Hawassa University, CSSH, Department of Psychology

Psychology Model Exam 2 for graduating students

Time allowed: 90 Minute

Multiple Choice Items (1 point each)
Direction: Read the following questions carefully and give the correct answer.
1. Assume, you are walking dawn a dark road late at night. You hear footsteps behind you and
you begin to tremble, your heart beats faster, and your breathing deepens. At the same time
as these physiological changes occur you also experience the emotion of fear. This particular
example belongs to _____theory of emotion.
A) Lazarus theory C) Schachter-Singer theory
B) James-Lang theory D) Cannon-Bard theory
2. Ahmed has recently changed his phone number. Now he often finds himself writing his old
number when he fills out forms. This is best explained by:
A) decay B) proactive interference C) retroactive interference D) cue-dependent forgetting
3. Money has been sent to you through the bank, and you silently repeat the secret code until
you are called to the counter. This phenomenon is best explained by:
A) maintenance rehearsal C) memory span
B) elaborative rehearsal D) chucking
4. Dukamo is a lecture at Hawassa University. One day he uses the following statement to his
students as an example while he teaches them about social life. “If you are lonely you give
attention for couples and consider as if all couples as happy.” Which psychological factor
does affect Dukamo?
A) Set B) Expectancy C) Emotions D) Motives
5. Tewolde G/mariam is served as a CEO of the Ethiopian Airlines Group. He initiates his
workers by providing job flexibility and autonomy. Tewolde is then trying to satisfy the
________needs of his workers.
A) physiological B) safety C) social D) self-actualization
6. Which goal of psychology deals with the ability to forecast behavior accurately?
A) Explanation B) Description C) Prediction D) Control
7. which one of the following is wrong about Freud’s conception of defense mechanisms
A) we rarely use several defence mechanisms at the same time; we typically
defend ourselves against anxiety by using just one at a time
B) Unless the defences are restored or new ones form to take their place we are
likely to develop neurotic or psychotic symptoms
C) If the defenses are working well, they keep threatening or disturbing material
out of our conscious awareness
D) When we use defense mechanisms we are lying to ourselves when we use
these defenses, but we are not aware of doing so
A) Our genetic endowment interacts with our social environment, and resulted in a unique
personality
8. Personality is discrete or discontinuous, Not only is each person distinct from all others, but
each adult is also divorced from his or her pastAccording to Maslow’s personality theory
A) each person is born with the unique instinctive needs that enable us to grow,
develop, and fulfill our potentials
B) The needs are arranged in order from weakest to strongest
C) Neurotic and insecure adults need structure and order because their safety
needs still dominate their personality
D) In their state of metamotivation, they are neither seeking to reduce tension,
nor acting to increase tension
9. Which of the following is wrong about Sociability scale which was originally designed to
measure the extent to which a person participates in social activities
A) High scorers on Sociability is related to feeling comfortable in social settings
and can easily mix with others
B) High scorers on Sociability is related to having well-developed social skills
and generally make a good impression
C) Persons who score low on Sociability have a definite sense of awkwardness in
social situations
D) Persons who score high on Sociability frequently perceive themselves as
underachievers, and are prone to anxiety
10. One of the following is false about Allports theory of personality development
B) emotionally healthy people function in rational and conscious terms, aware and in control of
many of the forces that motivate them
C) He argued that personality is both general or universal as its particular and specific to the
individual
D)
11. Larry and Harry are twin brothers. They're in their sixties now, but even from a young age,
they were very different from each other. Larry is fun-loving and adventurous: he loves to
try exotic foods at restaurants and he drives way too fast. On the other hand, Harry is more
stuck in his ways: he likes to stay close to home and read books rather than do crazy things,
and he drives five miles below the speed limit at all times. which one is true about the
personality of Larry and Harry
A) Larry is extrovert as Harry is introvert
B) Larry score high on openness to experience scale as Harry scores low
C) Harry score high on openness to experience scale as Larry scores low
 D) Harry is extrovert as Larry is introvert

12. The stage of prenatal development (from uterine implantation to 8 weeks) characterized by
major body organ and systems (respiratory, digestive and nervous system) is called.
A) The germinal stage C) Fetal Stage

