XAM Idea Biology Class

Unit-I Diversity of Living Organisms
1 The Living World
1. Diversity in the Living World

Q Biodiversity is the variety and variability of life on Earth. Biodiversity is typically a measure of
variation at the genetic, species, and ecosystem level.
Q There are millions of plants and animals in the world; we know the plants and animals in our own
area by their local names. These local names would vary from place to place, even within a country.
Q To standardise the naming of living organisms such that a particular organism is known by the same
name all over the world a process called nomenclature was discovered.
Q In order to facilitate the study, number of scientists have established procedures to assign a scientific
name to each known organism.
Binomial nomenclature
Q Biologists follow universally accepted principles to provide scientific names to known organisms.
Each name has two components – the Generic name and the specific epithet. This system of providing
a name with two components is called Binomial nomenclature.
Q This naming system was given by Carolus Linnaeus.
Q Universal rules of nomenclatural system are as follows:
1. Biological names are generally in Latin and written in italics. They are Latinised or derived
from Latin irrespective of their origin.
2. The first word in a biological name represents the genus while the second component denotes
the specific epithet.
3. Both the words in a biological name, when handwritten, are separately underlined, or printed
in italics to indicate their Latin origin.
4. The first word denoting the genus starts with a capital letter while the specific epithet starts
with a small letter. It can be illustrated with the example of Mangifera indica.
Classification
Q Classification is the process by which anything is grouped into convenient categories based on some
easily observable characters.
Q The scientific term for these categories is taxa.
Q Based on characteristics, all living organisms can be classified into different taxa. This process of
classification is taxonomy.
Q Characterisation, identification, classification and nomenclature are the processes that are basic to
taxonomy.
The Living World 7

2 Biological
Classification
1. Introduction
Q Aristotle was the earliest to attempt a scientific basis for classification. He used simple morphological
characters to classify plants into trees, shrubs and herbs.
Q He also divided animals into two groups, those which had red blood and those that did not.
Q In Linnaeus’ time a Two Kingdom system of classification with Plantae and Animalia kingdoms was
developed that included all plants and animals respectively.
Q Large number of organisms did not fall into either category.
Q This system did not distinguish between the eukaryotes and prokaryotes, unicellular and multicellular
organisms and photosynthetic (green algae) and non-photosynthetic (fungi) organisms.
Q A need was also felt for including, besides gross morphology, other characteristics like cell structure,
nature of wall, mode of nutrition, habitat, methods of reproduction, evolutionary relationships, etc.
Q R.H. Whittaker (1969) proposed a Five Kingdom Classification. The kingdoms defined by him were
named Monera, Protista, Fungi, Plantae and Animalia.
Q The main criteria for classification used by him include cell structure, thallus organisation, mode of
nutrition, reproduction and phylogenetic relationships.
Table 2.1: Characteristics of five kingdoms.
Five Kingdoms
Characters
Monera Protista Fungi Plantae Animalia
Cell type Prokaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic Eukaryotic
Cell wall Non-cellular Present in some Present (with Present (cellulose) Absent
(polysaccharide + chitin)
amino acid)
Nuclear Absent Present Present Present Present

membrane
Body Cellular Cellular Multicellular/loose Tissue/organ Tissue/organ/

organisation tissue organ system
Mode of Autotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic

nutrition (chemosynthetic (Photosynthetic) (Saprophytic / (Photosynthetic) (Holozoic/
and photosynthetic) and Parasitic) Saprophytic
& Heterotrophic/ Heterotrophic etc.)
Parasitic /
Saprophytic
Biological Classification 21
3 Plant
Kingdom
1. Introduction
Q Kingdom plantae includes all eukaryotic chlorophyll containing organisms. Commonly known as
plants.
Q These are autotrophic in nature except few members which are partially heterotrophic (e.g.
insectivorous plants) or parasites (e.g. Cuscuta, Rafflessia, etc.)
Q Plant cells are typically eukaryotic and remain surrounded by a cellulosic cell wall. These possess
prominent chloroplast.
Q Life cycle of plants has two distinct phases - the diploid sporophyte and the haploid gametophyte.
These two phases alternate with each other. This phenomenon is called alternation of generation.
Q The length of haploid and diploid phases vary among different groups of plants.
Q Our understanding of plant kingdom has changed overtime.
Presently plantae has been classified under following categories.
(a) Algae These are non flowering plants
(b) Bryophyta or cryptogams.
(c) Pteridophyta
(d) Gymnosperms These are flowering plants
(e) Angiosperms termed as phanerogams.
PLANT KINGDOM
Sub-Group I. Cryptogams Sub-Group II. Phanerogams

(No Seed prduction) (Seed producing Plants)
Division-1: Division-2 Division-3 Division-1 Division-2

Thallophyta Bryophyta Peteridophyta Gymnospermae Angiospermae
Class 1. Algae Class 1. Hepaticopsida Class 1. Psilopsida Class 1. Cycadophyta Class 1. Monocotyledonae
Class 2. Fungi Class 2. Anthoceropsida Class 2. Lycopsida Class 2. Coniferophyta Class 2. Dicotyledonae
Class 3. Bryopsida Class 3. Sphenopsida
Class 4. Pteropsida
46 Xam idea Biology–XI

4 Animal
Kingdom
1. Introduction
Q Over a million of species of animals have been described till now hence there is much need of
classification.
Q The following criteria has been taken into considerations for making animal classifications.
A. Level of Organisation
Various members of Animalia show different levels of organisations:
Q Cellular level of organisation: In case of members of phylum porifera, (i.e., sponges) the cells are
arranged as loose cell aggregates. This do not form any tissue.
Q Tissue level of organisation: Incase of coelenterates several cells combine together to perform same
function, i.e., arranged into tissue.
Q Organ level of organisation: Members of platyhelminthes and other higher phylas various tissues
are grouped together to form organs to perform specialized function.
Q Organ-system level of organisation: In case of animals belonging to phylum Annelida,
Arthropoda,Mollusca, Echinodermata and Chordata various organs have associate to form systems
to perform specific physiological function. Such a pattern is called organ-system level of organisation.
The various organ system (e.g., digestive system, respiratory system, circulatory system, etc.) in
different group of animals exhibit various pattern of complexities.
B. Symmetry
I t refers to the plane of division which divides a body in two equal halves. Various animals have
been classified on the basis of their symmetry into three categories:
Q Asymmetrical: In case in sponges the body can not be divided into two equal halves in any plane,
hence body is asymmetrical.
Q Radially Symmetrical: In case of animals belonging to Coelenterata, Ctenophora and Echinodermata
body can be divided into two equal halves by any plane passing through the central axis. Such
organisms are radially symmetrical.
Q Bilaterally symmetrical: It the body is divisible into two equal halves in just one plane, it is bilaterally
symmetrical. Such a body is found in members of phylum Annelida, Arthropoda, chordata, etc.

Q. 3. How useful is the study of nature of body cavity and coelom in the classification of animals.
Ans. Coelom is the body cavity lined by mesoderm. Presence of true coelom is an advanced feature
and higher animals possess true coelom and known as coelomate. Lower animals belonging
to porifera, coelenterata and platyhelminthes lack coelom. These are primitive animals known
as acoelomate. An intermediate conditions is found in Aschelminthes which is known as
pseudocoelomate (false coelom present).
Q. 4. Distinguish between intracellular and extracellular digestion.
Ans.
Intracellular Digestion Extracellular Digestion
1. When digestion takes place within the 1. When digestion takes place within the human of alimentary
cells, it is intracellular digestion. canal, i.e., outside the cells, it is extracellular digestion.
2. It involves use of lysosomes. 2. It involves used of digestive glands.
3. Only few enzymes are involved. 3. It involves activity of several enzymes.
4. Digestion takes place within 4. Digestion does not take place within lysosomes, rather
secondary lysosomes. outside the cells.
5. It is characteristic of mainly 5. It is characteristic of multicellular organisms.
unicellular organisms.
Q. 5. What is the difference between direct and indirect development?

Ans.
Direct Development Indirect Development
1. Direct development means development of 1. In case of indirect development there is
young ones without any intermediate larval stage. development of one or more larval stages.
2. The young ones resemble the adult in all respect. 2. The larval forms undergo several changes to
become adult like.
3. Examples: Mammals, Earthworm, Aves, Hydra, 3. Examples: Housefly, Mosquito, Frog, Nereis, etc.
etc.
Q. 6. What are the peculiar features that you find in parasitic platyhelminthes?
Ans. Parasitic helminthes show certain peculiar adaptations which include:
(i) Presence of hooks and suckers for attachment to host surface.
(ii) Nutrients are absorbed directly from host through their general body surface.
(iii) Presence of thick in tegument (body covering) resistant to host’s digestive enzymes.
(iv) Absence of digestive organs.
(vi) Well developed reproductive system.
(vii) These perform anaerobic respiration.
Q. 7. What are the reasons that you think of for the arthropods to constitute the largest group of
animal kingdom?
Ans. Regarding the question the chief characteristic of arthropods is their chitinous exoskeleton.
Chitin being impervious to water hence fungi and arthropods from largest group of organisms.
beside they:
(i) Possess striated muscles for quick movement.
(ii) Tracheal respiration for direct supply of oxygen.
(iii) Jointed appendages for variety of functions, etc.
Q. 8. Water vascular system is the characteristic of which group of the following: (a) Porifera
(b) Ctenophora (c) Echinodermata (d) Chordata.
Ans. Water vascular system is characteristic of:
(a) Porifera and (c) Echinodermata.

1. Assertion : Lateral line system is found in fishes and aquatic larval amphibians.
Reason : Lateral line system has receptors which are the clusters of sensory cell derived
from ectoderm.
2. Assertion : The duck-billed Platypus and the spiny-ant-eater are egg laying animals yet
grouped under mammals.
Reason : Both possess seven cervical vertebrae and twelve pairs of cranial nerves.
3. Assertion : Bats and whales are classified as mammals.
Reason : Bats and whales have four chambered heart.
4. Assertion : Cephalization is advantageous to an animal.
Reason : It improves the appearance of the animal.
5. Assertion : Avian bones are pneumatic.
Reason : This makes body light for flight in air.
6. Assertion : Tapeworm, roundworm and pinworm are endoparasites of human intestine.
Reason : Improperly cooked food is the source of all types of intestinal infections.
7. Assertion : Many female insects emit pheromones in the air.
Reason : Pheromones help the males to locate females far away from them.
8. Assertion : Coral reef some as stable marine ecosystem.
Reason : These are formed by accumulation of debris.
9. Assertion : Hormones are carried to the target organs by blood.
Reason : Endocrine glands lack ducts.
10. Assertion : Oysters and clams produce pearls.
Reason : They are cultured for this purpose.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (a) 3. (b) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (c) 9. (a) 10. (b)
Passage-based/Case-based/
Source-based Questions
PASSAGE–1
Study the given diagram and answer the questions that follow:
(i) What has been represented by the given diagram?

