Neet 30 June Test Paper
Neet 30 June Test Paper
Neet 30 June Test Paper
1. A body falls freely from rest. It covers as much distance in the 5. A particle is travelling along a straight line OX. The
last second of its motion as covered in the first three seconds. distance x (in metre) of the particle from O at a time t is
The body has fallen for a time of
given by where t is time in seconds.
(a) 3s (b) 5s The distance of the particle from O when it comes to rest is
speed
trip is
. The average speed for this round electric field at point A and Bi.e.
| | EA
EB
.
(a) (b)
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connected to earth. The ratio of their radii
1
(a) √ m/s
is: 3 (b) 3 m/s
1
(a) (b)
(c) √ 3 m/s (d)
3
(c) (d)
υ−t
14. The plot of a moving object is shown in the figure. The
10. A solid sphere of radius r 1=1 cm carries charge average velocity of the object during the first 10 seconds is
distributed uniformly over it with density ρ1=−3C /¿
3 5
cm . It is surrounded by a concentric spherical shell of
Velocity (ms-1)
Time (sec)
1
radius r 2=2 cm carrying uniform charge density ρ2= 0
2 5 10
2
C /cm . If Ed denotes the magnitude of the electric field
–5
at distance d from the common centre of the sphere, then
(a) 0 (b) 2.5 ms–1
1 (c) 5 ms–1 (d) 2 ms–1
(a) Ed= 2
, d ≤ 1 cm
3 ε0 d
15. The position, velocity and acceleration of a particle
1 moving with a constant acceleration can be
(b) Ed= 2
, d ≤1 cm
representedby:
ε0 d
d
(c) Ed= d ≤ 1 cm
3 ε0 (a)
d
(d) Ed= ,d ≤ 1 cm
ε0
11. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 (b)
km away with a speed of 5 km/h. Finding the market closed,
he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5
km/h. The average speed of the man over the interval of time
0 to 40 min. is equal to
(c)
25
4
(a) 5 km/h (b) km/h
30 45
4 8
(c) km/h (d) km/h (d)
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26. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a constant velocity of (c) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
10 m/s. When a constant force acts for 4 seconds on it, it (d) If (A) is false but (R) is true.
moves with a velocity 2 m/sec in the opposite direction. The
acceleration produced in it is (i) Assertion : A body can have acceleration even if its
2 2
(a) 3 m /sec (b) −3 m /sec
velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
Reason : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its
(c) 0 . 3 m /sec2 (d) −0 . 3 m /sec2 direction of motion.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
27. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8 km/hr. If the
resultant velocity of boat is 10 km/hr, then velocity of the (ii) Assertion: If the displacement of the body is zero, the
river is : distance covered by it may not be zero.
(a) 10 km/hr (b) 8 km/ Reason : Displacement is a vector quantity and distance
(c) 6 km/hr (d) 4 km/hr is a scalar quantity.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
28. A man (mass ¿ 50 Kg ) and his son (mass
¿ 20 Kg ) are standing on a frictionless (iii) Assertion: An object can have constant speed but
surface facing each other. The man pushes variable velocity.
his son so that he starts moving at a speed Reason: Speed is a scalar but velocity is a vector
of 0.70 ms−1 with respect to the man. The quantity.
speed of the man with respect to the (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
surface is:
(iv) Assertion : A positive acceleration of a body can be
(a) 0.28 ms−1 (b) 0.20 ms−1
associated with a 'slowing down' of the body.
(c) 0.47 ms−1 (d) 0.14 ms−1 Reason : Acceleration is a vector quantity.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
29. Which of the following options is correct for the object
having a straight-line motion represented by the following 32. Match the column.
graph? Column-I Column-II
(i) Particle moving [A]
with
constant speed
30. A train of 150 m length is going towards north direction (iii) Particle moving [C]
at a speed of 10 ms−1 . A parrot flies at the speed of with constant negative
−1
5 ms towards south direction parallel to the railway acceleration
track. The time for which the parrot flies alongside the
train is
(a) 12 s (b) 30 s
(c) 10 s (d) 5 s
31. The following question given below consist of an
"Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. (iv) Particle moving [D]
Use the following Key to choose the appropriate with zero acceleration
answer.
