NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /

Oct 8527521718

Physics - Section A 4 Two short bar magnets, each with a magnetic

moment M, are arranged as shown in the figure. What
1 When the current in a certain coil changes at a rate will the magnetic field at point P be?
of 3 A/s, an induced EMF of 7 mV is observed in a
nearby coil. What is the mutual inductance of this
arrangement?
1. 0.33 mH
2. 1.66 mH
3. 2.00 mH
4. 2.33 mH

2 In this LCR circuit, it is observed that the current

and the voltage are in phase with each other. When the
capacitor is replaced by a short circuit, the phase μ0 2√2M
1. towards the right
difference becomes 60∘ . 4π d3
μ0 2√2M
2. towards the left
4π d3
μ0 2M
3. towards the right
4π d3
μ0 2M
4. towards the left
4π d3

5 A galvanometer of resistance 20 Ω gives full-scale

deflection when a current of 1 mA is passed through it.
It is converted into a voltmeter by connecting a
Then: resistance of 4980 Ω in series with it. The maximum
L L potential difference measured by this voltmeter is:
1. = R2 2. = 2R2 1. 5 mV 2. 0.05 V
C C
L L 1 3. 5V 4. 50 V
3. = 3R2 4. = R2
C C 3
6 The rms value of the current:
3 Given below are two statements: i = 4 + 4 cos ωt (in ampere),
Parallel currents attract and antiparallel ω being the angular frequency, is:
Statement I: 1. 4 A 2. 8A
currents repel.
Moving charged particles are acted upon √
3. 4 + 2 2 A 4. 2√ 6 A
Statement II: by magnetic fields and they also create
their own magnetic fields.

1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.

2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

7 An electromagnetic waveform travelling along the 10 A coil with an inductive reactance of 31 Ω has a
x-axis is given by its electric field: resistance of 8 Ω. It is placed in series with a capacitor
that has a capacitive reactance of 25 Ω. This
E(x, t) = E0 sin(1012 s ) (t − ).
−1 x
combination is connected to an AC source of 110 V. The
3 × 108 m/s power factor of the circuit is:
The wavelength is: 1. 0.4
1. 3 × 10−4 m 2. 3 × 108 m 2. 0.6
3 3. 0.8
3. 6π × 10−4 m 4. × 10−4 m 4. 1.0
2π

8 A square loop of side 4 cm is lying on a horizontal 11 When AC voltage is applied across an inductor with
table. A uniform magnetic field of 0.5 T is directed inductance L, the average power dissipated across the
downward at an angle of 60∘ to the vertical as shown in inductor is:
the figure. If the field increases from zero to its final 1. non-zero and greater than one
value in 0.2 s, the EMF induced in the loop will be: 2. zero
3. unity
4. infinite

12 The magnetic potential energy when a magnetic bar

with a magnetic moment M → is placed perpendicular to
→ is:
the magnetic field B
−mB
1. 2. zero
2
3. −mB 4. mB

13 Given below are two statements:

1. 1 mV Energy is stored by a current-carrying
2. 2 mV Statement I: inductance, and this is proportional to the
3. 3 mV square of the current.
4. 4 mV The EMF developed by an inductance is
Statement II: proportional to the rate of change of
9 A step-up transformer operates on a 220 V line and current.
supplies a 2.2 A. The ratio of the primary to secondary
winding is 11 : 50. The output voltage in the 1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct.
secondary winding is: 2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
1. 220 V 3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
2. 100 V
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
3. 1000 V
4. 0 V

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

14 A rectangular loop of wire shown below is coplanar 17 The magnetic field in a plane electromagnetic wave
with a long wire carrying current, I. is given by;
B = 2 × 10−7 sin(0.5 × 103 x + 1011 t) T.
The electromagnetic wave is:
1. visible light 2. infrared
3. microwave 4. radio wave

18 In a coil of resistance 100 Ω, a current is induced by

changing the magnetic flux through it (as shown in the
The loop is pulled to the right as indicated. What are the graph). The magnitude of the change in flux through the
directions of the induced current in the loop and the coil is:
magnetic forces on the left and right sides of the loop?
Force on left Force on right
Induced current
side side
1. counterclockwise to the left to the right
2. clockwise to the left to the right
3. counterclockwise to the right to the left
4. clockwise to the right to the left

15 The SI unit of inductance, known as henry, can be

1. 200 Wb
expressed in different ways. Which of the following 2. 225 Wb
options correctly represents henry? 3. 250 Wb
(A) Weber/ampere 4. 275 Wb
(B) Volt-second/ampere
(C) Joule/ampere² 19 The region on the left of the y-axis (x < 0)
(D) Ohm-second represents vacuum, and the region on the right (x > 0)
represents a transparent medium. An electromagnetic
Choose the correct option from the options given below: wave travelling along the x-axis given by:
1. (A), (B) and (C) only E→1 (x, t) = E1 ^j sin(ωt − k0 x), where x < 0,
2. (A) and (B) only is incident on to the medium on the right. The
3. (B) and (D) only transmitted wave in the medium is:
4. (A), (B), (C) and (D) E→2 (x, t) = E2 ^j sin(ωt − 2k0 x), where x > 0.
The refractive index of the medium is:
16 To calculate the magnetic field due to a straight
current-carrying conducting wire, at a nearby point, we
use:
1. Fleming's left-hand rule
2. Biot-Savart law
3. Gauss's law
4. Lenz's law 1. 2 2. √2
3. 4 4. 2√ 2

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

20 The average value of the voltage, V for a complete 24 A series LCR circuit is connected to an AC source
cycle that varies with time, t as shown below is: with a frequency of 50 Hz. If the inductance is 100 mH,
what capacitance is required for resonance? (use
π 2 = 10)
1. 1 μF 2. 10 μF
3. 100 μF 4. 1000 μF

25 A particle with charge q enters a region where an

electric field E→ = 80 kV/m is directed as shown in the
figure. A magnetic field B → = 0.4 T is perpendicular to
V0 V0
1. 2. the electric field E→ and directed into the page. The
2 4 particle is moving with velocity v→ towards the right (as
V0 V0 illustrated in the figure). If the particle is not deflected,
3. 4.
√2 √3 what is the value of velocity v→?

21 A metal rod of length 1 m is moving perpendicular

to its length with 8 m/s velocity along the positive x-
axis. A magnetic field B = 2 T exists perpendicular to
the plane of motion. The EMF induced between the two
ends of the rod is:
1. 16 V
2. 0 V
3. 8 V
4. 4 V

22 A particle with a charge of 2 C, a mass of 1 kg, and

a speed of 2 m/s enters a uniform magnetic field with a
magnetic induction of 2 T, forming an angle θ = 30∘ 1. 8 × 105 m/s 2. 4 × 105 m/s
between the velocity vector and the magnetic induction. 3. 3 × 105 m/s 4. 2 × 105 m/s
The pitch of its helical path (in metres) is:
√3
1. π 2. √3π 26 A thick current-carrying cable of radius, R carries
2 current, I that is uniformly distributed across its cross-
√3 section. The variation of the magnetic field, B(r) due to
3. 2√3π 4. π
4 the cable with the distance, r from the axis of the cable
is represented by:
23 In a vacuum, if c represents the velocity of light, μ0 ​
denotes the permeability, and ε0 signifies the
permittivity, we can express the relationship as:
1 1 1. 2.
1. c = 2. c =
μ 0 ε0 √ ε0 μ 0
μ0 μ0
3. c = 4. c = √
ε0 ε0

3. 4.

