Induction
Induction
Induction
A Ladder Metaphor
Suppose there is a very long ladder on the side of a very tall tower. The rungs on this ladder are
such that from any one rung you are able to reach the next rung. Given this information, can you
reach the top of the ladder?
Your answer ought to be “it depends”: it depends on whether the very first rung is reachable or
not! If you are able to reach the first rung, then because the rungs are close together, you are
able to reach the second, and then the third, and then the fourth, and so on. Conversely, if you
are not able to reach the first rung then you are stuck on the ground.
Humour me and think about this ladder situation in another way. Let’s label the rungs of the
ladder with numbers, such that the bottom rung is labelled 0 and the labels increase by 1 as we
go up the ladder. Let P (n) be the property that we are able to reach the nth rung. You can (and
should) think of P as a boolean function, that takes a single integer parameter n, and returns true
if you can reach the nth rung, and false otherwise.
With this notation, the statement “the rungs are such that from any one rung you are able to
reach the next rung” is the same as “for any k ≥ 0, if P (k) is true then P (k + 1) is also true.”
This doesn’t say anything about the reachability of the first rung; that is, we don’t know if P (0) is
true. If P (0) is true, though, then we can apply the “if P (k) is true then P (k + 1) is also true” for
k = 0 and get that P (1) is true, which then implies that P (2) is true, and so on, so that P (n) is
true for all n ≥ 0. Conversely, if P (0) is not true, then we cannot say anything about the validity
of P (n) for any n ≥ 1.
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Induction Introduction
The principles of induction follows that of the ladder. If we are trying to prove that we can reach
the nth rung of a ladder, for all n, we first have to prove that our rungs are close enough so that
if we can reach the kth rung then we can reach the k + 1st. This isn’t sufficient to prove the
reachability of all rungs, though; we must also prove that we can reach the first rung.
Of course, we won’t be proving statements about ladders! Instead, we prove properties about
natural numbers, using the same ladder idea. You’ll have some boolean property P (n) that you
are trying to prove for some infinite set of natural numbers (for example, for all n ≥ 0 or for all
n ≥ 1). To prove P (n) for all requisite n, you’ll prove two things: (1) that if P (k) holds for
some fixed k, then P (k + 1) also holds, and (2) that P (0) also holds (or P (1), or some other small
number). This combination will prove that P (n) holds for the infinitely many n that you specified.
Why does this work? You’ve explicitly shown the property is true for n = 0. Moreover, you’ve
shown that if the property holds for k = 0 (which it does, because you just did that) then it also
holds for k = 1; therefore, the base case implies it is true for n = 1. You can use the step (1) again
to show that it is true for n = 2, then n = 3, and so on, infinitely, as long as you want.
Here is another argument. Suppose that you’ve shown (1) and (2), yet there is some number such
that the property is not true. Let k + 1 be the smallest number for which the property isn’t true.
How did the property become false? Well, if it’s false for k + 1, then it must also be false for k
(because of (1)). But k + 1 was the smallest number for which the property was false, which is a
contradiction. Therefore (1) and (2) imply there is no such k.
Enough abstract jibber jabber. It’s time for an example.
02 = 0
02 + 12 = 1
02 + 1 2 + 2 2 = 5
02 + 12 + 22 + 32 = 14
Okay, I’m not sure if you’re seeing a pattern, but it looks like the sum of the first n squares may
be n(n + 1)(2n + 1)/6. It certainly works for the few examples above, but I’d like to prove that
the formula works for every single n ≥ 0, that is, I want to prove an infinite number of equalities.
Let’s see how to do this with induction:
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Step 0. For all n ≥ 0, we want to show that the sum of the first n squares is equal to n(n +
1)(2n + 1)/6.
Step 2. As a base case, consider when n = 0. We will show that P (0) is true: that is, that
02 + · · · + 02 = 0(0 + 1)(2 · 0 + 1)/6. Fortunately,
Step 3. For the induction hypothesis, suppose (hypothetically) that P (k) were true for some fixed
k ≥ 0. That is, suppose that
k(k + 1)(2k + 1)
02 + 12 + 22 + · · · + (k − 1)2 + k 2 = .
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Step 4. Now we prove that P (k + 1) is true, using the (hypothetical) induction assumption that
P (k) is true. That is, we prove that
(k + 1)(k + 2)(2(k + 1) + 1)
02 + 12 + 22 + · · · + k 2 + (k + 1)2 = .
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Step 5. The proof that P (k + 1) is true (given that P (k) is true) is as follows:
Therefore we have shown that if P (k) is true, then P (k + 1) is also true, for any k ≥ 0.
