Biological Classification

Topic -1 (Classification)
1. In the five-kingdom classification, chlamydomonas and Chlorella have been included in:
(1) Plantae (2) Monera (3) Protista (4) Algae (AIPMT 2012)
2. Which one single organism or the pair of organisms is correctly assigned to its or their named taxonomic
group? (AIPMT 2012)
(1) Yeast used in making bread and beer is a fungus
(2) Nostoc and Anabaena are examples of protista
(3) Paramecium and Plasmodium belong to the same kingdom as that of Penicillium
(4) Lichen is a composite organism formed from the symbiotic association of an algae and a protozoan
3. Five kingdom classification was given by (UP CPMT 2011)
(1) Huxley (2) Hooker (3) Whittaker (4) Linnaeus
4. Match the following columns and choose the correct combination from the given option.
Column II Column I
(Kingdom) (Class)
A. Plantae P. Archaebacteria
B. Fungi Q. Euglenoids
C. Protista R. Phycomycetes
D. Monera S. Algae
A B C D
(1) S R Q P
(2) R S Q P
(3) S Q R P
(4) Q R S P (Kerala CEE 2011)
5. Who proposed five kingdom classification and named kingdoms as Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and
Animalia ? (AFMC 2009)
(1) Herbert Copeland (2) R H Whittaker
(3) Carl Woese (4) Carolus Linnaeus
6. In five kingdom system of classification of R H Whittaker, how many kingdoms contain eukaryotes ?
(1) Four Kingdoms (2) One Kingdoms (AMU 2009)
(3) Two Kingdoms (4) Three Kingdoms
7. In Whittaker’s system of classification prokaryotes are placed in the kingdom (J&K CET 2008)
(1) Protista (2) Monera (3) Plantae (4) Amimalia
8. Two kingdoms constantly figured in all biological classification are (J&K CET 2008)
(1) Plantae and Animalia (2) Monera and Animalia
(3) Protista and Animalia (4) Protista and Plantae
Topic -2 (Kingdom - Monera)
1. Maximum nutritional diversity is found in the group: (AIPMT 2012)
(1) Monera (2) Plantae (3) Fungi (4) Animalia

2. Nuclear membrane is absent in (AIPMT 2012)

(1) Volvox (2) Nostoc (3) Penicillium (4) Agaricus

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 Biological Classification

3. The cyanobacteria are also referred to as (AIPMT 2012)

(1) Slime moulds (2) Blue green algae (3) Protists (4) Golden algae
4. Bacteria differ from plants in that they do not have (UP CPMT 2011)
(1) DNA (2) RNA
(3) Cell Wall (4) A well define nucleus
5. Teichoic acid is present in (UP CPMT 2011)
(1) Cell wall of Gram positive bacteria (2) Cell wall of Gram negative bacteria
(3) Capsid of virus (4) Protaplasm of mycoplasma
6. A peculiar odour than prevails in marshy areas and cow-sheds is on account of a gas produced by
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Archaebacteria
(3) Slime moulds (4) Cyanobacteria (DUMET 2011)
7. Spirochaetes is/are (DUMET 2011)
(1) A class of insects (2) A class of viruses
(3) Bacteria (4) Fungi
8. Which of the following is a Gram negative bacterium ? (DUMET 2011)
(1) Escherichia coli (2) Bacillus subtillis
(3) Streptomyces coelicolor (4) Ampycolatopsis orientalis
9. The main difference betweeen Gram positive and Gram negative bacteria is (WB JEE 2011)
(1) Cell membrane (2) Cell wall
(3) Ribosome (4) Mitochondria
10. According to five kingdom classification bacteria belong to (J&K CET 2011)
(1) Protista (2) Monera (3) Plantae (4) Archaea
11. Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH 2) habitats belong to the two groups
(CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(1) Eubacteria and archaea (2) Cyanobacteria and diatoms
(3) Protists and mosses (4) Liverworts and yeasts
12. Membrane-bound organelles are absent in (CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(1) Saccharomyces (2) Streptococcus
(3) Chlamydomonas (4) Plasmodium
13. Which one is the free-living, anaerobic nitrogen-fixer? (CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(1) Beijernickia (2) Rhodospirillum (3) Rhizobium (4) Azotobacter
14. The common nitrogen-fixer in paddy fields is (CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(1) Rhizobium (2) Azospirillum (3) Oscillatoria (4) Frankia
15. Specialized cells called heterocysts are present in (Kerala CEE 2010)
(1) Dinoflagellates (2) Chrysophytes
(3) Euglenoids (4) Cyanobacteria (5) Archaebacteria
16. Phage genome site on bacterial chromosome resulted in the structure (OJEE 2010)
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Heterocyst
(3) Prophage (4) None of these
17. Which of the following bacteria fixes nitrogen without any plant association? (OJEE 2010)
(1) Rhizobium (2) Nostoc (3) Anabaena (4) Azotobacter
18. Which of the following is a bacterial disease? (OJEE 2010)
(1) Rust of wheat (2) Potato leaf roll
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 Biological Classification

(3) Sugarcane mosaic (4) Brown rot of potato

19. Bacteria that fix CO2 by using chemical energy as source, are (OJEE 2010)

(1) Pholoautotrophs (2) Photoheterotrophs

(3) Chemoautotrophs (4) Chemoheterotrophs
20. Which of the following is a symbiotic nitrogen fixer? (CBSE AIPMT 2009)
(1) Glomus (2) Azotobacter (3) Frankia (4) Azolla
21. Certain bacteria living in the soil poor in oxygen, convert nitrates into nitrites and then to free nitrogen and
such bacteria are termed as (AFMC 2009)
(1) Nitrogen fixing bacteria (2) Denitrifying bacteria
(3) Ammonifying bacteria (4) Saprophytic bacteria
22. Pasteurization temperature is (UPCPMT 2009)
(1) 72°C for 20 minutes (2) 63 °C for 15 seconds
(3) 67°C for 15 seconds (4) 65°C for 30 minutes
23. Plasmids are mostly found in (UP CPMT 2009)
(1) Virus (2) Bacteria (3) Fungi (4) Viroid
24. Cosmid is (UP CPMT 2009)
(1) Extragenetic material in mycoplasma
(2) Circular DNA in bacteria
(3) Extra DNA in bacteria
(4) Fragment of DNA inserted in bacteria for forming copies
25. Select incorrect pair (BHU 2009)
(1) Porifera — choanocytes
(2) Coelenterata — eukaryote
(3) Annelida — segmentation
(4) Moncra — eukaryote
26. Highest number of antibiotics are produced by (BHU 2009)
(1) Bacillus (2) Penicillium (3) Streptomyces (4) Cephalosporum
27. Bacterial blight of rice is caused due to (AMU 2009)
(1) Xanthomonas oryzae (2) Helminthosporium oryzae
(3) Pseudomonas falcatum (4) Xanthomonas falcatum
28. Bacterium which reduces nitrates in soil to nitrogen is (AMU 2009)
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Pseudomonas
(3) Rhizobium (4) Clostridium
29. Which of the following is a free living nitrogen fixing bacterium present in the soil?
(DUMET 2009)
(1) Nitrosomonas (2) Rhizobium (3) Azotobacter (4) Pseudomonas
30. An example for symbiotic bacteria (DUMET 2009)
(1) Erwinia amylovora (2) Rhizobium leguminosarum
(3) Xanthomonas campestris (4) Agrobacterium tumefaciens
31. Heating milk at 65°C followed by sudden cooling is known as (DUMET 2009)
(1) Sterilization (2) Preservation (3) Pasteurization (4) Fermentation

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 Biological Classification

32. Identify the correct pair of events when temperate phages infect bacteria.
I. No prophages arc formed.
II. Bacterial cell undergoes many divisions.
III. Bacterial cell undergoes immediate lysis.
IV. Prophages are formed. (EAMCET 2009)
The correct pair is
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) II and IV
33. Study the following columns. (EAMCET 2009)
Column I Column II
A. Pasteurella pestis P. Angular leaf spot of cotton
B. Treponema pallidum Q. Amphoterican
C. Mycobacterium bovis R. Actinomycosis of cattle
D. Streptomyces nodulus S. Syphilis
T. Plague
A B C D
(1) S P Q R
(2) Q R S T
(3) T S R Q
(4) R Q P S
34. A bacterium is capable of withstanding extreme heat, dryness and toxic chemicals. This indicates that it
is probably above to form (Manipal 2009)
(1) A thick peptidoglycan wall (2) Endospores
(3) Endotoxins (4) Endogenous buds
35. A free living nitrogen fixing cyanobacterium which can also form symbiotic association with the water fern
Azolla is (JCECE 2009)
(1) Tolypothrix (2) Chlorella (3) Nostoc (4) Anabaena
36. The autonomously independent self replicating extra nuclear DNA imparting certain factors to some
bacterium is called (J&K CET 2009)
(1) Plastid (2) Plasmid (3) Phagemid (4) Cosmid
37. In microbial genetics, which one is referred to as Griffith effect? (J&K CET 2009)
(1) Conjugation (2) Transduction (3) Transformation (4) Sexduction
38. The kingdom of prokaryotes is (J&K CET 2009)
(1) Protista (2) Monera (3) Fungi (4) Plantae
39. In the light of recent classification of living organisms into three domains of life (bacteria, archaea and
eukarya), which one of the following statement is true about archaea?
(1) Archaea resemble eukarya in all respects (CBSE AIPMT 2008)
(2) Archaea have some noble features that are absent in other prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(3) Archaea completely differ from both prokaryotes and eukaryotes
(4) Archaea completely differ from prokaryotes
40. Thermococcus, Methanococcus and Methanobacterium exemplify (CBSE AIPMT 2008)
(1) Archaebacteria that contain protein homologous to eukaryotic core histones
(2) Archaebacteria that lack any histones resembling those found in eukaryotes but whose DNA is
negatively supercoilcd

