2002 Step1

Copyright © 2002 by the Federation of State Medical Boards of the United States, Inc.
and the National Board of

Medical Examiners® (NBME®). All rights reserved. Printed in the United States of America.
The USMLE™ is a joint program of the Federation of State Medical Boards of the United States, Inc. and the
National Board of Medical Examiners.
CONTENTS
Introduction . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Preparing for the Test, Applying for the Test,
Scheduling Test Dates, and Testing . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Examination Content . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3
Step 1 Test Question Format . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4
Content Outline . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5
Sample Step 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20
Normal Laboratory Values . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21
Answer Form for Sample Step 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23
Test Questions for Sample Step 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 24
Answer Key for Sample Step 1 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 49
Introduction Please note that values shown in the actual
examination may differ slightly from those printed in
This booklet is intended to help you prepare for Step 1 this booklet. Other computer interface features include
of the United States Medical Licensing Examination™ clickable icons for marking questions to be reviewed,
(USMLE™) if you are an applicant with an eligibility automated review of marked and incomplete questions,
period that has an ending date in 2003. Eligibility a clock indicating the time remaining, and a help
periods are explained on page 12 of the 2003 application. This will provide examinees with a realistic
USMLE Bulletin of Information, with which you understanding of the computer interface and timing of
must become familiar to apply for the examination. In the examination.
addition to reading the Bulletin, you should run the
sample Step 1 test materials and tutorials provided at
the USMLE website or by your registration entity on Examination Content
CD.
The purpose of Step 1 is to determine if an examinee
The information in this booklet, USMLE sample test understands and can apply important concepts of the
materials and software tutorials, and other sciences basic to the practice of medicine, with a
informational materials are available at the USMLE special emphasis on principles and mechanisms
website (http://www.usmle.org). Information regarding underlying health, disease, and modes of therapy. The
any changes in the USMLE program will also be inclusion of Step 1 in the USMLE sequence is intended
posted at the USMLE website. You must obtain the to ensure mastery of not only the sciences
most recent information to ensure an accurate undergirding the safe and competent practice of
understanding of current USMLE rules. medicine in the present, but also the scientific
principles required for maintenance of competence
through lifelong learning.
Preparing for the Test, Applying for the Test,
Scheduling Test Dates, and Testing Step 1 consists of multiple-choice questions prepared
by examination committees composed of faculty
In addition to the information in this booklet, you should members, teachers, investigators, and clinicians with
review the sections that appear on pages 9-19 in the recognized prominence in their respective fields.
Bulletin: Preparing for the Test, Applying for the Test Committee members are selected to provide broad
and Scheduling Your Test Date, and Testing. representation from the academic, practice, and
licensing communities across the United States and
Although the sample test materials in this booklet are Canada. The test is designed to measure basic science
the same as those provided in computer format at the knowledge. Some questions test the examinee’s fund
USMLE website and on CD, you must run the tutorial of information per se, but the majority of questions
and sample materials to become familiar with the test require the examinee to interpret graphic and tabular
software prior to your test date. material, to identify gross and microscopic pathologic
and normal specimens, and to solve problems through
The Step 1 examination consists of questions ("test application of basic science principles.
items") presented in standard multiple-choice formats,
as described on page 4 of this booklet. The test items Step 1 is constructed from an integrated content
are divided into "blocks" (see Test Lengths and outline that organizes basic science content according
Formats on page 9 of the Bulletin). You may want to to general principles and individual organ systems. Test
study the descriptions of test item formats that follow questions are classified in one of these major areas
before you run the sample test items. A Normal depending on whether they focus on concepts and
Laboratory Values Table, including Standard principles that are important across organ systems or
International conversions, is reproduced on pages 21 within individual organ systems.
and 22 of this booklet. This table will be available as an
on-line reference when you take the examination.
3
Sections focusing on individual organ systems are Strategies for Answering Single One Best Answer
subdivided according to normal and abnormal pro- Test Questions
cesses, principles of therapy, and psychosocial, cul-
tural, and environmental considerations. Each exami- # Read each question carefully. It is important to
nation covers content related to the traditionally understand what is being asked.
defined disciplines of anatomy, behavioral sciences, # Try to generate an answer and then look for it in
biochemistry, microbiology, pathology, pharmacology, the option list.
and physiology, as well as to interdisciplinary areas
# Alternatively, read each option carefully, eliminat-
including genetics, aging, immunology, nutrition, and
ing those that are clearly incorrect.
molecular and cell biology. While not all topics listed in
the content outline are included in every examination, # Of the remaining options, select the one that is
overall content coverage is comparable in the various most correct.
examination forms that will be taken by different # If unsure about an answer, it is better to guess
examinees. since unanswered questions are automatically
counted as wrong answers.
A full content outline for the USMLE Step 1 examina-
tion is provided on pages 6 to 19. It describes the
scope of the examination in detail. To facilitate review, Example Item
the major categories are indicated in bold type, with
the subcategories in regular type. A 32-year-old woman with type 1 diabetes
mellitus has had progressive renal failure over the
The content outline is not intended as a curriculum past 2 years. She has not yet started dialysis.
development or study guide. It provides a flexible Examination shows no abnormalities. Her hemo-
structure for test construction that can readily globin concentration is 9 g/dL, hematocrit is 28%,
accommodate new topics, emerging content domains, and mean corpuscular volume is 94 µm3 . A blood
and shifts in emphasis. The categorizations and content smear shows normochromic, normocytic cells.
coverage are subject to change. Broadly based learn- Which of the following is the most likely cause?
ing that establishes a strong general understanding of
concepts and principles in the basic sciences is the (A) Acute blood loss
best preparation for the examination. (B) Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
(C) Erythrocyte enzyme deficiency
(D) Erythropoietin deficiency
Step 1 Test Question Format (E) Immunohemolysis
(F) Microangiopathic hemolysis
Single One Best Answer Questions (G) Polycythemia vera
Step 1 includes only single questions with one best (H) Sickle cell disease
answer. This is the traditional, most frequently used (I) Sideroblastic anemia
multiple-choice format. These items consist of a (J) ß-Thalassemia trait
statement or question followed by three to eleven
response options arranged in alphabetical or logical
(Answer: D)
order. A portion of the questions involves interpretation
of graphic or pictorial materials. The response options
for all questions are lettered (eg, A, B, C, D, E).
Examinees are required to select the best answer to
the question. Other options may be partially correct,
but there is only ONE BEST answer.
4
Step 1 Content Outline
Table of Contents
General Principles . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6
Biochemistry and Molecular Biology
Biology of Cells
Human Development and Genetics
Biology of Tissue Response to Disease
Gender, Ethnic, and Behavioral Considerations Affecting Disease Treatment and Prevention
Multisystem Processes
Pharmacodynamic and Pharmacokinetic Processes
Microbial Biology and Infection
Immune Responses
Quantitative Methods
Hematopoietic and Lymphoreticular Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10

Central and Peripheral Nervous Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11
Skin and Related Connective Tissue . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12
Musculoskeletal System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Respiratory System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13
Cardiovascular System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 14
Gastrointestinal System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15
Renal/Urinary System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 16
Reproductive System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 17
Endocrine System . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 18
Examples of diseases and normal processes are listed within this content outline. The purpose of these examples
is only to clarify and illustrate the particular categories they are appended to; they are not intended to direct the
examinee toward preparing for questions on them. Examinees should not focus their studies on the examples only.
The examination encompasses the categories in the content outline, but the examination will not be limited to or
emphasize the examples or the categories for which examples are given.
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General Principles
Biochemistry and molecular biology

# gene expression: DNA structure, replication, and exchange
– DNA structure: single- and double-stranded DNA, stabilizing forces, supercoiling
– analysis of DNA: sequencing, restriction analysis, PCR amplification, hybridization
– DNA replication, mutation, repair, degradation, and inactivation
– gene structure and organization; chromosomes; centromere, telomere
– recombination, insertion sequences, transposons
– mechanisms of genetic exchange (transformation, transduction, conjugation) cross-over, recombina-
tion, linkage
– plasmids and bacteriophages
# gene expression: transcription (including defects)
– transcription of DNA into RNA, enzymatic reactions, RNA, RNA degradation
– regulation: cis-regulatory elements, transcription factors, enhancers, promoters, silencers,
repressants, splicing
# gene expression: translation (including defects)
– the genetic code
– structure and function of tRNA
– structure and function of ribosomes
– protein synthesis
– regulation of translation
– post-translational modifications (phosphorylation, addition of CHO units)
– protein degradation
# structure and function of proteins
– principles of protein structure and folding
– enzymes: kinetics, reaction mechanisms
– structural and regulatory proteins: ligand binding, self-assembly
– regulatory properties
# energy metabolism (metabolic sequences and regulation) and disorders
– generation of energy from carbohydrates, fatty acids, and essential amino acids; glycolysis, pentose
phosphate pathway, tricarboxylic acid cycle, ketogenesis, electron transport and oxidative
phosphorylation, glycogenolysis
– storage of energy: gluconeogenesis, glycogenesis, fatty acid and triglyceride synthesis
– thermodynamics: free energy, chemical equilibria and group transfer potential, energetics of ATP and
other high-energy compounds
# metabolic pathways of small molecules and associated diseases
– biosynthesis and degradation of amino acids (eg, homocystinuria)
– biosynthesis and degradation of purine and pyrimidine nucleotides (eg, gout, Lesch-Nyhan
syndrome)
– biosynthesis and degradation of lipids (eg, dyslipidemias, carnitine deficiency, adrenogenital
syndromes)
– biosynthesis and degradation of porphyrins
# biosynthesis and degradation of other macromolecules and associated abnormalities, complex carbohy-
drates (eg, lysosomal storage disease), glycoproteins, and proteoglycans
Biology of cells
# signal transduction: second messenger systems – voltage- and ligand-gated channels and receptors
# cell components (eg, endoplasmic reticulum, plasma membrane, nucleus)
# cytoskeleton (including cell movement and intracellular transport)
# secretion and exocytosis, endocytosis, transcytosis
# cell cycle, mitosis, meiosis, structure and regulation of spindle apparatus, control points
# epithelial cells (including surface specialization, intercellular junctions, gap junctions, and desmosomes)
# fibroblasts, endothelial cells, and mesenchymal cells: basement membrane, extracellular matrix,
proteoglycans, fibronectins, adhesion molecules, annexins
# muscle cells (cardiac, smooth, skeletal): structure and regulation of contractile elements, excitation-
contraction coupling
# adaptive cell response to injury (eg, hypertrophy, metaplasia)
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# mechanisms of cell injury and necrosis (including free radical mediated cell injury)
# apoptosis (programmed cell death)
Human development and genetics

# embryogenesis: programmed gene expression, tissue differentiation and morphogenesis, homeotic genes
# congenital abnormalities: principles, patterns of anomalies, dysmorphogenesis
# principles of pedigree analysis (inheritance patterns, occurrence and recurrence risk)
# population genetics: Hardy-Weinberg law, founder effects, mutation-selection equilibrium
# genetic mechanisms: chromosomal abnormalities, mendelian inheritance, multifactorial diseases
# clinical genetics (including genetic testing, prenatal diagnosis, newborn screening, genetic counsel-
ing/ethics, gene therapy)
Biology of tissue response to disease

# inflammation (cells and mediators)
– acute inflammation and mediator systems
– vascular response to injury (including mediators)
– inflammatory cell recruitment (adherence and cell migration) and phagocytosis
– bactericidal mechanisms and tissue injury
– clinical manifestations (including pain, fever, leukocytosis, leukemoid reaction, and chills)
– chronic inflammation
# reparative processes
– wound healing, hemostasis, and repair: thrombosis, granulation tissue, angiogenesis, fibrosis,
scar/keloid formation
– regenerative processes
# neoplasia
– classification, histologic diagnosis
– grading, and staging of neoplasms
– cell biology, biochemistry, and molecular biology of neoplastic cells: transformation, oncogenes,
altered cell differentiation, and proliferation
– hereditary neoplastic disorders
– invasion and metastasis
– tumor immunology
– paraneoplastic manifestations of cancer
– cancer epidemiology and prevention
Gender, ethnic, and behavioral considerations affecting disease treatment and prevention (including psychosocial,
cultural, occupational, and environmental)
# progression through the life cycle (birth through senescence)
– cognitive, language, motor skills, and social and interpersonal development
– sexual development (eg, puberty, menopause)
– influence of developmental stage on physician/patient interview
# psychologic and social factors influencing patient behavior
– personality traits or coping style (coping mechanisms)
– psychodynamic and behavioral factors, related past experience
– family and cultural factors, including socioeconomic status, ethnicity, and gender
– adaptive and maladaptive behavioral responses to stress and illness (eg, drug-seeking behavior,
sleep deprivation)
– interactions between the patient and the physician or the health care system (eg, transference)
– patient adherence (general and adolescent)
# patient interviewing, consultation, and interactions with the family
– establishing and maintaining rapport
– data gathering
– approaches to patient education
– enticing patients to make life style changes
– communicating bad news
– “difficult” interviews (eg, anxious or angry patients)
– multicultural ethnic characteristics
# medical ethics, jurisprudence, and professional behavior
– consent and informed consent to treatment
– physician-patient relationships (eg, ethical conduct, confidentiality)
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– death and dying
– birth-related issues
– issues related to patient participation in research
– interactions with other health professionals (eg, referral)
– sexuality and the profession, other “boundary” issues
– ethics of managed care
– organization and cost of health-care delivery
Multisystem processes
# nutrition
– generation, expenditure, and storage of energy at the whole-body level
– assessment of nutritional status across the life span (eg, calories, protein, essential nutrients,
hypoalimentation
– functions of nutrients (essential, transfatty acids, cholesterol)
– protein-calorie malnutrition
– vitamin deficiencies and/or toxicities
– mineral deficiencies and toxicities
– eating disorders (eg, obesity, anorexia, bulimia)
# temperature regulation
# adaptation to environmental extremes (including occupational exposures)
– physical and associated disorders (eg, temperature; radiation; burns; decreased atmospheric
pressure; high altitude sickness; increased water pressure)
– chemical (eg, gases, vapors; smoke inhalation; agricultural hazards, volatile organic solvents, heavy
metals; principles of poisoning and therapy)
# fluid, electrolyte, and acid-base balance and disorders (eg, dehydration, acidosis, alkalosis)
Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic processes

