Test 19-2024
Test 19-2024
Test 19-2024
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the option that best completes each of the following
exchanges.
Question 1: John asked for permission to smoke, but his friends couldn’t put up with the smoke.
John : “Do you mind if I smoke in here?”
Alex: “_________.”
A. I’d rather you didn’t B. No, thank you C. No, I couldn’t D. Yes, I can.
Question 2: Susan is at James’s house.
James: “___________.”
Susan: “Why not. Let me see whether it’s tasty or not.”
A. Do you need my help? B. Would you like to try my new dish?
C. Do you want to invite me to eat out tonight? D. Are you planning to cook anything?
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the following questions.
Question 3: The television first appeared some fifty years ago in the 1950s. Since then, it has become one of the
___________ sources of entertainment for both the old and the young.
A.most popular B. more popular C. as popular D. popular
Question 4: The number of higher education ________ has risen this year for the first time in more than a decade.
A. applies B. applications C. applicable D. applicants
Question 5: We admire a young man ________ a very useful machine which can help students leảrn English effectively.
A. create B. creating C. was creating D.created
Question 6: Do you know __________ man who is waiting for the bus over there?
A. the B. a C. an D. no article
Question 7: Henry had a few minutes before the meeting to ________________ what I had written.
A. look over B. hand over C. fawn over D. get over
Question 8: Mrs. Nguyen Phuong Hang, the general director of Dai Nam tourist area, _____________ by thousands
of people even though she is still in prison.
A. loves and supports B. is loved and supported
C.has loved and sopported D. is loving and supporting
Question 9: I remembered _________ her in Dai Nam a few months ago when I was traveling there with my family.
A. to be met B. to have met C. meeting D. to meet
Question 10: They suppose that the CEO will be forced to resign, ______?
A. do they B. don’t they C. will him D. won’t him
Question 11: I was planning a surprise party, but my friend accidentally _______the cat out of the bag.
A. let B. find C. go D. make
Question 12: When my teacher was giving a lesson, Peter ________into the classroom.
A.walks B. has walked C. was walking D. walked
Question 13: I'm too busy today, can I take a rain _______ on that dinner invitation?
A. card B. check C. bill D. cash
Question 14: _______________as soon as you say sorry to me for being impolite today.
A. I will open the door B. I opened the door
B.I am opening the door D. I have opened the door
Question 15: She rarely dates for a long time as she is afraid of _________to a serious relationship.
A. committing B. getting C. having D. taking
Question 16: Having good friends who love and support you _______ who you are is really important to your
happiness.
A. with B. about C. for D. by
Question 17: Let's cut to __________ and discuss the main point of this meeting.
A. the chase B. the run C. the marathon D. the race
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part differs from the
other three in pronunciation in each of the following questions.
Question 18: A. competitor B. illegal C. epidemic D. education
Question 19: A. purpose B. compose C. suppose D. propose
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word that differs from the other three in the
position of primary stress in each of the following questions.
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Question 20: A. confident B. enduring C. affected D. destructive
Question 21: A. combine B. deter C. infer D. differ
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) CLOSEST in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 22: The atomic bomb annihilated the whole city, so nothing was left standing.
A. disturbed B. constructed C. converted D. destroyed
Question 23: My uncle, who is an accomplished guitarist, taught me how to play.
A. skillful B. perfect C. modest D. famous
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word(s) OPPOSITE in meaning to the underlined
word(s) in each of the following questions.
Question 24: They are launching a campaign to promote awareness of environmental issues.
A. encourage B. publicize C. hinder D. strengthen
Question 25: The minister came under fire for his rash decision to close the factory.
A. was dismissed B. was acclaimed C. was criticized D. was penalized
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct word or
phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks from 26 to 30.
Biological diversity has become widely recognized as a critical conservation issue only in the past two decades. The
rapid destruction of the tropical rain forests (26)________ are the ecosystems with the highest known species diversity
on Earth, has awakened people to the importance and fragility of biological diversity. The high rate of species
extinctions in these environments is jolting, (27)_________ it is important to recognize the significance of biological
diversity in all ecosystems. As the human population continues to (28)_________, it will negatively affect one after
another of Earth’s ecosystems. In terrestrial ecosystems and in fringe marine ecosystems (such as wetlands), the most
(29)________ problem is habitat destruction. In most situations, the result is irreversible. Now humans are beginning
to destroy marine ecosystems through (30)_______ types of activities, such as disposal and runoff of poisonous waste;
in less than two centuries, by significantly reducing the variety of species on Earth, they have irrevocably redirected
the course of evolution.