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

27 The magnetic induction at the centre O in the figure 30 Match List-I with List-II (the symbols carry their
shown is: usual meaning).
List-I List-II
Q Ampere-
A. ∮ E→ ⋅ dA→ = I.
ε0 Maxwell's Law
→ →
B. ∮ B ⋅ dA = 0 II. Faraday's Law
−d(ϕ) Gauss Law of
C. ∮ E→ ⋅ d→l = III.
dt electrostatics
d (ϕE ) Gauss's law of
→ ⋅ d→l = μ0 ic + μ0 ε0
D. ∮ B IV.
dt magnetism
μ0 i 1 1 μ0 i 1 1
1. ( − ) 2. ( + )
4 R1 R2 4 R1 R2 Choose the correct answer from the options given
μ0 i μ0 i below:
3. (R1 − R2 ) 4. (R1 + R2 )
4 4 1. A-III, B-IV, C-II, D-I
2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
28 The reactance of 40 μF capacitor at the AC 3. A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
1000 4. A-IV, B-I, C-III, D-II
frequency Hz is:
π
1. 10 Ω
31 Determine the impedance of the circuit depicted in
2. 12.5 Ω
3. 20 Ω the figure:
4. 25 Ω

29 In an AC generator, a coil with N turns, all having

the same area A and a total resistance R, rotates with an
angular frequency ω in a uniform magnetic field B. The
peak value of the induced EMF will be:
1. NAB
2. NABR
1. 100 Ω
3. NABω
2. 50 Ω
4. NABRω
3. 30 Ω
4. 40 Ω

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

32 A thin metallic plate is allowed to fall through the 35 The figure below illustrates a part of a circuit. The
space between two magnetic poles creating a horizontal rate of change of current in the inductor is:
magnetic field. The plate is vertical, and its face is
perpendicular to the field lines as it falls. While it is
entering the region of the magnetic field,

1 −1 −1
1. − As 2. −1 A s
2
1 −1 1 −1
3. − As 4. As
4 4

Physics - Section B
36 Two short identical bar magnets are placed, as
1. The acceleration of the plate is equal to g. shown in the figure.
2. The acceleration of the plate is greater than g.
3. The acceleration of the plate is less than g.
4. The plate comes to a stop and rebounds upward.

33 When light propagates in a vacuum, there is an The null point (or points) is/are as follows:
electric field and a magnetic field. These fields: One null point mid-way between A & B on the
(A) Are constant in time. 1.
common axis.
(B) Have zero average value. Three null points: one to the left of A, one to the right
Are perpendicular to the direction of propagation of 2.
(C) of B, and & one, midway between them.
light. An infinite number of null points on the plane
(D) Are mutually perpendicular to each other. 3. perpendicular to their axis, and midway between
them.
Choose the correct option from the options given below: 4. No null points exist.
1. (A) and (B) only
2. (B) and (C) only 37 Given below are two statements:
3. (A), (B) and (C) only If a diamagnetic substance is placed in
4. (B), (C) and (D) only an external magnetic field, the
Assertion (A):
molecular dipoles will orient in the
34 A current-carrying loop has a magnetic moment M→ direction of the field.
and carries a current I. The loop is placed in a uniform The molecular dipoles of a diamagnetic
magnetic field B.→ What is the magnitude of torque Reason (R): substance are far weaker than that of
acting on the loop if the plane of the loop makes an any other substance.
angle of 60∘ with the direction of the magnetic field?
1. MB cos60∘ 1.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
2. MB sin60∘ explanation of (A).
3. MB tan60∘ Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4. MB cot60∘ 2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

38 The mutual inductance between two co-axial, 41 The electric current due to the rotating circular ring
concentric rings of radii a, r (a ≫ r) is proportional to: is:
qω
1. qω 2.
2π
qω 2qω
3. 4.
π π

42 The magnetic moment due to this rotating ring is:

1 2
1. qR2 ω 2. qR ω
2
1 2 2
3. qR2 ω 4. qR ω
a 2 2π π
a
1. 2.
r2 r 43 The magnetic field at the centre of the ring, due to
r2 r
its rotating charge, is:
3. 4.
a a2 μ0 qω μ0 qω
1. 2.
4π R 2π R
39 In which of the following situations will a charge μ0 qω μ0 qω
experience no force? 3. 4.
π R 2R
(A) It is stationary in an electric field.
(B) It moves parallel to an electric field. 44 A permanent magnet is driven towards a solenoid
(C) It is stationary in a magnetic field. (AB), as shown, along its axis. As it approaches the
(D) It moves parallel to a magnetic field. solenoid:
Choose the correct option from the options given below:
1. (A), (B) and (C)
2. (A) and (B) only
3. (C) and (D) only
4. (B), (C) and (D) only

40 A circular wire carrying a current i produces an

→ d→l taken
axial magnetic field (B). The integral ∫ B.
from O to ∞ along the axis equals: 1. ends A, B become N, S poles due to induction
2. ends A, B become S, N poles due to induction
3. ends A, B both become N -poles due to induction
4. ends A, B both become S -poles due to induction

μ0 i
1. μo i 2.
2
μ0 i μ0 i
3. 4.
4 √2

Based on the information provided below, answer the

questions (41-43).
A uniformly charged circular ring, of mass m, radius R;
carrying a charge q, is given a constant angular speed ω,
about its axis.

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

45 An ideal solenoid of length L, number of turns per 47 The figure shows a square loop L with a side length
unit length= n, radius r carries a current i. The of 5 cm, which is connected to a network of resistances.
magnetic flux passing through the solenoid, at its centre, The entire setup is moving to the right with a constant
is nearly: speed of 1 cm/s. At a certain instant, a part of the loop L
is in a uniform magnetic field of 1 T, perpendicular to
the plane of the loop. If the resistance of the loop is
1.7 Ω, the current in the loop at that instant will be close
to:

(μ0 ni) πr2

1. (μ0 ni) πr2 2.
L
2 1
3. (μ0 ni. πr )L 4. (μ ni)(πr2 L)
2 0

46 A circular region of radius R, has a uniform

magnetic field within it, increasing at a constant rate: 1. 115 μA
dB 2. 150 μA
= k. Consider a circular loop of radius r (r < R),
dt 3. 170 μA
concentric with the region. The EMF induced in the 4. 60 μA
loop is proportional to:
48 To ensure that the magnetic field is radial in a
moving coil galvanometer:
1. The number of turns in the coil is increased.
2. The magnet is taken in the form of a horse-shoe.
3. The poles are cut cylindrically.
4. The coil is wound on an aluminum frame.