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 Biological Classification

(3) Bacteria whose DNA is relaxed or positively supercoiled but, which have a cytoskeleton as well as
mitochondria
(4) Bacteria that contain a cytoskeleton and ribosomes
41. A bacterium divides after every 35 min, if a culture containing 105 cells per mL is grown, then cell
concentration per mL after 175 min will be (UP CPMT 2008)
(1) 175 × 105 (2) 125 × 105 (3) 48 × 105 (4) 32 × 105
42. Which is correct for the structure of cell wall of bacteria and fungi? (Punjab PMET 2008)
(1) Both are made up of cellulose
(2) Both have mucopeptide
(3) Both are made up of N-acetylglucosamine
(4) None of the above
43. Which one of the following does not belong to kingdom-Monera? (DUMET 2008)
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Archaebacteria (3) Slime mould (4) Eubacteria
44. Which of the following is not characteristic of Gram positive bacteria? (Kerala CEE 2008)
(1) Cell wall is smooth (2) Mesosomes arc distinctive prominent
(3) Basal body of flagellum contains two rings (4) Murein content of cell wall is 70-80%
(5) None of these
45. Assign the following substances to the cell wall, flagella, 'S' layer and pilli of bacteria in correct
sequence.
I. Glycoprotein II. Fimbrilin III. Teichoic acid IV. Flagellin
The correct sequence is (EAMCET 2008)
(1) III, I, IV, II (2) III, IV, I, II (3) II, IV, III, I (4) III, IV, II, I
46. Which of the following groups of organisms are ecologically similar? (EAMCET 2008)
(1) Producer protists and consumer protists (2) Monerans and producer protists
(3) Consumer protists and fungi (4) Monerans and fungi
47. Free living, aerobic, non-photosynthetic, nitrogen fixing bacterium is (MHT CET 2008)
(1) Azotobacter (2) E. coli (3) Nostoc (4) Salmonella
48. Genophore term was coined by Hans R is for (Haryana PMT 2008)
(1) Genetic material of virus (2) Stack on which spore originated
(3) Bacterial chromosome (4) Fungal chromosome
49. Nitrifying bacteria are able to (Haryana PMT 2008)
(1) Convert atmospheric nitrogen into soluble forms
(2) Convert ammonia to nitrate
(3) Ammonia to nitrogen
(4) Nitrate to nitrogen
50. Which is correct for bacteria? (JCECE 2008)
(1) They have both cyclic and non-cyclic photophosphorylation
(2) They absorb light > 900 nm of wavelength
(3) They release O2 during photosynthesis
(4) They use H2O during photosynthesis

51. Lysozyme that is present in saliva and tears destroys (CBSE AIPMT 2007)
(1) Certain fungi (2) Certain types of bacteria

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 Biological Classification

(3) All viruses (4) Most virus infected cells

52. Choose the correct sequence of stages of growth curve for bacteria (AIIMS 2007)
(1) Lag, log, stationary, decline phase (2) Lag, log, stationary phase
(3) Stationary, lag, log, decline phase (4) Decline, lag, log phase
53. Assertion : The true nucleus is generally absent in E. coli and other prokaryotes. (AIIMS 2007)
Reason : An undifferentiated, unorganised fibrillar nucleus without any limiting membrane is observed in
prokaryotic cells.
54. Find out the pairs, which are correctly matched? (Kerala CEE 2007)
I. Cyanobacteria - Biopesticides
II. Mycorrhiza - Solubilization of phosphate
III. Bacillus thuringiensis- cry protein
IV. Single cell protein - Rhizobia
(1) I and II (2) II and III (3) III and IV (4) I and III
(5) II and IV
55. Which one of the following pathogens causes citrus canker disease? (Kerala CEE 2007)
(1) Meloidogyne incognita (2) Anguina tritici
(3) Xanthomonas citri (4) Pseudomonas rubilineans
(5) Phytophthora infestans
56. The cell wall of bacterium is made up of (Kerala CEE 2007)
(1) Cellulose (2) Hemicellulose (3) Lignin (4) Peptidoglycan
(5) Glycogen
57. Plasmids occur in (Manipal 2007)
(1) Viruses (2) Chromosomes (3) Bacteria (4) Chloroplasts
58. Smallest bacteria is (Manipal 2007)
(1) Spirosoma (2) Hemophilus (3) Dialister (4) Desulfovibrio
59. Which of the following is the site of respiration in bacteria? (MHT CET 2007)
(1) Episome (2) Ribosome (3) Mesosome (4) Microsome
60. Transformation experiment was first performed on which bacteria? (RPMT 2007)
(1) E. coli (2) Diplococcus pneumoniae
(3) Salmonella typhi (4) Pasteurella pestis
61. A plasmid (Haryana PMT 2007)
(1) Cannot replicate (2) Can replicate independently
(3) Shows independent assortment (4) Lies together with chromosomes
62. Curing of tea leaves is brought about by the activity of (CBSE AIPMT 2006)
(1) Bacteria (2) Mycorrhiza (3) Viruses (4) Fungi
63. The bacterium (Clostridium botulinum) that causes botulism is (CBSE AIPMT 2006)
(1) A facultative anaerobe (2) An obligate anaerobe
(3) A facultative aerobe (4) An obligate aerobe
64. Bacterial flagella do not show ATPasc activity and 9 + 2 organization. These are chemically formed of
(AFMC2006)
(1) Flagellin (2) Pilin (3) Tubulin (4) Bacterin
65. Assertion : Gram negative bacteria do not retain the stain when washed with alcohol.

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 Biological Classification

Reason : The outer face of the outer membrane of Gram negative bacteria contains lipopolysaccharides,
a part of which is integrated into the membrane lipids. (AIIMS 2

66. Gene regulation in bacteria is shown by (UP CPMT 2006)

(1) Jacob and Monod (2) Beadle and Tatum (3) Temin and Baltimore (4) Kornberg
67. Which is not related with N2-fixation? (UP CPMT 2006)
(1) Anabaena (2) Rhizobium (3) Pseudomonas (4) Nostoc
68. Bacteria with single flagella at one end is called (Punjab PMET 2006)
(1) monotrichous (2) lophotrichous (3) amphitrichous (4) peritrichous
69. Which one of the following combinations of microbes is responsible for the formation and flavour of
yoghurt? (Manipal)
(1) Lactobacillus casei and Streptococcus thermophilic.
(2) Rhizobium meliloti\and Azotobacter sp.
(3) Edoboiquerilluers ruburn and Sciencealla typhosa
(4) Bacillus subtilis and Escherichia coli.
70. O2 does not evolved in photosynthesis of (RPMT 2006)
(1) BGA (2) Green algae (3) Bacteria (4) Autotrophic plant
71. Plasmid is (Haryana PMT 2006)
(1) Fungus (2) Plastid
(3) Part of plasma membrane (4) Extrachromosomal DNA in bacterial cell
72. Pasteurization is (AFMC 2005)
(1) Heating of liquid at 65°C
(2) Heating of liquid between 65°C to 80°C followed by rapid cooling
(3) Heating of solid at 65°C (4) None of the above
73. The wall of bacteria consists of (UPCPMT 2005)
(1) N-acetylglucosamine (2) N-acetyl muramic acid
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) cellulose
74. In many bacteria, the ccll membrane becomes invaginated and folded to form (AMU 2005)
(1) Pili (2) Cristae (3) Fimbriae (4) Mesosomes
75. Crown gall disease in plants is caused by (BHU 2005)
(1) Ti-plasmid (2) Pi-plasmid (3) Mycoplasma (4) Virus
76. Bacteria are considered plants because they (BHU 2005)
(1) Arc green in colour (2) Have rigid cell wall
(3) Have chlorophyll (4) Have stomata
77. All monerans (Punjab PMET 2005)
(1) Contain DNA and RNA
(2) Demonstrate a long circular strand or DNA not found enclosed in a nuclear membrane
(3) Are bacteria
(4) All of the above
78. Halophilic archaebactcrium, e.g., Halobacterium salinarum found in great salt lake and dead sea cannot
live in (Punjab PMET 2005)
(1) Less than 3M NaCl concentration (2) Less than 5M NaCl concentration

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 Biological Classification

(3) More than 4M NaCl concentration (4) More than 3M NaCl concentration
79. Pigment present in cyanobacteria is (DUMET 2005)
(1) R-phycocyanin (2) R-phycoerythrin
(3) C-phycocyanin (4) Anthocyanin

80. Bactcria do not have (DUMET 2005)

(1) Ribosome (2) Protein synthesizing apparatus
(3) Mitochondria (4) Cell wall
81. Match the following columns and choosc the correct combination from the given option.
Column I Column II
A. Escherichia coli P. ‘Nif’ gene
B. Rhizobium meliloti Q. Digestive hydrocarbons of crude oil
C. Bacillus thuringiensis R. Human insulin production
D. Pseudomonas putida S. Biocontrol of fungal disease
T. Biodegradable insecticide
A B C D
(1) R P T S
(2) P Q R S
(3) Q P R S
(4) S R P Q
(5) R P T Q
82. Which of the following is correct matched? (Kerala CEE 2005)
(1) Humus — Abiotic component
(2) Rhizobium — Free-living nitrogen fixer
(3) Phosphorus cycle — Sedimentary
(4) Shorea robusta — Tropical deciduous forest
(5) Cedrus deodara — Coniferous forest
83. Which of the following protects the bacteria from the enzymes present in the external medium?
(1) Slime layer (2) S-layer (EAMCET 2005)
(3) Flagella (4) Cell wall
84. The asexual spores formed by Colletotrichum falcatum, Sphaerotheca and Rhizopus stolonifer are
(1) Many celled (2) One celled (EAMCET 2005)
(3) Pyriform in shape (4) Rod shaped
85. What are episomes? (Manipal 2005)
(1) Heicdiuuy DNA of bacterial cell
(2) Extrachromosomal hereditary material of bacteria associated with nucleoid
(3) Modification of the cell membrane performing respiration
(4) None of the above
86. Mesosome in a bacterial cell is (Manipal 2005)
(1) Plasmid (2) Connection between two cells
(3) Plasma membrane infolded for respiration (4) None of the above
87. Which is the hereditary material in bacteria? (BCECE 2005)

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 Biological Classification

(1) Nucleic acid (2) Nucleic acid and cytoplasm

(3) Nucleic acid and histone (4) None of the above
88. Which of the following is symbiotic bacteria? (JCECE 2005)
(1) Rhizobium (2) Azotobacter (3) Clostridium (4) Streptomyces
89. Nitrates are converted to nitrogen by (J&K CET 2005)
(1) Nitrogen fixing bacteria (2) Ammonification bacteria
(3) Denitrifying bacteria (4) Nitrifying bacteria
90. All of the following statements concerning the actinomycctous filamentous soil bacterium Frankia are
correct, except that Frankia (CBSE AIPMT 2004)
(1) Can inducc root nodules on many plant species
(2) Can fix nitrogen in the free-living state
(3) Like Rhizobium, it usually infacts its host plant through root hair deformation and stimulates cell
proliferation in the host’s cortex
(4) Forms specialized vesicles, in which the nitrogenase is protected from oxygen by a chemical barrier
involving tritcrpcnc hopanoids
91. L Bacterial flagella is made up of (AFMC 2004)
(1) Protein (2) Amines (3) Lipids (4) Carbohydrates
92. The bacteria Pseudomonas is useful because of its ability to (AIIMS 2004)
(1) Transfer genes from one plant to another (2) Decompose variety of organic compounds
(3) Fix atmospheric nitrogen in the soil (4) Produced a wide variety of antibiotics
93. Colourless, unicellular, cell wall bound spherical or rod-shaped microorganism and lacking organized
nucleus is callcd (UP CPMT 2004)
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Virus (3) Bacteria (4) Cyanobacteria
94. Nif gcnes occur in (UPCPMT 2004)
(1) Rhizobium (2) Aspergillus (3) Penicillium (4) Streptococcus
95. Which of the following pairs of bactcria is involved in two step conversion of NH3 into nitrate?