(ii) What is the position of central nervous system in chordates?
(iii) Is post and tail present in all chordates?

Unit-III Cell: Structure and Functions
8 Cell: The Unit of Life
1. Cell
Q This universe is made up of only two things, the matter and the energy.
Q The living organisms of the Earth are different than the non-living things in a fundamental property
called organization.
Q This simplest organisation of living world is called cell and so the bodies which do not show cellular
organisation are unable to carry out life processes and are called dead or non-living.
Q The functions of living organisms are performed by the structural unit of an organism, called as cell.
Q In 1665, Robert Hooke, an English scientist while observing a dried section of cork (bark of tree)
with a crude microscope, observed small chambers in it and named them as cells. Cork is a dead
plant structure. He observed that cork had a several tiny compartments in it. He called these tiny
compartments as cells.
Q However, the cells discovered by Hooke were dead and only cellulose walls were visible.
Q Anton Van Leeuwenhoek (1674) was the first to observe living cells like bacteria, red blood cells and
protozoa. Robert Brown (1831) reported the presence of nucleus in root cells of orchids.
Q The study of the cell is termed as cytology.
Q In 1838, Matthias Schleiden, a German botanist, examined a large number of plants and observed
that all plants are composed of different kinds of cells which form the tissues of the plant.
Q Theodore Schwann (1839), a British zoologist, studied different types of animal cells and reported
that cells had a thin outer layer which is today known as the ‘plasma membrane’.
Q Schleiden and Schwann together formulated the cell theory.
Q Rudolf Virchow (1855) first explained that cells divides and new cells are formed from pre-existing
cells (Omnis cellula-e cellula). He modified the hypothesis of Schleiden and Schwann to give the cell
theory a final shape.
Q Cell Theory consists of three principles:
O All living organisms are made of cells.
O Cells are basic units of structure and function in living organisms.
O All cells arise from pre-existing cells only, by cell division.
2. Overview of Cell
Q Cells that have membrane bound nuclei are called eukaryotic whereas cells that lack a membrane
bound nucleus are prokaryotic.

9 Biomolecules
1. Introduction
Q Elemental analysis gives elemental composition of living tissues in the form of hydrogen, oxygen,
chlorine, carbon etc. while analysis for compounds gives an idea of the kind of organic and inorganic
constituents.
Q Inorganic constituents of living tissue are shown in the table below:
Table 9.1: Inorganic constituents of Living Tissue
Component Formula
+
Sodium Na
Potassium K+
Calcium Ca++
Magnesium Mg++
Water H2O
Compounds NaCl,
CaCO3
PO43–
SO42–
Q Amino acids are organic compounds containing an amino group and an acidic group as substituents
on the same carbon i.e., the a-carbon.
Q There are four substituent groups occupying the four valency positions. These are hydrogen, carboxyl
group, amino group and a variable group designated as R group. Based on the nature of R group
there are many amino acids.
COOH COOH COOH
H — C — NH3 H — C — NH2 H — C — NH2
H CH3 CH2 — OH
Glycine Alanine Serine
Amino acids
Q The chemical and physical properties of amino acids are essentially of the amino, carboxyl and the
R functional groups. Based on number of amino and carboxyl groups, there are acidic (e.g., glutamic
acid), basic (lysine) and neutral (valine) amino acids.
Q There are aromatic amino acids (tyrosine, phenylalanine, tryptophan).

10 Cell Cycle and

Cell Division
Q Growth and reproduction are characteristics of cells, indeed of all living organisms.
Q All cells reproduce by dividing into two, with each parental cell giving rise to two daughter cells each
time they divide.
1. Understanding Cell Cycle

Q The sequence of events by which a cell duplicates its genome, synthesises the other constituents of the
cell and eventually divides into two daughter cells is termed as cell cycle.
Q Although cell growth (in terms of cytoplasmic increase) is a continuous process, DNA synthesis
occurs only during one specific stage in the cell cycle.
Q The replicated chromosomes (DNA) are distributed to daughter nuclei by a complex series of events
during cell division.
2. Phases of Cell Cycle

Q The cell cycle is divided into two basic phases:
(i) Interphase (ii) M phase (Mitosis phase)
Q M-phase: The M phase represents the phase when the actual cell division or mitosis occurs.
Q The M phase starts with the nuclear division, corresponding to the separation of daughter
chromosomes (karyokinesis) and usually ends with division of cytoplasm (cytokinesis).
Q Interphase: Interphase represents the phase between two successive M phases. The interphase, though
called the resting phase, is the time during which the cell is preparing for division by undergoing
both cell growth and DNA replication in an orderly manner.
G2 (2nd gap) M (Mitosis)

Final preparpation for mitosis phase. Cell nucleus divide. Pairs of
Cell provide energy (ATP and chromatid separate from each other.
synthesize essential protein.) Cytokinesis
Cytoplasm divide to form two new cells.
S (Synthesis of DNA)
G1 (1st gap)
Cell start replicates chromosomal DNA.
Result in pairs of chromatid at centrometric region. Cell grows and accumulates
essential protein as DNA building block.
Fig. 10.1: Diagrammatic view of the Cell Cycle

Questions for Practice
1. Choose and write the correct answer for each of the following.
(i) First stable product of calvin cycle is–
(a) 2-PGA (b) 3-PGA
(c) 3-PGAL (d) PEP
(ii) In case of CAM pathway what organic acid gets stored at night?
(a) Malic Acid (b) Aspartic Acid
(c) OAA (d) Pyruvic Acid
(iii) What molecule functions are respiratory substrate in photorespiration?
(a) Glycolic Acid (b) Glyceric Acid
(c) Glyceraldehyde (d) None of these
2. In the following questions, two statements are given—one labeled Assertion (A) and the other labeled
Reason (R). Select the correct answer to these questions from the codes (a), (b), (c) and (d) as given
below:
(a)
Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, and Reason (R) is the correct
explanation of the Assertion (A).
(b) Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are correct statements, but Reason (R) is not the correct
(c) Assertion (A) is correct, but Reason (R) is incorrect statement.
(d) Assertion (A) is incorrect, but Reason (R) is correct statement.
(i) Assertion (A) : PS I functions in presence of longer wavelengths.
Reason (R) : PS I is responsible for cyclic photophosphorylation.
(ii) Assertion (A) : Photophosphorylation involves breakdown of proton gradient.
Reason (R) : Photophosphorylation is synthesis of ATP during dark reaction.
(iii) Assertion (A) : Per 10°C increase in temperature doubles the rate of photosynthesis.
Reason (R) : Increase in temperature promotes enzyme activity but upto a limit.
3. Read the following paragraph and answer four of (i) to (v) questions that follow:
The particularly large prominent cells around vascular bundles in C4 plants are termed as bundle
sheath cells and the leaves having bundle sheath cells in several layers are said to have ‘Kranz
anatomy’. Kranz means ‘wreath’ and is the reflection of arrangement of cells. The several layered
bundle sheath cells possess large number of chloroplasts. These cells have thick suberized walls
impervious to gaseous exchange and have no intercellular spaces. Examples of such plants include
maize and Sorghum.
(a) How many bundle sheath cell layers are found in C4 plants?
(b) Write the name of one C4 plant?
(c) Which material is deposited in the cell wall of bundle sheath cells?
OR
(c) Assertion-Reason
Assertion: Maize and Sorghum are C4 plants.

Reason: They perform CO2 fixation twice-once in mesophyll cells and second in bundle
sheath cells.

Short Answer Questions
Each of the following questions are of 2 marks.
Q. 1. (a) What is trigone?

(b) Name the organ of the excretory system, which stores urine before its removal from the
body.
Ans. (a) A small triangular area in the urinary bladder between the openings of ureters and internal
urethral orifice.
(b) Urinary bladder.
Q. 2. (a) What is the excretory product from kidneys of reptiles? [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Where is urea formed inside our body?
Ans. (a) Uric acid.
(b) In the liver.
Q. 3. (a) Identify the glands that perform the excretory function in prawns. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) What is the excretory structure in Amoeba?[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Green glands perform the excretory function in prawns.
(b) Contractile vacuole performs the function of excretion in Amoeba.
Q. 4. (a) Give the term for expelling urine out of body.
(b) What is the colour rendering substance found in urine?
Ans. (a) Micturition.
(b) Urochrome.
Q. 5. (a) Which hormone controls osmoregulation?
(b) If for any reasons the release of ADH is inhibited, how will this affect the volume of urine
produced?
Ans. (a) ADH.
(b) Large amount of hypotonic urine is expelled.
Q. 6. (a) What is the composition of sweat produced by sweat glands? [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) What is the role of sebaceous glands? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Composition of sweat is water, NaCl small amounts of urea, lactic acid and dissolved CO2.
(b) Sebaceous glands eliminate certain substances like sterols, hydrocarbons and waxes through
sebum.
Q. 7. (a) Differentiate Glycosuria from Ketonuria. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Mention any two metabolic disorders, which can be diagnosed by analysis of urine.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Glycosuria is the presence of glucose in urine whereas ketonuria is the presence of high
amounts of ketone bodies in the urine.
(b) Diabetes mellitus and glycosuria.
Excretory Product and their Elimination 401

Q. 8. The following abbreviations are used in the context of excretory functions, what do they stand
for?
(a) ANF (b) ADH
(c) GFR (d) DCT [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) ANF: Atrial Natriuretic Factor (b) ADH: Anti-Diuretic Hormone.
(c) GFR: Glomerular Filtration Rate. (d) DCT: Distal Convoluted Tubule
Q. 9. Why alcoholics generally suffer from dehydration? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Alcohol acts as a diuretics and decrease the secretion of ADH which in turn lowers the water
reabsorption and increases the urine output.
Q. 10. Sort the following into actively or passively transported substances during reabsorption of
GFR. [NCERT Exemplar]
+
glucose, aminoacids, nitrogenous wastes, Na , water
Ans. Actively transported: Glucose, amino acids and Na+.
Passively transported: Nitrogenous wastes and water.
Q. 11. Complete the following:
(a) Urinary excretion = Tubular reabsorption + Tubular secretion –
(b) Dialysis fluid = Plasma – [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Urinary excretion = Tubular reabsorption + Tubular secretion – Glomerular filtration.
(b) Dialysis fluid = Plasma – Nitrogenous wastes.
Q. 12. Fill in the blanks appropriately.
Organ Excretory wastes
(a) Kidneys ______________________
(b) Lungs ______________________
(c) Liver ______________________
(d) Skin _____________________ [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Kidneys – Urea, uric acid, ammonia (based on organisms but usually urea like in human
beings).
(b) Lungs – CO2 and H2O.
(c) Liver – Bilirubin, biliverdin, cholesterol, vitamins and other drugs.
(d) Skin – Water, sweat (salt, urea, lactic acid), sebum (sterols, hydrocarbons etc.)
Long Answer Questions–I

Q. 1. (a) Explain the mechanism of formation of concentrated urine in mammals.
[NCERT Exemplar]
(b) State the normal and abnormal constituents of human urine.
Ans. (a) The Henle’s loop and vasa recta play an important role in the formation of concentrated
urine. The gradient is mainly caused by NaCl and urea. NaCl is transported by the ascending
limb of Henle’s loop which is exchanged with the descending limb of vasa recta. NaCl is
returned to the interstitium by the ascending portion of vasa recta. Similarly, small amounts
of urea enter the thin segment of the ascending limb of Henle’s loop which is transported
back to the interstitium by the collecting tubule.