1. r 2. r2
1 1
3. 4.
r r2

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

49 Among the various alternating voltages listed 52 The hybridisation and effective atomic number
below, in which scenario are the peak and rms values (EAN) of the central atom in [Ni(CO)4 )] , respectively,
equal? are:
1. dsp2 and 34
2. dsp2 and 36
3. sp3 and 34
(a) (b) 4. sp3 and 36

53 Consider the given two statements:

π-bonding takes place by the overlap of
p orbitals of oxygen with d orbitals of
Assertion (A):
manganese in manganate and
(c) (d) permanganate ions.
The intense colour in most of the
Reason (R): transition metal complexes is due to the
d-d transition.
1. (c) only
2. (d) only Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1.
explanation of (A).
3. (a), (b) and (c)
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
4. (b) and (c) 2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
50 When a soft-iron core is inserted into a solenoid, the
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
magnetic field is observed to increase by 1500 times
near its opening. The turns density is 1000 m-1 and the 54 Mohr's salt is primarily used as a/an:
solenoid carries a current 100 mA. The field at its centre
1. reducing agent
is (nearly):
2. oxidizing agent
1. 0.2 T
3. complexometric indicator
2. 0.02 T
4. pH indicator
3. 0.4 T
4. 0.04 T
55 The isomer(s) of [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ] that has/have a
Cl-Co-Cl angle of 90∘ , is/are :
Chemistry - Section A 1. Meridional and Facial
2. Cis and Trans
51 What is the IUPAC name of the coordination 3. Trans only
compound depicted in the figure? 4. Cis only

56 An alkali is titrated against an acid with methyl

orange as an indicator. Which of the following is a
correct combination?

Base Acid Endpoint

1. Weak Strong Colourless to pink
2. Strong Strong Pinkish red to yellow
1. Cis-dichlorotetramminochromium(III) chloride 3. Weak Strong Yellow to Pinkish red
2. Trans-dichlorotetramminochromium(III) chloride
4. Strong Strong Pink to colourless
3. Trans-tetramminedichlorochromium(III) chloride
4. Cis-tetramminedichlorochromium(III) chloride

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

57 Which element's presence is detected through the 63 The number of possible optical isomers for the
Beilstein test? complexes MA2 B2 with sp3 and dsp2 hybridized metal
1. Sulfur (S ) atom, respectively, are:
2. Chlorine (Cl) [A and B are unidentate neutral and unidentate
3. Carbon (C ) and Hydrogen (H ) monoanionic ligands, respectively.]
4. Nitrogen (N ) 1. 0 and 2
2. 2 and 2
58 When synthesizing acetanilide from aniline, ice- 3. 0 and 0
cold water is introduced to the reaction mixture after 4. 0 and 1
heating to
1. dissolve acetanilide 64 Which element has the lowest third ionization
2. initiate the reaction. energy?
3. neutralize the solution 1. Cobalt (Co)
4. wash the crude acetanilide 2. Iron (Fe)
3. Nickel (Ni)
59 Which species acts as the Lewis acid in the 4. Manganese (Mn)
formation of the complex [Co(NH3 )6 ]Cl3 ?
1. [Co(NH3 )6 ]3+ 65 The coordination numbers of Co and Al in
2. Cl− [Co(Cl)(en)2 ]Cl and K3 [Al(C2 O4 )3 ], respectively are:
3. Co 3+ (en = ethane-1, 2-diamine)
4. NH3 1. 5 and 3
2. 3 and 3
60 When H₂S is passed through a solution containing a 3. 6 and 6
Group-IV cation, a precipitate forms. This precipitate 4. 5 and 6
dissolves in dilute HCl, producing a white precipitate
with NaOH solution and a bluish-white precipitate with 66 Match the properties with the elements of 3d series:
basic potassium ferrocyanide. Identify the cation. (i) Lowest enthalpy of atomisation (p) Sc
1. CO2+ (ii) Shows maximum number of oxidation states (q) Mn
2. Ni2+ Transition metal that does not form coloured
3. Mn2+ (iii) (r) Zn
compounds
4. Zn2+ (s) Ti
61 Which transition metal has the lowest ionization 1. (i) (r), (ii) (q), (iii) (p)
energy? 2. (i) (r), (ii) (s), (iii) (p)
1. Titanium (Ti) 3. (i) (p), (ii) (q), (iii) (r)
2. Scandium (Sc) 4. (i) (s), (ii) (r), (iii) (p)
3. Vanadium (V)
4. Manganese (Mn) 67 Which of the following interhalogen compounds
has an incorrectly identified shape?
62 Which of the following elements has the lowest 1. IF : Pentagonal bipyramidal
7
boiling point? 2. ClF5 : Square pyramidal
1. Krypton (Kr) 3. BrF3 : Bent T-shaped
2. Xenon (Xe) 4. BrF5 : Trigonal bipyramidal
3. Helium (He)
4. Neon (Ne)

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
Oct 8527521718

68 Match Column I with Column II and mark the 72 The lanthanoid that does not show +4 oxidation
correct options: state is:
Column I Column II 1. Dysprosium (Dy) 2. Europium (Eu)
(Compounds) (Configurations) 3. Cerium (Ce) 4. Terbium (Tb)
A. TiCl4 1. e3 t32
B. FeO4 2− 2. e2 t02 73 The nitrogen oxide(s) that contain(s) N-N bond(s)
is(are):
C. FeCl4 2− 3. e2 t32
A. N2 O
D. MnCl4 2− 4. e0 t02 B. N2 O3
C. N2 O4
1. A(4), B(2), C(1), D(3) D. N2 O5
2. A(4), B(3), C(2), D(1) 1. A, B, and C 2. B and C
3. A(1), B(2), C(3), D(4) 3. D only 4. A only
4. A(2), B(4), C(3), D(1)
74 Match List-I with List-II:
69 What is the correct electronic configuration of
(List-I) (List-II )
Nd 2+ ? Solid salt treated with dil. Anion
1. [Xe]4f 2 2. [Xe]4f 3 H2 SO4 detected
3. [Xe]4f 4 4. [Xe]4f 5 A. Effervescence of colourless gas I. NO− 2
B. Gas with smell of rotten egg II. CO2−
3
70 What is the correct sequence to arrange the
C. Gas with pungent smell III. S2−
following complexes by increasing conductivity in their
solutions? D. Brown fumes IV. SO2− 3
(i) [Co(NH3 )3 Cl3 ] Choose the correct answer from the options given
below:
(ii) [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ] Cl
1. A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
(iii) [Co(NH3 )6 ] Cl3 2. A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
(iv) [Co(NH3 )5 Cl] Cl2 3. A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
4. A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
1. (i) < (ii) < (iv) < (iii)
2. (ii) < (i) < (iii) < (iv)
3. (i) < (iii) < (ii) < (iv)
75 The complex(es), which can exhibit the type of
4. (iv) < (i) < (ii) < (iii) isomerism shown by [P t(NH3 )2 Br2 ], is (are):
(A) [P t(en)(SCN)2 ]
71 Which of the following electron configurations (B) [Zn(NH3 )2 (SCN)2 ]
corresponds to a halogen element? (C) [P t(NH3 )2 (Cl)4 ]
1. 1s2 1p6 2 s 2p3 2 (D) [Cr(en)2 (H2 O)(SO4 )]+
1. Only (B)
2. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 4s2 3d 10 4p6
2. (B) and (C)
3. 1s2 2s2 2p6 3s2 3p6 3d3 3. (C) and (D)
4. 1s2 2s2 2p5 4. (A) and (D)

