Student’s Tutorial

We Make your Dream come True

Test No. NEET 2025 Total Marks 720

1. A body falls freely from rest. It covers as much distance in the 5. A particle is travelling along a straight line OX. The
last second of its motion as covered in the first three seconds. distance x (in metre) of the particle from O at a time t is
The body has fallen for a time of
given by where t is time in seconds.
(a) 3s (b) 5s The distance of the particle from O when it comes to rest is

(c) 7s (d) 9s (a) 81 m (b) 91 m

(c) 101 m (d) 111 m
2. particle is moving unidirectionally on a horizontal
plane under the action of a constant power 6. Three particles, each having a charge of 10 μC are placed at
upplying energy source. The displacement (s) - the corners of an equilateral triangle of side 10 cm . The
time (t) graph that describes the motion of the electrostatic potential energy of the system is (Given
particle (graphs are drawn schematically and are 1
=9×109 N −m 2 / C 2
not to scale) 4 πε 0
)
(a) Zero (b) Infinite

(c) 27 J (d) 100 J

(a) (b)

7. A parallel plate condenser is immersed in an oil of dielectric

constant 2. The field between the plates is
(a) Increased proportional to 2
1
(c) (d)
(b) Decreased proportional to 2

(c) Increased proportional to √ 2

1
(d) Decreased proportional to √ 2
3. A car moves from to with a uniform
8. A solid sphere having radius R and Uniform
charge density ρ has a cavity of radius R/2 as
speed and returns to with a uniform
shown in figure. Find the ratio of magnitude of

speed
trip is
. The average speed for this round electric field at point A and Bi.e.
| | EA
EB
.

(a) (b)

(c) (d) . (2007)

4. Two projectiles are thrown with same initial

velocity making an angle of 45° and 30° with the 18 11
(a) (b)
horizontal respectively. The ratio of their 19 17
respective ranges will be 9 9
(c) (d)
(a) 1: (b) :1 17 19
9. Capacitance of an isolated conducting sphere of
(c)2: (d) :2 radius R1 becomes n times when it is enclosed by
a concentric conducting sphere of radius R 2

Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 connected to earth. The ratio of their radii

1
(a) √ m/s
is: 3 (b) 3 m/s
1
(a) (b)
(c) √ 3 m/s (d)
3

(c) (d)
υ−t
14. The plot of a moving object is shown in the figure. The
10. A solid sphere of radius r 1=1 cm carries charge average velocity of the object during the first 10 seconds is
distributed uniformly over it with density ρ1=−3C /¿
3 5
cm . It is surrounded by a concentric spherical shell of

Velocity (ms-1)
Time (sec)
1
radius r 2=2 cm carrying uniform charge density ρ2= 0
2 5 10
2
C /cm . If Ed denotes the magnitude of the electric field
–5
at distance d from the common centre of the sphere, then
(a) 0 (b) 2.5 ms–1
1 (c) 5 ms–1 (d) 2 ms–1
(a) Ed= 2
, d ≤ 1 cm
3 ε0 d
15. The position, velocity and acceleration of a particle
1 moving with a constant acceleration can be
(b) Ed= 2
, d ≤1 cm
representedby:
ε0 d
d
(c) Ed= d ≤ 1 cm
3 ε0 (a)
d
(d) Ed= ,d ≤ 1 cm
ε0

11. A man walks on a straight road from his home to a market 2.5 (b)
km away with a speed of 5 km/h. Finding the market closed,
he instantly turns and walks back home with a speed of 7.5
km/h. The average speed of the man over the interval of time
0 to 40 min. is equal to
(c)
25
4
(a) 5 km/h (b) km/h
30 45
4 8
(c) km/h (d) km/h (d)

12. What is the relation between displacement, time and

acceleration in case of a body having uniform acceleration
1
S=ut+ ft 2 16. Two charges each equal to 2 μC are 0.5m apart. If both of
(a) 2 (b) S=(u+f ) t them exist inside vacuum, then the force between them is
2 (a) 1.89 N (b) 2.44 N
(c) S=v −2 fs (d) None of these
(c) 0.144 N (d) 3.144 N

13. From the following displacement-time graph find out the

velocity of a moving body 17. Five balls numbered 1 to 5 are suspended using separate
threads. Pairs (1, 2), (2, 4) and (4, 1) show electrostatic
attraction, while pair (2, 3) and (4, 5) show repulsion.
Time (sec)

Therefore ball 1 must be

(a) Positively charged (b) Negatively charged
30o
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow
O
Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
Displacement (meter)
 (c) Neutral (d) Made of metal

18. The potential at a point, due to a positive charge of

100 μC at
(b)
a distance of 9m, is
4 5
(a) 10 V (b) 10 V
6 7
(c) 10 V (d) 10 V

19. A capacitor is kept connected to the battery and a dielectric

slab is inserted between the plates. During this process
(a) No work is done (c)
(b) Work is done at the cost of the energy already stored in
the capacitor before the slab is inserted
(c) Work is done at the cost of the battery
(d) Work is done at the cost of both the capacitor and the
battery

20. The energy stored in the condenser is

1
QV
(a) QV (b) 2
1 1Q
C
(c) 2 (d) 2 C (d)
23. Two identical charged spheres suspended from
a common point by two massless strings of
q  2 C q  1  C lengths , are initially at a distance
21. Point charge 1 and 2 are kept at points
x  0 and x  6 respectively. Electrical potential will be zero apart because of their mutual repulsion. The
at points charges begin to leak from both the spheres at a
(a) x  2 and x  9 (b) x  1 and x  5
constant rate. As a result, the spheres approach
each other with a velocity . Then varies as a
(c) x  4 and x  12 (d) x  2 and x  2
function of the distance between the spheres,
as
22. There is a uniform spherically surface charge (a) (b)
density at a distance R0 from the origin (c) (d)
he charge distribution is initially at rest and starts
expanding because of mutual repulsion. The figure
24. Given below are two statements :
that represents best the speed V ( R ( t ) ) of the Statement-I : A point charge is brought in an
distribution as a function of its instantaneous electric field. The value of electric field at a point
radius R ( t ) is : near to the charge may increase if the charge is
positive
Statement-II : An electric dipole is placed in a
non-uniform electric field. The net electric force
on the dipole will not be zero.
Choose the correct answer from the options
(a) given below:
(a) Both statement-I and statement-II are true.
(b) Both statement-I and statement-I are false.
(c) Statement-I is true but statement-II is false.
(d) Statement-I is false but statement-II is true.