# general principles
– pharmacokinetics: absorption, distribution, metabolism, excretion, dosage intervals
– mechanisms of drug action, structure-activity relationships, receptors, signal transduction
– concentration- and dose-effect relationships (eg, efficacy, potency), types of agonists and antago-
nists and their actions
– individual factors altering pharmacokinetics and pharmacodynamics (eg, age, gender, disease,
tolerance, compliance, body weight, metabolic proficiency, pharmacogenetics)
– drug side effects, overdosage, toxicology
– drug interactions
– regulatory issues (eg, drug development, approval, scheduling)
# general properties of autacoids (including peptides and analogs, biogenic amines, prostanoids and their
inhibitors, and smooth muscle/endothelial autacoids)
# general principles of autonomic pharmacology
# general properties of antimicrobials (including mechanisms of action and resistance)
# general properties of antineoplastic agents and immunosuppressants, drug effects on rapidly dividing
mammalian cells
Microbial biology and infection

# microbial classification and its basis
# bacteria and bacterial diseases
– structure and composition
– metabolism, physiology, and regulation
– genetics
– nature and mechanisms of action of virulence factors
– pathophysiology of infection
– epidemiology and ecology
– principles of cultivation, assay, and laboratory diagnosis
# viruses and viral diseases
– physical and chemical properties
– replication
– genetics
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– principles of cultivation, assay, and laboratory diagnosis
– molecular basis of pathogenesis
– pathophysiology of infection
– latent and persistent infections
– epidemiology
– oncogenic viruses
# fungi and fungal infections
– structure, physiology, cultivation, and laboratory diagnosis
– pathogenesis and epidemiology
# parasites and parasitic diseases
– structure, physiology, and laboratory diagnosis
– pathogenesis and epidemiology
# principles of sterilization and pure culture technique
Immune responses
# production and function of granulocytes, natural killer cells, macrophages
# production and function of T lymphocytes, T lymphocyte receptors
# production and function of B lymphocytes and plasma cells; immunoglobulin and antibodies: structure
and biologic properties
# antigenicity and immunogenicity; antigen presentation; cell activation and regulation; tolerance and
clonal deletion
# immunologic mediators: chemistry, function, molecular biology, classic and alternative complement
pathways, cytokines, chemokines
# immunogenetics; MHC structure and function, class I, II molecules; erythrocyte antigens; transplantation
# immunizations: vaccines, protective immunity
# alterations in immunologic function
– T or B lymphocyte deficiencies
– deficiencies of phagocytic cells
– combined immunodeficiency disease
– HIV infection/AIDS and other acquired disorders of immune responsiveness
– drug-induced alterations in immune responses, immunopharmacology
# immunologically mediated disorders
– hypersensitivity (types I–IV)
– transplant rejection
– autoimmune disorders
– risks of transplantation, transfusion (eg, graft-versus-host disease)
– isoimmunization, hemolytic disease of the newborn
– immunopathogenesis
# immunologic principles underlying diagnostic laboratory tests (eg, ELISA, complement fixation, RIA,
agglutination)
Quantitative methods
# fundamental concepts of measurement
– scales of measurement
– distribution, central tendency, variability, probability
– disease prevalence and incidence
– disease outcomes (eg, fatality rates)
– associations (correlation or covariance)
– health impact (eg, risk differences and ratios)
– sensitivity, specificity, predictive values
# fundamental concepts of study design
– types of experimental studies (eg, clinical trials, community intervention trials)
– types of observational studies (eg, cohort, case-control, cross-sectional, case series, community
surveys)
– sampling and sample size
– subject selection and exposure allocation (eg, randomization, stratification, self-selection, systematic
assignment)
– outcome assessment
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– internal and external validity
# fundamental concepts of hypothesis testing and statistical inference
– confidence intervals
– statistical significance and type I error
– statistical power and type II error
Hematopoietic and lymphoreticular systems
Normal processes
# embryonic development, fetal maturation, and perinatal changes
# organ structure and function
# cell/tissue structure and function
– production and function of erythrocytes, hemoglobin, O2 and CO2 transport, transport proteins
– production and function of leukocytes and the lymphoreticular system
– production and function of platelets
– production and function of coagulation and fibrinolytic factors
# repair, regeneration, and changes associated with stage of life
Abnormal processes
# infectious, inflammatory, and immunologic disorders
– infections of the blood, reticuloendothelial system, and lymphatics
– allergic and anaphylactic reactions and other immunopathologic mechanisms
– acquired disorders of immune deficiency
– autoimmunity and autoimmune diseases (eg, Coombs’ positive hemolytic anemia, pernicious anemia,
cryoglobulinemias, ITP)
– anemia of chronic disease
– transfusion complications, transplant rejection
# traumatic and mechanical injury (eg, mechanical injury to erythrocytes, splenic rupture)
# neoplastic disorders (eg, lymphoma, leukemia, multiple myeloma)
# metabolic and regulatory disorders (acquired and congenital)
– anemias and cytopenias (eg, iron deficiency anemia, hemoglobinopathies, hereditary spherocytosis)
– cythemia
– hemorrhagic and hemostatic disorders (eg, coagulopathies, DIC)
– bleeding secondary to platelet disorders (von Willebrand's)
# vascular and endothelial disorders (eg, effects and complications of splenectomy, hypersplenism, TTP,
hemolytic-uremic syndrome)
# systemic disorders affecting the hematopoietic and lymphoreticular system (eg, nutritional deficiencies,
systemic lupus erythematosus)
# idiopathic disorders
Principles of therapeutics
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the hematopoietic
system
– blood and blood products
– treatment of anemia, drugs stimulating erythrocyte production (eg, erythropoietin)
– drugs stimulating leukocyte production (eg, G-CSF, GM-CSF)
– anticoagulants, thrombolytic drugs
– antiplatelet drugs
– antimicrobials (eg, antimalarials, anti-HIV)
– antineoplastic and immunosuppressive drugs
– drugs used to treat acquired disorders of immune responsiveness
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, splenectomy, chelating agents, radiation therapy for lymphomas,
plasmapheresis)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, diet, depression and immune responses, “blood doping” among
athletes)
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# influence on person, family, and society (eg, childhood leukemia)
# occupational and other environmental risk factors (eg, heavy metals, hydrocarbons, lead)
# gender and ethnic factors (eg, herbal treatments with bone marrow depression)
Central and peripheral nervous systems
Normal processes
# embryonic development, fetal maturation, and perinatal changes (eg, neural tube derivatives, cerebral
ventricles, neural crest derivatives)
– spinal cord (including gross anatomy, blood supply, and spinal reflexes)
– brain stem (including cranial nerves and nuclei, reticular formation, gross anatomy, and blood
supply)
– brain (including gross anatomy and blood supply; cognition, language, memory; hypothalamic
function; limbic system and emotional behavior; circadian rhythms and sleep; and control of eye
movement)
– sensory systems (including proprioception, pain, vision, hearing, balance, taste, and olfaction)
– motor systems (brain and spinal cord, basal ganglia and cerebellum)
– autonomic nervous system
– peripheral nerves
– axonal transport
– excitable properties of neurons, axons and dendrites, including channels
– synthesis, storage, release, reuptake, and degradation of neurotransmitters and neuromodulators
– pre- and postsynaptic receptor interactions, trophic and growth factors
– brain metabolism
– glia, myelin
– brain homeostasis: blood-brain barrier; cerebrospinal fluid formation and flow, choroid plexus
# repair, regeneration and changes associated with stage of life
Abnormal processes
# infectious, inflammatory, and immunologic disorders (eg, meningitis, multiple sclerosis, myasthenia
gravis)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders (subdural and epidural hematomas, cord compression, peripheral
nerve injury)
# neoplastic disorders (primary and metastatic)
# acquired metabolic and regulatory disorders (eg, delirium, Reye’s syndrome)
# vascular disorders (eg, cerebrovascular occlusion, venous sinus thrombosis, arterial aneurysms,
hemorrhage)
# systemic disorders affecting the nervous system (eg, lupus, diabetic neuropathy)
# idiopathic disorders affecting the nervous system
# congenital disorders, including metabolic (eg, neural tube defects, cerebral palsy, mental retardation,
Down’s syndrome)
# degenerative disorders (eg, peripheral neuropathy, Alzheimer's dementia, Parkinson's disease, Hunting-
ton's disease, amyotrophic lateral sclerosis)
# paroxysmal disorders (eg, epilepsy, headache, pain syndromes, and sleep disorders including narcolepsy,
restless legs syndrome/periodic limb movement, circadian rhythm disorders, parasomnias)
# disorders of special senses (eg, blindness, deafness)
# psychopathologic disorders, processes and their evaluation
– early-onset disorders (eg, learning disorders)
– disorders related to substance use
– schizophrenia and other psychotic disorders
– mood disorders
– anxiety disorders
– somatoform disorders
– personality disorders
– physical and sexual abuse of children, adults, and elders
– other disorders (eg, dissociative, impulse control, posttraumatic stress disorder)
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# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the nervous system
– anesthetics
– hypnotics
– psychopharmacologic agents (eg, anxiolytics, antidepressants, antipsychotic agents, mood-
stabilizing agents)
– anticonvulsants
– analgesics
– stimulants, amphetamines
– antiparkinsonian drugs
– skeletal muscle relaxants, botulinum toxin
– neuromuscular junction blocking agents
– antiglaucoma drugs
– drugs used to decrease intracranial pressure (eg, mannitol, high-dose glucocorticoids)
– antimigraine agents
– drugs affecting autonomic nervous system (eg, anticholinesterases)
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, radiation, CFS shunting, surgery)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, drug abuse, dementia, sleep deprivation, accident prevention, pets)
# influence on person, family, and society (eg, developmental disabilities, dementia, generational reversal,
nutrition, seizures, sleep disorders)
# occupational and other environmental risk factors (eg, boxing, carbon monoxide exposure)
# gender and ethnic factors
Skin and related connective tissue
Normal processes
# cell/tissue structure and function (eg, barrier functions, thermal regulation, eccrine function)
# repair, regeneration, and changes associated with stage of life or ethnicity (eg, senile purpura, male
pattern baldness, postmenopausal hair changes)
# skin defense mechanisms and normal flora
Abnormal processes
– bacterial infections, (eg, acne, cellulitis, carbuncle, abscess, necrotizing fasciitis, gangrene)
– viral infections (eg, herpes infections, chickenpox, rubella, measles, roseola, verrucae)
– fungal infections, including mycoses, dermatophytosis (eg, tinea)
– parasitic infections (eg, scabies, lice)
– immune and autoimmune disorders (eg, discoid lupus erythematosus, scleroderma, dermatomyositis,
alopecia, psoriasis, urticaria, allergic dermatosis)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders (eg, thermal injury, decubitus ulcers, effects of ultraviolet light and
radiation)
# neoplastic disorders
– keratinocytes (eg, seborrheic keratosis, actinic keratosis, basal cell carcinoma, squamous cell
carcinoma)
– melanocytes (eg, nevi, melanoma, ichthyosis)
– vascular neoplasms (eg, hemangiomas, Kaposi’s sarcoma)
– other (eg, T-cell lymphoma, skin appendage tumors)
# metabolic, regulatory, and structural disorders (eg, vitamin deficiencies, hypervitaminosis, hyperhidrosis)
# vascular disorders (eg, vasculitis, Raynaud's disease)
# systemic disorders affecting the skin (eg, Ehlers-Danlos syndrome, Marfan’s syndrome)
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the skin and
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connective tissue (including anti-inflammatory agents (eg, steroids, antihistamines), emollients,
sunscreen, retin-A, antimicrobial agents, cytotoxic therapy (eg, methotrexate, PUVA, keratinolytics)
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, laser, tattoo removal, cryotherapy)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, sun exposure, acne)
# influence on person, family, and society (eg, psoriasis)
# occupational and other environmental risk factors
# gender and ethnic factors (eg, keloid)
Musculoskeletal system
Normal processes
– biology of bones, joints, tendons, skeletal muscle
– exercise and physical conditioning
Abnormal processes
– infectious disorders (eg, septic arthritis, Lyme disease, osteomyelitis)
– inflammatory disorders (eg, fibrositis, synovitis, tenosynovitis)
– immunologic disorders (eg, rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, polymyositis, systemic
lupus erythematosus, dermatomyositis, polymyalgia rheumatica)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders (eg, fractures, sprains, strains, dislocations, repetitive motion injuries)
# neoplastic disorders (eg, osteosarcoma, metastatic disease)
# metabolic, regulatory, and structural disorders (eg, dwarfism, osteogenesis imperfecta, osteomalacia,
osteoporosis, osteodystrophy, gout)
# vascular disorders (eg, polyarteritis nodosa, bone infarcts)
# systemic disorders affecting the musculoskeletal system (eg, diabetes mellitus)
# idiopathic disorders (eg, Dupuytren's contracture, scoliosis, Paget's disease)
# degenerative disorders (eg, disc disease, osteoarthritis)
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the musculoskeletal
system
– nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drugs
– muscle relaxants
– antigout therapy (eg, allopurinol, colchicine, uricosuric drugs)
– immunosuppressive drugs (eg, glucocorticoids, gold, cytotoxic agents)
– drugs affecting bone mineralization (eg, diphosphonates, calcitonin, estrogen analogs)
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, radiation, surgery, casts, rehabilitation)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, diet, exercise, seat belts, bicycle helmets)
# influence on person, family, and society (eg, osteoporosis, fractures in elderly, alcohol abuse, fractures)
# occupational and other environmental risk factors (eg, athletes, musicians)
# gender and ethnic factors (eg, bone mass)
Respiratory system
Normal processes
13
– airways (eg, mechanics and regulation of breathing)
– lung parenchyma (eg, ventilation, perfusion, gas exchange)
– pleura
# cell/tissue structure and function (eg, surfactant formation, alveolar structure)
# pulmonary defense mechanisms and normal flora
Abnormal processes
– infectious diseases of the upper and lower respiratory tract and pleura and their complications (eg,
bronchiectasis, abscess, empyema)
– immunologic disorders
– allergic and hypersensitivity disorders (eg, asthma)
– autoimmune disorders (eg, Wegener’s granulomatosis, Goodpasture’s syndrome)
– inflammatory disorders
– pneumoconioses
– acute and chronic alveolar injury (eg, adult respiratory distress syndrome, chlorine gas/smoke
inhalation)
– obstructive pulmonary disease
– restrictive pulmonary disease (eg, sarcoidosis, idiopathic fibrosis)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders (eg, aspiration, pneumothorax, atelectasis, sleep apnea)
# neoplastic disorders (eg, polyps, bronchogenic carcinoma, mesothelioma, metastatic tumors)
# metabolic, regulatory, and structural disorders (eg, hypoventilation, disorders of gas exchange,
ventilation-perfusion imbalance, neonatal respiratory distress syndrome)
# vascular and circulatory disorders (eg, thromboembolic disease, pulmonary hypertension, pulmonary
edema, pleural effusion)
# systemic disorders affecting the respiratory system
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the respiratory
system (eg, decongestants, cough suppressants, expectorants, mucolytics
bronchodilator drugs, anti-inflammatory and cytotoxic drugs, antimicrobial agents, antineoplastic agents)
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, oxygen therapy, nasal CPAP, mechanical ventilation, physical therapy,
surgical procedures, including transplantation)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, smoking, substance abuse, pets, allergies)
# influence on person, family, and society (eg, tuberculosis, asthma, chronic obstructive pulmonary
disease, school issues, protective parents, family smoking)
# gender and ethnic factors (eg, sarcoidosis, lung cancer)
Cardiovascular system
Normal processes
– chambers, valves
– cardiac cycle, mechanics, heart sounds, cardiac output
– hemodynamics (systemic, pulmonary, coronary) and blood volume
– circulation in specific vascular beds
– heart muscle, metabolism, oxygen consumption, biochemistry, and secretory function (eg, atrial
natriuretic peptide)
– endothelium and secretory function, vascular smooth muscle, microcirculation, and lymph flow
– mechanisms of atherosclerosis
– neural and hormonal regulation of the heart, blood vessels, and blood volume, including responses
14
to change in posture, exercise, and tissue metabolism
Abnormal processes
– infectious disorders (eg, endocarditis, myocarditis, pericarditis )
– inflammatory and immunologic disorders (eg, acute rheumatic fever, systemic lupus erythematosus,
transplant rejection, vasculitis, temporal arteritis)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders (eg, tamponade, valvular disease, subaortic stenosis)
# neoplastic disorders
# metabolic and regulatory disorders (eg, dysrhythmias, systolic and diastolic dysfunction, low- and high-
output heart failure, cor pulmonale, systemic hypertension, ischemic heart disease, myocardial infarction,
systemic hypotension, shock)
# vascular disorders (eg, aneurysms, occlusions, varicosities, atherosclerosis)
# systemic diseases affecting the cardiovascular system (eg, amyloidosis, aortic dissection with Marfan
syndrome, hemochromatosis, scleroderma)
# congenital disorders of the heart and central vessels
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the cardiovascular
system
– coronary and peripheral vasodilators
– antiarrhythmic drugs
– antihypertensive drugs
– measures used to combat hypotension and shock
– drugs affecting cholesterol and lipid metabolism
– drugs affecting blood coagulation, thrombolytic agents
– inotropic agents and treatment of heart failure
– immunosuppressive and antimicrobial drugs
– drugs to treat peripheral arterial disease
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, pacemakers, angioplasty, valves, grafts, other surgical procedures)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, smoking, alcohol, ischemic heart disease, obesity, exercise, diet)
# influence on person, family, and society (eg, altered lifestyle)
# occupational and other environmental risk factors (eg, stress)
# gender and ethnic factors (eg, hypertension)
Gastrointestinal system