(1) Azotobacter and Nitrosomonas (2) Nitrosomonas and Nitrobacter

(3) Azotobacter and Achromobacter (4) Pseudomonas and Nitrobacter (AMU 2004)
96. F-factor in bacteria is (Punjab PMET 2004)
(1) Plasmid (2) Episome (3) Colicin factor (4) None of these
97. Match the type of bacteria listed in column I with their activity given in column II. Choose the correct
combination of alphabets of the two columns.
Column I Column II
A. Streptomyces P. Food poisoning
B. Rhizobium Q. Source of antibodies
C. Nitrosomonas R. Nitrogen fixation
D. Acetobacter S. Nitrification
T. Vinegar synthesis
A B C D
(1) Q R P T
(2) Q R S T
(3) S T P R

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 Biological Classification

(4) T P R S
98. An example for plant growth promoting rhizobacterium, which produces iron chelating substances, is
(1) Pseudomonas putida (2) Rhizobium japonicum
(3) Aspergillus flavus (4) Azospirillum
(5) Glomus (Kerala CEE 2004)
99. Study the following columns.
Column I Column II
A. Devoid of flagella P. Single spherical bacterium
B. Rod shaped Q. Pneumonia causing bacteria
C. Bacteria in pairs R. Anthrax causing bacteria
D. Comma shaped S. Cholera causing bacteria
T. Pleiomorphic bacteria
A B C D
(1) P Q R S
(2) T S Q P
(3) P R Q S
(4) T P Q S
100. Reproduction in most of the bacteria is by a process known as (BCECE 2004)
(1) Binary fission (2) Budding (3) Sexual (4) Sporulation
101. Chromosomes in a bacterial cell can be 1-3 in number and (CBSE AIPMT 2003)
(1) Can be either circular or linear, but never both within the same cell
(2) Can be circular as well linear within the same ceil
(3) Are always circular
(4) Are always linear
102. Maximum number of antibiotics are obtained from (AFMC 2003)
(1) Fungi (2) Bacteria (3) Virus (4) Plants
103. Substances secreted by bacteria are (AFMC 2003)
(1) Proteins (2) Toxins (3) Interferons (4) Antibiotics
104. Which of the following is a nitrogen fixing organism? (UP CPMT 2003)
(1) BGA (2) Rhizobium
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Agcricus
105. Cyanobacteriun is an (AMU 2003)
(1) Alga having blue-green pigment (2) Alga having red pigment
(3) Alga having brown pigment (4) Alga having yellow-brown pigment
106. Which stain shows Gram negative bacteria during bacterial staining? (BHU 2003)
(1) White (2) Red (3) Black (4) Purple
107. In which genera, endospores are formed for reproduction? (Punjab PMET 2003)
(1) Monococcus and Clostridium (2) Bacillus and Clostridium
(3) Mucor and Bacillus (4) None of the above
108. Which type of DNA is found in bacteria? (Punjab PMET 2003)
(1) Helical DNA (2) Membrane bound DNA
(3) Straight DNA (4) Circular free DNA

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 Biological Classification

109. Chlorophyll-a absent, in which of the following photosynthetic organisms? (DUMET 2003)
(1) Cyanobacteria (2) Red algae (3) Brown algae (4) Bacteria
110. The Gram negative bacteria detect and respond to chemicals in their surrounding by,
(1) Lipopolysaccharide (2) Muramic acid
(3) Porins (4) Volutin granules
(5) Mesosome (Kerala CEE 2003)
111. A bacterium which is capable of utilizing the most abundantly available gas in the atmosphere for one of
its metabolic pathways, but cannot utilize the second most abundantly available for its another metabolic
pathway is (EAMCET 2003)
(1) Azotobacter (2) Clostridium (3) Rhodomicrobium (4) Xanthomonas
112. Which is responsible for recycling of material? (MHT CET 2003)
(1) Bacteria (2) Algae (3) Protista (4) Virus
113. Bacterium having flagella with all over body is known as (MHTCET 2003)
(1) Peritrichous (2) Amphitrichous (3) Monotrichous (4) None of these
114. Cell wall of Gram positive bacteria is made up of (RPMT 2003)
(1) Murein (2) Cellulose (3) Lipid and protein (4) Cellulose and lipid
115. Leprosy occurs due to (Haryana PMT 2003)
(1) TMV (2) Monocystis (3) Salmonella (4) Mycobacterium

Topic - 3 [Kingdom-Protista]
1. Which of the following is not matchcd correctly (Kerala CEE 2011)
(1) Anabaena — Cyanobacteria (2) Amoeba — Protozoa
(3) Gonyaulax — Dinoflagellate (4) Thermaeidophiles — Archaebacteria
(5) Albugo — Chrysophytes
2. Which one of the following is a characteristics feature of Chrysophytes? (Kerala CEE 2011)
(1) They are parasitic forms which cause diseases in animals
(2) They have a protein rich layer called pellicle
(3) They have indestructible wall layer deposited with silica
(4) They are commonly callcd dinoflagcllatcs
(5) They are saprophytic Protista
3. Single-celled eukaryotes are included in (CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(1) Protista (2) Fungi (3) Archaea (4) Monera
4. Which of the following is not a character of Protista? (Kerala CEE 2010)
(1) Protists are prokaryotic (2) Some protists have cell walls
(3) Mode of nutrition is both autotrophic and heterotrophic
(4) Body organization is cellular
(5) Membrane bound organelles are present in cells
5. Which of the following organisms completely lack cell wall, they are the smallest living cells known and
can survive without oxygen? (AFMC 2010)
(1) Mycoplasma (2) Euglcnoids (3) Slime moulds (4) All of these
6. These organisms are fungus like in one phase of their life cycle and Amoeba like in another phase of
their life cycle (AIIMS 2010)

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 Biological Classification

(1) Diatoms (2) Slime moulds (3) Dinoflagellates (4) Water moulds
7. A kingdom common to unicellular animals and plants is (DUMET 2010)
(1) Monera (2) Plantae (3) Fungi (4) Protista
8. Which of the following combinations of characters is true for slime moulds? (DUMET 2010)
(1) Parasitic, Plasmodium with true walls, spores dispersed by air currents
(2) Saprophytic, Plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water
(3) Parasitic, Plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by water
(4) Saprophytic, Plasmodium without walls, spores dispersed by air currents
9. The smallest free-living organism is (Haryana PMT 2010)
(1) Virus (2) Mycoplasma (3) Diatom (4) Cyanobacterium
10. Protista includes (BHU 2008)
(1) Unicellular eukaryotes (2) Multiccllullar prokaryotes
(3) Unicellular prokaryotes (4) All of the above
11. Match the following and choose the correct combination for the option given.(Kerala CEE 2008)
Column I Column II
A. Bacillariophyceae P. Paramecium
B. Dinoflagellates Q. Euglena
C. Euglenoids R. Gonyaulax
D. Protozoans S. Diatoms
A B C D
(1) P R Q S
(2) P S R Q
(3) S Q R P
(4) R S P Q
(5) S R Q P
12. The slime moulds are characterised by the presence of (Manipal 2008)
(1) Elaters (2) Pseudoelaters (3) Capillitium (4) Capitulum
13. Which of the following is a slime mould? (CBSE AIPMT 2007)
(1) Rhizopus (2) Physarum (3) Thiobacillus (4) Anabaena
14. Auxospores and homocysts are formed, respectively by (AIIMS 2007)
(1) Several diatoms and a few cyanobacteria (2) Several cyanobacteria and several diatoms
(3) Some diatoms several cyanobacteria (4) Some cyanobacteria and many diatoms
15. Assertion : Euglena is a plant due to presence of chlorophyll. (AIIMS 2007)
Reason : Euglena cannot be classified on the basis of two kingdom system.
16. What is common about Trypanosoma, Noctiluca, Monocystis and Gittrdial(CBSE AIPMT 2006)
(1) These are all unicellular protists (2) They have flagclla
(3) They produce spores (4) These are all parasites
17. The thalloid body of a slime mould (Myxomycetes) is known as (CBSE AIPMT 2006)
(1) Protonema (2) Plasmodium (3) Fruiting body (4) Mycelium
18. Type of sexual reproduction in protists, bearing diploid chromosome is (Haryana PMT 2006)
(1) zygotic meiosis (2) binary fission
(3) cyst formation (4) gametangial meiosis

12
 Biological Classification

19. In which of the following kingdoms, diatoms are placed? (AMU 2005)
(1) Plantae (2) Fungi (3) Protozoa (4) Protista
20. Plasmodium is an (AMU 2005)
(1) Endoparasite (2) Ectoparasite
(3) Intercellular parasite (4) Both (1) and (2)
21. Euglenoid specics that have chlorophyll are (Punjab PMET 2005)
(1) Facultative autotrophs (2) Facultative hcterotrophs
(3) Obligate hetcrotrophs (4) Obligate autotrophs