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 NEET Level Test - 27- Contact Number: 9667591930 /
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76 Match the compounds (given in Column I) with the 80 What type of isomerism is exhibited by the
oxidation state of Cobalt (given in Column II) and following pairs of complexes?
assign the correct code. (i) [Co(NH3 )5 NO3 ] SO4 and [Co(NH3 )5 SO4 ] NO3
Column II (ii) [Co(en)(H2 O)2 Cl2 ] Cl and [Co(en) (H2 O) Cl3 ] H2 O
Column I
(Oxidation state of
(Compound) 1. (i) Ionisation (ii) Hydrate
Co)
2. (i) Linkage (ii) Hydrate
A. [Co(NCS)(NH3 )5 ] (SO3 ) 1. +4 3. (i) Ionisation (ii) Linkage
B. [Co(NH3 )4 Cl2 ] SO4 2. +2 4. (i) Linkage (ii) Coordination
C. Na4 [Co(S2 O3 )3 ] 3. 0
81 Match the metals (Column I) with the coordination
D. [Co2 (CO)8 ] 4. +3
compound(s)/enzyme(s) (Column II) and mark the
Codes: correct option:
A B C D (Column II)
1. 2 3 4 1 (Column
Coordination
I) Metals
2. 3 1 5 2 compound(s)/enzyme(s)
3. 5 4 3 2 (A) Co (i) Wilkinson catalyst
4. 4 1 2 3 (B) Zn (ii) Chlorophyll
(C) Rh (iii) Vitamin B12
77 Arrange the oxides of vanadium (V₂O₃, V₂O₅, V₂O₄) (D) Mg (iv) Carbonic anhydrase
in order of their basic strength.
1. V2 O3 < V2 O5 < V2 O4 1. (A)-(iii); (B)-(iv); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)
2. V2 O3 < V2 O4 < V2 O5 2. (A)-(i); (B)-(ii); (C)-(iii); (D)-(iv)
3. V2 O3 > V2 O4 > V2 O5 3. (A)-(ii); (B)-(i); (C)-(iv); (D)-(iii)
4. V2 O3 = V2 O5 = V2 O4 4. (A)-(iv); (B)-(iii); (C)-(i); (D)-(ii)

78 Which of the following set of ions act as oxidising 82 Which of the following correctly ranks binary acids,
agents? from strongest to weakest, based on periodic trends and
1. Ce4+ and Tb4+ bond strength?
2. La3+ and Lu3+ 1. H2 Se > H2 O > H2 S
3. Eu2+ and Yb2+ 2. H2 S > H2 Se > H2 O
4. Eu2+ and Tb4+ 3. H2 O > H2 S > H2 Se
4. H2 Se > H2 S > H2 O
79 Which of the following metals is classified as a
coinage metal?
1. Copper (Cu)
2. Tin (Sn)
3. Zinc (Zn)
4. Lead (Pb)

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83 87 Arrange 1st ionization enthalpy of group 13

3+ 2+ elements in increasing order:
Statement I: The reduction potential M /M is (T l, In, Ga, Al)
greater for Fe than Mn.
2+
Statement II: V has a magnetic moment between 4.4 1. T l < In < Ga < Al
– 5.2 B.M.
2. In < Ga < Al < T l
1. Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is correct. 3. In < Al < Ga < T l
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 4. T l < In < Al < Ga
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
88 When potassium permanganate KMnO4 acts as an
4. Statement I is correct and Statement II is incorrect.
oxidizing agent, it eventually forms
2− 2+
MnO4 , MnO2 , Mn2 O3 and Mn . What are the
84 How many atoms are present in one mole of
corresponding number of electrons transferred in each of
CuSO4 ⋅ 5H2 O ?
these cases?
1. 27 NA
1. 1, 3, 4, 5
2. 21 NA 2. 3, 2, 1, 4
3. 5 NA 3. 1, 5, 3, 7
4. 8 NA 4. 4, 3, 2, 1

85 Which transition metal ions are responsible for the 89 The electronegativity of aluminium is similar to:
color of ruby and emerald, respectively? 1. Carbon
2. Beryllium
1. Co3+ and Cr3+
3. Boron
2. Co3+ and Co3+
4. Lithium
3. Cr3+ and Cr3+
4. Cr3+ and Co3+ 3+
90 The octahedral complex of a metal ion M with
four monodentate ligands L1 , L2 , L3 and L4 absorbs
Chemistry - Section B wavelengths in the region of red, green, yellow, and
blue, respectively. The increasing order of ligand
86 Match Column I (oxoacids) with Column strength of the four ligands is:
II (characteristics) and mark the correct option. 1. L4 < L3 < L2 < L1
2. L1 < L3 < L2 < L4
Column I Column II 3. L3 < L2 < L4 < L1
(Oxoacids) (Characteristics) 4. L1 < L2 < L4 < L3
a. Phosphinic acid (i) One P-P bond
b. Phosphonic acid (ii) One P-O-P bond
c. Hypophosphoric acid (iii) One P-OH bond
d. Pyrophosphoric acid (iv) One P-H bond

1. a = (iv), b = (iii), c = (ii), d = (i)

2. a = (iii), b = (iv), c = (ii), d = (i)
3. a = (i), b = (ii), c = (iii), d = (iv)
4. a = (iii), b = (iv), c = (i), d = (ii)

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91 Which of the following graph is the correct 94 Which of the following halides is the least stable
representation between atomic number (Z) and magnetic and has an uncertain existence?
moment of d-block elements? 1. CI4
x
[Outer electronic configuration : (n-1)d ns 1 or 2 ] 2. GeI4
3. SnI4
4. PbI4

1. 2. 95 Which lanthanoid symbol is incorrectly matched

with its atomic number?
1. Cerium(Ce) (Z =58)
2. Promethium(Pm) (Z= 61)
3. Europium(Eu) (Z= 64)
4. Dysprosium(Dy) (Z = 66)

3. 4. 96 Which of the following statements about Potash

alum is incorrect?
The aqueous solution of Potash alum gives a test for
1.
three types of ions.
92 Which of the following order is correct in the 2. The aqueous solution of Potash alum is acidic in
nature.
spectrochemical series of ligands?
The constituent ions of Potash alum retain their
1. Cl− < F− < C2 O2− 4 < NH3 < CN
− 3.
identity in aqueous solution.
2. NH3 < C2 O2− 4 < Cl −
< F −
< CN −
The constituent ions of Potash alum lose their identity
4.
2− − −
3. C2 O4 < F < Cl < NH3 < CN − in aqueous solution.
4. F− < Cl− < NH3 < CN− < C2 O2−
4 97 Identify the incorrect statement regarding ozone:
Pure ozone appears as a pale blue gas, dark blue
93 1.
liquid, and violet-black solid.
Silver atom has completely filled d Ozone is thermodynamically unstable compared to
Statement I: 2.
orbitals (4d10) in its ground state. oxygen.
Statement II: Silver is not a transition element. 3. It functions as a strong oxidizing agent.
The formation of ozone from oxygen is an
4.
1. Statement I is True , Statement II is False. exothermic process.
2. Statement I is False, Statement II is True.
3. Both Statement I and Statement II are True. 98 Among the following, the correct statement(s)
4. Both Statement I and Statement II are False. is(are):
Al(CH3 )3 has three–centre two-electron bonds in its
a.
dimeric structure.
BH3 has three–centre two-electron bonds in its
b.
dimeric structure.
AlCl3 has three–centre two-electron bonds in its
c.
dimeric structure.
The Lewis acidity of BCl3 is greater than that of
d.
AlCl3 .
1. a, b, d
2. b, c
3. d, a
4. None of the above