Normal processes
# organ structure and function (eg, alimentary canal, liver and biliary system, salivary glands and exocrine
pancreas, motility, digestion and absorption)
– endocrine and neural regulatory functions, including GI hormones)
– salivary, gastrointestinal, pancreatic, hepatic secretory products (eg, enzymes, proteins, bile salts)
and processes
– synthetic and metabolic functions of hepatocytes
# gastrointestinal defense mechanisms and normal flora
Abnormal processes
– infectious disorders (eg, peritonitis, hepatitis, gingivostomatitis, peptic ulcer, gastritis, esophagitis,
traveler’s diarrhea, food poisoning)
– inflammatory disorders (eg, cholecystitis, pancreatitis)
15
– immunologic disorders (eg, Crohn's disease, ulcerative colitis)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders
– malocclusion
– hiatus hernia
– obstruction (eg, volvulus, intussusception, esophageal atresia, annular pancreas, post-surgical
obstruction)
– perforation of hollow viscus and blunt trauma
– inguinal, femoral, and abdominal wall hernias
– esophageal and colonic diverticula (eg, Meckel's diverticulum)
# neoplastic disorders (benign and malignant)
# metabolic and regulatory disorders (eg, motility disorders, malabsorption, hepatic failure, cholelithiasis)
# vascular disorders (eg, portal hypertension, hemorrhoids, ischemia, angiodysplasia)
# systemic disorders affecting the gastrointestinal system
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the gastrointestinal
system
– treatment and prophylaxis of peptic ulcer disease and gastroesophageal reflux (eg, antacids,
antisecretory drugs, motility drugs, mucosal protective agents, antibiotics)
– drugs to alter gastrointestinal motility (eg, cathartics, antidiarrheal drugs, antiemetic drugs, prokinetic
drugs)
– fluid replacement (eg, oral rehydration)
– pancreatic replacement therapy and treatment of pancreatitis
– drugs for treatment of hepatic failure (eg, lactulose) and biliary disease (eg, drugs to dissolve
gallstones)
– anti-inflammatory, immunosuppressive, antineoplastic, and antimicrobial drugs
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, surgical procedures, stents, feeding tubes)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, peptic ulcer, encopresis, Monday morning stomach)
# influence on person, family, and society (eg, inflammatory bowel disease, irritable bowel disease,
pancreatitis and alcohol, chronic laxative abuse)
# gender and ethnic factors (eg, diets)
Renal/urinary system
Normal processes
– kidneys, ureters, bladder, urethra
– glomerular filtration and hemodynamics
– tubular reabsorption and secretion, including transport processes and proteins
– urinary concentration and dilution
– renal mechanisms in acid-base balance
– renal mechanisms in body fluid homeostasis
– micturition
# cell/tissue structure and function (eg, renal metabolism and oxygen consumption, hormones produced by
or acting on the kidney)
Abnormal processes
– infectious disorders
– upper urinary tract (eg, pyelonephritis, papillary necrosis)
– lower urinary tract (eg, cystitis, urethritis)
– inflammatory and immunologic disorders
16
– glomerular disorders (eg, glomerulonephritis, nephrotic syndrome)
– tubular interstitial disease (eg, interstitial nephritis, transplant rejection, IgA nephropathy)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders (eg, obstructive uropathy)
# neoplastic disorders (eg, renal, urinary bladder and collecting system, metastases)
# metabolic and regulatory disorders
– renal failure, acute and chronic (acute tubular necrosis)
– tubular and collecting duct disorders (eg, Fanconi’s syndrome, renal tubular acidosis, nephrogenic
diabetes insipidus)
– renal calculi
# vascular disorders (eg, renal artery stenosis)
# systemic diseases affecting the renal system (eg, diabetes mellitus, hepatitis, amyloidosis, systemic lupus
erythematosus, Wegener's granulomatosis)
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the renal and
urinary system
– diuretics, antidiuretic drugs
– drugs and fluids used to treat volume, electrolyte, and acid-base disorders
– drugs used to enhance renal perfusion (eg, dopamine)
– anti-inflammatory, antimicrobial, immunosuppressive, and antineoplastic drugs
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, dialysis, renal transplantation)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, drug-induced interstitial nephritis, diet)
# influence on person, family, and society (eg, hemodialysis, living related kidney donation, transplants)
# occupational and other environmental risk factors (eg, heavy metals)
# gender and ethnic factors (eg, disease progression, urinary tract infections)
Reproductive system
Normal processes
– female structure (including breast)
– female function (eg, menstrual cycle, puberty, menopause)
– male structure
– male function (eg, spermatogenesis, puberty)
– intercourse, orgasm (male and female)
– pregnancy (including labor and delivery, the puerperium, lactation, gestational uterus, placenta)
# cell/tissue structure and function (including hypothalamic-pituitary-gonadal axis, sex steroids, and
gestational hormones)
# reproductive system defense mechanisms and normal flora
Abnormal processes
# infectious, inflammatory, and immunologic disorders (eg, toxic shock syndrome, breast abscess, orchitis,
sexually transmitted diseases, autoimmune hypogonadism, cystic mastitis)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders (eg, female incontinence, torsion of testis, varicocele)
# neoplastic disorders (eg, female reproductive, male reproductive, breast [male and female, including
fibrocystic disease], trophoblastic disease)
# metabolic and regulatory processes
– female (eg, anovulation, infertility, polycystic ovaries, endometriosis, orgasmic dysfunction, delayed
and premature puberty)
– menopausal syndrome
– male (eg, infertility, impotence, gynecomastia, delayed and premature puberty)
– benign prostatic hyperplasia
# systemic disorders affecting reproductive function (eg, obesity, myotonic dystrophy, cirrhosis, renal
failure)
17
# disorders relating to pregnancy, the puerperium, and the postpartum period
– obstetric problems (eg, ectopic pregnancy, third trimester bleeding)
– complications affecting other organ systems (eg, eclampsia, gestational diabetes, thyroid disorders)
– disorders associated with the puerperium (eg, postpartum hemorrhage, sepsis, depression)
– antepartum, intrapartum, postpartum disorders of the fetus (eg, prematurity, postmaturity, cord
compression, macrosomia)
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the reproductive
system and management of normal reproductive function
– female reproductive tract
– fertility drugs
– oral contraception, other methods of contraception (eg, condoms)
– estrogen, progestogen replacement
– stimulants and inhibitors of labor
– estrogen and progesterone antagonists, treatment of menopause
– stimulators and inhibitors of lactation
– male reproductive tract
– fertility drugs
– androgen replacement and antagonists
– gonadotropin-releasing hormone and gonadotropin replacement
– abortifacients
– antimicrobials
– antineoplastics
– restoration of potency
# other therapeutic modalities affecting the reproductive system (eg, tampons, anabolic steroids)
# emotional and behavioral factors(eg, sexually transmitted diseases)
# influence on person, family, and society (eg, infertility)
# occupational and other environmental risk factors (eg, radiation)
# family planning and pregnancy (eg, unwanted)
# gender identity, sexual orientation, sexuality, libido
# effects of traumatic stress syndrome, violence, rape, child abuse
Endocrine system
Normal processes
– hypothalamus, posterior and anterior pituitary gland
– thyroid gland
– parathyroid glands
– adrenal cortex, adrenal medulla
– pancreatic islets
– ovary and testis
– adipose tissue
# cell/tissue structure and function (eg, hormone synthesis, secretion, action, and metabolism)
– peptide hormones
– steroid hormones, including vitamin D
– thyroid hormones
– catecholamine hormones
– renin-angiotensin system
Abnormal processes
# infectious, inflammatory, and immunologic disorders (eg, subacute thyroiditis, Graves’ disease,
18
sarcoidosis)
# traumatic and mechanical disorders
# neoplastic disorders (eg, pituitary, thyroid, parathyroid, adrenal cortex, pancreatic islets, neural crest,
pheochromocytoma)
# metabolic and regulatory processes (eg, diabetes mellitus, pituitary, hypothalamus, thyroid, parathyroid,
pancreatic islet disorders, adrenal disorders)
# vascular disorders (eg, pituitary apoplexy)
# systemic disorders affecting the endocrine system (eg, hemochromatosis)
# idiopathic disorders (eg, hirsutism)
# mechanisms of action, use, and adverse effects of drugs for treatment of disorders of the endocrine
system
– hormones and hormone analogs
– stimulators of hormone production (eg, sulfonylureas)
– inhibitors of hormone production (eg, thiouracils)
– hormone antagonists
– potentiators of hormone action (eg, thiazolidinediones, demeclocycline)
– antiobesity agents (eg, dexfenfluramine)
# other therapeutic modalities (eg, surgery, radiation)
# emotional and behavioral factors (eg, compliance in diabetes mellitus, factitious use of insulin, psycho-
genic polydipsia)
# influence on person, family, and society
# occupational and other environmental risk factors (eg, radiation exposure, iodine deficiency)
# gender and ethnic factors
19
Sample Step 1
Sample Questions
The following pages include 150 sample test questions. These questions are the same as those you install on your
computer from the USMLE website or CD. For information on obtaining the test software and additional
information on preparing to take the test and testing, you must review the 2003 USMLE Bulletin of Information:
see Preparing for the Test (pages 9-10) and Testing (pages 16-19). Please note that reviewing the sample questions
as they appear on pages 24-48 is not a substitute for acquainting yourself with the test software. You should run
the Step 1 tutorial and sample test questions that are provided on the USMLE website or CD well before your test
date.
These sample questions are illustrative of the types of questions used in the Step 1 examination. Although the
questions exemplify content on the examination, they may not reflect the content coverage on individual
examinations. In the actual examination, questions may appear randomly; they will not be grouped according to
specific content. The questions will be presented one at a time in a format designed for easy on-screen reading,
including use of exhibit buttons (separate windows) for the Normal Laboratory Values Table (included here on
pages 21-22) and some pictorials. Photographs, charts, and x-ray films referred to in this booklet are not of the
same quality as the pictorials used in the actual examination. In addition, you will have the capability to adjust the
brightness and contrast of pictorials on the computer screen.
To take the following sample test questions as they would be timed in the actual examination, you should allow a
maximum of one hour for each block, for a total of three hours. Please be aware that most examinees perceive
the time pressure to be greater during an actual examination. An answer form for recording answers is provided
on page 23. In the actual examination, answers will be selected on the screen; no answer form will be provided.
An answer key is provided on page 49.
20
USMLE Step1 Laboratory Values
* Included in the Biochemical Profile (SMA-12)
REFERENCE RANGE SI REFERENCE INTERVALS
BLOOD, PLASMA, SERUM
* Alanine aminotransferase (ALT, GPT at 30 C) . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8-20 U/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8-20 U/L
Amylase, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25-125 U/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25-125 U/L
* Aspartate aminotransferase (AST, GOT at 30 C) . . . . . . . . . . 8-20 U/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8-20 U/L
Bilirubin, serum (adult) Total // Direct . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.1-1.0 mg/dL // 0.0-0.3 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2-17 µmol/L // 0-5 µmol/L
* Calcium, serum (Ca2+) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.4-10.2 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.1-2.8 mmol/L
* Cholesterol, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Rec:<200 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . <5.2 mmol/L
Cortisol, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0800 h: 5-23 µg/dL // 1600 h: 3-15 µg/dL . . . . . . . 138-635 nmol/L // 82-413 nmol/L
2000 h: < 50% of 0800 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Fraction of 0800 h: < 0.50
Creatine kinase, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 25-90 U/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25-90 U/L
Female: 10-70 U/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10-70 U/L
* Creatinine, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.6-1.2 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 53-106 µmol/L
Electrolytes, serum
Sodium (Na+) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 136-145 mEq/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 136-145 mmol/L
Chloride (Cl-) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 95-105 mEq/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 95-105 mmol/L
* Potassium (K+) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.5-5.0 mEq/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.5-5.0 mmol/L
Bicarbonate (HCO3 -) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22-28 mEq/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 22-28 mmol/L
Magnesium (Mg2+) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.5-2.0 mEq/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.5-2.0 mmol/L
Estriol, total, serum (in pregnancy)
24-28 wks // 32-36 wks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 30-170 ng/mL // 60-280 ng/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 104-590 // 208-970 nmol/L
28-32 wks // 36-40 wks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40-220 ng/mL // 80-350 ng/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 140-760 // 280-1210 nmol/L
Ferritin, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 15-200 ng/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 15-200 µg/L
Female: 12-150 ng/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 12-150 µg/L
Follicle-stimulating hormone, serum/plasma . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 4-25 mIU/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4-25 U/L
Female: premenopause 4-30 mIU/mL . . . . . . . . . . 4-30 U/L
midcycle peak 10-90 mIU/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10-90 U/L
postmenopause 40-250 mIU/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . 40-250 U/L
Gases, arterial blood (room air)
pH . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7.35-7.45 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . [H+] 36-44 nmol/L
PCO2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 33-45 mm Hg . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4.4-5.9 kPa
PO2 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 75-105 mm Hg . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10.0-14.0 kPa
* Glucose, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Fasting: 70-110 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.8-6.1 mmol/L
2-h postprandial: < 120 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . < 6.6 mmol/L
Growth hormone - arginine stimulation . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Fasting: < 5 ng/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . < 5 µg/L
provocative stimuli: > 7 ng/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . > 7 µg/L
Immunoglobulins, serum
IgA . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 76-390 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.76-3.90 g/L
IgE . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-380 IU/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-380 kIU/L
IgG . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 650-1500 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6.5-15 g/L
IgM . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40-345 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.4-3.45 g/L
Iron . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 50-170 µg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9-30 µmol/L
Lactate dehydrogenase, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45-90 U/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45-90 U/L
Luteinizing hormone, serum/plasma . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 6-23 mIU/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6-23 U/L
Female: follicular phase 5-30 mIU/mL . . . . . . . . . 5-30 U/L
midcycle 75-150 mIU/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 75-150 U/L
postmenopause 30-200 mIU/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . 30-200 U/L
Osmolality, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 275-295 mOsmol/kg . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 275-295 mOsmol/kg
Parathyroid hormone, serum, N-terminal . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 230-630 pg/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 230-630 ng/L
* Phosphatase (alkaline), serum (p-NPP at 30EC) . . . . . . . . . . . . 20-70 U/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 20-70 U/L
* Phosphorus (inorganic), serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.0-4.5 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.0-1.5 mmol/L
Prolactin, serum (hPRL) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . < 20 ng/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . < 20 µg/L
* Proteins, serum
Total (recumbent) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6.0-7.8 g/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 60-78 g/L
Albumin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.5-5.5 g/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 35-55 g/L
Globulin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.3-3.5 g/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 23-35 g/L
Thyroid-stimulating hormone, serum or plasma . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.5-5.0 µU/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.5-5.0 mU/L
Thyroidal iodine (123 I) uptake . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8-30% of administered dose/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.08-0.30/24 h
Thyroxine (T 4 ), serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5-12 µg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 64-155 nmol/L
Triglycerides, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 35-160 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.4-1.81 mmol/L
Triiodothyronine (T 3 ), serum (RIA) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 115-190 ng/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.8-2.9 nmol/L
Triiodothyronine (T 3 ) resin uptake . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25-35% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.25-0.35
* Urea nitrogen, serum (BUN) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 7-18 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.2-3.0 mmol urea/L
* Uric acid, serum . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.0-8.2 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.18-0.48 mmol/L
21
USMLE Step 1 Laboratory Values (continued)
REFERENCE RANGE SI REFERENCE INTERVALS

