha, SDM Rangpo, and Mr. Sanjiv Khati, President of Rangpo Nagar Panchayat, among others. The meeting,
scheduled from May 12th to 14th, 2024, to underscores the strengthening ties between Nepal and India.
ReNew and Societe Generale ink MoU to provide up to $1-b financing for energy transition projects
ReNew has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with Societe Generale for providing up to $1 billion
financing for development of energy transition projects both in India and overseas.
Both parties will help strengthen the collaboration on utility-scale energy projects including solar, wind, complex
renewables and green hydrogen. They will leverage respective capabilities in energy storage and solar modules
manufacturing. As a key milestone towards aspiration in India and worldwide,
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3rd EPG meeting of BIMSTEC held In Dhaka, Bangladesh
The third meeting of the Eminent Persons’ Group (EPG) on the future direction of BIMSTEC (Bay of Bengal Initiative
for Multi-Sectoral Technical and Economic Cooperation) was held on 12 and 13 May 2024 at the BIMSTEC Secretariat
in Dhaka, Bangladesh. The meeting was chaired by Dr. Soonthorn Chaiyindeepum of Thailand, as Thailand is the
current chairman of BIMSTEC.
The EPG comprises eminent personalities from all seven BIMSTEC members: Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Myanmar,
Nepal, Sri Lanka, and Thailand. It was set up to prepare a roadmap for BIMSTEC's future.
FICCI & IESA Sign MoU To Boost India’s Semiconductor And Electronics Industry
India Electronics and Semiconductor Association (IESA) has signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) with
Federation of Indian Chambers of Commerce and Industry (FICCI) to promote innovation, support the semiconductor
and electronics industry, strengthen supply chains, and foster development of the ecosystem in India.
This collaboration will work on setting up joint task force on semiconductor and critical technologies of the future.
Conducting technology consultative roundtables, fostering business partnerships would be the core objective of this
MoU.
India, UAE conclude meeting on India Middle East Europe Economic Corridor
The first inter-ministerial delegation from India held meetings from May 15-17 under the Intergovernmental
Framework Agreement between the two countries concerning cooperation for the empowerment and operation of
the India-Middle East-Europe Economic Corridor (IMEEC).
According to the Indian Embassy in Abu Dhabi press release, the IMEEC will provide effective alternate supply routes
generating efficiencies and reducing costs. Indian Ambassador to UAE Sunjay Sudhir led the discussions with key
entities like DP World UAE, AD Ports Group and UAE's Federal Customs Authority.
DAHD and UNDP signs MoU on Digitalization of Vaccine Cold Chain Management
The Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying (DAHD), Ministry of Fisheries, Animal Husbandry & Dairying signed
a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) today with the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) India on
Digitalization of Vaccine Cold Chain Management, Capacity Building, and Communication Planning.
The MOU was signed today at “We the People Hall”, UNDP Country office, Lodhi Estate, New Delhi between Smt. Alka
Upadhyay, Secretary, Department of Animal Husbandry & Dairying and Ms. Caitlin Wiesen. UNDP Resident
Representative in India. This strategic partnership aims to enhance the digitalization of vaccine cold chain
management, capacity building, and communication planning in India.
178
Airbus Helicopters and SIDBI sign an MoU for helicopter financing in India
Airbus Helicopters and Small Industries Development Bank of India (SIDBI), the Government of India’s principal
financial institution for promoting, financing and developing the Micro, Small and Medium Enterprise (MSME) sector,
have signed a Memorandum of Understanding (MoU) for financing the purchase of Airbus’ helicopters in India.
The MoU was signed by Rahul Priyadarshi, Chief General Manager, SIDBI and Sunny Guglani, Head of Airbus
Helicopters, India and South Asia. Under the MoU, both Airbus Helicopters and SIDBI will identify potential civil
helicopter operators in India who are interested in financing solutions for purchasing Airbus helicopters.
Indian Oil Corporation’s Investment in Renewable Energy: Rs 5,215 Crore for 1 GW Capacity
Indian Oil Corporation (IOC) has announced a significant investment of Rs 5,215 crore to develop 1 gigawatt (GW) of
renewable energy capacity in India.
179
Adani Green Energy Secures $400 Million Finance for Solar Projects
Adani Green Energy Ltd (AGEL) has successfully obtained a $400 million finance package from a consortium of five
international banks to support its ongoing solar projects in Gujarat and Rajasthan.
NPCI Partners with Bank of Namibia to Develop UPI-Like Instant Payment System
NPCI International Payments Limited (NIPL) has joined hands with the Bank of Namibia (BoN) to introduce a real-
time payment system akin to India’s Unified Payment Interface (UPI) in Namibia.
YES Bank Collaborates with ANQ to Launch Pi and Phi Credit Cards
YES Bank has partnered with ANQ to introduce two innovative credit cards, Pi and Phi, aiming to blend traditional
banking with fintech solutions.
The Pi card offers digital-only credit on UPI for domestic transactions.
180
ICICI Bank now lets NRIs use international numbers for UPI payments in India
New Delhi, May 7 (IANS) ICICI Bank on Monday announced that it has enabled NRI (Non-Resident Indian) customers
to use their international mobile number to make UPI payments instantly in India.
This will allow the bank’s NRI customers to make payments for their utility bills, merchant and e-commerce
transactions with their international mobile number registered with their NRE/NRO bank account held with ICICI
Bank in the country.
Canara HSBC Life Insurance introduces Promise4Growth Plan
Canara HSBC Life Insurance has introduced Promise4Growth, a new Unit Linked Insurance Plan (ULIP) designed for
customers embarking on a journey towards financial prosperity and security. The product underscores our
commitment towards providing holistic financial solutions, seamlessly integrating lucrative investment avenues with
comprehensive protection.
HDFC Bank, Atal Innovation Mission empower social sector startups with Rs 19.6 cr grants
HDFC Bank supported social sector startups in India with grants worth Rs 19.6 crore in FY24, in partnership with Atal
Innovation Mission (under NITI Aayog).
In FY 2023-24, 170 social start-ups received funding via 41 incubators, with a total of Rs 19.6 crore in the ‘Parivartan
Start-up Grants programme.’
The focus areas for the 2024 grants included climate innovation, financial inclusion, agriculture and sustainable rural
economy, accessible and affordable healthcare, education and livelihood enhancement, gender diversity and inclusion.
YES BANK and EBANX announce strategic partnership to empower cross-border commerce in India
YES BANK and EBANX announced a strategic partnership for payment processing in India, for the global digital
economy. This collaboration represents a significant milestone in the digital payments landscape, aimed at
streamlining cross-border payment processing and enhancing global commerce opportunities for global merchants
and Indian customers in India.
This partnership will leverage EBANX’s extensive global experience and proficiency in cross-border payments
alongside YES BANK’s digital prowess, to provide global merchants with seamless access to a suite of scalable payment
solutions, crafted within an innovative business architecture framework and aligned with the latest regulatory
guidelines.
Bharti Enterprises sells stake of ICICI Lombard General Insurance worth Rs. 663 Crore and more
Bharti Enterprises sold 38.5 lakh ICICI Lombard General Insurance shares at an average price of Rs 1,722.5 per share,
totalling Rs 663 crore.
Axis Mutual Fund (MF), Aditya Birla Sun Life MF, Invesco MF, Morgan Stanley Asia Singapore, Societe Generale,
Goldman Sachs Singapore and Blackstone Aqua Master Sub-Fund acquired shares of Mumbai-based general insurer,
ICICI Lombard shares settled 3.63 percent lower at Rs 1,660 on May 9, Meanwhile, investor Seetha Kumari bought
78,454 shares of Nilkamal Limited at an average price of Rs 1,870.2 per share, totalling Rs 14.67 crore. The stock fell
1.37 percent to Rs 1,865 on Thursday.
Gopalkumar Bhikhalal Baldha sold 1.14 lakh shares of CMM Infraprojects at an average price of Rs 2.31 per share. The
stock fell 2.13 percent to Rs 2.3 on May 9.
India contributes US$ 500,000 to the Counter Terrorism Trust Fund (CTTF)
The Permanent Representative of India to the United Nations in New York Ambassador Ruchira Kamboj, handed over
India’s voluntary financial contribution of half a million dollars towards the Counter Terrorism Trust Fund (CTTF) to
Mr Valdimir Voronkov, Under Secretary General, United Nations Office of Counter Terrorism (UNOCT).
181
This is a testament to India’s commitment to international cooperation on countering terrorism and continued
implementation of the announcement made by Dr S. Jaishankar, the External Affairs Minister of India during the
Special Meeting of the Counter Terrorism Committee in New Delhi on 29 October 2022, to contribute to the Counter
Terrorism Trust Fund.
HDFC Bank launches its first virtual credit card with Visa
The country’s largest private sector lender, HDFC Bank, on May 14, launched PIXEL, its first virtual credit card with
Visa’s network. The card is available in two variants: PIXEL Play and PIXEL Go and allows users to build their own
cards with personalised benefits, offers, etc.
Customers can register for the cards on the bank’s PayZapp mobile application which can be digitally managed. The
PayZapp application will provide credit card users with features like card controls, rewards, EMI dashboard,
notifications, statements, repayments, disputes, hotlisting, recent transactions, etc., the bank said in a press release.
182
UN revises India’s 2024 GDP growth upwards to 6.9% from 6.2% projected in Jan
The United Nations has revised India’s growth projections for 2024, and has projected the economy to expand by close
to 7 per cent this year. The agency’s World Economic Situation and Prospects (WESP) report as of mid-2024, released
on Thursday, stated that India’s economy is forecast to expand by 6.9 per cent in 2024 and 6.6 per cent in 2025.
Mahindra & Mahindra to invest ₹26,000 crore in automotive business in next 3years
Expecting a surge in auto demand, Mahindra & Mahindra Ltd has announced plans to invest ₹26,000 crore in its
automotive business over the next three years. Of this, ₹12000 crore will be invested in the electric vehicle unit
Mahindra Electric Automobile Limited (MEAL).
The investment will be made between FY25 and FY27 for developing new vehicles and building up capacity. M&M’s
SUV business will get ₹8,500 crore investments, while commercial vehicles will get ₹4,000 crores. The company will
also invest ₹5,000 crore in its farm equipment business.
IFC lends $500 million HDFC Bank for financing micro loan to women
The International Finance Corporation (IFC) has provided $ 500 million loan to HDFC Bank to provide loans to the
women microfinance borrowers.
India’s largest private sector bank will use the loan amount to provide loans to the women's self-help group (SHG) and
the joint liability group (JLG) that is engaged in a sustainable livelihood initiative (income generation).
Fusion Micro Finance gets $25 million loan from US International DFC
Source: The Hindu Business line
Fusion Micro Finance has entered into a loan agreement with the United States International Development Finance
Corporation (DFC) for an overall facility of $25 million,
The microfinancier has received an initial disbursement of $20 million as external commercial borrowing (ECB),
which will be used for the expansion of business operations with the aim of advancing financial inclusion and
economic access among rural women entrepreneurs.
Yes Bank launches premium services under ‘Yes Grandeur’ for affluent, elite customers
Source: The Hindu
Private lender, YES Bank has introduced YES Grandeur, an exclusive banking program designed to cater to the
financial and lifestyle needs of the fast-growing segment. The launch marks an important step in the bank's strategy
to embrace the evolving market dynamics driven by rising incomes and sophisticated consumer habits.
YES Grandeur targets this evolving demographic with a threshold requirement of either an Average Monthly Balance
(AMB) of Rs 5 Lakh or a Net Relationship Value (NRV) of Rs 20 Lakh, including considerations for loan relationships.
183
The program promises a blend of financial benefits and lifestyle privileges tailored to meet the discerning tastes of its
clients.
SBI acquires 6.125% stake in CCIL IFSC, strengthens presence in GIFT City
State Bank of India (SBI) has executed transaction documents to acquire a 6.125 per cent stake in CCIL IFSC Limited
for ₹6.125 crore. CCIL IFSC, which will be incorporated with an authorized and paid-up capital of ₹200 crore and ₹100
crore, respectively, will operate the foreign currency settlement system and act as a clearing house and system
operator at the International Financial Services Centre (IFSC) within the Gujarat International Finance Tec City (GIFT
City).
184
MADHYA PRADESH
Offline Upcoming Batches (June 2024)
BHOPAL
JABALPUR
GWALIOR
Bhopal Centre: 127, 2nd and 3rd Floor, Zone II, MP Nagar, Bhopal 910 910 8421
Jabalpur Center: 2nd Floor, above Indian Bank, MR4 Road Vijaynagar 910 910 8170
Indore Center: 3rd Floor, Gravity Tower, Janjeerwala Square, Opp. Agarawal Stores, Indore 910 910 8434
Gwalior Center: Building No. 15/16, 2nd Floor, Bansi Plaza, Patel Nagar, City Centre 788 010 2021
RAJASTHAN
Offline Upcoming Batches (June 2024)
JAIPUR(BAPU NAGAR)
Jaipur - Bapu Nagar: S-17 Mangal Marg, Bapu Nagar 910 910 8430
Jaipur - Vaishali Nagar: Office no. 1 and 2, 1st Floor, Vaibhav Complex, Vaishali Nagar 910 910 8430
Jaipur - JLN Marg: Unit No. D, 1st Floor of Nawal Tower A-1, JLN Marg 910 910 8430
MAHARASTRA
Offline Upcoming Batches (June 2024)
NAVI MUMBAI
NAGPUR
Navi Mumbai Center: 701, The Affaires Sector 17, Sanpada, Off Palm Beach Marg 900 498 0841
Nagpur Center: Plot No. 68, 2nd Floor, Kate's Galaxy, Hill Road, Ram Nagar 910 910 8171
UTTAR PRADESH
Offline Upcoming Batches (June 2024)
LUCKNOW (ALIGANJ)
LUCKNOW (HAZRATGANJ)
Lucknow Center: B1/18, Sector-H, Near Mahalaxmi Sweets, Puraniya Chauraha, Aliganj, Lucknow 903 905 4728
Lucknow - Hazratganj: 4th floor, Shagun Palace, Above Starbucks, Sapru Marg 910 910 8172
Prayagraj Center: 56A/1A/1, Lal Bahadur Shastri Marg, Civil lines, Prayagyaj 951 117 1754
CHATTISGARH
Offline Upcoming Batches (June 2024)
BHILAI
Bhilai Center: Shop No. 162, Near Miraj Cinemas, New Civic Centre 700 095 4770
PUNJAB
Offline Upcoming Batches (June 2024)
CHANDIGARH SEC36D
Chandigarh Center: SCO-6-7, Sec-8C above vanity, 2nd floor, Chandigarh 814 601 4766
JHARKHAND
Offline Upcoming Batches (June 2024)
RANCHI
Ranchi Center: Arcade Complex, 1st Floor, Circular Road, Lalpur 910 267 3728
BIHAR
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PATNA
Patna Center: 3rd Floor, Govind Bhawan, Road, Dak Bunglow, Fraser Road Area, Patna 764 501 9145
WEST BENGAL
Offline Upcoming Batches (June 2024)
KOLKATA
Kolkata Center: Toprankers 7B,1st floor Middleton street, Kolkata 764 501 9145
LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES
MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 2024-25
CLAT MOCK
TR ID.
(In Figures)
INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
Duration of Test : 2 Hours (120 Minutes) Maximum Marks : 120
1. Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader (OMR) 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN only for
Response Sheet is supplied along with this writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
Questions Booklet and the carbon copy has to be response Sheet.
detached and taken by the candidates. 11. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN for shading
2. In case of any discrepancy in the question booklet the circles. Indicate only the most appropriate
(QB), please request the invigilator for answer by shading from the options provided. The
replacement of a fresh packet of QB with OMR. Do answer circle should be shaded completely
not use the previous OMR response Sheet for a without leaving any space.
fresh booklet so obtained. 12. As the responses cannot be modified/corrected on
3. Candidates will not be given a second blank OMR the OMR Response Sheet, candidates have to take
response Sheet under any circumstance. Hence, necessary precautions before marking the
OMR response Sheet shall be handled carefully. appropriate circle.
4. Answer all questions. No clarification can be 13. The candidate should retain the Admit Card duly
sought on the Questions Paper Signed by the invigilator, as the same has to be
5. Possession of electronic devices in any form is produced at the time of Admission.
strictly prohibited in the examination Hall. 14. Handle the OMR response Sheet with care. Do not
6. The use of any unfair means by any candidate shall fold.
result in the cancellation of his/her examination. 15. Ensure that invigilator puts his/her signature in
7. Impersonation is an offense and the candidate, the space provided on the OMR response Sheet.
apart from disqualification, will be liable to be Candidate should sign in the space provided on the
prosecuted. OMR response Sheet.
8. The test Paper for Five Year integrated Law 16. The candidate should write Question Paper
Programme is for 120 marks containing 120 booklet No., and OMR response Sheet No., and sign
multiple Choice Questions. in the space/column provided in the attendance
9. There will be Negative marking for multiple choice sheet.
objective type questions. 0.25 marks will be 17. Return the Original Page of OMR response Sheet to
deducted for every wrong answer or where the invigilator after the examination.
candidates have marked more than one response. 18. The candidate shall not write anything on the OMR
response Sheet other than the details required and
in the spaces provided for
185
SECTION -A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
Passage (Q.1-Q.6): The recent 2011 provincial census figures for Rajasthan show an alarming drop in sex ratio in
the 0-6 age group from 909 in 2001 to 883 in 2011. A decline of 26 points is indicative of a clear bias against the girl
child in a cultural milieu mediated by a range of factors- a feudal history, stringent patriarchy, rigid gender norms
and deep-rooted disadvantages which pervade all spheres of domestic and social life. The state has also witnessed
considerable action from civil society beginning with media exposure to the more recent scaled-up action against
the unscrupulous ultrasound clinics. However, the insidious trend has not been reversed and unless strong action
is taken, will lead to disastrous consequences.
For the past decade, several networks, coalitions and individual NGOs active in the field have been addressing the
issue of declining sex ratio and female foeticide along with ensuring that the PCPNDT Act is implemented in all its
seriousness. They have focused on campaigns, community-based programmes and initiatives involving religious
and caste leaders. Decoy operations carried out in various districts by NGOs have succeeded in identifying
unscrupulous doctors. However, no action has been taken against them and district-level authorities continue to
shield those involved in this malpractice. Under the larger rubric of addressing issues of violence against women
and girls, some groups have also tried to identify and create awareness on the various types of violence and
discrimination women and girls in the state face throughout the life cycle.
The declining sex ratio is seen as a symptom of the discrimination meted out to women. Several risk factors have
come to the fore as a result of the campaign on the implementation of the PCPNDT Act launched in the last few years.
These risk factors must be recognised and mitigated because they could compromise some of the gains of the
women’s rights movements. On its part, the state has for long claimed promotion of women’s empowerment
beginning with the Women’s Development Project (WDP) in 1984. However, the systematic dismantling of the WDP
which had a network of change agents at the grassroots level is indicative of the lackadaisical approach of the state
towards issues of women’s equality and dignity. The sathins (grass-roots workers, literally “companions”) could
have played a proactive role in creating an environment for empowering the girl child and acted as catalysts for
monitoring the implementation of the act at the district level provided their activities had not been curtailed. Today
no alternative programme exists that addresses women’s empowerment and issues of violence against them. The
lack of coordination between different line departments working on women and child-related issues also add to the
woes. Despite the rhetoric, an obvious lack of political will to save the girl child shows that the development graph
of the state is on the brink of disaster.
1. What are the reasons at the root of the women’s 3. Which of the following governance issue can be
discrimination? seen as the most prominent obstacle to women’s
A. Feudal lords rights?
B. Patriarchal culture (a) Lack of political will to save the girl child.
C. Fixed gender rules (b) Lack of coordination between different
D. Discord in domestic and social life. departments.
(a) A and B (b) B and C (c) No alternative programme to sathins to
(c) A, B, C only (d) All of these address women’s empowerment.
