C-9 Math PNCF Race Cbse
C-9 Math PNCF Race Cbse
C-9 Math PNCF Race Cbse
A 4 cm B
(A) 16 cm2 (B) 8 cm2 (C) 6 cm2 (D) 4 cm2
2. A regular polygon drawn with 35 diagonals. Its interior angle will be:
(A) 154° (B) 164° (C) 144° (D) None of these
3. If D is the mid point of side BC of ABC , P and Q are two points lying respectively on the sides AB and
1
BC such that DP is parallel to QA. Prove that ar BQP . ar ABC
2
4. In figure, ABCDE is a pentagon. A line through B parallel to AC meets DC produced at F. Prove that:
A
B
E
D C F
(A) ar ACB = ar ACF (B) ar (AEDF) = ar (ABCDE)
5. In figure ABC and BDE are two equilateral triangles such that D is the mid-point of BC. If AE intersects
1
BC at F, show that ar BDE ar ABC
4
A
F
B C
D
E
6. Q R
P S
E
F
A B C D
In figure PSDA is a parallelogram. Points Q and R are taken on PS such that PQ = QR = RS and
PA || QB || RC. Prove that ar (PQE) = ar (CFD).
A B
The area of parallelogram ABCD is 90 cm2. Then find area of BEF
(A) 90 cm2 (B) 60 cm2 (C) 45 cm2 (D) 30 cm2
8. ABCD is a parallelogram in which BC is produced to E such that CE = BC. AE intersects CD at F. If ar
DFB 3cm 2 , find the area of the parallelogram ABCD.
(A) 3 cm2 (B) 6 cm2 (C) 9 cm2 (D) 12 cm2
9. ABCD is a trapezium with parallel sides AB = a cm and DC = b cm. E and F are mid-points of sides
AD and BC respectively. Find the ratio of area of ABFE to the area of CDEF.
3a b a 3b
(A) 1 : 2 (B) 1 : 3 (C) (D)
a 3b 3a b
10. Find the area of parallelogram ABCD in below given figure
OF = 3 cm
OA = 5 cm
OD 18 cm
(A) 42 cm2 (B) 21 cm2 (C) 36 cm2 (D) 48 cm2
11. ABCD is a parallelogram. E is a point on BA such that BE = 2EA and F is a point on DC such that
DF = 2FC, then AECF is a parallelogram whose area is equal to
(A) (1/2) × area of parallelogram ABCD. (B) area of parallelogram ABCD.
(C) (1/3) × area of parallelogram ABCD. (D) 2 × area of parallelogram ABCD.
12. If a parallelogram with area P, a rectangle with area R and a triangle with area T, all are constructed on the
same base and all have the same altitude, then the true statement is
(A) P = R (B) T = R (C) P = T (D) P + T = R
13. ABCD is a parallelogram. The diagonals AC and BD intersect at a point O. If E, F, G and H are the
midpoints of AO, DO, CO and BO respectively, then the ratio of (EF + FG + GH + HE) to
(AD + DC + CB + BA) is
(A) 1 : 1 (B) 1 : 2 (C) 1 : 3 (D) 1 : 4
14. ABCD is a parallelogram with AB || DC. AX is the perpendicular from A on DC and CY is the perpendicular
from C on AD. If AB = 16 cm, AX = 8 cm, CY = 10 cm then find AD.
16. AD is a median of triangle ABC and M is the mid point of AD. If the area of BMD is 3.5 sq cm, then
find the area of ABC.
17. Prove that any straight line drawn from the vertex of a triangle, is bisected by the straight line joining the
middle points of the two sides of the triangle.
18. ABCD is a trapezium with AB || CD and angle BCD = twice the angle DAB. If DC = a and BC = b, find the
length of AB.
19. ABCD is a parallelogram. AB and AD are produced to P and Q respectively such that BP = AB and
DQ = AD. Prove that P, C, Q lie on a straight line.
20. In the given figure E is the mid point of BC and D is the mid point of AE. PEDB and QEDC are
1
parallelograms then show are ( EPB) area (EQC) area ( ABC)
2
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
2 2
ANS. C C C D C A B A B 12.8 cm 60 cm 14 cm 14 sq. cm. a + b
1. Find the area of a triangle whose sides are 7 cm, 8 cm and 9 cm and radius of circumscribing circle is 6
cm.
(A) 21 cm2 (B) 7 3 cm 2 (C) 42 cm2 (D) 21 2 cm 2
2. In a triangle ABC, AD is a median. A point P lies on AD such that ratio of AP : PD is 3 : 2. Find the area
of PCD if area of ABC is 40 cm2.
(A) 16 cm2 (B) 8 cm2 (C) 10 cm2 (D) 20 cm2
3
3. ABCD is a parallelogram. X & Y are mid-point on side BC and CD. Prove that area of AXY area
8
of parallelogram.
4. In a ABC , D, E and F are mid-points on BC, AC and AB respectively. If area of ABC is 56 cm2 then
find area of quadrilateral BDEF.
(A) 14 cm2 (B) 21 cm2 (C) 28 cm2 (D) 42 cm2
5. In the figure given below. D and L are mid-points of BC and AD. If area of ABL x area of ABC .
Then find x.
C D B
1 1 1
(A) (B) (C) (D) None of these
2 3 4
6. In a parallelogram ABCD, L is a mid-point of side CD. If area of ALCB is 72 cm2, then find of ACD .
(A) 24 cm2 (B) 48 cm2 (C) 72 cm2 (D) Cannot be determined
7. In following figure, area of parallelogram ABCD is:
D N C
A L C B
(A) AB BM (B) BC BN (C) DC DL (D) All of these
8. ABCD is a trapezium such that AB || CD. AC and BD intersect at O. Prove that area of AOD is equal to
area of BOC .
9. D C
X Y
A P
B
X, Y are mid-points of AD and BC, CD = 40 cm and AB = 60 cm. Find XY and prove that DCYX is a
9
trapezium. Also prove that area of DCYX = area of XYBA.
11
A E
F G
B C D
In above figure ACDE is a parallelogram, BC = CD and area of triangle ABC is 80cm2. If F is the mid-
point on side AB, then find area of BFD .
(A) 40 cm2 (B) 20 cm2 (C) 80 cm2 (D) Data insufficient
12.
E D
A B C
1
In above figure ABDE is a parallelogram. EF BD, AB BC BD, EF 3 cm and FD = 4 cm. Find
2
the area of BCD .
(A) 30 cm2 (B) 25 cm2 (C) 20 cm2 (D) 15 cm2
13. In given figure, PQRS is a ||gm. The sides of this ||gm are given by SP = (2x – 4) cm, PQ = (3y + 5) cm,
1
QR x 8 cm and RS = (y + 12) cm, then the perimeter of the ||gm PQRS is
2
S (y + 12)cm. R
(2x – 4)cm. 1
2 x 8 cm
P (3y + 5)cm. Q
N
A B
15. Which of the following statement are true (T) and which are false ( F ) ?
(i) In a parallelogram, the diagonals are equal.
(ii) In a parallelogram, the diagonals bisect each other.
(iii) In a parallelogram, the diagonals intersect each other at right angles.
(iv) In any quadrilateral, if a pair of opposite sides is equal, it is a parallelogram.
16. The area of a rhombus is 36 cm2. If one diagonal is double, then the length of bigger diagonal is
(A) 6 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 16 cm (D) 36 cm
(A) 85 cm2 (B) 420 cm2 (C) 750 cm2 (D) 1500 cm2
18. In the figure AD = DB, BE 1 EC and CF 1 AF . If the area of ABC 120cm 2 , the area (in cm2) of
2 3
DEF is
A
F
D
B C
E
D C
20 m
(ABCD) ........
(A) 27 sq. cm (B) 45 sq. cm (C) 36 sq. cm (D) 18 sq. cm
20. In the diagram ABCD is a rectangle with AE = EF = FB, the ratio of the areas of triangle CEF and that of
rectangle ABCD is
D C
A E F B
(A) 1 : 6 (B) 1 : 8 (C) 1 : 9 (D) 1 : 10
ANSWER KEY
1. A 2. B 3. 4. C 5. 6. B 7.
8. 9. 50 10. A 11. C 12. D 13. A 14.
15. (i)F (ii)T (iii)F (iv)F 16. B 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A
5. Two circles of radii 20cm and 37cm intersect in A and B. If O1 and O 2 are their centres and AB = 24cm,
then the distance O1O 2 is equal to
6. In the figure, PQ is a chord of a circle with centre O and PT is the tangent at P such that QPT 70o .
(1) 60 o (2) 70 o
(3) 60 o (4) 70 o
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANS. 2 2 2 3 2 4 2 3 1 2 4 3 3 4 2 4 x = 20° 2 4 65°
S R
120° O
P Q
(1)108 3 (2) 54 3
12. 2 parallel chords 24 cm, and 10 cm, are on same
(3) 81 3 (4) 96 3 side of the circle, center O. If the distance
between the chords is 7 cm, calculate the radius
8. In the given diagram CT is tangent at C, making of the circle.
an angle of /4 with CD. O is the centre of the
circle. CD = 10 cm. What is the perimeter of the
shaded region ( AOC) approximately?
O
r
A r B
C D
A
25 O
15
C
D
B
80 P
R
140
O T
O 42
S
B C
Q
ANSWER KEY
1. 1 2. 1 3. 4 4. 1 5. 1 6. 1 7. 4
25
8. 9. 3 10. 1 11. 2 2 12. 13
2 2 3
13. y=30°, x=25° 14. 35° 15. 44° 16. 40° 17. 60°
18. r=2 19. 7 20. 69°
2. If points (0, 4) (4, 0) and (5, p) are collinear than value of p is?
(1) –1 (2) 7 (3) 6 (4) 4
3. Which of the following is solution of x + 7y = 0 ?
(1) (0, 7) (2) (7, 0) (3) (0, 0) (4) (0, –7)
4. The ratio in which x axis divides line joining (2, 4) and (3, –7) is
(1) 4 : 7 (2) 7 : 4 (3) 2 : 3 (4) 5 : 7
5. The ratio in which y axis divides line joining (3, 5) and (–5, 8) is
(1) 5 : 8 (2) 3 : 5 (3) 1 : 4 (4) None
6. Points (7, 10), (–2, 5) and (3, –4) are vertices of
(1) equilateral triangle (2) isosceles triangle
(3) right angle triangle (4) isosceles right angled triangle
7. If the point A (6, 1), B(8, 2), C(9, 4) and D(P, 3) are vertices of parallelogram taken in order then p is?
(1) 6 (2) 7 (3) –1 (4) 2
8. Two vertices of triangle are (3, –5) and (–7, 4) if its centroid is (2, –1) third vertex is
(1) (10, –2) (2) (2, 10) (3) (–10, –2) (4) None
9. Equation of line joining (–1, 3) and (4, –2) is
12. Relation between x and y such that (x, y) is equidistant from (7, 1) and (3, 5) is
(1) x + y = 2 (2) x – y = 2 (3) x = 2y (4) y = 2x
3
13. Area of triangle formed by P ,3 , Q 6, 2 , R 3, 4 in square unit is
2
17. The point of the y-axis which is equidistant from A(–5, –2) and B (3, 2) is:
(1) (–4, 0) (2) (0, –2) (3) (–2, 0) (4) (0, –4)
18. If two vertices of an isosceles triangle are (2, 0) and (2, 5) and length of the equal sides is 3, then the third
vertex is :
11 5 14 7
(1) (2, 6) & (–5, 3) (2) (8, 3) & (51 1) (3) 2 2 , 2 (4) 3 2 , 2
19. If the point (0, 2) is equidistant from the points (3, k) and (k, 5), then the value of k is :
(1) 0 (2) 2 (3) –2 (4) None of these
20. If the distance between the points (a, 2) and (3, 4) be 8 the a = a
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANS. 1 1 3 1 2 4 2 1 2 2 1 2 1 3 2 3 2 3 4 4
1. If vertices of a triangle are (a, 1), (b, 3) and (4, c) then centroid of triangle will lie on x axis if
(1) a + c = –4 (2) a + b = –4 (3) c = –4 (4) b + c = –4
a a 3
2. The points (0, 0) and (a, 0) and , are vertices of
2 2
(1) Isosceles triangle (2) Equilateral triangle (3) Scalene triangle (4) None
3. If the points (0, 0), (2,2 3) and (p, q) be the vertices of equilateral triangle then (p, q) =
(1) (0, 4) (2) (4, 4) (3) (4, 0) (4) (5, 0)
4. The ratio in which P(1, 2) divides the line segment joining A(–2, 1) and B(7, 4) is
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 3 : 2 (3) 3 : 4 (4) 1 : 3
kc la kd lb
5. The points (a, b), (c, d) and ,
kl k l
(1) vertices of an equilateral triangle (2) vertices of an isosceles triangle
(2) vertices of a right angled triangle (4) collinear
6. A is a point on x-axis with abscissa –8 and B is a point on y axis with ordinate 15. Distance between AB
is
(1) 13 units (2) 15 units (3) 17 units (4) 23 units
7. If x + 3y = 100, where x and y are positive integers, the number of pairs satisfying equation is
(1) 100 (2) 97 (3) 34 (4) None
8. If centroid of triangle is (3, 1) is one of vertices is (0, –3) then length of the median is
15 10
(1) 5 (2) (3) 15 (4)
2 3
9. If the points (7, K), (–2, 3) and (–1, –5) are collinear then K is
1
(1) 15 (2) (3) 69 (4) –69
7
10. If the distance between the points A(–3, 4) and B(x, 7) is 5 units then x is
(1) –1 or 7 (2) 1 or –7 (3) 5 or – 3 (4) –5 or 3
x y
11. The graph of 1 meet the Y - axis at the point
3 5
(1) (0, 5) (2) (0, 3) (3) (0, –5) (4) (0, –3)
12. The reflection of the point P (2, 3) in y - axis is
(1) (–2, 3) (2) (2, –3) (3) (2, 3) (4) (–2, –3)
13. Determine the quadrants in which the following points lie
(i) A(1, 1) (ii) B(2,4) (iii) C(–3, –10) (iv) D(–1, 2)
(v) E(1, –1) (vi) F(–2, –4) (vii) G(–3, 10) (viii) H(1, –2)
14. Find the length of intercepts on axes made by the line 5x + 3y – 15 = 0.
15. Plot the following points in a Cartesian plane: (–2, 4), (3, –1), (–1, 0), (1, 2) & (–3, –5)
16. Value of ‘a’, when the distance between the points (3, a) and (4, 1) is 10 is :
(A) 4 or –2 (B) 2 or 4 (C) 6 or 2 (D) None
Y
C(a, 13)
(5, 5) B (15, b)
D
A (9,2)
X
O
Y
Q
X
P(–2, 0) O R(4,0)
ANSWER KEY
1. 3 2. 2 3. 3 4. 1 5. 4 6. 3 7. 3
8. 2 9. 4 10. 2 11. 1 12. 1 13. (i)1st (ii) 1st (iii) 3rd
(iv) 2nd (v) 4th (vi) 3rd (vii) 2nd (viii) 4th 14. 3, 5 15.
16. A 17. D 18. D 19. B 20. C
1. The area of a triangle whose sides are 150 cm, 120 cm and 200 cm is :
(1) 8066.56 cm2 (2) 9066.56 cm2 (3) 8966.56 cm2 (4) 9966.56 cm2
2. The perimeter of a triangular field is 240 m. If two of its sides are 78 m and 50 m, then the length of the
perpendicular on the side of length 50 cm from the opposite vertex is :
(1) 88.8 m (2) 67.2 m (3) 100.8 m (4) 110.8 m
3. The lengths of the sides of a triangle are 5 cm, 9 cm and 10 cm. Then length of perpendicular from the
opposite vertex to the sides whose length is 10 cm is :
6 6 6 6
(1) 14 (2) 13 (3) 10 (4) 11
5 5 5 5
4. The perimeter of a triangular field is 240 m and its sides are in the ratio 3 : 4 : 5. Then the area of the
triangle is :
(1) 2000 m2 (2) 2200 m2 (3) 2400 m2 (4) 2600 m2
contained by the last two sides is a right angle. Find its area. Take 14 3.751
7. A triangular park has sides, 120 m, 80 m and 50 m. A gardner has to put a fence all around it and also
plant grass inside. How much area does he need to plant? Find the cost of fencing it with barbed wire at
the rate Rs. 20/m leaving a space 3m wide for a gate on one side.