Step 6. The steps above have shown that for any k ≥ 0, if P (k) is true, then P (k + 1) is also
true. Combined with the base case, which shows that P (0) is true, we have shown that for
all n ≥ 0, P (n) is true, as desired.
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7-Step Process
Proofs by mathematical induction have the form that you prove P (n) for your smallest value(s)
of n for which you want your property to hold, then you prove that for any k, if P (k) is true
then P (k + 1) would also be true. We recommend you use the following 7-step structure to do so.
While it may seem like overkill to do all 7 steps, even seasoned mathematicians tend to put all 7
parts into a proof by induction, because it gives the proof a common structure that makes it very
easy to follow. The creativity of the proof really comes into step 5, but putting all your ducks in
a row before you get to that point can make step 5 a lot easier.
Step 0: State (the infinite set of ) statements that you want to prove.
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The proof that P (k + 1) is true (given that P (k) is true) is as follows: .
Step 6: Conclusion.
We have shown that if P (k) is true, then P (k + 1) is true. Thus, because P (hbase
casei) is true, you have that P (n) is true for all n ≥ hbase casei.
Tips
• Check that you P (n) mentions n in it somewhere, and that it doesn’t mention other variables.
Remember, P is just like a method, that takes in one variable n. You should use that variable
in P , and you should use others.
• P (n) is a boolean property, not a number, so you cannot manipulate it mathematically, like
P (n) = 5, or P (n + 1) < P (n).
• Be careful with the base case... sometimes you will need more than one, as with some
recurrence relations.
• You must use your induction hypothesis somewhere in the proof of the inductive step, oth-
erwise you are not doing a proof by induction. Check to be sure.
• If you’re stuck in your inductive step, take a step back for a moment. What are you trying
to prove? Keep this in mind when you work on proving P (k + 1). Since you have to use
your induction hypothesis somewhere, you may want to think about how you can manipulate
what you’ve got into something that resembles your induction hypothesis. Also, you may
want to check any algebra you’ve done as that can often be the source of problems!
• When trying to prove some equation holds, that is, if you are trying to prove that
left-hand-side = right-hand-side
for some left-hand-side and right-hand-side, please do not start with assuming they are equal
and then modifying both sides of the equations until you get an equation that is actually
true. For example:
left-hand-side = right-hand-side
0 × left-hand-side = 0 × right-hand-side
0 = 0.
Therefore they are equal.
Obviously I can ‘prove’ that left-hand-side = right-hand-side using this method for any
left-hand-side and right-hand-side, regardless of whether or not they are actually equal!
What is better is to start with left-hand-side, make modifications to left-hand-side through
a string of equalities that somehow ends with right-hand-side. That is,
left-hand-side = · · ·
= ···
= right-hand-side.
This will guarantee that you don’t prove something that isn’t true.
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Example 1: Powers of 2 (Lecture)
Suppose we want to prove the following claim.
Pn i n+1 − 1.
Claim. i=0 2 = 2
We will prove this by induction using the 7-step process.
Step 0. For all n ≥ 0, we want to show that the sum of the first n powers of 2 is equal to 2n+1 − 1.
Step 1. For any n ≥ 0, let P (n) be the property that
n
X
2i = 2n+1 − 1 .
i=0
We want to show that P (n) is true for all n ≥ 0.
Step P
2. As a base case, consider when n = 0. We will show that P (0) is true: that is, that
0 i 1
i=0 2 = 2 − 1. Fortunately,
0
X
left-hand side = 2i = 20 = 1 = 2 − 1 = 21 − 1 = right-hand side.
i=0
Step 3. For the induction hypothesis, suppose (hypothetically) that P (k) were true for some fixed
k ≥ 0. That is, suppose that
Xk
2i = 2k+1 − 1 .
i=0
Step 4. Now we prove that P (k + 1) is true, using the (hypothetical) induction assumption that
P (k) is true. That is, we prove that
k+1
X
2i = 2k+2 − 1 .
i=0
Step 5. The proof that P (k + 1) is true (given that P (k) is true) is as follows:
k+1
X
left-hand side = 2i
i=0
k
X
= 2k+1 + 2i by pulling out the first term out of the sum
i=0
= 2k+1 + (2 k+1
− 1) by the induction hypothesis P (k)
= 2 · 2k+1 − 1 by algebra
k+2
=2 −1 by algebra
= right-hand side.
Therefore we have shown that if P (k) is true, then P (k + 1) is also true, for any k ≥ 0.