(d) The systematic dismantling of the WDP.
2. Which of the following does not reflect violence
against women in the passage? 4. If a paragraph is added in the passage, what shall it
(a) Declining sex ratio and female foeticide. discuss?
(b) Various types of discrimination against (a) Discussion on how the PCPNDT Act,1994 can
women and girls. be made more effective.
(c) Identification of unscrupulous doctors. (b) Discussion on another institutional
(d) Women’s equality and dignity mechanism that is currently defunct.
(c) Discussion on strategies to work toward the
promotion of women’s empowerment.
(d) Discussion on strategies to ensure that the girl
child is protected forever.
186
5. Which of the following word can replace 6. Which figure of speech is demonstrated by the
‘lackadaisical’ in the passage? phrase "the development graph of the state is on
(a) Fastidious (b) Laidback the brink of disaster"?
(c) Interfering (d) Insipid (a) Simile (b) Metaphor
(c) Personification (d) Hyperbole
Passage(Q.7-Q.12): It is the central contention of Rawls that the principles of justice essential to the structure of
constitutional democracy must be characterized as political in contrast to more comprehensive moral, philosophical
and religious doctrines on which agreement is not possible within the pluralism of modernity and that the concept
of justice is not its being true to an antecedent moral order, but its congruency with our self-understanding within
history and traditions embedded in our public life. But Rawls emphasizes that the concept of justice as political is
not a mere modus vivendi, for it embodies an overlapping consensus by specifying the fair terms of cooperation
between citizens that are regarded as free and equal. This consensus encompasses the concept of primary goods:
basic rights and liberties, powers and prerogatives of office; income and wealth; the basis of self-respect. It also
encompasses the "difference principle": in which economic inequalities are allowed so long as this improves
everyone's situation including that of the least advantaged. The overlapping consensus, Rawls further specifies, is
not a consensus simply in accepting a certain authority, or simply as compliance with certain institutional
arrangements. "For all those who affirm the political conception start from within their own comprehensive view
and draw on the religious, philosophical and moral grounds it provides."
Critical reaction to Rawls' approach to defining the concept of justice as fairness has centred upon alleged
incoherency or problem in his contention that principles of justice must be seen as political in opposition to a more
comprehensive view of the good, while yet also believing that justice as political does have a moral basis. In the view
of Patrick Neal, Rawls' theory of justice involves an unresolved tension between political and metaphysical
implications. Rawls, on the one hand, speaks of justice as fairness as a political concept independent of controversial
philosophical, moral and religious doctrines, and arising from an interpretive understanding within the traditions
of constitutional democracy. Yet Rawls believes, at the same time, that justice as fairness is not to be interpreted as
a Hobbesian modus vivendi; it has a moral component, serving as a political agreement between citizens viewed as
free and equal persons, an "overlapping consensus" which more comprehensive philosophical, moral and religious
doctrine can accept in their own way.
7. Which of the following makes Rawls distinct from 9. What is the meaning of ‘Modus Vivendi’?
his critics? (a) A way of living.
(a) Rawls believes that justice is merely political, (b) A special way to do things without
while his critics believe that it has a moral disagreements.
basis. (c) The method of doing things in moral ways.
(b) Rawls believes that justice can have both a (d) The modern way of doing things.
political and moral basis, which is
contradictory and problematic according to 10. What is the writing style of the author in the
his critics. passage?
(c) Rawls claims that his theory of justice is (a) Lucid and simple.
original, while critics point out that it is (b) Circumlocutory and misleading.
essentially Hobbesian. (c) Loosely structured.
(d) Rawls’s theory of justice wavers between the (d) Professionally Esoteric.
political and metaphysical and is ambiguous.
11. Which of the following best describes the
8. What can be inferred about the Hobbesian theory organisation of the passage?
of justice? (a) A hypothesis is presented and explained by the
(a) It was not a mere modus vivendi. author.
(b) It was very similar to Rawls’ theory. (b) A widely accepted belief of an individual is
(c) It had a moral component. described, and implications are suggested.
(c) Controversial views of an individual are
(d) It did not have a moral component.
propagated with valid arguments and
criticisms.
(d) An observation was made and explained in
detail with the use of illustrations.
187
12. Which of the following is the antonym of (a) Alignment (b) Discrepancy
“congruency”? (c) Agreement (d) Harmony
Passage (Q.13-Q.18): Global history has taken a boost from the current conflicts, protests and riots against
corporate globalization, and the threat of worldwide terrorism against the West. These events fit into a global
pattern of the rise and fall of societies that can be traced back to ancient times. True of all the ancient empires we
know, the cycle of rising and decline appears to be accelerating. The twentieth century saw the collapse of seven
great empires – Mandarin China, Germany, Austria-Hungary, Ottoman Turkey, Japan, the British empire, and twice
over in the case of Tsarist and Soviet Russia. Since the events of September 11th, 2001, the twenty-first century
seems likely to threaten the sole remaining superpower, the United States, with nemesis. The key to the formation,
survival and decline of all historical societies is their use of surplus income and resources. Without the extraction,
by an elite, of products surplus to immediate requirements – in the form of food, arms, luxuries and other goods and
services produced by farmers, craftsmen, traders and servants – no society, beyond the most primitive, would be
able to afford the protection, law and order, administration, defence, spiritual advice, personal services, cultural
production and so on essential to its existence. This is so obvious that it scarcely needs expressing, yet we know
little about the way it arose out of the chaos of pre-civilized experience. The rise is shaded in pre-history since the
formation of a society cannot be known until it has acquired the tools – written language or a reliable oral tradition
– to express it.
The few traditional sources that look back to the time of state formation are mostly so tainted by the accumulated
myth that they confuse more than they inform. In the eighth century bc, Homer looked back some five hundred
years: but even in that epoch, kings of small island and city communities already existed, and the process was
substantially complete. Priam's Troy was already a rich state worth plundering, with gold as well as plentiful food,
equipment and weapons. Though the Greeks who attacked it were thugs and pirates, they too were 'civilised' in the
sense of being resourced by a home population that could provide them with the means of subsistence and warfare.
13. As per the passage, what is the most important (a) Extraction (b) Subsistence
lesson for societies’ survival? (c) Plundering (d) Remaining
(a) Optimal use of Income and Resources
(b) Constructive use of Excess income and 17. ‘Which of the following will be the most suitable
resources follow-up to the last lines of the passage?
(c) Global Rise and fall (a) The origins of other civilised societies are so
(d) Free from terrorism and conflicts embedded in myths and miracles that it is
almost impossible to guess at the underlying
14. What is common for all societies? reality.
(a) Terrorism (b) The Hebrew Testament, which was compiled
(b) Surplus of Income and Resources over a period of more than a thousand years,
(c) Rise and fall cycle tells the story of the formation of the Jewish
(d) Conflicts nation from Semitic desert tribes united by the
myth that they were descended from a
15. The author would most likely disagree with - common ancestor with a personal relation to
(a) Rise and fall are imminent for all societies. God.
(b) Language and writing knowledge are the tools (c) Once the system is inaugurated and surplus
through which we can know the history of the income flows freely; however, those who
formation of a society. control the flow ensure that they absorb
(c) The few traditional sources that look back to benefits from the other two faces.
the time of state formation provide warped (d) It also shows how the various groups who
knowledge. extract surplus from the producers can
(d) The United States is on the brink of extinction compete between themselves.
like other societies after the events of 11th
September. 18. Which amongst the following best describes the
meaning of the word “nemesis”?
16. Which of the following word from the passage is a (a) Ally (b) Benefactor
synonym of ‘marauding’, as used in the passage? (c) Downfall (d) Success
188
Passage (Q.7-Q.11): Surveys frequently point to the enormous heterogeneity in individual attitudes towards free
trade policies. While a majority of relatively rich and educated individuals seem to favour lowering barriers to trade,
up to 80% of the poor do not feel helped by globalisation and consistently oppose free trade policies. What is the
reason for this large gap between the poor and the rich in terms of their views on the potential benefits of
international trade? Conventional wisdom suggests that the reason for this disparity is broadly related to the
Stolper–Samuelson‐type effects when people with different skills, abilities or employment statuses experience
heterogeneous effects of trade on their earnings. I argue, however, that even in the absence of asymmetric wage
effects, the welfare gains from trade are highly heterogeneous across consumers due to consumer‐specific price
effects. For instance, in 2006 in the US, 32% of consumers believed that free trade agreements would lead to a
decrease in domestic prices, while 30% believed they would increase them and 23% expected no significant change.
This large degree of heterogeneity of opinions suggests that people consume different bundles of goods and that the
price effects of trade liberalisation may be asymmetric across those bundles. I develop a general equilibrium model
of trade that gets to grip with these two features by combining consumer heterogeneity, non‐homotheticity of
preferences and sector‐specific trade elasticity parameters. In the model, consumers are heterogeneous in two
ways. First, they differ in terms of their labour endowment, which can be interpreted as heterogeneity in capital,
abilities and/or skills endowment. Second, consumers are heterogeneous in their marginal propensity to consume
necessities versus luxuries. I argue that the conventional assumption of a representative consumer (ARC)
completely ignores these issues which leads to significant quantitative and qualitative deviations of the welfare
gains calculated under ARC from consumer‐specific gains. This result offers potentially important policy
implications since many studies targeting policy makers and trade negotiators are based on ARC and homothetic
preferences. For example, a recent independent study carried out for the European Commission that calculated
potential welfare gains from the Transatlantic Trade and Investment Partnership is based on ARC and
homotheticity.
I calibrate the model to data from 92 countries and structurally estimate the model’s parameters. The calibrated
model suggests that:
(i) there is a larger heterogeneity in technologies in the manufacturing sector relative to the agricultural sector;
(ii) rich consumers spend a larger share of their total income on manufacturing goods and services; and that
(iii) the rich have a relatively higher propensity to consume manufacturing goods and services.
These insights imply that an equal reduction in trade costs for both manufacturing and agricultural goods would
offer relatively higher welfare gains to the rich. I use the model to conduct two counterfactual trade liberalisation
experiments and demonstrate that the welfare gains from trade differ significantly both qualitatively and
quantitatively across individuals.
19. Which of the following is not supported by the (a) A Heterogeneous Individual Attitudes To Free
passage? Trade Policies
(a) There is a large gap between the poor and the (b) A Homogenous Collective Response To Free
rich in terms of their views on the potential Trade Policies
benefits from international trade. (c) Globalisation and the Free Trade Policies.
(b) People with different skills, abilities or (d) Asymmetric Liberalisation.
employment statuses experience
heterogeneous effects of trade on their 21. This large degree of heterogeneity of opinions
earnings. suggests that people consume different bundles of
(c) Even in the absence of asymmetric wage goods and that the price effects of trade
effects, the welfare gains from trade are liberalisation may be asymmetric across those
highly heterogeneous across consumers due bundles.’ Which of the following options reflects
to consumer‐specific price effects. the correct parts of speech for the highlighted
(d) In 2006 in the US, 23% of consumers believed words?
that free trade agreements would lead to a (a) Noun, verb, adjective
decrease in domestic prices. (b) Noun, noun, adjective
(c) Verb, verb, adverb
20. Which of the following is a suitable title for the (d) Adjective, verb, adverb
passage?
189
22. Which of the following is the synonym for the word 24. Based on the passage above, choose the word that
heterogeneity? is closest in meaning to "non-homotheticity."
(a) Equivalence (b) Medley (a) Conformity (b) Variability
(c) Standardized (d) Luminous (c) Regularity (d) Simplicity
190
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
25. What is the name of the conference in which United 28. As per the report the world will get warm by at
Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) which is least 3°Celsius by the year:
responsible for the release of Emissions Gap (a) 2040 (b) 2070
Report was formed? (c) 2060 (d) 2100
(a) Stockholm Conference
(b) Paris Conference 29. Which country has passed the Inflation Reduction
(c) New York Conference Act that aims to fight inflation and in turn reduce
(d) Beijing Conference the country’s carbon emissions?
(a) United States (b) European Union
26. According to the report, "emission" refers to the (c) Russia (d) Germany
difference between the expected and actual
locations of greenhouse gas emissions in (x) in 30. Consider the following statements:
order to keep global warming well below 2°C or I. The United Nations Environment Programme
1.5°C. Replace (x) with appropriate option: (UNEP) is the leading global authority on the
(a) 2032 (b) 2028 environment.
(c) 2030 (d) 2050 II. UNEP’s mission is to inspire, inform, and
enable nations and peoples to improve their
27. Which of the following country is not considered as quality of life without compromising that of
one of the three largest emitters of carbon dioxide? future generations.
(a) China (a) Only I is correct.
(b) India (b) Only II is correct.
(c) United States (c) Both I & II are correct.
(d) Russia (d) Both I & II are incorrect.
191
furnish details of the donors and recipients of electoral bonds to the Election Commission of India (ECI). The ECI
was directed to upload this to their website by March 15. There are three important questions regarding the impact
of the Supreme Court’s seminal judgement, which warrant consideration.
In its judgement, the Supreme Court directed the disclosure of two sets of information since April 12, 2019: details
of electoral bonds purchased, including “the date of purchase of each Electoral Bond, the name of the purchaser of
the bond and the denomination of the Electoral Bond purchased”; and details of bonds redeemed by political parties,
including the date of encashment and the denomination of the electoral bonds. While hearing the SBI’s plea for an
extension of the time frame to provide the information, the court clarified that it had never asked for information
on purchasers and recipients to be decoded and matched.
Source:https://thewire.in
31. The Supreme Court, strike down the Electoral 34. After striking down of the Electoral Bond Scheme
Bond Scheme (EBS), stating that it the violation of: (EBS) by SC, the political parties now need to
(a) Article 23 (b) Article 12 disclose contributions of more than:
(c) Article 19 (1) (a) (d) Article 25 (a) Rs 20,000 (b) Rs 10,000
(c) Rs 70,000 (d) Rs 100,000
32. Which of the following act was not amended to
enact the Electoral Bond Scheme? 35. On which day National Voters Day is celebrated?
(a) The Finance Act, 2017 (a) 26th February (b) 9th April
(b) The Representation of the People Act, 1951 (c) 11th May (d) 25th January
(c) The Income Tax Act, 1961
(d) The Prevention of Corruption Act, 1988 36. After India attained independence in 1947, the
Constitution of India came into being on 26
33. In which year the Electoral Bond Scheme (EBS) January 1950. The Supreme Court of India also
was introduced? came into existence and its first sitting was held
(a) 2015 (b) 2018 on_______.
(c) 2014 (d) 2022 (a) 20 May 1951 (b) 25 June 1952
(c) 28 December 1951 (d) 28 January 1950
"TEPA is a modern and ambitious Trade Agreement. For the first time, India is signing FTA with four developed
nations - an important economic bloc in Europe. For the first time in history of FTAs, binding commitment of $100
bn investment and 1 million direct jobs in the next 15 years has been given. The agreement will give a boost to Make
in India and provide opportunities to young & talented workforce. The FTA will provide a window to Indian
exporters to access large European and global markets."
The agreement comprises of 14 chapters with main focus on market access related to goods, rules of origin, trade
facilitation, trade remedies, sanitary and phytosanitary measures, technical barriers to trade, investment
promotion, market access on services, intellectual property rights, trade and sustainable development and other
legal and horizontal provisions.
Source: https://www.businesstoday.in
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37. India have signed Trade and Economic Partnership 41. The Trade and Economic Partnership Agreement
Agreement with EFTA. Which of the following non- (TEPA) marks the second such full-fledged Free
European country is not a part of European Free Trade Agreement. With which country, India
Trade Association (EFTA)? singed the first full-fledged Free Trade Agreement?
(a) Iceland (b) Liechtenstein (a) United Arab Emirates
(c) Norway (d) Sweden (b) United Kingdom
(c) United States of America
38. In which year European Free Trade Association (d) Russia
(EFTA) was established?
(a) 1967 (b) 1960 42. Consider the following statements about EFTA:
(c) 1961 (d) 1969 I. The European Free Trade Association (EFTA)
is the intergovernmental organisation of
39. Which country is the India’s largest trading Iceland, Liechtenstein, Russia and Netherland.
partner in European Free Trade Association II. It was set up in 1969 by its then five Member
(EFTA)? States for the promotion of free trade and
(a) Netherland (b) Switzerland economic integration between its members.
(c) Norway (d) Iceland (a) Only I is correct.
(b) Only II is correct.
40. In the upcoming [x] years, EFTA has pledged to (c) Both I & II are correct.
encourage investments to raise the stock of foreign (d) Both I & II are incorrect.
direct investments in India by USD 100 billion.
Replace [x] with appropriate option:
(a) 5 years (b) 4 years
(c) 15 years (d) 17 years
43. Choose the correct statement: 44. Choose the correct statement:
Statement 1: Anticyclones are areas of high Statement 1: UAE lies in the arid regions of the
atmospheric pressure. world, so such heavy rainfalls are unusual there.
Statement 2: Winds in anticyclones move downward Statement 2: On average, Dubai experiences 109.7
and compress, causing heating. They often lead to mm of rain in a year. But this event was historic as it
large-scale heat waves. brought more than 124 mm of rainfall that had
(a) Only 1 (b) Only 2 soaked Dubai over 24 hours.
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) Neither 1 nor 2 (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
(c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
193
45. _________ is a process in which chemicals such as 47. Global warming has led to higher temperatures
silver iodide crystals are implanted into clouds to causing evaporation of water not only from land but
increase rainfall in an environment where water also oceans and other water bodies, causing a
scarcity is a concern. warmer atmosphere to hold more moisture. For
(a) Cloud Seeding every 1-degree Celsius rise in average temperature,
(b) Thunderstorm the atmosphere can hold about _______.
(c) Hydroscopic Formation (a) 7% more moisture.
(d) Dynamic Cloud Storm (b) 7% less moisture.
(c) 11% more moisture.
46. Thunderstorms also known as an electrical storm or (d) 11% less moisture.
a lightning storm is formed in which of the following
stages? 48. Who is the current President of the United Arab
(a) Cumulus stage Emirates?
(b) Mature Stage (a) Khurshid Mahmud Kasuri
(c) Dissipating Stage (b) Muhammad bin Abdul Karim
(d) All the given options are correct (c) Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan
(d) Sheikh Tamim bin Hamad Al Thani
49. Which institution was established under 1944 (a) 44 nations (b) 54 nations
Bretton Woods Conference? (c) 64 nations (d) 24 nations
(a) International Monetary Fund
(b) World Bank 51. Choose the correct statement:
(c) World Trade Organisation Statement 1: The topmost decision-making body of
(d) Both A and B the WTO is the Ministerial Conference.
Statement 2: It usually meets every three years
50. The Bretton Woods Conference, officially known as (a) Only 1 (b) Only 2
the United Nations Monetary and Financial (c) Both 1 and 2 (d) None of these
Conference, was a gathering of delegates from
________ that met from July 1 to 22, 1944 in Bretton 52. Who is the current President of World Bank?
Woods, New Hampshire, to agree upon a series of (a) Ajay Banga (b) Vinay mittal
new rules for the post-WWII international (c) Sukesh Mishra (d) Eugene Meyer
monetary system.
194
SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q.53-Q.85): Read the comprehensions carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.53-Q.57): Section 80 of IPC exempts a person from criminal liability if, the act must have been done
without any criminal intention or knowledge; the act alleged to have been done against the accused must be lawful;
the act must have been done in a lawful manner by lawful means and with proper care and caution. To bring an act
within the meaning of the term accident used in section 80, an essential requirement is that the happening of the
incident cannot be attributed to human fault. It is something happens out of ordinary course of things. The word
misfortune means the same thing as accident plus that it was as unwelcome as it was unexpected. It was only an
accident with attendant evil consequences. Both these words “accident” and “misfortune” are used in the sense of
implying the injury to another. In order to invoke this section it must be proved that the act is done without any
“criminal intent or knowledge”. It is mandatory to prove that the act is done without mensrea or guilty mind. Thus
injuries caused due to accidents in sports and games are covered this section. In Tunda v. Rex13, two friends fond
of wrestling participated in a wrestling match and one of them suffered injury which resulted in death of the other.
