Model Exam 2 (Hawassa)
Model Exam 2 (Hawassa)
Model Exam 2 (Hawassa)
12. The stage of prenatal development (from uterine implantation to 8 weeks) characterized by
major body organ and systems (respiratory, digestive and nervous system) is called.
A) The germinal stage C) Fetal Stage
20. At which stage of child development does the child feel that everybody is looking at them
and they become conscious?
A) Infant C) Adolescence
B) Childhood D) Adulthood
21. Adolescents develop the ability to think about social issue concepts more generally referred
to as
A) Socialization C) Abstract resealing
B) Social cognition D) Metacognition
22. Changes in the adolescents conceptions of moral, political and religious issues is primarily a
result of
A) Emotional autonomy C) Behavioral autonomy
B) Physical autonomy D) Cognitive autonomy
23. One of the following is not the developmental and psychosocial problems of adolescents?
A) Pregnancy C) Education
B) Substance use D) Injury and death
24. Which of the following is not a risk factor for adolescent depression?
A) Family history of depression C) High academic achievement
B) Substance abuse D) Chronic illness
25. Which one of the following is not a developmental function of adolescence?
A) Business selection
B) Achieve object stabilization
C) Development of self-identity
D) Accepting physical changes
26. In which period of development comprises each of the following characteristics like
establishment of independence, development of identity and abstract thinking?
A) Middle childhood
B) Late childhood
C) Adolescence
D) Early adulthood
27. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the physical development of
adolescents?
A) Development of secondary sex symptoms
B) Increase in physical activities and abilities
C) Increase in muscular strength
D) Bodily proportion has change
28. Which one of the following is the appropriate characteristic of instructional evaluation?
A) It makes difficult to quantify the behavioral changes achieved
B) Cannot be implemented in the classroom environment
C) Concerned with the quantitative, qualitative and value judgment of behavior
D) Measure only the cognitive aspect of behavioral changes
29. What type of test is recommendable if the purpose is to determine possessions of
prerequisite skills and degree of mastery of course objectives?
A) Diagnostic test C) Predictive test
B) Placement test D) Tests of guidance and counseling
30. Which one of the following step comes at the end in the preparation of classroom
achievement tests?
A) Determining what to be assessed in advance.
B) Developing a test blue print/ table of specification
C) Preparing the relevant test items
D) Selecting the appropriate test format
36. Which one of the following is the characteristic of alternate form of reliability estimate?
A) Administering the same test twice at a certain time interval
B) Making a balance between the content and the behavioral construct
C) Computing a correlation between the first and the second test
D) Computing a correlation coefficient between two forms of a test
37. The preferable test format in measuring learners complex learning outcomes such as
selecting, interpreting and presenting ideas is,
A) Essay/Subjective tests C) Multiple choices
B) Matching D) True-False/ Alternative response
38. If the time gap between different tests is relatively long, which schedule of reinforcement is
better to force students to study frequently?
A)Fixed ratio B) Variable ratio C) Fixed interval D) Variable interval
39. The educational implication of social learning theory is___________________
A) Modeling appropriate behaviors by teachers and parents
B) Using shaping to develop complex behaviors
C) Use punishment as the last option to modify student behavior
D) Teach students starting from the whole topic as oppose to from parts
40. The followings are names that describe social learning except _____________ learning
A) vicarious B) observational C) indirect D) direct
41. The focal area of educational psychology that deals with the nature of learning and how
learning take place is:
A) the learner C) the learning situation
B) the learning process D) the teaching situation
42. If Mr. Beka appreciates the classroom management strategies that help students self-regulate their
behavior, he advocates ______________ approach to classroom management
A) cognitive B) behavioral C) socio-cognitive D) instrumental
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43. Teachers who value behavioral approach to classroom management, use the following
classroom strategies except one:
A) Ignoring students’ misbehavior, if it is not interfere significantly with learning
B) Cueing students about their awareness of the misbehavior
C) Providing differential reinforcement for more appropriate behaviors
D) Using conflict resolution by guiding individuals involved to a mutually agreeable solution
44. The sampling technique that is more appropriate to select sample from population like
commercial sex workers is _____________ sampling
X 3 1 51. 2Collecting 2 5 2
personal letters
from participants
during research
data gathering
is___________
method of data
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collection
A) Interview
B)
Observation
C)
Questionnaire
D) Document
analysis
52. Which one of the
following
instrument for
data collection is
used for
quantitative
research?
A) Close-ended
questionnaire
C)
Observation
B) Unstructured
interview
D) Document
analysis
53. Which one of the
following
measures taken
by the researcher
can helps us to
increase the
response rate of
the participants
filling the
questionnaire?
A) Having a
good
sampling
frame
C) Selecting
large
representative
8
sample
B) Using
rigorous
administratio
n procedures
D) None of
the above
9
new data
55. Which one of
the following is
the quantitative
measurement
variable?