Step 6. The steps above have shown that for any k ≥ 0, if P (k) is true, then P (k + 1) is also
true. Combined with the base case, which shows that P (0) is true, we have shown that for
all n ≥ 0, P (n) is true, as desired.
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Example 2: Jelly Beans (Tutorial)
You have n ≥ 0 jelly beans, each of a different flavour. As you know, different subsets of jelly
bean flavours produce different taste bud sensations. How many different flavour combinations
are there? (We’ll count no flavour, as in, no jelly beans, as a distinct flavour combination.)
First imagine that we have only two jellybeans: apple, kiwi. Then there are four flavour combina-
tions: no flavour, apple, kiwi, and apple-kiwi. Note that 2 of these flavour combinations contain
kiwi, and two do not.
Now suppose we have three jellybeans: apple, berry, kiwi. Then there are 8 flavour combinations:
no flavour, apple, berry, kiwi, apple-berry, apple-kiwi, berry-kiwi, and apple-berry-kiwi. Note that
4 of these flavour combinations contain kiwi, and 4 do not.
Finally, suppose we have four jellybeans: apple, berry, cherry, kiwi. Then there are 16 flavour com-
binations: no flavour, apple, berry, cherry, kiwi, apple-berry, apple-cherry, apple-kiwi, berry-cherry,
berry-kiwi, cherry-kiwi, apple-berry-cherry, apple-berry-kiwi, apple-cherry-kiwi, berry-cherry-kiwi,
and apple-berry-cherry-kiwi. Note that 8 of these flavour combinations contain kiwi, and 8 do not.
Step 0. For all n ≥ 0, we want to show that there are 2n flavour combos drawn from n jelly
beans.
Step 1. For any n ≥ 0, let P (n) be the property that there are 2n flavour combos drawn from n
jelly beans.
Step 2. As a base case, consider when n = 0. We will show that P (0) is true: with 0 jelly beans,
there is only one flavour combination (the boring, no flavour one), and 1 = 20 .
Step 3. For the induction hypothesis, suppose (hypothetically) that P (k) is true for some fixed
k ≥ 0. That is, suppose that there are 2k flavour combinations drawn from k jelly beans.
Step 4. Now we prove that P (k + 1) is true, using our (hypothetical) induction assumption that
P (k) is true. That is, we prove that there are 2k+1 flavour combinations drawn from k + 1
jelly beans.
Step 5. Now we prove P (k + 1) is true, using the fact that P (k) is true:
Consider your k + 1 beans, and suppose kiwi is one of your flavours (since k + 1 ≥ 1 we
know at least one jelly bean exists and we can call it kiwi). Then since each flavour combo
either contains kiwi or it doesn’t, the total number of flavour combos is equal to the flavour
combos that include kiwi, and those that do not. That is, we have
Consider a flavour combo drawn from k + 1 beans that contains kiwi. It consists of a kiwi
bean, and a flavour combo drawn from the remaining k (non-kiwi) beans. In our example
above with n = 4, the apple-berry-kiwi combo is the apple-berry combo drawn from apple,
berry, cherry, plus kiwi.
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Consider a flavour combo drawn from k + 1 beans that doesn’t contain kiwi. It consists of
some flavour combo drawn from the remaining k (non-kiwi) beans. In our example above
with n = 4, the apple-berry combo is the apple-berry combo drawn from apple, berry, cherry.
In both cases, we can create the flavour combo drawn from k + 1 beans out of a flavour
combos drawn from the k non-kiwi beans. In the latter case we add the kiwi bean back,
in the former case we do not. But every flavour combo drawn from k + 1 beans can be
constructed in this way out of flavour combos drawn from k (non-kiwi) beans. That is, we
have
Step 6. The steps above have shown that for any k ≥ 0, if P (k) is true, then P (k + 1) is also
true. Combined with the base case, which shows that P (0) is true, we have shown that for
all n ≥ 0, P (n) is true, as desired.
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Exercise: Tiling with Triominoes
For any n ≥ 0, consider a 2n × 2n checkerboard, with one corner removed. Can you always tile
the checkerboard with L-shaped “tri-ominoes”? If so, how?
Step 3. For the induction hypothesis, suppose (hypothetically) that P (k) is true for some fixed
k ≥ . That is, suppose that
Step 4. Now we will prove that P (k + 1) is true, using our (hypothetical) induction assumption
that P (k) is true. That is, we must prove that
Step 5. The proof that P (k + 1) is true (given that P (k) is true) is as follows: