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28-04-2024

1901CPA404016240006 PF

PHYSICS

1) The palm of Shyam’s hand has an area of 0.0020 m2. If the atmospheric pressure on the palm is
100,000 Pa, what force is being exerted on Shyam’s palm by the atmosphere ?

(1) 200 N
(2) 2000 N
(3) 100 N
(4) 1000 N

2) An object is sliding down on a inclined plane. The velocity changes at a constant rate from 10 m/s
to 15 m/s in 2 seconds. What is its acceleration?

(1) 25 m/s2
(2) 5 m/s2
(3) 2.5 m/s2
(4) Zero

3) Six children A, B, C, D, E and F are sitting on a see saw as shown in the fig.

If the see saw is balanced and A exerts a force of (55 ×


‘x’) N, then find the value of x.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

4) A block of mass 2 kg has dimensions 5 cm × 15 cm × 20 cm respectively. The ratio of minimum to


maximum pressure it exerts, on the change in orientation, is

(1) 1 : 1
(2) 1 : 2
(3) 1 : 4
(4) 4 : 1

5) Which part of eye gives it a distinctive colour?

(1) Sclera
(2) Pupil
(3) Iris
(4) Cornea

6) To make a kaleidoscope we require

(1) Three plane mirror


(2) Four plane mirror
(3) Three glass sheet
(4) Four glass sheet

7) Which among the following statement(s) is/are true regarding light ?

(1) On reflection, the amplitude & intensity of reflected ray is slightly less than that of incident ray.
(2) Light travels in straight line in vacuum.
(3) The wavelength range of visible light is about 4 × 10–7 m to 7 × 10–7 m.
(4) All of these

8) If a pin is placed in front of, and to the right of a plane mirror as shown in figure. Where is the
image of the pin formed?

(1) P
(2) Q
(3) R
(4) S

9) The incident rays ABC fall on plane miror kept inside PQRS and are reflected by the mirror as
A'B'C'. In which position is the plane mirror kept ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

10) Visually impaired people can read and write using

(1) electronic writer


(2) digital pens
(3) braille system
(4) hearing aids

11) Two mirrors A and B are placed at right angle to each other as shown. a ray of light incident on
mirror A at an angle of 25o falls on mirror B after reflection. The angle of reflection for the ray
reflected from mirror B would be

(1) 65o
(2) 50o
(3) 25o
(4) 115o

12) We can distinguish between the musical sounds of same pitch and same loudness produced by
different singers on the basis of the characteristic of sound called:

(1) Frequency
(2) Timbre or Quality
(3) Pitch
(4) Loudness

13) Assertion (A) : Waves produced by a motor boat sailing in water are both longitudinal and
transverse waves.
Reason (R): The longitudinal and transverse waves cannot be produced simultaneously.

(1) If both Assertion and Reason are true and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
(2) If both Assertion and Reason are true but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
(3) If Assertion is true but Reason is false.
(4) If both Assertion and Reason are false.

14) A sound wave travels from east to west, in which direction do the particles of air move :

(1) East-west
(2) North-south
(3) Up and down
(4) None of these

15) U-tube has one arm with the cross sectional area that is five times of the other arm. The two
arms are fitted with frictionless pistons and the U-tube is completely filled with water, as shown in

the figure below. The options show the two pistons


balanced at the same level with different weights placed on them. Which option is correct ?

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

16) What will be the time period in seconds if an object vibrates 1200 times in one minute

(1) 0.625 sec.


(2) 0.5 sec.
(3) 1200 sec.
(4) 0.05 sec.

17) Choose the correct statements.


(A) Speed of sound waves in air depends on its temperature
(B) Speed of light is independent of temperature
(C) Speed of sound wave is more in solid than in air
(D) Speed of light is more in air than in solid.

(1) (A), (B)


(2) (A), (B), (C)
(3) (A), (D)
(4) (A), (B), (C), (D)

18) In a figure shown below what does A, B and C represents?


(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

19) Calculate the atmospheric pressure in atm where mercury barometer reads 19 cm of mercury
column.