22. Kingdom-Protista includes (Punjab PMET 2005)

(1) Life cycle showing sporie meiosis (2) Life cycle showing zygotic meiosis
(3) Life cycle showing gametic meiosis (4) Both (2) and (3)
23. Protists are (Haryana PMT 2005)
I. Unicellular and prokaryote II. Unicellular and eukaryote
III. Multicellular and eukaryote IV. Autotroph or heterotroph
(1) I, II and III (2) II, III and IV (3) III and IV (4) II and IV
24. Murein is not found in the cell wall of (KCET 2004)
(1) Nostoc (2) eubacteria (3) cyanobacteria (4) diatoms

Topic – 4 [Fungi]
1. Yeast is used in the production of (AIPMT 2012)
(1) Bread and beer (2) Cheese and butter
(3) Citric acid and lactic acid (4) Lipase and pectinase
2. Which one of the following microbes forms symbiotic association with plants and helps them in their
nutrition? (AIPMT 2012)
(1) Glomus (2) Trichoderma (3) Azotobacter (4) Aspergillus
3. Which one of the following helps in absorption of phosphorus from soil by plants?
(CBSE AIPMT 2011)
(1) Rhizohium (2) Frankia (3) Anabaena (4) Glomus
4. Which one of the following is wrongly matched? (CBSE AIPMT 2011)
(1) Puccinia — Smut (2) Root — Exarch protoxylem
(3) Cassia — Imbricate aestivation (4) Root pressure — Guttation
5. The association mycorrhiza is (UP CPMT 2011)
(1) Relationship of algae and fungi (2) Relationship of fungi and higher plants
(3) Relationship of algae and higher plants (4) None of these
6. Red rot of sugarcane is caused by (OJEE 2011)
(1) Colletrotrichum falcatum (2) Phytophthora infestans
(3) Uslilago nucla (4) Altemaria solani
7. Edible part of mushroom is (WBJEE 2011)
(1) Basidiocarp (2) Primary mycelium (3) Fungal hyphae (4) Basidiospores
8. VAM is (WBJEE 2011)
(1) Symbiotic bacteria (2) Saprophytic bacteria
13
 Biological Classification

(3) Saprophytic fungi (4) Symbiotic fungi

9. Which of the following is an unicellular sac-fungus? (Kerala CEE 2011)
(1) Claviceps (2) Saccharomyces (3) Penicillium (4) Neurospora
(5) Aspergillus
10. Which of the following does not belong to the kingdom-Protista? (Kerala CEE 2011)
(1) Chrysophytes (2) Euglenoids (3) Ascomycetes (4) Dinoflagellates
(5) Protozoans

14
 Biological Classification

11. Match the column 1 with column II and choose the right option. (Kerala CEE 2011)
Column I Column II
A. Morels P. Deuteromycetes
B. Smut Q. Ascomycetes
C. Bread Mould R. Basidiomycetes
D. Imperfect fungi S. Phycomycetes
A B C D
(1) R S P Q
(2) Q R S P
(3) S P Q R
(4) R S Q P
(5) Q P S R
12. Ringworm in humans is caused by (CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi (3) Nematodes (4) Viruses
13. Match the column I with column II and choose the right option. (Kerala CEE 2010)
Column I Column II
A. Rhizopus P. Eurotiomycetes
B. Penicillium Q. Ustilaginomycetes
C. Vstilago R. Dothideomycetes
D. Alternaria S. Zygomycetes
A B C D
(1) S R P Q
(2) Q R S P
(3) S P Q R
(4) R S Q P
(5) Q P S R
14. Match the microbes commercial/industrial products in column II and choose the correct answer.
Column I Column II (Kerala CEE 2010)
A. Aspergillus niger P. Ethanol
B. Clostridium butvlicum Q. Statins
C. Saccharomyces cerevisiae R.Citric acid
D. Trichoderma polysporum S. Butyric acid
E. Monascus purpureus T. Cyclosporin-A
A B C D E
(1) S T Q P R
(2) T S P Q R
(3) R S P T Q
(4) R S T P Q
(5) Q R S T P
15. Asexual reproduction in fungi occurs by (OJEE 2010)
(1) Ascospores (2) Conidia (3) Basidiospores (4) Oospores

15
 Biological Classification

16. Which one of following has haplontic life cycle? (CBSE AIPMT 2009)
(1) Funaria (2) Polytrichum (3) Ustilago (4) Wheat
17. Which one is the wrong pairing for the disease and its causal organism?(CBSE AIPMT 2009)
(1) Late blight of potato — Alternaria solani (2) Black rust of wheat — Puccinia graminis
(3) Loose smut of wheat — Vstilago nuda (4) Root knot of vegetables — Meloidogyne sp
18. Cell wall of fungi is made up of (UP CPMT 2009)
(1) Fungal cellulose (2) Hemicellulose (3) Fungal chitin (4) Both (1) and (3)
19. Clamp connections are found in (BHU 2009)
(1) Phycomycetcs (2) Ascomycetes (3) Basidiomycetes (4) Dcuteromycetes
20. Baker’s yeast is (AMU 2009)
(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Saccharomyces ludwigii
(3) Saccharomyces octosporus (4) Schizosaccharomyces
21. Chitin is present in the cell wall of (AMU 2009)
(1) Fungi (2) Bacteria (3) Yeast (4) Algae
22. Purified antibiotic penicillin of Penicillium notatum was discovered by (AMU 2009)
(1) Alexander Fleming (2) Howard Floxy
(3) Robert Hooke (4) Carolus Linnaeus
23. The accumulated food reserve in fungi is (AMU 2009)
(1) protein (2) starch (3) glycogen (4) fat
24. Which is correct for the structure of cell wall of bacteria and fungi? (AMU 2009)
(1) Both are made up of cellulose (2) Both have mucopeptide
(3) Both are made up of N-acetylglucosamine (4) None of the above
25. Arrange the following in correct sequence with reference to sexual reproduction in Rhizopus.
I. Formation of germ tube
II. Formation of zygophores
III. Formation of warty wall layer of zygospore
IV. Secretion of trisporic acid (EAMCET 2009)
(1) IV, III, II and I (2) IV, II, III and I (3) II, I, IV and III (4) I, III, II and IV
26. A teacher was explaining about a constant physical contact involving almost equal physiological
interdependence in two different thalloid forms. It was (EAMCET 2009)
(1) Mycorrhizal association (2) Establishment of heterothallism
(3) Operation of heterothallism (4) Advent of lichen formation
27. The fungus used for the commercial production of SCP is (Kerala CEE 2009)
(1) Pentadiplandra brazzeana(2) Fusarium graminearum
(3) Brassica napus (4) Bacillus thuringiensis
(5) Phytophthora infestans
28. Slimy mass of protoplasm with many nuclei and an Amoeba-like thalloid body is a characteristic feature
of trying to explain (Kerala CEE 2009)
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Actinomycetes (3) Phycomycetes (4) Basidiomycetes
(5) Myxomycetes
29. Which is a fungal disease? (MKT CET 2009)
(1) Athlete’s foot (2) Kala-azar (3) Typhus fever (4) Chicken pox
30. Streptomycin is obtained from (MHT CET 2009)

16
 Biological Classification

(1) Streptomyces griseus (2) S. aureofaciens

(3) S. venezuelae (4) S. ramosus

31. The respiratory process of yeast is (Haryana PMT 2009)

(1) Rarely anaerobic (2) Anaerobic (3) Purely aerobic (4) Both (1) and (2)
32. Name the fungus that is edible. (Haryana PMT 2009)
(1) Penicillium (2) Mucor (3) Rhizopus (4) Morchella
33. The fungus without mycelium is (Haryana PMT 2009)
(1) Puccinia (2) Phytophthora (3) Rhizopus (4) Saccharomyces
34. Late blight of potato is caused by (Haryana PMT 2009)
(1) Cystopus (2) Phytophthora (3) Alternaria (4) Ustilago
35. Cellulose is the major component of cell wall of (CBSE AIPMT 2008)
(1) Pythium (2) Xanthomonas (3) Pseudomonas (4) Saccharomyces
36. In the following table, identify the correct matching of the crop, its disease and the corresponding
pathogen. (AIIMS 2008)
Crop Disease Pathogen
(1) Citrus Canker Pseudomonas rubrilineans
(2) Potato Late blight Fusarium udum
(3) Brinjal Root knot Meloidogyne incognita
(4) Pigeon pea Seed gall Phytophthora infestans
37. Which one of the following is not commercially produced by yeast? (UP CPMT 2008)
(1) Enzyme (2) Vitamin (3) Hormone (4) Riboflavin
38. Read the statements given below. Which of these is wrong? (UP CPMT 2008)
(1) Sporangiospores born in the sporangia of Rhizopus are diploid structures
(2) Rhizopus belongs to the class-Zygomycetes
(3) Dominant phase in the life cyclc of Chlamydomonas is haploid
(4) Zoospores of Chlamydomonas are haploid
39. Cladonia rangiferina is a/an (AMU 2008)
(1) algae (2) lichen (3) fungus (4) angiosperm
40. Lichen is the association of (BHU 2008)
(1) Protista and algae (2) fungi and bacteria (3) Protista and fungi (4) algae and fungi
41. Bakanae disease is caused by (BHU 2008)
(1) fungus (2) alga (3) bacterium (4) virus
42. Fungi are classified on the basis of (DUMET 2008)
(1) Sexual reproduction (2) Asexual reproduction
(3) Vegetative reproduction (4) None of these
43. Fungi differs from slime moulds by lacking of (DUMET 2008)
(1) Flagellated spores (2) Ascospores (3) Basidiospores (4) Zygospores
44. Early leaf spot disease in Arachis hypogea is caused due to infection of (KCET 2008)
(1) Cercosporidium personatum (2) Gibberella fujikuroi
(3) Agrobacterium tumefaciens (4) Phytophthora infestans
45. In the table below, some of the crop plants, their diseases and the pathogens are given. Match the three
columns and identify the correct choice. (Kerala CEE 2008)
Crop Disease Pathogen

17
 Biological Classification

A. Pigeon pea I. Root knot 1. Pseudomonas

B. Brinjal II. Ear cockle 2. Fusarium
C. Sugarcane III. Wilt 3. Anguinia
D. Wheat IV. Red stripe 4. Meloidogyne
(1) A-III-2 B-I-4 C-IV-l D-II-3
(2) A-I-2 B-III-4 C-II-3 D-IV-3
(3) A-IV-3 B-I-2 C-III-1 D-II-3
(4) A-II-l B-IV-3 C-I-2 D-III-4
(5) A-III-4 B-II-1 C-IV-3 D-I-2
46. Which of the following correctly represents the type of life cycle patterns from the options given?

