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1. Which of the following parameters should be considered when
storing medications?
I. Temperature
II. Air velocity
III. Particle count
D
IV. Relative humidity
A. II only
B. II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I and IV
2. Which of the following is/are indicated for motion sickness?
I. Dimenhydrinate
II. Meclizine
III. Memantine
C
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
3. In compounding extemporaneous preparations, the beyond-use
date per USP guideline for water containing oral preparations
(when stored at cold temperature), is _________.
A. no longer than 30 days C
B. no longer than 7 days
C. no longer than 14 days
D. no longer than 24 days
4. Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding IV glutathione?
I. It affects the production of melatonin
II. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is as adjunct treat-
ment in cisplatin chemotherapy.
III. Its approved indication by FDA Philippines is for skin lightening B
A. III
B. II
C. I and II
D. I, II and III
5. The following are manifestations of chemical incompatibility
EXCEPT________.
A. Evolution of gas
D
B. Photolysis
C. Gel formation
D. Immiscibility
6. Varenicline is a drug used for ________.
A. Obesity prevention
B. Drug rehabilitation C
C. Smoking cessation
D. Alcohol withdrawal
7. Which of the following is the term used to indicate the interaction
between a drug which has no effect or has a different effect to
second drug which it is enhancing?
A. Antagonistic interaction B
B. Potentiation interaction
C. Synergistic interaction
D. Addition interaction
8. The following are pharmacokinetic interactions involving food
EXCEPT______. A. Fats decreasing gastric emptying time B.
Grapefruit juice interfering with the metabolism of certain drugs C
C. Green leafy vegetables antagonizing the effect of warfarin
D. NOTA

9. For "medical information sources", what category would journal

articles belong?
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A. Company provided literature
B. Tertiary literature
C
C. Primary literature
D. Secondary literature
10. Taking griseofulvin with high fatty meal will most likely result
in ____________.
A. Increase in the absorption of griseofulvin
A
B. Decrease the elimination of griseofulvin
C. Potentiates the side effects of griseofulvin
D. Decrease the absorption of griseofulvin
11. Rowhale is taking bitter gourd supplements. This may poten-
tially have an additive pharmacodynamic effect with what med-
ication she is taking?
A. Antihypertensive agent C
B. Antiasthma drugs
C. Antidiabetic agents
D. antidepressants
12. Which of the following is NOT an advisable mode of adminis-
tration for potassium supplements?
A. Oral solutions
B
B. IV Bolus
C. Modified-release tablet (PO)
D. IV infusio
13. Which of the following statements area TRUE regarding he-
parin and warfarin?
I. Heparin is administered parenterally while warfarin is given
orally.
II. Dosage strength of both heparin and warfarin are expressed in
"Units".
III. They are both anticoagulants. C
IV. They have the same antidotes in cases
of overdose
A. I, III and IV
b. I and IV
c. I and III
d. II and IV
14. Which of the following procedures/ equipment is used to
determine pulmonary function?
A. Angiogram
C
B. ECG
C. Peak Flow Measurement
D. 2D Echo test
15. Which of the following may cause drug induced kernicterus in
the neonates?
A. Isoniazid
B
B. Sulfisoxazole
C. Doxycycline
D. Chloramphenicol
16. Which of the following procedures/ equipment is used to
determine brain activity
A. EEG
A
B. Spirometry
C. MRI
D. Angiogram
17. "Iopamidol" can be best classified as a
A. Household chemical
B. Disinfectant D
C. Food supplement
D. Contrast media