Question 26. A. whose B. which C. when D. who
Question 27. A. and B. but C. so D. because
Question 28. A. open B. extend C. hold D. expand
Question 29. A. common B. famous C. sensitive D. alarming
Question 30. A. fewer B. others C. other D. another
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 31 to 35.
The concept of traffic-free shopping areas goes back a long time. During the Middle Ages, traffic- free
shopping areas known as souks were built in Middle Eastern countries to allow people to shop in comfort and safety.
As far back as 2,000 years ago, road traffic was banned from central Rome during the day to allow for the free
movement of pedestrians, and was only allowed in at night when shops and markets had closed for the day.
The modern, traffic-free shopping street was born in Europe in the 1960s, when both city populations and car
ownership increased rapidly. Dirty exhaust fumes from cars and the risks involved in crossing the road were beginning
to make shopping an unpleasant and dangerous experience. Many believed the time was right for experimenting with
car-free streets, and shopping areas seemed the best place to start.
At first, there was resistance from shopkeepers. They believed that such a move would be bad for business. They
argued that people would avoid streets if they were unable to get to them in their cars. When the first streets in Europe
were closed to traffic, there were even noisy demonstrations as many shopkeepers predicted they would lose
customers.
However, research carried out afterwards in several European cities revealed some unexpected statistics. In
Munich, Cologne and Hamburg, visitors to shopping areas increased by 50 percent. On Copenhagen’s main shopping
street, shopkeepers reported sales increases of 25-40 percent. Shopkeepers in Minneapolis, USA, were so impressed
when they learnt this that they even offered to pay for the construction and maintenance costs of their own traffic-free
streets.
With the arrival of the traffic–free shopping street, many shops, especially those selling things like clothes, food
and smaller luxury items, prospered. Unfortunately, it wasn’t good news for everyone, as shops selling furniture and
larger electrical appliances actually saw their sales drops. Many of these were forced to move elsewhere, away from
the city centre. Today they are a common feature on the outskirts of towns and cities, often situated in out- of-town
retail zones with their own car parks and other local facilities.
(Adapted from Complete IELTS Band 4-5 by Rawdon Wyatt)
Question 31. What can be the best tittle of the passage?
A. How traffic-free shopping streets developed
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B. How towns and cities are planned and built
C. Removing cars and other vehicles from streets in towns and cities
D. The difference between towns and cities now, and towns and cities in the past
Question 32. The word “revealed” in paragraph 4 could best be replaced by ______.
A. hide B. uncovered C. kept D. met
Question 33. Why was there resistance from shopkeepers?
A. Because they were unable to get in their cars.
B. Because they disagreed with an idea and refused to accept it.
C. Because they wanted to experiment with car-free streets.
D. Because they were trying something in order to discover what it is like.
Question 34. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as one of traffic-free shopping areas’ accomplishments?
A. There was a 50% increase in the number of shoppers in Munich, Cologne and Hamburg.
B. Shopkeepers in Minneapolis, USA even offered to pay for the construction and maintenance costs of their own
traffic–free streets.
C. Shops selling furniture and larger electrical appliances saw their sales growths.
D. Many clothing, food, or smaller luxury item stores thrived.
Question 35. The word “their” in the third paragraph refers to _______.
A. shopkeepers B. people C. cars D. streets
Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer
to each of the questions from 36 to 42.
It is estimated that by 2050 more than two-thirds of the world's population will live in cities, up from about
54 percent today. While the many benefits of organized and efficient cities are well understood, we need to recognize
that this rapid, often unplanned urbanization brings risks of profound social instability, risks to critical infrastructure,
potential water crises and the potential for devastating spread of disease. These risks can only be further exacerbated
as this unprecedented transition from rural to urban areas continues.
How effectively these risks can be addressed will increasingly be determined by how well cities are governed.
The increased concentration of people, physical assets, infrastructure and economic activities mean that the risks
materializing at the city level will have far greater potential to disrupt society than ever before.