(1) A-Diplontic B-Haplodiplontic C-Haplontic (Kerala CEE 2008)

(2) A-Haplodiplontic B-Haplontic C-Diplontic
(3) A-Haplontic B-Diplontic C-Haplodiplontic
(4) A-Dip!ontic B-Haplontic C Haplodiplontic
(5) A-Haplontic B-Haplodiplontic C-Diplontic
47. Identify the fungus, which produces chlamydospores from dikaryotic myceliumEAMCET 2008)
(1) Sphacelotheca sorghi (2) Rhizopus stolonifer
(3) Pyricularia oryzae (4) Colletotrichum falcatum
48. Match the following columns and select the correct option. (EAMCET 2008)
Column I Column II
A. Blast disease of rice S Dikaryotic mycelium
B. Citrus canker T Single-celled conidiophores
C. Grain smut of Sorghum P Gram positive bacteria
D. Red rot of sugarcane Q Septate conidiophores
R Gram negative bacteria
A B C D
(1) S T R Q
(2) S T P Q
(3) Q R T P
(4) Q R P T
49. Secondary mycelium of mushroom produces umbrella like structure called as (MHT CET 2008)
(1) Primary mycelium (2) Tertiary mycelium (3) pileus (4) Gills
50. Lichen is the pioneer vegetation on which succession? (RPMT 2008)
18
 Biological Classification

(1) Hydroscrc (2) Lithosere (3) Psammosere (4) Xerosere

51. Which of the following provided to plant by fungi present in mycorrhiza? (Guj. CET 2008)
(1) Phosphate (2) Nitrate (3) Carbonate (4) Chloride
52. Which one of the following statements about mycoplasma is wrong? (CBSE AIPMT 2008)
(1) They are also called PPLO (2) They are pleomorphic
(3) They are sensitive to penicillin (4) They cause disease in plants
53. Which pair of the following belongs to Basidiomycetes? (CBSE AIPMT 2008)
(1) Birds nest fungi and puffballs (2) Puffballs and Claviceps
(3) Peziza and stink horns (4) Morchella and mushrooms
54. Ergot of rye is caused by a species of (CBSE AIPMT 2008)
(1) Phytophthora (2) Uncinula (3) Ustilago (4) Claviceps
55. Black rust of wheat is caused by a species of the genus (AFMC 2008)
(1) Mucor (2) Rhizopus (3) Aspergillus (4) Puccinia
56. Industrial production of ethanol from starch is brought about by certain species of (AFMC 2008)
(1) Azotobacter (2) Lactobacillus (3) Saccharomyces (4) Penicillium
57. Assertion : In fungi, sexual apparatus decreases in complexity from lower to higher forms.
Reason : In algae, sexual apparatus increases in complexity from simple to the higher forms.
(AIIMS 2008)
58. Which one of the following pairs is correctly matched? (AIIMS 2008)
(1) Rhizobium — Parasite in the roots of leguminous plants
(2) Mycorrhizae — Mineral uptake from soil
(3) Yeast — Production of biogas
(4) Myxomycctcs — The disease ringworm
59. Which of the following are the indicators of pollution? (UP CPMT 2008)
(1) Lichen (2) Fungi (3) Algae (4) None of these
60. Plants provide protection from fungal disease by producing (UP CPMT 2008)
(1) Protoxins (2) Prolectins (3) Phytoalexins (H) All of these
61. An eukaryote, which causes disease comes under (UP CPMT 2008)
(1) Moncran (2) Fungus (3) Virus (4) None of these
62. The ‘witches broom’ is caused by a (AMU 2008)
(1) Virus (2) Mycoplasma (3) Bacterium (4) Fungus
63. ‘Foolish seedling disease’ of rice in Japan was caused by (BHU 2008)
(1) The deficiency of nitrogen (2) A bacterium
(3) A fungus (4) A virus
64. Covered smut of barley is caused by (BHU 2008)
(1) Ustilago hordei (2) Tilletia caries
(3) Ustilago nuda (4) Colletotrichum falcatum
65. Mycorrhiza is found in (DUMET 2008)
(1) Oligotrophy soil (2) Cutrophic soil
(3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
66. Zygospore is (DUMET 2008)
(1) Give rise to zoospores on meiosis (2) Equivalent of Ascus, Brasilia
19
 Biological Classification

(3) Dormant stage (4) Give rise to asexual spore

67. Name the class of the Mycota which is commonly called ‘fungi imperfecti’? (KCET 2008)
(1) Deuteromycota (2) Ascomycota (3) Zygomycota (4) Basidiomycota

68. The parthenospores of Rhizopus are (EAMCET 2008)

(1) Uninucleate (2) Binuclcate (3) Trinucleate (4) Multinucleate
69. A term ‘helotism’ is used for the symbiosis of (EAMCET 2008)
(1) Algae and fungi (2) Algae and Cycas (3) Algae and bacteria (4) Pinus and fungi
70. Identify the diseases that are caused by the organisms of the same sub-division of Eumycota. I.
Citrus canker II. Red rot of sugarcane (EAMCET 2008)
III. Grain smut of sorghum IV. Black neck of rice
(1) I and IV (2) I and III (3) II and III (4) II and IV
71. A place was rocky and barren but now there is a green forest, the sequence of origin is
(1) Lichen, moss, herbs, shrubs (2) Moss, lichen, herbs, shrubs
(3) Lichen, moss, shrubs, herbs (4) Shrubs, herbs, moss, lichen(Manipal 2008)
72. Which of the following does not secrete toxins during storage conditions of crop plants?
(RPMT 2008)
(1) Aspergillus (2) Penicillium (3) Fusarium (4) Colletotrichum
73. Mycorrhiza is an example of (Haryana PMT 2008)
(1) Symbiosis (2) Parasitism (3) Saprophytism (4) None of these
74. Soft-rot disease of sweet potato is caused by (J&K CET 2008)
(1) Rhizopus stolonifer (2) Rhizopus sexualis
(3) Chlamydomonas nivalis (4) Chlamydomonas coccifera
75. Which of the following environmental conditions are essential for optimum growth of Mucor on a piece of
bread ? (CBSE AIPMT 2006)
I. Temperature of about 25°C II. Temperature of about 5°C
III. Relative humidity of about 5% IV. Relative humidity of about 95%
V. A shady place VI. A brightly illuminated place
(1) I, III and V (2) I, IV and V
(3) II, IV and V (4) II, III and VI
76. Slime moulds in the division-Myxomycota (true slime moulds) have (AFMC 2006)
(1) Pseudoplasmodia
(2) Spores that develop into free living amoeboid cells
(3) Spores that develop into flagellated warm cells
(4) Feeding stages consisting of solitary individual cells
77. VAM are (AFMC 2006)
(1) Saprophytic bacteria (2) Saprophytic fungi
(3) Symbiotic fungi (4) Symbiotic bacteria
78. Among rust, smut and mushroom, all the three (AIIMS 2006)
(1) Are pathogens (2) Are saprobes (3) Bear ascocarps (4) Bear basidiocarps
79. Myxomycetes are (AIIMS 2006)
(1) Saprobes or parasites having mycelia, asexual reproduction by fragmentation and sexual
reproduction by fusion of gametes.

20
 Biological Classification

(2) Slimy mass of multinucleate protoplasm, having pseudopodia like structures for engulfing food,
reproduction through fragmentation or zoospores.
(3) Prokaryotic organisms, cellular or acellular, saprobes or autotrophic, reproduce by binary fission.
(4) Eukaryotic, single-celled or filamentous, saprobes or autotrophic, asexual reproduction by division of
haploid individuals, sexual reproduction by fusion of two cells or their nuclei.
80. Heterothallism was discovered by (UP CPMT 2006)
(1) Blakeslee (2) Bessey (3) Butler (4) A Flemming
81. As a fungus completes its life cycle on two hosts, it is termed as (AMU 2006)
(1) Heteroecious (2) Autoccious (3) Heterothallic (4) Monothallic
82. A type of life cycle in which plasmogamy, karyogamy, haplodization takes place but not at specific place
in life cycle of an organism is called as (BHU 2006)
(1) Parasexuality (2) Heterozygosity (3) Homozygosity (4) Asexuality
83. Branched, aseptate, coenocytic mycelium is present in (Punjab PMET 2006)
(1) Aspergillus (2) Albugo (3) Penicillium (4) Erysiphe
84. Which of the following statements is correct? (Punjab PMET 2006)
(1) In Cycas, megasporophyll produce pollen grains
(2) In Agaricus, gills produce basidiospores
(3) In Aspergillus, fruiting body is pcrithccium
(4) In Funaria, capsule represents gametophytic generation
85. Phycomycetes is a class in kingdom (DUMET 2006)
(1) Protista (2) Fungi (3) Plantae (4) Animalia
86. In addition to absence of chlorophyll, what is the other difference between fungi and higher plants?
(DUMET 2006)
(1) Type of nutrition and composition of cell wall
(2) Cell type
(3) Nucleus
(4) Reproduction
87. Claviceps is a member of (DUMET 2006)
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes
(3) Zygomycetes (4) Phycomycetes
88. Identify from the following examples, a fungus, which is of medicinal importance (KCET 2006)
(1) Agaricus (2) Saccharomyces (3) Penicillium (4) Cercospora
89. Red rot of sugarcane and white rust of radish are respectively caused by (Kerala CEE 2006)
(1) Albugo Candida and Cercospora (2) Colletotrichum and Fusarium
(3) Pythium and Phytophthora (4) Albugo Candida and Puccinia graminis
(5) Colletotrichum and Albugo Candida
90. Select the false statement. (Kerala CEE 2006)
(1) Scientists who study and contribute to the classification of organisms are known as systematics
(2) Carolus Linnaeus developed the first scientific system of naming species
(3) A five kingdom arrangement of organisms was introduced by R H Whittaker
(4) Genus is a group of species, which are related and have less characters in common as compared to
species