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18. In genetic substitution in the hospital, which of the following
pairs can be interchanged when filling a medication order?
I. Augmentin, Amoclav
II. Lipitor, Zocor
III. Ventolin, Atrovent
A
IV. Ponstan, Dolfenal
a. I and IV
b. I, II, III and IV
c. I, II and IV
d. II and III
19. Which of the following needles has the smallest diameter?
A. 23 G x 1 in
B. 30 G x 1D2 in B
C. 21 G x 2 in
D. 27 x 1 1/4 in
20. Which of the following is hypertonic to the blood?
A. 0.009% sodium chloride solution
B. 0.9% sodium chloride solution C
C. 9% sodium chloride solution
D. 0.09% sodium chloride solution
21. How many copies of a dangerous drug prescription are issued
when used?
A. 3
A
B. 4
C. 5
D. 2
22. Upon dispensing, what is the vital information can the phar-
macist give when a patient buys calcium supplement.
A. Calcium's absorption is enhanced with Vitamin D
A
B. Calcium's absorption is enhanced with Vitamin E
C. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin D
D. Calcium's absorption is deterred with Vitamin
23. What part of the prescription can the pharmacist read the
name of drugs prescribed?
A. Superscription
B
B. Inscription
C. Subscription
D. Signa
24. Which of the following is the "fat soluble vitamin" found in the
preparation prescribed?
A. Riboflavin
B
B. Alpha-tocopherol
C. Vitamin B6
D. Cyanocobalamin
25. Which of the following phases of clinical trials would usually
involve healthy human subjects?
A. Phase 1
A
B. Phase 2
C. Phase 3
D. Phase 4
26. What substance is added to formaldehyde or formalin to retard
its polymerization incompatibility?
A. Ethanol
B
B. Glucose solution
C. Methanol
D. Sodium hydroxide
27. Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding sildenafil?
I. An adverse effect observed is priapism.
II. It is used for erectile dysfunction.
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III. It is classified as a
phophodiesterase-5-enzyme
inhibitor.
A. I only C
B. I and III
C. I, II and III
D. NOTA
28. Which of the following is/are TRUE regarding Co-trimoxazole?
I. It is a combination of Trimethoprim and Sulfisoxazole.
II. The individual agents both exert antibacterial effects.
III. Topical preparations are commercially available locally.
D
A. I only
B. I and III
c. I, II and III
d. II only
29. In drug interaction references, "drug affected by the interac-
tion" is referred to as the _____.
A. Inactive drug
D
B. Precipitant drug
C. Active drug
D. Object drug
30. Which of the following is/are valid therapeutic use/s of a drug
interaction?
I. Giving aspirin with warfarin to enhance anticoagulation.
II. Giving multiple antihypertensive drugs to control hypertension
III. Taking levofloxacin with antacid to decrease GI intolerance of
C
oral therapy.
A. I only
B. I and III
C. II only
D. I, II and III
31. A "STAT" order means that the drug should be administered
_____.
A. with
C
B. night
C. immediately
D. freely
32. Which of the following drugs can INCREASE the clearance of
another drug?
I. Grapefruit juice
II. Phenytoin
III. Smoking
C
IV. Carbamazepine
A. I only
B. I, II and III
C. II, III and IV
D. I, II, III and IV
33. Quinidine sulfate 200mg capsule and Quinidine 200mg tablet
are _____ products
A. therapeutic alternative
D
B. therapeutically equivalent
C. pharmaceutically equivalent
D. pharmaceutical alternative
34. Which of the following has been found to reduce sleep onset
latency in many sleep-related disorders in both adults and chil-
dren?
A. Melatonin A
B. Glucosamine
C. Gingko biloba
D. St. John's Wort
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35. In a drug interaction scenario, what would best describe the
result if Drug A inhibits the excretion of Drug B?
A. Decrease in the blood levels of Drug A
C
B. Decrease in the blood levels of Drug B
C. Increase in the blood levels of Drug B D. Increase in the blood
levels of Drug A
36. Which of the following would best describe endorphins?
A. Endogenous opioid peptides
B. Class of Antidiabetics A
C. Biogenic amines believed to cause schizophrenia
D. Adrenergic neurotransmitter
37. What is the interaction between Warfarin and Vitamin K?
A. Additive
B. Antagonistic B
C. Potentiation
D. Synergistic
38. A patient who is planning to travel is inquiring on when to
take the Meclizine tablet. Which of the following information is
accurate?
A. Take 30 minutes after reaching the destination C
B. Take during travel
C. Take 1 hour before travel
D. Take 24 hours before travel.
39. A metabolite of cyclophosphamide and ifosfamide that is
thought to cause a chemical irritation of bladder mucosa resulting
to bleeding
A. Mesna C
B. Amifostine
C. Acrolein
D. Dexrazoxane
40. A type of incompatibility that may be classified as both physical
and chemical
A. Precipitation
A
B. Hydrolysis
C. Insolubility
D. Polymorphism
41. Which of the following medications is most likely to cause drug
interactions and endocrine side-effects?
A. Ranitidine
C
B. Omeprazole
C. Cimetidine
D. Lansoprazole
42. In a drug interaction scenario, what would BEST describe the
result if Drug A induces the metabolism of Drug B?
A. Decrease in the blood concentration of Drug B
A
B. Increase in the blood concentration of Drug A
C. Decrease in the blood concentration of Drug A
D. Increase in the blood concentration of Drug B
43. What is referred to as "Enzyme Inhibitor" in the entry "Ampi-
cillin + Enzyme Inhibitor"?
A. Sulbactam
A
B. Tazobactam
C. Beta-lactamase
D. Clavulanic acid