CEREBROSPINAL FLUID
Cell count . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-5 cells/mm3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-5 x 106 /L
Chloride . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 118-132 mEq/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 118-132 mmol/L
Gamma globulin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3-12% total proteins . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.03-0.12
Glucose . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 40-70 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.2-3.9 mmol/L
Pressure . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 70-180 mm H2 O . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 70-180 mm H2 O
Proteins, total . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . <40 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . <0.40 g/L
HEMATOLOGIC
Bleeding time (template) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2-7 minutes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2-7 minutes
Erythrocyte count . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 4.3-5.9 million/mm3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4.3-5.9 x 1012 /L
Female: 3.5-5.5 million/mm3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3.5-5.5 x 1012 /L
Erythrocyte sedimentation rate (Westergren) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 0-15 mm/h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-15 mm/h
Female: 0-20 mm/h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-20 mm/h
Hematocrit . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 41-53% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.41-0.53
Female: 36-46% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.36-0.46
Hemoglobin A1C . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . < 6% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . < 0.06%
Hemoglobin, blood . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 13.5-17.5 g/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.09-2.71 mmol/L
Female: 12.0-16.0 g/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1.86-2.48 mmol/L
Hemoglobin, plasma . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1-4 mg/dL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.16-0.62 mmol/L
Leukocyte count and differential
Leukocyte count . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4500-11,000/mm3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4.5-11.0 x 109 /L
Segmented neutrophils . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 54-62% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.54-0.62
Bands . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3-5% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.03-0.05
Eosinophils . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 1-3% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.01-0.03
Basophils . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-0.75% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-0.0075
Lymphocytes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25-33% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.25-0.33
Monocytes . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 3-7% . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.03-0.07
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25.4-34.6 pg/cell . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.39-0.54 fmol/cell
Mean corpuscular hemoglobin concentration . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31-36% Hb/cell . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 4.81-5.58 mmol Hb/L
Mean corpuscular volume . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 80-100 µm3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 80-100 fl
Partial thromboplastin time (activated) . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25-40 seconds . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 25-40 seconds
Platelet count . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 150,000-400,000/mm3 . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 150-400 x 109 /L
Prothrombin time . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11-15 seconds . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 11-15 seconds
Reticulocyte count . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.5-1.5% of red cells . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.005-0.015
Thrombin time . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . < 2 seconds deviation from control . . . . . . . . . . . . <2 seconds deviation from control
Volume
Plasma . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 25-43 mL/kg . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.025-0.043 L/kg
Female: 28-45 mL/kg . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.028-0.045 L/kg
Red cell . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 20-36 mL/kg . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.020-0.036 L/kg
Female: 19-31 mL/kg . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0.019-0.031 L/kg
SWEAT
Chloride . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-35 mmol/L . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 0-35 mmol/L
URINE
Calcium . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 100-300 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 2.5-7.5 mmol/24 h
Chloride . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Varies with intake . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Varies with intake
Creatinine clearance . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 97-137 mL/min
Female: 88-128 mL/min
Estriol, total (in pregnancy)
30 wks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 6-18 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21-62 µmol/24 h
35 wks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 9-28 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 31-97 µmol/24 h
40 wks . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 13-42 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 45-146 µmol/24 h
17-Hydroxycorticosteroids . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 3.0-10.0 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8.2-27.6 µmol/24 h
Female: 2.0-8.0 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 5.5-22.0 µmol/24 h
17-Ketosteroids, total . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Male: 8-20 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 28-70 µmol/24 h
Female: 6-15 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 21-52 µmol/24 h
Osmolality . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 50-1400 mOsmol/kg
Oxalate . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 8-40 µg/mL . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 90-445 µmol/L
Potassium . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Varies with diet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Varies with diet
Proteins, total . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . <150 mg/24 h . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . <0.15 g/24 h
Sodium . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Varies with diet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Varies with diet
Uric acid . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Varies with diet . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . Varies with diet
22
Answer Form for Step 1 Sample Questions
Block 1 (Questions 1-50)
1. 11. 21. 31. 41.

2. 12. 22. 32. 42.
3. 13. 23. 33. 43.
4. 14. 24. 34. 44.
5. 15. 25. 35. 45.
6. 16. 26. 36. 46.
7. 17. 27. 37. 47.
8. 18. 28. 38. 48.
9. 19. 29. 39. 49.
10. 20. 30. 40. 50.
51. 61. 71. 81. 91.

52. 62. 72. 82. 92.
53. 63. 73. 83. 93.
54. 64. 74. 84. 94.
55. 65. 75. 85. 95.
56. 66. 76. 86. 96.
57. 67. 77. 87. 97.
58. 68. 78. 88. 98.
59. 69. 79. 89. 99.
60. 70. 80. 90. 100.
101. 111. 121. 131. 141.

102. 112. 122. 132. 142.
103. 113. 123. 133. 143.
104. 114. 124. 134. 144.
105. 115. 125. 135. 145.
106. 116. 126. 136. 146.
107. 117. 127. 137. 147.
108. 118. 128. 138. 148.
109. 119. 129. 139. 149.
110. 120. 130. 140. 150.
23
Sample Questions
1. A 74-year-old man with urinary frequency and ur- 4. A man pushes a piano across the floor. At the
gency has benign prostatic hypertrophy. He re- wrist, the force is transmitted from the carpal bones
fuses operative intervention but agrees to a trial of to the radius. At the elbow, the force is transmitted
finasteride therapy. During the trial, synthesis of from the ulna to the humerus. Which of the follow-
which of the following substances is most likely to ing structures transmits the force from the radius to
be inhibited? the ulna?
(A) Androstenedione (A) Annular ligament

(B) Dihydrotestosterone (B) Bicipital aponeurosis
(C) Estradiol (C) Flexor retinaculum
(D) Estrone (D) Intermuscular septum
(E) Testosterone (E) Interosseous membrane
2. A 10-month-old girl cries when her mother tries to 5. A 50-year-old woman has had a painless mass in
put her in her grandmother’s arms. She happily the parotid gland for the past 8 months. A 2-cm,
allowed herself to be held when her grandmother discrete solid mass is found in the parotid gland on
visited 2 months ago. Which of the following best parotidectomy. Histologic examination shows a
explains this behavior? neoplastic lesion with uniform epithelial and
myoepithelial cells; these cells form acini, tubules,
(A) Development of problems with socialization and ducts supported by myxoid and chondroid
(B) Maltreatment by the grandmother stroma. Which of the following is the most likely
(C) Sensation of a poor relationship between the complication of this type of parotid lesion?
mother and the grandmother
(D) Separation anxiety disorder (A) Contralateral immune-mediated parotitis
(E) Stranger anxiety (B) Hematogenous metastases to lungs and
bone
(C) Ipsilateral submaxillary salivary gland neo-
3. A 30-year-old woman being treated for hyperten- plasm
sion has the sudden onset of fever and malaise. (D) Local recurrence
Temperature is 38.3 C (101 F) orally and blood pres- (E) Regional lymph node metastases
sure is normal. She has a malar rash, swelling and
tenderness of the wrists and knees, and a friction
rub at the left lower sternal border. Which of the 6. Enteric gram-negative bacteria are more resistant to
following drugs is the most likely cause of these penicillin G than gram-positive bacteria. Which of
findings? the following is most closely associated with this
difference?
(A) Captopril
(B) Hydralazine (A) Cytoplasmic membrane
(C) Minoxidil (B) Lipoprotein
(D) Nitroprusside (C) Outer membrane
(E) Propranolol (D) Peptidoglycan
(E) Teichoic acid
24
7. An inexpensive screening test for a disease is avail- 10. Platelet-derived growth factor binds to its receptor,
able through analysis of venous blood. The distri- activating cell growth. The receptor-growth factor
butions of blood concentrations for persons with complex uses which of the following mechanisms to
and without the disease are depicted in the graph. signal the cell to divide?
The disease is irreversible and fatal if not discov-
ered and treated early. What letter represents the (A) Activation of tyrosine kinase
most appropriate cutoff point between normal and (B) Binding of GTP to a G protein
abnormal? (C) Binding to DNA
(D) Increase in intracellular calcium concentra-
tion
(E) Opening of an ion channel
11. An 8-year-old boy is stung by a bee. Within 5 min-

utes, he develops a 2-cm, raised, red, swollen lesion
at the site of injury. Which of the following find-
ings will be predominant in tissue from the lesion?
(A) Foreign body reaction

(B) Hemorrhage
(C) Lymphocytic infiltration
(D) Neutrophilic migration
8. Serum samples from a normal woman with a history (E) Vasodilation
of regular 28-day menstrual cycles show a peak in
the serum concentration of 17ß-estradiol over the
past 12 hours. No progesterone is detectable. 12. A healthy elderly person is most likely to show
Within 3 days, which of the following is expected to decreased auditory acuity for which of the follow-
occur? ing tones?
(A) Cessation of menstruation (A) High-frequency tones only

(B) Decreased basal body temperature (B) Low-frequency tones only
(C) Onset of menstruation (C) Tones of all frequencies
(D) Ovulation (D) Tones presented by air but not by bone
(E) Regression of the corpus luteum conduction
(E) Tones presented by bone but not by air
conduction
9. Escherichia coli strains X and Y are both resistant
to ampicillin. Ampicillin resistance is stable in strain
X when it is grown for multiple generations in the 13. A 50-year-old man has had gradually progressive
absence of the antibiotic. However, strain Y loses weakness of the hands over the past year. Examina-
ampicillin resistance when it is grown in media with- tion shows atrophy of the forearm muscles,
out the antibiotic. Which of the following best ex- fasciculations of the muscles of the chest and up-
plains the acquisition of ampicillin susceptibility in per limbs, hyperreflexia of the lower limbs, and
strain Y? extensor plantar reflexes. Sensation is intact. Which
of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Downregulation of the resistance gene
(B) Insertion of a transposon into the resistance (A) Amyotrophic lateral sclerosis
gene (B) Dementia, Alzheimer's type
(C) Loss of a plasmid carrying the resistance (C) Guillain-Barré syndrome
gene (D) Multiple cerebral infarcts
(D) Point mutations in the resistance gene (E) Multiple sclerosis
(E) Recombination with a defective copy of the
resistance gene
25
16. A 60-year-old man develops a tremor in his fingers.
The tremor is most pronounced when he reaches
for his coffee cup or points to an object. Which
component of the motor system is most likely to be
involved?
(A) Basal ganglia