B) The embryonic stage D) Infancy Stage

13. Which of the following is NOT a postnatal developmental stage?

A) Infancy C) Germinal
B) Early childhood D) Adolescence
14. At which developmental stages of Piaget’s theory the child can reason logically about events
and classify objects into different sets?
A) Preoperational stage C) Formal operational stage
B) Concrete operational stage D) Sensory motor stage
15. What are the major characteristics and developmental tasks during preoperational years?
A) Children learn about the world through basic actions such as suckling, grasping
B) Children begin to think symbolically and use words and pictures to represent
object
C) Children begin to understand the concept of conservation
D) Abstract thoughts emerge in children
16. The developmental stage in which the child unable to use symbols (gestures, images, or
words) in representing real objects and events is called?
A) Formal operational stage C) Preoperational stage
B) Sensory motor stage D) Concrete operational stage
17. One of the following statements is not correct about infancy stage of human development?
A) Many psychological activities are just beginning ( language, symbolic thought,
sensorymotor coordination & social learning)
B) Infancy is the shortest of all developmental periods
C) Infancy is a time of radical adjustments
D) Infancy period called as play ages
18. Which of the following developmental tasks is not appropriate to early childhood?
A) Children learn to become more self-sufficient and care for themselves and
develop school readiness skills
B) Rapid improvement occurs in the area of language skills as well as including
grammar, vocabulary and pragmatics
C) Children develop decision-making and problem solving skills
D) The capacity of preschoolers increase in vocabulary, grammar and practical usage
of language with progress in age
19. Which of the following is the characteristic of the stage of late childhood?
A) The first signs of puberty usually begin to appear
B) Children typically demonstrate extensive grammatical knowledge
C) Symbolic thought has a major role in the child’s cognitive potential
D) Achieving a masculine or feminine social role

20. At which stage of child development does the child feel that everybody is looking at them
and they become conscious?
A) Infant C) Adolescence
B) Childhood D) Adulthood
21. Adolescents develop the ability to think about social issue concepts more generally referred
to as
A) Socialization C) Abstract resealing
B) Social cognition D) Metacognition
22. Changes in the adolescents conceptions of moral, political and religious issues is primarily a
result of
A) Emotional autonomy C) Behavioral autonomy
B) Physical autonomy D) Cognitive autonomy
23. One of the following is not the developmental and psychosocial problems of adolescents?
A) Pregnancy C) Education
B) Substance use D) Injury and death
24. Which of the following is not a risk factor for adolescent depression?
A) Family history of depression C) High academic achievement
B) Substance abuse D) Chronic illness
25. Which one of the following is not a developmental function of adolescence?
A) Business selection
B) Achieve object stabilization
C) Development of self-identity
D) Accepting physical changes
26. In which period of development comprises each of the following characteristics like
establishment of independence, development of identity and abstract thinking?

A) Middle childhood
B) Late childhood
C) Adolescence
D) Early adulthood
27. Which of the following statement is incorrect about the physical development of
adolescents?
A) Development of secondary sex symptoms
B) Increase in physical activities and abilities
C) Increase in muscular strength
D) Bodily proportion has change
 28. Which one of the following is the appropriate characteristic of instructional evaluation?
A) It makes difficult to quantify the behavioral changes achieved
B) Cannot be implemented in the classroom environment
C) Concerned with the quantitative, qualitative and value judgment of behavior
D) Measure only the cognitive aspect of behavioral changes
29. What type of test is recommendable if the purpose is to determine possessions of
prerequisite skills and degree of mastery of course objectives?
A) Diagnostic test C) Predictive test
B) Placement test D) Tests of guidance and counseling
30. Which one of the following step comes at the end in the preparation of classroom
achievement tests?
A) Determining what to be assessed in advance.
B) Developing a test blue print/ table of specification
C) Preparing the relevant test items
D) Selecting the appropriate test format
36. Which one of the following is the characteristic of alternate form of reliability estimate?
A) Administering the same test twice at a certain time interval
B) Making a balance between the content and the behavioral construct
C) Computing a correlation between the first and the second test
D) Computing a correlation coefficient between two forms of a test
37. The preferable test format in measuring learners complex learning outcomes such as
selecting, interpreting and presenting ideas is,
A) Essay/Subjective tests C) Multiple choices
B) Matching D) True-False/ Alternative response
38. If the time gap between different tests is relatively long, which schedule of reinforcement is
better to force students to study frequently?
A)Fixed ratio B) Variable ratio C) Fixed interval D) Variable interval
39. The educational implication of social learning theory is___________________
A) Modeling appropriate behaviors by teachers and parents
B) Using shaping to develop complex behaviors
C) Use punishment as the last option to modify student behavior
D) Teach students starting from the whole topic as oppose to from parts
40. The followings are names that describe social learning except _____________ learning
A) vicarious B) observational C) indirect D) direct
41. The focal area of educational psychology that deals with the nature of learning and how
learning take place is:
A) the learner C) the learning situation
B) the learning process D) the teaching situation
42. If Mr. Beka appreciates the classroom management strategies that help students self-regulate their
behavior, he advocates ______________ approach to classroom management
A) cognitive B) behavioral C) socio-cognitive D) instrumental