8. The perimeter of an isosceles triangle is 32 cm. The ratio of one of the equal sides to its base is 3:2. Find
the area of triangle.
9. A triangle and parallelogram have the same base and the same area. If the sides of the triangle are 26 cm,
28 cm and 28 cm and the parallelogram stands on the base 28 cm, find the height of the parallelogram.
10. The sides of a triangle are 10 cm, 24 cm and 26 cm. Find its area and the longest altitude.
11. Given an isosceles trapezium ABCD in order with AB = 6, CD = 12 and area 36 sq. units. Length of the
side BC is:
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4.5 (D) 5.55
12. The length of the side of a rhombus is 10 units and its diagonals differ by 4. The area of the rhombus is:
(A) 108 (B) 96 (C) 84 (D) 48
E F
D C
A P
Q L
A B
G
H
(A) 86.14 cm2 (B) 87.25 cm2 (C) 84.63 cm2 (D) 91.56 cm2
18. The area of a rhombus is 28 cm2 and one of its diagonals in 4 cm. Its perimeter is :\
19. The area of a trapezium shaped field is 960 m2 the distance between two parallel sides is 30 m and one of
the parallel side is 20 m. Find the length of other parallel side.
(A) 44 m (B) 22 m (C) 88 m (D) 11 m
20. Area of triangle ABC whose sides are 24 m, 40 m and 32 m, is:
(A) 96 m2 (B) 384 m2 (C) 43 m2 (D) 192 m2
ANSWER KEY
1. 3 2. 2 3. 1 4. 3 5. 3 6. 376.57 m2
13 615
7. 375 15, 4940 8. 32 2 9. 10. 120 , 24 11. B
28
12. B 13. D 14. C 15. C 16. C 17. A 18. A
19. A 20. B
1. The largest of the altitudes of the triangle with sides 13 cm, 14 cm and 15 cm is :
(1) 12 (2) 11.2 (3) 11.9 (4) 12.9
2. Which of the following could be the sides of triangle?
(1) 2, 4, 8 (2) 3, 6, 10 (3) 3, 8, 14 (4) 5, 6, 7
3. The area of quadrilateral ABCD whose sides are 9 m, 12 m, 28 m and 15 m respectively and the angle
between the first two sides is a right angle is :
(1) 27 9 29 cm 2 (2) 54 14 29 cm 2 (3) 63 8 29 cm 2 (4) None of these
4. A triangle has sides 35 cm, 54 cm and 61 cm. It’s area is :
(1) 939.14 cm2 (2) 839.14 cm2 (3) 739.14 cm2 (4) 639.14 cm2
5. Area of an isosceles triangle with base as ‘a’ and its equal sides of length ‘x’ is:
1 1 a2 1 a2
(1) a x2 a2 (2) a x2 (3) a x2 (4) None of these
2 2 2 2 4
6. Area of a square whose diagonal is of length ‘d’ is :
1 1 2
(1) d2 (2) (2d)2 (3) (3d)2 (4) d
2 2
7. In the figure, the ratio of AD to DC is 3 to 2. If area of ABC is 40 cm2. What is the area of BDC?
B
A D C
(1) 16 cm2 (2) 24 cm2 (3) 30 cm2 (4) 36 cm2
8. Find the area of a trapezium whose parallel sides are 25cm, 13cm and other sides are 15cm and 15cm.
9. At the 3 sides of right triangle are integers and one side has a length 11 units. Area of the triangle in
square units lies between
(A) 1 and 100 (B) 100 and 200 (C) 200 and 300 (D) More than 300
10. In the figure given PM = 10 cm, MN = 15 cm and PN = 17 cm. Also QM = QX and XR = RN. Perimeter
of the PQR is :
X
Q R
M N
13. A plot of land is in the shape of a right angled isosceles triangles. The length of the hypotenuse is
50 2 m . The cost of fencing it at Rs. 3 per metre will be :
(A) less than Rs. 300 (B) less than Rs. 400 (C) more than Rs. 300 (D) more than Rs. 600
14. The perimeter of an isoscelers triangle is equal to 14 cm, the lateral side is to the base in the ratio 5:4. The
area of the triangle is :
1 3
(A) 21 cm2 (B) 21 cm2 (C) 21 cm 2 (D) 2 21 cm 2
2 2
15. In a trapezium ABCD with bases AB and CD, where AB = 52, BC = 12, CD = 39 and DA = 5. The area of
the trapezium ABCD, is:
(A) 182 (B) 195 (C) 210 (D) 260
16. The length of sides of triangle are integers and its perimeter is 14. How many such distinct triangles are
possible?
(A) 6 (B) 5 (C) 4 (D) 3
17. The area of a rhombus is 36 cm2. If one diagonal is double of second, then the length of bigger diagonal
is -
(A) 6 cm (B) 12 cm (C) 16 cm (D) 36 cm
ANSWER KEY
1. 4 2. 4 3. 2 4. 1 5. 3
6. 4 7. 1 8. 57 21 cm 9. D 10. B
16. C 17. B
5 1 6 3
13. Solve for x and y: 2, 1.
x 1 y 2 x 1 y 2
14. A trains crossses a 100 m platform in 20 secs and a pole in 15 secs. Find length and speed of the train.
15. Solve for x and y : 2x + 3y = 8; 4x + 6y = 7.
ANSWER KEY
9P Q PQ
1. (a) x = 1; y = 2; (b) x = 7; y = 17/3; (c) x= ;y=
10 10
2. (a) solution possible; (b) not possible; (c) solution possible
3. k = 10 4. a=1 5. k = 40
6. 32 square units 7. 63 or 36 8. 10 coins
9. ÐA = 120°; ÐB = 30°; ÐC = 30° 10. 10 years
11. 10-5 l 12. p¹4 13. x = 4; y = 5
14. length = 300 m ; speed - 20 m/s 15. No solutions
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANS. 4 3 4 4 3 4 3 1 1 3 3 2 4 2 3 3 4 2 2 1
1. A is twice as efficient as B and can complete a job 30 days before B. In how many days they can
complete the job together?
68
(1) 25 days (2) days (3) 20 days (4) None of these
3
2. A tank can be filled in 20 minutes. There is a leakage which can empty it in 60 minutes. In how many
minutes can tank be filled?
(1) 30 Minutes (2) 40 Minutes (3) 20 Minutes (4) 35 Minutes
3. A and B together can finish a work in 30 days. They worked together for 20 days and then B left. After
another 20 days, A finished the remaining work. In how many days A alone can finish the work?
(1) 40 days (2) 90 days (3) 30 days (4) 60 days
4. Eight men and six boys can do a work in eleven days, and nine men and twelve boys can do the work in
nine days. In how many days can six men and thirty boys together do the work?
(1) 11 (2) 8 (3) 10 (4) 9
5. A machine P can print one lakh books in 8 hours, machine Q can print the same number of books in 10
hours while machine R can print them in 12 hours. All the machines are started at 9 A.M. while machine
P is closed at 11 A.M. and the remaining two machines complete work. Approximately at what time will
the work (to print one lakh books) be finished?
5 5
(1) 1:05 PM (2) 1:00 PM (3) 1:10 PM (4) None of these
11 11
6. A boat covers a distance of 30 km downstream in 2 hour while it takes 6 hour to cover the same distance
upstream. What is the speed of the boat in km/hr?