(B) Cerebellar hemisphere
(C) Cerebellar vermis
(D) Frontal eye field
(E) Motor nucleus of the thalamus
17. A 60-year-old woman who has had four children

and completed menopause 6 years ago develops
urinary incontinence whenever she coughs,
sneezes, or laughs. The physician should suggest
exercises to strengthen which of the following mus-
14. The graph shows urine/plasma osmolarity versus cles?
urinary flow rate in a healthy human subject. Which
of the following most likely produced the change (A) Detrusor
from X to Y? (B) Obturator internus
(C) Piriformis
(A) Oral ingestion of 1 L of water (D) Rectus abdominis
(B) Oral ingestion of 200 mL of an isotonic so- (E) Urogenital diaphragm
dium chloride solution
(C) Oral ingestion of 200 mL of a hypertonic
glucose solution 18. A 6-year-old boy with short stature and delayed
(D) Oral ingestion of 200 mL of a hypertonic bone age is started on recombinant growth hor-
sodium chloride solution mone therapy. Which of the following laboratory
(E) Injection of ADH (vasopressin) findings in serum is most likely after 3 months of
therapy?
15. A 16-year-old boy has jaundice. Laboratory studies (A) Decreased insulin-like growth factor 1 con-
show an increase in both mean corpuscular hemo- centration
globin concentration and osmotic fragility of ery- (B) Increased alkaline phosphatase activity
throcytes. Liver enzyme activities are within the (C) Increased calcium concentration
reference range, and a direct antiglobulin test is (D) Increased phosphorus concentration
negative. Which of the following types of erythro- (E) Increased urea nitrogen (BUN) concentra-
cyte is most likely to be found on a peripheral blood tion
smear from this patient?
(A) Ovalocytes 19. Which of the following is lower in umbilical arterial

(B) Schistocytes blood of a normal fetus than in maternal arterial
(C) Spherocytes blood?
(D) Target cells
(E) Tear drop cells (A) Hematocrit
(B) O2 affinity
(C) O2 capacity
(D) PO2
(E) Viscosity
26
20. The unlabeled solid curve represents the loading 23. Flow cytometric data of T lymphocytes stained with
behavior of normal human hemoglobin at pH 7.35 as fluorescent antibody to CD4+ and CD8+ antigens
a function of oxygen concentration. Which curve from a healthy person are shown. The lymphocytes
best represents the most likely change following from which quadrant will respond most vigorously
addition of carbon dioxide? to immunization with hepatitis A virus vaccine?
21. A 21-year-old man has weight loss and severe inter-

mittent bloody diarrhea. A barium enema and
colonoscopy show multiple ulcers and inflamma- 24. A 64-year-old man is in the hospital because of the
tory changes extending from the rectum to the terminal stages of emphysema. His relatives note
mid-transverse colon. Biopsy specimens taken from that, although he seems alert and oriented and rec-
multiple sites show acute and chronic inflammation ognizes them, he has become less interested and
restricted to the mucosa. The most likely diagnosis engaged with them when they visit. Which of the
is following is the most likely explanation for this
behavior?
(A) AIDS-associated gastroenteritis
(B) amebiasis (A) Development of delirium
(C) Crohn’s disease (B) Development of a psychotic disorder
(D) Clostridium difficile-associated colitis (C) Exacerbation of a personality disorder
(E) Escherichia coli-associated colitis (D) Oversedation
(F) ischemic colitis (E) Withdrawal
(G) Salmonella gastroenteritis
(H) ulcerative colitis
25. A 6-year-old boy has a large intra-abdominal mass
in the midline just above the symphysis pubis.
22. A 32-year-old man is brought to the emergency During an operation, a cystic mass is found at-
department because of confusion, wheezing, vomit- tached to the umbilicus and to the apex of the blad-
ing, and diarrhea for the past 6 hours. He is sweat- der. The most likely diagnosis is
ing and salivating profusely. There is generalized
muscle weakness. Which of the following sub- (A) hydrocele
stances is the most likely cause of these findings? (B) Meckel’s cyst
(C) Meckel’s diverticulum
(A) Glutethimide (D) omphalocele
(B) Heroin (E) urachal cyst
(C) Jimson weed (belladonna alkaloids)
(D) Parathion
(E) Phencyclidine (PCP)
27
26. Four drugs produce the same therapeutic effect by the same mechanism, but each has a unique toxicity. When used at a
maximally effective therapeutic dose, the drug with which of the following sets of characteristics is most likely to have the
highest incidence of toxicity?
Median Toxic dose1/

effective dose effective dose99
(A) 0.5x 2.8

(B) 1x 2.1
(C) 5x 4.0
(D) 33x 3.0
27. A cardiac catheterization is done in a healthy person. 30. A 56-year-old man has progressive shortness of
The blood sample withdrawn from the catheter shows breath, a cough, and a low-grade fever. He began
60% oxygen saturation, and the pressure recording taking a drug for recurrent ventricular arrhythmias 5
shows oscillations from a maximum of 26 mm Hg to a months ago. Erythrocyte sedimentation rate is in-
minimum of 14 mm Hg. Where was the catheter tip creased. Pulmonary function tests show decreased
located? diffusing capacity. X-ray film of the chest shows
diffuse interstitial pneumonia. Which of the following
(A) Ductus arteriosus drugs is the most likely cause of these findings?
(B) Foramen ovale
(C) Left atrium (A) Amiodarone
(D) Pulmonary artery (B) Angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) in-
(E) Right atrium hibitor
(C) Atenolol
(D) Furosemide
28. A 12-year-old girl is admitted to the hospital because (E) Metronidazole
of marked shortness of breath, an erythematous rash, (F) Penicillin
and painful, swollen hip and knee joints. She is (G) Procainamide
agitated. X-ray film of the chest shows an enlarged (H) Propranolol
heart and changes consistent with pulmonary edema. (I) Tetracycline
Intractable congestive heart failure develops, and she (J) Verapamil
dies on the second hospital day. The child most likely
had a recent history of which of the following?
31. A 38-year-old woman has had the gradual develop-
(A) Cyanosis with chest pain ment of a goiter. Serum thyroxine (T4) and
(B) Jaundice triiodothyronine (T3) concentrations are in the refer-
(C) Meningitis ence range. Serum concentration of thyroid- stimulat-
(D) Pharyngitis ing hormone is slightly increased. Serum contains
(E) Skin infection antimicrosomalantibodies, but no thyroid-stimulating
hormone antibodies are detected. Which of the
following is the most likely diagnosis?
29. Which of the following drugs applied topically
produces mydriasis without producing cycloplegia? (A) Chronic autoimmune (Hashimoto’s)
thyroiditis
(A) Atropine (B) Graves’ disease
(B) Neostigmine (C) Primary atrophy of the thyroid gland
(C) Phentolamine (D) Riedel’s struma
(D) Phenylephrine (E) Subacute thyroiditis
(E) Pilocarpine
28
34. The control curve in the graph illustrates the relation-
ship between the initial velocity of a reaction and the
substrate concentration for any enzyme obeying
Michaelis-Menten kinetics. Which curve best repre-
sents the result that would be obtained by halving
32. A 73-year-old woman has episodes of abdominal pain the amount of enzyme?
and increasingly severe constipation. Test for occult
blood in stools is positive. The photo-micrograph (A) Curve 1
shows features of the resected colon. The most likely (B) Curve 2
diagnosis is (C) Curve 3
(D) Control curve
(A) adenocarcinoma
(B) diverticular disease
(C) polypoid adenoma 35. A malnourished 50-year-old man with alcoholism and
(D) villous adenoma severe dental caries has a 2-week history of malaise
(E) volvulus and right-sided chest pain. He is febrile and has a
cough productive of foul-smelling, purulent sputum.
33. A 7-year-old child has had a high fever and a sore X-ray film of the chest shows a fluid-filled cavity, 2
throat for 2 days. Examination shows pharyngeal cm in diameter, in the upper lobe of the right lung.
erythema, a swollen right tonsil with a creamy The most likely diagnosis is
exudate, and painful right submandibular
lymphadenopathy. Throat culture on blood agar (A) abscess
yields numerous small ß-hemolytic colonies that are (B) bronchiectasis
inhibited by bacitracin. Which of the following is the (C) pulmonary infarct
most likely causal organism? (D) squamous cell carcinoma
(E) tuberculosis
(A) Adenovirus
(B) Candida albicans 36. Three weeks after a renal transplant, a patient devel-
(C) Corynebacterium diphtheriae ops fever and leukopenia, followed by prostration
(D) Coxsackievirus and severe pulmonary and hepatic dysfunction.
(E) Epstein-Barr virus Which of the following is the most likely viral cause?
(F) Haemophilus influenzae
(G) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (A) Adenovirus type 12
(H) Mycoplasma pneumoniae (B) Coxsackievirus
(I) Rhinovirus (C) Cytomegalovirus
(J) Streptococcus pyogenes (group A) (D) Influenza virus
(E) Parvovirus B19
29
37. A couple requests blood typing of their 2-year-old child (father AB, Rh-negative; mother B, Rh-negative). Results of
hemagglutination assays of the child’s blood are as follows: (+ = hemagglutination; – = no hemagglutination)
Saline plus child’s RBC –

Anti A plus child’s RBC –
Anti B plus child’s RBC +
Anti D plus child’s RBC –
Child’s serum plus type A RBC +
Child’s serum plus type B RBC –
Child’s serum plus type D RBC –
Which of the following conclusions concerning the child’s parentage is valid?
(A) The child could be the natural offspring of this couple

(B) The mother could be the natural mother, but the father could not be the natural father
(C) The father could be the natural father, but the mother could not be the natural mother
(D) Neither the father nor the mother could be the natural parents
38. A 29-year-old woman comes to the physician for a 40. A 24-year-old woman has a marked increase in the
consultation 1 month after her 7-year-old daughter size of her uterus between the 26th and 30th weeks of
was killed in an automobile accident. The patient is gestation. Ultrasonography shows a marked increase
upset and restless and wrings her hands frequently. in the amount of amniotic fluid; the fetus is normal
She cannot sleep at night, has lost her appetite, and size for gestational age. Which of the following is the
cries easily and frequently. She is preoccupied with most likely diagnosis?
thoughts of her daughter and sometimes thinks she
momentarily sees her daughter sitting in the living (A) Congenital heart disease
room. She says she wishes she had been hit by the (B) Duodenal atresia
car, too. She denies any thoughts of killing herself. (C) Erythroblastosis fetalis
Which of the following is the best explanation for (D) Horseshoe kidney
these findings? (E) Neural tube defect
(A) Dysthymic disorder

(B) Major depressive disorder 41. A 50-year-old man with a history of alcohol depend-
(C) Normal grief reaction ence has difficulty with primary (immediate) memory.
(D) Obsessive-compulsive disorder He is unable to recall the date and cannot remember
(E) Schizoaffective disorder what he ate for breakfast this morning. He thinks the
examiner is a long-lost friend and carries on a conver-
sation with the examiner as if they have known each
39. A 59-year-old man develops excessive sweating and other for years. Tertiary (remote) memory appears
salivation, diarrhea, and bradycardia while being intact. The patient dies shortly thereafter from a
treated with neostigmine for myasthenia gravis. myocardial infarct. Pathologic examination of his
Which of the following is the most appropriate brain is most likely to disclose an abnormality involv-
therapy for these symptoms and signs? ing the
(A) Atropine (A) amygdala

(B) Carbachol (B) caudate nucleus
(C) Edrophonium (C) hippocampus
(D) Epinephrine (D) locus ceruleus
(E) Pralidoxime (E) mamillary bodies
30
42. A 12-year-old girl with sickle cell disease has pain in 45. Metabolism of 100 g of carbohydrate, 25 g of fat, and
her right arm. An x-ray film of her arm shows bony 20 g of protein yields approximately how many
lesions consistent with osteomyelitis. Which of the kilocalories?
following is the most likely causal organism?
(A) 300
(A) Clostridium septicum (B) 500
(B) Enterococcus faecalis (C) 700
(C) Listeria monocytogenes (D) 900
(D) Proteus mirabilis (E) 1100
(E) Pseudomonas aeruginosa
(F) Salmonella enteritidis
(G) Serratia marcescens 46. A male neonate has syndactyly of the index, middle,
and third fingers of his left hand. Which of the
following cellular processes is most likely to have
43. A 6-year-old girl has the sudden onset of swelling of failed during development?
her face, hands, legs, and feet 1 week after a viral
upper respiratory tract infection. She is afebrile and (A) Apoptosis
normotensive. Laboratory studies show: (B) Differentiation
(C) Fusion
Serum (D) Migration
Albumin 2.0 g/dL (E) Proliferation
Urea nitrogen (BUN) 6.0 mg/dL
Creatinine 0.6 mg/dL
Cholesterol 280 mg/dL
Urine protein 4+; 6.0 g/24 h 47. The intravenous administration of a substance results
in a decrease in mean arterial blood pressure. Labora-
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis? tory studies show that the substance is inactivated
by peptidase. The substance is most likely to be
(A) Focal glomerulosclerosis
(B) Membranous glomerulonephritis (A) angiotensin II
(C) Membranoproliferative glomerulonephritis (B) bradykinin
(D) Minimal change disease (C) histamine
(E) Rapidly progressive glomerulonephritis (D) neuropeptide Y
(E) serotonin
44. A 3-month-old male infant has a lump in his neck.