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43. Teachers who value behavioral approach to classroom management, use the following
classroom strategies except one:
A) Ignoring students’ misbehavior, if it is not interfere significantly with learning
B) Cueing students about their awareness of the misbehavior
C) Providing differential reinforcement for more appropriate behaviors
D) Using conflict resolution by guiding individuals involved to a mutually agreeable solution
44. The sampling technique that is more appropriate to select sample from population like
commercial sex workers is _____________ sampling

A) Simple random B) Stratified random C) Systematic D) snowball

45. What is the sample size of 2000 population using Yamane’s (1967) sample size
determination formula?
A) 333 B) 400 C) 460 D) 399.80
46. Under which condition small sample size can be sufficient in the research work?
A) Heterogeneous population C) A wide confidence interval like 99% CI
B) Quantitative data D) More time available and budget
47. If Mr. Jemal want to study about the uniqueness of individual student in terms of being the
highest achiever in his class, which method of data collection is more appropriate?
A) Close-ended questionnaire C) Mailed questionnaire
B) Open-ended questionnaire D) Interview guidelines
48. Which of the following data collection instrument may not requires research participants’
role?
A) Interview B) Observation C) Questionnaire D) Survey
49. What do you think the problem of the questionnaire item that says, “How many students have
you seen smoking cigarette at school?”
A) Unclear item because of vague word C) Wordy or lengthy item
B) Not all students can answer the question D) The item contains jargon

A) that are magnitude, equal intervals and true zero value

B) It is more appropriate to measures variables like mass, length, time, and heart beats
per minute.
50. A psychologist counsels people who are getting divorced. A random sample of six of her
clients provided the following data, where x = number of years of courtship before divorce
and y = numbers of years of marriage before divorce. What is the correlation coefficient of
the data?

X 3 1 51. 2Collecting 2 5 2
personal letters
from participants
during research
data gathering
is___________
method of data

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 collection
A) Interview
B)
Observation
C)
Questionnaire
D) Document
analysis
52. Which one of the
following
instrument for
data collection is
used for
quantitative
research?
A) Close-ended
questionnaire
C)
Observation
B) Unstructured
interview
D) Document
analysis
53. Which one of the
following
measures taken
by the researcher
can helps us to
increase the
response rate of
the participants
filling the
questionnaire?
A) Having a
good
sampling
frame
C) Selecting
large
representative

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 sample
B) Using
rigorous
administratio
n procedures
D) None of
the above

54. All of the

followings are
the role of
statistics except,
A) Present
our result
in
summariz
ed, more
meaningf
ul and
convenien
t form
B) Draw
generaliza
tion and
make
prediction
C) It helps us
to
compare,
forecast,
and
estimate
the result
of the
data
D) It helps us
to create a

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 new data
55. Which one of
the following is
the quantitative
measurement
variable?
A) Gender of
the
participan
ts
C) Age
of the
participan
ts
B) Marital
status of
the
participan
ts D)
Hair
colors of
the
participan
ts
56. Which one of
the following is
a characteristic
of interval scale
of
measurement?
C) It does
not have
the
capacity
to
measure
the
complete
absence
of the trait
D) In interval
measurem
ent scale,

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 numbers
can be
multiplied
and
divided
directly

It possesses all
attributes of
measurement
Y 9 6 8 10 12 5

A) 0.810 B) 0.7120 C) 0.7867 D) 0.6890

57. A research conducted on students’ ability of doing statistics and mathematics. 6 students
were selected and asked questions of seven likert-scale and their responses are presented as
follows. What is the spearman rho correlation of the responses?