25. Two point charges A=+3 nC and B=+1 nC are placed

5 cm apart in air. The work done to move charge B
towards A by 1 cm is
(a) 2.0 ×10−7 J (b) 1.35 ×10−7 J
−7
(c) 2.7 ×10 J (d) 12.1 ×10−7 J

Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
26. A body of mass 10 kg is moving with a constant velocity of (c) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
10 m/s. When a constant force acts for 4 seconds on it, it (d) If (A) is false but (R) is true.
moves with a velocity 2 m/sec in the opposite direction. The
acceleration produced in it is (i) Assertion : A body can have acceleration even if its
2 2
(a) 3 m /sec (b) −3 m /sec
velocity is zero at a given instant of time.
Reason : A body is momentarily at rest when it reverses its
(c) 0 . 3 m /sec2 (d) −0 . 3 m /sec2 direction of motion.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
27. A boat is sent across a river with a velocity of 8 km/hr. If the
resultant velocity of boat is 10 km/hr, then velocity of the (ii) Assertion: If the displacement of the body is zero, the
river is : distance covered by it may not be zero.
(a) 10 km/hr (b) 8 km/ Reason : Displacement is a vector quantity and distance
(c) 6 km/hr (d) 4 km/hr is a scalar quantity.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
28. A man (mass ¿ 50 Kg ) and his son (mass
¿ 20 Kg ) are standing on a frictionless (iii) Assertion: An object can have constant speed but
surface facing each other. The man pushes variable velocity.
his son so that he starts moving at a speed Reason: Speed is a scalar but velocity is a vector
of 0.70 ms−1 with respect to the man. The quantity.
speed of the man with respect to the (a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
surface is:
(iv) Assertion : A positive acceleration of a body can be
(a) 0.28 ms−1 (b) 0.20 ms−1
associated with a 'slowing down' of the body.
(c) 0.47 ms−1 (d) 0.14 ms−1 Reason : Acceleration is a vector quantity.
(a) A (b) B (c) C (d) D
29. Which of the following options is correct for the object
having a straight-line motion represented by the following 32. Match the column.
graph? Column-I Column-II
(i) Particle moving [A]
with
constant speed

(ii) Particle moving [B]

(a) The object moves with constantly increasing velocity from O with
to A and then it moves with constant velocity. increasing
(b) Velocity of the object increases uniformly. acceleration
(c) Average velocity is zero.
(d) The graph shown is impossible.

30. A train of 150 m length is going towards north direction (iii) Particle moving [C]
at a speed of 10 ms−1 . A parrot flies at the speed of with constant negative
−1
5 ms towards south direction parallel to the railway acceleration
track. The time for which the parrot flies alongside the
train is
(a) 12 s (b) 30 s
(c) 10 s (d) 5 s
31. The following question given below consist of an
"Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. (iv) Particle moving [D]
Use the following Key to choose the appropriate with zero acceleration
answer.
(a) If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
explanation of (A).
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
explanation of (A).
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 Reason : Electrostatic forces are non conservative.

37. The following questions given below consist of an

"Statement" (I) and "Statement" (II) Type
questions. Use the following Key to choose the
appropriate answer.
(a) If both (I) and (II) are true, and (II) is the correct
explanation of (I).
33. A particle of mass ‘m’ and charge ‘q’ is accelerated through a (b) If both (I) and (II) are true but (II) is not the correct
potential difference of V volt, its energy will be explanation of (I).
(a) qV (b) mqV (c) If (I) is true but (II) is false.
(d)If (I) is false but (II) is true.

(c)
( q
m )V q
(d) mV (i) Statement I : The whole charge of a body can be
transferred to another body.
34. The capacitor of capacitance 4 μF and6 μF are connected in Statement II : Charge can not be transferred partially.

series. A potential difference of 500 volts is applied to the outer

plates of the two capacitor system. The potential difference (ii) Statement I : In a series combination of capacitors,
charge on each capacitor is same.
across the plates of capacitor of 4 μF capacitance is
Statement II : In such a combination, charge can move
(a) 500 volts (b) 300 volts
only along one route.
(c) 200 volts (d) 250 volts
(iii) Statement-I : When a dielectric slab is gradually inserted
between the plates of an isolated parallel-plate capacitor, the
35. The charges 2 q ,−q ,−q are located at the vertices of an
equilateral triangle. At the circumference of the triangle energy of the system decreases.
Statement-II : The force between the plates decreases.
(a) the field is zero but potential is not zero.
38. A molecule of a substance has a permanent electric dipole
(b) the field is non-zero but the potential is zero. −30
moment of magnitude 10 cm. A mole of this substance is
(c) both field and potential are zero. polarized by applying a strong electrostatic field of magnitude
107 V m−1 . The direction of field is changed by an angle
(d) both, field and potential are non-zero. 60 o . The heat released by the substance in aligning its dipole
along the new direction of the field is.
36. The following questions given below consist of an −6 J
"Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. (b) −3 J (c) 3 J (d) 6 J
(a)
Use the following Key to choose the appropriate
answer.
(a) If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct 39. An object is charged with positive charge. The potential at
explanation of (A). that object will be -
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct
(a) positive only (b)
explanation of (A).
negative only
(c) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
(c) zero always (d)
(d)If (A) is false but (R) is true.
may be positive, negative or zero.

(i) Assertion : The capacity of conductor, under given

circumstances remains constant irrespective of the charge
40. In H atom, an electron is rotating around the proton in an orbit
present on it. of radius r. Work done by an electron in moving once around
Reason : Capacity depends on size, shape of conductor and the proton along the orbit will be -
also on the memdium between the plates.
(a) ke/r (b) ke2/r2
(ii) Assertion : Dielectric breakdown occurs under the (c) 2re (d) zero
influence of an intense light beam.
Reason : Electromagnetic radiations exert pressure.
41. The electric field near the conducting surface of a uniform
(iii) Assertion : Work done in moving a charge between any charge density  will be -
two points in an electric field is independent of the path
followed by the charge, between these points.
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 magnitude of electric field intensity is
(a) and parallel to surface. (b)
and parallel to surface.
:
(c) and perpendicular to surface.
(d) and perpendicular to surface. 44. According to Gauss’ Theorem, electric field of an infinitely
long straight wire is proportional to
42. Charges Q are placed at the ends of a diagonal of a 1
square and charges q are placed at the other two 2
corners. The condition for the net electric force on (a) r (b) r
Q to be zero is 1 1
q 3
Q  2 2q
Q (c) r (d) r
(a) (b) 2

(c)
Q   8q (d)
Q  2q
45. A frictionless dielectric plate S is kept on a frictionless table
T . A charged parallel plate capacitance C (of which the
43. Column  gives a situation in which two dipoles of dipole
plates are frictionless) is kept near it. The plate S is between
moment p and are placed at origin. A circle of
the plates. When the plate S is left between the plates
radius R with centre at origin is drawn as shown in
figure. Column  gives coordinates of certain positions
on the circle. Match the statements in Column  with the – – – – – –
S C
statements in Column  .
y + + + + + +
T

(a) It will remain stationary on the table

3 p ĵ
(b) It is pulled by the capacitor and will pass on the other
x
end
p î
R (c) It is pulled between the plates and will remain there
(d) All the above statements are false