Examination of tissue from the mass shows it to be 48. A patient has a hereditary disorder characterized by
the thymus. Based on embryonic origin, which of the a grossly abnormal EEG and an increased blood
following additional structures is most likely to have ammonium concentration. The most likely cause is a
an ectopic location? deficiency of which of the following enzymes?
(A) Jugulodigastric lymph node (A) Asparagine synthetase

(B) Lingual tonsil (B) Carbamoyl phosphate synthetase I
(C) Parathyroid gland (C) Fumarase
(D) Submandibular gland (D) Glutamate-oxaloacetate aminotransferase
(E) Thyroid gland (E) Glutaminase
31
49. Poisoning the Na + –K+ pump with digitalis causes 50. If the axillary artery is ligated proximally as it passes
which of the following changes in large axons? over the first rib, blood will be supplied to the distal
axillary artery through which of the following arter-
(A) Decreased intracellular Cl– concentration ies?
(B) Decreased intracellular K+ concentration
(C) Decreased intracellular Na + concentration (A) Brachial
(D) Immediate block in propagation of action (B) Internal thoracic
potentials (C) Subclavian
(E) Slow hyperpolarization of membrane poten- (D) Subscapular
tials (E) Vertebral
32
Sample Questions
51. A neonate develops meningitis. Streptococcus is 54. A healthy 19-year-old man receives a tetanus immuni-
isolated from the mother’s vagina. The organism zation booster prior to induction in the Marines. Six
agglutinates with antiserum directed against type B hours later, he has pain and massive swelling at the
surface carbohydrate. The virulence of this organism site of injection. The following day, the skin breaks
is related to a bacterial constituent that interferes with down, forming an ulcer at the site. Which of the
which of the following host phagocyte functions? following events plays a critical role in this reaction?
(A) Aggregation (A) Accumulation of mononuclear cells at the

(B) Chemotaxis site of antigen injection
(C) Ingestion (B) Antigen capture by Langerhans’ cells in the
(D) Intracellular killing epidermis
(E) Pseudopod formation (C) Local fixation of complement by preformed
circulating antibodies
(D) Local release of histamine
52. Which of the following pulmonary variables is most (E) Predominant synthesis of IgM antibodies
likely to be lower than normal in a patient with adult
respiratory distress syndrome?
55. A 45-year-old man has abnormal circadian variation in
(A) Alveolar-arterial PO2 difference body temperature, disruption of the sleep-wake cycle,
(B) Compliance of the lung and an impaired nocturnal surge of secretion of
(C) Oncotic pressure of alveolar fluid melatonin. An MRI of the head is most likely to show
(D) Surface tension of alveolar fluid a lesion involving which of the following nuclei?
(E) Work of breathing
(A) Accessory optic
(B) Lateral preoptic
53. A patient being treated with clindamycin for aspira- (C) Pretectal
tion pneumonia develops diarrhea. The stool con- (D) Suprachiasmatic
tains a toxin that kills cultured epithelial cells. Stool (E) Supraoptic
culture grows an anaerobic gram-positive rod. The
same organism is cultured from his bedpan. Which of
the following is most likely to sterilize the bedpan? 56. An 80-year-old man has an ulcerating carcinoma of
his scrotal skin on the right. Which group of lymph
(A) Boiling for 45 minutes nodes is most likely to receive metastatic cells first?
(B) Exposure to benzalkonium chloride for 1
hour (A) External iliac
(C) Exposure to ethyl alcohol for 1 hour (B) Internal iliac
(D) Exposure to saturated steam (121 C) for 15 (C) Superficial inguinal
minutes (D) Deep inguinal
(E) Heating in an oven at 150 C for 30 minutes (E) Lumbar (para-aortic)
33
60. Gram-positive cocci in clusters are seen in purulent
fluid drained from a skin abscess. Rapid identification
of these organisms will be facilitated by evaluation of
the clumping of latex beads coated with
(A) IgG and fibrinogen

(B) interleukin-1 (IL-1) and factor VIII
(antihemophilic factor)
(C) properdin and platelet factor 3
(D) prothrombin and C3b
(E) transferrin and plasminogen
57. Cells from a single population are suspended in

solutions X and Y, and cell volume measurements are 61. A 55-year-old man dies of respiratory failure after a
made. The graph shows the volume of cells in solu- 10-year illness that began with weakness in the
tion X (solid curve) and solution Y (dashed curve). muscles of the hand. The disease progressed to
The results indicate that solution Y, with respect to X, involve all four limbs, the tongue, and respiratory
is muscles. Intellectual capacity was preserved. At
autopsy, which of the following central nervous
(A) hypertonic system abnormalities is most likely to be seen?
(B) hypotonic
(C) isosmotic (A) Decreased pigmentation in the substantia
(D) isotonic nigra and locus ceruleus
(B) Demyelination of the posterior columns,
corticospinal tracts, and spinocerebellar
tracts
58. A 70-year-old man has ecchymosis, perifollicular (C) Granulovacuolar degeneration with neuritic
petechiae, and swelling of the gingiva. He has lived plaques and neurofibrillary tangles
alone since the death of his wife 2 years ago. His diet (D) Loss of motoneurons in the anterior horns,
consists primarily of cola and hot dogs. The most hypoglossal nuclei, and cerebral motor
likely diagnosis is cortex
(E) Symmetric atrophy of the caudate nuclei and
(A) beriberi frontal cortex
(B) kwashiorkor
(C) pellagra
(D) rickets 62. A small, nonenveloped virus has no
(E) scurvy virion-associated enzyme activity; the replication
cycle takes place exclusively in the cytoplasm of
infected cells. Purified genomic nucleic acid added to
59. An 18-year-old woman has gastroenteritis with cells results in the production of low levels of infec-
nausea and vomiting and is able to ingest only small tious virus. The genome of the virus is most likely to
amounts of water. After 3 days, she develops be which of the following?
light-headedness, especially when sitting or standing
upright. Tests of arterial blood are most likely to (A) Double-stranded DNA
show which of the following sets of values? (B) Single-stranded, nonsegmented, nega-
tive-sense RNA
PCO2 HCO3– (C) Single-stranded, nonsegmented, posi-
pH (mm Hg) (mEq/L) tive-sense DNA
(A) 7.30 28 15 (D) Single-stranded, nonsegmented, posi-
(B) 7.30 55 27
(C) 7.40 40 24 tive-sense RNA
(D) 7.50 30 22 (E) Single-stranded, segmented, negative-sense
(E) 7.50 47 35 RNA
34
63. The following data are obtained during evaluation of an 18-year-old woman:
Blood pressure (mm Hg) O2 saturation (%)

Right atrium 7 (N=5) 90 (N=75)
Right ventricle 35/7 (N=25/5) 90 (N=75)
Pulmonary artery 35/8 (N=25/15) 90 (N=75)
Left atrium 7 (N=9) 95 (N=95)
Left ventricle 110/7 (N=110/9) 95 (N=95)
Aorta 110/75 (N=110/75) 95 (N=95)
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
(A) Atrial septal defect

(B) Mitral stenosis
(C) Patent ductus arteriosus
(D) Pulmonic stenosis
(E) Tricuspid insufficiency
64. Warfarin is administered to a 56-year-old man follow- 66. A 20-year-old man is brought to the emergency
ing placement of a prosthetic cardiac valve. The department with frightening visual hallucinations. He
warfarin dosage is adjusted to maintain a prothrombin is confused, disoriented to time and place, and
time of 18 sec. Subsequently, trimethoprim- difficult to understand because of slurred speech.
sulfamethoxazole therapy is begun for recurring Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
urinary tract infections. In addition to monitoring
prothrombin time, what action should the physician (A) Brief reactive psychosis
take to maintain adequate anticoagulation? (B) Delirium
(C) Mania
(A) Begin therapy with vitamin K (D) Psychotic depression
(B) Increase the dosage of warfarin (E) Schizophrenia
(C) Make no alterations in the dosage of warfarin
(D) Reduce the dosage of warfarin
(E) Stop the warfarin and change to low-dose 67. A patient with an aneurysm of the aortic arch devel-
aspirin ops hoarseness. Paralysis of which of the following
muscles on the left side is most likely?
65. A genetic male has fully developed male sexual ducts (A) Anterior belly of the digastric
and recognizable uterine tubes. Which of the follow- (B) Cricothyroid
ing processes was most likely disturbed during the (C) Omohyoid
embryonic period? (D) Posterior belly of the digastric
(E) Posterior cricoarytenoid
(A) Production of estrogen by the embryonic
testes
(B) Production of müllerian-inhibitory substance 68. Large amounts of the artificial sweetener aspartame
by the embryonic testes should be avoided in children who have which of the
(C) Production of testosterone by the embryonic following metabolic disorders?
testes
(D) Response of the paramesonephric (müllerian) (A) Diabetes mellitus
ducts to estrogen (B) Hereditary fructose intolerance
(E) Response of the paramesonephric (müllerian) (C) Lactose intolerance
ducts to testosterone (D) Maple syrup urine disease
(E) Phenylketonuria
35
69. A 16-year-old girl is brought to the emergency depart- 72. Compared with normal persons, the dosage regimen
ment after attempting suicide by cutting her wrist. of a drug for a patient known to be a “rapid
The deepest part of the wound is between the ten- metabolizer” is modified most rationally by which of
dons of the flexor carpi radialis and the flexor the following loading and maintenance doses?
digitorum superficialis. She is most likely to have a
deficit in which of the following? Loading Maintenance
(A) Increased increased
(A) Adduction and abduction of the fingers (B) Increased normal
(C) Decreased normal
(B) Extension of the index finger (D) Normal decreased
(C) Flexion of the ring and little fingers (E) Normal increased
(D) Sensation over the base of the little finger
(E) Opposition of the thumb and other digits
73. An asymptomatic 50-year-old woman has hyperten-
70. A 34-year-old man has anorexia and nausea for 1 sion. Urinary excretion of catecholamines is in-
week followed by sudden darkening of his urine to a creased. A CT scan shows a suprarenal mass. Which
brownish color. Laboratory data are consistent with of the following is the most likely cause?
acute viral hepatitis. Screening serologic studies for
hepatitis A and B virus (HAV, HBV) infections show: (A) Benign neoplasm of the adrenal cortex
(B) Benign neoplasm of the adrenal medulla
IgM anti-HAV Ab negative (C) Malignant neoplasm of the adrenal cortex
HBV surface Ag positive (D) Malignant neoplasm of the adrenal medulla
IgM anti-HBV core Ab positive (E) Diffuse hyperplasia of the adrenal cortex
Anti-HBV surface Ab negative
(F) Diffuse hypoplasia of the adrenal medulla
Which of the following mechanisms best explains the
hepatic injury?
74. An otherwise healthy 55-year-old Asian-American
(A) Direct injury of hepatocyte membranes by man is given isoniazid and vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
viral surface antigen after conversion of his PPD skin test. An x-ray film of
(B) Hepatocyte lysis by cytotoxic IgM antibody the chest shows no abnormalities. Four weeks later he
to viral core antigen develops abdominal pain and jaundice. Which of the
(C) Inhibition of hepatocyte DNA replication following is the most likely explanation?
(D) Inhibition of hepatocyte mRNA translation
(E) T lymphocyte-mediated lysis of infected (A) Hepatic tuberculosis
hepatic cells (B) Hepatitis B
(C) Isoniazid-induced hepatitis
71. An inherited metabolic disorder of carbohydrate (D) Pyridoxine-induced cholecystitis
metabolism is characterized by an abnormally in- (E) Tuberculous pancreatitis
creased concentration of hepatic glycogen with
normal structure and no detectable increase in serum
glucose concentration after oral administration of 75. A 45-year-old woman who is being treated for hyper-
fructose. These two observations suggest that the tension and hypercholesterolemia develops diffuse
disease is a result of the absence of which of the muscle pain and weakness. Serum creatine kinase
following enzymes? activity is increased. Which of the following drugs is
most likely to have caused this clinical picture?
(A) Fructokinase
Glucokinase (A) Captopril
(B)
Glucose 6-phosphatase (B) Hydrochlorothiazide
(C)
(D) Phosphoglucomutase (C) Lovastatin
(E) UDPG-glycogen transglucosylase (D) Nicotinic acid
(E) Propranolol
36
76. While smoking crack cocaine, a 16-year-old boy
develops substernal chest pain. An ECG is consistent
with anterior wall myocardial ischemia. The drug most
likely had which of the following effects on the heart?
(A) Direct inhibition of ß-adrenergic receptors

(B) Direct stimulation of adenosine receptors
(C) Direct stimulation of ß-adrenergic receptors
(D) Indirect stimulation of a-adrenergic recep-
tors
(E) Indirect inhibition of a-adrenergic receptors 80. The circles represent the size of a patient’s pupils
without treatment and following treatment with
tyramine and with epinephrine. Which of the follow-
77. After treatment of nuclear DNA with micrococcal ing is compatible with the findings shown for the left
nuclease, the majority of DNA is protected from eye?
digestion. It remains as doubled-stranded DNA
fragments bound to which of the following? (A) Blockade of a-adrenergic receptors
(B) Blockade of ß-adrenergic receptors
(A) Histone H1 (C) Blockade of muscarinic receptors
(B) Nuclear membrane (D) Inhibition of cholinesterase
(C) Nucleolus (E) Sympathetic denervation
(D) An octamer of basic histones
78. A 37-year-old woman who is being treated for 81. An asymptomatic 26-year-old man has a scrotal mass.
promyelocytic leukemia develops septicemia followed When he is standing, the left scrotal sac is enlarged
by widespread ecchymoses and bleeding from mu- with a tubular, worm-like, freely movable, nontender
cous membranes and venipuncture sites. Dissemi- mass. The mass is not palpable when he is supine.
nated intravascular coagulopathy (DIC) is suspected. The most likely diagnosis is
Which of the following is the most specific laboratory
test to confirm the diagnosis? (A) cystocele
(B) ectasia of the spermatic duct
(A) D-dimer assay for fibrin split products (C) indirect inguinal hernia
(B) Partial thromboplastin time (D) spermatocele
(C) Plasma fibrinogen concentration (E) varicocele
(D) Platelet count
(E) Prothrombin time
82. During a prenatal visit, a 25-year-old woman who is
10 weeks’ pregnant comments that she feels too
79. A healthy 35-year-old woman has a cast removed nauseated and fatigued to be interested in sex, and
from her leg after 6 weeks of immobilization. Which of her husband wonders if they will ever be sexually
the following best characterizes her gastrocnemius active again. The most appropriate next step is to
muscle at this time? advise her that sexual interest often returns during
which of the following periods?
(A) Conversion to fast fibers
(B) Decrease in number of fibers (A) Second trimester
(C) Decrease in number of myofibrils (B) Third trimester
(D) Increase in mitochondrial content (C) First week postpartum
(E) Increase in number of satellite cells (D) First month postpartum
37
83. The following numbered codons relate to the partial sequence of an mRNA for a protein. Termination codons are UAG,
UGA and UAA; the initiation codon is AUG. The triplets are numbered as shown:
132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139