Students number X- stat response Y- math response

1 7 6
2 5 5
3 2 1
4 4 3
5 3 4
6 1 2

A) 0.9120 B) 0.9758 C) 0.8760 D) 0.8842

58. What is the mean and median of the following data distribution respectively?
Class 19.5-29.5 29.5- 39.5 39.5- 49.5 49.5- 59.5 59.5- 69.5 69.5- 79.5
boundaries
F 5 6 8 6 4 1
A) 44.83 and 45.5 B) 45.83 and 45.5 C) 44.83 and 44.5 D) 44.5 and 46.5

59. All of the following are examples of an internal attribution except

A) After winning close to $100 playing poker, Fuad explains that he’s always been a
very skilled gambler.
B) Ikram blames her poor grade on her biology exam on the idea that she’s never been
good at taking multiple choice exams.

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 C) Dawit thinks that the reason her brother is never able to hold a steady job is that he’s
lazy and quick to get angry with others.
D) Solan says that the only reason for his recent van accident is that the road he was
traveling on that day was wet from a recent rainfall.
60. People will be most likely to change their attitudes about smoking if an anti smoking
advertisement
A) Uses extremely graphic pictures of how smoke can harm the body and warns of the
risks of smoking.
B) Gives people subliminal messages about the risks of smoking as well as
recommendations of how to quit.
C) Uses graphic pictures of the damages of smoking on the body and then provides
specific recommendations on how to quit smoking.
D) Uses success stories of how people quit smoking.
61. Under which of the following conditions would people be most likely to vote for a political
candidate? They
A) Like the candidate’s policies but have negative feelings toward him or her.
B) Know little about the candidate’s policies but have positive feelings toward him or
her.
C) See subliminal ads supporting the candidate on national television.
D) See television ads supporting the candidate while they are distracted by their
children.

62. Which of the following statements regarding Sherif’s (1936) study of perceptions of the
auto kinetic effect is true?
A) Participants conformed publicly but not privately.
B) Participants did conform, but the effects of this conformity were short lived as they
reverted to their previous, individually given responses once they were no longer part
of a group.
C) Participants conformed because they were in a group with their friends, and they
simply wanted to fit in with the group.
D) Participants conformed because they believed the other people’s responses were
accurate.

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63. Which of the following illustrates the role played by normative social influence in the
obedience of Milgram’s participants?
A) When other “teachers” (actually confederates) refused to continue with the study,
participants’ obedience rates declined significantly.
B) Men and women exhibited similar levels of obedience in the research.
C) The “learner” (actually a confederate) announced before the study began that he had a
preexisting heart condition.
D) Many participants showed signs of nervous laughter during the course of the study.
64. All of the following are examples of informational social influence except
A) You are running a race, but because you are unsure of the route, you wait to check
which of two roads the other runners follow.
B) You’ve just started work at a new job, and a fire alarm goes off; you watch your
coworkers to see what to do.
C) When you get to college, you change the way you dress so that you “fit in” better—
that is, so that people will like you more.
D) You ask your adviser which classes you should take next semester.
65. Which of the following is the best example of altruistic behavior?
A) Julie puts a dollar in the church collection basket because everyone else donates.
B) Robert volunteers at his son’s school to help out his class.
C) Jawal anonymously donates $100 to a homeless shelter.
D) Mary helps her husband with the dishes with the hope that he will cook dinner more
often.
66. Which of the following is not a reason why being in a good mood tends to increase
prosocial behavior?
A) Good moods make us view situations more positively, and thus we are more likely to
give people the benefit of the doubt.
B) Helping prolongs good moods.
C) Good moods make us pay more attention to the possible rewards for helping.
D) Good moods increase how much attention we pay to ourselves, which makes us more
likely to act according to our values.
67. According to frustration-aggression theory,
A) When people are frustrated, they almost always become aggressive.
B) When people behave aggressively, they feel frustrated.
C) Frustration increases the likelihood of aggression.
D) Frustration caused by deprivation causes aggression.
68. Suppose you’re a bartender and you have a stereotype about people with full-arm tattoos:
You think they are more likely to get into fights at your bar than people without tattoos.
Your perception illustrates which aspect(s) of stereotypes?
A) You are noticing people who confirm your stereotype and overlooking those who
don’t.
B) You are paying attention to nonaggressive people with tattoos.
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 C) You are paying attention to aggressive people without tattoos.
D) Your stereotype is accurate.

