PHASE- I ON-LINE EXAMINATION - RECRUITMENT OF OFFICER GRADE ‘A’ ASSISTANT MANAGER

GENERAL, LEGAL, RESEARCH, OFFICIAL LANGUAGE, ENGINEERING (ELECTRICAL)

AND INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY

Please note that in case you have registered for more than two streams, your candidature will be
considered under only the latest two.
In case you have applied for two Streams, you will be appearing for Paper 2 of both Streams in the
same session. (However while issuing your call letter, only one registration number (latest) has
been mentioned and only one Roll no. has been generated for administrative purpose.) Name of
both the posts will be printed on the Call letter.
After completion of exam, candidates must move-out from the examination hall/lab in an orderly
manner without making nuisance/discussion. In case any such report is received against any
candidate, his/her candidature stands to get cancelled.
INFORMATION HANDOUT
This handout contains details pertaining to various aspects of the online exam you are going to undertake and
important instructions about related matters. You are advised to study the handout carefully as it will help you in
preparing for the examination.
The on-line examination will comprise the following objective type multiple choice tests as stated below :

No. Of Max
Paper Streams/ Subjects Version Duration Cut off
Questions Marks
General Awareness (including
some questions related to
20 25
Financial Sector of easy to
Paper 1 for moderate difficulty level) Bilingual 60
All Streams 30%
English Language 20 25 i.e. Minutes
Quantitative Aptitude 20 25 English
Test of Reasoning 20 25 and
TOTAL 80 100 Hindi
General Stream: except
Multiple choice questions on test of
subjects Commerce, English
50 100
Accountancy, Management,
Finance, Costing, Companies
Act and Economics
Legal Stream, Research 40
Paper 2 40%
Stream, Engineering Minutes
(Electrical) Stream, Official
Language Stream and
Information Technology
Stream: (Multiple choice
questions on Specialized subject
related to stream)
Aggregate Cut off 40%

The time for the test is (Paper 1 – 60 Minutes and Paper 2 – 40 Minutes) 100 minutes; however you may have to be
at the venue for approximately 180 minutes including the time required for logging in, collection of the call letters,
going through the instructions etc. All papers except test of English Language will be provided in English and Hindi. All
the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct answer. You
have to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that alternative which you feel is
appropriate/correct. The alternative/ option that you have clicked on will be treated as your answer to that
question. There will be penalty for wrong answers marked by you. For every wrong answer marked by you,
1/4 of the marks assigned to that question will be deducted as penalty.

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The Scores of Online Examination will be obtained by adopting the following procedure :
(i) Number of questions answered correctly by a candidate in each objective paper is considered for arriving at the
Corrected Score after applying penalty for wrong answers.
(ii) The Corrected Scores so obtained by a candidate are made equivalent to take care of the minor difference in
difficulty level, if any, in each of the objective paper, if held in different sessions for a post/stream to arrive at the
Equated Scores*
*Scores obtained by candidates on any paper are equated to the base form by considering the distribution of scores of
all the forms.
Note : Cutoffs may be applied in two stages :
(i) On scores in individual papers
(ii) On Total Score
Please note that the types of questions in this handout are only illustrative and not exhaustive. In the actual
examination you will find questions of a higher difficulty level on some or all of these types and also
questions on the types not mentioned here.
Some sample questions are given below.
SAMPLE QUESTIONS

GENERAL AWARENESS
This test is intended to give an index of your awareness of people and events past and present in different walks of life.

Q.1. Tarapore atomic power plant is located in –––––

(1) Bihar (2) Gujarat (3) Madhya Pradesh (4) Rajasthan (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. The total number of commercial banks nationalised so far is –––––
(1) 7 (2) 14 (3) 20 (4) 24 (5) Other than those given as options
Q.3. OSCAR awards are given for best performance in which of the following field ?
(1) Films (2) Literature (3) Sports (4) Science (5) Social Service
Q.4. Which of the following financial institutions has introduced the ‘Know Your Customer’ guidelines for Banks ?
(1) IDBI (2) RBI (3) NABARD (4) SIDBI (5) Other than those given as options
Q.5. Which of the following may not be a part of projected Financial Statements ?
(1) Projected Income Statement (2) Projected Trial Balance (3) Projected Cash Flow Statement
(4) Projected Balance Sheet (5) Other than those given as options
Q.6. Tangible Networth is ________
(1) share capital plus reserves (2) total current assets (3) fixed assets minus depreciation
(4) networth minus tangible assets (5) Other than those given as options

ENGLISH LANGUAGE

This is a test to see how well you know English. Your English language ability would be tested through questions on
grammar & vocabulary, synonyms, antonyms, sentence completion, comprehension of a passage etc.
Read sentence to find out whether there is any grammatical or idiomatic error in it. The error, if any, will be in one part
of the sentence. The number of that part is the answer. If there is no error, the answer is ‘No error’. (Ignore the errors
of punctuation, if any).
Q.1. The regaining of freedom / as we well know has given rise for / many dormant issues /
(1) (2) (3)
and conflicts in our society. No error.
(4) (5)
Q.2. From the words given below the sentence, pick the word which would complete the sentence correctly and
meaningfully.

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 Continuous unemployment has induced in the people a kind of _____ which is most depressing.
(1) laziness (2) encouragement (3) satisfaction (4) anger (5) awakening
Q.3-5. In the following passage there are blanks, each of which has been numbered. These numbers are printed
below the passage and against each, five words are suggested, one of which fits the blank appropriately. Find
out the appropriate word in each case.
The true (3) of rights is duty. If we all (4) our duties, rights will not be (5) to seek. If leaving duties unperformed
we run after rights, they will evade us like an elusive person. The more we pursue them, the farther will they fly.
Q.3. (1) end (2) source (3) joy (4) purpose (5) power
Q.4. (1) deny (2) devote (3) discharge (4) imagine (5) fulfill
Q.5. (1) far (2) close (3) easy (4) against (5) common

QUANTITATIVE APTITUDE

This test is designed to measure how fast and accurate you are in dealing with numbers, viz. computation, quantitative
reasoning, interpretation of tables and graphs.

Q.1. Sohanlal purchased 120 reams of paper at Rs.100 per ream. The expenditure on transport was Rs.480. He
had to pay an octroi duty of 50 paise per ream and the coolie charges were Rs.60. What should be the selling
price of each ream if he wants a profit of 20% ?
(1) Rs.126 (2) Rs.115.50 (3) Rs.105 (4) Rs. 120 (5) Other than those given as options

Q.2. The interest on a certain deposit at 9% per annum is Rs.405 in one year. How much will be the additional
interest in one year on the same deposit at 10% per annum ?
(1) Rs. 40.50 (2) Rs. 450 (3) Rs. 855 (4) Rs.45 (5) Other than those given as options

Also, there may be some questions based on graphs and tables.

Q.3-5. Directions : Given below is a table showing percentages out of a total of 700 employees ranking six
attributes that help promotion. Rank I is the highest. Study the table carefully and answer questions that
follow :

% of Employees Giving Different Ranks

Attribute
I II III IV V VI
Seniority 32 17 22 19 5 5
Perseverance 14 19 17 9 27 14
Efficiency 15 19 21 14 14 17
Intelligence 10 14 10 14 17 35
Honesty 24 17 7 9 27 16
Sociability 5 14 23 35 10 13

Q.3. Which attribute for promotion has received the highest rank ?
(1) Perseverance (2) Seniority (3) Honesty (4) Sociability (5) Efficiency
Q.4. How many employees gave rank III to intelligence ?
(1) 119 (2) 98 (3) 77 (4) 70 (5) 10
Q.5. Which attribute is considered the least important for promotion ?
(1) Honesty (2) Intelligence (3) Perseverance (4) Efficiency (5) Sociability

TEST OF REASONING
This is a test to see how well you can reason. It contains questions of various kinds. Here are some sample questions.
Q.1. If the letters in the word TOPS can be rearranged to form a meaningful word beginning with O, the last letter of
that word is your answer. If more than one such word can be formed, M is the answer and if no such word can
be formed, X is the answer.
(1) T (2) P (3) M (4) S (5) X
Q.2. Some leaders are dishonest. Satyapriya is a leader. Which of the following inferences definitely follows from
these two statements ?

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 (1) Satyapriya is honest (2) Satyapriya is dishonest
(3) Some leaders are honest (4) Leaders are generally dishonest
(5) Satyapriya is sometimes dishonest

Q.3-5. Read the information given below and answer the questions.
Six plays A, B, C, D, E and F of a famous playwright are to be staged one on each day from
Monday to Saturday. The schedule of the plays is to be in accordance with the following.
(1) A must be on the immediately previous day of the on which E is staged.
(2) C must not be staged on Tuesday.
(3) B must be on a day which immediately follows the day on which F is staged.
(4) D must be staged on Friday only and should not be immediately preceded by B.
(5) E must not be staged on the last day of the schedule.
Q.3. Which of the following is the schedule of plays, with the order of their staging from Monday ?
(1) E A B F D C (2) A F B E D C (3) A F B C D E
(4) F A B E D C (5) Other than those given as options
Q.4. Play C cannot definitely be staged on which of the following days in addition to Tuesday ?
(1) Monday (2) Wednesday (3) Thursday (4) Friday (5) Saturday
Q.5. Play D is between which of the following pairs of plays ?
(1) C and E (2) E and F (3) A and E (4) B and E (5) C and F