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99 What is produced when excessive diluted nitric acid 103 The semi-conservative model of DNA replication,
is combined with potassium chromate? experimentally confirmed by Meselson and Stahl,
1. Cr2O72- and H2O utilized the incorporation of a heavy isotope of nitrogen
(15N) to demonstrate that after one round of replication
2. Cr3+ and Cr2O72- in 14N medium, DNA molecules consisted of:
3. CrO42- One completely 15N strand and one completely 14N
1.
strand
4. Cr2O42-
Two hybrid strands, each consisting of half 15N and
2.
half 14N
100 Nickel combines with a uninegative monodentate
2− 3. One hybrid strand and one 15N strand
ligand (X − ) to form a paramagnetic complex [NiX4 ] . 4. One hybrid strand and one completely 14N strand
The hybridisation involved and number of unpaired
electrons present in the complex are respectively:
104 What was Charles Darwin's conclusion based on
1. sp3 , two 2. dsp2 , zero
his observations during the voyage on H.M.S. Beagle?
3. dsp2 , one 4. sp3 , one Life forms were created at different times but never
1.
became extinct.
Biology I - Section A 2.
Evolution is driven by a divine process of creation at
different periods in Earth's history.
101 Consider the given two statements: The Earth is only 4000 years old, and all species
3.
Assertion Mendel's law of independent assortment existed from the beginning without changes.
(A): holds true for all genes in an organism. Existing living forms share similarities with life
Genes located on the same chromosome 4. forms that existed millions of years ago, and there
Reason have been extinctions and evolutions over time.
exhibit linkage and do not assort
(R):
independently.
105 The synthesis of DNA is discontinuous on one
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct strand of the replication fork because:
1.
explanation of (A). 1. DNA molecule being synthesised is very long
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct DNA-dependent DNA polymerase catalyse
2. 2.
explanation of (A). polymerisation only in one direction (5′ → 3′ )
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 3. It is a more efficient process
4. (A) is False but (R) is True. 4. It help to use DNA ligase

102 The frequency of recombination between two 106 Consider the given two statements:
genes is: Co-dominance occurs when both alleles are
Inversely proportional to the distance between them Statement
1. equally expressed in a heterozygote,
on the chromosome I:
without blending.
Directly proportional to the distance between them on In co-dominance, the F1 progeny express a
2. Statement
the chromosome phenotype that is intermediate between the
3. Independent of their location on the chromosome II:
two parental phenotypes.
4. Always equal to 50% 1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.

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107 Which of the following is not true regarding the 112 A section of double­stranded DNA is composed of
transcription unit? 32% adenine bases. What is the percentage of cytosine
The coding strand serves as a template for RNA bases in the section of DNA?
1. 1. 9%
synthesis.
The promoter is located upstream of the structural 2. 18%
2. 3. 36%
gene.
4. 64%
3. The template strand has a polarity of 3'→5'.
4. The terminator defines the end of transcription. 113 Which gases were primarily present in the
atmosphere of early Earth [according to Alexander I.
108 The signal to start translation is the initiator codon, Oparin] before the formation of the ozone layer?
usually AUG, the codon for 1. Oxygen, Nitrogen, and Argon
1. tyrosine 2. Water vapor, Methane, Hydrogen, and Ammonia
2. methionine 3. Nitrogen, Helium, and Hydrogen
3. leucine 4. Hydrogen, Oxygen, Nitrogen, and Ozone
4. no amino acid
114 If a cross is made between homozygous tall plant
109 Oparin and Haldane proposed that: with yellow seeds (TTYY) and dwarf plant with yellow
First form of life could have come from pre-existing seeds (ttYy). What proportions of tall and yellow seeded
I:
non-living organic molecules. offsprings could be expected in resulting generation?
Formation of life was preceded by chemical 1. 54%
II:
evolution. 2. 100%
1. Only I is correct 3. 50%
2. Only II is correct 4. 6.25%
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect 115 Conditions of a karyotype 2n +1, 2n –1 and 2n + 2,
2n – 2 are called:
110 Distance between the genes and percentage of 1. Aneuploidy
recombination shows: 2. Polyploidy
1. a direct relationship 3. Allopolyploidy
2. an inverse relationship 4. Monosomy
3. a parallel relationship
4. no relationship 116 Darwin’s idea of natural selection refers to:
The idea that species are created by divine forces at
111 All three major cellular RNAs are needed to 1. different periods.
synthesise a protein in a cell where: The notion that evolution is predetermined and does
2.
I: mRNA provides the template not depend on environmental changes.
tRNA brings amino acids and reads the genetic The process where individuals with traits better
II:
code 3. suited to their environment are more likely to survive
rRNAs play structural and catalytic role during and reproduce.
III:
translation The theory that Earth’s biological history is unrelated
4.
1. Only I is correct to its geological history.
2. Only I and III are correct
3. Only II and III are correct 117 A segment of DNA coding for a polypeptide is
4. I, II and III are correct a/an:
1. Recon
2. Exon
3. Cistron
4. Intron

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118 In split genes, the coding sequences are called? 121 Genetic mapping based on recombination studies
1. introns helps in:
2. exons Identifying physical locations of genes on a
3. cistrons 1.
chromosome.
4. operons 2. Predicting possible traits in the offspring.
Estimating distances between genes based on the
119 Match the following terms with their descriptions 3. frequency of recombination.
based on Mendel's experiments: Determining the exact sequence of nucleotides in a
Column I Column II 4.
gene.
States that alleles
A. Law of Segregation P. segregate randomly 122 The correct chronological order of geologic eras,
during gamete formation
starting with the oldest, is
Crossing involving 1. Paleozoic, Cenozoic, Mesozoic
Law of Independent
B. Q. individuals differing in 2. Mesozoic, Cenozoic, Paleozoic
Assortment
only one trait 3. Mesozoic, Paleozoic, Cenozoic
Crossing involving 4. Paleozoic, Mesozoic, Cenozoic
C. Monohybrid Cross R. individuals differing in
two traits 123 Excessive use of pesticides and herbicides leading
States that alleles of to resistant varieties is an example of:
different genes assort Evolution driven by anthropogenic action, resulting
D. Dihybrid Cross S. 1.
independently during in selection of resistant traits.
gamete formation
2. Natural selection favoring weaker organisms.
A deterministic process of evolution with predictable
Codes: 3.
outcomes.
A B C D
4. Stasis in population genetics over long time scales.
1. P Q R S
2. Q P R S 124 In the process of DNA replication, which enzyme
3. P S Q R is responsible for joining the Okazaki fragments on the
4. Q P S R lagging strand?
1. DNA polymerase
120 Consider the given two statements: 2. Helicase
The Law of Segregation ensures that each 3. Primase
Statement
gamete carries only one allele for a given 4. DNA ligase
I:
gene, even in cases of co-dominance.
In a monohybrid cross between a homozygous tall
The Law of Independent Assortment 125
Statement explains that genes for different traits (TT) and a homozygous dwarf (tt) pea plant, what would
II: segregate together when they are located on be the genotypic ratio in the F2 generation?
the same chromosome. 1. 3:1
1. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct. 2. 1:1
2. Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect. 3. 9:3:3:1
3. Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect. 4. 1:2:1
4. Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
126 Which of the following is not a level at which gene
expression can be regulated in eukaryotes?
1. Transcriptional level
2. mRNA transport from the nucleus to the cytoplasm
3. Regulation of DNA replication
4. Translational level