UUG CUG CCA UAU UUA UGU GUU AAU
Insertion of uridine between the end of codon 135 and the beginning of 136 will result in a protein containing how many
amino acids?
(A) 134
(B) 135
(C) 136
(D) 137
(E) 138
84. Infection of macrophages with viruses (eg, dengue) 86. A 30-year-old woman with a 1-week history of severe
or bacterial pathogens (eg, Listeria monocytogenes) diarrhea feels dizzy when she stands up. Blood
that escape from the phagosome to the cytoplasm pressure (supine) is 112/76 mm Hg with a pulse of
results in the stimulation of which of the following 88/min; blood pressure (on standing) is 80/60 mm Hg
classes of lymphocytes? with a pulse of 120/min. In addition to controlling her
diarrhea, the most appropriate initial therapy is
Antigen-specific intravenous administration of
restricted MHC class T lymphocyte
(A) I CD4+ cytotoxic (A) desmopressin
(B) I CD8+ cytotoxic
(B) 5% dextrose in water
(C) I CD8+ helper
(D) II CD4+ helper (C) fresh frozen plasma
(E) II CD8+ cytotoxic (D) isotonic saline
(E) methoxamine
(F) verapamil
85. A 60-year-old man has a 10-day history of
nonproductive cough and dyspnea on exertion. In
addition to a normal left lung base, physical examina- 87. A 74-year-old man has colicky abdominal pain in the
tion of his chest in the area of the right lung base left lower quadrant, leukocytosis, and fever. He has
discloses: not had diarrhea or constipation. The most likely
diagnosis is
Breath sounds bronchial
Percussion note dull (A) carcinoma of the sigmoid colon
Tactile fremitus increased
(B) diverticulitis
Adventitious sounds crackles
(C) familial adenomatous polyposis
The most likely diagnosis is (D) ulcerative colitis
(E) villous adenoma of the upper rectum
(A) asthmatic bronchitis
(B) bullous emphysema
(C) chronic bronchitis 88. A 75-year-old man with a history of constipation and
(D) congestive heart failure episodic abdominal pain has diverticulosis. He is at
(E) lobar pneumonia increased risk for which of the following conditions?
(F) pleural effusion
(G) pleuritis (A) Angiodysplasia
(H) pneumothorax (B) Carcinoma of the colon
(I) pulmonary embolism (C) Gastrointestinal hemorrhage
(D) Granulomatous colitis
(E) Malabsorption
38
89. Which of the figures (A-E) best illustrates the relationship between blood flow and mean arterial pressure (MAP) in a
vascular bed that demonstrates autoregulation of blood flow?
90. A 24-year-old woman who breast feeds her infant 92. A 4-year-old girl has been unable to eat for 2 days
develops a warm, painful mass and erythema of the because of a gastrointestinal tract disorder. Which of
overlying skin in the upper outer quadrant of the the following is the major source of fuel being oxi-
right breast. The pain and redness resolve with dized by her skeletal muscles?
antibiotic therapy. Several months later, the same area
is firm and the overlying skin is dimpled. Which of (A) Muscle creatine phosphate
the following is the most likely cause of these find- (B) Muscle glycogen
ings? (C) Muscle triglycerides
(D) Serum fatty acids
(A) Breast abscess with scarring (E) Serum glucose
(B) Fibroadenoma
(C) Fibrocystic change
(D) Infiltrating mammary carcinoma 93. Which of the following is the best example of regres-
(E) Traumatic fat necrosis sion as a normal response to illness?
(A) A patient, after receiving a diagnosis of a

91. Three weeks after traveling to California to study potentially fatal illness, becomes apathetic
desert flowers, a 32-year-old man develops a fever, and listless
chest pain, and sore muscles. Two days later, red (B) A patient appears quite suspicious about his
tender nodules appear on the shins, and the right physician’s diagnosis of a myocardial in-
ankle is painful and tender. An x-ray film of the chest farct
shows a left pleural effusion. Which of the following (C) A patient becomes angry when the dietician
is the most likely diagnosis? delivers the wrong food
(D) A patient in the cardiac care unit with a myo-
(A) Blastomycosis cardial infarct continues to make phone
(B) Coccidioidomycosis calls to his office
(C) Histoplasmosis (E) A patient, previously quite independent,
(D) Mycobacterium marinum infection seeks frequent reassurance and advice
(E) Mycoplasma pneumoniae infection about his condition
39
94. The parents of a 2-year-old boy are concerned be- 97. The intracellular domain of the insulin receptor has
cause he has been having frequent temper tantrums which of the following enzyme activities?
in public. The physician should recommend which of
the following? (A) Adenylyl cyclase
(B) Phosphodiesterase
(A) Distracting him by offering him a treat (C) Phospholipase C
(B) Ignoring the tantrums as much as possible (D) Phosphoprotein phosphatase
(C) Spanking him when the tantrums occur (E) Tyrosine kinase
(D) Threatening to leave him alone in the place
where the tantrums occur
98. Which of the following characteristics of amphet-
amines is most likely to be responsible for increasing
95. A 70-kg (154-lb) man on a fixed NaCl intake (200 blood pressure?
mmol/day) is given daily injections of a potent
mineralocorticoid hormone for 4 days. He has free (A) Indirect release of endogenous catechol-
access to water and consumes his usual caloric amines
intake. Excretion of NaCl is as follows: (B) Inhibition of catecholamine metabolism
(C) Metabolism to false neurochemical transmit-
Day NaCl (mmol) ters
(D) Potent a 1-adrenergic agonism
1 30 (E) Potent ß 2-adrenergic agonism
2 90
3 180
4 200
99. A 35-year-old man sustains a full-thickness burn over
Assuming that 1 L of isotonic saline contains 150 the dorsum of his forearm. A local flap of normal skin
mmol of NaCl and weighs 1 kg, how much will he and subcutaneous tissue is rotated into the defect.
weigh (in kg) at the end of day 4? This skin will survive because of small, horizontally
oriented vessels in the
(A) 66
(B) 68 (A) basal layer
(C) 70 (B) deep dermis
(D) 72 (C) stratum corneum
(E) 74 (D) stratum lucidum
(E) subcutaneous fat
96. A 38-year-old man reports with some embarrassment

that he is unable to urinate in a public urinal, but at 100. A neonate develops abdominal distention. X-ray
home he experiences no difficulty. The most likely films of the abdomen show markedly dilated loops of
diagnosis is small bowel and colon. Which of the following is the
most likely diagnosis?
(A) agoraphobia without history of panic disor-
der (A) Aganglionosis in the rectum
(B) generalized anxiety disorder (B) Atrophy of the colonic mucosa
(C) obsessive-compulsive disorder (C) Hypertrophic pyloric stenosis
(D) prostatism (D) Meckel’s diverticulum
(E) social phobia (E) Multiple polyps in the colon
40
Sample Questions
101. Following infection with measles virus, a 6-year-old 104. A 40-year-old man with a 20-year history of alcohol
boy produces antibodies to all eight viral proteins. abuse is brought to the hospital by his friends be-
The following year he is again exposed to measles cause he was difficult to rouse. He ate a large meal
virus. Antibodies to which viral protein are most several hours ago. He is emaciated and lethargic.
likely to be protective? Examination shows severely restricted horizontal eye
movements and ataxia of both upper limbs. The most
(A) Hemagglutinin likely cause of these findings is a deficiency of which
(B) Matrix of the following nutrients?
(C) Nonstructural
(D) Nucleocapsid (A) Folate
(E) Polymerase (B) Vitamin A
(C) Vitamin B1 (thiamine)
(D) Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
102. Which of the following best explains why neonates (E) Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin)
with sickle cell disease do not have symptoms at
birth?
105. Several contiguous cells are labeled with a fluores-
(A) The concentration of hemoglobin S is too cent dye that cannot cross cell membranes. One cell
low is experimentally bleached with light that destroys the
(B) Maternal antibodies coat the neonatal cells dye, but the cell soon recovers dye fluorescence.
and inhibit the sickling phenomenon This recovery is best explained by the presence of
(C) Maternal erythrocytes protect neonatal which of the following structures between the
erythrocytes from sickling bleached cell and its fluorescent neighbors?
(D) Neonatal erythrocytes are exposed to a
higher concentration of oxygen than adult (A) A basal lamina
erythrocytes (B) Desmosomes (maculae adherentes)
(E) The spleen of the neonate can effectively (C) Gap junctions
filter out the sickled cells (D) Glycosaminoglycans
(E) Tight junctions (zonulae occludentes)
103. The procedure for measuring cardiac output using the

Fick principle involves measuring oxygen uptake by 106. In sensitized persons, immediate (type I) hypersensi-
the lungs and measuring the arterial-to-venous tivity responses are primarily the result of liberation
oxygen tension difference. Because of differences in of vasoactive substances by the action of which of
the oxygen content of blood emerging from different the following?
organs, which of the following is the best source of
venous blood for this measurement? (A) Activated T lymphocytes on smooth muscle
cells
(A) Jugular vein (B) IgA on basophils and mast cells
(B) Pulmonary artery (C) IgA on neutrophils and eosinophils
(C) Pulmonary vein (D) IgE on basophils and mast cells
(D) Saphenous vein (E) IgE on neutrophils and eosinophils
(E) Superior vena cava
41
109. The figure shows the base pairing of a short duplex
DNA molecule; circles represent the phosphorus
molecules, and the letters represent each of the four
common bases present in DNA. The type II restric-
tion endonuclease Bc/I will cut symmetrically within
the six base-pair palindrome of dyad symmetry that
occurs within which of the following portions of the
DNA molecule?
(A) CCCGGT GGGCCA

(B) CCGGTT GGCCAA
(C) CGGTTG GCCAAC
(D) TGATCA ACTAGT
(E) TTGATC AACTAG
110. A 36-year-old woman has a hysterectomy and bilat-

eral salpingo-oophorectomy because of uncontrolled
hemorrhage. She is very concerned because her
mother has vertebral compression fractures due to
osteoporosis. Which of the following is the most
107. The histograms show changes in heart rate and appropriate single treatment to prevent bone loss?
bronchiolar resistance produced by the administra-
tion of epinephrine alone, drug X alone, and epineph- (A) Calcium, orally
rine together with drug X. Drug X is most likely to be (B) Estrogen
(C) Prednisone
(A) isoproterenol (D) Progesterone
(B) metoprolol (E) Vitamin D
(C) nadolol
(D) pindolol
(E) propranolol 111. A 21-year-old woman who smokes 1 pack of ciga-
rettes per day is concerned that she will develop a
lethal cancer. Which of the following is most likely to
reduce her cumulative net risk for dying from cancer?
108. A 4-week-old infant has a loud systolic murmur with
a systolic thrill; otherwise, the infant appears healthy. (A) Cessation of smoking
There is no cyanosis. The most likely cause of the (B) Having annual mammography
murmur is (C) Having annual tests for blood in the stool
(D) Having annual Pap tests
(A) atrial septal defect (E) Moving away from her home, which is ¼
(B) coarctation of the aorta mile from a nuclear power plant
(C) patent ductus arteriosus (F) Using sunscreen
(D) tetralogy of Fallot
(E) ventricular septal defect
42
112. A mother brings her 2-year-old daughter to the 116. A 48-year-old woman has loss of pain and tempera-
emergency department after finding her bottle of iron ture sensation in the left upper and lower limbs.
pills spilled on the floor and noticing that her daugh- Which of the following labeled areas in the medulla is
ter’s mouth was discolored. The child’s plasma iron the most likely site of the causal lesion?
concentration is 400 µg/dL. Which of the following
agents is most appropriate for chelation therapy?
(A) Acetylcysteine
(B) Calcium disodium edetate (EDTA)
(C) Deferoxamine
(D) Dimercaprol
(E) Penicillamine
113. A patient with end-stage renal disease who is under-

going hemodialysis has normocytic normo-chromic
anemia. Which of the following is the most appropri-
ate therapy?
(A) Erythropoietin
(B) Ferrous sulfate
(C) Folate
(D) Vitamin B6 (pyridoxine)
(E) Vitamin B12 (cyanocobalamin) 117. Failure of an endonuclease to recognize the sequence
AAUAAA in the 3' end of heterogeneous nuclear
RNA will cause a defect in which of the following
114. A 58-year-old man with chronic congestive heart processes involving mRNA?
failure requires ongoing hydrochlorothiazide therapy.
His monthly serum chemistry profile shows persistent (A) Capping
hypokalemia. The most appropriate next step is to (B) Hybridization
add which of the following diuretics to the regimen? (C) Polyadenylation
(D) Splicing
(A) Acetazolamide (E) Transport
(B) Amiloride
(C) Furosemide
(D) Mannitol 118. A 16-year-old girl is incoherent and has a fever,
(E) Metolazone severe lower abdominal pain, and a foul-smelling
cervicovaginal discharge. A self-induced abortion is
suspected. Which of the following methods should
115. Moderate alcohol consumption may protect against be used to collect a sample of the cervical discharge
coronary artery disease by which of the following for bacterial culture?
mechanisms?
(A) Inoculating the specimen on mammalian epi-
(A) Decreasing serum concentration of LDLs thelial cells
(B) Decreasing serum concentration of triglycer- (B) Placing a swab in transport medium at room
ides temperature
(C) Increasing contractile proteins in coronary (C) Taking samples of the discharge with a sy-
arteries ringe and transferring them directly into an
(D) Increasing serum concentration of HDLs anaerobic transport medium
(E) Increasing thromboxane B2 release from (D) Using a calibrated inoculating loop to enable
platelets direct enumeration of the bacteria in the
specimen
43
119. Patients X and Y both have respirations of 12/min and 122. A 38-year-old woman has congestive heart failure,
tidal volumes of 500 mL. However, patient X has an premature ventricular contractions, and repeated
arterial PCO2 of 35 mm Hg, while patient Y has an episodes of ventricular tachycardia. Her blood pres-
arterial PCO2 of 45 mm Hg. The difference in PCO2 sure is normal and there are no murmurs. Her heart is
between these patients is best explained by a differ- markedly enlarged. Coronary angiography shows no
ence in which of the following? abnormalities. Which of the following is the most
likely diagnosis?
(A) Cardiac output
(B) Dead space ventilation (A) Acute rheumatic fever
(C) Forced expiratory volume in 1 sec (FEV1) (B) Congenital fibroelastosis
(D) Functional residual capacity (C) Constrictive pericarditis
(E) Lung compliance (D) Myocardial infarction
(E) Primary cardiomyopathy
120. An 18-year-old female athlete reports easy fatigability

and weakness. Findings on physical examination are 123. A 53-year-old woman dies 4 days after an automobile
unremarkable. Laboratory data are: collision. She sustained multiple injuries including a
femoral fracture. Widespread petechiae are found in
Serum the cerebral white matter at autopsy. Which of the
Na + 141 mEq/L following is the most likely cause of these findings?
Cl- 85 mEq/L
K+ 2.1 mEq/L
(A) Adult respiratory distress syndrome
HCO3- 35 mEq/L
Urine (B) Contrecoup injury
Na + 80 mEq/24 h (C) Fat embolization
K+ 170 mEq/24 h (D) Septicemia
(E) Subdural hematoma
The most likely diagnosis is
(A) aldosterone deficiency 124. A 52-year-old man with chronic obstructive pulmo-
(B) anxiety reaction with hyperventilation nary disease who has been taking theophylline for 14
(C) diabetes mellitus with ketoacidosis years now requires treatment for hypertension, peptic
(D) ingestion of anabolic steroids
ulcer, and tuberculosis. After 2 weeks of therapy, he
(E) surreptitious use of diuretics has a toxic plasma theophylline concentration. The
drug most likely to have caused the theophylline
121. A 30-year-old woman whose mother and grandmother toxicity is
have died from carcinoma of the breast refuses to
have mammography. She says she knows she is at (A) cimetidine
risk but says, “I hate having my breasts (B) hydrochlorothiazide
squashed–it’s uncomfortable.” Her physician would (C) prazosin
like her to have annual mammograms. Which of the (D) rifampin
following is most likely to influence her to agree to
have mammograms? 125. A 38-year-old woman with hypertension and
hypokalemia is suspected of having hyperaldo-
(A) Exaggerate her risk for breast cancer steronism. In addition to serum aldosterone measure-
(B) Insist that she obtain counseling regarding ment, initial evaluation of this patient should include
unresolved grief measurement of which of the following?
(C) Offer analgesia prior to mammography
(D) Show her photographs of the results of un- (A) Plasma ACTH
treated cancer (B) Plasma cortisol
(E) Tell her that the therapeutic relationship will (C) Plasma prolactin
be terminated unless she has annual mam- (D) Plasma renin
mograms (E) Urinary sodium
44
126. A 17-year-old girl sustains a contaminated deep 130. A 23-year-old woman has a progressive increase in
puncture wound while helping repair a barn. Her im- serum human chorionic gonadotropin (hCG) concen-
munization record indicates that her last tetanus trations over an 8-week period. A hydatidiform mole
immunization was 12 years ago. In addition to wound is removed, but the hCG concentration continues to
care, which of the following is the most appropriate increase. The most likely diagnosis is
management?
(A) adrenal adenoma
(A) Tetanus antitoxin (B) choriocarcinoma
(B) Tetanus toxoid (C) ectopic pregnancy
(C) Tetanus antitoxin plus toxoid (D) pituitary insufficiency
(D) Tetanus toxoid plus adjuvant (E) a second noninvasive mole
(E) No intervention
131. A 32-year-old man is unable to adduct his right eye