Column  46. Seven capacitors each of capacity 2 μF are to be so connected

Column  10
μF
(a) The coordinate(s) of point on circle to have a total capacity 11 . Which will be the necessary
figure as shown

(p)
where potential is maximum : (a)
(b) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where

(q)
potential is zero :
(b)
(c) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where

(r)
(c)
magnitude of electric field intensity is

:
(d) The coordinate(s) of point on circle where (d)

(s)
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
47. The figure gives the electric potential V as a function of
distance through five regions on x -axis. Which of the H S + +2
53. On passing 2 gas through a solution of Cu and Zn ions,
following is true for the electric field E in these regions CuS is precipitated first because
(a) Solubility product of CuS is equal to the ionic product of ZnS
V
(b) Solubility product of CuS is equal to the solubility product of
ZnS
(c) Solubility product of CuS is lower than the solubility product
of ZnS
(d) Solubility product of CuS is greater than the solubility product
1 2 3 4 5
of ZnS
x

54. Molarity of a solution containing 1g NaOH in 250ml of solution is

E1 > E2 > E 3 > E 4 > E5
(a) (a) 0 . 1 M (b) 1 M
E1 =E3 =E 5 E2 < E4 0.01 M 0.001 M
(b) and (c) (d)
E2 =E 4 =E5 E1 < E3
(c) and 24
E1 < E2 < E 3 < E 4 < E5 55. A solution contains 1 .2046×10 hydrochloric acid molecules in
(d) 3
one dm of the solution. The strength of the solution is
(a) 6 N (b) 2 N
48. The charges Q ,+q and +q are placed at the vertices of (c) 4 N (d) 8 N
an equilateral triangle of side l . If the net electrostatic
potential energy of the system is zero, the Q is equal to 56. Which of the following is incorrect
(a) +q /2 (b) zero (a) Relative lowering of vapour pressure is independent
(c) −q /2 (d) −q (b) The vapour pressure is a colligative property
49. Two charges are +10 μC and −10 μC are separated by (c) Vapour pressure of a solution is lower than the vapour
0 cm. The magnitude of force acting on another charge pressure of the solvent
(d) The relative lowering of vapour pressure is directly
5 μ C placed at the midpoint of the line joining the two
propertional to the original pressure
1 9
charges will be[Use =9× 10 in SI unit]
4 π ε0 o
57. The vapour pressure of water at 20 C is 17.54 mm. When 20g of a
non-ionic, substance is dissolved in 100g of water, the vapour
(a) 360 N (b) 0 N pressure is lowered by 0.30 mm. What is the molecular weight of the
(c) 320 N (d) 380 N substances
(a) 210.2 (b) 206.88
50. Assertion (A) : In a region of constant potential, the (c) 215.2 (d) 200.8
electric field is zero and there can be no charge inside the
region. 58. Two solutions A and B are separated by semi- permeable membrane.
If liquid flows form A to B then
Reason (R) : According to Gauss law, charge inside the
(a) A is less concentrated than B
region should be zero if electric field is zero.
(b) A is more concentrated than B

(a) Both ( A) and (R) are true; (R) is correct explanation of ( A) (c) Both have same concentration
(d) None of these
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true; (R) is not correct explanation of
59. Which one of the following would produce maximum elevation in
( A) boiling point
(c) (A) is true, (R) is false (a) 0.1 M glucose
(d) (A) is false, (R) is true (b) 0.2 M sucrose
(c) 0.1 M barium chloride
51. 2.0 molar solution is obtained , when 0.5 mole solute is dissolved in (d) 0.1 M magnesium sulphate

(a) 250 ml solvent (b) 250 g solvent

(c) 250 ml solution (d) 1000 ml solvent 60. One mole of a solute A is dissolved in a given volume of a solvent.
( A )n
The association of the solute take place according to nA ⇄ .
52. If 20 ml of 0.4 N NaOH solution completely neutralises 40 ml of The Van't Hoff factor i is expressed as
a dibasic acid. The molarity of the acid solution is
x
(a) 0 . 1 M (b) 0 . 2 M i=1+
(a) i=1−x (b) n
(c) 0 . 3 M (d) 0 . 4 M

Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 x (a) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and
1−x +
n Statement - II is the correct explanation of Statement–
i=
(c) 1 (d) i=1 I.
(b) If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true but
61. The boiling point of 0.1 molal aqueous solution of urea is Statement - II is not the correct explanation of Statement
– I.
100 .18 o C at 1 atm. The molal elevation constant of water is
(c) If Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(a) 1.8 (b) 0.18 (d) If Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.
(c) 18 (d) 18.6
(i) Statement - I. Dissolution of sulphuric acid in water gives
a solution which shows negative deviation.
Statement - II. The solutions which have same vapour
62. The Van’t Hoff factor for acompound which
pressure at a given temperature are called isotonic
undergoes dissociation in one solvent and
solutions.
association in other solvent is respectively
(a) less than one and greater than one (ii) Statement - I. Greater the molal depression constant of
the solvent used less is the freezing point of the solution.
(b) less than one and less than one Statement - II. Depression in freezing point depends upon
(c) greater than one and less than one the nature of the solvent.
(d) greater than one and greater than one.
(2011) (iii) Statement - I. Vant Hoff factor for electrolytes is always
greater than unity.
Statement - II. The no. of particles increases in
63. Concentrated aqueous sulphuric acid is 98% solution due to electrolytic dissociation.
(iv) Statement - I. The vapour pressure of 0.1 M sugar
by mass and has a density of 1.80 solution is more than that of 0.1 M potassium chloride
solution.
. Volume of acid required to make one Statement - II. Lowering of vapour pressure is directly
proportional to the no. of species present in the solution.
litre of 0.1 solution is
67. The following questions 17 to 21 consists of two statements
(a) 16.65 (b) 22.20 each, printed as Assertion and Reason. While answering
these questions you are to choose any one of the following
(c) 5.55 (d) 11.10 (2007) five responses.
(a) If both Assertion and Reason are true
64. The van't Hoff factor ' i ' accounts for and the Reason is correct explanation of the
Assertion.
(a) extent of dissolution of solute (b) If both Assertion and Reason are true but
Reason is not correct explanation of the Assertion.
(b) extent of dissociation of solute
(c) If Assertion is true but the Reason is false.
(d) If Assertion is false but Reason is true.
(c) extent of mobility of solute
(e) If Assertion & Reason are false.
(d) extent of solubility of solute.
(i) Assertion : When mercuric iodide is added to the aqueous
65. On mixing urea, the boiling point of H 2 O changed to solution of KI, the freezing point is raised
∘ Reason : HgI reacts with KI forming complex ion (HgI )2–
100.5 C . Calculate the freezing point of the solution, if 2 4
K f of water is 1.87 K kg mol−1 and K b of water is
0.52 K kg mol−1 . (ii)Assertion : 1 M solution of Glauber’s salt is isotonic with
1 M solution of KNO3.
(a) −1∘ C (b) −0.5∘ C
Reason : Solutions having same molar concentrations of
(c) −1.8∘ C (d) 0∘ C solute may or may not have same osmotic pressure.
66. Each of the questions given below consists of Statement – I
and Statement – II. Use the following Key to choose the
(iii) Assertion : If decimolal solution of sodium
appropriate answer.
chloride boils at 101.2ºC, the decimolal solution of calcium
chloride will also boil at the same temperature.

Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 Reason : For same molal concentration of aqueous solution
of electrolytes, the elevation of boiling point is same. The value of for the pentane‐oxygen fuel
cell is
68. On passing 0.5 faraday of electricity through NaCl , the
amount of Cl deposited on cathode is (a) 1.0968 V (b) 0.0968 V
(a) 35.5 gm (b) 17.75 gm (c) 1.968 V (d) 2.0968 V (2008)
(c) 71 gm (d) 142 gm
77. The electrode potential of M 2+¿ ¿/M of 3d- series
+
69. The energy required to release 1 electron from He is……. elements shows positive value for:
(a) + 54.4 eV (b) – 13.6 eV
(a) Zn (b) Co
(c) + 27.2 eV (d) Cannot be predicted
(c) Fe (d) Cu

70. Conductivity of a strong electrolyte

78. The molar conductivity of a 1.5 M solution of an
(a) Increases on dilution
electrolyte is found to be 138.9 S cm2 mol−1. The
(b) Does not change considerably on dilution
conductivity of this solution is
(c) Decreases on dilution (a) 1.325 S cm−1 (b) 0.350 S cm−1
(d) Depends on density (c) 0.208 S cm−1 (d) 2.085 S cm−1
79. Calculate mass of a divalent metal produced at cathode by
71. The molar conductivity is maximum for the solution of passing 5 amp current through its salt solution for 100
concentration minute. (Molar mass of metal ¿ x )
(a) 0.001 M (b) 0.005 M 15 193
(c) 0.002 M (d) 0.004 M (a) x (b) x
193 30
30 193
72. The highest electrical conductivity of the following aqueous (c) x (d) x
193 15
solutions is of 80. The standard emf of a galvanic cell involving 2 moles of
(a) 0.1 M acetic acid (b) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid electrons in its redox reaction is .59 V . The equilibrium
(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid (d) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid constant for the redox reaction of the cell is
(a) 1020 (b) 105
73. For a cell reaction involving a two-electron change, the (c) 10 (d) 1010
o
standard emf of the cell is found to be 0.295 V at 25 C . The 81. Consider the following 4 electrodes:
o
equilibrium constant of the reaction at 25 C will be
¿
A : Ag (0.0001 M )/ Ag st;
−10 −2
(a) 1×10 (b) 29 .5×10
10 B : Ag+¿(0.1 M )/ Ag(s ) ¿
(c) 10 (d) 1×10

+¿(0.01 M )/ Ag (s )¿
74. In the experiment set up for the measurement of EMF of a C: Ag
half cell using a reference electrode and a salt bridge, when
the salt bridge is removed, the voltage
(a) Does not change
(b) Decreases to half the value
Then reduction potentials in volts of the electrodes in the
(c) Increase to maximum
order
(d) Drops to zero (a) B ¿ C ¿ D ¿ A (b) C> D> A > B
(c) A ¿ D ¿ C ¿ B (d) A> B>C > D
75. The emf of a galvanic cell, with electrode potentials of silver =
+0.80V and that of copper = + 0.34 V, is
82. What is the molar conductivity of CH 3 CO 2 H at infinite
(a) – 1.1 V (b) + 1.1 V
dilution?
(c) + 0.46 V (d) + 0.76 V
∘ 2 −1
∧m ( CH 3 CO 2) 2 Ba=x 1 S cm mol
76. Standard free energies of formation (in ∘ 2 −1
Given that, ∧m ( BaCl 2) =x 2 S cm mol
kJ/mol) at298 are and ∧om (HCl)=x 3 S cm2 mol−1

for and pentane (g) respectively

Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 x1− x2 x1− x3 (e) Standard cell
(a) + x3 (b) + x2
2 2
x2 −x3 86. What will be the mole fraction of ethanol in a sample of spirit
(c) + x1 (d) x 1+ x3 −x2 containing 85% ethanol by mass
2 0 . 69 (b) 0 . 82 (c) 0 . 85 (d) 0 . 60
(a)
83. The following questions given below consist of an
"Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use 87. How much oxygen is dissolved in 100 mL water at 298 K if
the following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
partial pressure of oxygen is 0 . 5 atm and H
K = 1 . 4 ×10−3
(a) If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct
mol/ L/ atm
explanation of (A).
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct 22 . 4 mg (b) 22 . 4 g (c) 2 .24 g (d) 2 .24 mg
(a)
explanation of (A).
(c) If (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) If (A) is false but (R) is true. 88. Barium ions, CN¯ and Co2+ form an ionic complex. If that
complex is supposed to be 75% ionised in water with vant
Hoff factor ‘i’ equal to four, then the coordination number of
(i) Given Fe3+ + e Fe2+ E° = 0.77V
Co2+ in the complex can be :
Fe2+ + 2e Fe E° = –0.44 V (a) Six (b) Five (c) Four (d) Six and Four both
Assertion : Through an aqueous solution of 1(M) Fe3+ when 1
(F) is electricity is passed Fe3+ is completely converted to Fe2+ 89. K HgI is 55% ionized in aqueous solution. The
2 4
Reason : Species having greater reduction potentials must be value of Van't Hoff factor is
reacted at first . (a) 2.1 (b)4.3
(c)1.9 (d)3.7
E°
(ii) Assertion : RP Mn3 + /Mn 2+ is higher than the RP of
90. of an aqueous solution of a protein contains 1.26
E° E° g of the protein. The osmotic pressure of such solution at
Cr 3 + /Cr 2+
and RP of Fe 3 + /Fe 2 + .
Reason : Third ionisation energy of Mn is higher than 300 K is found to be 2. . Calculate the molar
the third ionisation energies of Cr & Fe mass of protein .