The other person was charged under s 304 A IPC. The High Court held that when both agreed to wrestle with each
other, there was an implied consent on the part of each to suffer accidental injuries. In the absence of any proof of
foul play, it was held that the act was accidental and unintentional.
53. Kushal lay in his bed remembering an incident 54. Kushal lay in his bed remembering an incident
which had occurred in his past. He narrated to which had occurred in his past. He narrated to
Nanda about howhe had killed a young man named Nanda about how, by accident, he had killed a
Shravana, mistaking him to be a deer. Kushal, who young man named Shravana, mistaking him to be a
was then a crown prince, had gone hunting on the deer. Kushal, who was then a crown prince, had
banks of River Saryu. He was an expert in hunting gone hunting on the banks of River Saryu. He was
by determining the direction of sound and heard an expert in hunting by determining the direction
the gurgle of an animal drinking water. Kushal shot of sound and heard the gurgle of a person drinking
an arrow at the bushes. He became mortified when water. In hope that it’ll turn out to be a deer, Kushal
he heard a human cry as the arrow found its target. shot an arrow. He became mortified when he heard
Kushal hurried there to find a boy lying sprawled a human cry as the arrow found its target. Kushal
on the banks of the river with an arrow lodged in hurried there to find a boy lying sprawled on the
his chest. Can this illustration be termed as an act banks of the river with an arrow lodged in his
of accident by Kushal to claim an exemption from chest. Decide the liability of Kushal in the present
his liability of killing Shravana? case.
(a) It was an innocent act with no mensrea on the (a) The act is to be considered as an accident as
end of Kushal that killed Shravana. Thus, clearly Kushal had no intention to kill
Kushal can claim this to be an act of accident Shravana.
under section 80 of IPC. (b) The act cannot be claimed by Kushal to be an
(b) Kushal, even though lacking mensrea to kill accident as the alleged act had been done with
Shravana, had an intention to kill. Thus, this knowledge.
cannot be termed as an act of accident and (c) Kushal will be held liable as though he did not
therefore Kushal cannot get exempted from have any mens rea to kill Sharavan but had
the liability. mensrea for hunting a wild animal.
(c) Kushal is innocent as he had no mensrea and (d) Cannot be determined as the facts lack
had done the act without any criminal sufficient information to reach a conclusion.
intention or knowledge.
(d) Kushal is not liable as the act alleged to have 55. The accused, Mahi went with a view to killing
been done against the accused must be lawful Hyena and heard a sound from a direction and
and have been done in a lawful manner by fired a shot at its direction. But later it was
lawful means and with proper care and discovered that it was a person, not Hyena. He
caution. pleaded that it was raining and he had a bona fide
impression that it was Hyena and fired the shot
with a view to protecting people around him from
being attacked by it. Choose the correct answer
195
with respect to the facts and the information given (b) Since the accused was hitting his wife and
in the passage. accidentally hit his own mother, he will be
(a) This case is based on the principle that an act entitled to the benefits of Section 80 of the IPC.
done by an accident, will come under Section (c) Even if the accuser's act was unintentional, it
80 of Indian Penal Code. was not a lawful act done in a lawful manner
(b) The accused will be entitled to the benefits and via lawful means. Hence section 80 will be
mentioned under Section 80 of Indian Penal applicable.
Code as besides other facts, there was no (d) Since the accused acted deliberately and
expectation of any other person being present without due care and caution, Section 80 of the
in that area in which the death happened IPC would not apply. As a result, the accused
(c) The accused will not be held liable as the act will be held liable.
was accident and not intentional. And thus,
Mahi can claim an exception under section 80 57. Dhanur and Chanda were officers posted to a
of IPC. militant area, which was a frequent target of
(d) The accused will be held liable and cannot terrorist attacks. Chanda spotted Dhanur
claim defense under section 80 of IPC as his exchanging money with one of the detainees while
actions were not accidental and unintentional. on duty, and allowing him to escape the prison. She
immediately confronted him and demanded an
56. During a disagreement between a husband and his explanation. On Dhanur's refusal, Chanda leveled
wife, the mother of the husband intervenes and is her gun at him and fired a shot without thinking
punched by her own son. The mother claimed that twice. Chanda believes that she is exempt from the
the son knew she was an elderly lady who could be act because it was an accident given the
wounded while halting the brawl, yet he still circumstances. Decide.
continued. The court denied the old lady's (a) The accused demonstrates a complete lack of
application, stating that it was clearly an accident care and caution, and hence she cannot claim
and that the son can claim exemption under any benefits under Section 80 of the IPC.
Section 80 of the IPC. Is the court's ruling correct? (b) The accused was on duty and the act in
Choose the correct statement: question is covered by Section 80.
(a) This case is based on the idea that an act that is (c) The accused cannot claim that this was an
not lawful if done in a lawful manner through accident because she was well aware of the
lawful means is not punishable under Section repercussions of her unlawful act.
80 of the Indian Penal Code. (d) The accused may claim that this was an
accident since Dhanur was fleeing and the only
lawful way to stop him was to fire a shot.
Passage (Q.58-Q.62): Zubair was slapped with Section 153A for “promoting enmity” between different groups on
religious grounds. Soon after, multiple first information reports, or FIRs, were filed against Zubair in Uttar Pradesh
based on allegations over his past tweets. Notwithstanding the wide usage of these words in the public discourse,
there exist no definitions of blasphemy or hate speech in India’s legal statutes. Typically, the aforementioned
provisions of the Indian Penal Code are used to prosecute actions that could fall within the realm of blasphemy or
hate speech, and over the years, the Supreme Court has cautiously sought to maintain the tricky balance of
criminalising speech while preserving the sanctity of the fundamental right of freedom of expression. Pertinently,
the Supreme Court has noted that the objective of Section 295A (Deliberate and malicious acts, intended to outrage
religious feelings of any class by insulting its religion or religious beliefs) is to “curb speech made with ‘malicious
intent’ and not ‘offensive speech’”. In other words, speech – or movie scenes, for that matter – may well be offensive
but in the absence of a deliberate or malicious intent to outrage religious feelings, criminal action cannot follow.This
is a crucial distinction and while granting bail to Zubair on July 15, the Delhi court noted the existence of malice as
the sine qua non – or an essential component – to establish criminality. The Delhi court also noted that the
movie Kissi Se Na Kehna had been cleared by the Central Board for Film Certification without any complaint being
raised. When deliberating on the applicability of Section 153A, the Supreme Court has in the past observed that “the
effect of the words must be judged from the standards of reasonable, strong-minded, firm and courageous men, and
not those of weak and vacillating minds, nor of those who scent danger in every hostile point of view”.
196
58. Delhi University assistant professor Ratan Lal, was result, she will be charged with "hate speech and
arrested in May on charges of offending religious fostering animosity" between religious
sentiments and promoting enmity on grounds of communities.
faith. Lal had, through a sarcastic tweet, questioned (c) Josephine will be charged with "hate speech and
the authenticity of the discovery of a cylindrical fostering hostility" between religious groups
object made of stone — Similar to an object deemed since a reasonable person could have imagined
sacred by the members of religion "X", according to the possible impact of his/her words.
some members of religion "X"—discovered during a (d) Even if the statement were widely considered as
recent, inspection of a 100 year old haveli in blasphemous in character, Josephine will not be
Varanasi. Right-wing organizations claimed that his held accountable because she merely expressed
tweet hurt religious sensibilities and pitted one her opinion which lacked the intent to outrage
religious group against another. However, days after religious feelings.
his arrest, a Delhi judge granted him bail, citing the
tweet as a "failed attempt at satire." Is the bail 60. Veeli Kumar claimed to be a Vedic Scholar, Priest,
granted to the accused valid? Consider the reasons and Upadhivantha of the Shree Mahabaleshwar
given by the Delhi High Court. Temple in Gokarna. It was his custom to give a sweet
(a) The bail granted to the accused is valid since to every visitor to the temple. He recently began
such posts are protected under the Right to distributing CDs and cassettes to visitors that show
freedom of speech. how the temple has been preserved despite
(b) The bail granted to the accused is invalid as the numerous obstacles. The story on the CDs and Tapes
tweet was directed at a sacred object of religion mentions a community 'X,' which accounts for 25%
'X,' hurting the religious sentiments of one of Gokarna's entire population. It mentions that only
group. the community 'X' from all across the states did not
(c) The bail granted to the accused is valid because participate or were interested in the temple's
the tweet was posted as a satire and there was development, but the temple still persists today
no malicious intent on the part of the accused in thanks to the efforts of all the other communities.
the current case. Community 'X' filed a case against the priest for
(d) The bail granted to the accused based on his post spreading derogatory materials against the
being a failed attempt at satire is invalid because community 'X' to the public of Gokarna in order to
his tweet offended religious sensibilities and slander the community members and create a
pitted one religious community against another. breach of peace and harm to the religious sentiments
of the temple's devotees. Decide.
59. Josephine has always piqued the interest of the (a) The Court will rule that an offence under Section
media by delivering unvarnished remarks. This is 153-A of the IPC has been committed if the
why she was invited today to every news debate spoken or printed word promotes or incites
show where the channel could reveal to the public hostility between members of a religious group
the raw side of the politics performed by various or disturbs public tranquility.
politicians to persuade and play fraud with the (b) The community X has no case here because
people. During a heated television debate, Josephine, Section 153-A of the IPC can be invoked only if
made a remark that instead of feeding statues and the act resulted in the promotion of hostility
the middlemen one should feed the poor to gain between amongst a group on religious grounds.
blessings. Even though the comments were personal (c) Community X has no case here because in
opinion, they were widely perceived as absence of any evidence to the contrary malice
blasphemous in nature, attracting national ridicule, will always presumed to be absent.
prompting even those who had previously (d) The court will rule in favour of community X
supported Josephine and her right to free speech to since the priest's actions resulted in encouraging
come out against her and demand that she be enmity between two separate religions and
charged under Section 153A. Decide fosters enmity within the same religious group
(a) This is not a case of hate speech as Josephine had in general, disrupting public tranquilly.
no intent to be held liable for disseminating hate
speech or blasphemous speech.
(b) Josephine will be charged with disseminating
hate speech because the content of the speech
was directed at the deity of the X faith. As a
197
61. The complainant is journalist Munni, who is one of remarks are made, they will be subject to
the petitioners in the PIL seeking criminal law action sections 295A and 153A.
in connection with the anti-'X' religious hate
speeches delivered at the Dharam Sammelan in 62. Naveen junior is the director and producer of the
Jamnagar and Delhi in December. The other film "Desh" which depicted how Indians broke the
petitioner is Senior Advocate Prakash, a former bond of slavery, fought tooth and nail, and eventually
Patna High Court judge. While issuing notice in the won the battle of independence. The
petition on January 12, the Supreme Court film scene climax was shown with the Indian
authorised the petitioners to submit an appeal with shouting slogans like "Traitors shall be shot dead, if
the authorities against the likelihood of they don’t leave." A FIR was filed against the film's
inflammatory comments in the anticipated Dharm director, claiming that such dialogue is not only
Sammelans meetings going to be held at held in the objectionable but will have a negative impact on the
State of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and youngsters watching the video. Given any situation,
Uttarakhand. What possible reason could the it will only foster angry conduct among them.
Supreme Court have had for issuing such an order? Following that, the complainant launched a lawsuit
(a) Taking into account the prior occurrence and against the director of the film and The Central
protests following the Dharam Sammelan Board of Film Certification, questioning how they
incident in Delhi and Jamnagar, the Supreme could approve such content for screening while
Court believes that a similar episode could occur labeling it as a family film. The case is brought before
again if a similar event is scheduled. Thus, the your court for a final ruling. Decide
SC's order can be termed as precautionary (a) The court will hear the case since the film's
measure. content is both insulting and, to some extent,
(b) The court believes that even if there is slight promotes feelings of animosity amongst
possibility of an event that encourages individuals.
animosity between the two religious groups, it (b) The court will hear the case because, on the face,
should be avoided and thus passed injunctory it appears to be a case of purposeful offensive
orders. speech because the context of the discourse is
(c) According to the court, if similar meetings are offensive.
held in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal (c) The matter will not be considered in court
Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, and comparable because the movie was only permitted for
remarks are made, it will not only disrupt public screening after the Central Board of Film
order, but will also amount to various criminal Certification approved the scene.
offences. And hence allowed the petition. (d) The court will not consider the complaint since
(d) The court believes that if similar meetings are the plaintiff has no cause of action against the
hosted in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal respondents in this case.
Pradesh, and Uttarakhand, and comparable
Passage (Q.63-Q.67): Indian anti-doping rules mirror the WADA code and prescribe a framework of strict liability.
For this, the athlete first needs to establish how the prohibited substance entered his/her system. This burden is
justifiably onerous. In reality, it disables an athlete caught in inadvertent doping. Inadvertent doping is due to
contaminated or mislabeled supplements, misguided medical treatment and at worst, sabotage. Harmless food
supplements like proteins or vitamins used by athletes are often from unreliable sources like private shops or online
purchase. The National Anti-Doping Agency (NADA) of India has had life easy in this respect. Its argument often
hinges on a simple statement written in the WADA (World Anti-Doping Agency) Code itself. It is the definition of the
“strict liability” principle: “it is not necessary that intent, fault, negligence, or knowing use on the athlete’s part be
demonstrated by the Anti-Doping Organization in order to establish an anti-doping rule violation.”
Finally, there is an argument for restorative, rather than simply retributive justice. A framework must be created to
constructively counsel athletes to understand the real causes, degrees of fault and administrative lapses. Merely
subjecting them to an arduous legal process before NADA is not a long-term solution. We must recognize the socio-
cultural reality of our sportspersons. Quite a few are from semi-urban or rural backgrounds. To them, sports is the
only route to a better economic status. Literacy and language are serious impediments. They are subject to the
whims and dictates of administrators. Amidst such intense pressure, they compete and carry our nation’s hopes.
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But when they err, or are accused of doing so, we disclaim all responsibility. Sports federations, more famous for
politicking, must take this blame upfront.
Making doping a criminal offence, as was once proposed, is an untenable idea which would subject athletes to an
already crippled criminal justice system. A nation with a burgeoning young population cannot let inertia put it on a
murky sporting track.
63. The author states that “Finally there is an supplements he took, he is entitled to the
argument for restorative, rather than simply benefit of the doubt and will not be held liable
retributive justice”. Which of the following is the for inadvertent doping.
assumption behind the statement? (c) Bhullar will not be given the benefit of the
(a) Steps have been taken to reducing future harm doubt because he was unable to demonstrate
through crime prevention. how MHA entered his system satisfactorily.
(b) The athletes will take responsibility for their (d) Bhullar will face strict liability under the code.
actions and for the harm they have caused.
(c) The offenders will be punished as per the 66. Chang was charged with an infraction in May 2020.
crime committed. At the provisional hearing, he explained that the
(d) Criminal justice that focuses on rehabilitation positive result had come from a medicine
rather than punishment. prescribed by his family doctor. His doctor advised
the use of it on two occasions, first in December
64. What can be construed true about the strict 2018 and then for one month from 10 January
liability principle with respect to the athletes in the 2020. The sample was collected on 28 February
case of doping? 2020. Will Chang be able to avoid liability in this
(a) The strict liability principle is to pin the athlete case?
(a) No, according to the strict liability rule,
down on the contention that the athlete is
knowing use of the medicine is not a defense.
responsible for what is in his/her body.
(b) Yes, because the doctor prescribed the
(b) It does not, however, determine the severity of
medication and he did not voluntarily
the charge. administer such substance.
(c) Intent per se is not required to apply the rule (c) No, because he should have been wary of
of strict liability. consuming prohibited substances.
(d) The Anti-Doping Organization must (d) Yes, as an athlete, he can prove how the
demonstrate knowing use on the part of the prohibited substance entered his system.
athlete in order to establish an anti-doping
rule violation. 67. The case of Himanshu Kumar, who tested positive
at the National weightlifting championships in
65. Bhullar an athlete has recently been arrested by 2019, is curious mix of a wrong category of
NADA on grounds that he tested positive substances and a wrong clause in the rules being
methylhexaneamine (MHA), a prohibited applied by the disciplinary panel. The appeal panel
substance. The substance has been injected in the tries to argue that the route through which the
body cells to stops the cancer from accessing the substance has taken has to be established in all
hormones they need to multiply and grow. Bhullar cases. What, according to your interpretation of
submitted that he was consuming dietary the passage, will support the author's argument in
supplements three months before the competition this instance?
which might have prohibited specified substance (a) The appeal panel is correct is applying the rule
or might be contaminated or the presence of of strict liability on himanshu kumar.
specified substance could have been the possible (b) The appeal panel shall not impose the rule of
reaction of these supplements. Bhullar could not strict liability as there exists other reformative
forms of punishments.
establish how MHA got into his system. What
(c) The appeal panel should give a chance to
repercussions will follow? Decide
Himanshu for to establish how the prohibited
(a) Since Bhullar was unable to establish the substance entered his/her system.
presence of the specified substance, he will be (d) The process of establishing the existence of
held liable for inadvertent doping. prohibited substance in ones’s system is not
(b) Since Bhullar stated that the presence of the burdensome.
substance could have been caused by the
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Passage (Q.68-Q.73): Anticipatory bail, a preventive relief that was not originally included in The Code of Criminal
Procedure, 1973 ('CrPC'). The necessity for granting anticipatory bail arises mainly because sometimes influential
persons try to implicate their rivals in false cases for the purpose of disgracing them or for other purposes by getting
them detained in jail for some days. Apart from false cases, where there are reasonable grounds for holding that a
person accused of an offense is not likely to abscond, or otherwise misuse his liberty while on bail, there seems no
justification to require him first to submit to custody, remain in prison for some days and then apply for bail. The
very purpose of the provisions relating to anticipatory bail is to ensure that no person is confined in any way until
and unless held guilty. It has also been held that anticipatory bail cannot be granted to a person to do something
which is likely to be interpreted as a commission of a crime even if the offender intended it as something in the
exercise of his rights. The rationale behind enacting S. 438 was to safeguard the personal liberty of individuals,
however, the use of words 'may, if it thinks fit’ in S. 438(1) of CrPC and the absence of any specific restraints on the
exercise of the power to grant anticipatory bail clearly indicates that the legislature intended to confer very wide
discretionary power on the courts to grant anticipatory bail. This wide discretion should be used cautiously by the
courts since with the massive increase in the cases of socio-economic offenses in India where the accused have fled
the country to evade prosecution there is an increased chance of misuse of this preventive relief. The courts need to
establish a fine balance between the personal liberty of an individual and public interest before granting
anticipatory bail.
68. Why the author believes that the court should (a) It is quite imperative to observe that there are
cautiously use the discretionary power of chances of infringement of personal liberty in
anticipatory bail? false cases.
(a) It is pertinent to establish a fine balance (b) Anticipatory bail should be available to every
between the general interest of the public and accused because it is not wise that he is arrested
safeguarding individual rights. first and then files a bail application.
(b) Anticipatory bail is vulnerable to abuse since (c) It is tried and tested and hence reasonable that a
criminals can evade prosecution. person who is accused will never abscond.
(c) It is a preventive measure that was not included (d) It can be reasonably deduced that an accused
in the 1973 Code of Criminal Procedure ('CrPC'). will misuse the personal liberty granted to him
(d) The rationale behind enacting S. 438 was to via anticipatory bail.
safeguard the personal liberty of individuals.
71. In which of the following cases anticipatory bail will
69. What was not the intention of the drafters of CrPC to be given to the accused?
include ‘anticipatory bail’ in the code? (a) X kills Y and files for an anticipatory bail.