(1) 5 (2) 7.5 (3) 10 (4) 12
7. A boy is running at a speed of P km/hr to cover a distance of 1km but due to the slippery ground, his
speed is reduced by Q km/hr (P > Q). If he takes R hours to cover the distance then,
(1) 1/R = (P – Q) (2) R = (P – Q) (3) 1/R = (P + Q) (4) R = (P + Q)
8. X and Y start walking towards each other at 10 am at speeds of 3 km/hr and 4 km/hr respectively. They
were initially 17.5 km apart. At what time do they meet?
(1) 2:30 PM (2) 11:30 PM (3) 1:30 PM (4) 12:30 PM
9. A monkey tries to ascend a 14 m high greased pole. He ascends 2 m in first minute and slips 1 m in next
minute. If he continues to ascend in this fashion, how long does he take to reach the top?
(1) 26 Min (2) 24 Min (3) 22 Min (4) 25 Min
10. Walking at 3/4 of his usual pace, a man reaches his office 20 minute late. Find his usual time?
(1) 2 Hrs (2) 1 Hr (3) 3 Hrs (4) 1.5 Hrs
11. Find the average of all numbers between 6 and 34 which are divisible by 5
(1) 15 (2) 20 (3) 25 (4) 30
12. A library has an average of 510 visitors on Sundays and 240 on other day. The average number of
visitors in a month of 30 days starting with Sunday is
(1) 280 (2) 285 (3) 290 (4) 276
1 1 1
17. Ram, Sham and Suresh start business investing in the ratio 2 : 3 : 6 . The time for which each of them
invested their money was in the ratio 8:6:12 respectively. If they get profit of Rs.18000 from the business,
then how much share of profit will Ram get?
(1) Rs.4000 (2) Rs.6000 (3) Rs.8000 (4) Rs. 9000
18. The ratio of the number of boys and girls in a college is 7:8. If the percentage increase in the number of
boys and girls be 20% and 10% respectively, what will be the new ratio?
(1) 8 : 9 (2) 17 : 18 (3) 21 : 22 (4) Cannot be determined
19. A bag contains 50 paisa, 20 paisa and 10 paisa coins in the ratio 5:3:1.If the total amount in the bag is
640 Rs. Find the difference in the amounts contributed by 50 paisa and 20 paisa coins.
(1) Rs.300 (2) Rs.400 (3) Rs.380 (4) None of these
20. Find the total positive integral solutions for the equation 4x + 5y=100.
(1) 4 (2) 5 (3) 6 (4) None of these
ANSWER KEY
Q. NO. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
ANS. 3 1 4 4 1 3 1 4 4 2 2 2 1 1 3 3 4 3 3 1
E F
P
(a) 850 (b) 1350 (c) 1450 (d) 1100
2. If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the other two angles, then the triangle is
(a) An isosceles triangle (b) An obtuse triangle (c) An equilateral triangle (d) A right triangle
3. An exterior angle of a triangle is 1050 and its two interior opposite angles are equal. Each of these equal
angle is :
0 0 0
1 1 1
(a) 37 (b) 52 (c) 72 (d) 75°
2 2 2
4. The angles of a triangle are in the ratio 5 : 3 : 7 the triangle is
(a) Acute Angle (b) Obtuse angled (c) Right angled (d) An isosceles
5. A C
H Q
x
E
0
P 80
0
G 120
F
R B D
A E
Find x :
(a) 900 (b) 440 (c) 460 (d) None of these
8. A G B
0
100
F (x+10)0
0
30
C E D
Find x . 0
x
R S
Find x :
(a) 300 (b) 250 (c) 350 (d) 400
10.
S Q
x
0
105
R
0
30
T
Find x.
11. If two complementary angles are in the ratio 7 : 11, find the supplement of the bigger angle.
12.
x l
P z
y
m
In the above figure, find the value of z, if x is two third of y which is complement of 450.
13. If x0 is the measure of an angle which is equal to its complement and y0 is the measure of an angle which
x0
is equal to its supplement, then 0 is :
y
1
(a) 1 (b) (c) 2 (d) 3
2
14.
A E B
0
30 x
C F D
18. In Figure, PQ || R S , PAB = 70° and ACS = 100°. Determine ABC , BAC and CAQ.
19. In the Fig. AMN, APQ, QRM and PRN are all straight lines. The value of is.
P
R
55° 125°
A M N
ANSWER KEY
1. (c) 2. (d) 3. (b) 4. (a) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a)
8. 120° 9. (b) 10. 135° 11. 125° 12. 75° 13. (b) 14. 30°
15. 126°/144° 16. 20° 17. x = 10°18. 70°, 30°, 80° 19. (a) 20. 30°
1. Which of the following two shapes can be joined together to form a semi-circle?
(1) (c) and (d) (2) (b) and (a) (3) (b) and (c) (4) (a) and (d)
2. The value of the supplement of the complement of 3° is :
(1) 93° (2) 9° (3) 87° (4) none of these
3. Which of the following is false for a triangle?
(1) Each angle is equal to 60° (2) Two angles are right angles
(2) One angle is obtuse angle (4) Two angles are acute angles
4. If AB and CD are parallel, find the value of angle x.
Check True/False
14. The sum of all the angles at a point is 360°.
(a) True (b) False
15. A triangle can have two obtuse angles.
(a) True (b) False
16. In the diagram if ABC and PQR are equilateral. The CXY equals
19. Lines PS, QT and RU intersect at a common point O, as shown P is joined to Q, R to S and T to U, to form
triangles. The value of P Q R S T U is :
20. Triangle ABC is isosceles with AB = AC. The measure of angle BAD is 30° and AD = AE. The measure
of angle EDC, is :
ANSWER KEY
8. 100° 9. 70° 10. 264 11. 90° 12. (a) 45° (b) 180° (c) 45°
(d) 90° 13. 30° 14. True 15. False 16. B 17. A 18. B
19. B 20. C
(C) 3 (D) 9 2 3
16. Find six rational number between and .
5 4
5 3
8. If = 47 a + 3 b then find the value of a 17. Find number of natural number solutions of x+y = 8
74 3
+ b. 18. A rational number between 2 and 3 is
(A) 28 (B) 27 (A) 1.414 (B) 1.8
(C) 1 (D) 29
(C) 1.732 (D) 1.734
9. Sum of 4 63 5 7 8 28 is
19. Descending order of 21/ 2 , 31/3 , & 51/5 is
(A) 28 (B) 7 (A) 51/5 31/3 21/ 2 (B) 21/2 31/3 51/5
(C) 14 (D) 21 (C) 21/2 51/5 31/3 (D) 31/3 21/ 2 51/5
2n 2n 1 20. Which of the following number has rational
10. The value of is equal to:
2n 1 2n square root ?
(A) 1.5 (B) 2/3 (A) 0.4 (B) 0.09
(C) 2 (D) 4 (C) 0.9 (D) 0.025
ANSWER KEY
5 5
1. 8 2. (A) (B) 3. DIY 4. a = 7, b = 4
12 3
37
5. 1210 6. 7. A 8. A 9. B
17
10. D 11. 6
17 3 4 2 12 25 12. B 13. B
1. The value oc x satisfying 184x 3 (54 2)3x 4 is 7. The value of the expression
(A) 2 (B) 6
34 24 2 4 3 2
(C) 3 (D 4
(A) 2 (B) -2
2. Find the value of
(C) 3 (D) 4
16. 10 24 60 40 is equal to 1
19. Find the value of x, if 84x 3
32 x 2
(A) 2 3 5
1 1
(B) 5 3 7 (A) (B)
17 17
(C) 1 2 7 3 3
(C) (D)
17 17
(D) 5 3 7
20. If 2048 2x , 2187 3y and
5 2 6
x 2 1 x 2 1
17. 5 2 6 =10, then x is :
3125 5z then value of x + y – z is :
(A) 2 (B) 2 (A) 1 (B) 9
ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. 6 1 3. C 4. D 5. C 6. A 7. A
x2 1
8. B 9. 198 10. A 11. C 12. a 13. 15
2x
14. B 15. C 16. A 17. D 18. B 19. B 20. C
9 6
2. Find solution of 3 34 4 2 54 11. 6
52 6 3
3 2 ________ .
(A) 0 (B) 2
3. If 13 x 10 8 5 , then what is the value
6
of x? (C) 1 (D) 2
(A) -5 (B) -6 y
8
If 4 10 then what is the relation
x z
(C) -4 (D) -2 12.