GENERAL
Q.1. Tangible Networth is ________
(1) share capital plus reserves (2) total current assets
(3) fixed assets minus depreciation (4) networth minus tangible assets
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. The concept of deferred revenue expenditure is closely related to which of the following accounting concepts ?
(1) Accrual (2) Going Concern (3) Matching Concept
(4) Conservation (5) Consistency

LEGAL STREAM
Q.1. Which of the following is lawful object of a contract ?
(1) Forbidden by law (2) Fraudulent (3) Injurious to a person or property
(4) Opposed to public policy (5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. In which of the Acts is the law relating to “Indemnity” laid down ?
(1) Insurance Act (2) Indemnity Act (3) Banking Regulation Act
(4) Reserve Bank of India Act (5) Other than those given as options

RESEARCH STREAM
Q.1. Monetary policy is concerned with ________
(1) the changes in the supply of money (2) buying and selling of financial instruments
(3) reducing unemployment (4) All (1), (2) & (3).
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. In PERT, the distributions of project completion time and activity times follow ________
(1) Normal Distribution and Exponential distribution respectively
(2) Beta distribution and Normal distribution respectively
(3) Normal distribution and Beta distribution respectively
(4) Exponential distribution and Normal distribution respectively
(5) Beta distribution in both the cases

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 ENGINEERING (ELECTRICAL) STREAM
Q.1. The total electric flux through any closed surface surrounding charges is equal to the amount of charge
enclosed. The above statement is known as ________
(1) Maxwell’s first law (2) Maxwell’s second law (3) Gauss’s law
(4) Coulomb’s square law (5) Other than those given as options

OFFICIAL LANGUAGE
प्र.1. राजभाषा के संबंध में राष्ट्रपति की ओर से प्रथम आदे श ककस सन ् में जारी ककया गया था ?
(1) 1952 (2) 1948 (3) 1947 (4) 1962 (5) ददए गए विकल्पों को छोड़कर अन्य

प्र.2. इस प्रश्न में अंग्रेजी का एक िाक्य ददया गया है । उसके बाद ददए गए विकल्पों में से उस विकल्प को चिह्ननि कीह्जए ह्जसमें अंग्रेजी
िाक्य का सबसे उपयुक्ि दहंदी अनुिाद हो।
Banks were permitted to determine their own lending rates for their credit limits
(1) बैंकों को अपनी ऋण सीमाओं के लिए अपनी उधार दरों को स ्ियं तनधााररि करने की अनम ु ति दी गई थी
(2) बैंक स्ियं ऋण सीमाओं के लिए अनुमि ऋण दरों को तनधााररि कर सकिे थे
(3) बैंक उनकी ऋण सीमा के लिए ऋण दरों को तनधााररि करने की अनुमति प्राप्ि कर िेिे थे
(4) बैंक अनुमति िेकर अपनी ऋण सीमा के लिए अपनी ब्याज दरों को तनधााररि कर सकिे थे
(5) बैंकों इिने सक्षम थे कक ऋण सीमा और उसकी ब्याज दर तनधााररि कर िें

INFORMATION TECHNOLOGY
Q.1. In UNIX, mounting a file system means ________
(1) providing a link to the file system to be mounted so that it appears as a local subdirectory
(2) moving all the files from one file system to another
(3) loading a file system from back up medium like tape
(4) copying all the files from one file system to another
(5) Other than those given as options
Q.2. What is the full form of ADS ?
(1) Active Directory Structure (2) Advanced Design System (3) Alternate Data Stream
(4) Analytic Data Set (5) Artwork Delivery System

(A) Details of the On-line Examination Pattern

(1) The examination would be conducted on-line i.e. on a computer.