A) Gender of
the
participan
ts
C) Age
of the
participan
ts
B) Marital
status of
the
participan
ts D)
Hair
colors of
the
participan
ts
56. Which one of
the following is
a characteristic
of interval scale
of
measurement?
C) It does
not have
the
capacity
to
measure
the
complete
absence
of the trait
D) In interval
measurem
ent scale,
10
numbers
can be
multiplied
and
divided
directly
It possesses all
attributes of
measurement
Y 9 6 8 10 12 5
1 7 6
2 5 5
3 2 1
4 4 3
5 3 4
6 1 2
58. What is the mean and median of the following data distribution respectively?
Class 19.5-29.5 29.5- 39.5 39.5- 49.5 49.5- 59.5 59.5- 69.5 69.5- 79.5
boundaries
F 5 6 8 6 4 1
A) 44.83 and 45.5 B) 45.83 and 45.5 C) 44.83 and 44.5 D) 44.5 and 46.5
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C) Dawit thinks that the reason her brother is never able to hold a steady job is that he’s
lazy and quick to get angry with others.
D) Solan says that the only reason for his recent van accident is that the road he was
traveling on that day was wet from a recent rainfall.
60. People will be most likely to change their attitudes about smoking if an anti smoking
advertisement
A) Uses extremely graphic pictures of how smoke can harm the body and warns of the
risks of smoking.
B) Gives people subliminal messages about the risks of smoking as well as
recommendations of how to quit.
C) Uses graphic pictures of the damages of smoking on the body and then provides
specific recommendations on how to quit smoking.
D) Uses success stories of how people quit smoking.
61. Under which of the following conditions would people be most likely to vote for a political
candidate? They
A) Like the candidate’s policies but have negative feelings toward him or her.
B) Know little about the candidate’s policies but have positive feelings toward him or
her.
C) See subliminal ads supporting the candidate on national television.
D) See television ads supporting the candidate while they are distracted by their
children.
62. Which of the following statements regarding Sherif’s (1936) study of perceptions of the
auto kinetic effect is true?
A) Participants conformed publicly but not privately.
B) Participants did conform, but the effects of this conformity were short lived as they
reverted to their previous, individually given responses once they were no longer part
of a group.
C) Participants conformed because they were in a group with their friends, and they
simply wanted to fit in with the group.
D) Participants conformed because they believed the other people’s responses were
accurate.
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63. Which of the following illustrates the role played by normative social influence in the
obedience of Milgram’s participants?
A) When other “teachers” (actually confederates) refused to continue with the study,
participants’ obedience rates declined significantly.
B) Men and women exhibited similar levels of obedience in the research.
C) The “learner” (actually a confederate) announced before the study began that he had a
preexisting heart condition.
D) Many participants showed signs of nervous laughter during the course of the study.
64. All of the following are examples of informational social influence except
A) You are running a race, but because you are unsure of the route, you wait to check
which of two roads the other runners follow.
B) You’ve just started work at a new job, and a fire alarm goes off; you watch your
coworkers to see what to do.
C) When you get to college, you change the way you dress so that you “fit in” better—
that is, so that people will like you more.
D) You ask your adviser which classes you should take next semester.
65. Which of the following is the best example of altruistic behavior?
A) Julie puts a dollar in the church collection basket because everyone else donates.
B) Robert volunteers at his son’s school to help out his class.
C) Jawal anonymously donates $100 to a homeless shelter.
D) Mary helps her husband with the dishes with the hope that he will cook dinner more
often.
66. Which of the following is not a reason why being in a good mood tends to increase
prosocial behavior?
A) Good moods make us view situations more positively, and thus we are more likely to
give people the benefit of the doubt.
B) Helping prolongs good moods.
C) Good moods make us pay more attention to the possible rewards for helping.
D) Good moods increase how much attention we pay to ourselves, which makes us more
likely to act according to our values.
67. According to frustration-aggression theory,
A) When people are frustrated, they almost always become aggressive.
B) When people behave aggressively, they feel frustrated.
C) Frustration increases the likelihood of aggression.
D) Frustration caused by deprivation causes aggression.
68. Suppose you’re a bartender and you have a stereotype about people with full-arm tattoos:
You think they are more likely to get into fights at your bar than people without tattoos.
Your perception illustrates which aspect(s) of stereotypes?
A) You are noticing people who confirm your stereotype and overlooking those who
don’t.
B) You are paying attention to nonaggressive people with tattoos.
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C) You are paying attention to aggressive people without tattoos.
D) Your stereotype is accurate.