(a) To safeguard people's personal liberties with (b) X is accused of fraud and an arrest warrant is
the reasonable assumption that a person who is issued against him.
accused will not flee. (c) X is accused of terrorism and is immediately
(b) So that High Courts can prevent anyone from arrested.
getting imprisoned. (d) X is arrested for theft and when he is accused of
(c) So that powerful people do not try to incriminate murder he files for an anticipatory bail.
their opponents in spurious cases in order to
discredit them. 72. Assertion (A): A person will be denied anticipatory
(d) To ensure that no one is imprisoned in any way bail, if he commits a crime in furtherance of his
unless they are found guilty. exercise of right(s).
Reason (R): There has to be a fine balance between
70. With the strict examination of the statement- “Apart individual rights and greater public interest.
from false cases, where there are reasonable (a) Both A and R are individually true but R is not
grounds for holding that a person accused of an the correct explanation of A.
offense is not likely to abscond, or otherwise misuse (b) Both A and R are individually true and R is the
his liberty while on bail, there seems no justification correct explanation of A.
to require him first to submit to custody, remain in (c) A is true but R is false.
prison for some days and then apply for bail.” Choose (d) A is false but R is true.
which of the following options can be directly
inferred.
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73. X was worked as a RAW officer. He was deployed in (a) He is not entitled to anticipatory bail because he
the field duty and the only task he had was to exceeded his rights and committed a murder.
identity terrorist and kill them, one time, when he (b) He is entitled to anticipatory bail because he
was on vacation he was following a lead and had to satisfies all the prerequisites for the same.
catch and identify and catch a terrorist, he mistook a (c) He is not entitled to anticipatory bail because he
civilian to be the terrorist and shot him at point does not satisfies all the prerequisites for the
blank range. Later, some NGO filed a case against X anticipatory bail.
that he killed a civilian and exceeded his powers. X (d) He is not entitled to anticipatory bail because he
immediately filed for anticipatory bail because he was on a vacation and hence protection would
has to identify one more terrorist and kill him. not be available.
Choose the best option as per your understanding of
the passage.
Passage (Q.74-Q.79): The SC has observed – delegated legislation can be considered as a “necessary evil”, and an
unfortunate but inevitable infringement of the doctrine of separation of powers – which postulates that ‘law-making’
is the sole prerogative of the legislature. The SC has also highlighted the inherent danger in the process of delegation,
where an over-burdened legislature may unduly overstep the permissible limits of delegation and may not rightly
articulate the guiding principles within which the delegated legislations must operate. This note of caution is most
relevant in the corporate law realm, where a large number of delegated legislation directly touch upon substantive
policy issues, which should ideally be covered by a law passed by Parliament – keeping in mind the cardinal rule
that the formulation and declaration of ‘legislative policy’ is the sole prerogative of the legislature and cannot be
delegated to the executive. However, given the complexities and the practical considerations involved, delegated
legislation in the realm of corporate law is here to stay.
Regulators are likely to continue using the subordinate legislation route, as rules and regulations can be easily
amended to address practical difficulties, or to plug loopholes. While delegated legislation in the corporate law
realm may have its merits, it also results in frequent changes to the law and many such overnight changes have
significant implications on the structuring and execution of corporate transactions. Besides resulting in uncertainty,
such frequent changes also profoundly impact the stability of our legal system. The stability and consistency of the
legal system is an integral component of the rule of law, which forms part of the “basic structure” of our Constitution.
In addition to ensuring meaningful parliamentary supervision, a periodic review is necessary for evaluating whether
the delegated legislations are in conformity with the policy enunciated by the parent statute. While we await the
implementation of suitable parliamentary safeguards, keeping track of an unending list of rules, regulations,
notifications, and circulars has long become the ‘new normal’ for corporate law practitioners!!
Source:https://corporate.cyrilamarchandblogs.com/2022/01/the-rise-rise-of-delegated-legislation-do-we-need-
more-safeguards/
74. Which of the following statement cannot be (a) For corporate law practitioners, an endless
deduced as per the passage? litany of rules, regulations, notifications, and
(a) Delegated legislation destroys the very fabric circulars has become ubiquitous due to
of doctrine of separation of powers. delegated legislations(s).
(b) All delegated legislation seeks to cover the (b) An overburdened legislature may go over the
ambit of those policy framework, upon which permissible delegation limitations and the
the parliament should hold the authority. corporate law realm is considerably most
(c) The basic structure of the constitution is affected by this.
basically the rule of law which further entails (c) The execution of corporate transactions is
the stability and consistency of the legal significantly affected because the frequent
system. changes in law; all thanks to the delegated
(d) Delegated legislation in all likelihood never legislation.
become obsolete because it helps in (d) The scope of delegated legislation should be
addressing the practical difficulties. kept aloof from corporate law realm, due to
lack of merits.
75. Which of the following statement is not true about
the delegated legislation in corporate law realm?
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76. Which of the following option(s) can be directly (d) Since delegated legislation has been so closely
inferred from the statement- “In addition to intertwined with corporate law, it has become
ensuring meaningful parliamentary supervision, a the ‘new normal’ for corporate law
periodic review is necessary for evaluating practitioners, hence there is no requirement of
whether the delegated legislations are in declaring the delegated legislation as void.
conformity with the policy enunciated by the
parent statute”? 78. Suppose in the previous question, the suit filed by
(a) The parliament has failed to supervise if the CEO has reached the courts and they have sent
delegated legislation transcends the boundary a notice to the regulators to give a response within
of permissible limits or not. 2 days, which of the following according to your
(b) Seldom, it is the case that the delegated understanding of the passage can be the valid
legislation does not conforms with the ambit counter argument of the regulators in the court of
provided by the parent legislation. law, against the argument of the plaintiff?
(c) Delegated legislations derive their authority (a) It is convenient for them and it saves a lot of
from a parent legislation created under time since the entire process of parliamentary
parliamentary supervision. legislation is avoided.
(d) It would not be wrong to say that periodic (b) Because rules and regulations can be quickly
review can ensure meaningful parliamentary changed with the help of delegated legislation
supervision over delegated legislation. to solve practical issues or close gaps which
are needed for the laws to operate smoothly.
77. The CEO of a very reputed company was recently (c) The rule of law is dependent on the stability
made aware of the new developments in the and uniformity of the legal system which can
corporate sector, wherein the ministry of only be derived from delegated legislation.
corporate affairs was delegated certain powers by (d) It leads to regular changes in the law, with
a new act to ascertain that all the big corporate many of these changes having major
houses maintain transparency in their business ramifications for the growth of corporate
transactions. The CEO filed a case citing that this transactions.
new development is intrusive in his business and
hence should be declared null and void. With the 79. Which of the following is the correct reason as to
understanding of the passage choose the best why the supreme court believes that delegation
answer. per se is intrinsically dangerous?
(a) The new act should not be declared void (a) The delegated authority may not correctly
because delegated legislation is the part and describe the governing principles under which
parcel of the ‘law-making’ prerogative of the the delegated legislations must function.
legislature. (b) A law issued by Parliament should include
(b) The new act should be declared void because substantial policy problems that are
multiple legislation directly touches upon frequently delegated.
substantive policy issue(s), pertaining to (c) Legislative policy is the legislature's sole
corporate law hence delegated legislation is authority, and it cannot be delegated to the
not required. executive.
(c) The new act should not be declared void (d) The stability of our legal system is severely
because the complexities and the practical harmed by frequent changes in the law
considerations involved in the corporate law through delegated legislation.
realm can only be tackled with the help of
delegated legislation.
Passage (Q.80-Q.84): Abortion is a highly debateable around the globe due to its socio-medical, religious as well as
constitutional aspects. There exists a continuous question on woman's rights with regards to her will to abort, as is
the abortion rights really a free right to a woman or is it a conditional right and also whether women's right to abort
or the foetus (unborn child's) rights to live should be focused upon.
Issues related to abortion in India raises questions under Article 21 of the Constitution as there is Right to privacy
granted as a fundamental right that takes under its purview immunity from outside interference in matters that are
personal and intimate such as marriage, child-rearing and the use of contraception and along with this the Right to
202
life with dignity is given which permits abortion for reasonable reasons for the dignified life of the woman and it is
a woman's absolute right to live with human dignity.
The Indian penal code of 1860 under section 312-316 has made the process of induced abortion punishable that is
causing to miscarriage which is not done in good faith for saving the life of the woman is considered as a crime.
Under these sections miscarriages which are not done for the purpose of saving the life of a woman is punishable
and if the "woman is quick with the child" i.e. when movements can be felt by the mother in her womb it is
considered as culpable homicide.
Intent of legislature in formation of the medical termination of pregnancy act 1971 was aimed to legalize the process
the abortion in exceptional cases and the main purpose of the act or the intent of legislation was to provide the
medical filed, doctors, medical staff, nurses 'a safeguard' from the investigations under IPC as the laws were very
strict and many illegal and unsafe abortions were done.
80. A petition was filed in the court for getting (c) The Indian Constitution allows abortion under
permission for a 20 week post pregnancy as under the fundamental right under Article 21 as right
the MTP act. The unborn child was suffering from to life with personal liberty but still there is
heart defect which was diagnosed by the medical various restriction, checks and balances placed
practitioner after 20 weeks of the pregnancy and and there is a requirement to meet different
the condition was very serious at that when the needs of the society.
child would be born he would need to have an (d) The constitution on one hand states that a
operation of heart and a pacemaker which may woman should have complete freedom
could also harm him in other ways, this petition towards her body and her decisions but on the
was dismissed on the grounds that the medical other hand the MTP Act restricts this right as a
board appointed for an opinion said that the child woman herself is not allowed to decide
would not suffer any serious disability in life and regarding her own will to abort or not.
with the help of a heart surgery everything could
be okay. Determine if this is a violation of Nikita 82. Assertion: More than anything a person's right to
constitutional rights provided under article 21. abortion is a person's right to their own body.
(a) Yes, because the doctor's refusal to grant the Reason: There is a recurring dilemma about a
abortion request directly violates Nikita's right woman's rights in relation to her desire to abort, if
to live with dignity under Article 21. women's right to abort or the foetus' right to life
(b) No, because article 21 protects the right to life should be prioritised.
of the foetus. (a) Both A and R are true but R is not correct
(c) Yes, because the woman has the right to life explanation of A.
with dignity, which allows for abortion in some (b) Both A and R are true and R is correct
circumstances. explanation of A.
(d) No, as miscarriages done when movements (c) A is true but R is false.
can be felt by the mother in her womb is (d) A is false but R is true.
considered as culpable homicide.
83. Choose a sentence that perfectly balances the
81. "foetus's right to life" under Article 21 is alleged to position of MTP, IPC, and article 21 on women and
be debatable issue in the opinion of the author. foetus’s right to life:
Choose an appropriate remark on this subject in I. Laws which criminalise all abortions, except
accordance with the information provided in the those required to save a mother’s life, were
passage. unconstitutional and violated the right to
(a) There are numerous debates about the stand privacy of a pregnant woman.
of law in this regard and various judgements II. Right should be balanced against the right of
have given different views. the state’s legitimate interest in protecting
(b) the article 21 of Constitution guarantees right both the pregnant woman’s health and the
to life with liberty and right to privacy to a potentiality of human life at various stages of
woman within the right as a freedom to choose pregnancy under the provision of various
on her own whether she wants abort the child laws.
or not under reasonable condition.
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III. Abortion under any circumstances, except 84. Choose a statement which correctly describes the
danger to a pregnant woman’s life, was illegal position the women with respect to right to
in India. abortion in the present scenario:
IV. The MTP Act overrides the IPC by allowing a (a) A woman can terminate her pregnancy, under
woman to get an abortion within the first 12 certain circumstances in which a pregnancy
weeks of pregnancy, provided a registered can be terminated at any stage.
medical practitioner diagnoses grave danger (b) It is clear that the objective of enacting the
to the pregnant woman’s physical and mental MTP Act was far from any consideration of a
health. woman’s right to make reproductive choices.
V. It was observed that as a result of these (c) The right to have an abortion is a facet of the
stringent provisions of the law, the health and right to privacy guaranteed under Article 21.
lives of many women seeking abortions were (d) Although women’s reproductive decisional
being compromised. autonomy has been recognised by the
(a) I, II , III and V (b) II Supreme Court, its full realisation would only
(c) III and V (d) V be possible if the provisions of the IPC making
abortions a criminal offence were to be struck
down, and a woman’s decision to terminate
her pregnancy be left up to her and her doctor.
20
4
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Passage (Q.85-Q.90): Oxfam’s report on global inequality, Inequality INC., has been published at the onset of the
Davos meeting, which is considered to be a conclave of the richest among the rich. Some numbers in the report are
truly startling. According to Oxfam, the top five billionaires of the world have doubled their wealth since 2020, while
4.8 billion people have experienced a drop in their real incomes compared to what they were in 2019. Poverty has
sharpened and the wealth gap widened. The biggest firms earned $1.8 trillion in profits during 2022-23 — a 52%
jump compared to the profits earned during 2018-21. At the same time, 791 million workers failed to keep up their
real incomes in the face of stiff consumer price inflation. Collectively, they lost $1.5 trillion in wages. The wealth of
the top five individuals would take 476 years to be exhausted if they chose to spend it at their current rate of
consumption. The picture in India continues to be bleak and unacceptable. The top 10% owns 77% of the nation’s
wealth. The wealth of billionaires has increased by a factor of ten in one decade. In 2017, out of all the wealth
generated in India, 73% went to the richest 1% and only 1% went to the poorest 50%. It is claimed that it will take
a rural worker in India 941 years to earn what a top executive in a garment factory receives. In India, the brunt of
poverty and deprivation is faced by women and children. The measure of unpaid work for women, in terms of
cooking, cleaning and looking after children, is estimated to be equivalent to 3.1% of the national income.
Like India, many parts of the world are fractured in terms of caste, class, gender, and religion. Growing inequalities
add another fissure: it concentrates power and influence in the hands of a tiny few. Politics, commerce, government
policies, consumer tastes, environmental conservation are all heavily influenced by the members of the corporate
club. Politicians are, more often than not, mere puppets in their hands. Economic inequality breeds and reinforces
other kinds of inequalities. For instance, income and wealth inequalities lead to unequal access to health services,
educational opportunities, credit lines, and social recognition. The quality of life, even if one takes only the average,
is not something to be proud of. It is certainly the best of times for a handful. It is the worst of times for most.
85. Based on the passage, what can be inferred about the 87. Considering the statement that the wealth of the top
trend in global wealth distribution since 2020, five individuals would take 476 years to exhaust at
especially in relation to the top five billionaires and their current rate of consumption, what conclusion
the general populace? can be drawn about the rate of wealth accumulation
(a) The general populace's wealth has increased versus the rate of consumption among these
proportionally with that of the billionaires. individuals?
(b) The wealth of the top five billionaires has (a) The rate of wealth accumulation far exceeds the
remained relatively constant since 2020. rate of consumption.
(c) The wealth gap between the richest and the (b) The wealth accumulation and consumption
poorest has significantly widened. rates are approximately equal.
(d) The real incomes of the majority have grown, (c) The rate of consumption is significantly higher
but not as fast as those of billionaires. than the rate of wealth accumulation.
(d) The rate of consumption has increased
86. The passage mentions a significant increase in dramatically over the past few years.
corporate profits alongside a decrease in real
incomes for a large segment of workers. What 88. The passage provides specific statistics on wealth
assumption does the passage make about the distribution in India. What does this data imply
relationship between these two phenomena? about the economic structure and inequality within
(a) Corporate profits and workers' incomes are the country?
directly proportional to each other. (a) There is a balanced distribution of wealth
(b) Increased corporate profits lead to a among different economic classes in India.
corresponding increase in workers' wages. (b) The economic structure in India favors equitable
(c) The rise in corporate profits is at the expense of wealth accumulation for all citizens.
workers' real incomes. (c) The wealth distribution in India is skewed,
(d) Corporate profits and workers' real incomes are favoring the top 10% of the population.
independent variables. (d) The middle class in India holds the majority of
the nation's wealth.
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89. Based on the passage, how does economic inequality 90. The passage suggests a link between economic
appear to affect political and commercial power inequality and other forms of inequality. What kind
dynamics, particularly in relation to politicians and of relationship does the passage imply exists
corporate entities? between economic disparities and access to
(a) Economic inequality has little to no influence on essential services and opportunities?
political and commercial power dynamics. (a) Economic disparities ensure equal access to
(b) Economic inequality consolidates power and essential services for all social classes.
influence in the hands of a few. (b) There is no significant correlation between
(c) Politicians and corporate entities collaborate to economic disparities and access to services.
reduce economic inequality. (c) Economic disparities lead to improved access to
(d) The passage suggests that economic equality is services for underprivileged groups.
prevalent in political circles. (d) Income and wealth inequalities result in unequal
access to essential services.
Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Across states, individual rights – including those enshrined in the Constitution – seem to be
under constant threat from the mob, acting as a self-styled moral police. Last week, two horrific incidents of assault
in Karnataka underlined, once again, the disturbing intolerance for inter-faith relationships among consenting
adults – real and imagined – and the casual resort to violence. In these cases, the criminals objected to Muslim
women being involved with men from other communities. Their logic is the same as those who raise the bogey of
“love jihad” and the prevalence of this disturbing phenomenon across communities and geographies needs a more
robust response from the criminal-justice machinery.
On January 13, seven men were arrested after they assaulted two people – mistaking them for an inter-faith couple
– at a park in Belagavi city. The young Muslim woman was with her cousin, a Hindu. A day later in Haveri district,
five men barged into a hotel room and allegedly assaulted a man and attacked and raped the woman. They recorded
and circulated videos of their criminal act. State Home Minister G Parameshwara said the law will take its course.
Perhaps it will. But the violence on couples for “love jihad” in UP, Haryana Rajasthan, or in the case of Karnataka
between Muslim women and non-Muslim men, the casual manner in which incidents of violence are recorded and
distributed online, call for a broader response. Chief Minister Siddaramiah had promised action against such crimes
when he took office. Thus far, it seems his government has fallen short. Instead, his colleague, Parameshwara, is
engaging in whataboutery by asking, “Weren’t there crimes against women doing BJP’s rule”.
Governments – whether of the Congress, BJP or any other party – need to draw sharp lines. Leaders and parties
cannot hint at even tacit support for such acts of violence. Unfortunately, many of those who have sworn their oath
on the Constitution have equivocated on the issue of inter-faith and sometimes, even inter-caste relationships.
Another disturbing aspect of the attack in Haveri was the culprits using the internet to broadcast their crime. The
misuse of technology in this manner requires the police to increase their capabilities in dealing with cybercrime.
Campaigns that address the stigma that often gets attached to victims of sexual violence must be launched. As of
2021, the conviction rate in India for crimes against women was an abysmal 26 per cent. That figure represents a
shortcoming that must be urgently addressed by investigating and prosecuting agencies. For the broader political
class and civil society, the task is simple: The freedom of choice of individuals must be protected, not sacrificed at
the altar of thin-skinned prejudice.
91. How does the passage construct the argument that (c) Highlighting the government's failure to protect
the freedom of choice in relationships is being inter-faith couples as an infringement on
compromised, and what role do the examples of freedom.
violence in Karnataka play in this argument? (d) Demonstrating that societal attitudes towards
(a) By showing that inter-faith relationships often inter-faith relationships are largely positive.
lead to violence and societal disruption.
(b) The examples are used to illustrate the 92. What is the passage suggesting as a primary cause
consequences of prejudice against inter-faith for the low conviction rate in crimes against women
relationships. in India, and how does this relate to the broader
issue of violence against inter-faith couples?
206
(a) Insufficient legal frameworks leading to (c) To highlight the inadequacy of the government's
ineffective prosecution of inter-faith violence measures against inter-faith violence.
cases. (d) To show the government's proactive approach
(b) Inadequate police capabilities in dealing with in enhancing cybercrime capabilities.
cybercrime linked to inter-faith violence.
(c) Tacit support for violence by political leaders 95. Based on the information provided, what can be
influencing judicial outcomes. inferred about the impact of political leadership and
(d) The stigma attached to victims of sexual violence party stance on the issue of inter-faith violence and
affecting their willingness to testify. communal intolerance in Karnataka?