(b) Urine is a pale-yellow coloured slightly acidic watery fluid.
Normal Urine: Normal urine is slightly heavier than water. It gives an aromatic odour due

to the presence of volatile, bad-smelling organic substances, the ruined water, organic and
inorganic materials are the main constituents of normal urine.
Abnormal Urine: Various metabolic errors of kidney malfunctioning change the composition

of urine.
Proteinuria: Excess of protein level.

Albuminuria: The presence of albumin, usually occurs in nephritis.

Glycosuria: Presence of glucose in urea as in case of diabetes mellitus.

Hematuria: Presence of blood or blood cells in urine.

Uremia: Presence of excess urea.

Q. 2. (a) What is the role played by Renin-Angiotensin in the regulation of kidney function?
[NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Comment upon the hormonal regulation of selective reabsorption. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) A fall in glomerular blood flow or glomerular blood pressure or GFR can activate the
juxtaglomerular (JG) cells to release renin which converts angiotensinogen in blood to
angiotensin I and further to angiotensin II. Angiotensin II, being a powerful vasoconstrictor,
increases the glomerular blood pressure and thereby GFR. Angiotensin II also activates the
adrenal cortex to release aldosterone. This hormone causes reabsorption of Na+ and water
from the distal parts of the tubule. This also leads to an increase in blood pressure and GFR.
This whole mechanism is known as the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
(b) Selective reabsorption is the process in which some molecules like glucose, ions and certain
amino acids get reabsorbed from the filtrate as they pass through the neuron. ADH i.e.,
Antidiuretic hormone and ANF i.e., Atrial Natriuretic Factor are the hormones which
monitor the function of the kidney. ADH functions as the facilitation of the reabsorption
of water from DCT. The adrenal cortex is activated by Angiotensin II as a result of which
aldosterone is released. Aldosterone, in turn, induces the DCT to absorb more ions and
water. ANF regulates blood flow by causing vasodilation and increasing excretion of sodium.
Q. 3. (a) What is the procedure advised for the correction of extreme renal failure? Give a brief
account of it. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Write a short account on haemodialysis.
Ans. (a) Kidney transplantation is the ultimate procedure advised for the correction of extreme renal
failure. A functioning kidney is transplanted from a donor, Donor compatibility is evaluated
by blood tests that match the blood types and antigens.
(b) In case of renal failure, an artificial kidney is used for removing excess urea from the blood
of the patient by a process called haemodialysis. Blood is taken out from the artery of the
patient, cooled to 0°C, mixed with an anticoagulant such as heparin, and then pumped
into the apparatus called artificial kidney. In this apparatus, blood flows through channels
bounded by cellophane membrane. The membrane is impermeable to macromolecules but
permeable to small solutes. The membrane separates the blood flowing inside the channels
from a dialyzing fluid flowing outside the membrane. The wastes like urea, uric acid, and
creatinine diffuse from the blood to the dialyzing fluid across the cellophane membrane.
Such a processor separation of macromolecules from small solute particles with the help of
a permeable membrane is called dialysis. The blood coming out of the artificial kidney is
warmed to body temperature, mixed with an anti-heparin to restore its normal coagulability,
and returned to a vein of the patient.

Dialyzer inflow
pressure monitor
Clean blood
returned
to body
Air trap
Dialysis
fluid in
Dialyzer
Arterial
Dialysis pressure
fluid removed monitor
Blood
Inflow pressure removed for
monitor cleaning
Heparin
Blood pump
infusion
Q. 4. (a) The glomerular filtrate in the loop of Henle gets concentrated in the descending and then
gets diluted in the ascending limbs. Explain. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) How does tubular secretion help in maintaining ionic and acid-base balance in body
fluids? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) As the filtrate flows in the descending limb, its water is reabsorbed due to increasing
osmolality of interstitial fluid. The electrolytes are not reabsorbed here. Thus, the filtrate
becomes concentrated as it moves down. The ascending limb is impermeable to water but
allows transport of electrolytes actively or passively. Therefore, as the concentrated filtrate
pass upward, it gets diluted due to the passage of electrolytes to the intestinal fluid.
(b) Tubular secretion is crucial as it helps in the maintenance of ionic balance in the body fluids.
During urine formation, Proximal Convoluted Tubule maintains the pH and ionic balance
of the body fluids by selective secretion. Distal Convoluted Tubule is where conditional
reabsorption of sodium ions and water take place and maintain the ionic balance and pH.
Collecting Duct: From this long duct, large amounts of water could be reabsorbed to produce
concentrated urine.
Q. 5. (a) Why blood flows at low pressure in peritubular capillaries?
(b) The composition of glomerular filtrate and urine is not same. Comment.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) The flow of blood through peritubular blood capillaries increases the period for selective
reabsorption of the useful materials from the nephric filtrate & tubular secretion of the
harmful materials into the nephric filtrate.
(b) Glomerular filtrate contains all the contents of blood plasma except proteins. Then, mainly in
PCT and DCT reabsorption of various contents of the filtrate like, water, glucose, nutrients,
ions etc. occurs. As a result, now the composition of urine is quite different from that of the
glomerular filtrate. Some ions are also added to this fluid by tubules i.e., tubular secretion
to maintain ionic and acid-base balance of body fluids. Thus, the composition of glomerular
filtrate and urine is not same.
Q. 6. (a) In which part of the nephron does filtration occur?
(b) Where does the selective reabsorption of Glomerular filtrate take place?
[NCERT Exemplar]
(c) How are podocytes helpful?

Ans. (a) Glomerulus.
(b) Mainly in PCT and some also in DCT.
(c) Podocytes play an active role in preventing plasma proteins from entering the urinary
ultrafiltrate by providing a barrier comprising filtration slits between foot processes.
Q. 7. (a) Name two actively transported substances in Glomerular filtrate. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) What are the main processes of urine formation? [NCERT Exemplar]
(c) Mention the substances that exit from the tubules in order to maintain a concentration
gradient in the medullary interstitium. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Glucose and amino acids.
(b) Glomerular filtration, selective reabsorption and tubular secretion are the main processes of
urine formation.
(c) NaCl and urea.
Long Answer Questions–II

Q. 1. (a) Label the parts in the following diagram. [NCERT Exemplar]
Afferent arteriole
Efferent arteriole
Bowman’s capsule
Glomerulus
(b) Explain briefly, micturition and disorders of the excretory system. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Bowman’s capsule
Efferent arteriole
Glomerulus
Afferent arteriole
(b) There are three phases:

Phase 1: filling and storage;
Phase 2: voiding and
Phase 3: termination of voiding.
Micturition, or urination, is the act of emptying the bladder. When the bladder is full of
urine, stretch receptors in the bladder wall trigger the micturition reflex. The internal
urethral sphincter relaxes, allowing for urine to pass out of the bladder into the urethra.
Both of these reactions are involuntary.
(i) Uremia: Accumulation of urea in blood is called Uremia. Malfunctioning of kidneys can

lead to Uremia, which is highly harmful and may lead to kidney failure.

(ii) Renal calculi: This disorder is due to the formation of stone-like calcium oxalate which
results in kidney stones.
(iii) Glomerulonephritis: It is inflammation of glomeruli of kidney.
Q. 2. (a) How have the terrestrial organisms adapted themselves for conservation of water?
[NCERT Exemplar]
(b) What is ureotelism? List its advantages over ammonotelism.
(c) How do camels tolerate water deprivation for long time?
Ans. (a) Ammonia is an extremely toxic nitrogenous waste. In order to reduce the toxicity of
ammonia in the body, very large amount of water is necessary. To dilute ammonia, the bodies
of terrestrial animals do not possess adequate quantity of water. Hence in those animals,
ammonia is always converted to less toxic uric acid and urea.
(b) Ureotelism is the phenomenon of expelling urea as nitrogenous waste.
Advantages are
(i) only 50 ml of water is required to expel 1gm of urea.
(ii) urea is less toxic than ammonia.

(c) By the following process
(i) concentrating urine.
(ii) nearly dry faeces.
(iii) absence of sweating in high temperature.
Q. 3. (a) What is renin & rennin?
(b) State the position and function of the juxtaglomerular apparatus?
(c) (i) Describe the structure of a human kidney with the help of a labelled diagram.
[NCERT Exemplar]
OR
(i) Draw a labelled diagram showing reabsorption and secretion of major substances at
different parts of the nephron. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Rennin is a proteolytic enzyme which is useful in milk coagulation. Renin (Angiotensin) is
a physiological hormone system involved in the regulation of arterial blood pressure and
plasma sodium concentration. Renin is secreted by JG cells.
(b) This is a specialized cellular apparatus located where the distal convoluted tubule passes
close to the Bowman’s capsule between the afferent and efferent arterioles. JGA cells secrete
substance like renin that modulates blood pressure and renal blood flow and thus, GFR is
regulated.
(c) (i) Kidneys are reddish brown, bean shaped structures situated between the levels of last
thoracic and third lumbar vertebra close to the dorsal inner wall of the abdominal cavity.
Each kidney of an adult human measures 10-12 cm in length, 5-7 cm in width, 2-3 cm in
thickness with an average weight of 120- 170 g. Towards the centre of the inner concave
surface of the kidney is a notch called hilum through which ureter, blood vessels and
nerves enter. Inner to the hilum is a broad funnel shaped space called the renal pelvis
with projections called calyces.
The outer layer of kidney is a tough capsule. Inside the kidney, there are two zones, an
outer cortex and an inner medulla. The medulla is divided into a few conical masses
(medullary pyramids) projecting into the calyces. The cortex extends in between the
medullary pyramids as renal columns called Columns of Bertini.