4. Find the Rationalization factor (R.F) of 1000
between x, y & z given that they are non-zero real
33 4 35 . numbers?
5. Simplify:
1 1 1
(A) 0
1 1 1 1 1 2x 3y z
p q p q 1 1 1 1 pq
1 1 1 2
p q p q
1 1 1
(B)
(A) pq
2
(B) -1 2x y z
(C) pq 1 1 1
2
(D) 1
(C)
x 3y z
6. If a p b q c r abc , then pqr = _________ .
1 1 1
(A) p q q r
2 2
(B) pq qr pr (D)
2x 3y z
(C) pq qr rp (D) pq qr rp
2
1 3 1 3 1 4 3
(C) 2 (D)
2 3 1 3 1 4 3
C
1 , then which of the following is true?
52 6
a 2b a 2b (A) A < B < C
18. If x , prove that bx2 – ax +
a 2b a 2b (B) B > A > C
b = 0.
(C) A < C < B
1
p
1
q
(D) C > B > A
a a x
b b a
19. If p q
then what is x ?
1 1 b
b b
a a
ANSWER KEY
1. C 2. 7290000 3. C 4. 2 7 5 5. B 6. B
7. A 8. B 9. A 10. A 11. C 12. D
b 10
8
If q x x 2 x , find
2
1.
x 3 6 x 2 11x 6 .
10. Factorise
x y 3 y z 3 z x 3 .
1
11. If a 4 , find the values of
a
2 1 3 1 4 1
(i) a (ii) a (iii) a
a2 a3 a4
2a2 3a 2 .
14. Show that 1 is a zero of the polynomial x 4 2 x 3 3 x 2 5 x 1 .
15. Evaluate following using identities;
(i) 98 102 (ii) 463 293 173 (iii) 993 (iv) 1023
a 2 5ab a 2 b2
17.
The value of a 2 6ab 5b 2 a 2 ab is :
a 1
(A) –1 (B) (C) (D) 1
b a
(a b) 2 (b c) 2 (c a) 2
18. Evaluate : (b c)(c a) (a b) (c a) (a b)(b c) .
a b
If (a b ) (a b ) then
2 2 3 3 3 2
19.
b a
2 3 5 6
(A) (B) (C) (D)
3 2 6 5
x 3 y 3
20.
x 3 y 1 (xy) 2 y 3 x 1
1 1 1 1
(A) x + y (B) y – x (C) x y (D) x y
ANSWER KEY
1. (i) 0 (ii) 3 (iii) 8 2. (B) 3. (B) 4. (A) 5. (B)
6. (3x + 8)(x + 1) 7. Yes 8. (x – 1)(x – 2)(x – 3) 9. 1980
13. a 2 2 a 1 14. Yes 15. (i) 9996 (ii) 68034 (iii) 970299
(iv) 1061208 16. A 17. D 18. D 19. A 20. B
1. 2 is a polynomial of degree :
1
(A) 2 (B) 0 (C) 1 (D)
2
2. If 4x 4 3x 3 3x 2 x 7 is divided by 1 – 2x then remainder will be :
57 59 55 55
(A) (B) (C) (D)
8 8 8 8
3. Find the factors of the polynomial
P(x) = x3 + 6x2 + 11 x + 6
4. Find HCF of (x2 – 4) and (x2 – 5x + 6).
5. Factorise following :
(a) x8 + x4 + 1 (b) 81p4 – 64q4
6. A polynomial of degree 4 with leading coefficient as 1 is to be find if P(1) = P(3) = P(5) = 0 and
P(4) = 6. Find P(x).
7. The HCF of the polynomials 12a 3b4 c2 , 18a 4 b3c3 and 24a 6 b 2 c 4 is ________ .
1 1 1 1
13. Find the value of x in x
1 2 2 3 3 4 99 100
14. If (x – 2) is a factor of (x – 1 )5 – (2x + 3k)2, then find the value of k
15. By remainder theorem, find the remainder when p(x) is divided by g(x).
3
p(x) = x3 – 6x2 + 2x – 4, g(x) = 1 – x.
2
4
16. If x = is a zero of the polynomial f(x) = 2x 3 – 11x 2 + kx – 20, find the remainder when
3
9kx 4
4x 3 3x 1 is divided by x + 2.
235
4 6
(A) –5 (B) 2 (C) (D)
3 7
2
n2 2
2mn 2
20. The square root of x m xn x n is
1
(D) x 2 m n
2
(A) x m n (B) x m n 2 (C) x m n /2
21. Direction: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
Assertion: Degree of a zero polynomial is not defined.
Reason: Degree of a non-zero constant polynomial is 0
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
22. Direction: In the following questions, a statement of assertion (A) is followed by a statement of reason
(R). Mark the correct choice as:
1
Assertion: The sum and product of the zeros of a quadratic polynomial are and 1/4 respectively.
4
Then the quadratic polynomial is 4x2 + x + 1.
Reason : The quadratic polynomial whose sum and product of zeros are given is x 2 –(sum of zeros)
x + product of zeros.
(A) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true and reason (R) is the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(B) Both assertion (A) and reason (R) are true but reason (R) is not the correct explanation of assertion (A).
(C) Assertion (A) is true but reason (R) is false.
(D) Assertion (A) is false but reason (R) is true.
ANSWER KEY
1. B 2. B 3. (x + 1)(x + 2)(x + 3) 4. (x – 2)
99
10. (x + 2)2(x4 – 2x3 + 4x2 – 8x + 16) 11. C 12. a=2 13.
100
5 136
14. , 1 15. 16. 53 17. A 18. C
3 27
19. C 20. D 21. B 22. A
1. The author of the book “The Book of games of chance” based on probability theory is
(1) J. Cardon (2) R.S. Woodwards (3) P.S. Laplace (4) P.D. Pherma
2. A bag contains 20 balls out of which x are black. If 10 more black balls are put in the box, the probability of
drawing a black
(1) 0 (2) 5 (3) 10 (4) 40
3. The probability of getting a number greater than 2 by throwing a fair dice is:
(1) 2/3 (2) 1/3 (3) 1 (4) 3/5
4. What is the probability of getting two heads in four tosses of a coin?
1 3 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 8 4 16
5. A die is thrown twice. The probability that 5 will not come up either of the time is
35 25 1 11
(1) (2) (3) (4)
36 36 36 36
1 1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4 6
7. Two fair die are thrown. The probability the sum of the numbers appearing is 6 is:
1 5 1 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 6 36 36
8. From a pack of playing cards all cards whose numbers are multiple of 3 are removed. A card is now drawn at
random. Then the probability that the card drawn is an even number is red card :
10 1 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
52 4 5 13
9. From the natural number 1 to 19, a number is chosen randomly, the probability that the number is a prime number
is:
8 7 6 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
19 19 19 19
10. In a 400 m running race, there are ‘n’ competitors and they are numbered at randon. Find the probability that
Sujata, numbered 12, will get 6th rank in the race>
1 1 n 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 n 1 n n
12 14 14 8
(1) (2) (3) (4)
25 25 50 25
12. The probability that a leap year selected will have 53 sundays is :
1 2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) 0
7 7 7
13. Two fair dice the thrown together. The probabillity that the number 5 does not appear on any of them is:
1 5 11 25
(1) (2) (3) (4)
36 36 36 36
14. Two coins are tossed simultaneously. What is the probability or getting at least one head.
1 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4) 1
4 2 4
15. Two dice are rolled, find the probability that the sum is
(1) equal to 1 (2) equal to 4 (3) less than 13
16. A jar contains 3 red marbles, 7 green marbles and 10 white marbles. If a marble is drawn from the jar at
random, what is the probability that this marble is white?
1 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
20 10 2
17. Bag contain 10 back and 20 white balls, one ball is drawn at random. What is the probability that ball is
white?
1 4 2
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
3 3 3
18. What is the probability of getting at least one six in a single throw of three unbiased dice?
19. What is the probability that a two digit number selected at random will be a multiple of '3' and not a
multiple of '5'?