Urbanization is by no means bad by itself. It brings important benefits for economic, cultural and societal
development. Well managed cities are both efficient and effective, enabling economies of scale and network effects
while reducing the impact on the climate of transportation. As such, an urban model can make economic activity more
environmentally-friendly. Further, the proximity and diversity of people can spark innovation and create employment
as exchanging ideas breeds new ideas.
But these utopian concepts are threatened by some of the factors driving rapid urbanization. For example, one
of the main factors is rural-urban migration, driven by the prospect of greater employment opportunities and the hope
of a better life in cities. But rapidly increasing population density can create severe problems, especially if planning
efforts are not sufficient to cope with the influx of new inhabitants. The result may, in extreme cases, be widespread
poverty. Estimates suggest that 40% of the world's urban expansion is taking place in slums, exacerbating socio-
economic disparities and creating unsanitary conditions that facilitate the spread of disease.
The Global Risks 2015 Report looks at four areas that face particularly daunting challenges in the face of rapid
and unplanned urbanization: infrastructure, health, climate change, and social instability. In each of these areas we
find new risks that can best be managed or, in some cases, transferred through the mechanism of insurance.
Question 36: The word “that" in paragraph 4 refers to __________.
A. urban expansion B. socio-economic disparities
C. disease D. unsanitary conditions
Question 37:According to paragraph 3, what is one of the advantages of urbanization?
A. It minimizes risks for economic, cultural and societal development.
B. It makes water supply system both efficient and effective.
C. Weather and climate in the city will be much improved.
D. People may come up with new ideas for innovation.
Question 38:Which statement is TRUE, according to the passage?
A. Urbanization brings important benefits for development as well.
B. 54% of the world's population will live in cities by 2050.
C. Risks cannot be addressed effectively no matter how well cities are governed.
D. Rapidly increasing population density can help solve poverty.
Question 39: The word "addressed" in paragraph 2 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. aimed at B. dealt with C. added to D. agreed on
Question 40: What can be inferred from the passage?
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A. Poverty may be a foregone conclusion of unplanned urbanization.
B. Diseases are caused by people migrating to cities.
C. Urbanization can solve the problem of environmental pollution in cities.
D. The increasing number of people in cities can create more employment.
Question 41: Which is the most suitable title for the passage?
A. The Risks of Rapid Urbanization in Developing Countries
B. Infrastructure and Economic Activities in Cities
C. The Global Risks 2015 Report on Developing Urban Areas
D. Rapid Urbanization Put Cities in Jeopardy
Question 42: The word “spark” in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to ___________.
A. need B. start C. encourage D. design
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that best combines each pair of sentences
in the following questions.
Question 43: I was fined by the police. I ran too fast.
A. Without running too fasst, I couldn’t be fined by the police.
B. If I ran too fast, I could be fined by the police.
C. Should I run too fast, I will be fined by the police.
D. If I hadn’t ran too fast,I wouldn’t have been fined by the police.
Question 44: I completed the exam. I got another one after that.
A. No sooner had I completed the exam than I got another one.
B. Until I completed the exam that I had got another one after that.
C. Only after I got another the exam did i complete it.
D. Scarcely I completed the exam when I got another one.
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs correction in each of
the following questions.
Question 45: Other trends and inventions had also helped make it possible for Americans to vary
A B C
its daily diets.
D
Question 46: Some reported a change in their own behavior toward their spouses, such as being more
A B
considerable and less argumentative.
C D
Question 47: The icebox became a fixture in most homes and remained so until the mechanized
A B
refrigerator replaces it in the 1920’s and 1930’s.
C D
Mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the sentence that is closest in meaning to each of the
following questions.
Question 48: It is unnecessary for her to complete the project until tomorrow.
A.She needn’t complete the project until tomorrow.
B.She has to complete the project until tomorrow.
C.She may complete the project until tomorrow.
D.She should complete the project until tomorrow.
Question 49. She last visited her home country ten years ago.
A. She hasn't visited her home country for ten years.
B. She didn't visit her home country ten years ago.
C. She has visited her home country for ten years.
D. She was in her home country for ten years.
Question 50: "I'll help you with the washing-up, Mary" he said.
A. He admitted helping Mary with the washing-up.
B. He denied helping Mary with the washing-up.
C. He promised to help Mary with the washing-up.
D. He refused to help Mary with the washing-up.