Which of the following refers

9.

to the human requirements

needed for a job, such as
education,
skills, and personality?
A) job specifications
B) job analysis
C) job placement
D) job descriptions
69. Which of the following is not a characteristic of organizational culture?
A) Attention to detail C) Innovation
B) Formality orientation D) Team orientation
70. _____helps employees understand the history &past action of an organization and make the
current organization culture more legitimate
B) Material symbol B) Stories C) Language D) Reflection

Leadership is best defined as

________.

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A) the ability to influence a
group in goal achievement
B) keeping order and
consistency in the midst of
change
C) implementing the vision and
strategy provided by
management
D) coordinating and staffing the
organization and handling day-
to-day problems
E) not a relevant variable in
modern organizatio
Leadership is best defined as
________.
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A) the ability to influence a
group in goal achievement
B) keeping order and
consistency in the midst of
change
C) implementing the vision and
strategy provided by
management
D) coordinating and staffing the
organization and handling day-
to-day problems
E) not a relevant variable in
modern organizatio
Leadership is best defined as
________.
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A) the ability to influence a
group in goal achievement
B) keeping order and
consistency in the midst of
change
C) implementing the vision and
strategy provided by
management
D) coordinating and staffing the
organization and handling day-
to-day problems
E) not a relevant variable in
modern organizatio
71. Toyota motor co. assigns female engineers to an automobile design team to make sure that the
needs of potential female customers are met in the design of the car. This is an example of:
A) Bias C) Stereotyping
B) Managing diversity D) The ombudsman effect
72. Which of the following is not an important aspect of employee involvement?
A) Employee motivation B)Employee empowerment
C) Team and Teamwork D) Keeping employee morale down
73. Which of the options is incorrect with respect to the importance of ‘employee motivation’?

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 A) It promotes employee involvement C) Reduces absenteeism
B) It promotes job satisfaction D) Increases absenteeism

74. Motivation is the process of stimulating people to accomplish _________

A) Desired goals C) Desired assignment
B) Desired homework D) Desired homework and assignment
75. Managers wishes to improve the job performance of a group of clerical workers. Based on
the Herzberg’s theory, ____would be an appropriate motivator
A) Providing them with a better health care plan
B) Setting up a break room where coworkers could socialize
C) Offering them opportunities for achievement &recognition
D) Redecorating their office so they are pleasant &comfortable
76. Motivation creates a congenial working atmosphere in the organization and promotes ____
A) Internal hatred
B) External hatred
C) Interpersonal cooperation
D) Internal and external hatred

77. Msr.X has an eating disorder known as anorexia nervosa, what is the goal of the guidance
and counseling used to address Msr. X's problem?
A) Ultimate goal of counseling C) Immediate goal
B) Intermediate goal of counseling D) Short term goal
78. Which one of the following is an ethical concept and the legal duty of the therapist not to
disclose information about a client?
A)Informed consent C) Professional Disclosure
B ) confidentiality D) Scope of Practice
79. Which of the following is the responsibility of the counselor to break confidentiality in order
to warn foreseeable and identifiable victims of potential violence?
A) Duty to Warn refers C) Professional Disclosure
B) Scope of Practice D) Confidentiality
80. All are strategies to establish an effective relationship in the initial phase, except
A) Observe nonverbal communication
B) Ensure physical comfort of the counselee
C) Interrupt the individual when he/she is talking
D) Always address the individual by his or her name