(2) All tests except of English Language will be in English and Hindi.
(3) All the questions will have multiple choices. Out of the five answers to a question only one will be the correct
answer. The candidate has to select the most appropriate answer and ‘mouse click’ that option which
he/ she feels is appropriate/ correct. The option that is clicked on will be treated as the answer to that
question. Answer to any question will be considered for final evaluation, only when candidates have
submitted the answers by clicking on “Save & Next” or “Mark for Review & Next”.
(4) The clock has been set at the server and the countdown timer at the top right corner of your screen will display
the time remaining for you to complete the exam. When the clock runs out the exam ends by default - you are
not required to end or submit your exam.
(5) The question palette at the right of screen shows one of the following statuses of each of the questions
numbered:

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 The Marked for Review status simply acts as a reminder that you have set to look at the question again. If an
answer is selected for a question that is Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final
evaluation.
(6) To select a question to answer, you can do one of the following :
(a) Click on the question number on the question palette at the right of your screen to go to that numbered
question directly. Note that using this option does NOT save your answer to the current question.
(b) Click on ‘Save & Next’ to save answer to current question and to go to the next question in sequence.
(c) Click on ‘Mark for Review and Next’ to save answer to current question, mark it for review, and to go to
the next question in sequence.
(7) To select your answer, click on one of the option buttons.
(8) To change your answer, click another desired option button.
(9) To save your answer, you MUST click on Save & Next.
(10) To deselect a chosen answer, click on the chosen option again or click on the Clear Response button.
(11) To mark a question for review click on Mark for Review & Next. If an answer is selected for a question that is
Marked for Review, the answer will be considered in the final evaluation.
(12) To change an answer to a question, first select the question and then click on the new answer option followed
by a click on the Save & Next button.
(13) Questions that are saved or marked for review after answering will ONLY be considered for evaluation.
(14) Sections will be displayed on the top bar of the screen. Questions in a section can be viewed by clicking on the
section name. The section you will view will be highlighted.
(15) After clicking the Save & Next button on the last question for a section, you will automatically be taken to the
first question of the next section.
(16) You can move the mouse cursor over the section names to view the status of the questions for that section.
(17) You can shuffle between the questions within a particular paper during the examination as per time allocated to
that particular paper.
(18) The candidates are requested to follow the instructions of the “Test Administrator” carefully. If any candidate
does not follow the instructions / rules, it would be treated as a case of misconduct/ adoption of unfair means
and such a candidate would be liable for debarment from appearing for examinations for a period as decided by
SEBI.
(19) The candidates may ask the Test Administrator about their doubts or questions only before the commencement
of the test. No query shall be entertained after the commencement of the examination.
(20) After the expiry of 100 minutes, the candidates will not be able to attempt any question or check their answers.
The answers of the candidate would be saved automatically by the computer system even if he/ she has not
clicked the “Submit” button.
(21) Please note :
(a) Candidates will not be allowed to “finally submit” unless they have exhausted the actual test time.
(b) Under no circumstances should a candidate click on any of the ‘keyboard keys’ once the exam
starts as this will lock the exam.

B] General Instructions:

(1) Please note date, Reporting time and venue address of the examination given in the call letter.