(1) 4 atm
(2) 0.4 atm
(3) 0.25 atm
(4) 2.5 atm

20) A person has a hearing range from 20 Hz to 20 kHz. What are the typical wavelength of sound
waves in air corresponding to these two frequencies? Take the speed of sound in air as 344 m/s

(1) 17.2 m, 17.2 × 10–3 m


(2) 1.2 m, 3.72 × 10–3 m
(3) 37.2 m, 3.12 × 10–3 m
(4) 20.2 m, 1.72 × 10–3 m

CHEMISTRY

1) Match column "I' with column 'II' as regard to characteristics of a flame and
it's zone

(1) a-1, b-2, c- 3


(2) a-2, b-1, c-3
(3) a-3, b-1, c-2
(4) a-2, b-3, c-1

2) The combustion of hydrocarbon gives

(1) Water vapours & Carbon dioxide as product


(2) Water vapours & methane as product
(3) Methane & propane as product
(4) None of these

3) Assertion (A) : The harmful substance like sewage, toxic, chemicals etc. get mixed with water
and becomes water polluted.
Reason (R) : The substances which made water polluted are known as water pollutants.

(1) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A


(2) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A
(3) A is true but R is false
(4) A is false but R is true

4) The head of a safety match-stick contains :

(1) antimony trisulphide and potassium chlorate.


(2) antimony chloride and potassium sulphide.
(3) antimony carbonate.
(4) potassium sulphide.

5) Few processes are given


(i) Burning of candle
(ii) Rusting
(iii) Respiration
(iv) Burning of white phosphorus
(v) Burning of Sodium metal with air
(vi) Burning of LPG in kitchen
(vii) Burning of the crackers
(viii) Burning of fuel in vehicles
(ix) Forest fires
(x) Fires in coal mines
Which of the following is correct regarding these processes?

(1) (i), (v), (vi), (vii), (viii), (x) are examples of rapid combustion.
(2) (ii), (iv), (v), (ix) are examples of spontaneous combustion.
(3) (i), (iii), (vi), (vii), (viii) are examples of rapid combustion.
(4) (iv), (v), (ix) are examples of spontaneous combustion.

6) In the refining of petroleum, various fractions are obtained which are shown in the figure below.
Choose the correct option

S.No. Fraction Boiling point range

(1) u 250 – 300°C

(2) r 170 – 250°C

(3) t 180 – 120°C

(4) p 250 – 180°C


(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

7) Study the given flow chart carefully and identify A to E.

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

8) Ammoniacal liquor is

(1) Ammonia absorbed in water


(2) Ammonium Hydroxide
(3) Aqueous solution of ammonia
(4) All of these

9) The unit of calorific value of a fuel is

(1) Joule per gram


(2) Kilo-joule per kg
(3) Both
(4) None

10) Which of the following products obtained by destructive distillation of coal, is not properly
matched?

(1) Coal tar – Dyes, explosives, paints


(2) Coal gas – Fuel
(3) Coke – Drinking purposes
(4) Ammoniacal liquor – Fertilizers

11) Which of the following are Non-metallic minerals ?


(i) Bauxite (ii) Quartz (iii) Copper
(iv) Graphite (v) Gravel

(1) (i), (ii) & (iv)


(2) (ii) & (iv)
(3) (i), (iii) & (v)
(4) (ii), (iv) & (v)

12) Natural resources can be classified as renewable and non-renewable resources. In the box given
below, how many resources are renewable resources?

(1) 2
(2) 3
(3) 4
(4) 5

13) Which of the following is the formula of ethyl mercaptan ?

(1) C3H7SH
(2) C2H5SH
(3) CH3SH
(4) None of these

14) The density of lithium is only

(1) 1·2 g/cc


(2) 1·1 gm/cc
(3) 0.53 gm/cc
(4) 1 gm/cc

15)
The correct order of X, Y and Z in the given reactions is :

(1) CO2, Fe3O4, Al(OH)3


(2) O2, Fe2O3, Na2CO3
(3) O2, Fe3O4, NaAlO2
(4) O2, Fe2O3.xH2O, Al2O3

16) Rishab has arranged the following set-ups to study the process of rusting.

Iron nail will not rust in test tubes

(1) (ii) and (iii) only


(2) (i) and (ii) only
(3) (iii) and (iv) only
(4) (i) and (iv) only

17) When silver is exposed to air for a long time. It develops a blackish layer on the surface. This
layer is due to the formation of which of the following compounds?

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

18) Choose the reactions which are not feasible.


I. Iron + Zinc Sulphate → Iron Sulphate + Zinc
II. Magnesium + Silver Nitrate
→ Magnesium Nitrate + Silver
III. Copper + dil. Sulphuric acid → Copper Sulphate + H2
IV. Zinc + Ferrous Sulphate → Iron + Zinc Sulphate
(1) I, II and III
(2) III and IV only
(3) I and III only
(4) All of these

19) The electronic configurations of three elements X, Y and Z are X - 2,8 ; Y - 2,8,7 and Z -
2,8,2.Which of the following statements is correct ?