(iii) Assertion : Salt-bridge is used generally in the (a)

electrochemical cells. (b)
Reason : The ions of the electrolyte used in the salt-
bridge should have nearly same transport numbers (c)
(d) none of these
(iv) Assertion : Absolute value of Eºred of an electrode
can not be determined. 91. Which of the following reactions does not take place during
Reason. Neither oxidation nor reduction can take place rusting?
alone. (a)
H 2 CO 3 2 H + +CO 2−
3

(b)
4 Fe2 + +O2 (dry )→ Fe 2 O3
84. Match the column
Column I Column II 4 Fe2 + +O2 +4 H 2 O→2 Fe 2 O3 +8 H +
(i) Ecell when salt [A] Reversible ion – (c)
bridge Cl– Fe 2 O3 +xH 2 O →Fe 2 O3 . xH 2 O
removed (d)
(ii) Junction potential [B] Reversible ion –
in a cell with no H+ 92. Label the given diagram showing lead storage battery:
salt bridge
(iii) Calomel electrode [C] Zero volt
(iv) Quinhydrone [D] Non-zero,
electrode opposing
Ecell conductances
P q r

Zn( s )|Zn
2+
( aq )
||Cu
2+
( aq )
|Cu( s ) (a) Pb
PbO 2 5M
H 2 SO4
85. ( anode) ( cathode) is
(a) Weston cell (b) Daniel cell (b)
PbO 2 Pb conc.
H 2 SO4
(c) Calomel cell (d) Faraday cell
(c) 3 4 2 50% 2
Pb O PbO
4 H SO
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 PbO 2 Pb dil. 38%
H 2 SO4
(d) (iii) Statement - I. Absolute value of an electrode
potential can not be calculated.
93. The highest electrical conductivity among the following Statement - II. Neither oxidation nor reduction can take
aqueous solutions is of : place alone.
(a) 0.1 M acetic acid (b) 0.1 M chloroacetic acid
(c) 0.1 M fluoroacetic acid (d) 0.1 M difluoroacetic acid

94. The following questions given below consist of an

"Assertion" (A) and "Reason" (R) Type questions. Use 96. Match Matrix ( = 0.8).
the following Key to choose the appropriate answer.
(a) If both (A) and (R) are true, and (R) is the correct Column I Column II
explanation of (A). (a) Pt | H2 (0.1 bar) | H+ (0.1 (p) Concentration
(b) If both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct M) || H+ (1 M) | H2 (0.01 cell
explanation of (A). bar) | Pt
(c) If (A) is true but (R) is false. (b) Ag | Ag+ (10–9 M) || Ag+ (q) Ecell > 0
(d) If (A) is false but (R) is true. (10–2 M) | Ag
(c) Cu | Cu2+ (0.1 M) || Cu2+ (r) Eºcell = 0
(i) Assertion : The cell constant of a cell depends upon (0.01 M) | Cu but cell is
the nature of the material of the electrodes. working.
Reason : The observed conductance of a solution (d) Pt | Cl2 (1bar) | HCl (0.1 (s) non working
depends upon the nature of the material of the M) || NaCl (0.1M) | Cl2 | Pt condition
electrodes. (1 bar)

(ii) Assertion : Gold chloride (AuCl3) solution cannot 97. Match the column
be stored in a vessel made of copper, iron, nickel Column I Column II
chromium, zinc or tin. (i) NaCl [A] Solubility
Reason : Gold is very precious metal. decreases with
rise in temperature
(iii) Assertion : Molar conductivity of a weak
electrolyte at infinite dilution cannot be determined (ii) KI [B] Solubility remain
experimentally. nearly constant with
Reason : Kohlrausch law help to find the molar the
conductivity of a weak electrolyte at infinite dilution. variation in
temperature
95. The following questions given below consist of an
(iii) Na2SO4, 10 H2O [C] Solubility
Statement -I and Statement -II Type questions. Use the
following Key to choose the appropriate answer. increases
(a) If both Statement -I and Statement -II are true, and with rise in
Statement -II is the correct explanation of temperature
Statement -I. (iv) Ca(CH3COO)2 [D] A sharp break in the
solubility curve
(b) If both Statement -I and Statement -II are true but
Statement -II is not the correct explanation of Statement -
I.
98. Each of the questions given below consists of Statement – I
(c) If Statement -I is true but Statement -II is false. and Statement – II. Use the following Key to choose the
(d) If Statement -I is false but Statement -II is true. appropriate answer.
(a) If both Statement- I and Statement- II are true, and
(i) Statement - I . Specific conductance decreases with Statement - II is the correct explanation of
dilution whereas equivalent conductance increases. Statement– I.
Statement - II. On dilution, number of ions per cc () If both Statement - I and Statement - II are true bbut
decreases but total number of ions increases Statement - II is not the correct explanation of Statement
considerably. – I.
(c) If Statement - I is true but Statement - II is false.
(ii) Statement - I. Salt bridge is used in Electro (d) If Statement - I is false but Statement - II is true.
chemical cell.
Statement - II. The ions of the electrolyte used is salt bridge (i) Statement - I. Blood cells are isotonic with 0.16 M NaCl
should have ionic mobility. solution.
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 Statement - II. Cell wall of blood cells acts as semi- 106.What is common between vegetative reproduction and
permeable membrane. apomixis?
(a) Both are applicable to only dicot plants
(b) Both bypass the flowering phase
(ii) Statement - I. Molarity of the solution changes with (c) Both occur round the year
temperature. (d) Both produce progeny identical to the parent
Statement - II. Molarity is a colligative property. 107.The advantage of cleistogamy is
(a) Higher genetic variability
(iii) Statement-I : Dialysis is a technique for (b) More vigorous offspring
purification of solution is used to remove the soluble and (c) No dependence on pollinators
insoluble impurities present in solution. (d) Vivipary
Statement-II : Dialysis is based on different rate of diffusion 108.Perisperm differs from endosperm in
(a) Being a haploid tissue
of true solution and colloidal solution (b) Having no reserve food
particles. (c) Being a diploid tissue
(d) Its formation by fusion of secondary nucleus with several
99. The amount of sugar ( C 12 H 22 O 11 ) required to sperms
prepare 2 L of its 0.1 M aqueous solution is: 109.Which one of the following statements is not true?
(a) Pollen grains are rich in nutrients and they are used in the
(a) 136.8 g (b) 17.1 g form on tablets and syrups.
(c) 68.4 g (d) 34.2 g (b) Pollen grains of some plants cause severe allergies and
bronchial affliations in some
people.
(c) The flowers pollinated by flies and bats secrete foul odour to
100. A solution containing components and attract them.
(d) Honey is made by bees by digesting pollen collected from
follows Raoult’s law flowers.
110.If stem has 2n =10 number of chromosomes then find out
(a) ‐B attraction force is greater than ‐A (A) – number of chromosome in endosperm.
and B‐B (B) – number of chromosome in egg cell.
(C) – number of chromosome in polar nuclei, respectively.
(b)A‐B attraction force is less than A‐A and ‐ (a) 15, 15, 20 (b) 10, 15, 20
(c) 15, 5, 10 (d) 10, 5, 15
B
111.In typical embryo sac, the nuclei are arranged as -
(c) ‐B attraction force remains same as ‐A (a) 3 + 2+ 3 (b)3 + 3 + 2
(c) 2 + 3 + 3 (d) 2 + 4 + 2
and B‐B 112.The root cell of wheat plant has 42 chromosomes what
(d) volume of solution is different from sum of would be the number of chromosomes in the synergid cell-
(a) 14 (b) 11 (c) 21 (d) 48
volume of solute and solvent. (2002) 113.In the majority of angiosperms
(a) egg has a filiform apparatus
101.Diameter of pollen grain is (b) there are numerous antipodal cells
(a) 20–50 μm (b) 25–50 μm
(c) reduction division occurs in the megaspore mother cell
(c) 30–50 μm (d) 10–50 μm
(d) a small central cell is present in the embryo sac
102.Syncarpous condition is referred to as
114.The cavities of brain are lined by
(a) Gynoecium containing single pistil
(a) Cuboidal cells (b) Polygonal cells
(b) More than one pistil fused together
(c) Ependymal cells (d) Simple squamous cells
(c) More than one pistil free from one another
115.Volkmann's canals are found in :
(d) Gynoecium containing many pistils
(a) Bones of birds (b) Bones of amphilbians
103.________ factor is responsible for the contact of pollen (c) Bones of mammals (d) Cartilage of mammals
with stigma in wind and water pollinated plants. 116.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
(a) Luck (b) Chance correct option out of the options given
(c) Time (d) Temperature below:
104.During pollination in plants which shed pollens in 2-celled (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason
stage, the cells are called as is a correct explanation of the
(a) Two vegetative cell assertion.
(b) Two generative cell (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is
(c) Both are correct not a correct explanation of the
(d) One vegetative and one generative cell assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
105.Epicotyl terminates into
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
(a) Stem tip (b) Root tip
(c) Plumule (d) Both (a) and (c) Assertion: Parthenocarpic fruits are seedless
Reason: Parthenocarpic fruits develop without fertilization.

Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
117.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the (a) plant is dioecious and bears only pistillate flowers
correct option out of the options given (b) plant is dioecious and bears both pistillate and staminate
below: flowers
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason (c) plant is monoecious
is a correct explanation of the (d) plant is dioecious and bears only staminate flowers
assertion. 127.While planning for an artificial hybridization programme
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is involving dioecious plants, which of the following steps
not a correct explanation of the would not be relevant?
assertion. (a) Bagging of female flower
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (b) Dusting of pollen on stigma
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false. (c) Emasculation
Assertion: Self incompatibility is genetic mechanism to prevent (d) Collection of pollen
self pollination. 128.What happens when the pollen falls on the stigma?
Reason: It promotes germination of pollen from same plant or (a) Pollination
same flower on stigma. (b) Reject of pollen
118.Megasporogenesis is (c) Only the compatible pollen germinates
(a) formation of fruits (d) Autogamy
(b) formation of seeds 129.Endosperm is earlier ________ and then develops into
(c) formation of megaspores ________
(d) Both (b) and (c) (a) cellular, nuclear (b) nuclear, cellular
119.Identify the labelling of given diagrams. (c) cellular, cellular (d) nuclear, nuclear
130.The root cap of monocot is covered in
(a) Coleoptile (b) Coleorhiza
(c) Root tip (d) None of these
131.

(a) A–Nucellus, B–MMC, C–Nucellus, D–Megaspore dyad

(b) A–Nucellus, B–Megaspore dyad, C–Nucellus, D–MMC
(c) A–MMC, B–Megaspore dyad, C–Nucellus, D–Nucleus
(d) A–MMC, B–Nucellus, C–Megaspore dyad, D–Nucleus
120.The most common abiotic pollinating agency in flowering
plant is/ are
(a) water (b) wind
(c) Both (a) and (b) (d) None of these
121.In which of the following, both autogamy and
geitonogamy are prevented?
(a) Wheat (b) Papaya Identify A, B, C, D and E
(c) Castor (d) Maize
122.Seed formation without fertilisation in flowering plants
involves the process of
(a) budding (b) somatic hybridisation
(c) apomixis (d) sporulation
123.Vegetative/Asexual reproduction and apomixis are 132.The ability of the pistil to recognise the pollen followed by
common to each other in its acceptance or rejection is the result of a continuous
(a) type of cell division dialogue between pollen grain and the pistil, This dialogue
(b) clone nature of offspring is mediated by chemical component^, of the pollen
(c) Both (a) and (b) interacting with those of the pistil. Which of the following
(d) only in dicot plant chemicals mainly takes part in the interaction -
124.Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct? (a) Nucleotides (b) Proteins
(I) The stigma serves as a landing platform for pollen grains. (c) Minerals (d) Lipidorinulin
(II) Ovarian cavity is also known as ovarian locule and is 133.
present inside the ovary.
(III) Placenta is located inside the ovarian cavity.
(IV) The ovule is attached to the placenta by funicle.
(a) I, II and III (b) I, II and IV
(c) I and III (d) I, II, III and IV
125.Embryo sac is to ovule as ...... is to an anther.
(a) stamen (b) filament
(c) pollen grain (d) androecium Conder rod like structure as embryonal axis. X is the region at
126.A dicotyledonous plant bears flowers, but never produces which cotyledon is attached, identify regions A and B
fruits and seeds. The most probable cause for the above respectively.
situation is (a) Epicotyl, Hypocotyl (b) Hypocotyl, Epicotyl
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
(c) Epicotyl, Mesocotyl (d) Mesocotyl, Hypocotyl 139.Rice pollen grains are viable for
134. (a) 6.0 mins (b) 30 mins (approx)
(c) 60 mins (approx) (d) 40 mins
140.Wind pollinated flowers have
(a) Single ovule in one ovary
(b) More than one ovule in ovary
(c) Been packed into an inflorosence
(d) Both (a) and (c)
141.Transfer of pollen grains from the anther to the stigma of
another flower of the same plant is called
The above diagrams are related to castor seeds. Identify A, B,
(a) Xenogamy (b) Geitonogamy
C and D respectively -
(c) Karyogamy (d) Autogamy
(a) Endosperm, seed coat, cotyledon and caruncle
(b) Seed coat, endosperm, caruncle and cotyledon 142.The phenomenon observed in some plants wherein the
(c) Seed coat, cotyledon, endosperm and caruncle parts of the sexual apparatus used for forming embryos
(d) Seed coat, endosperm, cotyledon and caruncle without fertilization is called
135.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the (a) Parthenocarpy (b) Apomixis
correct option out of the options given below: (c) Vegetative propagation (d) Sexual reproduction
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of 143.Which of the following are usual floral rewards to
A. pollinating animals?
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (a) Shelter and pollen grains
explanation of A. (b) Shelter and fragrance
(c) If A is true, but R is false. (c) nectar and pollen grains
(d) If A is false, but R is true (d) Nectar fragrance
Assertion (A) Megaspore mother cell undergoes meiosis to 144.In an angiosperm, male plant is diploid and female plant
produce four megaspores. is tetraploid then endosperm will be
Reason (R) Megaspore mother cell and megaspore both are (a) haploid (b) triploid
haploid. (c) tetraploid (d) pentaploid
136.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the 145.In an embryo sac, the cells that degenerate after
correct option out of the options given below: fertilisation are
(a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of (a) synergids and primary endosperm cell
A. (b) synergids and antipodals
(b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct (c) antipodals and primary endosperm cell
explanation of A. (d) egg and antipodals
(c) If A is true, but R is false. 146.In a fertilised embryo sac, the haploid, diploid and triploid
(d) If A is false, but R is true structures are
Assertion (A) Cleistogamous flowers produce assured seed set in (a) synergid, zygote and primary endosperm nucleus
the absence of pollinators. (b) synergid, antipodal and polar nuclei
Reason (R) Cleistogamous flowers do not open at all. (c) antipodal, synergid and primary endosperm nucleus
137.What is ‘G’ in the given figure? (d) synergid, polar nuclei and zygote
147.Male gametes in angiosperms are formed by
(a) Mitotic division in vegetative cell
(b) Meiotic division in pollen mother cell
(c) Meiotic division in vegetative cell
(d) Mitotic division in generative cell
148.More than one ovule is found in the ovary of
(a) Wheat (b) Paddy
(c) Papaya (d) None of these
149.The stalk attaching ovule to placenta is
(a) Funiculus (b) Hilum
(c) Raphe (d) Chalaza
(a) Scutellum (b) Coleorhiza
(c) Coleoptile (d) Shoot apex 150.What indicates ‘A’ in the following figure?
138.The below figure represents