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A) the ability to influence a
group in goal achievement
B) keeping order and
consistency in the midst of
change
C) implementing the vision and
strategy provided by
management
D) coordinating and staffing the
organization and handling day-
to-day problems
E) not a relevant variable in
modern organizatio
Leadership is best defined as
________.
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A) the ability to influence a
group in goal achievement
B) keeping order and
consistency in the midst of
change
C) implementing the vision and
strategy provided by
management
D) coordinating and staffing the
organization and handling day-
to-day problems
E) not a relevant variable in
modern organizatio
Leadership is best defined as
________.
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A) the ability to influence a
group in goal achievement
B) keeping order and
consistency in the midst of
change
C) implementing the vision and
strategy provided by
management
D) coordinating and staffing the
organization and handling day-
to-day problems
E) not a relevant variable in
modern organizatio
71. Toyota motor co. assigns female engineers to an automobile design team to make sure that the
needs of potential female customers are met in the design of the car. This is an example of:
A) Bias C) Stereotyping
B) Managing diversity D) The ombudsman effect
72. Which of the following is not an important aspect of employee involvement?
A) Employee motivation B)Employee empowerment
C) Team and Teamwork D) Keeping employee morale down
73. Which of the options is incorrect with respect to the importance of ‘employee motivation’?
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A) It promotes employee involvement C) Reduces absenteeism
B) It promotes job satisfaction D) Increases absenteeism
77. Msr.X has an eating disorder known as anorexia nervosa, what is the goal of the guidance
and counseling used to address Msr. X's problem?
A) Ultimate goal of counseling C) Immediate goal
B) Intermediate goal of counseling D) Short term goal
78. Which one of the following is an ethical concept and the legal duty of the therapist not to
disclose information about a client?
A)Informed consent C) Professional Disclosure
B ) confidentiality D) Scope of Practice
79. Which of the following is the responsibility of the counselor to break confidentiality in order
to warn foreseeable and identifiable victims of potential violence?
A) Duty to Warn refers C) Professional Disclosure
B) Scope of Practice D) Confidentiality
80. All are strategies to establish an effective relationship in the initial phase, except
A) Observe nonverbal communication
B) Ensure physical comfort of the counselee
C) Interrupt the individual when he/she is talking
D) Always address the individual by his or her name
81. Which one of the following is refers to communicating honestly with those that counselors
come into contact with in order to take action for their clients?
A) Fidelity B) Justice C) Beneficence D) Veracity
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82. Which of the following alternatives describes the middle-phase counseling process in the
right order?
A) Structuring the relationship ___Diagnosis __ Prognosis
B) Prognosis __ Diagnosis ___Treatment
C) Structuring the relationship __ Diagnosis __ Prognosis
D) Diagnosis __ Prognosis __ Treatment
83. Of the following theories one gives less emphasis for the use of different techniques in
counseling?
A) Behaviorism
B) psychoanalysis
C) Person Centered therapy.
D) Cognitive therapy
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91. In northern part of Ethiopia, there was a conflict between the Ethiopian government
and TPLF. Due to the conflict, many people exposed to several psychological
problem. Which one of the following anxiety disorder is probably most common
during diagnosis?
A) separation anxiety disorder C) social anxiety disorder
B) post-traumatic stress disorder D) . specific phobia
92. Which of the following types of bipolar disorder involve at least one lifetime
hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode
A) bipolar I disorder
B) bipolar II disorder
C) Cyclothymic disorder
D) Psychotic disorder
93. Which of following symptoms is must present, in order to diagnose major depressive
disorder
A) insomnia B) loss of energy C) loss of interest D) agitation
94. Neologisms, is typically inferred from the individual's speech who suffered from
schizophrenia, which refers
A) inability to organize ideas
B) loose associations
C) Answers to questions may be completely unrelated
D) producing new, seemingly meaningless words.
95. All are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, except
A) disorganized speech B) alogia C) anhedonia D) blunted affect
96. All are the advantages of diagnosis, except
A) Enables accurate communication
B) Facilitate research on causes and treatment
C) Help to describe base rates, causes and treatments
D) It reduce the probability to use assessment techniques
97. Which of the following perspective claims that typically problems in brain anatomy,
brain chemistry & Genetics causes abnormal behavior
A) medical model C) psychodynamic model
B) behavior model D) cognitive model
98. All are grossly disorganized motor behavior characterized by individual diagnosed
with schizophrenia except
A) maintaining a rigid, inappropriate or bizarre posture
B) Repeated stereotyped behaviors & movements
C) Purposeless and excessive motor activity without obvious cause
D) inability to experience pleasure
99. Which of the following is true regarding hypomanic episode
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A) Symptoms last for 1 week
B) require hospitalization or include psychosis
C) Symptoms last at least 4 days
D) Symptoms cause significant distress or functional impairment
100. Which of the following anxiety disorder is characterized by a consistent failure to
speak in social situations in which there is an expectation to speak even though the
individual speaks in other situations.
A) social phobia
B) specific phobia
C) selective mutism
D) generalized anxiety disorder
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