81. Which one of the following is refers to communicating honestly with those that counselors
come into contact with in order to take action for their clients?
A) Fidelity B) Justice C) Beneficence D) Veracity

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82. Which of the following alternatives describes the middle-phase counseling process in the
right order?
A) Structuring the relationship ___Diagnosis __ Prognosis
B) Prognosis __ Diagnosis ___Treatment
C) Structuring the relationship __ Diagnosis __ Prognosis
D) Diagnosis __ Prognosis __ Treatment
83. Of the following theories one gives less emphasis for the use of different techniques in
counseling?
A) Behaviorism
B) psychoanalysis
C) Person Centered therapy.
D) Cognitive therapy

84. A primary goal of ______________ therapy is to help clients get connected or

reconnected with the people they have chosen to put in their quality world.
A) Client Centered
B) Reality
C) Gestalt
D) Eclectic
85. Which type of integrative approach that focuses on combines the advantages of a single
coherent theoretical system with the flexibility of a variety of interventions from multiple
systems.
A) Assimilative C) Common Factors Approach
B) Theoretical D) Technical eclecticism
86. __________involves client exposure to only the actual anxiety-evoking events rather than
simply imagining these situations.
A) Systematic desensitization C) Exposure therapy
B) In Vivo Exposure D) Relaxation
87. In the Gestalt view of human nature, the emphasis is on:
A) The present ( here and now) and awareness of what is happening around us
B) The past as it creates the present
C) The present and implications for the future
D) Past, present, and future
88. Which technique is different from the rest?
A) Reinforcement C) Dream Analysis
B) Exposure technique D) flooding
89. Which theory argues that people interpret events selectively, and experience emotions
based upon those interpretations?
A) Reality C) Behavioral
B) Cognitive D) Client Centered
90. The technique that does not allow termination of exposure of client to fearful condition
but the anxiety reduce itself by its own mechanism ones it is exposed for prolonged period.
This technique is:
A) In vivo flooding C) Systematic desensitization
B) In vivo desensitization D) All

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91. In northern part of Ethiopia, there was a conflict between the Ethiopian government
and TPLF. Due to the conflict, many people exposed to several psychological
problem. Which one of the following anxiety disorder is probably most common
during diagnosis?
A) separation anxiety disorder C) social anxiety disorder
B) post-traumatic stress disorder D) . specific phobia
92. Which of the following types of bipolar disorder involve at least one lifetime
hypomanic episode and one major depressive episode
A) bipolar I disorder
B) bipolar II disorder
C) Cyclothymic disorder
D) Psychotic disorder
93. Which of following symptoms is must present, in order to diagnose major depressive
disorder
A) insomnia B) loss of energy C) loss of interest D) agitation

94. Neologisms, is typically inferred from the individual's speech who suffered from
schizophrenia, which refers
A) inability to organize ideas
B) loose associations
C) Answers to questions may be completely unrelated
D) producing new, seemingly meaningless words.
95. All are the negative symptoms of schizophrenia, except
A) disorganized speech B) alogia C) anhedonia D) blunted affect
96. All are the advantages of diagnosis, except
A) Enables accurate communication
B) Facilitate research on causes and treatment
C) Help to describe base rates, causes and treatments
D) It reduce the probability to use assessment techniques
97. Which of the following perspective claims that typically problems in brain anatomy,
brain chemistry & Genetics causes abnormal behavior
A) medical model C) psychodynamic model
B) behavior model D) cognitive model
98. All are grossly disorganized motor behavior characterized by individual diagnosed
with schizophrenia except
A) maintaining a rigid, inappropriate or bizarre posture
B) Repeated stereotyped behaviors & movements
C) Purposeless and excessive motor activity without obvious cause
D) inability to experience pleasure
99. Which of the following is true regarding hypomanic episode

20
 A) Symptoms last for 1 week
B) require hospitalization or include psychosis
C) Symptoms last at least 4 days
D) Symptoms cause significant distress or functional impairment
100. Which of the following anxiety disorder is characterized by a consistent failure to
speak in social situations in which there is an expectation to speak even though the
individual speaks in other situations.
A) social phobia
B) specific phobia
C) selective mutism
D) generalized anxiety disorder

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