(a) If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
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Reason : Electrostatic forces are non conservative.
(c)
( q
m )V q
(d) mV (i) Statement I : The whole charge of a body can be
transferred to another body.
34. The capacitor of capacitance 4 μF and6 μF are connected in Statement II : Charge can not be transferred partially.
(c)
Q 8q (d)
Q 2q
45. A frictionless dielectric plate S is kept on a frictionless table
T . A charged parallel plate capacitance C (of which the
43. Column gives a situation in which two dipoles of dipole
plates are frictionless) is kept near it. The plate S is between
moment p and are placed at origin. A circle of
the plates. When the plate S is left between the plates
radius R with centre at origin is drawn as shown in
figure. Column gives coordinates of certain positions
on the circle. Match the statements in Column with the – – – – – –
S C
statements in Column .
y + + + + + +
T
(p)
where potential is maximum : (a)
(b) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where
(q)
potential is zero :
(b)
(c) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where
(r)
(c)
magnitude of electric field intensity is
:
(d) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where (d)
(s)
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47. The figure gives the electric potential V as a function of
distance through five regions on x -axis. Which of the H S + +2
53. On passing 2 gas through a solution of Cu and Zn ions,
following is true for the electric field E in these regions CuS is precipitated first because
(a) Solubility product of CuS is equal to the ionic product of ZnS
V
(b) Solubility product of CuS is equal to the solubility product of
ZnS
(c) Solubility product of CuS is lower than the solubility product
of ZnS
(d) Solubility product of CuS is greater than the solubility product
1 2 3 4 5
of ZnS
x
(a) Both ( A) and (R) are true; (R) is correct explanation of ( A) (c) Both have same concentration
(d) None of these
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) is not correct explanation of
59. Which one of the following would produce maximum elevation in
( A) boiling point
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false (a) 0.1 M glucose
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true (b) 0.2 M sucrose
(c) 0.1 M barium chloride
51. 2.0 molar solution is obtained , when 0.5 mole solute is dissolved in (d) 0.1 M magnesium sulphate
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x (a) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and
1−x +
n Statement - II is the correct explanation of Statement–
i=
(c) 1 (d) i=1 I.
(b) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true but
61. The boiling point of 0.1 molal aqueous solution of urea is Statement - II is not the correct explanation of Statement
– I.
100 .18 o C at 1 atm. The molal elevation constant of water is
(c) If Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(a) 1.8 (b) 0.18 (d) If Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.
(c) 18 (d) 18.6
(i) Statement - I. Dissolution of sulphuric acid in water gives
a solution which shows negative deviation.
Statement - II. The solutions which have same vapour
62. The Van’t Hoff factor for acompound which
pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic
undergoes dissociation in one solvent and
solutions.
association in other solvent is respectively
(a) less than one and greater than one (ii) Statement - I. Greater the molal depression constant of
the solvent used less is the freezing point of the solution.
(b) less than one and less than one Statement - II. Depression in freezing point depends upon
(c) greater than one and less than one the nature of the solvent.
(d) greater than one and greater than one.
(2011) (iii) Statement - I. Vant Hoff factor for electrolytes is always
greater than unity.
Statement - II. The no. of particles increases in
63. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% solution due to electrolytic dissociation.
(iv) Statement - I. The vapour pressure of 0.1 M sugar
by mass and has a density of 1.80 solution is more than that of 0.1 M potassium chloride
solution.
. Volume of acid required to make one Statement - II. Lowering of vapour pressure is directly
proportional to the no. of species present in the solution.
litre of 0.1 solution is
67. The following questions 17 to 21 consists of two statements
(a) 16.65 (b) 22.20 each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions you are to choose any one of the following
(c) 5.55 (d) 11.10 (2007) five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true
64. The van't Hoff factor ' i ' accounts for and the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(a) extent of dissolution of solute (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) extent of dissociation of solute
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(c) extent of mobility of solute
(e) If Assertion & Reason are false.
(d) extent of solubility of solute.