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127 Which of the following terms describes an 132 Evolution of different species in a given area
individual having two identical alleles for a trait? starting from a point and spreading to other geographical
1. Hemizygous areas is known as:
2. Homozygous 1. Adaptive radiation
3. Heterozygous 2. Natural selection
4. Hybrid 3. Migration
4. Divergent evolution
128 Mendel used statistical analysis in his experiments.
Which of the following allowed him to propose general 133 Which of the following events occurs during the
laws of inheritance from his results? capping of eukaryotic mRNA?
His use of large sample sizes and the application of 1. Addition of adenylate residues at the 3' end
1.
mathematical logic to explain patterns of inheritance. Addition of a methyl guanosine triphosphate at the 5'
2.
His focus on studying a large variety of traits end
2.
simultaneously. 3. Removal of introns and joining of exons
The use of molecular techniques to identify the 4. Removal of the 5' end and addition of uracil
3.
genetic material.
His use of Punnett squares to predict exact outcomes 134 Which of the following is a key feature of the
4.
in every generation. DNA double helix as proposed by Watson and Crick?
The diameter of the helix is variable throughout its
129 The insertion or deletion of a base pair into the 1. length.
genetic code will cause a frameshift mutation unless the 2. The base pairs are linked by covalent bonds.
number of base pairs inserted or deleted is
Purines pair with purines, and pyrimidines pair with
1. just one 3.
pyrimidines.
2. two
3. three 4. The two chains run in an anti-parallel direction.
4. ten
135 Read the following statements and choose the set
130 In the Southern blot hybridisation method used for of correct statements:
DNA fingerprinting, which of the following occurs (a) Euchromatin is loosely packed chromatin.
during hybridisation? (b) Heterochromatin is transcriptionally active.
1. DNA fragments are separated by electrophoresis. Histone octomer is wrapped by negatively charged
(c)
A labelled VNTR probe binds to complementary DNA in nucleosome.
2.
DNA sequences on a membrane. (d) Histones are rich in lysine and arginine.
DNA fragments are transferred to synthetic A typical nucleosome contains 400 bp of DNA
3. (e)
membranes. helix.
Restriction endonucleases digest the DNA into Choose the correct answer from the options given
4.
fragments. below:
1. (a), (c), (e) only
131 Which of the following molecules carries an amino 2. (b), (d), (e) only
acid to the ribosome? 3. (a), (c), (d) only
1. mRNA 4. (b), (e) only
2. rRNA
3. tRNA
4. hnRNA

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Biology I - Section B 141 Consider the given two statements:

Mendel selected true breeding plants as
Assertion
136 For artificial hybridisation experiment in bisexual (A):
parentals in his artificial hybridisation
flower, which of the sequences is correct? experiments.
Bagging → Emasculation → Cross pollination → A true-breeding line is one that, having
1. Reason undergone continuous self-pollination,
Rebagging
(R): shows the stable trait inheritance and
Emasculation → Bagging → Cross pollination →
2. expression for several generations.
Rebagging
Cross pollination → Bagging → Emasculation →
3. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Rebagging 1.
explanation of (A).
Self-pollination → Bagging → Emasculation →
4. Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
Rebagging 2.
explanation of (A).
137 Why is it hypothesized that an "RNA world" 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
existed? 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
RNA can store genetic information and catalyze
1.
chemical reactions. 142 A plant has the genotype AaBbCc. How many
2. RNA is more stable and versatile than DNA. different types of gametes can this plant produce?
3. RNA can replicate more quickly than DNA. 1. 4 2. 6
4. RNA forms the structural components of ribosomes. 3. 8 4. 16

How many types of gametes can be produced in a

138 What would be true for both ‘incomplete 143
dominance’ and ‘co-dominance’? diploid organism which is heterozygous for 4 loci?
1. 4
1. F1 progeny resemble neither of the parents. 2. 8
2. F2 progeny resembles both parents. 3. 16
4. 32
3. F2 phenotypic and genotypic ratios are identical.
Segregation of alleles does not take place at the time 144 During post transcriptional modification of
4.
of gamete formation.
hnRNA, the introns are removed by a complex
substance. This complex has:
139 Consider the given two statements: 1. RNA and Protein
The genetic code is degenerate, meaning 2. DNA and RNA
Statement
that multiple codons can code for the same 3. Ribozyme and protein
I:
amino acid. 4. RNA polymerase and DNA polymerase
This redundancy in the genetic code
Statement 145 After being grown in 15N environment and after
minimizes the effects of mutations on the
II:
resulting protein. one round of DNA replication in a medium containing
the heavier isotope of nitrogen - 15N, what will be the
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
observed distribution of DNA molecules?
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 1. All heavy DNA
2. All light DNA
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct
3. Equal amounts of heavy and light DNA
140 The sequence of a DNA strand is 3'TTCGCATG 5'. 4. Mostly heavy DNA but a few light DNA
The sequence of the complementary strand will be
1. 5'AAGCGTAC 3'
2. 5'CATGCGAA 3'
3. 5'CATGCGAA 3'
4. 3'CATGCGAA 5'