Each kidney has nearly one million complex tubular structures called nephrons, which
are the functional units. Each nephron has two parts – the glomerulus and the renal
tubule. Glomerulus is a tuft of capillaries formed by the afferent arteriole – a fine branch
of renal artery. Blood from the glomerulus is carried away by an efferent arteriole. The
renal tubule starts with a cup-like structure called Bowman’s capsule, by the glomerulus
is enclosed and together they are called the renal corpuscle. Then it is followed by
proximal convoluted tubule (PCT) followed by a hairpin shaped Henle’s loop having
a descending and an ascending limb. The ascending limb continues as another highly
coiled tubular structure called distal convoluted tubule (DCT). The DCTs open into a
tube called a collecting duct.
Renal cortex
Renal pyramid
(Renal Medulla)
Renal column Minor calyx
of Bertin Renal artery
Minor calyx
Renal vein
Renal papilla Hilurn of kidney
Renal sinus
Renal pelvis
Renal capsule Ureter
(ii) Proximal convoluted tubule Distal convoluted tubule

NaCl Nutrients
H 2O
HCO3− K+ NaCl HCO3−
H2O
Cortex
H+ NH3 K+ H+
Descending limb Thin segment of
of loop of ascemding
Henle limb
NaCl
H2O Collecting
Thin duct
Medulla segment of
ascemding
limb
NaCl
Urea
H 2O
Q. 4. Discuss how kidney functions are regulated with special reference to ADH and ANF.
Ans. Osmoreceptors in the body are activated by changes in blood volume, body fluid volume and
ionic concentration. An excessive loss of fluid from the body can activate these receptors which
stimulate the hypothalamus to release antidiuretic hormone (ADH) or vasopressin from the
neurohypophysis. ADH facilitates water reabsorption from latter parts of the tubule, thereby

preventing diuresis. An increase in body fluid volume can switch off the osmoreceptors and
suppress the ADH release to complete the feedback. ADH can also affect the kidney function by
its constrictory effects on blood vessels. This causes an increase in blood pressure. An increase in
blood pressure can increase the glomerular blood flow and thereby the GFR.
An increase in blood flow to the atria of the heart can cause the release of Atrial Natriuretic
Factor (ANF). ANF can cause vasodilation (dilation of blood vessels) and thereby decrease the
blood pressure. ANF mechanism, therefore, acts as a check on the renin-angiotensin mechanism.
Q. 5. Describe the structure of PCT and DCT of nephron. Draw the diagram of nephron.
Ans. Proximal Convoluted Tubule (PCT): PCT is lined by simple cuboidal brush border epithelium
which increases the surface area for reabsorption. Nearly all of the essential nutrients, and 70-80
per cent of electrolytes and water are reabsorbed by this segment. PCT also helps to maintain the
pH and ionic balance of the body fluids by selective secretion of hydrogen ions, ammonia and
potassium ions into the filtrate and by absorption of HCO3 – from it.
Distal Convoluted Tubule (DCT): Conditional reabsorption of Na+ and water takes place in this

segment. DCT is also capable of reabsorption of HCO3 – and selective secretion of hydrogen and
potassium ions and NH3 to maintain the pH and sodium-potassium balance in blood.
Glomerular capsule
Distal convoluted
Afferent
tubule
arteriole
Proximal Cortex-medulla
convoluted tubule junction
Interlobular
artery Venule Collecting duct
Loop
of the
nephron
Interlobular Peritubular
vein capillary
network
Urine flows into

renal pelvis

(i) Glomerular filtrate will not contain normally
(a) albumin (b) NaCl
(c) glucose (d) creatine
(ii) Which of the following part has minimum reabsorption?
(a) PCT (b) HL
(c) DCT (d) Collecting duct
(iii) JGA is formed by
(a) part of DCT (b) part of afferent arteriole
(c) both (d) none
below:
(a)
(i) Assertion (A) : The urinary bladder has a well-developed, 3-layered detrusor muscle in its
wall.
Reason (R) : Bladder gradually contracts to drive urine out during micturition.
(ii) Assertion (A) : Gout and kidney failure in man occurs due to excess uric acid.
Reason (R) : Man is ureotelic.
(iii) Assertion (A) : In the descending limb of loop of Henle the urine is hypertonic while in
ascending limb of loop of Henle the urine is hypotonic.
Reason (R) :
Descending limb is impermeable to Na+ while ascending limb is
impermeable to water.
3. (a) Define renal threshold.
(b) How much is the filtering force required in the glomerulus?
4. Comment on the excretory organ of earthworm and cockroach.
5. How do malpighian tubules and malpighian body differ from each other?
6. What is flame cells? Define its work.

7. Why it is necessary to remove waste products by excretion? Give two examples of ammonotelic
organisms.
8. Why the urine output has inverse relationship with environmental temperature?
9. Write a note on kidney transplantation.
10. What consequences will follow with the failure of tubular reabsorption in nephrons? What are
immunosuppressants?
11. If the prostate gland is enlarged in old age, then what will be the effect on urination?
12. Describe the mechanism of urine formation elaborating every steps.
Answers
1. (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(b) 2. (i)—(a), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(a)
zzz

Unit-V Human Physiology
17 Locomotion and
Movement
Q Movement is one of the significant features of living beings.

Q Streaming of protoplasm in the unicellular organisms like Amoeba is a simple form of movement.
Q Human beings can move limbs, jaws, eyelids, tongue, etc. Some of the movements result in a change
of place or location. Such voluntary movements are called locomotion. Walking, running, climbing,
flying, swimming are all some forms of locomotory movements.
Q For example, in Paramecium, cilia help in the movement of food through cytopharynx and in
locomotion as well.
Q Hydra can use its tentacles for capturing its prey and also use them for locomotion.
Q All locomotions are movements but all movements are not locomotions.
Q However, locomotion is generally for search of food, shelter, mate, suitable breeding grounds,
favourable climatic conditions or to escape from enemies/predators.
1. TYPES OF MOVEMENT
Q Cells of the human body exhibit three main types of movements, namely, amoeboid, ciliary and
muscular.
Q Some specialised cells in our body like macrophages and leucocytes in blood exhibit amoeboid
movement. It is affected by pseudopodia formed by the streaming of protoplasm (as in Amoeba).
Q Ciliary movement occurs in most of our internal tubular organs which are lined by ciliated epithelium.
The coordinated movements of cilia in the trachea help us in removing dust particles and some of
the foreign substances inhaled along with the atmospheric air. Passage of ova through the female
reproductive tract is also facilitated by the ciliary movement.
Q Movement of our limbs, jaws, tongue, etc, require muscular movement. The contractile property of
muscles is effectively used for locomotion and other movements by human beings.
2. MUSCLE
Q Muscle is a specialised tissue of mesodermal origin.
Q They have special properties like excitability, contractility, extensibility and elasticity.
Q Based on their location, three types of muscles are identified: (i) Skeletal (ii) Visceral and (iii) Cardiac.
Q Skeletal muscles are closely associated with the skeletal components of the body. They have a striped
appearance under the microscope and hence are called striated muscles. As their activities are under
the voluntary control of the nervous system, they are known as voluntary muscles too.
Locomotion and Movement 411

Q Visceral muscles are located in the inner walls of hollow visceral organs of the body like the alimentary
canal, reproductive tract, etc. They do not exhibit any striation and are smooth in appearance. Hence,
they are called smooth muscles (nonstriated muscle). Their activities are not under the voluntary
control of the nervous system and are therefore known as involuntary muscles.
Q As the name suggests, cardiac muscles are the muscles of heart. Many cardiac muscle cells assemble
in a branching pattern to form a cardiac muscle. Based on appearance, cardiac muscles are striated.
They are involuntary in nature as the nervous system does not control their activities directly.
Table 17.1: Muscles and their characteristics
Main Features Location Types of Cells Histology

Skeletal  Fibres: striated, tubular
muscle and multi nucleated.
 Voluntary.
 Usually attached to
skeleton.
Smooth  Fibres: non-straited,

muscle spindle-shaped, and
uninucleated.
 Involuntary.
 Usually covering wall
of internal organs.
Cardiac  Fibres: striated,

muscle branched and
uninucleated.
 Involuntary.
 Only covering walls of
the hearth.
Q Each organised skeletal muscle in our body is made of a number of muscle bundles or fascicles held
together by a common collagenous connective tissue layer called fascia. Each muscle bundle contains
a number of muscle fibres.
Perimysium Epimysium Bone
Endomysium
Nuclei
Myofibril
Sarcolemma
Fascicle
Blood Vessel Tendon
Fig. 17.1 Structure of Skeletal Muscle
Q Each muscle fibre is lined by the plasma membrane called sarcolemma.

Q The endoplasmic reticulum, i.e., sarcoplasmic reticulum of the muscle fibres is the store house of
calcium ions.

Q A characteristic feature of the muscle fibre is the presence of myofibrils.
Q Each myofibril has alternate dark and light bands on it.
Q Myofibril has two important proteins – Actin and Myosin.
Q The light bands contain actin and is called I-band or Isotropic band, whereas the dark band called ‘A’
or Anisotropic band contains myosin.
Q Actin filaments are thinner as compared to the myosin filaments, hence are commonly called thin and
thick filaments respectively.
Q In the centre of each ‘I’ band is an elastic fibre called ‘Z’ line which bisects it. The thin filaments are
firmly attached to the ‘Z’ line.
Q The thick filaments in the ‘A’ band are also held together in the middle of this band by a thin fibrous
membrane called ‘M’ line.
Q The ‘A’ and ‘I’ bands are arranged alternately throughout the length of the myofibrils. The portion of
the myofibril between two successive ‘Z’ lines is considered as the functional unit of contraction and
is called a sarcomere.
Q In a resting state, the edges of thin filaments on either side of the thick filaments partially overlap the
free ends of the thick filaments leaving the central part of the thick filaments. This central part of thick
filament, not overlapped by thin filaments is called the ‘H’ zone.
(a)
Z line
A band I band
H zone
Sarcomere
(b)
Fig. 17.2 Diagrammatic representation of (a) anatomy of a muscle fibre showing a sarcomere
(b) a sarcomere
2.1. Structure of Contractile Proteins

Q Each actin (thin) filament is made of two ‘F’ (filamentous) actins helically wound to each other. Each
‘F’ actin is a polymer of monomeric ‘G’ (Globular) actins.
Q Two filaments of another protein, tropomyosin also run close to the ‘F’ actins throughout its length.
A complex protein troponin is distributed at regular intervals on the tropomyosin.