21
 Biological Classification

(5) Phycomycetes are called club fungi because of a club-shaped end of mycelium known as basidium
91. If sexual reproduction takes place between the filaments of Rhizopus of different strains, one with 80
nuclei and another with 24 nuclei, what would be the total number of spores of different strains put
together? (EAMCET 2006)
(1) 24 (2) 48 (3) 96 (4) 114
92. Lactic acid formation is a two step anaerobic process. Both steps are carried at one stage by
(Manipal 2006)
(1) Streptococcus (2) Rhizopus (3) Lactobacillus (4) Aspergillus
93. Botanical name of species, which causes white rust of crucifers? (RPMT 2006)
(1) Peronospora parasitica (2) Puccinia graminis
(3) Pythium debarganum (4) Albugo Candida
94. Parasexuality is involved with fusion of (RPMT 2006)
(1) Gamete and protoplast (2) Male gamete with secondary nucleus
(3) Protoplast (4) Male and female gamete
95. Fruiting body of Penicillium is (JCECE 2006)
(1) Cleistothecium (2) Pycniophysis (3) Sterigmata (4) None of these
96. Fungal spores produced externally at the top of hyphae are (AFMC 2005)
(1) Conidia (2) Oidia (3) Aplanospore (4) Sporangiophore
97. Assertion : The fungi are widespread in distribution and they even live on or inside other plants and
animals.
Reason : Fungi are able to grow anywhere on land, water or on other organisms because they have a
variety of pigments, including chlorophyll, phycocyanin fucoxanthin and phycoerythrin.
(AIIMS 2005)
98. Lichens show (UP CPMT 2005)
(1) Mutualism (2) Commensalism (3) Parasitism (4) Saprophytism
99. Parasitic and saprophytic conditions are more familiar in (UP CPMT 2005)
(1) Fungi (2) Bacteria (3) Algae (4) Ferns
100. Lomasomes are found in (AMU 2005)
(1) Algal cell (2) Fungal cell (3) Bacterial cell (4) Cyanobacterial cell
101. Which of the following is an edible 'fungi' ? (BHU 2005)
(1) Mucor (2) Penicillium (3) Agaricus (4) Rhizopus
102. Galic acid used in making ink is obtained with the help of (Punjab PMT 2005)
(1) Aspergillus niger (2) Perucillium purpurogenum
(3) Streptococcus lactis (4) Lactobacillus bulgaricus
103. St. Anthony’s fire disease is caused by (Punjab PMET 2005)
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungus (3) Nematodes (4) Polychactc
104. Mushroom belongs to (DUMET 2005)
(1) Ascomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes (3) Phycomycetes (4) Zygomycetes
105. Yeast belongs to (DUMET 2005)
(1) Zygomycetes (2) Basidiomycetes (3) Ascomycctcs (4) Phycomycetes
106. The sexual stages of pathogens of blast of rice and red rot of sugarcane are named respectively as
(1) Magneporthe grisea and Colletotrichum falcatum (Kerala CEE 2005)
(2) Colletotrichum falcatum and Pyricularia oryzae
(3) Glomerella tucmanensis and Magneporthe grisea
22
 Biological Classification

(4) Magneporthe grisea and Glomerella tucmanensis

107. The fruiting body formed from a filamentous heterotrophic organism, which is known for its nutritive value
for the humanity, is (EAMCET 2005)
(1) Cremocarp (2) Acervulus (3) Basidiocarp (4) Akinet

108. What are the successive structure formed in course of sexual reproduction of Rhizopus ?
(1) Zygospore, progametangium, gametangium, zygophore
(2) Progametangium, zygophore, gametangium, zygospore
(3) Progametangium, gametangium, zygospore, zygophore
(4) Zygophore, progametangium, gametangium, zygospore (EAMCET 2005)
109. Yeast is not included in protozoans but in fungi because (Manipal) 2005
(1) It has no chlorophyll
(2) Some fungal hyphae grow in such a way that they give the appearance of psuedomycelium
(3) It has eukaryotic organisation
(4) cell wall is made up of cellulose and reserve food material as starch
110. Ainsworth put Rhizopus in (RPMT 2005)
(1) Zygomycotina (2) Mastigomycotina (3) Myxomycotina (4) Ascomycotina
111. Among plants ‘pheromones’ are secreted by the cells of the following plants for given function
(Haryana PMT 2005)
(1) All plants for growth and development (2) Yeast for facilitating mating
(3) All fungi for sexual reproduction (4) Rhizopus for formation of zygospore
112. Multinucleated filament of Rhizopus is (BCECE 2005)
(1) Coenocytic (2) Conidia (3) Heterothallus (4) Homothallus
113. Alexander Fleming in 1929 discovered (JCECE 2005)
(1) Penicillin (2) Streptomycin (3) Tetracyclin (4) Chloromycetin
114. There exists a close association between the alga and the fungus within a lichen. The fungus
(1) Fixes the atmospheric nitrogen for the alga (CBSE AIPMT 2005)
(2) Provides protection, anchorage and absorption for the alga
(3) Provides food for the alga
(4) Releases oxygen for the alga
115. Fungus/lichen, which grows on wood is (AFMC 2005)
(1) Terricolous (2) Saxicolous (3) Lignocolous (4) Corticolous
116. Mycorrhiza promotes plant growth by (UP CPMT 2005)
(1) Absorbing inorganic ions from soil
(2) Helping the plant in utilizing atmospheric nitrogen
(3) Protecting the plant from infection
(4) Serving as plant growth regulator (EAMCET 2005)
117. Which of the following statements is correct with respect to Colletotrichum falcatum?
(1) The conidia and conidiophores are aseptate mycelium and setae are septate (2)
The conidia, conidiophores, mycelium and setae are septate
(3) The conidia are aseptate conidiophores, mycelium and setae are septate
(4) The mycelium is septate conidia, conidiophores and setae are aseptate

23
 Biological Classification

118. Chloromycetin is obtained from (MHT CET 2005)

(1) Saccharomyces cerevisiae (2) Streptomyces venezualae
(3) Streptomyces griseus (4) Streptomyces erythraeus
119. Which of the following causes disease in human beings? (Haryana PMT 2005)
(1) Rhizopus (2) Puccinia (3) Aspergillus (4) Cytopus

24
 Biological Classification

120. In mushroom, gills are meant for (Haryana PMT 2005)

(1) Respiration (2) Nutrition
(3) Bears spores which help in reproduction (4) Enhancing buoyancy
121. Black stem rust of wheat is caused by (BCECE 2005)
(1) Fungi (2) Protozoa (3) Algae (4) Bacteria
122. VAM is useful for (JCECE 2005)
(1) Phosphate nutrition (2) Breaking of dormancy
(3) Decrease in diseases (4) Retarding flowering
123. The hyphae of Rhizopus are (J&K CET 2005)
(1) Unbranched, aseptate and uninucleate (2) Branched, aseptate and multinucleate
(3) Branched, septate and uninucleate (4) Unbranched, septate and coenocytic
124. Litmus is obtained from (AFMC 2005)
(1) Bacteria (2) Fungi
(3) Algae (4) Lichen
125. Which one of the following is a matching pair of certain organism(s) and the kind of association?
(1) Shark and sucker fish — Commensalism (AIIMS 2005)
(2) Algae and fungi in lichens — Mutualism
(3) Orchids growing of trees — Parasitism
(4) Cuscuta (dodder) growing — Epiphytism on other flowering plants
126. Fungi in a forest ecosystem is (UP CPMT 2005)
(1) Producer (2) Decomposer (3) Top consumer (4) Autotroph
127. Fungi causing hair loss are (AMU 2005)
(1) Keratophilous (2) Pyrophilous (3) Coprophilous (4) None of these
128. Black rust of wheat is a fungal disease caused by (BHU 2005)
(1) Melamspora lint (2) Claviceps purpurea
(3) Albugo Candida (4) Puccinia graminis tritici
129. The basic unit of chitin is (PMET 2005)
(1) N-acetylglucosamine (2) Glucose
(3) Galactose (4) Fructose
130. Fungi lack (DUMET 2005)
(1) Mitochondria (2) Ribosomes
(3) Chloroplast (4) Endoplasmic reticulum
131. Phytotoxins are secreted by plants in response to fungal reaction. These compounds are generally
(1) Proteins (2) Glycoproteins
(3) Phenolic compounds (4) Lipids (DUMET 2005)
132. Parasexuality was first discovered in (DUMET 2005)
(1) Bacteria (2) Virus (3) Fungi (4) None of these
133. Basidiospores are produced by (KCET 2005)
(1) Yeasts (2) Diatoms (3) Agaricus (4) Bacteria
134. The deadliest mushroom is (Kerala CEE 2005)
(1) Agaricus (2) Amanita (3) Pleurotus (4) Volveriella
(5) None of these
25
 Biological Classification

135. Which mushroom contains muscarine? (EAMCET 2005)

(1) Agaricus bisporus (2) Volveriella volvacea
(3) Pleurotus sojar (4) Amanita virosa
136. Powdery mildews of crops are caused by (MHT CET 2005)
(1) Basidiomycetes (2) Phycomycetes
(3) Ascomycetes (4) Eucomycetes