127. Which of the following structural proteins enables during conjugate gaze but is able to adduct it during
the erythrocyte to withstand the stress on its plasma visual convergence. A lesion of which of the follow-
membrane as it presses through narrow capillaries? ing structures on the right side is most likely to
produce this finding?
(A) Integrin
(B) Myosin (A) Lateral rectus muscle
(C) Spectrin (B) Medial rectus muscle
(D) Tubulin (C) Medial forebrain bundle
(D) Medial longitudinal fasciculus
(E) Nucleus of the oculomotor nerve
128. A 26-year-old man who is seropositive for HIV has a
decreased CD4+ T lymphocyte count (250/mm3). After
5 weeks of therapy with a nucleoside polymerase 132. A 3-year-old boy has a history of repeated pyogenic
inhibitor and a protease inhibitor, he feels weak and infections. He had normal antibody responses follow-
is easily fatigued. Hemoglobin concentration has ing childhood immunizations and normal recovery
decreased from 12.8 g/dL to 8.2 g/dL. Which of the from chickenpox and measles. Decreased numbers or
following is the most likely cause of the anemia? functional defects in which of the following cells best
explains the cause of his infections?
(A) Decreased formation of erythrocytes
(B) Folate deficiency (A) B lymphocytes
(C) Increased formation of erythrocyte antibod- (B) Eosinophils
ies (C) Macrophages
(D) Increased fragility of erythrocytes (D) Neutrophils
(E) Iron deficiency (E) T lymphocytes
129. Chronic ingestion of ethanol decreases the rate of 133. A patient with the classical phenotypic features of
gluconeogenesis because of decreased formation of Down’s syndrome has 46 chromosomes on each of
100 metaphase karyotypes. Which of the following
(A) ATP and 3-phosphoglycerate from best explains this finding?
1,3-bisphosphoglycerate
(B) fructose 1,6-bisphosphate from fructose (A) Deletion
6-phosphate (B) Mosaicism
(C) glyceraldehyde 3-phosphate from fructose (C) Somatic mutation
1,6-bisphosphate (D) Translocation
(D) pyruvate from lactate (E) Undetected trisomy
(E) pyruvate from phosphoenolpyruvate
45
134. Breast carcinomas often cause the skin of the breast
to become puffy and pitted, resembling orange peel.
The pits most likely correspond with which of the
following?
(A) Attachments of suspensory ligaments

(retinacula cutis) to the dermis
(B) Diffuse scarring in subcutaneous fibrous
tissue
(C) Focal invasion of the dermis by neoplastic
cells
(D) Openings of sebaceous glands
(E) Openings of sweat glands
135. A 25-year-old woman has a 3-day history of vomiting

and diarrhea. She has postural hypotension and poor
tissue turgor. Her serum sodium concentration is 130
mEq/L. Which of the following findings is most
likely?
(A) Decreased serum aldosterone concentration

(B) Increased serum atrial natriuretic peptide
concentration
(C) Increased effective circulating volume
(D) Increased serum ADH (vasopressin) con-
centration
(E) Urine osmolality less than serum osmolality 138. A 4-year-old girl has the sudden onset of abdominal
pain and vomiting. She has a mass in the right lower
quadrant and hyperactive bowel sounds. A segment
136. A 56-year-old woman has adenocarcinoma of the of resected bowel is shown. Which of the following
colon that is surgically resected. Which of the follow- is the most likely diagnosis?
ing patterns of growth by the neoplasm most
strongly suggests a poor prognosis? (A) Appendicitis
(B) Intussusception
(A) Circumferential growth (C) Meckel’s diverticulum
(B) Extension to the muscularis mucosa (D) Necrotizing enterocolitis
(C) Extension to the serosa (E) Strangulated hernia
(D) Polypoid growth
(E) Surface ulceration
139. A 52-year-old woman is admitted to the hospital
137. A 10-year-old boy is severely burned. Nitrogen loss because of breast cancer metastatic to the liver. Her
occurs during the first few days after the burn. prognosis is poor. She begs her husband to stay with
During this acute period, which of the following her at the hospital because she is afraid to be left
substances plays the major role in nitrogen loss? alone. Which of the following defense mechanisms
best explains her behavior?
(A) Cortisol
(B) Erythropoietin (A) Denial
(C) Insulin (B) Displacement
(D) Parathyroid hormone (C) Regression
(E) Thyroxine (T4) (D) Repression
(E) Sublimation
46
140. An 8-year-old boy needs to be coaxed to go to 143. Investigators are studying the use of a new labora-
school and, while there, often complains of severe tory test to identify patients with a particular disease.
headaches or stomach pain. His mother frequently The table below summarizes the results of initial
has to take him home because of his symptoms. At research involving 200 subjects.
night, he tries to sleep with his parents. When they
insist that he sleep in his own room, he says there are
monsters in his closet. Which of the following best
explains this behavior?
(A) Childhood schizophrenia

(B) Normal concerns of latency-age children
(C) Separation anxiety disorder
(D) Socialized conduct disorder
(E) Symbiotic psychosis
What is the approximate sensitivity of a positive test
result?
141. A 24-year-old woman in the 28th week of her first
pregnancy has had nagging headaches, a (A) 0.30
“puffy-looking” face, and swollen legs for the past (B) 0.33
week. Blood pressure is 180/95 mm Hg; it was normal (C) 0.60
earlier in the pregnancy. Urinalysis shows only (D) 0.67
proteinuria (0.6 g/dL). Which of the following is the (E) 0.75
most likely diagnosis?
(A) Acute glomerulonephritis

(B) Congestive heart failure 144. Ten minutes after undergoing a liver biopsy, a patient
(C) Eclampsia develops moderately severe pain on the tip of the
(D) Nephrotic syndrome right shoulder. This pain is most likely to be mediated
(E) Preeclampsia by which of the following nerves?
(A) Axillary
142. A 50-year-old man is awakened in the middle of the (B) Intercostobrachial
night with acute pain and tenderness of the right (C) Right phrenic
knee. He has a low-grade fever. His knee is hot, red, (D) Right sympathetic chain
tender, and swollen. Analysis of the fluid from the (E) Right vagus
right knee shows:
Leukocytes 70,000/mm3 with 75% 145. After fasting, a patient has no gastric acid secretion
neutrophils when chewing and no receptive relaxation of the
Crystal analysis negatively birefringent proximal stomach when swallowing. Which of the
Gram’s stain negative following best explains these findings?
The most likely diagnosis is

(A) Absence of antral G cells
(B) Absence of chief cells
(A) gout
(C) Increased concentration of secretin
(B) osteoarthritis
(D) Increased concentration of somatostatin
(C) pseudogout
(E) Vagally denervated stomach
(D) rheumatoid arthritis
(E) septic arthritis
47
148. A 3-year-old boy with mental retardation has
hepatosplenomegaly. Analysis of tissue obtained on
biopsy of the liver shows unusually large amounts of
glucocerebroside. Which of the following enzymes is
most likely to be deficient?
(A) Hormone-sensitive lipase

(B) Lipoprotein lipase
(C) Lysosomal hydrolase
(D) Sphingolipid synthase
(E) Tissue phospholipase
149. A 60-year-old man undergoes excision of an obstruc-

tion in the large intestine. Which of the following
microscopic features in the obstructing lesion most
strongly suggests malignant growth?
(A) Focal areas of necrosis and acute inflamma-

tion
146. In the diagram, point X indicates acid-base status of (B) Formation of new vascular channels and
a healthy person. Which of the following is the most hemorrhage
likely cause of the condition indicated by point Y? (C) Hemosiderin-filled macrophages
(D) Mucin within and outside epithelial cells
(A) Adaptation to high altitude (E) Sheets and cords of epithelial cells in the
(B) Chronic obstructive pulmonary disease serosal layer
(C) Diarrhea
(D) Ingestion of a strong acid
(E) Severe prolonged vomiting 150. Lactation does not occur during pregnancy because
the action of prolactin is blocked by increased con-
147. A patient with an injury to the gluteal region has centrations of which of the following hormones?
difficulty rising from a seated position and straighten-
ing his trunk but no difficulty walking on level (A) Estrogen and progesterone
ground or flexing his leg. Which of the following (B) Growth hormone and oxytocin
muscles is affected? (C) Human chorionic somatomammotropin and
prostaglandin
(A) Gluteus maximus (D) Insulin and cortisol
(B) Gluteus minimus (E) Thyroxine (T4) and dopamine
(C) Hamstrings
(D) Iliopsoas
(E) Obturator internus
48
Answer Key for Step 1 Sample Questions
1. B 11. E 21. H 31. A 41. E

2. E 12. A 22. D 32. B 42. F
3. B 13. A 23. D 33. J 43. D
4. E 14. A 24. E 34. C 44. C
5. D 15. C 25. E 35. A 45. C
6. C 16. B 26. B 36. C 46. A
7. B 17. E 27. D 37. A 47. B
8. D 18. B 28. D 38. C 48. B
9. C 19. D 29. D 39. A 49. B
10. A 20. B 30. A 40. B 50. D
51. C 61. D 71. C 81. E 91. B

52. B 62. D 72. E 82. A 92. D
53. D 63. A 73. B 83. E 93. E
54. C 64. D 74. C 84. B 94. B
55. D 65. B 75. C 85. E 95. D
56. C 66. B 76. D 86. D 96. E
57. B 67. E 77. D 87. B 97. E
58. E 68. E 78. A 88. C 98. A
59. E 69. E 79. C 89. D 99. B
60. A 70. E 80. E 90. A 100. A
101. A 111. A 121. C 131. D 141. E

102. A 112. C 122. E 132. D 142. A
103. B 113. A 123. C 133. D 143. E
104. C 114. B 124. A 134. A 144. C
105. C 115. D 125. D 135. D 145. E
106. D 116. C 126. C 136. C 146. B
107. B 117. C 127. C 137. A 147. A
108. E 118. C 128. A 138. B 148. C
109. D 119. B 129. D 139. C 149. E
110. B 120. E 130. B 140. C 150. A
49

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Copyright © 2002 by the Federation of State Medical Boards of the United States, Inc.

and the National Board of

Hematopoietic and Lymphoreticular Systems . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . . 10

Biochemistry and molecular biology

Human development and genetics

Biology of tissue response to disease

Pharmacodynamic and pharmacokinetic processes

Microbial biology and infection

Hematopoietic and lymphoreticular systems

Central and peripheral nervous systems

Skin and related connective tissue

REFERENCE RANGE SI REFERENCE INTERVALS

Block 1 (Questions 1-50)

1. 11. 21. 31. 41.

Block 2 (Questions 51-100)

51. 61. 71. 81. 91.

Block 3 (Questions 101-150)

101. 111. 121. 131. 141.

Block 1 (Questions 1-50)

(A) Androstenedione (A) Annular ligament

11. An 8-year-old boy is stung by a bee. Within 5 min-

(A) Foreign body reaction

(A) Cessation of menstruation (A) High-frequency tones only

(A) Basal ganglia

17. A 60-year-old woman who has had four children

(A) Ovalocytes 19. Which of the following is lower in umbilical arterial

21. A 21-year-old man has weight loss and severe inter-

Median Toxic dose1/

(A) 0.5x 2.8

Saline plus child’s RBC –

Which of the following conclusions concerning the child’s parentage is valid?

(A) The child could be the natural offspring of this couple

(A) Dysthymic disorder

(A) Atropine (A) amygdala

44. A 3-month-old male infant has a lump in his neck.

(A) Jugulodigastric lymph node (A) Asparagine synthetase

Block 2 (Questions 51-100)

(A) Aggregation (A) Accumulation of mononuclear cells at the

(A) IgG and fibrinogen

57. Cells from a single population are suspended in

Blood pressure (mm Hg) O2 saturation (%)

Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?

(A) Atrial septal defect

(A) Direct inhibition of ß-adrenergic receptors

132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139

(A) A patient, after receiving a diagnosis of a

96. A 38-year-old man reports with some embarrassment

Block 3 (Questions 101-150)

103. The procedure for measuring cardiac output using the

(A) CCCGGT GGGCCA

110. A 36-year-old woman has a hysterectomy and bilat-

113. A patient with end-stage renal disease who is under-

120. An 18-year-old female athlete reports easy fatigability

131. A 32-year-old man is unable to adduct his right eye

(A) Attachments of suspensory ligaments

135. A 25-year-old woman has a 3-day history of vomiting

(A) Decreased serum aldosterone concentration

(A) Childhood schizophrenia

(A) Acute glomerulonephritis