(a) Micropyle (b) Cotyledon

(c) Endosperm (d) Scutellum
(a) Self-pollinated flowers 151.Which of the following is an example of man-made
(b) Cross-pollinated flowers ecosystem?
(c) Cleistogamous flowers (a) An island (b) Aquarium
(d) None of these (c) Desert (d) Forest
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
152.Identify the food chain. Dead animal® Blow fly maggots® (c) Standing crop (d) Standing state
Common frog ® Snake 162.Temperature variation in Pacific ocean in present time is
(a) Grazing food chain (b) Detritus food chain called :-
(c) Decomposer food chain (d) Predator food chain (a) Cyclone effect (b) Elnino effect
153.In the successive seral stages, there is (c) Green house effect (d)Gaudikov's effect
(a) change in the diversity of species, of organisms 163.Biotic and abiotic components form :-
(b) Increase in the number of species and organisms (a) Community (b) Ecosystem
(c) increase in total biomass (c) Population (d) Species
(d) All of the above 164.What will happen if the number of organism increased at
154.Which element is formed by the weathering of rocks and a place:-
absorbed by plant from the soil? (a) Inter species competition (b) Intra species competition
(a) Phosphorus (b) Carbon (c) Both (d) None
(c) Nitrogen (d) Oxygen 165.Which of the following is expected to have the highest
value (gm/m2/yr) in a grassland ecosystem :-
155.Fill up the blank. (a) Tertiary production (b) Gross production (GP)
I. Theproductsof ecosystemprocesses are called…A…. (c) Net production (NP) (d) Secondary production
II. …B…are the major source of ecosystem services. 166.Trophic levels are formed by
III. …C…and his colleagues tried to put price tags on nature’s (a) Only plants (b) Only animals
life support services, which came up toUS …D…a year. (c) Only carnivores (d) Organisms linked in food ch
Choose the correct option for A, B, C and D.
(a) A–Ecosystem services, B–Plants, C–Robert Brown, D–31 167.Which one of the following is not a functional unit of an
trillion ecosystem?
(b) A–Ecology services, B–Plants, C–Robert Constanza, D–32 (a) Energy flow (b) Decomposition
trillion (c) Productivity (d) Stratification
(c) A–Ecosystem services, B–Forests, C–Robert Constanza, D–33 168.Match the following and select the correct option:
trillion Column – I Column – II
(d) A–Ecology services, B–Ponds, C–Robert Brown, D–34 trillion (A) Earthworm (1) Pioneer species
156.Choose the incorrect statement(s) for a pond ecosystem. (B) Succession (2) Detritivore
I. Abiotic component is water with all inorganic and organic (C) Ecosystem service (3) Natality
substances dissolved in it. (D) Population growth (4) Pollination
II. There is no means to regulate the rate of function of the (a) A:1, B:2, C:3, D:4 (b) A:4, B:1, C:3, D:2
entire pond. (c) A:3, B:2, C:4, D:1 (d) A:2, B:1, C:4, D:3
III. Consumers are zooplankton and decomposers are fungi, 169.Most of the animals that live in deep oceanic waters are
bacteria and flagellates. (a) Secondary consumers (b) Tertiary consumers
IV. Heterotrophs consumer autotrophs. (c) Detritivore (d) Primary consumers
V. Autotrophs traps radiant energy of the sun. 170.The term ecosystem was coined by:
(a) I, II and III (b) II, III and IV (a) E. P. Odum (b) A.G. Tansley
(c) III, IV and V (d) Only II (c) E. Haeckel (d) E. Warming
157.Choose the true/false statements from the given set. 171.Which of the following ecosystems is more productive in
I. Decomposition rate is higher when detritus is enriched with terms of net primary production?
lignin and chitin. (a) Deserts (b) Tropical rain forests
II. The humus formed during humification is further (c) Oceans (d) Estuaries
degraded by some microbes and release inorganic 172. If the carbon atoms fixed by producers already have
nutrients via mineralisation process. Choose the correct passed through three species, then the
option. trophic level of the last species would be
(a) I is true, while II is false (a) Scavenger (b) Tertiary producer
(b) I and II both are true (c) Tertiary consumer (d) Secondary consumer
(c) I is false, while II is true
(d) I and II both are false 173.Which one of the following processes can slow down the
process of decomposition?
158.Which of the following is an ecosystem service provided (a) anaerobiosis (b) aerobiosis
by a natural ecosystem? (c) photo-oxidation (d) photophosphorylation
(a) Cycling of nutrients
(b) Prevention of soil erosion 174.Suppose 2000 J of solar energy is incident on green
(c) Pollutant absorption and reduction of the threat of global vegetation. On the basis of 10% law of Lindemann.
warming Identify A, B and C.
(d) All of the above
159.Frog, snake and eagle belongs to
(a) Three trophic levels (b) Two trophic levels
(c) Only one trophic level (d) None of these
160.In recycling of mineral elements within an ecosystem, the
responsible direct causal organism are called
(a) Decomposers (b) Producers
(c) Primary consumers (d) Secondary consumers (a) A – 20 J, B – 2 J, C – 0.2 J
(b) A – 200 J, B – 20 J, C – 2 J
161.Total amount of energy trapped by green plants in food is
(c) A – 400 J, B – 40 J, C – 4 J
called :-
(d) A – 40 J, B – 4 J, C – 0.4 J
(a) Gross primary production (b) Net primary production
175.Which ecosystem has the maximum biomass?
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
(a) Forest ecosystem (b) Grassland ecosystem (a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason
(c) Pond ecosystem (d) Lake ecosystem is a correct explanation of the
176.Secondary productivity assertion.
(a) is measured by the standing crop. (b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is
(b) is the rate of biomass production in consumers, not a correct explanation of the
(c) is greater than primary productivity. assertion.
(d) is 10% less than primary productivity (c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false.
177.Which of the following biogeochemical cycles is (d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
characterized by a major reservoir that is gaseous, and a Assertion: The pyramid of biomass in sea is generally inverted.
major inorganic form that can only be utilized by a small Reason: The biomass of fishes far exceeds that of phytoplankton
group of bacteria and cyanobacteria? 184.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
(a) Carbon cycle (b) Nitrogen cycle correct option out of the options given
(c) Phosphorus cycle (d) Sulfur cycle below:
178.In a forest ecosystem/green plants are (a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
(a) Primary producers (b) Primary consumers A.