(a) Political leadership has been effective in
93. The passage discusses the need for a robust significantly reducing incidents of inter-faith
response from the criminal-justice machinery to violence.
address the issue of violence against inter-faith (b) Political equivocation has contributed to a lack
couples. What criteria would be most important in of decisive action against inter-faith violence.
evaluating the effectiveness of such a response? (c) Party stances have had little to no impact on the
(a) The increase in public awareness campaigns prevalence of inter-faith violence.
about inter-faith tolerance. (d) Political parties have uniformly condemned
(b) The number of arrests made in cases of inter- inter-faith violence, leading to improved
faith violence. harmony.
(c) Improvement in the conviction rate for crimes
against inter-faith couples. 96. What assumption underlies the author's claim that
(d) The implementation of stricter laws against campaigns addressing the stigma attached to victims
inter-faith violence. of sexual violence are necessary?
(a) Victims of sexual violence are often blamed for
94. In the context of the passage, how does the author the incidents, hindering justice.
use the statement by State Home Minister G (b) There is a lack of awareness about the
Parameshwara to further the argument about the consequences of sexual violence in society.
government's response to inter-faith violence? (c) Sexual violence cases are predominantly caused
(a) To illustrate the government's commitment to by inter-faith relationships.
justice in inter-faith violence cases. (d) Campaigns can directly lead to an increase in the
(b) As evidence of the government's passive stance conviction rate for such crimes.
on inter-faith violence.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): As we wend our way from toddlerhood to older adulthood, we have a desire to be useful.
It's a fundamental aspect of human experience that evolves as we traverse different stages of life. From toddler
years, when little ones eagerly mimic their parents in an effort to be helpful, to the later years, when adults find
fulfillment in providing for their families or contributing to their communities, the need to feel useful runs deep.
Toddlers are not merely playing make-believe when they attempt to assist parents with chores or activities; they
seek validation and purpose through usefulness. The drive to feel useful is vital for their development, fostering
confidence and autonomy as they grow. During adolescence, the urge for usefulness can surface through academic
accomplishments or extracurricular activities, indicating their adolescent's value and significance to themselves and
others.
Adults find meaning and fulfillment in being of service to others. Young adulthood is fraught with the quest for
identity and purpose. Feeling useful and needed helps young adults navigate this pivotal phase, anchoring them as
they explore their place in the world (Fuligni, 2021). Middle age is a time when adults need their usefulness to be
reflected in generative or outward-focused activities, such as caregiving, volunteering, or mentoring others.
As we age, mattering becomes increasingly significant. Feeling useful and needed bolsters our sense of importance
to others, a buffer against loneliness and physical decline. Even for individuals grappling with dementia (van Vliet,
2017), the desire to feel useful remains, highlighting the enduring nature of this drive.
207
Conversely, the absence of feeling useful can profoundly affect well-being. Feelings of worthlessness, depression,
and anxiety may take root, leading to harmful coping mechanisms, such as substance abuse or self-harm. The
importance of fostering a sense of usefulness throughout life cannot be overstated.
For some individuals, retirement can bring about loss of a sense of purpose and onset of feeling useless. The
importance of engaging in activities that provide a sense of usefulness and fulfillment is key to maintaining well-
being. Whether pursuing personal projects driven by intrinsic motivation, such as a hobby, or engaging in
mentorship, finding avenues to contribute and feel useful can imbue life with purpose.
The pursuit of usefulness is a fundamental aspect of the human experience woven into the fabric of our lives from
early childhood to older adulthood. It's a journey marked by moments of fulfillment, significance, and connection,
reminding us of our inherent capacity to make a difference in the world around us.
97. What evidence from the passage most effectively (d) The absence of feeling useful can lead to feelings
reinforces the claim that the need to feel useful is of worthlessness and depression.
vital for toddler development?
(a) Toddlers mimic their parents to seek validation 100. Which statement best encapsulates the author's
and purpose through usefulness. main argument regarding the role of usefulness in
(b) The drive to feel useful fosters confidence and human life across different life stages?
autonomy as toddlers grow. (a) Usefulness fosters personal growth and
(c) Adolescents find significance in extracurricular autonomy from childhood through adulthood.
activities, indicating their value. (b) The need to feel useful is a fundamental human
(d) Feeling useful helps young adults navigate the desire that evolves over a lifetime.
quest for identity and purpose. (c) Engaging in useful activities primarily prevents
feelings of worthlessness in adults.
98. Based on the passage, which criterion is most critical (d) Usefulness in later life stages is less about
for assessing the impact of usefulness on mitigating personal fulfillment and more about legacy.
feelings of worthlessness and depression in adults?
(a) The number of activities adults engage in to feel 101. What does the passage suggest is a likely effect of
useful and needed. adolescents achieving academic accomplishments or
(b) The depth of personal fulfillment adults derive engaging in extracurricular activities in terms of
from engaging in useful activities. their need to feel useful?
(c) The recognition adults receive from others for (a) It enhances their social status among peers,
their contributions to the community. thereby increasing their confidence.
(d) The variety of roles adults assume in their (b) It directly contributes to their sense of value and
professional and personal lives. significance to themselves and others.
(c) It prepares them for future professional success
99. What information in the passage could be used to by building necessary skills.
argue against the idea that feeling useful can serve (d) It alleviates the pressures of adolescent identity
as a significant buffer against loneliness and physical crises by providing a clear path forward.
decline in older adults?
(a) Toddlers mimic their parents to seek validation, 102. What is the central theme of the passage ?
not older adults. (a) The importance of academic achievements
(b) Adolescents value extracurricular activities for during adolescence.
their sense of significance. (b) The role of caregiving in middle age.
(c) Adults find fulfillment in being of service, (c) The fundamental human desire to feel useful
without specific mention of older adults. and needed throughout various life stages.
(d) The impact of retirement on mental health.
208
Passage (Q.103-Q.108): The young state of Jharkhand has proved to be quite a political minefield. A reliable
marker of its tremor-filled political terrain is the number of chief ministers it has had — 12 — in its existence of 24
years. Champai Soren of the Jharkhand Mukti Morcha taking up the reins — his government won the trust vote on
Monday — would have been consistent with Jharkhand’s topsy-turvy political record but for the unprecedented
circumstances that led to his anointment. His predecessor, Hemant Soren, resigned as chief minister after he was
arrested by the Enforcement Directorate on charges of money-laundering in a land deal. The Jharkhand High Court,
which is hearing the case, has sought a response from the investigating agency. Hemant Soren has denied the
allegations and alleged the involvement of not just the Bharatiya Janata Party but also the governor for hatching a
plot to remove him from power. His resignation and arrest were followed by the now familiar whispers of the BJP
trying to poach members from its opponents. But the result of Monday’s floor test confirms that Operation Lotus —
the term for the BJP’s mischievous strategy of winning power by engineering defections in rival camps — has been
stalled for now in Jharkhand.
The impact of the goings-on in Jharkhand would not be limited to that particular state. They have wider
ramifications. Hemant Soren’s recent remarks and, in particular, his choice of Champai Soren as his successor
indicate his willingness to take the battle to the BJP. Aggrieved Adivasi sentiments would undoubtedly be harnessed
in this campaign since the JMM’s core support base stems from scheduled tribes who are an influential bloc that
decides Jharkhand’s political trajectory. The BJP’s move to counter this mobilisation would be crucial in deciding
which way the political wind blows in the general elections. Hemant Soren’s decision to court arrest instead of
wilting to coercion could also have an additional implication: it could galvanise the Opposition that has been
beleaguered by desertions of political leaders who claim to have a heftier clout. In fact, Hemant Soren’s credibility
as a feisty leader unafraid to stand up to challenges on his way could also create for him some elbow room for
manoeuvring within the alliance. How his competitive allies respond to the sheen in his image would be interesting
to watch.
103. Which piece of evidence, if true, would most (c) The BJP has increased its efforts to engage with
strengthen the argument that Hemant Soren's the public through community service
choice of Champai Soren as his successor was a initiatives.
strategic move to consolidate support among the (d) Recent polls indicate a slight increase in public
Adivasi community? support for the BJP in Jharkhand.
(a) Champai Soren has previously led successful
campaigns for Adivasi rights and land 105. To evaluate the impact of Hemant Soren's arrest on
preservation. the BJP's political strategies in Jharkhand, which of
(b) Hemant Soren and Champai Soren share a long the following would be most important to know?
history of political alliance and mutual support. (a) The level of public support for Hemant Soren in
(c) Champai Soren has announced plans to Jharkhand before his arrest.
introduce policies specifically benefiting the (b) The BJP's current standing and popularity in
Adivasi community. constituencies predominantly supporting
(d) A recent survey shows that Champai Soren is the Hemant Soren.
most popular political figure among the Adivasi (c) The historical effectiveness of the BJP's
community. strategies in similar political situations in other
states.
104. What information, if confirmed, would most (d) The number of political leaders in Jharkhand
significantly weaken the claim that Operation Lotus who have been arrested on similar charges.
has been effectively stalled in Jharkhand following
the recent trust vote? 106. What can most reasonably be inferred about the
(a) Several members of the opposition have publicly political climate in Jharkhand from the description of
expressed dissatisfaction with their party its history of frequent changes in chief ministership?
leadership. (a) Political parties in Jharkhand are highly
(b) A significant number of legislators are collaborative and frequently form coalition
reportedly considering a shift to the BJP after the governments.
trust vote.
209
(b) The electorate in Jharkhand is highly volatile, (c) Opposition parties will likely rally around
often swinging between different political Hemant Soren, strengthening their unity.
parties. (d) The arrest will cause a shift in the opposition's
(c) Political stability in Jharkhand is challenged by focus towards economic issues.
frequent leadership changes and political
rivalries. 108. What is the primary concern expressed in the
(d) Economic policies in Jharkhand are highly passage regarding the political tactics employed by
consistent despite the frequent changes in the Bharatiya Janata Party (BJP) in Jharkhand?
leadership. (a) The BJP's extensive use of social media
campaigns to influence voter opinions.
107. Based on the passage, what is the most likely effect (b) The alleged involvement of the BJP in
of Hemant Soren's arrest and subsequent events on engineering defections from other parties.
the unity and strategy of the opposition parties in (c) The BJP's focus on economic development as a
the context of the upcoming general elections? means to gain electoral support.
(a) It will lead to an immediate fragmentation (d) The implementation of new laws that could
among the opposition parties. potentially suppress opposition voices.
(b) The opposition will be galvanized, focusing their
strategy on anti-corruption narratives.
210
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES
Direction (Q.109-Q.120): Refer to the following information and answer the following questions.
Directions (Q.109- Q.114): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
There are total 1200 employees in two branches of an office having five different departments viz. Finance, HR,
Operations, Sales and Accounts. The two branches are in Delhi and Mumbai.
Forty-eight percent of the employees work in D elhi branch. One-fourth of the employees in Mumbai branch work
in Finance department. One- eighth of the employees working in Mumbai are in Sales department. Total 250
employees work in Finance department. The number of employees working in Operations in Mumbai is fifty percent
more than the number of employees working in Sales in the same branch. 150 employees work in Accounts
department in Delhi branch which is twice the number of employees working in HR department of the Mumbai
branch. Half of the remaining employees in Delhi work in Operations. The number of employees in the HR
department of Mumbai branch is twenty-five percent less than the number of employees working in the Sales
department of the Delhi branch.
109. What is the difference between the number of 112. What is the ratio between the number of
employees working in HR and Sales department in employees working in HR department of Delhi
the Mumbai branch together and the number of branch and number of employees working in
employees working in the Operations and Accounts department of the Mumbai branch?
Accounts department in the Delhi branch (a) 2:1 (b) 3:7
together? (c) 2:5 (d) 1:3
(a) 163 (b) 155
(c) 161 (d) 159 113. What percent of the total employees work in the
Sales department of the Delhi branch?
110. Approximately what percent of employees in the (a) 20% (b) 8.33%
Delhi branch work in Accounts department? (c) 12% (d) 16.66%
(a) 32% (b) 28%
(c) 26% (d) 20% 114. Find the sum of the average number of employees
working in Sales and Operations department of the
111. What is the sum of the number of employees Delhi branch and the average number of
working in Finance and Sales department of both employees working in the HR and Operations
branches? department of the Mumbai branch.
(a) 428 (b) 432 (a) 235 (b) 229
(c) 416 (d) 445 (c) 225 (d) 244
Directions (Q.115-Q.120): Study the following information carefully to answer the questions that follow:
In an International Sports Tournament, four Asian countries (India, China, Pakistan and Bangladesh) took part and
won one of the three medals – Gold, Silver or Bronze. China won 21 silver medals in the tournament. The number of
bronze medals won by Pakistan is thrice the number of silver medal won by it. The ratio between the number of
gold medals won by China and Pakistan is 5:4. Bangladesh won 26 bronze medals. India won 10 more gold medals
than China. The number of Gold medals won by China and India is 25% more than the number of gold medals won
by Pakistan and Bangladesh. The number of Gold medal won by India is 13 more than the number of gold medal
won by Bangladesh. Pakistan won 108 medals. The number of gold medals won by Pakistan is equal to the bronze
medal won by China. The gold medals won by Bangladesh is 1 less than the bronze medals won by India. The number
of silver medals won by India is twice the number of silver medals won by Pakistan. The ratio between the number
of silver medal won by Bangladesh and number of bronze medal won by China is 1:2.
211
115. What is the total number of medals won by for bronze medal winners, then what is the total cash
Bangladesh in the tournament? prize won by Pakistan(in lakhs)?
(a) 98 (b) 125 (a) 36.4 (b) 38.2
(c) 122 (d) 100 (c) 35.5 (d) 32.6
116. The number of silver medals won by India and China 119. What is the ratio between the number of medals won
is what percent of the number of bronze medals won by India and China?
by India? (a) 5:7 (b) 4:5
(a) 80% (b) 100% (c) 6:7 (d) 5:4
(c) 150% (d) 125%
120. Find the difference between the number of silver
117. What is the average number of gold medals won by medals won by Pakistan and Bangladesh together
all the countries? and the number of bronze medal won by India and
(a) 58 (b) 55 Pakistan together.
(c) 54 (d) 56 (a) 63 (b) 65
(c) 69 (d) 72
118. If the cash prize for Gold medal winners is Rs.50,000,
Rs.30,000 for silver medal winners and Rs.20,000
212
ANSWER KEY AND EXPLANATIONS
SECTION-A : ENGLISH LANGUAGE
1. (d) There is a clear bias against the girl child as mentioned Insipid is boring or has too little taste, flavour or
in the initial part of the passage. colour.
Refer to the lines – ‘A decline of 26 points is indicative From the meanings of each word, it is clear that option
of a clear bias against the girl child in a cultural milieu (b) gives the correct answer.
mediated by a range of factors- a feudal history, 6. (d) (D) Hyperbole
stringent patriarchy, rigid gender norms and deep- The phrase "on the brink of disaster" exaggerates the
rooted disadvantages which pervade all spheres of severity of the situation regarding the state's
domestic and social life.’ It is clear that all the factors development graph, suggesting an imminent and
given in the options are correct. Hence, option (d) is extreme outcome. This exaggeration serves to
the correct answer. emphasize the urgency of the issue and the potential
2. (d) Women and girls face various types of violence and catastrophic consequences if not addressed promptly.
discrimination throughout their life cycle. This reflects Hyperbole is a figure of speech characterized by
in the declining sex ratio and the decoy operations exaggerated statements or claims not meant to be
which highlights the role of unscrupulous doctors in taken literally, which is precisely the function of the
female foeticide. Options (a), (b) and (d) are related to phrase in this context.
the violence against the fairer sex. Option A) Simile- It involves comparing two unlike
But option (d) is not correct in this context. It is things using "like" or "as." However, the phrase "on the
positive and not negatively related to the violence brink of disaster" does not contain a direct comparison
against women and girls. using "like" or "as," making it unsuitable for a simile.
Hence, option (d) is the correct answer. Option B) Metaphor- It is a figure of speech that
3. (a) It is mentioned in the last sentence of the passage that implies a comparison between two unlike things by
despite the rhetoric, an obvious lack of political will to stating that one thing is another. While the phrase "on
save the girl child shows that the development graph the brink of disaster" does convey a sense of
of the state is on the brink of disaster. comparison, it does not directly equate one thing to
The lack of political will reflected in the lackadaisical another, as required for a metaphor.
approach of the state towards issues of women’s Option C) Personification- It involves attributing
equality and dignity -weakening of WDP, curtailing of human qualities or actions to non-human entities.
activities of ‘Sathins’ and lack of coordination in However, the phrase "on the brink of disaster" does
government departments show that the political class not assign human characteristics to any non-human
is not interested in improving the condition of women. entity, making it inappropriate for personification.
So, option (a) is the correct answer. Other options are 7. (b) Refer to the lines, ‘Critical reaction to Rawls' approach
not related to governance directly; these are to defining the concept of justice as fairness has
dependent on the lack of political will to improve the centred upon alleged incoherency or problem in his
status of women. contention that principles of justice must be seen as
4. (c) The author ends the passage by highlighting the lack of political in opposition to a more comprehensive view
political will. He has discussed in the last passage how of the good, while yet also believing that justice as
the actions against women’s discrimination are not political does have a moral basis.’ Rawls, on the one
bringing the desired results. So, he can suggest in the hand, speaks of justice as fairness as a political concept
next additional paragraph the strategies and reasons independent of controversial philosophical, moral and
the state can use to address the issues Promoting religious doctrines and arising from an interpretive
women’s empowerment. understanding within the traditions of constitutional
Hence, option (c) is the best logical answer. Other democracy. He also considers the relevance of
options do not find the connection with the last morality, on the other hand. His critics find this
paragraph of the passage. Hence, these options are not contradictory and problematic.
the extension of the passage. Option (a) does not form Hence, option (b) is the correct option. Other options
the part of the last paragraph; therefore, it cannot be fail to show the views of Rawls. Option (a) is ruled out,
the subject matter of the add on paragraph. Option (b) as the word ‘merely’ defies the ideology of Rawl. Rawl
is ruled out as it is not the purpose that will highlight is not criticised for his views on metaphysics or
the add on paragraph. Why would the author discuss a Hobbesian. These ( options (c) and (d) ) are out of the
defunct institutional mechanism? Option (d) is context of the passage.
extreme, even if true as the add on paragraph. 8. (d) The answer to this question can be found in the last
5. (b) Lackadaisical means not showing any interest, care or part of the last paragraph, where it is mentioned that
enthusiasm. In the case of the passage, it indicates Rawls‘views about justice shall not be considered as
halfhearted approach of the state towards issues of the Hobbesian modus vivendi as they have a moral
women’s equality and dignity. component. Refer to the lines, ‘Yet Rawls believes, at
Laidback means not showing any interest or care; a the same time, that justice as fairness is not to be
relaxed approach. Therefore, it is the correct answer. interpreted as a Hobbesian modus vivendi; it has a
Fastidious means difficult to please; wanting moral component, serving as a political agreement
everything to be perfect. between citizens viewed as free and equal persons, an
213
"overlapping consensus" which more comprehensive Option D "Harmony" means the quality of forming a
philosophical, moral and religious doctrine can accept pleasing and consistent whole; it is similar in meaning
in their own way.’ This makes option (d) as the correct to congruency, not an antonym.
answer. Option (c) is contrary. Option (a) provides the 13. (a) The author has said that the key to the formation,
wrong information, for the line given in the passage, survival and decline of all historical societies is their
‘Yet Rawls believes, at the same time, that justice as use of surplus income and resources. Hence, it can be
fairness is not to be interpreted as a Hobbesian understood that societies shall use the resources
modus vivendi; it has a moral component…’ optimally for survival. Hence, option A is the correct
contradicts it. Option (b) is incorrect, for one cannot answer. Option B is contrary to what is stated in the
infer that the Hobbesian theory of justice is similar passage. Option C is not the lesson but the effects of the
to Rawl’s theory. Hence, option (d) can be inferred events. While option D may be true, it is by no means
from the passage. the important lesson cited in the passage. Instead, it is
9. (a) Refer to the lines, ‘But Rawls emphasizes that the the evil borne out of surplus income and resources,
concept of justice as political is not a mere modus leading to the demise of a society.
vivendi, for it embodies an overlapping consensus by 14. (c) It is explicitly mentioned in the passage that the rise
specifying the fair terms of cooperation between and fall of societies can be traced back to ancient times.
citizens that are regarded as free and equal.’ In the It is true of all the ancient empires we know that the
context of the given passage, the author states that cycle of rising and decline appears to be accelerating.
according to Rawls, political justice is not merely a way Terrorism, conflicts, and surplus income might or
of living (Modus Vivendi ), but a political justice might not be the characteristics of all societies. This
specifying the fair terms of cooperation between has not been discussed in the passage. Hence, only
citizens that are regarded as free and equal. Therefore option C is the correct answer.
option (a) is the most suited answer. Option (b) 15. (d) Option (a) is written in the passage. The cycle of rising
comers close, as Modus vivendi is an arrangement or and falling of societies is imminent.
agreement made between people, institutions or Option (b) is correct. The tools of written language or
countries with different opinions to exist and work a reliable oral tradition are needed to know about any
together without disagreeing. But one cannot deduce society. It is mentioned in the second last sentence of
the philosophy based on the contents of the passage. the passage.