(1) X is a metal
(2) Y is a metal
(3) Z is a non-metal
(4) Y is a non-metal and Z is a metal

20) Match the Column I with Column II

Column I Column II

CaO and acidic


(a) (i)
MgO oxides

CO, N2O amphoteric


(b) (ii)
and NO oxides

Al2O3 and basic


(c) (iii)
ZnO oxides

CO2 and Neutral


(d) (iv)
SO2 oxides
(1) (a) - (iii), (b) - (i), (c) - (iv), (d) - (ii)
(2) (a) - (iii), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iv)
(3) (a) - (iii), (b) - (iv), (c) - (ii), (d) - (i)
(4) (a) - (iv), (b) - (ii), (c) - (i), (d) - (iii)

BIOLOGY

1) The cell theory was modified by

(1) Robert Hooke


(2) Robert Brown
(3) Leeuwenhoek
(4) Virchow

2) 70 s type of ribosomes are found in

(1) Prokaryotic cells


(2) Prokaryotic cells, chloroplasts and mitochondria
(3) Mitochondria only
(4) Nucleus, Mitochondria
3) What is the function of the nucleus in a cell?

(1) Synthesizing proteins


(2) Storing genetic information
(3) Producing energy
(4) Breaking down waste products

4) Look at the given cell carefully. Identify the function of the part labelled "A".

(1) It controls the movement of materials in and out of the cell.


(2) It controls all the activities of the cell
(3) It is the living part of the cell
(4) It provides protection to the cell

5) What is the role of plasma membrane?

(1) It provides shape to cell.


(2) It protects the internal components.
(3) It is made up of cellulose.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

6) Jams and squashes can be preserved by

(1) adding chemicals like sodium benzoate


(2) adding sugar
(3) adding oil and vinegar
(4) both (1) and (2)

7) Select the incorrect statement regarding bacteria.

(1) They are mostly heterotrophic


(2) Their cell wall is made up of chitin
(3) Some bacteria can live in hot springs.
(4) They have four basic shapes

8) Some plants have nitrogen fixing bacteria in their root nodules. Find out the bacteria -
(1) Blue green algae
(2) Nitrosomonas
(3) Azotobacter
(4) Rhizobium

9) Which of the following statement is true regarding microbes?

(1) They are present in dead and decaying matter.


(2) Some microbes live as parasites.
(3) Some microbes can survive in extremely harsh conditions.
(4) All of these

10) Which of the following increase the fertility of soil?


A- Lactobacillus bacteria
B- Rhizobium bacteria
C- Spirogyra algae
D-Blue-green algae

(1) (A) and (B)


(2) (B) and (C)
(3) (A) and (D)
(4) (B) and (D)

11) Which of the following is not an example of oilseed crops ?

(1) Ground nut


(2) Soyabean
(3) Mustard
(4) Peas

12) In which of the following method of irrigation,animal labour is used for drawing water?

(1) Moat or pulley system.


(2) Rahat or lever system.
(3) Chain pump.
(4) Dhekli.

13) Roughage used as cattle food includes-

(1) Barley and cotton seeds.


(2) Fodder and gram bran.
(3) Fodder and legumes
(4) Fodder and oilseeds.

14) Choose the correct statement regarding fertilizers.


(i) They are organic substances.
(ii) They are soluble in water.
(iii) Easy to transport.
(iv) Harmful to environment.
(v) Bulky substance.

(1) i, ii, iii


(2) i, ii, iv
(3) i, iii, iv
(4) ii, iii, iv

15) Which of the following is the combination of fodder crops?

(1) Groundnut and lentils


(2) Berseem and sudan grass
(3) Rice and mustard
(4) All of these

16) Yeast is added to dough in bread making because

(1) It releases acids that add flavour to the bread.


(2) Release of CO2 during anaerobic respiration makes the bread porous and light.
(3) Yeast is added for increasing nutrient content.
(4) Yeast makes the bread sweet.

17) What is pasteurisation?

A process in which milk is heated at 70°C for 15–30 second and then suddenly chilled and
(1)
stored.
(2) A process in which we freeze the milk
(3) A process in which the milk is packed in cans.
(4) None of these

18) Viruses possess

(1) DNA only


(2) Nucleic acid; DNA or RNA
(3) Protein only
(4) Nucleic acid and protein

19) A process ‘X’ in which water bodies such as lakes become enriched with plant nutrients due to
which thick layer ‘Y’ develops over the surface. It causes unfavourable environment for the
organisms present in pond. Identify X and Y.