44. A new test for HIV does not detect the presence of the virus
in someone who is infected. This is known as a _____.
A
A. False Negative Result
B. True Negative Result

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C. False Positive Result
D. True Positive Result
45. Drugs with names ending in "-sartan" belongs to what classi-
fication
A. Angiotensin-2 receptor blocker
A
B. Calcium channel blocker
C. H2 blocker
D. ACE inhibitor
46. Which of the following drugs can be used in the treatment of
T. saginata (beef tapeworm)?
A. Niclosamide
A
B. Ceftriaxone
C. Mebendazole
D. Primaquine
47. Monoamine oxidase inhibitors and food rich in tyramine will
lead to _____. I. accumulation of pressor amines
II. increase in blood pressure
III. non-metabolism of tyramine
A
A. I, II and III
B. I and II
C. I and III
D.II and III
48. In the classification of drugs in the formulary, which of the fol-
lowing will NOT be included in the list under "anti-cancer" drugs?
A. Goserelin
C
B. Bevacizumab
C. Sirolimus
D. Asparaginase
49. The predominance in secretion sets these antibodies different:
a. IgA
b. IgE A
c. IgG
d. IgM
50. Hormone that initiates uterine contraction & helps in the in-
duction of labor.
a. Dopamine
B
b. Oxytocin
c. Vasopressin
d. NOTA
51. The dimensions of the nicotine transdermal patch system are
4.7 cm by 4.8 cm. What would be the corresponding dimensions
in inches?
A. 18.5 inches X 18.9 inches D
B. 11.94 inches X 12.19 inches
C. 47 inches X 48 inches
D. 1.85 inches X 1.89 inches
52. Drug A has a loading dose of 400 mg/m2 administered as an
intravenous infusion over a 120-minute period. Using an IV set
that delivers 15 drops/mL, calculate the dose for a patient with a
BSA of 1.5m2.
A
A. 600 mg
B. 4 grams
C. 640 mg
D. 40mg