Other options are incorrect meanings of the Option (c) is in agreement with the views of the author.
expression. Therefore, only (a) is correct. Refer to the lines, ‘The few traditional sources that
10. (d) The author has not written the text simply and lucidly; look back to the time of state formation are mostly so
instead, he looks professionally esoteric (difficult to tainted by the accumulated myth that they confuse
understand) in his writing. Hence, option (d) is the more than they inform.’
correct answer. Option (d) is an extreme statement. It cannot be
Neither his writing style can be described as loosely understood that the United States is on the brink of
structured (the writing is compactly structured with extinction due to a single terrorist attack. However, it
proper organisation of thoughts) nor circumlocutory might be the start of the fall.
(confusing). His construction of passage and sentence Hence, (d) is the correct statement with which the
structure makes it complicated to comprehend the text author will most likely disagree.
for an average reader. Concludingly, we can say that 16. (c) The meaning of MARAUDING is roaming about and
option (d) is the best. raiding in search of plunder. Option (c) is the correct
11. (c) The passage is about the views of Rawls’ Theory of answer. Plundering( robbing or marauding) given in
Justice and the criticism of his views by others about the passage is the correct synonym.
justice based only on principles of fairness or morality. Extraction means the action of extracting something,
Option (c) is the correct answer. especially using effort or force.
Option (a) is incorrect as no hypothesis is explained in Subsistence means the condition of remaining in
the passage. existence.
Option (b) and option (d) are not relevant to the Remaining means residual or lasting.
passage. Thus, option (c) is the correct answer. Hence, option (c) is the correct answer.
12. (b) Discrepancy 17. (b) The last paragraph talks about the traditional sources
Explanation- "Congruency" means agreement or not providing authentic information about the rise of
harmony. The antonym of congruency would imply a the empires as they are wrapped in myths, and the last
lack of agreement or harmony. "Discrepancy" means a line is an illustration of the same; therefore, option (b),
lack of compatibility or similarity between two or which provides another example of why traditional
more facts, which is the opposite of congruency. sources cannot be accounted genuinely for the origin
Option A "Alignment" means arrangement in a straight of a state, as they are tainted with myth, is the correct
line or in correct relative positions; it is similar in answer. Option (a) is close enough but more as the
meaning to congruency, not an antonym. conclusion. Between the two options (a) and (b), the
Option C "Agreement" means harmony or accordance immediate follow-up would be option (b), not (a).
in opinion or feeling; it is similar in meaning to Option (c) finds no link with the last line. Option (d)
congruency, not an antonym. will not form the last lines as a follow-up, for it is
disjointed to the last lines that give an example of why
historical sources cannot be trusted.
214
18. (c) Downfall hence, it is an adjective. Thus, option (b) is the correct
Explanation- "Nemesis" refers to a long-standing rival answer. Other options do not reflect the right parts of
or an agent of someone's or something's downfall. In speech of one or more words.
the context of the passage, it suggests a force that Hence the correct answer is option (b).
brings about the decline or destruction of a 22. (b) Rationale: Heterogeneity is the composition of
superpower, in this case, the United States. Therefore, dissimilar parts. It is discrepancy or inconsistency;
"downfall" is the word closest in meaning to therefore, ‘medley, which means a mixture, especially
"nemesis." of heterogenous elements, is the correct answer.
Option A "Ally" means a state or person formally Options (a) and (c) are contrary to the meaning; hence
cooperating with another for a military or other they are antonyms. ‘luminous’ which means bright, is
purpose. This is almost the opposite of "nemesis," unrelated, making Option (d) incorrect. Therefore,
which indicates an adversarial relationship. Option (b) is the correct answer.
Option (b) "Benefactor" refers to a person who gives Hence the answer is (b).
money or other help to a person or cause. This is not 23. (c) Rationale: In the passage, the author disagrees with
related to the concept of a "nemesis," which implies the Stolper–Samuelson‐type effects and presents their
opposition rather than support. own views regarding the discrepancy in individual
Option (d) "Success" refers to the accomplishment of attitudes toward free trade policy. The author tries for
an aim or purpose. This is the opposite of "nemesis," the readers to see their concept through
which signifies downfall or failure. rationalization; hence the writing style is persuasive.
19. (d) Rationale: Refer to the lines, ‘What is the reason for Persuasive: In this writing style, the writer is trying to
this large gap between the poor and the rich in terms convince the reader of the validity of a certain position
of their views on the potential benefits from or argument. Persuasive writing includes the writers’
international trade? Conventional wisdom suggests opinions and provides justifications and evidence to
that the reason for this disparity is broadly related to support their claims.
the Stolper–Samuelson‐type effects when people with Examples: Letters of recommendation; cover letters;
different skills, abilities or employment statuses Op-Eds and Editorial newspaper articles;
experience heterogeneous effects of trade on their argumentative essays for academic papers.
earnings. I argue, however, that even in the absence of Hence, Option (c) is the correct answer.
asymmetric wage effects, the welfare gains from trade Narrative: Often seen in longer writing samples, the
are highly heterogeneous across consumers due to purpose of this writing style is to share information in
consumer‐specific price effects. For instance, in 2006 the context of a story. Narratives should include
in the US, 32% of consumers believed that free trade characters, conflicts, and settings.
agreements would lead to a decrease in domestic Examples: Short stories; novels; poetry; historical
prices, while 30% believed they would increase them accounts.
and 23% expected no significant change.’ The above Descriptive: This type of writing is used to depict
lines make options (a), (b) and (c) correct, and Option imagery to create a clear picture in the mind of the
(d) false. reader. This method helps the readers become more
Hence the correct answer is Option (d). connected to the writing by appealing to their senses.
20. (a) Rationale: The entire passage is about the Descriptive writing employs literary techniques such
heterogeneous Individual attitudes to free trade as similes, metaphors, allegory, etc to engage the
policies, especially the rich and poor perceiving it audience.
differently. While conventional wisdom suggests that Examples: Poetry; fictional novels or plays; memoirs
the reason for this disparity is broadly related to the or first-hand accounts of events
Stolper–Samuelson‐type effects when people with Expository: This type of writing is used to explain a
different skills, abilities or employment statuses concept and share information with a broader
experience heterogeneous effects of trade on their audience. Expository writing provides evidence,
earnings, the author states that the individual statistics, or results and focuses on the facts of a
difference in attitude is due to consumer‐specific price certain topic. This type is not meant to express
effects. Nevertheless, the disparity exist in how opinions.
individual perceive free trade policies in times of Examples: How-to articles; textbooks; news stories
globalisation, making Option (a) the correct answer. (not editorials or Op-Eds); business, technical, or
Option (b) is contrary to the essence of the passage. scientific writing.
Options C and D are too narrow to be considered titles. 24. (b) Variability
Also, one is unable to figure out what the passage is Explanation- "Non-homotheticity" refers to the
about by reading the titles. absence of uniform proportional changes across
21. (b) Rationale: In the expression‘ heterogeneity of different levels of income or other variables. It
opinions’, the preposition has nouns on either side; implies that preferences or functions exhibit
therefore, the first word is a noun. The same is the case variability across different conditions. Therefore,
with ‘effects’, which can be confused to be a verb, but "variability" is the word closest in meaning to "non-
is a noun. Look carefully at the expression, ‘effects’ is homotheticity."
offset by a preposition. Effects means the Option (a) "Conformity" refers to the act of complying
consequences or outcomes. The word ‘asymmetric’ with rules, standards, or expectations. It does not
describes the price effects of trade liberalisation;
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capture the idea of variability across different the Supreme Court (SC) of India in a historic ruling that
conditions. has profound implications for political financing in
Option (c) "Regularity" refers to the state of being India. The SC claimed that the EBS had breached
consistent or following a pattern. It is not directly Article 19(1)(a) of the Constitution, which guarantees
related to the concept of non-homotheticity, which a person's fundamental right to information.
implies variability rather than consistency. 32. (d) The SC ruled that the EBS was unconstitutional, as
Option (d) "Simplicity" refers to the quality of were the modifications made to the Companies Act of
being easy to understand or do. It does not convey 2013, the Finance Act of 2017, the Representation of
the idea of variability in preferences or functions the People Act (RPA), 1951, and the Income Tax Act of
1961. Similar to promissory notes, electoral bonds are
across different conditions.
financial instruments that businesses and individuals
in India can purchase from the State Bank of India
SECTION -B : CURRENT AFFAIRS, INCLUDING GENERAL (SBI) and give to a political party, which has the option
KNOWLEDGE to cash them in.
33. (b) In an effort to purge political funding in India, the
25. (a) The United Nations Conference on the Human Electoral Bonds Scheme was introduced in 2018.
Environment, sometimes referred to as the Stockholm Transparency in electoral funding in India
Conference since it took place in Stockholm, Sweden, was the primary goal of the electoral bonds program.
in 1972, established the UNEP. It helps implement In a nation transitioning to a "cashless-digital
environmental commitments at the national, regional, economy," the government had referred to the plan as
and international levels by using its knowledge to a "electoral reform."When the Electoral Bond Scheme
strengthen environmental standards and practices. was launched in 2018, these bonds were made
26. (c) According to the report, "emission" refers to the available for ten days in January, April, July, and
difference between the expected and actual locations October, depending on what the federal government
of greenhouse gas emissions in 2030 in order to keep might have decided.
global warming well below 2°C or 1.5°C. 34. (a) Originally, parties were required by Section 29C of the
27. (d) CO2 emissions derived from fossil fuels account for Representation of the People Act, 1951, to declare any
about two thirds. Three halves of the present warming contributions exceeding ₹20,000 and to indicate
is the fault of the G20 countries. China, the United whether they came from companies or individual
States, and India are the top three countries that emit donors. Nevertheless, this clause was changed by the
carbon dioxide. The net zero commitments made by 97 Finance Act of 2017 to include an exemption that
parties, covering 82% of global emissions varies states donations made through electoral bonds are
widely and are insufficient. exempt from this requirement.
28. (d) According to a UN assessment, if countries continue 35. (d) Since 2011, National Voters' Day has been celebrated
with their current climate policies, the world would on January 25 every year, across the country to mark
warm by at least 3 degrees Celsius by the end of the the foundation day of the Election Commission of
century. By 2100, the global temperature is expected India, i.e. 25th January 1950
to rise by at least 3°C, and as of 2023, 86 days had gone 36. (d) After India attained independence in 1947, the
above the 1.5°C threshold established by the Paris Constitution of India came into being on 26 January
Agreement. 1950. The Supreme Court of India also came into
29. (a) The US government passed the Inflation Reduction Act existence and its first sitting was held on 28 January
in an effort to combat inflation, cut the deficit, lower 1950. The law declared by the Supreme Court is
the cost of prescription medications for the elderly, binding on all Courts within the territory of India.
and cut carbon emissions. Fit for 55 is a collection of 37. (d) Following fifteen years of negotiations, India recently
recommendations put out by the European signed the Trade and Economic Partnership
Commission to modernize and amend laws within the Agreement (TEPA) with the European Free Trade
European Union (EU) with the aim of reaching climate Association (EFTA), which consists of Iceland,
neutrality by 2050 and lowering net greenhouse gas Liechtenstein, Norway, and Switzerland, four non-EU
emissions by at least 55% by 2030. nations. The agreement promises economic growth,
30. (c) The United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP) job opportunities, and the strengthening of bilateral
is the leading global authority on the environment. relations; however, it also comes with challenges that
UNEP’s mission is to inspire, inform, and enable need to be addressed in order to move towards a more
nations and peoples to improve their quality of life prosperous and integrated global economy.
without compromising that of future generations. 38. (b) A convention that was signed in Stockholm on January
For over 50 years, UNEP has worked with 4, 1960, created EFTA. It was intended to act as a
governments, civil society, the private sector and UN substitute trade bloc for European nations unable or
entities to address humanity’s most pressing unwilling to become members of the European
environmental challenges - from restoring the ozone Economic Community (EEC), which was the principal
layer to protecting the world's seas and promoting a antecedent of the European Union (EU).
green, inclusive economy. 39. (b) India's 2022–2023 exports to EFTA nations totaled
31. (c) The Electoral Bond Scheme (EBS) and related USD 1.92 billion, compared to USD 16.74 billion in
amendments were unanimously declared imports. In 2022–2023, India and EFTA's bilateral
unconstitutional by a five-judge Constitution Bench of trade was valued at USD 18.65 billion. Norway is
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India's second-biggest trading partner after atmosphere to hold more moisture. For every 1 degree
Switzerland. India actually has a trade deficit with Celsius rise in average temperature, the atmosphere
Switzerland, which is mostly the result of imports of can hold about 7% more moisture. This makes storms
gold. In March 2024, the Trade and Economic more dangerous as it leads to an increase in
Partnership Agreement (TEPA) between India and the precipitation intensity, duration and/or frequency of
European Free Trade Association was signed. storm.
40. (c) Throughout the next 15 years, EFTA has pledged to 48. (c) Sheikh Mohamed bin Zayed Al Nahyan, popularly
encourage investments that will raise the stock of known by his initials as MBZ or MbZ, is an Emirati
foreign direct investments in India by USD 100 billion royal and politician who currently serves as the third
and help create 1 million direct jobs in the country. A president of the United Arab Emirates and the ruler of
legal commitment to support target-oriented Abu Dhabi.
investment and job creation is being made for the first 49. (d) The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT)
time in the history of free trade agreements. 99.6% of traces its origins to the 1944 Bretton Woods
India's exports are covered by EFTA's 92.2% tariff Conference, which laid the foundations for the post-
lines. 95.3% of EFTA exports are covered by India's World War II financial system and established two key
82.7% tariff lines, of which more than 80% are imports institutions, the International Monetary Fund (IMF)
of gold. There is no change to the effective duty on gold. and the World Bank. The conference delegates also
41. (a) Following India's agreement with the United Arab recommended the establishment of a complementary
Emirates, the Trade and Economic Partnership institution to be known as the International Trade
Agreement (TEPA) is the second such full-fledged free Organization (ITO), which they envisioned as the third
trade agreement signed. It is anticipated that these leg of the system.
free trade agreements will result in significant tariff 50. (a) The Bretton Woods Conference, officially known as the
reductions, expanded market access, and streamlined United Nations Monetary and Financial Conference,
customs procedures. In 1998, India signed its first FTA was a gathering of delegates from 44 nations that met
with Sri Lanka, followed by the South Asia Free Trade from July 1 to 22, 1944 in Bretton Woods, New
Agreement (SAFTA), which was signed in 2004. Hampshire, to agree upon a series of new rules for the
42. (d) The European Free Trade Association (EFTA) is the post-WWII international monetary system. The two
intergovernmental organisation of Iceland, major accomplishments of the conference were the
Liechtenstein, Norway and Switzerland. It was set up creation of the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and
in 1960 by its then seven Member States for the the International Bank for Reconstruction and
promotion of free trade and economic integration Development (IBRD).
between its members. The lessons taken by U.S. policymakers from the
43. (c) The reason for Mumbai’s hot weather is a huge Anti- interwar period informed the institutions created at
Cyclonic Effect developed in the region. Anticyclones the conference. Officials such as President Franklin D.
are areas of high atmospheric pressure. Winds in Roosevelt and Secretary of State Cordell Hull were
anticyclones move downward and compress, causing adherents of the Wilsonian belief that free trade not
heating. They often lead to large-scale heat waves. only promoted international prosperity, but also
Anticyclones can block other weather systems, causing international peace. The experience of the 1930s
extreme conditions around them. In Mumbai, the certainly suggested as much.
anticyclone caused a “heat dome” effect, warming the 51. (a) The topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the
air further. Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two
44. (a) UAE lies in the arid regions of the world, so such heavy years. It brings together all members of the WTO, all of
rainfalls are unusual there. On average, Dubai which are countries or customs unions. The
experiences 94.7 mm of rain in a year. But this event Ministerial Conference can take decisions on all
was historic as it brought more than 142 mm of rainfall matters under any of the multilateral trade
that had soaked Dubai over 24 hours. agreements.
45. (a) Cloud seeding is a process in which chemicals such as 52. (a) Ajay Banga was selected 14th President of the World
silver iodide crystals are implanted into clouds to Bank Group and began his five-year term as World
increase rainfall in an environment where water Bank Group President on June 2, 2023.
scarcity is a concern. UAE, located in one of the hottest
and driest regions on earth, has been leading the effort SECTION – C: LEGAL REASONING
to seed clouds and increase precipitation. 53. (a) Option (a) is correct as Section 80 exempts a person
46. (d) There are 3 stages in the formation of a thunderstorm. from criminal liability if, the act was done without any
Cumulus stage: The ground is greatly heated due to criminal intention or knowledge; thus, since Kushal
solar insolation. Due to the intense lifting of an air had no mensrea, the act will come under the ambit of
parcel, a low pressure begins to form (convention). Air section 80. Option (b) is incorrect as the factual query
from the surrounding area rushes in to fill the void resolved around killing Shravana for which Kushal had
created by the low pressure. A towering no intention. Thus, Option (b) is incorrect as it states
cumulonimbus cloud forms due to the intense that it is not an act of accident and Kushal “cannot” be
convection of wet hot air. exempted from the liability. Thus, incorrect.
47. (a) Global warming has led to higher temperatures Option (c) is incorrect as it does not determine
causing evaporation of water not only from land but whether or not Kushal can claim exemption under
also oceans and other water bodies, causing a warmer section 80. That is present in Option (a) making it the
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better answer. Option (d) is not correct as it the given fleeing but merely refused to explain his actions. Thus,
statement is no where relevant with the factual query incorrect
presented. Thus, not correct. 58. (c) As per Supreme Court, a post/movie may well be
54. (b) Option (a) is erroneous since Kushal willfully hit the offensive but in the absence of a deliberate or
arrow, so he will be held accountable and will not be malicious intent to outrage religious feelings, criminal
eligible for an exemption under Section 80 in this action cannot follow. Hence, (c) is correct. (a) is
situation. Option (b) is right because Kushal heard incorrect because it focuses on freedom of speech not
someone drinking water and confused it for a deer on intent. (B) is incorrect as it doesn’t amount to a
when he shot the arrow. As a result, it demonstrates crime if someone’s religious feelings were hurt due to
that the accused lacked necessary care and caution on a statement which wasn’t meant to be offensive. For
his part. As a result, be considered liable. Option (c) is same reason (d) is incorrect. Not just the impact but
meaningless because the factual question is about the intent behind the message is taken into
Shavana's death and not about hunting an animal. consideration.