(1) 4/15 (2) 2/15 (3) 1/15 (4) 2/45
20. Two dice are tossed. The probability that the total score is a prime number is:
1 5 1 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 12 2 9
ANSWER KEY
1. 1 2. 2 3. 1 4. 2 5. 2 6. 1 7. 4
8. 3 9. 1 10. 4 11. 1 12. 2 13. 4 14. 3
15. (1) 0 (2) 1/12 (3) 1 16. 3 17. 4 18. 2 19. 1 20. 2
17 7 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
52 13 4 2
2. Two cards are drawn from the pack of 52 cards. Find the probability that both are diamonds or both are
kings.
14 467 83
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
663 2652 2652
3. What is the probability of drawing a king and a queen consecutively from a deck of 52 cards, without
replacement?
4 4 1 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
663 13 104 52
4. A coin is tossed twice. What is the probability of getting two consecutive tails?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/3 (3) 1/4 (4) 1
5. What is the probability of getting a 2 or a 5 when a die is rolled?
(1) 1/2 (2) 1/3 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/6
6. What is the probability of getting a sum of 7 when two dice are thrown?
(1) 1/2 (2) 2/3 (3) 1/4 (4) 1/6
7. Three dice are rolled together. What is the probability as getting at least one '4'?
(1) 43/216 (2) 1/72 (3) 7/36 (4) 91/216
8. What is the probability of the occurrence of a number that is odd or less than 5 when a fair die is rolled?
(1) 1 (2) 1/2 (3) 5/6 (4) Not Possible
9. When two dice are rolled, find the probability of getting a greater number on the first die than the one on
the second, given that the sum should equal 8.
(1) 1/6 (2) 2/5 (3) 1/18 (4) 5/36
10. A die is rolled thrice. What is the probability that the sum of the rolls is atleast 5?
212 5 5 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
216 36 6 6
11. Two dice are thrown together. What is the probability that the number obtained on one of the dice is
multiple of number obtained on the other dice?
11 7 1
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
18 18 2
12. A box contains 4 chocobars and 4 ice creams. Tom eats 3 of them, by randomly choosing. What is the
probability of choosing 2 chocobars and 1 icecream?
1 2 1 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
5 3 7 7
16 2 16 16
(1) (2) (3) (4)
27 9 81 243
14. A pack contains 4 blue, 2 red and 3 black pens. If 2 pens are drawn at random from the pack, NOT
replaced and then another pen is drawn. What is the probability of drawing 2 blue pens and 1 black pen?
2 1 9 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
9 3 36 14
15. A problem is given to three persons P, Q, R whose respective chances of solving it are 2/7, 4/7, 4/9
respectively. What is the probability that the problem is solved?
16. Find the probability that a leap year has 53 Sundays.
17. Two fair dice are rolled together. The probability that the difference of numbers appearing is 1 will be
5 7 5 7
(1) (2) (3) (4)
6 36 18 14
18. Two coins are tossed simultaneously, the probability of getting at least one head is :
3 1 2 3
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 2 3 5
19. A card is drawn from a well shuffled pack of 52 cards. The probability that card is a red ace is
1 1 3 1
(1) (2) (3) (4)
13 26 52 2
20. From a pack of 52 playing cards, face club cards are removed. The remaining cards are well shuffled and
a card is drawn at random. Find the probability that the card drawn is a heart card.
1 13 3 49
(1) (2) (3) (4)
4 49 52 52
ANSWER KEY
1. 2 2. 4 3. 1 4. 3 5. 2 6. 4 7. 4
8. 3 9. 3 10. 1 11. 1 12. 4 13. 3 14. 4
122 2
15. 16. 17. 1 18. 4 19. 3 20. 1
147 7
1. In the given figure, PQRS is a parallelogram. PO and QO respectively the bisectors of P and Q. Line
LOM is drawn parallel to PQ. Then PL is equal to
(3x-10)°
A B
(1) 25° (2) 60° (3) 75° (4) 45°
7. PQRS is a parallelogram and M, N are the mid-points of PQ and RS respectively. Which of the following
is not true?
P S
M
N
Q R
A B
2 2
x–
O
+5 5
2x
D C
29 8 1
(1) (2) (3) 20 (4)
8 29 20
12. The lengths of two adjacent sides of a parallelogram are 5 cm and 3.5 cm. One of its diagonals is 6.5 cm
long. Area of the parallelogram is
16. An obtuse angle of a rhombus is greater than twice the acute angle by 30°. Find the measure of each a
(A) 50° (B) 130° (C) 80° (D) 60°
D C
P
*
*
A B
1
19. The side of rhombus is 10 cm. The smaller diagonal is of the greater diagonal. Find the length of
3
greater diagonal :
D
b C
y
x a
A B
ANSWER KEY
1. 3 2. 2 3. 4 4. 3 5. 3 6. 4 7. 3
8. 4 9. 1 10. 3 11. 3 12. 4 13. 2 14. 4
15. D.I.Y 16. 2 17. 2 18. 1 19. 1 20. 3
2 1 2 2
(1) (2) X Y
2 2
2 2 2 1
(3) (4)
2 2 A C
4. In a triangle ABC, AB = AC. Points D and E are on the sides BC and AC respectively such that AD = AE.
If BAD 30 , then the measure of EDC is
(1) 10° (2) 15° (3) 20° (4) 25°
5. ABCD is quadrilateral whose diagonals intersect each other at the point O such that OA = OB = OD. If
OAB 30 , then the measures of ODA is
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°
6. If P is a point inside the scalene triangle ABC such that APB, BPC and CPA have the same area then
P must be
(1) in centre of ABC (2) circumcentre of ABC
(3) centroid of ABC (4) orthocentre of ABC
7. If the segment joining the midpoint of the consecutive side of quadrilateral ABCD form a rectangle then
ABCD must be
(1) rhombus (2) square (3) kite (4) all of these
8. In a quadrilateral ABCD, if AB || CD, D 2B, AD b and CD a, then the side AB is of length
a
(1) 2b (2) a 2b (3) 2a b (4) a b
2
9. If x denotes an angle between any two lines of symmetry of a regular hexagon, then the minimum value
of x is
(1) 30° (2) 45° (3) 60° (4) 90°
2 3 4 5
(1) (2) (3) (4)
7 7 7 7
14. Which is not correct about rectangle EFGH ?
(1) E = F = G = H = 90° (2) EG = FH
(3) EF = GH and HE = FG (4) EG and FH are bisectors.
15. Two opposite angles of a parallelogram are (3x – 2)° and (63 – 2x)°. then the largest angles of the
parallelogram is
(1) 143° (2) 137° (3) 121° (4) 117°
16. In the given figure, ABCD is a parallelogram, X and Y are the mid-points of AB and CD respectively. If
the area of the rectangle BCYX = 36 sq. cm, then the area of the ABC is equal to (in sq. cm)
D Y C
A X B
ANSWER KEY
1. 4 2. 4 3. 2 4. 2 5. 3 6. 3 7. 4
8. 4 9. 3 10. 2 11. 4 12. 3 13. 4 14. 4
15. 1 16. 3 17. 50°, 130°, 50°, 130° 18. 100°
1 1
6. If the mean of x and is M, then the mean of x 2 and 2 is :
x x
M2
(1) M 2 (2) (3) 2M 2 1 (4) 2M 2 1
4
7. If the mean of the observation x, x 3, x 5, x 7 and x 10 is 9, the mean of the last three observation is
1 2 1 2
(1) 10 (2) 10 (3) 11 (4) 11
3 3 3 3
8. The premodal class and postmodal class rectangles have same height. If the modal class is 40-60, then
what is mode ?
(1) 40 (2) 60 (3) 100 (4) 50
9. The mean of 20 observation is 5. If each observation is multiplied by 2, then new mean of the resulting
observations is
(1) 7 (2) 10 (3) 20 (4) 40
10. Which of the following is a false statement ?
(1) Median can be determined graphically. (2) Mean can be determined from the graph.
(3) Mean cannot be determined by inspection. (4) Mode can be determined graphically.