(i) Assertion : When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous
65. On mixing urea, the boiling point of H 2 O changed to solution of KI, the freezing point is raised
∘ Reason : HgI reacts with KI forming complex ion (HgI )2–
100.5 C . Calculate the freezing point of the solution, if 2 4
K f of water is 1.87 K kg mol−1 and K b of water is
0.52 K kg mol−1 . (ii)Assertion : 1 M solution of Glauber’s salt is isotonic with
1 M solution of KNO3.
(a) −1∘ C (b) −0.5∘ C
Reason : Solutions having same molar concentrations of
(c) −1.8∘ C (d) 0∘ C solute may or may not have same osmotic pressure.
66. Each of the questions given below consists of Statement – I
and Statement – II. Use the following Key to choose the
(iii) Assertion : If decimolal solution of sodium
appropriate answer.
chloride boils at 101.2ºC, the decimolal solution of calcium
chloride will also boil at the same temperature.
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Reason : For same molal concentration of aqueous solution
of electrolytes, the elevation of boiling point is same. The value of for the pentane‐oxygen fuel
cell is
68. On passing 0.5 faraday of electricity through NaCl , the
amount of Cl deposited on cathode is (a) 1.0968 V (b) 0.0968 V
(a) 35.5 gm (b) 17.75 gm (c) 1.968 V (d) 2.0968 V (2008)
(c) 71 gm (d) 142 gm
77. The electrode potential of M 2+¿ ¿/M of 3d- series
+
69. The energy required to release 1 electron from He is……. elements shows positive value for:
(a) + 54.4 eV (b) – 13.6 eV
(a) Zn (b) Co
(c) + 27.2 eV (d) Cannot be predicted
(c) Fe (d) Cu
+¿(0.01 M )/ Ag (s )¿
74. In the experiment set up for the measurement of EMF of a C: Ag
half cell using a reference electrode and a salt bridge, when
the salt bridge is removed, the voltage
(a) Does not change
(b) Decreases to half the value
Then reduction potentials in volts of the electrodes in the
(c) Increase to maximum
order
(d) Drops to zero (a) B ¿ C ¿ D ¿ A (b) C> D> A > B
(c) A ¿ D ¿ C ¿ B (d) A> B>C > D
75. The emf of a galvanic cell, with electrode potentials of silver =
+0.80V and that of copper = + 0.34 V, is
82. What is the molar conductivity of CH 3 CO 2 H at infinite
(a) – 1.1 V (b) + 1.1 V
dilution?
(c) + 0.46 V (d) + 0.76 V
∘ 2 −1
∧m ( CH 3 CO 2) 2 Ba=x 1 S cm mol
76. Standard free energies of formation (in ∘ 2 −1
Given that, ∧m ( BaCl 2) =x 2 S cm mol
kJ/mol) at298 are and ∧om (HCl)=x 3 S cm2 mol−1
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x1− x2 x1− x3 (e) Standard cell
(a) + x3 (b) + x2
2 2
x2 −x3 86. What will be the mole fraction of ethanol in a sample of spirit
(c) + x1 (d) x 1+ x3 −x2 containing 85% ethanol by mass
2 0 . 69 (b) 0 . 82 (c) 0 . 85 (d) 0 . 60
(a)
83. The following questions given below consist of an
"Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use 87. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100 mL water at 298 K if
the following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
partial pressure of oxygen is 0 . 5 atm and H
K = 1 . 4 ×10−3
(a) If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
mol/ L/ atm
explanation of (A).
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 22 . 4 mg (b) 22 . 4 g (c) 2 .24 g (d) 2 .24 mg
(a)
explanation of (A).
(c) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) If (A) is false but (R) is true. 88. Barium ions, CN¯ and Co2+ form an ionic complex. If that
complex is supposed to be 75% ionised in water with vant
Hoff factor ‘i’ equal to four, then the coordination number of
(i) Given Fe3+ + e Fe2+ E° = 0.77V
Co2+ in the complex can be :
Fe2+ + 2e Fe E° = –0.44 V (a) Six (b) Five (c) Four (d) Six and Four both
Assertion : Through an aqueous solution of 1(M) Fe3+ when 1
(F) is electricity is passed Fe3+ is completely converted to Fe2+ 89. K HgI is 55% ionized in aqueous solution. The
2 4
Reason : Species having greater reduction potentials must be value of Van't Hoff factor is
reacted at first . (a) 2.1 (b)4.3
(c)1.9 (d)3.7
E°
(ii) Assertion : RP Mn3 + /Mn 2+ is higher than the RP of
90. of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26
E° E° g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of such solution at
Cr 3 + /Cr 2+
and RP of Fe 3 + /Fe 2 + .