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146 Which of the following accurately describes the Biology II - Section A

function of peptidyl transferase during translation?
1.
Peptidyl transferase catalyzes the attachment of 151 Phenylketonuria (PKU) is a metabolic disorder
amino acids to tRNA. caused by the mutation of a gene coding for the enzyme
Peptidyl transferase binds the stop codon to terminate that converts phenylalanine into:
2.
translation. 1. Tyrosine 2. Glycine
Peptidyl transferase initiates the binding of the 3. Cysteine 4. Valine
3.
ribosome to the mRNA.
Peptidyl transferase is responsible for forming 152 A and B are the two key concepts of
4. peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids in the
Darwinian theory of evolution.
growing polypeptide chain.
Identify A and B and select the correct option.
A B
147 Identify the correctly matched pairs:
1. Branching descent - Mutation
Fragments of mRNA sequences
2. Natural selection - Saltation
Expressed derived through single sequencing
A: 3. Natural selection - Branching descent
Sequence Tags reactions performed on randomly
selected clones from cDNA libraries. 4. Founder effect - Saltation
The process of marking specific
features in a DNA, RNA, or protein 153 Which of the following statements correctly
Sequence
B: sequence with descriptive distinguish Sickle-cell anaemia from Thalassemia?
Annotations
information about structure or Both disorders are autosomal recessive, but sickle-
function. cell anaemia is caused by a qualitative defect in the β-
1.
globin chain, while thalassemia is a quantitative
1. Only A 2. Only B defect in globin chain synthesis.
3. Both A and B 4. Neither A nor B Sickle-cell anaemia is an X-linked recessive disorder,
2.
whereas thalassemia is autosomal recessive.
148 Regarding the components of an operon, an In thalassemia, the RBCs assume a sickle shape,
operator is: 3. while in sickle-cell anaemia, there is reduced
1. another name for the terminator of a gene production of hemoglobin.
2. a DNA site bound by repressor proteins Both disorders result in abnormal hemoglobin
4.
synthesis due to mutations in the α-globin chain.
3. a protein that coordinates gene expression
4. binding site for the RNA polymerase 154 In a population of 1,000 individuals, 360
individuals exhibit the homozygous recessive phenotype
149 Which of the following is a reason why certain (aa). Using the Hardy-Weinberg equation, what is the
traits do not follow Mendel’s Law of Independent frequency of the dominant allele (A) in the population?
Assortment? 1. 0.36
1. The genes are linked on the same chromosome. 2. 0.60
2. It applies only to eukaryotes. 3. 0.40
3. Certain traits are not completely dominant. 4. 0.48
4. Heterozygotes have both alleles.

150 Gene and cistron words are sometimes used

synonymously because:
1. One cistron contains many genes
2. One gene contains many cistrons
3. One gene contains one cistron
4. One gene contains no cistron

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155 Which of the following best describes the finches 159 The lac operon is called an inducible operon
of the Galápagos Islands in the context of adaptive because:
radiation? It is always active, regardless of the presence or
1.
1. They are an example of convergent evolution. absence of lactose.
They exhibit variations in beak size and shape due to 2. It is repressed in the presence of lactose.
2.
adaptation to different food sources. It is activated only in the presence of lactose, which
3.
3. They all have the same diet and habitat. induces the transcription of the operon.
They evolved into similar forms as a result of similar 4. It requires glucose to be activated.
4.
environmental pressures.
160 Which of the following statements regarding the
156 Which of the following correctly describes the disappearance of dinosaurs around 65 million years ago
difference between Darwin’s theory of evolution and is correct?
Hugo de Vries’ theory of mutation? It is universally agreed that climatic changes were the
1.
Darwin's theory suggests gradual accumulation of sole cause.
1. small variations, while de Vries' theory suggests that There is no fossil evidence suggesting that some
mutations cause large, sudden changes. 2.
dinosaurs evolved into birds.
Darwin's theory implies mutations are random, while The exact cause of their disappearance is still
2. de Vries believed in directional variation through 3. debated.
mutation. They were replaced by early amphibians due to
Both Darwin and de Vries believed that mutations 4. competition for resources.
3.
were the primary cause of evolution.
Darwin and de Vries both emphasized that minor, 161 Reptilian ancestors of mammals were the
4.
heritable variations led to speciation.
1. therapsids 2. thecodonts
What was the main conclusion of the Avery, 3. pterosaurs 4. plesiosaurs
157
MacLeod, and McCarty experiment?
162 Consider the given two statements:
1. Proteins are responsible for genetic transformation.
Assertion In humans, the sex of the offspring is
DNA is the hereditary material responsible for
2. (A): determined by the sperm from the father.
transformation.
Reason The Y chromosome in the sperm
3. RNA is the hereditary material.
(R): determines the male sex of the offspring.
4. Carbohydrates cause the transformation in bacteria.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
158 Karl Ernst von Baer’s study on embryology 1. explanation of (A).
contradicted Ernst Haeckel's idea by showing that: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
Embryos do not pass through the adult stages of other 2.
1. explanation of (A).
animals. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
The embryos of all vertebrates have gill slits that 4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
2.
function in adulthood.
3. Fish gill slits are functional in all adult vertebrates.
Embryological development provides no support for
4.
evolution.

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163 Consider the given two statements: 167 In the Hershey-Chase experiment, protein was
Assertion The lac operon is an example of a labeled with which radioactive element?
(A): polycistronic operon. 1. Radioactive sulfur (S-35)
It has multiple structural genes (z, y, and a) 2. Radioactive phosphorus (P-32)
Reason 3. Radioactive carbon (C-14)
that are transcribed together into a single
(R): 4. Radioactive hydrogen (H-3)
mRNA, which codes for multiple proteins.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
168 Klinefelter’s syndrome results from which
1. chromosomal abnormality?
explanation of (A).
1. XXY karyotype
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2. 2. XO karyotype
explanation of (A).
3. XYY karyotype
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. Trisomy 21
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
169 What is the role of 23S rRNA in prokaryotic
164 Match the following organisms with their sex ribosomes?
determination mechanism: 1. Protein coding
Column I Column II 2. Enzyme activity as a ribozyme
A. Humans 1. XO-XX 3. mRNA translation
B. Drosophila 2. ZW-ZZ 4. Structural support
C. Birds 3. XY-XX
170 Which of the following is not a typical feature of
D. Grasshopper 4. Genic balance
Down’s syndrome?
1. A-3, B-1, C-2, D-4 1. Short stature and a small round head
2. A-3, B-4, C-2, D-1 2. Development of gynecomastia in males
3. A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3 3. Mental retardation
4. A-4, B-2, C-3, D-1 4. Broad palm with characteristic palm crease
165 What is the function of the σ factor in bacterial 171 A normal woman, whose father had colour
transcription? blindness, married a normal man. What is the chance of
1. It helps terminate transcription. occurrence of colour blindness in the progeny?
It facilitates the initiation of transcription by binding 1. 25% 2. 50%
2.
to the promoter. 3. 100% 4. 75%
3. It catalyzes the elongation of the RNA transcript.
4. It removes introns from the primary transcript. 172 What would be the consequence of a mutation in
the i gene of the lac operon that renders the repressor
166 The process of adaptive radiation in Australian protein non-functional?
marsupials resulted in: The operon would be permanently repressed,
1.
A single marsupial species adapting to multiple regardless of the presence of lactose.
1.
habitats without speciation. The operon would be permanently expressed,
2.
Several distinct species evolving from a common regardless of the presence of lactose.
2. marsupial ancestor to occupy different ecological The operon would no longer respond to glucose
niches. 3.
levels.
The migration of marsupials from Australia to other The permease enzyme would be produced, but not
3. 4.
continents, leading to species diversity. beta-galactosidase.​​
Genetic mutations that led to extinction of most
4.
marsupial species.

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173 The mode of inheritance of the Mendelian disorder 177 What is the role of Variable Number Tandem
shown in the given pedigree chart is most likely: Repeats (VNTRs) in genetic studies?
They are used to identify active sites of restriction
1.
enzymes within the genome.
VNTRs serve as molecular clocks to estimate the
2.
time of species divergence.
They are essential for the replication of viral RNA
3.
into the host genome.
VNTRs are used in DNA fingerprinting to identify
4.
genetic variability among individuals.