53. In a bottle of 10-proof alcoholic beverage, the ABV (alcohol by

volume) is _____.
B
A. 0.2
B. 0.05

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C. 0.1
D. 0.15
54. What is the percentage strength (w/v) of the drug solution if
80 mL of the solution contains 20 g of drug?
A. 4%
C
B. 2%
C. 25%
D. 15%
55. What is the use of chlorpromazine maleate?
A. Anti-psychotic
B. Anti-epileptic A
C. Antibiotic
D. Antiseptic
56. Which of the following is used to treat cyanide toxicity?
A. Flumazenil
B. Naloxone C
C. Hydroxocobalamin
D. N-Acetylcysteine
57. What is the drug of choice for obsessive-compulsive disorder?
A. Chlorpromazine
B. Fluoxetine B
C. Phenobarbital
D. Diazepam
58. A higher than normal potassium level A. Hyperkalemia
B. Hyperchloremia
A
C. Hypernatremia
D. Hypercalcemia
59. Phase 1 clinical trial specifically evaluates the drug's ______.
A. Safety
B. Efficacy A
C. Rare A/Es
D. Common A/Es
60. What is the natural buffer system of the blood?
A. Nitrite
B. Permanganate D
C. Sulfate
D. Bicarbonate
61. In the administration of Lidocaine as a local anesthetic, Epi-
nephrine is administered mainly to promote
A. Hemolysis
C
B. Vasodilation
C. Vasoconstriction
D. Inotropy
62. Serotonin syndrome is an example of what ADR type?
A. Type A
B. Type B A
C. Type C
D. Type D
63. Which of the following is not advertised?
A. Paracetamol 500 mg tab
B. Mefenamic acid 500 mg tab B
C. Ibuprofen 200 mg tab
D. Bioflu

64. Which of the following insulin types can be given intravenous-

ly?
D
A. Insulin Glargine
B. Insulin Lispro

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C. Insulin Aspart
D. Regular Insulin
65. Safe anti-hypertensive drugs for pregnant
A. Methyldopa
B. Hydralazine D
C. Labetalol
D. All of the above
66. The term that describes the relief of pain without altering
consciousness
A. Anesthesia
B
B. Analgesia
C. Sedation
D. Anxiety
67. Propranolol can be used in the following conditions, except:
A. Stage-fright
B. Hypertension D
D. Thyrotoxicosis (adjunct)
D. Asthma
68. Which of the following drugs reverses isoniazid toxicity?
A. Vitamin B1
B. Vitamin B3 C
C. Vitamin B6
D. Vitamin B9
69. The following are alpha-glucosidase inhibitors, except:
A. Acarbose
B. Miglitol D
C. Voglibose
D. Propylthiouracil
70. Which of the following drugs is used to prevent nausea and
vomiting after radiation therapy?
A. Ondansetron
A
B. Alendronate
C. Tegaserod
D. Alosetron
71. Inhalational anesthetics are used to induce
A. General anesthesia
B. Local anesthesia A
C. Local analgesia
D. Neuronal excitation
72. The term that describes the release of water of hydration of
solids
A. Hygroscopy
C
B. Deliquescence
C. Efflorescence
D. Eutexia
73. The combination of MAOI and Tyramine-rich foods would
result in the following, except:
A. Hypertensive crisis
C
B. Elevated blood pressure
C. Hypotension
D. Increased catecholamine release
74. How many milliequivalents are there in 15 mL of a 50% MgSO4
solution? (MW = 246)
A. 6.097 mEq
B
B. 60.97 mEq
C. 6.96 mEq
D. 69.7 mEq