Q In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin
filaments.
Q Each myosin (thick) filament is also a polymerised protein. Each myosin is composed of many
meromyosin.
Q Each meromyosin has two important parts, a globular head with a short arm and a tail, the former
being called the heavy meromyosin (HMM) and the latter, the light meromyosin (LMM).
Q The globular head is an active ATPase enzyme and has binding sites for ATP and active sites for actin.
Actin binding sites
Head
Troponin ATP binding sites
Tropomyosin Cross arm

F actin
(a) (b)
Fig. 17.3 (a) An actin (thin) filament (b) Myosin monomer (Meromyosin)
2.2. Mechanism of Muscle Contraction

Q Mechanism of muscle contraction is best explained by the sliding filament theory which states that
contraction of a muscle fibre takes place by the sliding of the thin filaments over the thick filaments.
Q Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system (CNS) via a motor
neuron. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit.
Q A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter (acetyl choline) which generates an
action potential in the sarcolemma.
Q This spreads through the muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm.
Q Increase in Ca++ level leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments
and thereby remove the masking of active sites for myosin. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis,
the myosin head now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge.
Actin filament
Myosin
filament
ADP
P
Myosin
ATP filament
(Breaking of cross bridge)
Cross bridge Myosin head
(Formation of cross bridge)
P
ADP
(Sliding/rotation)
Fig. 17.4 Stages in cross bridge formation, rotation, of head and breaking of cross bridge.
Q This pulls the attached actin filaments towards the centre of ‘A’ band.
Q The ‘Z’ line attached to these actins are also pulled inwards thereby causing a shortening of the
sarcomere, i.e., contraction.

Q The myosin, releasing the ADP and P1 goes back to its relaxed state. A new ATP binds and the cross-
bridge is broken. The ATP is again hydrolysed by the myosin head and the cycle of cross bridge
formation and breakage is repeated causing further sliding.
Central Nervous System

via motor neuron
(release of neurotransmitter, acetylcholine)
Muscle Fibre
Z line returns back Generation of action

to its relaxed state potential in sarcolemma
Ca2−ions are pumped

back in sarcoplasmic cisternae
Process repeats, Release of Ca2+
resulting in sliding ions in sarcoplasm
Myosin releases ADP + Pi, Calcium binding with a

goes back to relaxed state submit of troponin on actin filament
Actin filment pulled Unmasking of

towards centre of a band active sites of myosin
Z line pulled inwards Myosin head binds to the exposed active

sarcomere shortened sites on actin to form crossbridges (utilising ATP)
Fig. 17.5 Central Nervous System
Relaxed
Actin Myosin Actin
(+) (+) (−) (−) (+) (+)
Z disk Z disk
+ ATP, Ca2+
Contracted
Fig. 17.6 Sliding-filament theory of muscle contraction (movement of the thin filaments and
the relative size of the I band and H zones)

Q The process continues till the Ca++ ions are pumped back to the sarcoplasmic cisternae. This causes
the return of ‘Z’ lines back to their original position, i.e., relaxation.
Q Repeated activation of the muscles can lead to the accumulation of lactic acid due to anaerobic
breakdown of glycogen in them, causing fatigue.
Q Muscle contains a red coloured oxygen storing pigment called myoglobin.
Red Muscle Fibre White Muscle Fibre

 High content of myoglobin & cytochrome.  Low content of myoglobin & cytochrome.
 Many mitochondria.  Few mitochondria.
 Rich blood supply.  Poor blood supply.
 Slow & continuous.  Rapid contractors.
 Smaller in diameter.  Larger in diameter.
 E.g: postural muscles.  E.g: extra ocular muslces.
3. SKELETAL SYSTEM
Q Skeletal system consists of a framework of bones and a few cartilages. This system has a significant
role in movement shown by the body.
Q Bone has a very hard matrix due to calcium salts in it and the cartilage has slightly pliable matrix due
to chondroitin salts.
Q In human beings, this system is made up of 206 bones and a few cartilages. It is grouped into two
principal divisions – the axial and the appendicular skeleton.
Q Axial skeleton comprises 80 bones distributed along the main axis of the body. The skull is composed
of two sets of bones cranial and facial, that totals to 22 bones.
Frontal bone
Paritel Sphenoid bone

bone
Ethmoid bone
Lacrimal bone
Nasal bone
Temporal Zygomatic bone
bone
Maxilla
Occipital
bone Mandlble
Occipital
condyle Hyoid bone
Fig. 17.7 Diagrammatic view of human skull
Q Cranial bones are 8 in number.

Q The facial region is made up of 14 skeletal elements which form the front part of the skull.
Q Each middle ear contains three tiny bones – Malleus, Incus and Stapes, collectively called Ear Ossicles.
Q Our vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called vertebrae and is dorsally placed.
Q The vertebral column is differentiated into cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (1-fused) and
coccygeal (1-fused) regions starting from the skull.

Q The vertebral column protects the spinal cord, supports the head and serves as the point of attachment
for the ribs and musculature of the back. Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax.
Cervical Vertebra
Thoracic Vertebra
Sternum Ribs
Intervertebral Lumbar Vertebra

dics
Vertebral
column
Sacrum
Coccyx
Fig. 17.8 Vertebral column (right lateral view) Fig. 17.9 Ribs and rib cage
Q There are 12 pairs of ribs.

Clavicle
Q First seven pairs of ribs are called true ribs. The 8th, 9th
and 10th pairs of ribs do not articulate directly with the
sternum but join the seventh rib with the help of hyaline
cartilage. These are called vertebrochondral (false) ribs. Scapula
Last 2 pairs (11th and 12th) of ribs are not connected
ventrally and are therefore, called floating ribs.
Humerus
Q The bones of the limbs along with their girdles constitute bone
the appendicular skeleton. Each limb is made of 30 bones.
Q A cup shaped bone called patella cover the knee ventrally
Elbow
(knee cap). joint
Q Pectoral and Pelvic girdle bones help in the articulation Radius
of the upper and the lower limbs respectively with the bone Ulna
axial skeleton. bone
Q Scapula is a large triangular flat bone situated in the
dorsal part of the thorax between the second and the
Carpals bone
seventh ribs.
Metacarpals
Q Pelvic girdle consists of two coxal bones.
Q Each coxal bone is formed by the fusion of three bones – Phalanges
ilium, ischium and pubis.
Q At the point of fusion of above 3 bones is a cavity called
acetabulum to which the thigh bones articulates. Fig. 17.10 Right pectoral girdle and upper
arm. (frontal view)

Table 17.2: Bones of Skeleton System
1. Axial Skeleton (80 Bones) 2. Appendicular Skeleton (126 Bones)

a. Skull 22 bones a. Pectoral girdle 4 bones
8 Cranial bones 14 Facial bones Scapula 2
Frontal 1 Maxilla 2 Clavicle 2
Parietal 2 Palatine 2 b. Upper limbs 60 bones
Occipital 1 Zygomatic 2 Humerus 2
Temporal 2 Lacrimal 2 Radius 2
Sphenoid 1 Nasal 2 Ulna 2
Ethmoid 1 Vomer 1 Carpals 16
Inferior nasal conchae 2 Metacarpal 10
Mandible 1 Phalanges 28
b. Middle ear bones 6 bones c. Pelvic girdle 2 bones

Malleus 2 Hip bones 2
Incus 2 d. Lower limbs 60 bones
Stapes 2 Femur 2
c. Hyoid 1 bone Tibia 2
Hyoid bone 1 Fibula 2
d. Vertebral column 26 bones Patella 2
Cervical vertebra 7 Tarsal 14
Thoracic vertebra 12 Metatarsals 10
Lumbar vertebra 5 Phalanges 28
Sacrum 1 Total 206 bones
Coccyx 1
e. Thoracic cage 25 bones
Rib 24
Sternum 1
4. JOINTS
Q Joints are essential for all types of movements involving the bony parts of the body.
Q Joints have been classified into three major structural forms, namely, fibrous, cartilaginous and
synovial.
Q Fibrous joints do not allow any movement. This type of joint is shown by the flat skull bones which
fuse end-to-end with the help of dense fibrous connective tissues in the form of sutures, to form the
cranium.
Q In cartilaginous joints, the bones involved are joined together with the help of cartilages. The joint
between the adjacent vertebrae in the vertebral column is of this pattern and it permits limited
movements.
Q Synovial joints are characterised by the presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity between the
articulating surfaces of the two bones. Such an arrangement allows considerable movement.
Q These joints help in locomotion and many other movements. Ball and socket joint (between
humerus and pectoral girdle), hinge joint (knee joint), pivot joint (between atlas and axis), gliding
joint (between the carpals) and saddle joint (between carpal and metacarpal of thumb) are some
examples.