11. Find the value of p. if the mean of the following distribution is 7.5.
x 3 5 7 9 11 13
f 6 8 15 p 8 4
(1) 1 (2) 2 (3) 3 (4) 4
x x x x x x
15. If the median of , , , x, , , is 8, then the value of x is _________ .
7 5 6 4 3 2
(1) 8 (2) 24 (3) 32 (4) 48
16. Four times the arithmetic mean of x and 10 is 70, then what is value of x ?
(1) 65 (2) 25 (3) 50 (4) 35
17. The mean of n numbers x1, x2, .... xn is M. If x1 is replaced by 'a', the few mean is :
nM x1 a M x1 a nM a x1
(1) (2) (3) (4) None of these
n n n
18. Which of the following is correct for the given data 55, 38, 69, 24, 89?
(1) median = mode (2) mean = mod (3) mean = median (4) None of these
19. The mean of n numbers is M. If 1 is added to the first number, 2 is added to second number, .... n is added
to the nth number then the new mean is:
n 1 n
(1) M (2) M (3) M + n (4) None of these
2 2
Answer Key
1. 2 2. 3 3. 2 4. 2 5. 2 6. 3 7. 3
8. 1 9. 4 10. 2 11. 3 12. 2 13. 4 14. 4
15. 3 16. 2 17. 1 18. 3 19. 1 20. 3
x i
II. It is equal to i 1
for n observations
n
(1) median (2) mean (3) mode (4) variance
2. On the basis of following features identify the correct central tendency.
I. It is the middle most or the central value of variate in a set of observations.
n n
II. It is the mean of th and 1 th observations, when the number of observation is even.
2 2
(1) Mean (2) Median (3) Mode (4) Variance
3. On the basis of following features identify the correct graph.
I. It is called cumulative frequency curve.
II. It is represented with the help of cumulative frequency distribution.
III. It is a graph plotted by the upper limits of class intervals on x-axis and their corresponding cumulative
frequencies on the y-axis.
(1) Bar graph (2) Histogram (3) Ogive (4) Frequency polygon
4. Which of the following is correct relation between mean, median and mode?
2
(1) Median Mode (Mean Mode) (2) Mean Mode 3 (Median Mode)
3 2
(3) Mean – Mode = 3(Mean – Median) (4) Mean Mode = 3(Mean + Median)
5. The mean of 5 observation is 15. If the mean of first three observations is 14 and last three observations
is 17, then the third observation is :
(1) 18 (2) 19 (3) 17 (4) 20
6. The mean of fifteen different natural numbers is 13. The maximum value for the second largest of these
numbers is
(1) 46 (2) 51 (3) 52 (4) 53
7. If the number 28, 25, 20, 19, 15, x, 10, 7, 6, 3 are in decreasing order and their median is 13, then the
mean is
(1) 14.4 (2) 15.4 (3) 16.4 (4) 14.6
8. If 12, 15, 17, 18, x+2, x+4, 25, 30, 31, 32 are in ascending order and median of the observation is 22,
then value of x is:
(1) 20 (2) 19 (3) 22 (4) 23
9. Mean of 9 observations was found to be 35. Later on, it was detected that an observation 80 was misread
as 8. The correct mean is:
(1) 43 (2) 42 (3) 44 (4) 45
10. The mean of a group of eleven consecutive natural numbers is m. What will be the percentage change in
the mean when next six consecutive natural numbers are included in the group?
m m 300
(1) m% (2) % (3) % (4) %
3 300 m
1 2
(1) 7 3 (2) 7 3 (3) 72 (4) 73
1 1 1
(1) 1 (2) (3) (4)
2 3 4
16. If the number 13, 15, 17, 18 and n are arranged is ascending order and their arithmetic mean and median
are equal then value of n will be :
(1) 27 (2) 22 (3) 28 (4) None fo these
17. The average marks scored by Ajay in certain number of tests is 84. He second 100 marks in his last test,
his average score of all these tests is 86, then the total no. of tests he appeared is
(1) 8 (2) 7 (3) 9 (4) 10
18. The median of first 12 prime numbers is
(1) 13 (2) 14 (3) 15 (4) 17
19. If the arithmetic mean of 8 observations is 100 and that of 6 observations is 80, then the combined mean
of all the 15 observations will be :
(1) 100 (2) 80 (3) 90 (4) 92
20. On 13 consecutive days the number of persons booked for violating speed limit of 40 km/hr. were as
follow 59, 52, 58, 61, 68, 57, 62, 50, 55, 62, 53, 54, 51
(1) 61 (2) 52 (3) 55 (4) 57
ANSWER KEY
1. 2 2. 2 3. 4 4. 3 5. 1 6. 2 7. 1
8. 2 9. 1 10. 4 11. 3 12. 3 13. 2 14. 4
15. 3 16. 2 17. 2 18. 3 19. 4 20. 4
(1) 32
8 2
3
cm (2) 32
16 2
3
cm
(3) 16 3 8 cm 2
(4) 32 3 16 cm 2
12. Four circular cardboard pieces, each of radious 7cm, are placed in such a way that each piece touches the
two other pieces. The area of the space enclosed by the four pieces is
(1) 21cm 2 (2) 42cm 2 (3) 84cm 2 (4) 168cm 2
1 2 1 2 1 1
(1) cm (2) cm (3) cm 2 (4) cm 2
4 8 16 32
15. A solid spherical ball is prepared by melting a cone and cylinder having the same height and same base
radius equal to r. Then the radius of the sphere is
1
(1) h (2) 2h (3) h (4) 4h
2
16. On increasing each of the radius of the base and the height of a cone by 20% its volume will be increased by ____.
(1) 20% (2) 40% (3) 72.2% (4) 72.8%
17. A cylindrical pencil of diameter 1.2cm has one of its ends sharpened into a conical shape of height
1.4cm. The volume of the material removed is (in cub. cms).....
(1) 4.224 (2) 1.056 (3) 10.56 (4) 42.24
18. AB and CD are two parallel chords of a circle such that AB = 10 cm and CD = 24 cm. If the chords are on
the opposite sides of the centre and the distance between them is 17 cm, the radius of the circle is
(A) 14 cm (B) 10 cm (C) 13 cm (D) 15 cm
19. ABC is an equilateral triangle, we have BD EG DF DE EC , then the ratio of the area of the
shaded portion to area of ABC is
4 7 5 6
(1) (2) (3) (4)
11 9 12 7
81
20. PQRS is trapezium. QR 9cm, PQS 90o , PQ 5cm and area QRS cm 2 . Find the area of
2 3
the trapezium
(1) 7.5 13.5 3 cm 2
(2) 15 13.5 3 cm 2 (3) 11.25 13.5 3 cm 2 (4) 27 3cm 2
ANSWER KEY
1. 4 2. 1 3. 2 4. 4 5. 4 6. 1 7. 1
8. 2 9. 2 10. 3 11. 3 12. 2 13. 4 14. 2
15. 1 16. 4 17. 3 18. 3 19. 2 20. 3
Your Hard Work Leads to Strong Foundation 2
RACE # 01 (SURFACE AREA AND VOLUME) M AT HEM AT ICS
1. A petrol tank is a cylinder of base diameter 21cm and length 18cm fitted with conical ends each of the
axis length 9cm. Determine the capacity of the tank ?