Option (d) is incorrect. The facts provide enough 59. (d) As per Supreme Court, a post/movie may well be
information to infer that Kushal is accountable in this offensive but in the absence of a deliberate or
case. malicious intent to outrage religious feelings, criminal
55. (c) As per the passage, an act done by an accident, will action cannot follow. Hence, (d) is correct. Therefore,
come under Section 80 of Indian Penal Code. In this (b) and (c) are eliminated. (a) is close, but (d) is better
case, the accused went with a view to killing Hyena and worded and the speech will not be considered as hate
heard a sound from a direction and fired a shot at its speech as Josephine had no intent. Hence, (d) is
direction. But later it was discovered that it was a preferred.
person, not Hyena. It was contended in the facts that 60. (a) As per the passage a case under section is attracted
Mahi had a bonafide intention to save people. Thus, when there is an act done to promote enmity “between
Option (c) is correct. Option (a) is incorrect as the different groups on religious ground”, and liability
statement generally provides for an argument purely under section 295A is attracted when a speech is made
based on the information given in the passage. Thus, with malicious intent. In the present case the priest
not considered. In comparison C is more complete; it gave the tape and CDs to the visitor which contained
tackles intention as well. Option (b) is incorrect as the demeaning remarks about community X. The remarks
reasoning given cannot be inferred from the facts. made by the priest against community X are
Option (d) is incorrect as the accused will not be held derogatory and thus will attract liability under section
liable and can claim defense under section 80 of IPC. 153 A. Hence, Option (a) is correct choice here. Option
56. (d) Section 80 exempts a person from criminal liability if, (b) is not correct as it has an element of “if” present in
the act must have been done without any criminal the reasoning which makes it suggestive rather
intention or knowledge; the act alleged to have been passage based. Option (c) is incorrect the reasoning
done against the accused must be lawful; the act must provided is beyond the passage. Thus, not correct.
have been done in a lawful manner by lawful means Option (d) is not correct as the facts do not state that
and with proper care and caution. The said act was the the priest's actions resulted in encouraging enmity
neither done with proper care and caution but also between two separate religions and fosters enmity
was unlawful. Thus, Option (d) is correct. Option (a) within the same religious group in general, disrupting
defends an unlawful act. Hence, not correct. It also public tranquilly. Thus, not correct.
does not determine whether or not the ruling given by 61. (c) The facts suggest that a complainant has been filed
the court is correct or not. Hence, not considered. alleging hate speech. The petitioner was also a part of
Option (b) is not correct as it ignores the aspect the the a PIL, which sought strict criminal action against such
act was unlawful in itself. Option (c) though correct in events which is going to be held in State of Uttar
reasoning wrongly supports the application of S. 80. Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. It can be
Hence, incorrect. inferred from the facts that in its order the court
57. (a) Option (a) is correct as to bring an act within the allowed the petition to file an appeal with the
meaning of the term accident used in section 80; an authorities against the likelihood of inflammatory
essential requirement is that the happening of the comments in the anticipated Dharm Sammelan
incident cannot be attributed to human fault. It is meetings going to be held at held in the State of Uttar
something happens out of ordinary course of things. In Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand. Thus, it
the present set of facts, on Dhanur's refusal, Chanda cannot be assumed that the court gave a precautionary
leveled the gun at him and fired a shot without measure and hence, Option (a) is incorrect. Option (c)
thinking twice. Hence, a case attributed to human fault is correct which states that, if similar meetings are held
and was deliberate. Thus, the accused demonstrates a in the states of Uttar Pradesh, Himachal Pradesh, and
complete lack of care and caution, and hence she Uttarakhand, and comparable remarks are made, it
cannot claim any benefits under Section 80 of the IPC. will not only disrupt public order, but will also amount
Option (b) is incorrect as an act of duty cannot be taken to various criminal offences. And hence allowed the
as a defense under section 80. Thus, incorrect. Option petition. Hence, correct. Option (d) would have been
(c) is correct but the Option (a) provides for a correct, but the passage does not explicitly state that
conclusive reasoning. Option (d) is not correct as the the PIL was filed with the intent of turning it into a
reasoning based on facts rather on the information matter under section 295A or 153A. It was filed with
presented in the passage. Moreover, Dhanur was not anticipation that such even could promote religious
218
disharmony amongst public. As a result, according to the passage The Anti-Doping
incorrect. Option (b) is incorrect because it states that Organization need not demonstrate knowing use on
the court issued "injunction orders," but the court just the part of the athlete in order to establish an anti-
ordered and permitted the petitioners to file an appeal doping rule violation. Thus, incorrect.
with the appropriate authorities. As a result, incorrect. 65. (a) Option (a) is correct because the facts indicate that
62. (d) Option (d) is correct. As per the passage, Section 153A Bhullar was unable to determine how MHA entered his
provides for “promoting enmity” between different system. As a result, he will be held accountable for
groups on religious grounds. And section 295A inadvertent doping. Inadvertent doping is caused by
provides for “curb speech made with ‘malicious contaminated or mislabelled supplements, poor
intent’. In the present acse, it was the case of the medical treatment, and, in the worst-case scenario,
complainant that the content of the movie is offensive sabotage. As a result, correct. Option (b) and (c) are
on the ground that it encourages angry behaviour eliminated because the passage implies strict liability
amongst them. But it can nowhere be deduced from on the accused. As a result, the accuser’s argument for
the passage that the content alleged was promoting the benefit of the doubt is irrelevant in this case. As a
enmity between “different religion” neither it can be result, both options B and C are rejected. Option (d) is
seen that the content was made with any malicious correct, but Option (a) provides a reasoned
intent. Thus, the court will not consider the complaint alternative; thus, Option (a) is chosen over Option (d).
since the plaintiff has no cause of action against the 66. (a) Option (a) correct as It is the definition of the “strict
respondents in this case. Option (c) is incorrect liability” principle: “it is not necessary that intent,
because it presents an answer based on facts rather fault, negligence, or knowing use on the athlete’s part
than the information provided in the passage. Film be demonstrated by the Anti-Doping Organization in
certification can be employed to defend the Producer order to establish an anti-doping rule violation. Thus,
against charges discussed in the passage but in the Chang cannot escape the liability even if the substance
facts no such case is made out against the Producer. is consumed out of prescription by the doctor. The
Option (a) is incorrect since the passage discusses passage provides that inadvertent doping disables an
promoting animosity among individuals on religious athlete. Thus, Option (d) and B are eliminated as the
grounds. The passage contains no information that can code prescribes for strict liability on the accused.
be used to instill feelings of enmity among persons. As Option (c) is not correct as the given statement
a result, incorrect. Option (b) is incorrect because it provides for suggestive answer i.e., reasoning not in
cannot be inferred from the facts that the dialogues line with the passage or as suggested in Option (a).
exhibited were made with the malicious intent of thus, eliminated.
promoting religious strife among a group of 67. (b) As per the passage, author states that finally, there is
individuals. As a result, incorrect. an argument for restorative, rather than simply
63. (d) Option (a) is not correct as the author in the passage, retributive justice. A framework must be created to
asserts for a framework to be created to constructively constructively counsel athletes to understand the real
counsel athletes to understand the real causes, causes, degrees of fault and administrative lapses.
degrees of fault and administrative lapses. Merely Merely subjecting them to an arduous legal process
subjecting them to an arduous legal process before before NADA is not a long-term solution. Here the
NADA is not a long-term solution. As a result, Option author is in support of giving accused of anti doping
(a) is eliminated because no steps have been taken; it reformative justice by counselling them making them
is simply an assumption made by the author for future understand the real cause. Thus, Option (b) is correct
perspective. As a result, Option (d) is a viable option in in this regard as it provides for the panel to not impose
this case. According to the context of the author's strict liability onto the accused and prescribe a
statement, the author calls for a framework that reformative punishment. Option (a) provides for the
focuses on rehabilitation rather than punishment. contrary. Thus, incorrect. Option (c) is not correct as
Option (c) states the opposite, so it is eliminated. the author’s argument in the passage’s context talks
Option (b) is incorrect because no such assumption on about the kind of punishment that the accused should
the author's part can be deduced from the text of the be given in these cases.
passage. As a result, incorrect. Option (d) is not correct. The passage states, “For this,
64. (a) Option (a) is correct. As per the passage, it is the the athlete first needs to establish how the prohibited
definition of the “strict liability” principle: “it is not substance entered his/her system. This burden is
necessary that intent, fault, negligence, or knowing use justifiably onerous”. Hence, the author suggests that it
on the athlete’s part be demonstrated by the Anti- is a burdensome process.
Doping Organization in order to establish an anti- 68. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer and it can be easily
doping rule violation.” Hence, Option (a) is correct as concluded from the statement, “This wide discretion
the rule pin the athlete on the contention that the should be used cautiously by the courts since with the
athlete is responsible for what is in his/her body. massive increase in the cases of socio-economic
Hence, correct. Option (b) iscorrect but Option (a) is offenses in India where the accused have fled the
better answer as it is more specific. We can say Option country to evade prosecution there is an increased
(a) includes Option (c). Option (c) though correct but chance of misuse of this preventive relief”. Option (a)
it is just a part of the rule of strict liability applied on is true as per the passage but it is incorrect since it fails
the athlete in case of doping. Option (a) provides for a to address the asked question of why the court should
conclusive answer. Option (d) is not correct as cautiously use the discretionary power of anticipatory
219
bail, and the same goes with Option (d) as well. Option the very fabric of democracy. Hence Option (b) is the
(c) is incorrect because it has no relation altogether correct choice.
with neither the question nor context and is vague is 73. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer. As per the given facts,
the truest sense. the two things we should take note to form a
69. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because the same can conclusive answer is that firstly he was on vacation
neither be concluded from the passage nor it is in the hence he did not have the right to perform his duties,
line with the given passage. The rest of the options are secondly he committed a mistake and still filed for
in consonance with the gist of the passage hence anticipatory bail to find another terrotist to kill despite
correct. Option (a) is incorrect as it is given in the 13 th being on vacation and as per the passage, “It has also
line of the passage that the rationale behind enacting been held that anticipatory bail cannot be granted to a
S. 438 was to safeguard the personal liberty of person to do something which is likely to be
individuals which makes both Option (a) and (d) as interpreted as a commission of a crime even if the
incorrect. Option (c) stands incorrect as 1st line of the offender intended it as something in the exercise of his
passage clearly states that Anticipatory bail, a rights”, hence X is not entitled to anticipatory bail,
preventive relief that was not originally included in thereby eliminating Option (b). Option (a) and Option
The Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973 ('CrPC'). (d) seems to be correct but C offers a more substantive
70. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer. Option (b) is incorrect answer and encapsulates both the ideas of A and D.
because it deals with extremity that every accused 74. (b) Is the correct answer as cannot be deduced from the
should be given the privileged of anticipatory bail; this passage. Option (a), (c) and (d) can be deduced from
cannot be deduced from the given statement. C and the passage itself from the following statements,
Dare incorrect due to the same reasoning and “delegated legislation can be considered as a
especially because of the word never & will never “necessary evil”, and an unfortunate but inevitable
respectively. Option (a) is the only correct choice and infringement of the doctrine of separation of powers”;
can be easily deduced with a plain reading, because as “The stability and consistency of the legal system is an
per the statement there are two circumstances where integral component of the rule of law, which forms
a person might have to submit to custody, remain in part of the “basic structure” of our Constitution.”;
prison for some days and then apply for bail, one of the “Regulators are likely to continue using the
circumstance is when he is accused in a false case and subordinate legislation route, as rules and regulations
the other case is when there is a reasonable belief that can be easily amended to address practical difficulties,
he will not abscond or misuse his liberty, and hence or to plug loopholes.”, respectively. As a result options
anticipatory bail is apt in both of these circumstances, (a), (c) and (d) stands incorrect.
else there will be infringement of personal liberty and 75. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer. Option (a) is true as
this is exactly what the Option (a) is trying to portray. per the passage and can be clearly deduced from the
71. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer, there is one last few lines of the passage and also the entire tone of
prerequisite as per the passage for the anticipatory the passage is to critique how delegated legislation is
bail to be given i.e., no arrest has been taken place yet impacting the corporate law realm. Option (b) is also
because the name itself of anticipatory bail suggests true as per the passage and can be deduced from the
that it is given before arrest. Option (a) is incorrect statement- “where an over-burdened legislature may
because X has not been accused yet, he cannot file for unduly overstep the permissible limits of delegation
anticipatory bail before a case has been filed. Option and may not rightly articulate the guiding principles
(c) is incorrect because Option (c) is arrested hence within which the delegated legislations must operate.
anticipatory bail cannot come into picture. Option (d) This note of caution is most relevant in the corporate
is incorrect because he is already under arrest for a law realm”. Option (c) is true and (d) is untrue, and the
different case, so how will he get the benefit of same can be observed from the statement-“While
anticipatory bail. delegated legislation in the corporate law realm may
72. (b) As per the passage, “. It has also been held that have its merits, it also results in frequent changes to
anticipatory bail cannot be granted to a person to do the law and many such overnight changes have
something which is likely to be interpreted as a significant implications on the structuring and
commission of a crime even if the offender intended it execution of corporate transactions.”
as something in the exercise of his rights.” Which leads 76. (d) Option (d) is the correct answer, and can be directly
us to conclude that the a person who shall receive the inferred from the given statement. Option (a) is
anticipatory bail in no circumstance would be allowed incorrect because it makes generalized statement that
to commit a crime in veil of ‘exercise of right’. The ‘parliament has failed’, which cannot be concluded
assertion in the given question becomes correct due to from the given statement. Option (b) is incorrect
the reason that it captures the true essence of the because although there is a mention in the passage,
aforementioned statement. The reason is individually there is nothing in the passage which can lead us to
true and can be deduced from the last line of the believe that ‘seldom’ delegated legislation does not
passage, and it can be said that the reason is the conforms with the ambit provided by the parent
correct explanation of the assertion because as per the legislation. Option (c) is factually correct, but nothing
passage, the very fact that a person is required to not in the passage suggests the same.
commit any offence when granted anticipatory bail 77. (c) Option (c) is the correct answer, and it can be
because in that case, individual rights would concluded from the statement –“However, given the
supersede the greater public interest, which destroys complexities and the practical considerations
220
involved, delegated legislation in the realm of 81. (b) Option (a) is inaccurate since the passage makes no
corporate law is here to stay.” Option (a) is incorrect mention of a judgment. As a result, inaccurate. Option
because the statement from which it has been (b) is true, as may be deduced from paragraph 2 of the
concluded does not have the context of ‘corporate law’. passage, which discusses article 21, that contains the
Option (b) is incorrect, it cannot be concluded that just right to privacy and the right to abortion under specific
because there are already laws in place, the same conditions. Option (c) is only partially correct because
eliminates the scope and requirement of delegated the Indian Constitution allows abortion under the
legislation. Option (d) is incorrect because nothing in fundamental right under Article 21 as right to life with
the passage suggests that delegated legislation and personal liberty can be deduced from the passage, but
corporate law has been closely intertwined, hence it existence of checks and balances placed, and a
can be straightaway eliminated. requirement to meet different needs of the society can
78. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer. Option (a) is incorrect nowhere be found in the passage. As a result,
because it is not at all related to the passage nor the inaccurate.
question asked. Option (c) is incorrect because it does Option (d) is partially true because the constitutional
not provide a substantive answer to the question right of women under abortion legislation may be
asked, and moreover the option is also intrinsically drawn from paragraph 2, but the portion where it
incorrect as per the passage. Option (d) is incorrect indicates that the MTP act does not enable a woman to
because the statement from which it is derived i.e., decide for herself whether or not to abort cannot be
“While delegated legislation in the corporate law inferred. As a result, inaccurate
realm may have its merits, it also results in frequent 82. (b) Assertion is correct as in relation to article as stated in
changes to the law and many such overnight changes Para 2, Right to privacy granted as a fundamental right
have significant implications on the structuring and that takes under its purview immunity from outside
execution of corporate transactions.”, does not talk interference in matters that are personal and intimate
about the ‘growth’ as mentioned in the passage. On such as marriage, child-rearing and the use of
basis of same statement Option (b) is correct answer. contraception. Thus, right to abortion comes under the
79. (a) Option (a) is the correct answer and the same can be purview of right to privacy and thus, cannot be
concluded from the statement, - “The SC has also curtailed.
highlighted the inherent danger in the process of The statement given in reason is correct as again para
delegation, where an over-burdened legislature may 1, states that there exists a continuous question on
unduly overstep the permissible limits of delegation woman's rights with regards to her will to abort, as is
and may not rightly articulate the guiding principles the abortion rights really a free right to a woman or is
within which the delegated legislations must operate.” it a conditional right and also whether women's right
Option (b) is incorrect as exception to the subtentive to abort or the foetus (unborn child's) rights to live
policy is given in the passage i.e. practical should be focused upon.
considerations. Thus it is eliminated. 10th line of the Both statements are correct and reason do stands as
passage states that however, given the complexities the correct explanation of A as assertion solidifies
and the practical considerations involved, delegated right to abortion whereas the reason also discuss
legislation in the realm of corporate law is here to stay. about right to abortion as a person's right to their own
Thus, Option (c) stands incorrect. 13th line of the body with "foetus's right to life".
passage states that while delegated legislation in the Therefore Option (b) is correct.
corporate law realm may have its merits, it also results 83. (b) Statement I is erroneous since it does not provide
in frequent changes to the law and many such for the right to life of the foetus. It solely discusses
overnight changes have significant implications on the women's issues. As a result, cannot be considered.
structuring and execution of corporate transactions. Statement III is similarly omitted.
Thus, Option (d) stands incorrect. Statement II is accurate because it gives a balanced
80. (c) Option (a) is not correct as according to the text of the answer to the subject of women's right to life and the
passage in para 2, Article 21 of the Constitution as right of the foetus to survive. As a result, accurate.
there is Right to privacy granted as a fundamental Statement IV is erroneous since no such information
right that takes under its purview Right to life with can be derived from MTP regulations stated in last
dignity is given which permits abortion for reasonable para of the passage. As a result, incorrect.
reasons for the dignified life of the woman and it is a Statement V is incorrect since it only speaks about
woman's absolute right to live with human women's health and not about the foetus, despite the
dignity. Thus, “refusal to grant permission cannot be fact that both are crucial to the question. As a result,
treated as violation” as it is not explicitly discussed in not considered.
the passage’s context. Therefore Option (c) is Therefore, Option (b) is correct.
considered as it more relevant with the information 84. (c) Option (a) is not correct as the passage only talks
given in the text of the passage. about the provisions of MTP under which a women can
Option (b) is not correct as article 21 includes foetus’s terminate her pregnancy but it is not specified that it
right to live is still an debatle issue, according to para can be terminated at any stage. Thus, incorrect.
1. Hence, not correct. as Option (d) provides for Option (c) is correct as under article 21 as stated in
miscarriage done as culpable homicide which ha snot para 2, a women has right to abortion. Thus, correct.
been asked in the factual query. Thus, incorrect. Option (b) is also incorrect as according to the text of
the passage, the information provided for the intent of
221
legislation to provide the medical field, doctors, wealth, clearly indicating a skewed distribution in
medical staff, nurses 'a safeguard' from the favor of a small percentage of the population. Option
investigations under IPC as the laws were very strict (d) is designed to mislead by suggesting that the
and many illegal and unsafe abortions were middle class holds most of the wealth, which is not
done. Thus, not correct. supported by the passage's data.