(1) X : eutrophication , Y: algae


(2) X : eutrophication , Y: bacteria
(3) X : algal bloom , Y: algae
(4) X : algal bloom , Y: fungus

20) Identify the paramyxo virus & influenza virus respectively from the given figures.

(1) i, ii respectively
(2) iii, iv respectively
(3) ii, iii respectively
(4) ii, iv respectively

MATHEMATICS

1) If , then the value of x is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

2) The ascending order of the surds. is

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

3) The 10th root of is __________.

(1)
(2)

(3)

(4)
4) If then the value of is equal to

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4) None of these

5)

(1) 0.0375
(2) 0.3375
(3) 3.275
(4) 32.75

6)

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

7) The volume of two cubes are in the ratio 343 : 1331, the ratio of their edges is

(1) 7 : 10
(2) 7 : 11
(3) 7 : 12
(4) None of these

8) If 5(x+3) = (25)(3x − 4), then the value of x is

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)
9) 2x = 3y = 6−z, then is equal to

(1) 0
(2) 1

(3)

(4)

10) Simplify :

(1)
(2)
(3)
(4)

11) If then find the value of (k + 3)2

(1)

(2)

(3)

(4)

12) The total number of even prime number is

(1) 0
(2) 1
(3) 2
(4) None of these

13) The number is

(1) Rational
(2) Irrational
(3) Both
(4) Can't say

14) The inside circumference of a circular field is 1188m. A road 7m wide is constructed on the
outside around it. Find its area.
(1) 8070 m2
(2) 8270 m2
(3) 8370 m2
(4) 8470 m2

15) If the radius and height of a cone are in the ratio 5 : 12 and its volume is 314 cm3, then its slant
height is

(1) 12 cm
(2) 10 cm
(3) 13 cm
(4) 15 cm

16) The side of a square inscribed in the circle of circumference 220 cm is

(1) 26 m
(2) 28 m
(3)
(4) 36 m

17) The value of (13 + 23 + 33)1/2 is

(1) 7
(2) 8
(3) 6
(4) 10

18)

(1) 63
(2) 126
(3) 93
(4) 186

19) Find the L.C.M of 25 and 35, if their H.C.F is 5.

(1) 125
(2) 25
(3) 175
(4) 35

20) A rational number lies between and

(1)
(2) − 0.208

(3)

(4) All of these


ANSWER KEYS

PHYSICS

Q. 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
A. 1 3 4 3 3 1 4 3 1 3 1 2 3 1 1 4 4 1 3 1

CHEMISTRY

Q. 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
A. 2 1 1 1 4 2 4 4 3 3 4 2 2 3 3 1 3 3 4 3

BIOLOGY

Q. 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
A. 4 2 2 4 4 4 2 4 4 4 4 2 3 4 2 2 1 4 1 1

MATHEMATICS

Q. 61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70 71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
A. 4 2 1 1 2 2 2 2 1 3 1 2 2 4 3 3 3 2 3 4
SOLUTIONS

PHYSICS

2)

u = 10 m/s
v = 15 m/s, t = 2s

= 2.5 m/s2.

5) Iris of eye gives it a distinctive colour.

15)

P1 = P2

19)

76 cm 1 atm

19 cm

20)

CHEMISTRY

25) (iv) Burning of white phosphorus


(v) Burning of Sodium metal when dipped in water
(ix) Forest fires
These are examples of spontaneous combustion.

27) Combustible substance - paper


Forms no flame - tin
Undergoes spontaneous combustion - phosphorous
Undergo explosion - crackers
Undergo rapid combustion - coal

30)

Coke is not used for drinking purposes.

31)

Quartz, Graphite & Gravel are Non-metallic minerals.

32)

Water, sunlight and wind are renewable energy sources.

33)

LPG doesn’t have any characteristic smell. The detection of its smell is due to a foul smelling
substance ethyl mercaptan (C2H5SH) added to it.

36)

Test tube ii and iii there is no rust because test tube ii iron nail covered by aluminium coil so
aluminium will rust, but not iron in test tube iii cotton wool present above the water and calcium
chloride is also present it is dehydrating agent these two not providing rust conditions.

BIOLOGY

49) All of these

51)

Peas are the example of pulse crop.

52)

In Rahat, the animals are used to draw water.

53)

Roughage includes fodder and legumes.

54)

Fertilizers are inorganic substances, which are soluble in water. Excess use is harmful to
environment. They are not bulky and are easy to transport.

55)

Berseem and sudan grass are fodder crops.

MATHEMATICS

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