(1) 8136 cm3 (2) 8163 cm3 (3) 8316 cm3 (4) 8631 cm3
2. A circular metallic sheet is divided into two parts in such a way that each part can be folded into a cone.
If the ratio of their curved surface areas is 1 : 2, the ratio of their volumes is :
(1) 1 : 8 (2) 1: 16 (3) 1: 10 (4) 2 : 3
3. If a solid of one shape is converted to another, then the surface area of the new solid is :
(1) remains same (2) increases (3) decreases (4) can’t say
4. In figure, area of the shaded region is : 22 / 7
4 2 3 4 3 3
(1) (2)
2 2 3 3 3 3
4 3 3 3 2 3
(3) (4)
2 3 3 2 2 3
15. The sum of the area of two circles, which touch each other externally is 153 . If the sum of their radii is
15, then ratio of the areas of smaller to the large circle is :
(1) 1 : 2 (2) 1 : 4 (3) 1 : 6 (4) 1 : 5
16. Let be the length of each equal side of an isosceles triangle. If the length of each equal side is doubled,
keeping its height unchanged, then the difference of the squares of bases of the new triangle and the
given triangle is :
(1) 0 (2) 4 2 (3) 9 2 (4) 12 2
17. If Anish is moving along the boundary of a triangular field of sides 35m, 53m and 66m and you are
moving along the boundary of a circular field whose area is double the area of the triangular field, then
22
the radius of the circular field is : Take
7
(1) 14 3m (2) 3 14m (3) 28 3m (4) 7 3m
18. The area of a semi-circle is 308m 2 . The perimeter of the semi-circle is :
(1) 44m (2) 72m (3) 58m (4) 88m
19. In the figure, PQSO is a trapezium in which PQ OS , POS 135o
and OSQ 90o . Points P, Q and R lie on a circle with centre O and
radius 12cm. The area of the shaded part, in cm2, is :
2 5
(1) 61 (2) 61
7 7
5 2
(3) 73 (4) 73
7 7
20 20 circular plates each of radius 14 cm and thickness 2 cm are placed above the other to form a cylindrical
solid. The total surface area will be :
(1) 2992 cm2 (2) 3520 cm2 (3) 4752 cm2 (4) 24640 cm2
ANSWER KEY
1. 3 2. 1 3. 4 4. 3 5. 2 6. 4 7. 1
8. 2 9. 3 10. 2 11. 3 13. 4 14. 3 15. 2
16. 4 17. 1 18. 2 19. 20.
2. Given: AC bisects BAD and BCD . Which of the following methods can be used to prove
ABC ADC ?
B
A C
D
(1) Side-Angle-Side (SAS)
(2) Angle-Side-Angle (ASA)
(3) Angle-Angle-Side (AAS)
(4) There is insufficient information to determine if the triangles are congruent.
3. In triangle ABC, m A = 48°, and m C = 24°. What type of triangle is triangle ABC ?
(1) Acute (2) Right (3) Obtuse (4) Isosceles
4. Two sides of an isosceles triangle measure 3 and 7. Which of the following could be the measure of the
third side?
(1) 9 (2) 7 (3) 5 (4) 3
A D
? B
48°
C
(1) 24° (2) 33° (3) 48° (4) 66°
6. The diagram below shows a right triangle with representations for two angles. What is the value of x?
x + 20
2x + 10
2 3x + 6
2x + 2x + 1
C
A B
(1) 25° (2) 125° (3) 155° (4) 158°
9. The vertex angle of an isosceles triangle measures eight times the measure of a base angle. Find the
measure of a base angle.
(1) 18° (2) 24° (3) 36° (4) 43°
10. In triangle ABC, m A = 60 and m B = 40. Which side of triangle ABC is the longest?
(1) AC (2) AB (3) BC (4) BC AB
11. Which of the following lengths are the sides of a right triangle?
(1) 2.4, 3.2, 4 (2) 4.3, 4.4, 4.5 (3) 3.1, 4.2, 4.8 (4) All of the above.
12. Given: AB DE and A D . Which of the following methods can be used to prove that
ABC DEC ?
A D
B C E
(1) Side-Angle-Side (SAS)
(2) Angle-Side-Angle (ASA)
(3) Side-Side-Side (SSS)
(4) There is insufficient information to determine if the triangles are congruent.
13. In triangle ABC, A is obtuse. Which statement is true about the sum of the measures of B and C?
(1) m B + m C = 90 (2) m B + m C > 90
(3) m B + m C < 90 (4) m B + m < C = 180
14. The legs of a right triangle measure 8 and 15. If a leg and hypotenuse of another right triangle are 8 and
17 respectively, these two right triangles are congruent.
(1) TRUE (2) FALSE
15. In the accompanying diagram, triangle ABC is similar to triangle DEF, AC = 6, AB = BC = 12, and
DF = 8. Find the perimeter of triangle DEF.
E
12 12
A 6 C D 8 F
(1) 32 (2) 36 (3) 40 (4) 60
x
A C y
E G
Y B
A
Z W
D
C
X
F
H
3
(1) 3 cm (2) 2 3 cm (3) cm (4) Can’t say
2
19. In an isosceles right angle triangle ABC a circle in inscribed in it. Radius of the circle will be if triangle
right angled at B;-
AC AB2 BC2 AC2 AB BC AC
(1) (2) (3) (4)
2 4 4 2
20. A right angle triangle is inscribed in a circle. Its circumcentre would lie
(1) Inside the triangle (2) Outside the triangle
(3) On one of the sides of triangle (4) It does not exist in this triangle
ANSWER KEY
1. 3 2. 2 3. 3 4. 2 5. 2 6. 2 7. 1
8. 3 9. 1 10. 2 11. 1 12. 4 13. 3 14. 1
15. 3 16. 3 17. 3 18. 3 19. 1 20. 3
1. In the following figure, AD = 5.6 cm, AE = (x+1) cm, AB = 8.4 cm and EC = (x –1 ) cm, find AC. Given
that DE || BC.
A
D E
B C
2. In the following figure, ABC is right angled at C, and M is the mid-point of hypotenuse AB. If AC =
32 cm and BC = 60 cm, then find CM.
A
B C
(1) 32 cm (2) 30 cm (3) 17 cm (4) 34
3. In the following figure, ABC is an equilateral triangle. DE is parallel to BC and equal to half the length of
BC. If AD + EC + CB = 24 cm, then what is the perimeter of triangle ADE?
A
D E
B C
(1) 12 cm (2) 16 cm (3) 18 cm (4) Cannot be determined
4. In the following figure, PQR is right angled at R and S is the mid-point of hypotenuse PQ. If RS = 25
cm and PR = 48 cm then find QR.
P
Q R
(1) 7 cm (2) 25 cm (3) 14 cm (4) Cannot be determined
5. In the following figure, AD bisects BAC . If BAD 45 and ABC is inscribed in a circle, then
which of the following is the longest?
A
B C
D
(1) AB (2) AD (3) AC (4) BC
E F
(1) E D F (2) D F E (3) D E F (4) None of these
7. If BC : CD = 2 : 3, AE : EC = 3:4 and BC : AE = 2:3, then find the ratio of the area of ECD to the area
of AEB . A
B D
C
(1) 2 : 1 (2) 2 : 3 (3) 3 : 5 (4) 4 : 3
8. In the given figure, AC is the median as well as altitude to BD. In ACE , AD is the median to CE.
Which of the following is true?
A
B E
C D
(1) AB + CD > AE (2) AB + BC = AE (3) AB + DE < AE (4) None of these
9. Prove that in a triangle, centroid divides the median from a vertex to the opposite side in 2:1.
10. In the following figure, AX : XB = 1 : 2 and AY : YC = 2 : 1 and area of AXY is 20. Find the area of
ABC .
A
B C
11. In the given figure RA || ET, find ST.
R 6.37
A
S
20.8
E
8.19 T
A
R
U
13. Find HD.
O
9 D
P
J K
H
27
I
14. In the diagram below, OL is perpendicular to DX. Find OX.
B X
12
L O 13
10
P D
15. In the diagram, QR is perpendicular to BD. Find QD.
C
32.0
19.2
B Q D
15.0
16. The sides of a triangle with positive area have lengths 4, 6 and x. The sides of a second triangle with
positive area have length 4, 6 and y. The smallest positive number that is not the possible velue of |x–y|
is (x and y are integers) :
(A) 2 (B) 6 (C) 6 (D) 8
17. The sides of a triangle are in the rato 4 : 6 : 11. Which of the following words best described the triangle?
(A) obtuse (B) isosceles (C) acute (D) impossible
20. In the given diagram B C 65 and D 30 , then the true statement is :
ANSWER KEY
1. 6 2. (4) 3. (3) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (2) 7. (4)
8. (1) 9. DIY 10. 90 11. 9.1 12. 84 13. 11 14. 7.09
15. 9 16. D 17. D 18. C 19. A 20. C