Topic – 5 [Virus/Viroids]
1. Which statement is wrong for viruses? (AIPMT 2012)
(1) They have ability to synthesize nucleic acids and proteins
(2) Antibiotics have no effect on them
(3) All are parasites
(4) All of them have helical symmetry
2. ds RNA is found in (OJEE 2011)
(1) Reovirus (2) TMV (3) f × 174 (4) None of these
3. A virus differs from a bacterium as it contains (J&K CET 2011)
(1) A cell wall
(2) Cytosol
(3) DNA as genetic mctcrial
(4) DNA or RNA as genetic meterial with no ribosomes
4. Find out the correct statement. (Kerala CEE 2011)
(1) In lichens, the algal component is called phycobiont and fungal component is known as mycobiont,
which are heterotrophic and autotrophic respectively
(2) Viroid contains RNA of low molecular weight and protein coat
(3) A virus contains both RNA and DNA (4) Viruses are obligatory parasites
(5) Viruses that infect plants have double stranded RNA
5. Infectious proteins are present in (CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(1) Gemini viruses (2) Prions (3) Viroids (4) Satellite viruses
6. Virus envelope is known as (CBSE AIPMT 2010)
(1) Capsid (2) Virion (3) Nucleoprotein (4) Core
7. Bacteriophages kill (WBJEE 2010)
(1) Fungi (2) Parasites (3) Bacteria (4) Viruses
8. Which one of the following viruses contains both DNA and RNA? (WB JEE 2010)
(1) Cyanophage (2) Herpes virus (3) Leukovirus (4) Polio virus
9. T.O. Diener discovered a (CBSE AIPMT 2009) (1)Free infectious
RNA (2) Free infectious DNA
(3) Infectious protein (4) Bacteriophage
10. Which one of the following is correctly matched? (AFMC 2009)
(1) National Institute of Virology — Pune
(2) National Institute of — Lucknow Communicable Diseases
(3) Central Drug Research Institute — Kasauli
(4) National Institute of Nutrition — Mumbai

26
 Biological Classification

11. In which of the following patterns of viral replication, viruses enter a cell, replicate and then cause the cell
to burst, releasing new viruses? (AIIMS 2009)
(1) Lytic (2) Lysogenic (3) Repreogenic (4) Both (1) and (2)
12. Protein coat of a virus enclosing nucleic acid is called (BHU 2009)
(1) Plasmid (2) Capsid (3) Vector (4) Genome
13. Which one of the following are intracellular obligate parasites? (DUMET 2009)
(1) Bacteria (2) Viruses (3) Slime moulds (4) Blue-green algae
14. Potato spindle tuber disease is caused by a (DUMET 2009)
(1) Nematode (2) Virus (3) Bacterium (4) Viroid
15. Which of the following statement is false? (DUMET 2009)
(1) TMV has a double-stranded RNA molecule
(2) Most plant viruses arc RNA viruses
(3) The bacteriophage has a double-stranded DNA molecule
(4) Most animal viruses arc DNA viruses
16. HIV is classified as a retrovirus because its genetic information is carried in (DUMET 2009)
(1) DNA instead of RNA (2) DNA
(3) RNA instead of DNA (4) Protein coat
17. The agents which are known to cause CJD are (Manipal 2009)
(1) Protein particles (2) A class of bacteria
(3) A class of viruses (4) Fungi
18. Which of the following statement is correct? (Haryana PMT 2009)
(1) Viruses are obligate parasites (2) All fungi are pathogenic
(3) All algae are eukaryotes (4) Bacteria are always harmful to mankind
19. Viruses contain (Haryana PMT 2009)
(1) Only RNA (2) Only DNA
(3) Either DNA or RNA (4) Neither DNA nor RNA
20. A ‘T-series bacteriophage’ can be recognized by its (Haryana PMT 2006)
(1) Tadpole shape (2) Rounded shape (3) Irregular shape (4) Rhomboidal shape
21. The genetic material of AIDS virus is (Haryana PMT 2006)
(1) Double stranded DNA (2) Double stranded RNA
(3) Single stranded RNA (4) Single stranded DNA
22. Virus was discovered by whom? (WBJEE 2006)
(1) Stanley (2) Ivanowski (3) Herelle (4) Beijerinck
23. The genetic material of rabies virus is (WB JEE 2006)
(1) Double stranded RNA (2) Single stranded RNA
(3) Double stranded DNA (4) Single stranded DNA
24. In AIDS, HIV kills (WBJEE 2006)
(1) Antibody molecule (2) T-helper cell
(3) Bone marrow cells (4) T-cytotoxic cell
25. The non-living characteristic of viruses is (J&K CET 2008)
(1) Ability to multiply only inside the host (2) Ability to cause diseases in the host
(3) Ability to undergo mutation (4) Ability to crystallize
27
 Biological Classification

26. Virus multiplies in (BHU 2008)

(1) Soil (2) Dead tissue (3) Living tissue (4) Culture medium
27. HIV virus affects in AIDS patient. (Punjab PMET 2008)
(1) Cytotoxic T-cell (2) M-N cell (3) Suppressor cell (4) Helper T-Cells
28. Study the following columns. (EAMCET 2006)
Column 1 Column 11
A. M 13 bacteriophage P. dsRNA
B. Rice dwarf virus Q. ssRNA
C. Cauliflower mosaic virus R. ssDNA
D. Polio virus S. dsDNA
A B C D
(1) R P S Q
(2) Q P R S
(3) R S Q P
(4) S R P Q
29. Retroviruses have genetic material (Haryana PMT 2006)
(1) DNA only (2) RNA only
(3) DNA or RNA only (4) Either DNA or RNA only
30. Enveloped virus enters into host cells by (BCECE 2006)
(1) Injecting own nucleic acid inside host cells
(2) By contact with cell receptor and endocytosis
(3) By phagocytosis
(4) Fusion with the plasma membrane of host
31. Provirus is (JCECE 2006)
(1) A free virus (2) Primitive virus
(3) Integrated viral genome (4) A free DNA
32. Virus consists of (J&K CET 2006)
(1) Nucleic acid (2) Protein (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) None of these
33. Which one of the following is having ssRNA? (J&K CET 2006)
(1) TMV (2) T2-bacteriophage (3) Reovirus (4) CMV

34. Bacteriophage releases lysozyme during (UP CPMT 2007)

(1) Penetration phase (2) Eclipse phase
(3) Absorption phase (4) Maturation phase
35. The disease caused by virus which is 42 nm in size and contains double stranded DNA is
(AMU 2007)
(1) Hepatitis-A (2) AIDS (3) Hepatitis-B (4) Leprosy
36. Potato leaf roll or leaf curl of papaya are caused by (BHU 2007)
(1) Fungi (2) Viruses (3) Bacteria (4) Nematodes
37. The process which cannot take place in the absence of virus is (BHU 2007)
(1) Transformation (2) Conjugation (3) Translocation (4) Transduction
38. Helical contractile sheath occurs in (DUMET 2007)
(1) Bacteria (2) Bacteriophage (3) Retroviruses (4) Fungi
39. Which of the following are correct to describe viruses? (EAMCET 2007)
28
 Biological Classification

I. Simple and unicellular organisms.

II. Contain DNA or RNA and enclosed by protein coat.
III. Possess own metabolic system and respond to stimuli.
IV. Maintain genetic continuity and undergo mutations.
The correct combination is
(1) I and II (2) II and IV (3) II and III (4) I and III
40. Viruses that infect bacteria, multiply and cause their lysis are (Manipal 2007)
(1) Lysozymes (2) Lipolytic (3) Lytic (4) Lysogenic
41. Which of the following statement is not true for retroviruses? (Manipal 2007)
(1) DNA is not present at any stage in the life cycle of retroviruses
(2) Retroviruses carry gene for RNA dependent DNA polymerase
(3) The genetic material in mature retroviruses is RNA
(4) Retroviruses are causative agents for certain kinds of cancer in man
42. Which is correct? (MHTCET 2007)
(1) RNA is genetic material of bacteria
(2) RNA is genetic material of all virus
(3) DNA is genetic material of some organism
(4) Some virus has RNA as genetic material
43. W’hich statement is correct for bacterial transduction? (RPMT 2007)
(1) Transfer of some genes from one bacteria to another bacteria through virus
(2) Transfer of genes from one bacteria to another bactcria by conjugation
(3) Bacteria obtain DNA directly
(4) Bacteria obtain DNA from other external source
44. Which of the following processes needs bacteriophage? (BCECE 2007)
(1) Transduction (2) Translation (3) Transformation (4) Conjugation
45. HIV has a protein coat and genetic material (AMU 2007)
(1) ssRNA (2) dsRNA (3) ssDNA (4) dsDNA
46. Viral genome incorporated into host DNA is called (BHU 2007)
(1) Prophase (2) Prophage (3) Bacteriophage (4) None of these
47. Viroids have (Punjab PMET 2007)
(1) ssRNA not enclosed by protein coat (2) ssDNA not enclosed by protein coat
(3) dsDNA enclosed by protein coat (4) dsRNA enclosed by protein coat
48. Outer covering of virus made up of protein is (AFMC 2005)
(1) Capsid (2) Coat (3) Virion (4) Viriod
49. Viral genome, incorporated and integrated with bacterial genome is referred to as (AFMC 2005)
(1) Prophages (2) RNA (3) DNA (4) Both (1) and (3)
50. Which statement is incorrect? (UP CPMT 2005)
(1) Plant virus contains RNA (2) Animal virus contains DNA
(3) T4 contains dsDNA (4) TMV contains dsRNA

51. Viruses possess (BHU 2005)

(1) DNA only (2) Nucleic acid, DNA or RNA
(3) Protein only (4) Nucleic acid and protein
52. Which part of an animal virus is not reproduced in multiple copies? (BHU 2005)
29
 Biological Classification