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(2) You may visit the venue one day before the Online Examination to confirm the location so that you are able to
report on time (as printed on the call letter) on the day of the examination. Late comers will not be allowed.
(3) The call letter should be brought with you to the examination venue along with your recent passport size
photograph duly pasted on it. (Preferably the same photograph as was as uploaded).
(4) You must scrupulously follow the instructions of the Test Administrator and SEBI Representative at the
examination venue. If you violate the instructions you will be disqualified and will be asked to leave the
examination venue.
(5) No use of calculators (separate or with watch), books, note books or written notes, cell phones (with or without
camera facility), or any other electronic device will be allowed during the examination. Use of Scientific
Calculator is permitted for paper 2 of ENGINEERING (Electrical) and Research candidates only. Such calculator
will be made available online on the screen for ENGINEERING (Electrical) and Research candidates only.
(6) Please bring the call letter with your photograph affixed thereon, currently valid Photo identity proof in original
and a photocopy of the same ID proof which you bring in original - THIS IS ESSENTIAL. This call-letter along
with photocopy of photo identity proof duly stapled together are to be submitted to the invigilator at the
end of exam. Currently valid photo identity proof may be PAN Card/Passport/ Permanent Driving
License/Voter’s Card with photograph/Bank Passbook with photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a
Gazetted Officer on official letterhead alongwith photograph/Photo Identity proof issued by a People’s
Representative on official letterhead along with photograph/Valid recent Identity Card issued by a recognized
College/University/Aadhaar Card/E-Aadhaar Card with a photograph/Employee ID in original/Bar Council
Identity card with photograph. Please Note - Ration Card and Learner’s Driving License will not be
accepted as valid ID proof for this purpose. Please note that your name as appearing on the call letter
(provided by you during the process of registration) should exactly match the name as appearing on the photo
identity proof. Female candidates who have changed first/last/middle name post marriage must take special
note of this. If there is any mismatch between the name indicated in the Call Letter and Photo Identity Proof you
will not be allowed to appear for the exam.
(7) A candidate who is or has been declared by SEBI guilty of impersonation or of submitting fabricated document/s
which have been tampered with or of making statements which are incorrect or false or of suppressing material
information or otherwise resorting to any other irregular or improper means of obtaining admission to
examination or of using or attempting to use unfair means in the examination hall or misbehavior in the
examination hall may be debarred permanently or for a specified period by SEBI from admission to any
examination or appearance at any interview held by it for selection of the candidates. SEBI may take further
action against such candidates as deemed fit by it.
(8) Your responses (answers) will be analysed with other candidates to detect patterns of similarity of right and
wrong answers. If in the analytical procedure adopted in this regard, it is inferred/concluded that the responses
have been shared and scores obtained are not genuine/valid, your candidature may be cancelled. Any
candidate who is found copying or receiving or giving assistance or engaging in any behaviour unbecoming of a
candidate will not be considered for assessment. SEBI may take further action against such candidates as
deemed fit by it.
(9) You should bring with you a ball-point pen. You may bring your own ink stamp pad (blue/black). A sheet of
paper will be provided which can be used for rough work or taking down the question number you would like to
review at the end of the test before submitting your answers. After the test is over you MUST handover this
sheet of paper along with the Call Letter to the invigilator.
(10) The possibility of occurrence of some problem in the administration of the examination cannot be ruled out
completely which may impact test delivery and/or result from being generated. In that event, every effort will be
made to rectify such problem, which may include movement of candidates, delay in test. Conduct of a re-exam
is at the absolute discretion of test conducting body. Candidates will not have any claim for a re-test. Candidates
not willing to move or not willing to participate in the delayed process of test delivery shall be summarily rejected
from the process.
(11) If the examination is held in more than one session for a post/stream, the scores across various sessions will be
equated to adjust for slight differences in difficulty level of different test batteries used across sessions. More
than one session are required if the nodes capacity is less or some technical disruption takes place at any
centre or for any candidate.
(12) Anyone found to be disclosing, publishing, reproducing, transmitting, storing or facilitating transmission and
storage of test contents in any form or any information therein in whole or part thereof or by any means verbal or
written, electronic or mechanical or taking away the papers supplied in the examination hall or found to be in
unauthorised possession of test content is likely to be prosecuted.
(13) Instances for providing incorrect information and/or process violation by a candidate detected at any stage of the
selection, process will lead to disqualification of the candidate from the selection process and he/she will not be

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 allowed to appear in any recruitment process of the SEBI in the future. If such instances go undetected during
the current selection process but are detected subsequently, such disqualification will take place with
retrospective effect.
(14) (i) The PWBD candidates, who want to use facility of scribe, MUST go through the detailed advertisement
which is available in the SEBI website and carefully READ the instructions.
(ii) These candidates are also required to submit a Joint Undertaking/Declaration form (Scribe declaration
form) that can be downloaded from SEBI website.
(15) Candidates are advised to take note of “The Public Examinations (Prevention of Unfair Means) Act, 2024”.
(16) Please read instructions related to Social Distancing given on the next page.

INSTRUCTIONS WITH REGARD TO SOCIAL DISTANCING

1 Candidate is required to report at the exam venue strictly as per the time slot mentioned in the Call Letter.
Latecomers will not be allowed to take the test.

2 Mapping of ‘Candidate Roll Number and the Lab Number’ will NOT be displayed outside the exam venue, but the
same will be intimated to the candidates individually at the time of entry of the candidate to the exam venue.

3 Items permitted into the venue for Candidates

Candidates will be permitted to carry only certain items with them into the venue.
a. Mask
b. Personal hand sanitizer (50 ml)
c. A simple pen and ink stamp pad (blue/black)
d. Exam related documents (Call Letter and Photocopy of the ID card stapled with it, ID Card in Original)
e. In the case of Scribe Candidates - Scribe form duly filled and signed with Photograph affixed.

No other Items such as bags, wallet, watch, keys, card, etc. are permitted inside the venue.

4 Candidate should not share any of their personal belonging/material with anyone.

5 Candidate should maintain safe social distance with one another.

6 Candidate should stand in the row as per the instructions provided at venue.

7 If a candidate is availing services of a scribe, then scribe also should bring their own Mask.

8 On completion of examination, the candidates should move out in an orderly manner without crowding as
instructed by the venue staff.

WISH YOU GOOD LUCK!