Option (d) is incorrect as the passage makes no 89. (b) A is a trap, suggesting that economic inequality does
reference with SC rulings. Thus, cannot be considered. not significantly impact power dynamics, which is
contrary to the passage’s implications. Option (b) is
SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING correct. The passage indicates that growing
inequalities concentrate power and influence in the
85. (c) A is a trap, suggesting an equal increase in wealth hands of a tiny few, affecting politics, commerce, and
across all social strata, which contradicts the passage's policies. Option (c) might mislead by implying a
indication of a widening wealth gap. Option (b) is collaborative effort between politicians and
designed to mislead by implying stability in the corporations to address inequality, but the passage
billionaires' wealth, whereas the passage explicitly suggests the opposite. Option (d) is designed to
states their wealth has doubled since 2020. Option (c) mislead by implying economic equality in politics,
is correct as the passage notes a stark contrast which the passage does not support.
between the doubling of wealth for the top five 90. (d) A is a subtle trap, suggesting that economic disparities
billionaires and the decrease in real incomes for the lead to equality in service access, which is contrary to
majority, indicating a widening wealth gap. Option (d) the passage's implications of inequality. Option (b)
is subtly incorrect. It acknowledges growth in might mislead by implying a lack of correlation
billionaires' wealth but incorrectly suggests an between economic disparities and access to services,
increase in the general populace's real incomes, which but the passage suggests a direct connection. Option
the passage contradicts by mentioning a drop in real (c) is designed to mislead by suggesting that economic
incomes for 4.8 billion people. disparities positively impact access for
86. (c) A is a trap, as it suggests a direct and positive underprivileged groups, which is not supported by the
correlation between corporate profits and workers' passage. Option (d) is correct. The passage indicates
incomes, which is contrary to the passage's that economic inequality, specifically income and
implications. Option (b) might seem plausible but is wealth disparities, leads to unequal access to health
incorrect. It implies a positive impact of corporate services, educational opportunities, and other
profits on workers' wages, which contradicts the essential services.
passage's indication of a decrease in real incomes. 91. (b) The passage uses the examples of violence in
Option (c) is correct. The passage mentions a Karnataka to illustrate the severe consequences of
significant increase in corporate profits alongside a societal and communal prejudice against inter-faith
decrease in workers' real incomes, implying that the relationships. These examples serve to underscore the
profit increase comes at the cost of the workers' argument that the freedom of choice in relationships is
income. Option (d) is designed to mislead by being compromised by such intolerance. Option (a) is
suggesting that there is no correlation between misleading because the passage doesn't argue that
corporate profits and workers' incomes, which is not inter-faith relationships lead to violence, but rather
supported by the passage's contrasting presentation that violence is a consequence of societal attitudes
of these two phenomena. towards these relationships. Option (c), while
87. (a) A is correct. The fact that it would take 476 years to relevant, is not the primary way the argument is
exhaust their wealth at the current rate of constructed. Option (d) is incorrect as it contradicts
consumption implies that their wealth accumulation the passage's depiction of societal attitudes as being
rate is substantially higher than their rate of intolerant towards inter-faith relationships.
consumption. Option (b) might mislead by implying 92. (b) The passage specifically mentions the misuse of
equilibrium between accumulation and consumption, technology to broadcast crimes against inter-faith
but the passage suggests a disparity in favor of couples and the need for police to enhance their
accumulation. Option (c) is a subtle trap, suggesting cybercrime capabilities. This suggests a link between
that consumption is outpacing accumulation, which is cybercrime handling and the broader issue of violence
incorrect given the context of the passage indicating a against inter-faith couples, which could contribute to
476-year sustainability. Option (d), though it might the low conviction rate. Option (a) is a trap because
seem plausible, is misleading. The passage does not while legal frameworks are important, they are not
provide information on recent changes in explicitly linked to cybercrime in the passage. Option
consumption rates, only the current state. (c), though plausible, is not directly supported by the
88. (c) A is a trap, as it suggests a balanced wealth passage's focus on cybercrime and police capabilities.
distribution, which is contrary to the passage's Option (d) is misleading because, while stigma is a
indication of significant inequality. B might seem significant issue, it's not highlighted as a primary cause
plausible but is incorrect. It implies equitable wealth related to cybercrime and police effectiveness in the
accumulation, which contradicts the passage's passage.
information about the concentration of wealth in the 93. (c) The passage explicitly mentions the abysmal
hands of a few. Option (c) is correct. The passage conviction rate in India for crimes against women,
mentions that the top 10% owns 77% of the nation’s highlighting this as a significant issue. Thus, an
222
improvement in the conviction rate, especially for Option (c) is incorrect because it refers to adolescents,
crimes against inter-faith couples, would be a direct not toddlers, introducing a subtle trap by shifting the
indicator of the effectiveness of the criminal-justice focus to a different age group. Option (d), similar to C,
machinery's response. Option (a), while important, is distracts with information about young adults rather
more about societal change than a direct measure of than toddlers, making it a less suitable choice.
the criminal-justice system's effectiveness. Option (b) 98. (b) Option (b) is correct because it directly addresses the
is a trap, as the number of arrests does not necessarily internal aspect of feeling useful, which is personal
correlate with effective justice or convictions. Option fulfillment, a key factor in mitigating feelings of
(d), implementing stricter laws, is important but worthlessness and depression. It emphasizes the
doesn't directly measure the effectiveness of law quality of the experience over quantity or external
enforcement and the judicial process, which is more validation, aligning with the passage's focus on the
aligned with conviction rates. intrinsic benefits of feeling useful. Option (a), while
94. (c) The statement by State Home Minister G relevant, is a trap because it focuses on quantity rather
Parameshwara is used in the passage to underscore than the quality or impact of the activities. Option (c)
the perceived inadequacy of the government's introduces a subtle trap by suggesting external
response to inter-faith violence. This is evident as the validation (recognition from others) as the most
passage critiques the government's actions, or lack critical factor, which the passage does not emphasize
thereof, in addressing such issues. Option (a) is as the primary means of mitigating negative feelings.
misleading because the passage does not portray the Option (d) misleads by focusing on the variety of roles,
statement as illustrating commitment to justice. which is not directly linked to the impact of usefulness
Option (b), suggesting a passive stance, is a trap on feelings of worthlessness and depression as
because the passage focuses more on the inadequacy described in the passage.
of actions rather than passivity. Option (d) is incorrect 99. (d) Option (d) is correct because it suggests that the
as the passage does not specifically link the minister's absence of feeling useful is linked to negative
statement to enhancing cybercrime capabilities, psychological states, like worthlessness and
although it mentions the need for such enhancements depression, rather than serving as a buffer against
elsewhere. loneliness and physical decline. This option indirectly
95. (b) The passage implies that political leadership and party challenges the idea by highlighting the consequences
stance have not been effective in dealing with inter- of not feeling useful, which could imply that simply
faith violence and communal intolerance in Karnataka. feeling useful may not be enough to combat loneliness
It mentions that leaders and parties have sometimes and physical decline if feelings of worthlessness and
shown tacit support or have equivocated on the issue. depression are present. Option (a) is a trap because it
This suggests that such equivocation has contributed is irrelevant to the discussion about older adults.
to a lack of decisive action against these issues. Option Option (b) is incorrect because it focuses on
(a) is incorrect as the passage does not suggest adolescents, which does not address the question.
effective reduction in violence. Option (c) is a trap; Option (c) is misleading because it talks about adults
while it might seem plausible, the passage implies that in general but does not directly counter the idea that
political stances do influence the situation. Option (d) feeling useful can buffer against loneliness and
is misleading because the passage does not indicate physical decline in older adults.
that political parties have uniformly condemned such 100. (b) Option (b) is correct because it broadly and accurately
violence or that this has led to improved harmony. summarizes the author's main argument, emphasizing
96. (a) The author's claim that campaigns addressing the the evolving nature of the need to feel useful
stigma attached to victims of sexual violence are throughout all stages of life. This Option captures the
necessary rests on the assumption that such victims essence of the passage that the desire to be useful is
face blame or stigma, which can be a barrier to seeking not static but grows and changes with individuals as
justice. This assumption is implied in the passage they age. Option (a), while relevant, is too narrow in its
when discussing the challenges in addressing violence focus on personal growth and autonomy, failing to
against women and inter-faith couples. Option (b), encompass the full spectrum of usefulness discussed
though relevant, is not as directly linked to the in the passage. Option (c) is incorrect because it limits
author's claim about stigma. Option (c) is incorrect as the role of usefulness to preventing feelings of
the passage does not suggest that sexual violence is worthlessness in adults, which is only a part of the
predominantly caused by inter-faith relationships. broader discussion. Option (d) introduces a
Option (d) is a trap; while campaigns might contribute misleading distinction between personal fulfillment
to a broader solution, the passage does not make a and legacy in later life stages, which does not align
direct causal link between campaigns and an increase with the passage's emphasis on usefulness as a
in conviction rates. fundamental human desire across all ages.
97. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer because it directly ties 101. (b) Option (b) is the correct answer as it aligns with the
the concept of feeling useful to the development of passage's indication that adolescents' engagement in
confidence and autonomy in toddlers, which is vital for academic and extracurricular activities fulfills their
their growth. This choice clearly links the need to feel need to feel useful by enhancing their sense of value
useful with positive developmental outcomes. Option and significance to themselves and to others. This
(a), while tempting, merely describes toddlers' actions Option directly correlates the activities with the
without connecting them to developmental benefits. internal benefit of feeling useful, which is the focus of
223
the passage. Option (a), while possibly true, is more of 104. (b) The correct answer, Option (b), directly undermines
a byproduct rather than the core impact of feeling the claim that Operation Lotus has been stalled by
useful, making it a subtle trap. Option (c) shifts focus suggesting that the BJP might still be successfully
to future outcomes rather than the immediate effect on inducing defections, which is the core strategy of
adolescents' need to feel useful, making it incorrect. Operation Lotus. This information implies that the
Option (d), although appealing, introduces the concept trust vote's outcome hasn't deterred potential
of identity crises, which, while related to adolescence, defections, directly challenging the claim of stalling.
does not specifically address how these activities Option (a) might seem relevant, but public
impact their need to feel useful according to the dissatisfaction within the opposition doesn't
passage. necessarily translate to a successful Operation Lotus
without evidence of defection. Option (c), while
102. (c) The fundamental human desire to feel useful and indicative of BJP's active presence, does not directly
needed throughout various life stages. relate to the political maneuvering of Operation Lotus.
A) The importance of academic achievements during Option (d) shows a general increase in BJP support but
adolescence. does not specifically indicate that Operation Lotus—
This option focuses specifically on academic aimed at engineering defections—is ongoing or
achievements during adolescence, which is only one successful. Therefore, Option (b) is the strongest
aspect of the broader theme discussed in the passage. Option because it points to actual political shifts that
While academic achievements may contribute to a would directly counter the claim of stalling Operation
sense of usefulness for some individuals during this Lotus.
stage of life, the passage addresses a wider range of 105. (b) The correct answer, Option (b), directly addresses the
experiences and stages beyond just adolescence. relationship between Hemant Soren's arrest and the
B) The role of caregiving in middle age. potential recalibration of BJP's strategies to capitalize
This option highlights the role of caregiving on any shifts in public sentiment within areas that are
specifically in middle age, which again is only one crucial to Soren's base. Understanding the BJP's
aspect of the broader theme discussed in the passage. position in these areas is key to evaluating how the
While caregiving may indeed be an example of how arrest might alter their approach to consolidating
individuals find usefulness in middle age, the passage power or gaining new supporters. Option (a), while
explores a variety of ways in which people seek to feel seemingly pertinent, offers a broader perspective on
useful throughout their lives. Soren's popularity but lacks the direct correlation to
C) The fundamental human desire to feel useful and how the BJP might adjust its strategies in response to
needed throughout various life stages. the arrest. Option (c) is a distractor, focusing on
This option correctly identifies the central theme of historical data from other states that may not reflect
the passage. It captures the overarching idea that the the unique political dynamics in Jharkhand. Option (d),
desire to feel useful and needed is a fundamental regarding the number of political leaders arrested on
aspect of human experience that transcends different similar charges, might hint at a pattern but does not
stages of life. specifically inform on the BJP's strategic adjustments
D) The impact of retirement on mental health. in the wake of Soren's arrest. Hence, B is the most
While the impact of retirement on mental health is direct measure of the arrest's impact on BJP strategies,
mentioned in the passage as one potential considering it reflects the party's potential to exploit
consequence of not feeling useful, it is not the main or adjust to the changing political landscape directly
focus or central theme of the passage. The passage is tied to Soren's support base.
more broadly about the pursuit of usefulness across 106. (c) The correct answer, Option (c), directly correlates
the lifespan, rather than specifically about retirement. with the information provided about the frequent
Correct Answer: C) The fundamental human desire to changes in chief ministership, suggesting a lack of
feel useful and needed throughout various life stages. political stability and the presence of significant
103. (d) The correct answer, Option (d), directly links Champai rivalries that lead to these changes. This inference
Soren’s popularity within the Adivasi community to logically follows from the premise that numerous
the strategic advantage his selection as successor changes in leadership within a short span of time
would provide, making it the strongest piece of indicate underlying instability and contention among
evidence for consolidating support among this key political factions. Option (a) introduces the idea of
demographic. Option (a), although seemingly strong, collaboration and coalition, which, while possible in a
only indicates past achievements without directly multi-party system, doesn't necessarily follow from
tying them to current political support. Option (b) the premise of frequent leadership changes—these
suggests a close relationship between Hemant and changes more likely indicate competition rather than
Champai Soren but does not specifically address the collaboration. Option (b) addresses the electorate's
strategy of garnering Adivasi support. Option (c), behavior, suggesting volatility, but the passage focuses
while relevant, is speculative about future actions on leadership changes rather than election results,
rather than evidencing an existing strategic move. The making this inference less direct. Option (d) discusses
key to the correct answer is its direct measurement of economic policies, which is a leap from discussing
Champai Soren's current appeal to the Adivasi political leadership stability; consistency in economic
community, which is the most concrete evidence of policy isn't directly related to the frequency of chief
strategic alignment with Hemant Soren's goals. ministership changes. Therefore, Option (c) is the
224
most defensible inference as it directly addresses the Number of employees in the Accounts department of
implications of the described political dynamics. the Delhi branch = 150
107. (c) The correct answer, Option (c), is the most defensible Number of employees in the HR department of the
because the passage suggests that Hemant Soren's Mumbai branch =
150
= 75
2
arrest, under charges seen as politically motivated,
Remaining employees in Delhi branch = 576 – (94 +
could serve as a rallying point for the opposition. This
150) = 332
event, framed as part of a struggle against perceived
Number of employees in Operations of the Delhi
injustices, is likely to unify the opposition as they
branch = 332/2 = 166
prepare for the general elections, positioning them
Number of employees working in Sales department of
against a common adversary. Option (a) suggests 75×100
fragmentation, which is contrary to the typical effect of Delhi branch = = 100
75
a perceived political martyrdom, which more often Number of employees in the HR department of the
unites rather than divides. Option (b), focusing on anti- Delhi Branch = 166 – 100 = 66
corruption, doesn't directly follow from the passage, Number of employees in the Accounts department of
which implies the arrest is viewed as unjust by the the Mumbai branch =
opposition, not a cue to adopt anti-corruption as their 624 – (156+75+78+117) = 198
central narrative. Option (d) posits a shift to economic The table given below shows the exact values:
issues, but this doesn't directly address the unity and Mumbai
Department Delhi Branch
strategy of the opposition in response to the arrest; it's Branch
an issue-based shift rather than a strategic or unity- Finance 94 156
based one. Therefore, rallying around Soren as a HR 66 75
symbol of their collective struggle is the most logical Sales 100 78
and direct outcome in terms of unity and strategy for
the opposition. Accounts 150 198
108. (b) The correct answer, Option (b), is the most defensible Operations 166 117
because the passage specifically addresses concerns Total 576 624
around the BJP's strategy known as Operation Lotus,
which involves engineering defections from rival 109. (a) Required difference = (166 + 150) – (75 + 78) = 163
camps to gain power. This tactic is highlighted as a 110. (c) Required percentage =
150
× 100 = 26% (approx.)
primary concern due to its implications for democratic 576
processes and political stability. Option (a), regarding 111. (a) Required sum = (94 + 156) + (100 + 78) = 428
social media campaigns, while plausible as a general 112. (d) Required ratio = 66:198 = 1:3
100
concern, is not mentioned in the passage and thus does 113. (b) Required percentage = × 100 = 8.33%
1200
not directly relate to the expressed concerns about the 114. (b) Required sum = [
100+166
]+ [
75+117
] = 133 + 96 = 229
BJP's tactics in Jharkhand. Option (c), focusing on 2 2
Hint [115-120]:
economic development, suggests a positive strategy
Let the number of silver medals won by Pakistan be x
that does not align with the concern over potentially
Number of bronze medal won by Pakistan = 3x
undemocratic tactics. Option (d), about implementing
Since the ratio between the number of gold medals
laws to suppress opposition, is a serious concern but is
won by China and Pakistan is 5:4
not the focus of the passage, which centers on the
Let the number of gold medals won by China and
specific strategy of inducing defections to alter the
Pakistan be 5y and 4y respectively.
balance of power. Therefore, B directly reflects the
The number of gold medals won by Pakistan is equal
passage's concern with the BJP's political maneuvers
to the bronze medal won by China = 4y
that challenge the integrity of the political process in
Number of gold medals won by India = 5y + 10
Jharkhand.
Number of gold medals won by Bangladesh = 5y + 10
– 13 = 5y – 3
SECTION - E : QUANTITATIVE TECHNIQUES Number of bronze medal won by India = 5y – 3 + 1 =
Hint [109-114]: 5y – 2
Total number of employees in the office = 1200 Number of silver medal won by India = 2x
48
Number of employees in the Delhi branch = × 1200 Ratio of silver medal of Bangladesh : Ratio of bronze
100
= 576 medal of China = 1:2
Number of employees in the Mumbai branch = 1200 – 𝑆𝑖𝑙𝑣𝑒𝑟 𝑚𝑒𝑑𝑎𝑙 𝑜𝑓 𝐵𝑎𝑛𝑔𝑙𝑎𝑑𝑒𝑠ℎ 1
=
4𝑦 2
576 = 624
silver medal of Bangladesh = 2y
Number of employees in the finance department of the
1 The following table shows the values:
Mumbai branch = × 624 = 156 Country Gold Silver Bronze
4
Number of employees in the sales department of the India 5y + 10 2x 5y - 2
1
Mumbai branch = × 624 = 78
8 China 5y 21 4y
Number of employees working in the Finance
Pakistan 4y x 3x
department of the Delhi branch = 250 – 156 = 94
Number of employees working in Operations in the Bangladesh 5y – 3 2y 26
Mumbai branch =
150
× 78 = 117 It is given that,
100
225
The number of Gold medals won by China and India is 4x = 64
25% more than the number of gold medals won by x = 16
Pakistan and Bangladesh. Number of silver medals won by Pakistan = x = 16
5y + 10 + 5y =
125
[4𝑦 + 5𝑦 − 3] Number of bronze medals won by Pakistan = 3x =
100
3(16) = 48
40y + 40 = 45y – 15
Number of silver medal won by India = 2x = 2(16) = 32
5y = 55
The following table shows the exact values:
y = 11
Number of gold medals won by India = 5y + 10 = 5(11) Country Gold Silver Bronze
+ 10 = 65 India 65 32 53
Number of gold medals won by China = 5y = 5(11) = China 55 21 44
55 Pakistan 44 16 48
Number of gold medals won by Pakistan = 4y = 4(11)
Bangladesh 52 22 26
= 44
Number of gold medals won by Bangladesh = 5y – 3 =
5(11) – 3 = 52 115. (d) Required sum = 52 + 22 + 26 = 100
32+21
Number of bronze medals won by China = 4y = 4(11) 116. (b) Required percentage = × 100 = 100%
53
= 44 65+55+44+52
117. (c) Required average = = 54
Number of silver medal won by Bangladesh = 2y = 4
2(11) = 22 118. (a) Total cash prize = 44 × 50000 + 16 × 30000 + 48 ×
Number of bronze medal won by India = 5y – 2 = 5(11) 20000 = 36.4 lakhs
– 2 = 53 119. (d) Required ratio = (65 + 32 + 53) : (55 + 21 + 44) =
Number of medals won by Pakistan = 108 150:120 = 5:4
4y + x + 3x = 108 120. (a) Required difference = (53 + 48) – (16 + 22) = 63
4x = 108 – 44
226