178 Regarding Hershey and Chase experiment:

1. Autosomal recessive 2. Autosomal dominant Statement Bacteria which were infected with viruses
3. Sex-linked recessive 4. Sex-linked dominant I: that had radioactive DNA were radioactive.
Statement DNA was the material that passed from the
174 Alfred Wallace independently came to similar II: virus to the bacteria.
conclusions as Darwin regarding evolution. His
observations and work were based on his studies in: 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
1. The Galápagos Islands
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect
2. The Amazon Rainforest
3. The Mediterranean region 3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct
4. The Malay Archipelago 4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct

175 What was one of the main challenges of the 179 Which of the following DNA sequences is
Human Genome Project that required the development primarily used for DNA fingerprinting?
of bioinformatics tools? 1. Coding sequences
1. The large number of polymorphisms in the genome. 2. Exons
2. The sequencing of complex RNA molecules. 3. Repetitive DNA
4. tRNA sequences
The enormous amount of data storage and retrieval
3.
for the DNA sequences.
180 Consider the given two statements:
4. The inability to isolate DNA from eukaryotic cells.
Assertion Fossils provide important evidence for
(A): evolution.
176 Consider the given two statements:
Reason Fossils provide direct records of past life
Assertion In prokaryotic cells, transcription and (R): forms and their gradual change over time.
(A): translation can occur simultaneously.
Prokaryotes have a nuclear membrane that Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
Reason 1.
separates the processes of transcription and explanation of (A).
(R):
translation.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
1. 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
explanation of (A).
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct
2.
explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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181 The mutation responsible for sickle-cell anaemia Biology II - Section B

involves:
1.
A point mutation leading to the substitution of one 186 In polygenic inheritance, the skin color of humans
amino acid is determined by three genes (A, B, C), where each
2. The deletion of an entire gene dominant allele contributes additively to the trait. If two
3. A frame-shift mutation individuals with genotypes AaBbCc and AaBbCc are
4. A large chromosomal deletion crossed, what is the probability that their offspring will
have the darkest skin color (AABBCC)?
182 Consider the given two statements: 1. 1/4
2. 1/8
Dryopithecus was more man-like, and Ramapithecus 3. 1/64
I:
was more ape-like. 4. 1/16
Homo habilis probably did not eat meat, while
II:
Homo erectus probably ate meat. 187 Appearence of dark-coloured pepper moths among
the light-coloured ones as a result of increased industrial
1. Only I is correct. pollution is an example of
2. Only II is correct. 1. Disruptive selection
3. Both I and II are correct. 2. Stabilizing selection
4. Both I and II are incorrect. 3. Directional selection
4. None of the above
183 The average gene in the human genome consists of
188 Retroviruses violate the Central Dogma because
how many base pairs?
they store their genetic material as RNA, which is
1. 1000 bases 2. 3000 bases 1.
reverse-transcribed to DNA
3. 10,000 bases 4. 500 bases
they do not contain hereditary material but use the
2.
host DNA instead
184 Identify the incorrect statement.
retroviruses do not use the same codon sequences that
The Human Genome Project revealed that the human 3.
1. living organisms do
genome contains 3164.7 million base pairs. retroviruses do not require transcription to make
One of the unexpected findings of the Human 4.
proteins
2. Genome Project was the high amount of non-coding
DNA in the human genome. 189 The flippers of the Penguins and Dolphins are the
The Human Genome Project was completed within example of:
3.
five years of its inception. 1. Natural selection
The Human Genome Project's findings are used to 2. Convergent evolution
4. understand genetic predispositions to various 3. Divergent evolution
diseases. 4. Adaptive radiation

185 Morgan observed that the genes for yellow body

and white eyes in Drosophila were very tightly linked.
The recombination frequency between these genes was:
1. 50%
2. 37.2%
3. 1.3%
4. 100%

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190 Consider the given two statements: 194 In evolutionary terms, variations due to mutations
The pattern of inheritance of Mendelian are:
Assertion(A): disorders can be traced in a family by the 1. random and directionless
pedigree analysis. 2. random and directional
Mendelian disorders are mainly 3. small and directional
Reason(R): determined by alteration or mutation in a 4. random, small and directional
single gene with complete dominance.
195 The evolution of lobefins into amphibians marks
1. (A) is False but (R) is True. an important transition in the evolutionary history of
vertebrates. What was a significant characteristic of
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the correct
2. lobefins that allowed them to evolve into amphibians?
explanation of (A).
1. The development of a stronger circulatory system
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the correct 2. The ability to reproduce on land
3.
explanation of (A). 3. Stout and strong fins capable of movement on land
4. (A) is True but (R) is False. 4. The evolution of lungs for breathing air

191 In prokaryotic transcription, the sigma factor is 196 T. H. Morgan was the first geneticist to:
responsible for recognizing the promoter region. Once 1. associate a specific gene with a specific chromosome
the transcription process is initiated, the sigma factor: 2. explain the correct nature of the unit of inheritance
Remains bound to RNA polymerase throughout associate a metabolic block with inborn errors of
1. 3.
transcription metabolism
Dissociates from RNA polymerase after promoter propose that a gene is responsible for making a
2. 4.
recognition protein
3. Increases the elongation rate of transcription
4. Acts as a termination signal for transcription 197 If a trait is autosomal recessive, what is the
probability that two heterozygous parents (Aa x Aa) will
192 Consider the given two statements: have an unaffected child?
Down syndrome or Down's syndrome, also known 1. 25%
as trisomy 21, is a genetic disorder caused by the 2. 50%
I:
presence of all or part of a third copy of 3. 75%
chromosome 21. 4. 100%
The parents of the affected individual are usually
II: 198 As per ABO blood grouping system, the blood
genetically normal.
1. Only I is correct group of father is B+ , mother is A+ and child is O+ .
2. Only II is correct Their respective genotype can be
3. Both I and II are correct A. IB i/IA i/ii
4. Both I and II are incorrect B. IB IB /IA IA /ii
193 Consider the given two statements: C. IA IB /iIA /IB i
Multiple allelism refers to a situation D. IA i/IB i/IA i
Statement I: where there are more than two alleles at a E. iIB /iIA /IA IB
specific locus within a population. Choose the most appropriate answer from the options
The presence of multiple alleles means given below:
Statement II: that an individual can have more than 1. B only
two alleles for a specific gene. 2. C & B only
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is correct 3. D & E only
2. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is correct 4. A only
3. Statement I is correct; Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is incorrect

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199 In a population, a gene with three alleles shows

multiple allelism. How many possible genotypes can
exist in the population, assuming the alleles are A1, A2,
and A3?
1. 3
2. 6
3. 9
4. 12

200 Directional natural selection is characterized by:

Favoring the survival of individuals with extreme
1.
values of a trait.
2. Eliminating individuals with average values of a trait.
3. Increasing the genetic diversity of a population.
Reducing the genetic diversity by favoring an
4.
intermediate form of a trait.

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