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75. Convert 5% (w/v) to mg/mL:
A. 50 mg/mL
B. 500 mg/mL A
C. 5000 mg/mL
D. 5 mg/mL
76. If the ratio 1:250 is expressed as %, the result is:
A. 0.004%
B. 0.04% C
C. 0.4%
D. 0.004%
77. How many mL of 1:5000 (w/v) solution of phenylmercuric
nitrate can be made from 125 mL of a 0.5% solution?
A. 1050 mL
D
B. 5 mL
C. 80 mL
D. 3125 mL
78. A 250 mL infusion bottle contains 2.0 mEq of calcium per mL.
How much calcium in grams does it contain?
Ca2+ MW = 40.0
A. 3.0 g C
B. 5.0 g
C. 10.0 g
D. none of the above
79. Eszopiclone is used to treat:
A. bipolar disorder
B. generalized anxiety disorder D
C. ataxia
D. insomnia
80. The pharmacist was reviewing a new order of Aldactone for a
patient who is receiving an ACE inhibitor. Which of the following
significant interaction should be noted by the pharmacist?
A. Hyperuricemia D
B. Hypoglycemia
C. Antagonistic interaction
D. Elevation of potassium
81. Which of the following compounds is incorrectly matched with
one of its therapeutic uses?
A. Misoprostol: ovulation induction
B. metformin:type2diabetesmellitus A
C. finasteride: benign prostatic
hyperplasia
D. propylthiouracil:hyperthyroidism
82. A retrospective comparison of casual factors or exposures in
group of persons with disease and those of persons without the
disease
A. randomized control trial B
B. case-control study
C. cohort study
D. blinded study
83. Who is not qualified to be a member of the Pharmacy and
Therapeutics Committee?
a. cardiologist
B
b. pharmacy intern
c. gastroenterologist
d. hospital administrator
84. What antibiotic belongs to the same classification of clar-
ithromycin?
A
A. Azithromycin
B. Clindamycin
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C. Gentamicin
D. Vancomycin
85. A patient weighing 120lbs was administered 2.1 grams of a
drug that was intended to be dosed at 30mg/kg. The dose given
is:
A. Correct C
B. Underdose
C. Overdose
D. Cannotbedetermined
86. If a drug weighs 10 g and occupies a volume of 8.3 mL, what
is the density of the substance?
A. 1.20
A
B. 0.83
C. 0.5
D. NOTA
87. Which of the following is also known as the "growth hor-
mone-inhibiting hormone"? Its therapeutic use is targeted on
blocking hormone release in endocrine-secreting tumors.
A. Simvastatin B
B. Somatostatin
C. Gonadotropin
D. Somatropin
88. Which of the following neurotransmitter will be increased by
Rivastigmine in the Central Nervous System synapses?
A. Dopamine
B
B. Acetylcholine
C. Epinephrine
D. Serotonin
89. Which of the following is the main adverse effect of Insulin?
A. Hypoglycemia
B. Hyperglycemia A
C. Bone marrow depression
D. Hepatotoxicity
90. Which of the following is the main physical hazards when
administering parental drugs with vesicant properties?
A. Hypothermia
C
B. Air embolism
C. Extravasation
D. Thrombosis
91. Which of the following is a known adverse effect associated
with the use of chloramphenicol?
A. Staining of the teeth
D
B. Alopecia
C. Phototoxicity
D. Aplasticanemia
92. Where does the tumor from Zollinger- Ellison Disease occurs?
A. stomach
B. pancreas B
C. intestines
D. liver
93. Febuxostat was used from the treatment regimen of a patient.
What was its use?
A. Decrease uric acid
A
B. Decrease cholesterol in the blood
C. increase urine output
D. decrease heart activity
94. The Latin phrase "I shall please" is also called
A. Compound C
B. Dispense
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C. Placebo
D. Mixing
95. Which of this is the term when there is evidence of human fetal
risk, but the potential benefits from the use of the drug may be
acceptable despite the potential risk.
A. Risk outweighs benefits B
B. Benefits outweigh risk
C. Risk cannot be ruled out
D. No risk
96. Which compound enhances immune function in vitro and is
used to decrease the symptoms of the common cold?
A. Echinacea
A
B. Ginkgo
C. Garlic
D. Melatonin
97. An alternative medicine that is commonly used to treat the
urinary symptoms associated with benign prostatic hyperplasia
(BPH) is
A. Echinacea C
B. Ephedra
C. Saw palmetto
D. Milk thistle
98. Which drug has a biochemical effect that most closely re-
sembles the proposed mechanism of action of the psychoactive
constituent(s) of St. John's wort?
A. Alprazolam B
B. Fluoxetine
C. Levodopa
D. Methylphenidate
99. Which of the following drugs can increase the clearance of
another drug?
I. Grapefruit Juice II. Phenytoin
III. Smoking
IV. Carbamazepine C
A. I, II, III, IV
B. II, III
C. II, III, IV
D. III, IV
100. A nonstimulant agent that can be used to treat attention-
deficit/hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) is A. Methylphenidate
B. Caffeine D
C. Dextroamphetamine
D. Atomoxetine

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