Table 17.2: Different types of joints
Ball and Socket Hinge Pivot Gliding/Saddle Fixed/Immovable
Hinge joint Immovable joint

Pivot joint Saddle joint
Ball and Socket joint
Moves up, down, Moves back/forth Swivels Slides back and Does not move,
back and forth, and or up/down forth or very little
around; has the movement
greatest range of
motion
Shoulder and hip/leg Elbow and knee Neck Wrist and ankle Skull and pelvis
5. DISORDERS OF MUSCULAR AND SKELETAL SYSTEM

Myasthenia gravis: Auto immune disorder affecting neuromuscular junction leading to fatigue,
weakening and paralysis of skeletal muscle.
Muscular dystrophy: Progressive degeneration of skeletal muscle mostly due to genetic disorder.
Tetany: Rapid spasms (wild contractions) in muscle due to low Ca++ in body fluid.
Arthritis: Inflammation of joints.
Osteoporosis: Age-related disorder characterised by decreased bone mass and increased chances of
fractures. Decreased levels of estrogen is a common cause.
Gout: Inflammation of joints due to accumulation of uric acid crystals.
NCERT Exercises
Q. 1. Draw the diagram of a sarcomere of skeletal muscle showing different regions.
Ans. Refer to Fig 17.2.
Q. 2. Define sliding filament theory of muscle contraction.
Ans. Sliding filament theory states that the muscle fibre contraction occurs due to the sliding of the
thin filaments over thick filaments.
Q. 3. Describe the important steps in muscle contraction.
Ans. Refer to Points to remember 2.2.
Q. 4. Write true or false. If false change the statement so that it is true.
(a) Actin is present in thin filament
(b) H-zone of striated muscle fibre represents both thick and thin filaments.
(c) Human skeleton has 206 bones.
(d) There are 11 pairs of ribs in man.
(e) Sternum is present on the ventral side of the body.
Ans. (a) True
(b) False – H-Zone of striated muscle fibres represents only thick filaments.
(c) True
(d) False – There are 12 pairs of ribs in man.
(e) True

Q. 5. Write the difference between:
(a) Actin and Myosin
(b) Red and White muscles
(c) Pectoral and Pelvic girdle
Ans. (a)
Actin Myosin
Thin filaments (I-bands) of the myofilament are Thick filaments (A-bands) of the myofilament are
formed. formed.
It is built of globular actin monomers. It is built of meromyosin monomers.
The regulatory proteins troponin and tropomyosin The regulatory proteins are not linked, instead
are linked with the actin. each of the meromyosin is built of four light chains
and two identical heavy chains.
Consists of 2 proteins. Consists of many meromyosin.
(b)

Red Muscle Fibre White Muscle Fibre
 High content of myoglobin & cytochrome.  Low content of myoglobin & cytochrome.
 Many mitochondria.  Few mitochondria.
 Rich blood supply.  Poor blood supply.
 Slow & continuous contraction.  Rapid contractions.
 Smaller in diameter.  Larger in diameter.
 E.g: postural muscles.  E.g: extra ocular muscles.
(c)

Pectoral girdle Pelvic girdle
1. It is a skeletal support from where the 1. It is a skeletal support from where the hind
forelimbs of vertebrates are attached. limbs of vertebrates are attached.
2. It is composed of two bones namely, clavicle or 2. It is composed of three bones, upper ilium,
collar bones and scapula or shoulder bone. inner pubis, and ischium.
Q. 6. Match Column I with Column II:

Column I Column II
(a) Smooth muscle (i) Myoglobin
(b) Tropomyosin (ii) Thin filament
(c) Red muscle (iii) Sutures
(d) Skull (iv) Involuntary
Ans. (a)—(iv), (b)—(ii), (c)—(i), (d)—(iii)
Q. 7. What are the different types of movements exhibited by the cells of human body?
Ans. 1. Amoeboid Movement – Leucocytes found in blood exhibit this type of movement. Leucocytes
from the circulatory system move towards the injury site when there is a damage to the tissue
in order to initiate an immune response.
2. Muscular movement – The muscle cells exhibit this type of movement.

3. Ciliary movement – Sex cells (sperms and ova) exhibit this type of movement. This movement
facilitates the passage of ova via the fallopian tube on its way to the uterus.
Q. 8. How do you distinguish between a skeletal muscle and a cardiac muscle?
Ans.
Skeletal muscle Cardiac muscle
1. Linked to the bones. 1. Located in walls of heart.
2. Fibres unbranched. 2. Fibres unbranched.
3. Peripherally located nucleus. 3. Centrally located nucleus.
4. Striations present. 4. Striations present.
5. No intercalated disc. 5. Intercalated disc are present.
6. Very rapid contraction. 6. Rapid contraction.
7. Voluntary. 7. Involuntary.
8. It helps to maintain locomotory actions of the 8. Movement of the heart.
body.
Q. 9. Name the type of joint between the following:-

(a) atlas/axis
(b) carpal/metacarpal of thumb
(c) between phalanges
(d) femur/acetabulum
(e) between cranial bones
(f) between pubic bones in the pelvic girdle
Ans. (a) Pivot joint
(b) Saddle joint
(c) Hinge joint
(d) Ball and Socket joint
(e) Fibrous joint
(f) Cartilaginous joint
Q. 10. Fill in the blank spaces:
(a) All mammals (except a few) have __________ cervical vertebra.
(b) The number of phalanges in each limb of human is __________.
(c) Thin filament of myofibril contains 2 ‘F’ actins and two other proteins namely __________
and __________.
(d) In a muscle fibre Ca++ is stored in __________.
(e) __________ and __________ pairs of ribs are called floating ribs.
(f) The human cranium is made of __________ bones.
Ans. (a) seven
(b) 14
(c) troponin, tropomyosin
(d) sarcoplasmic reticulum
(e) 11th and 12th
(f) 8

Multiple Choice Questions
Choose and write the correct option in the following questions.

1. Match the following and mark the correct option.
Column I Column II
A. Fast muscle fibres (i) Myoglobin
B. Slow muscle fibres (ii) Lactic acid
C. Actin filament (iii) Contractile unit
D. Sarcomere (iv) I-band
Options:
(a) A-(i), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(iii) (b) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (d) A-(iii), B-(ii), C-(iv), D-(i)
2. The pivot joint between atlas and axis is a type of (NEET 2017)
(a) fibrous joint (b) synovial joint
(c) saddle joint (d) cartilaginous joint
3. An acromian process is characteristically found in the
(a) pelvic girdle of mammals (b) pectoral girdle of mammals
(c) skull of frog (d) sperm of mammals
4. Ribs are attached to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) scapula (b) sternum
(c) clavicle (d) ilium
4. Total number of bones found in right upper limb is [AFMC 2004]
(a) 24 (b) 26
(c) 30 (d) 60
5. This ion is responsible for unmasking of active sites for myosin or cross-bridge activity during
muscle contraction. (NEET – II 2016)
(a) Potassium (b) Magnesium
(c) Calcium (d) Sodium
7. Motor end plate is a
(a) neuromuscular junction.
(b) plate of motor neuron.
(c) dendron of motor neuron.
(d) gradient of protein motive force.
8. During muscle contraction which of the following events occur? [AIIMS 2012]
(i) H-zone disappears.
(ii) A-band widens.
(iii) I-band reduces in width.
(iv) Width of A-band is unaffected.
(v) M-line and Z-line come closer.
(a) (i), (iii), (iv), (v) (b) (i), (ii) , (v)
(c) (ii) (iv) (v) (d) (i), (ii) and (iii)

9. Cardiac muscle is characterized by
(a) striated appearance (b) branching pattern
(c) involuntary control (d) all
10. The major function of intervertebral discs is to [DUMET 2010]
(a) absorb shock (b) string the vertebrae together
(c) prevents injuries (d) prevents hyper extension
11. Lack of relaxation between successive stimuli in sustained muscle contraction is known as
(NEET – I 2016)
(a) fatigue (b) tonus
(c) tetanus (d) spasm
12. Rigor mortis is
(a) contraction after death (b) contraction before death
(c) contraction before birth (d) no contraction
13. Actin-binding sites are located on
(a) troponin (b) tropomyosin
(c) meromyosin (d) both tropomyosin and meromyosin
14. ATPase of the muscle is located in [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) actinin (b) troponin
(c) myosin (d) actin
15. Light and dark band present in myofibrils of muscle are
(a) dark-A and light-Z bands (b) dark-A and light-I bands
(c) dark-D and light-A bands (d) dark-D and light-L bands
16. Synovial fluid is found in
(a) freely movable joints (b) spinal cavity
(c) cranial cavity (d) immovable joints
17. Sarcoplasmic reticulum is a store house of which ion?
(a) Na+ (b) K+
(c) Fe2+ (d) Ca2+
18. A neurotransmitter which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma is
(a) GABA (b) epinephrine
(c) glycine (d) acetylcholine
19. Ball and socket joint is found between
(a) humerus and pectoral girdle (b) humerus and olecranon fossa
(c) femur and tibio-fibula (d) ribs and vertebral
20. Which one of the following is showing the correct sequential order of vertebrae in the vertebral
column of human beings? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Cervical — lumbar — thoracic — sacral — coccygeal
(b) Cervical — thoracic — sacral — lumbar — coccygeal
(c) Cervical — sacral — thoracic — lumbar — coccygeal
(d) Cervical — thoracic — lumbar — sacral — coccygeal
21. The joint found between sternum and the ribs in humans is
(a) angular joint (b) fibrous joint
(c) cartilaginous joint (d) gliding joint

22. The H-zone in the skeletal muscle fibers is due to (NEET 2013)
(a) the central gap between myosin filaments in the A-band.
(b) absence of myofibrils in the central portion of A-band.
(c) extension of myosin filaments in the centre portion of the A-band.
(d) central gap between actin filament extending through myosin filaments in the A-band.
23. The coxal of the pelvic girdle is formed by the fusion of [Kerala PMT 2011]
(a) ilium, ischium and pubis (b) scapula and clavicle
(c) ilium and scapula (d) clavicle and pubis
24. Which of the following is made up of a single bone in mammal?
(a) Hyoid (b) All of these
(c) Dentary (d) None of these
25. In humans, during muscle contraction, the (NEET 2013)
(a) actin filaments shorten (b) A, I and H bands shorten
(c) A band remains the same (d) sarcomere does not shorten
26. Match the followings and mark the correct option. [NCERT Exemplar]
Column I Column II
A. Sternum (i) Synovial fluid
B. Glenoid Cavity (ii) Vertebrae
C. Freely movable joint (iii) Pectoral girdle
D. Cartilaginous joint (iv) Flat bones
Options:
(a) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iii), D-(iv) (b) A-(iv), B-(iii), C-(i), D-(ii)
(c) A-(ii), B-(i), C-(iv), D-(iii) (d) A-(iv), B-(i), C-(ii), D-(iv)
27. Intervertebral disc is found in the vertebral column of [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) birds (b) reptiles
(c) mammals (d) amphibians
28. Knee joint and elbow joint are examples of [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) saddle joint (b) ball and socket joint
(c) pivot joint (d) hinge joint
29. Macrophages and leucocytes exhibit [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) ciliary movement (b) flagellar movement
(c) amoeboid movement (d) gliding movement
30. Which one of the following is not a disorder of bone? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Arthritis (b) Osteoporosis
(c) Rickets (d) Atherosclerosis
31. Which one of the following statement is incorrect? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Heart muscles are striated and involuntary.
(b) The muscles of hands and legs are striated and voluntary.
(c) The muscles located in the inner walls of alimentary canal are striated and involuntary.
(d) Muscles located in the reproductive tracts are unstriated and involuntary.
32. Which one of the following statements is true? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Head of humerus bone articulates with acetabulum of pectoral girdle.
(b) Head of humerus bone articulates with the glenoid cavity of pectoral girdle.
(c) Head of humerus bone articulates with acetabulum of pelvic girdle.
(d) Head of humerus bone articulates with a glenoid cavity of pelvic girdle.