(1) Capsid (2) Proteins (3) Envelope (4) Ribosomes

30
 Biological Classification

53. The latest view for the origin of viruses is (Punjab PMET 2005)
(1) These have arisen from nucleic acid and protein found in primitive soup
(2) These arose from bacteria as a result of the loss of cell wall, ribosome, etc
(3) These arose from some bacteria, which had developed a nucleus only
(4) These are modified plasmids, which are infact the fragments of the nucleic acids of the host
54. Identify the correct pair that shows the double stranded RNA among the following
(1) Cauliflower mosaic virus and dahlia mosaic virus (EAMCET 2005)
(2) Polio virus and wound tumour virus
(3) Wound tumour virus and reovirus
(4) Tobacoo mosaic virus and reovirus
55. Severe Acute Respiratory Syndrome (SARS) (AIIMS 2004)
(1) Is caused by a variant of Pneumococcus pneumoniae
(2) Is caused by a variant of the common cold virus (corona virus)
(3) Is an acute form of asthma
(4) Affects non-vegetarians much faster than the vegetarians
56. Prions are (AMU 2004)
(1) Infectious nucleic acids (2) Infectious lipids
(3) Infectious proteins (4) Infectious nucleoproteins
57. Assertion Viruses cause diseases and replicate when they are in the host.
Reason Viruses do not replicate outside the host but they remain alive. (EAMCET 2004)
58. Viroids differ from viruses in having (Haryana PMT 2004)
(1) Naked RNA molecules only
(2) Naked DNA molecules only
(3) Naked DNA packed with viral genome
(4) Satellite RNA packed with viral genome
56. Mosaic disease in tobacco is due to (BCECE 2004)
(1) Bacteria (2) Virus (3) Mycoplasma (4) Algae
60. Tobacco mosaic virus is a tubular filament of size (CBSE AIPMT 2003)
(1) 300 × 20 nm (2) 700 × 30 nm (3) 300 × l0 nm (4) 300 × 5 nm
61. Viruses are no more ‘alive’ than isolated chromosomes because (UP CPMT 2003)
(1) They both require oxygen for respiration
(2) Both require the environment of a cell to replicate
(3) They require both RNA and DNA
(4) They both need food molecules
62. Virion is a (AMU 2003)
(1) Bacterium (2) Blue-green algae
(3) Simple virus particle (4) None of these
63. Plant virus contains (AMU 2003)
(1) DNA (2) RNA (3) Both (1) and (2) (4) Plasmids
64. Enzymes are absent in (Punjab PMET 2003)
(1) Algae (2) Plants (3) Virus (4) Bacteria

31
 Biological Classification

65. Single stranded nucleic acid is found in (DUMET 2003)

(1) E. coli (2) f × 174 (3) l (4) T4
66. The RNA like particle, which causes disease is (RPMT 2003)
(1) Virion (2) Viroid (3) Prion (4) Mycoplasma
67. Which one of the following does not grow in artificial media? (RPMT 2003)
(1) TMV (2) Bacteria (3) Yeast (4) Rhizopus
68. Size of TMV is (Guj CET 2003)
(1) 300 nm long and 18 nm diameter (2) 100 nm long and 20 nm diameter
(3) 50 nm long and 10 nm diameter (4) 500 nm long and 300 nm diameter
69. Which one is correctly matched? (Haryana PMT 2003)
(1) Oncogenes — ageing
(2) Replication fork — mRNA
(3) AIDS virus — reverse transcriptase
(4) Initiation factors — amino acid activation
Questions Asked in 2013, 2014, & 2015
1. Besides paddy fields, cyanobacteria are also found inside vegetative part of [NEET-2013]
(1) Pinus (2) Cycas (3) Equisetum (4) Psilotum
2. Pigment containing membranous extensions in some cyanobacteria are [NEET-2013]
(1) Heterocyst’s (2) Basal bodies (3) Pneumatophores (4) Chromatophores
3. Tracheophyta consists of [NEET-2013]
(1) Bryophytes only (2) Pteridophytes
(3) Gymnosperms and angiosperms (4) Both (2) and (3)
4. Which is called ‘sexual system’ of classification? [NEET-2013]
(1) Bentham and Hooker’s (2) Tippo’s
(3) Linnaeus (4) Takhtajan
5. Which of the following is/are grouped under phanerogams? [NEET-2013]
(1) Angiosperms (2) Gymnosperms (3) Pteridophytes (4) Both (1) and (2)
6. Protists obtain their food as [NEET-2013]
(1) Photosynthesis only (2) Chemosynthesisers
(3) Heterotrophs only (4) Both (1) and (3)
7. The motile bacteria are able to move by [AIPMT-2014]
(1) cilia (2) pili (3) fimbriae (4) flagella
8. Five kingdom system of classification suggested by R.H. Whittaker is not based on :
(1) Mode of nutrition [AIPMT-2014]
(2) Complexity of body organization
(3) Presence or absence of a well defined nucleus
(4) Mode of reproduction
9. Viruses have : [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Single chromosome (2) Both DNA and RNA as
(3) DNA enclosed in a protein coat (4) Prokaryotic nucleus
10. Archaebacteria differ from eubacteria in : [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Cell shape (2) Mode of reproduction
(3) Cell membrane structure (4) Mode of nutrition
11. Anoxygenic photosynthesis is characteristic of [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Chlamydomonas (2) Ulva (3) Rhodospirillum (4) Spirogyra
12. Which of the following shows coiled RNA strand and capsomeres? [AIPMT-2014]
(1) Measles virus (2) Retrovirus
(3) Polio virus (4) Tobacco mosaic virus
13. True nucleus is absent in : [AIPMT-2015]
(1) Mucor (2) Vaucheria (3) Volvox (4) Anabaena

32
 Biological Classification

1. Classification
1. (3) 2. (1) 3. (3) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1) 7. (2) 8. (1)
2. Kingdom-Monera
1. (1) 21. (2) 41. (4) 61. (2) 81. (5) 101. (3)

2. (2) 22. (4) 42. (3) 62. (1) 82. (3) 102. (2)

3. (2) 23. (2) 43. (3) 63. (2) 83. (1) 103. (2)

4. (4) 24. (4) 44. (4) 64. (1) 84. (2) 104. (2)

5. (1) 25. (4) 45. (3) 65. (3) 85. (2) 105. (1)

6. (2) 26. (3) 46. (4) 66. (1) 86. (3) 106. (2)

7. (3) 27. (1) 47. (1) 67. (3) 87. (1) 107. (2)

8. (1) 28. (2) 48. (3) 68. (1) 88. (1) 108. (4)

9. (2) 29. (3) 49. (2) 69. (1) 89. (3) 109. (4)

10. (2) 30. (2) 50. (2) 70. (3) 90. (2) 110. (3)

11. (1) 31. (3) 51. (2) 71. (4) 91. (1) 111. (2)

12. (2) 32. (4) 52. (1) 72. (2) 92. (2) 112. (1)

13. (2) 33. (3) 53. (1) 73. (3) 93. (3) 113. (1)

14. (2) 34. (2) 54. (2) 74. (4) 94. (1) 114. (1)

15. (4) 35. (4) 55. (3) 75. (1) 95. (2) 115. (4)

16. (3) 36. (2) 56. (4) 76. (2) 96. (2)

17. (4) 37. (3) 57. (3) 77. (4) 97. (2)

18. (4) 38. (2) 58. (3) 78. (1) 98. (1)

19. (3) 39. (2) 59. (3) 79. (3) 99. (3)

20. (3) 40. (1) 60. (2) 80. (3) 100. (1)

3. Kingdom-Protista
1. (5) 5. (1) 9. (2) 13. (2) 17. (2) 21. (1)

2. (3) 6. (2) 10. (1) 14. (1) 18. (4) 22. (4)

3. (1) 7. (4) 11. (5) 15. (2) 19. (4) 23. (4)

4. (1) 8. (4) 12. (4) 16. (1) 20. (1) 24. (4)

4. Fungi
1. (1) 2. (1) 3. (4) 4. (1) 5. (2) 6. (1)
33
 Biological Classification

7. (1) 29. (1) 51. (1) 73. (1) 95. (1) 117. (1)

8. (4) 30. (1) 52. (3) 74. (1) 96. (1) 118. (2)

9. (2) 31. (4) 53. (1) 75. (2) 97. (3) 119. (3)

10. (3) 32. (4) 54. (4) 76. (3) 98. (1) 120. (3)

11. (2) 33. (4) 55. (4) 77. (3) 99. (1) 121. (1)

12. (2) 34. (2) 56. (3) 78. (4) 100. (2) 122. (1)

13. (3) 35. (1) 57. (2) 79. (2) 101. (3) 123. (2)

14. (3) 36. (3) 58. (2) 80. (1) 102. (1) 124. (4)

15. (2) 37. (3) 59. (1) 81. (1) 103. (2) 125. (2)

16. (3) 38. (1) 60. (3) 82. (1) 104. (2) 126. (2)

17. (1) 39. (2) 61. (2) 83. (2) 105. (3) 127. (1)

18. (4) 40. (4) 62. (4) 84. (2) 106. (1) 128. (4)

19. (3) 41. (1) 63. (3) 85. (2) 107. (3) 129. (1)

20. (1) 42. (1) 64. (1) 86. (1) 108. (4) 130. (3)

21. (1) 43. (1) 65. (1) 87. (1) 109. (2) 131. (3)

22. (1) 44. (1) 66. (3) 88. (3) 110. (1) 132. (3)

23. (3) 45. (1) 67. (1) 89. (5) 111. (2) 133. (3)

24. (3) 46. (4) 68. (4) 90. (5) 112. (1) 134. (2)

25. (2) 47. (1) 69. (1) 91. (3) 113. (2) 135. (4)

26. (4) 48. (2) 70. (4) 92. (2) 114. (4) 136. (3)

27. (2) 49. (3) 71. (1) 93. (4) 115. (2)

28. (5) 50. (2) 72. (4) 94. (3) 116. (1)

5. Virus/Viroids
1. (4) 10. (1) 19. (3) 28. (1) 37. (4)

2. (1) 11. (1) 20. (1) 29. (2) 38. (2)

3. (4) 12. (2) 21. (3) 30. (4) 39. (2)

4. (4) 13. (2) 22. (2) 31. (4) 40. (3)

5. (1) 14. (4) 23. (2) 32. (3) 41. (1)

6. (1) 15. (1) 24. (2) 33. (1) 42. (4)

7. (3) 16. (3) 25. (4) 34. (1) 43. (1)

8. (3) 17. (1) 26. (3) 35. (3) 44. (1)

9. (1) 18. (1) 27. (4) 36. (2) 45. (4)

34
 Biological Classification

46. (1) 51. (4) 56. (3) 61. (2) 66. (2)

47. (1) 52. (4) 57. (3) 62. (3) 67. (1)

48. (1) 53. (4) 58. (1) 63. (2) 68. (1)

49. (1) 54. (3) 59. (2) 64. (3) 69. (3)

50. (4) 55. (2) 60. (1) 65. (2)

Question Asked in 2013, 2014 & 2015

1. (2) 2. (4) 3. (4) 4. (3) 5. (4) 6. (4)
7. (4) 8. (4) 9. (3) 10. (3) 11. (3) 12. (4)
13. (4)

35