Reason : Third ionisation energy of Mn is higher than 300 K is found to be 2. . Calculate the molar
the third ionisation energies of Cr & Fe mass of protein .
(b)
4 Fe2 + +O2 (dry )→ Fe 2 O3
84. Match the column
Column I Column II 4 Fe2 + +O2 +4 H 2 O→2 Fe 2 O3 +8 H +
(i) Ecell when salt [A] Reversible ion – (c)
bridge Cl– Fe 2 O3 +xH 2 O →Fe 2 O3 . xH 2 O
removed (d)
(ii) Junction potential [B] Reversible ion –
in a cell with no H+ 92. Label the given diagram showing lead storage battery:
salt bridge
(iii) Calomel electrode [C] Zero volt
(iv) Quinhydrone [D] Non-zero,
electrode opposing
Ecell conductances
P q r
Zn( s )|Zn
2+
( aq )
||Cu
2+
( aq )
|Cu( s ) (a) Pb
PbO 2 5M
H 2 SO4
85. ( anode) ( cathode) is
(a) Weston cell (b) Daniel cell (b)
PbO 2 Pb conc.
H 2 SO4
(c) Calomel cell (d) Faraday cell
(c) 3 4 2 50% 2
Pb O PbO
4 H SO
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PbO 2 Pb dil. 38%
H 2 SO4
(d) (iii) Statement - I. Absolute value of an electrode
potential can not be calculated.
93. The highest electrical conductivity among the following Statement - II. Neither oxidation nor reduction can take
aqueous solutions is of : place alone.
(a) 0.1 M acetic acid (b) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid
(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid (d) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid
(ii) Assertion : Gold chloride (AuCl3) solution cannot 97. Match the column
be stored in a vessel made of copper, iron, nickel Column I Column II
chromium, zinc or tin. (i) NaCl [A] Solubility
Reason : Gold is very precious metal. decreases with
rise in temperature
(iii) Assertion : Molar conductivity of a weak
electrolyte at infinite dilution cannot be determined (ii) KI [B] Solubility remain
experimentally. nearly constant with
Reason : Kohlrausch law help to find the molar the
conductivity of a weak electrolyte at infinite dilution. variation in
temperature
95. The following questions given below consist of an
(iii) Na2SO4, 10 H2O [C] Solubility
Statement -I and Statement -II Type questions. Use the
following Key to choose the appropriate answer. increases
(a) If both Statement -I and Statement -II are true, and with rise in
Statement -II is the correct explanation of temperature
Statement -I. (iv) Ca(CH3COO)2 [D] A sharp break in the
solubility curve
(b) If both Statement -I and Statement -II are true but
Statement -II is not the correct explanation of Statement -
I.
98. Each of the questions given below consists of Statement – I
(c) If Statement -I is true but Statement -II is false. and Statement – II. Use the following Key to choose the
(d) If Statement -I is false but Statement -II is true. appropriate answer.
(a) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and
(i) Statement - I . Specific conductance decreases with Statement - II is the correct explanation of
dilution whereas equivalent conductance increases. Statement– I.
Statement - II. On dilution, number of ions per cc () If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true bbut
decreases but total number of ions increases Statement - II is not the correct explanation of Statement
considerably. – I.
(c) If Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(ii) Statement - I. Salt bridge is used in Electro (d) If Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.
chemical cell.
Statement - II. The ions of the electrolyte used is salt bridge (i) Statement - I. Blood cells are isotonic with 0.16 M NaCl
should have ionic mobility. solution.
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Statement - II. Cell wall of blood cells acts as semi- 106.What is common between vegetative reproduction and
permeable membrane. apomixis?