Answers
1. (c) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (b) 5. (c) 6. (c) 7. (a) 8. (a) 9. (d) 10. (a)
11. (c) 12. (a) 13. (c) 14. (c) 15. (b) 16. (a) 17. (d) 18. (d) 19. (a) 20. (d)
21. (c) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (c) 26. (b) 27. (c) 28. (d) 29. (c) 30. (d)
31. (c) 32. (b)
Assertion-Reason Questions
In the following questions a statement of assertion followed by a statement of reason is given. Choose
the correct answer out of the following choices.
(a) Assertion and reason both are correct statements and reason is correct explanation for assertion.
(b) Assertion and reason both are correct statements but reason is not correct explanation for assertion.
(c) Assertion is correct statement but reason is wrong statement.
(d) Assertion is wrong statement but reason is correct statement.
1. Assertion : During exercise, a person undergoes fatigue very soon.
Reason
: During this period muscle fibres undergo oxygen debt.
2. Assertion : Movement of body parts serves to change the body posture.
Reason
: Body parts move in relation to body axis.
3. Assertion : The contraction and relaxation of muscle fibre is controlled by nerve impulses.
Reason
: The threshold stimulus is the minimum stimulus required for the beginning of
contraction.
4. Assertion : In muscle contraction length of both A and I bands decrease.
Reason
: Both myosin of A bands and actin of I bands are contractile proteins and decrease
in size during muscle contraction.
5. Assertion : Biceps and triceps are called antagonistic muscles.
Reason
: This is due to the fact that they contract and relax together.
6. Assertion : Extra oxygen consumption in human body is known as oxygen debt.
Reason : The extra oxygen is required by the body to oxidise the accumulated lactic acid
produced during strenuous exercise.
7. Assertion : Arthritis or inflammation of a joint makes the joint painful.
Reason
: Some toxic substances are deposited at the joint.
8. Assertion : Muscle as a whole doesn’t obey all or none law.
Reason
: Each muscle fibre contracts maximally whenever it contracts.
9. Assertion : Birds are with pneumatic bones.
Reason
: Air sacs make the bones lighter which helps in the flight of the birds.
Answers
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (b) 4. (d) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (c) 8. (b) 9. (a)

PASSAGE–1
Study the diagram given below and answer the question that follow:
Troponin
Tropomyosin
F actin
(i) Identify the contractile protein shown. (a)
(ii) Write the three components of troponin.

(iii) What is F-actin?
(iv) How is troponin important?
Answers
(i) Actin.
(ii) Component I, T, C.
(iii) ‘F’ actin is a polymer of monomeric ‘G’ (Globular) actins.
(iv) In the resting state a subunit of troponin masks the active binding sites for myosin on the actin
filaments.
PASSAGE–2
Read the given passages and answer the questions that follow.
Our vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called vertebrae and is dorsally placed.
It extends from the base of the skull and constitutes the main framework of the trunk. Each vertebra
has a central hollow portion (neural canal) through which the spinal cord passes. First vertebra is the
atlas and it articulates with the occipital condyles. The vertebral column is differentiated into cervical (7),
thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (1-fused) and coccygeal (1-fused) regions starting from the skull. The
number of cervical vertebrae are seven in almost all mammals including human beings. The vertebral
column protects the spinal cord, supports the head and serves as the point of attachment for the ribs and
musculature of the back. Sternum is a flat bone on the ventral midline of thorax.
(i) State the function of vertebral column.
(ii) Name the structure through which spinal cord passes.
(iii) Why rib is known as bicephalic?
Answers
(i) The vertebral column protects the spinal cord, supports the head and serves as the point of
attachment for the ribs and musculature of the back.
(ii) Neural canal.
(iii) Each rib is a thin flat bone connected dorsally to the vertebral column and ventrally to the
sternum. It has two articulation surfaces on its dorsal end and is hence called bicephalic.


Q. 1. Name the cells/tissues in human body which [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) exhibit ameboid movement
(b) exhibit ciliary movement
Ans. (a) Macrophage cells and leucocyte cells.
(b) Tissues present in the fallopian tube, trachea, and bronchioles.
Q. 2. (a) Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of muscular, _____, _______ systems.
[NCERT Exemplar]
(b) What is myoglobin?
Ans. (a) Locomotion requires a perfect coordinated activity of muscular, skeletal, nervous systems.
(b) A red coloured oxygen binding pigment present in red fibres.
Q. 3. Label the different components of actin filament in the diagram given below.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans.
Troponin
Tropomyosin
Q. 4. (a) Name two energy sources for muscle contraction.

(b) Which chemical causes muscle fatigue?
Ans. (a) ATP and phosphocreatine.
(b) Lactic acid.
Q. 5. (a) Which is the hardest tissue in human body?
(b) Where are blood cells produced inside bone?
Ans. (a) Bone.
(b) The bone marrow of long bones.
Q. 6. Which tissue is afflicted by myasthenia gravis? What is the underlying cause?
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Muscular tissue is affected by myasthenia gravis. It is an auto-immune disorder.
Q. 7. Differentiate between A-band and I-band.
Ans.
S. No. A – band I – band
(i) It has wide H-zone. It has thin Z-line.
(ii) It gives dark appearance and hence also It gives light appearance hence also called light
called dark band. band.
(iii) It contains myosin filament and parts of It contains parts of actin filaments.
actin filaments.
(iv) Its length remains unchanged during It shortens during muscle contraction.
muscle contraction.

Q. 1. (a) Which of the movable joint makes the hip joint?

(b) Name the skeletal joint which permits movements in a single plane only.
(c) How do our bone joints function without grinding noise and pain? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Ball and socket joint.
(b) Hinge joint.
(c) Due to the presence of synovial fluid, which is filled in the synovial cavity, our bone joints
function without pain and noise.
Q. 2. (a) What is the most accepted theory of muscle contraction?
(b) Give the value of resting potential in a polarized muscle fibre.
(c) What is a muscle twitch?
Ans. (a) Sliding filament theory.
(b) -60 to -90 mV.
(c) The single contraction of muscle upon receiving the stimulus is called muscle twitch.
(Contraction is followed by relaxation).
Q. 3. With respect to rib cage, explain the following: [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Bicephalic ribs
(b) True ribs
(c) Floating ribs
Ans. (a) Bicephalic ribs are called bicephalic because each of the two ribs has articulating surfaces on
the dorsal end.
(b) True ribs: The first seven ribs known as true ribs. Ventrally they are connected to the sternum
with the help of hyaline cartilage.
(c) Floating ribs: These ribs are not connected to the sternum, and they are the last two ribs
(11th and 12th ribs) of the rib cage.
Q. 4. Describe synovial joints. Draw a diagram of the same.
Ans. Synovial joints are characterised by the presence of a fluid filled synovial cavity between the
articulating surfaces of the two bones. Such an arrangement allows considerable movement.
These joints help in
locomotion and many Ligament
other movements. Ball
and socket joint (between
humerus and pectoral Joint capsule
Articular cartilage
girdle), hinge joint (knee
joint), pivot joint (between Synovial membrane Joint cavity
atlas and axis), gliding (synovial fluid)
joint (between the carpals)

and saddle joint (between Compact bone
carpal and metacarpal Bone marrow Spongy bone
of thumb) are some
examples.

Q. 5. In old age, people often suffer from stiff and inflamed joints. What is this condition called?
What are the possible reasons for these symptoms? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. The condition is called arthritis. It is of two types:
(a) Rheumatoid arthritis is the most common arthritis. It is an inflammation of the synovial
membrane in synovial joints. When this membrane, which is a source of synovial fluid,
becomes inflamed, it produces too much fluid. The joints swell and become very painful.
(b) Osteoarthritis affects the articular cartilage at the synovial joints. The cartilage erodes and
due to proliferation new bone is deposited. It is a degenerative joint disease in which joints
become painful and stiff with restricted movement.
Q. 6. Differentiate between Pectoral and Pelvic girdle. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans.
S. No. Pectoral girdle Pelvic girdle
(i) It lies on the postero-lateral aspect of the It is located in the lower part of the trunk.
upper region of the thorax.
(ii) It consists of 2 dissimilar bones: scapula It consists of 2 similar bones, innominate.
and clavicle.
(iii) Scapula and clavicle are not further Each innominate bone consists of three bones:
divided into any type of bone. ilium, ischium and pubis.
(iv) It provides articulation to the arm bones. It provides articulation to the bones of the leg.
(v) It has at its lateral angle a shallow It has at the middle of its lateral surface a deep,
concavity, the glenoid cavity, for cup-shaped hollow, acetabulum to which high
articulation of the head of the humerus. (femur) bone attaches.
Q. 7. Discuss the role of Ca2+ ions in muscle contraction. Draw neat sketches to illustrate your
answer.[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Calcium plays a key regulatory role in muscle contraction. During muscle contraction, an action
potential passes from the motor end plate over the sarcolemma and then into the T-tubules and
sarcoplasmic reticulum and stimulates it to release Ca2+ ions into the sarcoplasm. The calcium
ions bind to troponin causing a change in its shape and position. This in turn alters shape and
the position of tropomyosin, to which troponin binds. This shift exposes the active sites on the
F-actin molecules. Myosin cross-bridges are then able to bind to these active sites.
Actin filament
Myosin
filament
ADP
P
Myosin
ATP filament
(Breaking of cross bridge)
Cross bridge Myosin head
(Formation of cross bridge)
P
ADP
(Sliding/rotation)