(c) Consumers (d) Decomposers (b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
179.The correct definition of ecosystem is explanation of A.
(a) A community of organisms interacting with one another (c) If A is true, but R is false.
(b) The biotic components of an area (d) If A is false, but R is true
(c) That part of the earth and its atmosphere which is inhabited by Assertion (A) An ecosystem is an interaction between biotic and
living organisms abiotic components.
(d) A community of organisms together with the environment in Reason (R) AG Tansley coined the term ecosystem
which they live. 185.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the
180.Which of the following is NOT a reason why productivity correct option out of the options given
declines from one trophic level to the next? below:
(a) Energy is converted into tissue by many trophic levels. (a) If both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of
(b) Some of the energy stored in the chemical bonds of reduced A.
carbon compounds is lost as heat as it is (b) If both A and R are true, but R is not the correct
metabolized. explanation of A.
(c) Carnivores never consume many herbivores because they hide (c) If A is true, but R is false.
effectively or sequester toxins. (d) If A is false, but R is true
(d) Much of the net primary productivity is unavailable to Assertion (A) Herbivores are also called as first order consumers.
herbivores. Reason (R) These obtain their food directly from plants.
181.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the 186.Select the options that correctly identifies A, B and C in
correct option out of the options given the given table.
below:
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason
is a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is
not a correct explanation of the
assertion.
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (a) A–Secondary consumer, B–Grazing, C–Algae
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false. (b) A–Top carnivore, B–Detritus, C–Frog
Assertion: Decomposers break down complex organic matter into (c) A–Scavenger, B–Grazing, C–Hawk
inorganic substances like (d) A–Decomposer, B–Detritus, C–Perch
CO2, H2O and nutrients. 187.What human activities are responsible to increase the
Reason: Detritivore breakdown detritus into smaller particles. amount of CO 2 in the atmosphere?
182.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the (a) Deforestation
correct option out of the options given (b) Massive burning of fossil fuels
below: (c) Vehicle used for transport
(a) If both the assertion and the reason are true and the reason (d) All of the above
is a correct explanation of the 188.Which of the following majorly regulates the amount of
assertion. CO2 in the atmosphere?
(b) If both the assertion and reason are true but the reason is (a) Respiratory activities of the producers and consumers
not a correct explanation of the (b) Decomposers
assertion. (c) Burning of fossil fuel
(c) If the assertion is true but the reason is false. (d) Oceanic reservoir
(d) If both the assertion and reason are false.
189.Perturbation of which of the following cycles contributes
Assertion: Ecosystem is an open system. most to global warming?
Reason: Ecosystem exchange mass as well as energy from (a) the global carbon cycle
surrounding. (b) the global water cycle
183.Read the assertion and reason carefully to mark the (c) the global nitrogen cycle
correct option out of the options given (d) All of these cycles contribute equally.
below: 190.Select the incorrect statement regarding humus.
Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068
 (a) It is the dark coloured amorphous substance in soil.
(b) It is highly resistant to microbial action.
(c) It undergoes decomposition at a faster rate.
(d) It contains excessive amount of nutrients.
191.Which of these are true about sparrows?
(a) When it eats seeds and peas, it is a primary consumer.
(b) When it eats insects and worms, it is a secondary consumer.
(c) It may occupy more than one trophic level in same ecosystem
at the same time.
(d) All the above (a) I and IV (b) V and VI
192.The upright pyramid of number is absent in (c) III and VI (d) IV and VII
(a) Pond (b) Forest 199.Select the true statements.
(c) Lake (d) Grassland I. Productivity can be divided into gross primary productivity
193.In the human-induced condition called eutrophication, the and net primary productivity.
main biogeochemical cycle that is altered is the II. Net primary productivity is the available biomass for the
______cycle, and the effect is to create ________ consumption to heterotrophs.
conditions and decrease species diversity.. III. Net primary productivity is equal to gross primary
(a) hydrological, aerobic (b) phosphorus, anaerobic productivity minus respiration.
(c) hydrological, aerobic (d) phosphorus, aerobic IV. There is unidirectional movement of energy towards
194. higher trophic levels and its dissipation and loss as heat to the
A. The amount of living matter (biomass) present at every environment. Choose the correct option.
trophical level is called standing crop. (a) I, II and III (b) I and IV
B. Saprophytes are not given any in ecological pyramids. (c) II and III (d) I, II, III and IV
C. Ecological pyramid does not account the same species 200.Pneumatophores are found in-
belonging to two or more trophic levels. (a) The vegetation which is found in marshy and saline lake
D. Humus is reservoir of nutrients, (b) The vegetation which found in acidic soil
(a) All are correct (b) All are incorrect (c) Xerophytes
(c) Only D is correct (d) A, D and C are correct (d) Epiphytes
195.Match the following columns.
Column-I (Basic Component of Pond) Column-II
(Examples)
(A) Autotroph (1)
Phytoplanktons
(B) Consumer (2) Flagellates
(C) Decomposer (3)
Zooplanktons Which of the following option is most
appropriate?
A B C
(a) 2 3 1
(b) 3 1 2
(c) 2 1 3
(d) 1 3 2
196.Out of the total cost of various ecosystem services, the soil
account for _________ %, recreation and utrient cycling
are less than _________ % and climate regulation and
habitat for wildlife is about _________ % each.
(a) 50, 6, 10 (b) 50, 10, 6
(c) 50, 30, 20 (d) 20, 30, 50
197.Among the following where do you think the process of
decomposition would be the fastest?
(a) Tropical rainforest (b) Antarctic
(c) Dry arid region (d) Alpine region
198.Which of the following organisms in the given food web
act as a secondary consumers?

Cont : Gulzar Baunglow Ramtirth Markandi, Near Swimming Pool, Chiplun. Ph 9890876380 / 9272188068