(a) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
(b) Both bypass the flowering phase
(ii) Statement - I. Molarity of the solution changes with (c) Both occur round the year
temperature. (d) Both produce progeny identical to the parent
Statement - II. Molarity is a colligative property. 107.The advantage of cleistogamy is
(a) Higher genetic variability
(iii) Statement-I : Dialysis is a technique for (b) More vigorous offspring
purification of solution is used to remove the soluble and (c) No dependence on pollinators
insoluble impurities present in solution. (d) Vivipary
Statement-II : Dialysis is based on different rate of diffusion 108.Perisperm differs from endosperm in
(a) Being a haploid tissue
of true solution and colloidal solution (b) Having no reserve food
particles. (c) Being a diploid tissue
(d) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several
99. The amount of sugar ( C 12 H 22 O 11 ) required to sperms
prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is: 109.Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and they are used in the
(a) 136.8 g (b) 17.1 g form on tablets and syrups.
(c) 68.4 g (d) 34.2 g (b) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and
bronchial affliations in some
people.
(c) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour to
100. A solution containing components and attract them.
(d) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from
follows Raoult’s law flowers.
110.If stem has 2n =10 number of chromosomes then find out
(a) ‐B attraction force is greater than ‐A (A) – number of chromosome in endosperm.
and B‐B (B) – number of chromosome in egg cell.
(C) – number of chromosome in polar nuclei, respectively.
(b)A‐B attraction force is less than A‐A and ‐ (a) 15, 15, 20 (b) 10, 15, 20
(c) 15, 5, 10 (d) 10, 5, 15
B
111.In typical embryo sac, the nuclei are arranged as -
(c) ‐B attraction force remains same as ‐A (a) 3 + 2+ 3 (b)3 + 3 + 2
(c) 2 + 3 + 3 (d) 2 + 4 + 2
and B‐B 112.The root cell of wheat plant has 42 chromosomes what
(d) volume of solution is different from sum of would be the number of chromosomes in the synergid cell-
(a) 14 (b) 11 (c) 21 (d) 48
volume of solute and solvent. (2002) 113.In the majority of angiosperms
(a) egg has a filiform apparatus
101.Diameter of pollen grain is (b) there are numerous antipodal cells
(a) 20–50 μm (b) 25–50 μm
(c) reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cell
(c) 30–50 μm (d) 10–50 μm
(d) a small central cell is present in the embryo sac
102.Syncarpous condition is referred to as
114.The cavities of brain are lined by
(a) Gynoecium containing single pistil
(a) Cuboidal cells (b) Polygonal cells
(b) More than one pistil fused together
(c) Ependymal cells (d) Simple squamous cells
(c) More than one pistil free from one another
115.Volkmann's canals are found in :
(d) Gynoecium containing many pistils
(a) Bones of birds (b) Bones of amphilbians
103.________ factor is responsible for the contact of pollen (c) Bones of mammals (d) Cartilage of mammals
with stigma in wind and water pollinated plants. 116.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
(a) Luck (b) Chance correct option out of the options given
(c) Time (d) Temperature below:
104.During pollination in plants which shed pollens in 2-celled (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason
stage, the cells are called as is a correct explanation of the
(a) Two vegetative cell assertion.
(b) Two generative cell (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is
(c) Both are correct not a correct explanation of the
(d) One vegetative and one generative cell assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
105.Epicotyl terminates into
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(a) Stem tip (b) Root tip
(c) Plumule (d) Both (a) and (c) Assertion: Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless
Reason: Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilization.
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117.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the (a) plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers
correct option out of the options given (b) plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate
below: flowers
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason (c) plant is monoecious
is a correct explanation of the (d) plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers
assertion. 127.While planning for an artificial hybridization programme
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is involving dioecious plants, which of the following steps
not a correct explanation of the would not be relevant?
assertion. (a) Bagging of female flower
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (b) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false. (c) Emasculation
Assertion: Self incompatibility is genetic mechanism to prevent (d) Collection of pollen
self pollination. 128.What happens when the pollen falls on the stigma?
Reason: It promotes germination of pollen from same plant or (a) Pollination
same flower on stigma. (b) Reject of pollen
118.Megasporogenesis is (c) Only the compatible pollen germinates
(a) formation of fruits (d) Autogamy
(b) formation of seeds 129.Endosperm is earlier ________ and then develops into
(c) formation of megaspores ________
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) cellular, nuclear (b) nuclear, cellular
119.Identify the labelling of given diagrams. (c) cellular, cellular (d) nuclear, nuclear
130.The root cap of monocot is covered in
(a) Coleoptile (b) Coleorhiza
(c) Root tip (d) None of these
131.
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