Q. 1. (a) (i) Rahul exercises regularly by visiting a gymnasium. Of late he is gaining weight. What
could be the reason? Choose the correct answer and elaborate.
(ii) Rahul has gained weight due to accumulation of fats in body.
(ii) Rahul has gained weight due to increased muscle and loss of fat.
(iv) Rahul has gained weight because his muscle shape has improved.
(v) Rahul has gained weight because he is accumulating water in the body.
[NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Write the names of the factors which are responsible for osteoporosis.
(c) Name muscle fibres which undergo aerobic respiration. How much percentage of body
weight is made up of muscle?
Ans. (a) (ii) Rahul has gained weight due to exercising regularly can cause an increase in the
amount of sarcoplasm that is the thickness of myofibrils increases along with an increase
in protein synthesis and mitochondria which increases resulting in increase in volume of
muscles. Thus, muscles become denser. With regular exercise the body fat burns.
(b) Imbalances of hormones like thyrocalcitonin, parathyroid and sex hormones, deficiencies of
calcium and vitamin D are the major causes.
(c) Red muscle fibre 40-50%.
Q. 2. (a) What is the function of girdles?
(b) Give the position of glenoid cavity.
(c) What are the points for articulation of Pelvic and Pectoral girdles? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) There are two girdles in the body, pectoral girdle & pelvic girdle.
(i) Pectoral girdle – It provides surface to the soft organs of the body of the pectoral region.
It also provides surface (glenoid cavity) for the articulation of forelimbs. In the glenoid
cavity fits the head of the humerus bone.
(ii) Pelvic girdle – It protects the organs of pelvic region and provides surface (acetabulum)
for the articulation of the hind limbs.
(b) At the junction of scapula and coracoid process of pectoral girdle.
(c) Pelvic girdle has a cavity called acetabulum to which the thigh bone (femur) articulates.
Pectoral girdle has a process called acromion to which the clavicle articulates and a glenoid
cavity which articulates with the head of the humerus.
Q. 3. (a) Calcium ion concentration in blood affects muscle contraction. Does it lead to tetany in
certain cases? How will you correlate fluctuation in blood calcium with tetany?
[NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Exchange of calcium between bone and extracellular fluid takes place under the influence
of certain hormones [NCERT Exemplar]
(i) What will happen if more of Ca++ is in extracellular fluid?
(ii) What will happen if very less amount of Ca++ is in the extracellular fluid
Ans. (a) Yes, low level of Ca2+ in blood causes tetany. It means that when high level of Ca2+ in
muscles cells causes, it leads to sliding of actin and myosin filaments towards each other. This

result in uncontrollable contraction of muscles called tetany. The parathyroid gland secretes
parathyroid hormones, which increases the concentration of Ca2+ in blood stream causes
the relaxation of the muscles.
(b) (i) If more of Ca++ is in the extracellular fluid, then it will get accumulated into the bones
under the influence of the hormone thyrocalcitonin (TCT).
(ii) Parathyroid hormone will mobilize the release of calcium into the extracellular fluid
from the bones.
Q. 4. (a) What purposes does movement of external body parts in relation to body axis serve in
animals?
(b) Why movement and locomotion are necessary among animals?
Ans. (a) (i) The movement of limbs, appendages, head and trunk serves to change the body posture
to maintain equilibrium against gravity.
(ii) Limb movements are prerequisites for carrying out locomotion.
(iii) Prehension of food involves movement of tongue, jaws, snout, tentacles, limbs and
appendages in different animals.
(iv) Movement of eyeballs and pinna of ear help to collect information from the external
environment.
(b) Movement and locomotion are necessary among animals for the survival of them. It enables,
them to procure food, search for shelter, find mates, protect themselves from predatory and
perform many other life activities.
Q. 5. (a) List functions of skeleton in higher animals?
(b) An elderly woman slipped in the bathroom and had severe pain in her lower back. After
X ray examination doctors told her it is due to a slipped disc. What does that mean? How
does it affect our health? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) (i) Skeletal system forms the framework for the body.
(ii) The bone of skeletal system protects delicate internal organs of the body.
(iii) Skeleton provides attachment surface for the body muscles, tendons and other similar
things and thus helps in movement.
(iv) It gives shape and posture to the body.
(b) Each vertebral disc has two parts, a soft gelatinous inner portion and a tough outer ring.
Injury or weakness can cause the inner portion of the disk to protrude through the outer
ring. This is called slipped disc.
It can cause numbness of the body and pain in the muscles of arms and legs and lower back.
One feels difficulty in walking and standing for a while. It would cause burning and tingling
sense along with severe pain. It can also cause permanent nerve damage and paralysis if it
remains untreated, causes pain that worsens at night, causes unexplained muscle weakness.
Q. 6. How does a muscle shorten during its contraction and return to its original form during
relaxation?[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Muscles contract due to formation of cross-bridge between the actin and myosin filament.
(a) An ATP molecule joins the active site on the head of myosin myofilament. These heads
contain an enzyme, myosin ATPase along with Ca2+ and Mg2+ ions that catalyses the break
- down of ATP.
Myo sin ATPase
ATP ADP + Pi + Energy
Ca2+ Mg2+
(b) The energy is transferred to myosin head which straightens to join an active site on actin
myofilament, forming a cross bridge.

(c) The energised cross-bridges move, causing the attached actin filaments to move towards
the centre of A-band. The Z-line is also pulled inwards causing shortening of sarcomere,
contraction. During contraction A-bands retain the length, while I-bands get reduced.
(d) The myosin head releases ADP and Pi where it relaxes to its low energy state. The head
detaches from actin myofilaments when new ATP molecule joins it and cross-bridge are
broken.
(e) In the next cycle, the free head cleaves the new ATP. The cycles of cross-bridge formation
and breakage is repeated causing further sliding.
(f) After contraction, muscle relaxation occurs when the calcium ions are pumped back to the
sarcoplasmic cisternae, thus, blocking the sites on actin myofilaments. The Z-line returns to
original positions or relaxation.

(i) _______ is used to capture prey in Hydra.
(a) Cilia (b) Flagella
(c) Tentacles (d) Forelimbs
(ii) Which one of the following is correct pairing of a body part and the kind of muscle tissue that
moves it?
(a) Iris – Involuntary smooth muscle
(b) Heart wall – Involuntary unstriated muscle
(c) Biceps of upper arm – Smooth muscle fibres
(d) Abdominal wall – Smooth muscle
(iii) Muscles with characteristic striations and involuntary are [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) muscles in the wall of alimentary canal.
(b) muscles of the heart.
(c) muscles assisting locomotion.
(d) muscles of the eyelids.
(iv) Which one of the following pairs is incorrect? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Hinge joint: between humerus and pectoral girdle
(b) Pivot joint : between atlas and axis
(c) Gliding joint : between the carpals
(d) Saddle joint : between carpals and metacarpals of thumb
below:
(a)

(i) Assertion (A) : Ball and socket joints are the most mobile joints.
Reason (R) : Synovial fluid is present here.
(ii) Assertion (A) : Inflammation of a skeletal joint may immobilize the movements of the
joint.
Reason (R) : Uric acid crystals in the joint cavity and ossification of articular cartilage
lead to this.
(iii) Assertion (A) : The phase of muscle contraction occurs when myosin binds and releases
actin.
Reason (R) : Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the peripheral nervous
system via motor neuron.
3. Read the passage and answer the questions:
Muscle contraction is initiated by a signal sent by the central nervous system (CNS) via a motor
neuron. A motor neuron along with the muscle fibres connected to it constitute a motor unit. The
junction between a motor neuron and the sarcolemma of the muscle fibre is called the neuromuscular
junction or motor-end plate. A neural signal reaching this junction releases a neurotransmitter
(Acetyl choline) which generates an action potential in the sarcolemma. This spreads through the
muscle fibre and causes the release of calcium ions into the sarcoplasm. Increase in Ca++ level
leads to the binding of calcium with a subunit of troponin on actin filaments and thereby remove
the masking of active sites for myosin. Utilising the energy from ATP hydrolysis, the myosin head
now binds to the exposed active sites on actin to form a cross bridge.
(a) What is NMJ?
(b) Name the neurotransmitter that generates action potential.
(c) What happens when calcium concentration increases?
4. (a) Name the primary germ layer from which muscle tissue arises.
(b) Name the stored food material in muscle cells.
5. State two points of difference between tendon and ligament.
6. (a) Mention the special properties of muscle, write one line for each.
(b) Draw a labelled diagram of myosin.
7. What is a muscle twitch? Give one example of antagonistic muscle.
8. Describe the structure of muscle.
9. What are the morphological changes in a sarcomere during muscle contraction?
10. (a) What is acetabulum?
(b) Describe the structure of collar bone.
(c) Name the salt that makes the matrix of the cartilage pliable.

11. (a) The three tiny bones present in middle ear are called ear ossicles. Write them in correct
sequence beginning from ear drum. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Our fore arm is made of three different bones. Comment. [NCERT Exemplar]
(c) What is a tendon?
12. Explain sliding filament theory of muscle contraction with neat sketches. [NCERT Exemplar]
13. Describe the joints in details with its characteristics and examples.
14. Draw the diagram of the cross- bridge formation. How is tetany and muscular dystrophy different?
Answers
1. (i)—(c), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(b), (iv)—(a) 2. (i)—(b), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(c)
zzz

18 Neural Control and

Coordination
Q Coordination is the process through which two or more organs interact and complement the functions
of one another. For instance when we do physical exercises, the energy demand is increased for
maintaining an increased muscular activity.
Q The increased supply of oxygen necessitates an increase in the rate of respiration, heart beat and
increased blood flow via blood vessels.
Q When we stop exercising, we witness that increased activities of lungs, heart, nerves, kidneys,
muscles, etc. gradually return to normal.
Q Thus during exercise, functions of various organs of the body are coordinated and integrated.
Q In higher animals (including humans) two types of system have been developed for the control,
coordination and integration i.e., nervous system and endocrine system.
Q The neural or nervous system provides an organised network of neurons that spread throughout the
body of animal.
Q The endocrine system provides chemical coordination of organ and organ system through hormones
which act as chemical messenger.
1. Neural System
Q The neural system is the control system of the body which consists of highly specialised cells called
neurons.
Q The neural organisation is very simple in lower invertebrates. For example in Hydra it is composed
of a network of neurons.
Q The neural system is better organised in insects and more developed in vertebrates.
Q Human Neural System
O The whole nervous system of human being is derived from embryonic ectoderm.
O The human neural system is divided into two parts:
(i) Central neural system (CNS)
(ii) Peripheral neural system (PNS)
O The CNS includes the brain and the spinal cord and is the site of information processing and
control.
O The PNS comprises of all the nerves of the body associated with the CNS (brain and spinal cord).
Neural Control and Coordination 435

O The nerve fibres are of two types:
(i) Afferent fibres

(ii) Efferent fibres
O Afferent fibres: They transmit impulse from tissue/organs to the CNS.
O Efferent fibres: They transmit regulatory impulses from the CNS to the concerned
peripheral tissues/organs.
O The PNS is divided into two divisions called the somatic neural system and the autonomic neural
system.
O The somatic neural system relay impulses from the CNS to skeletal muscles while the autonomic
neural system transmits impulses from the CNS to the involuntary organs and smooth muscles
of the body.
O The autonomic neural system is further classified into sympathetic neural system and
parasympathetic neural system.
2. Neuron as Structural and Functional Unit of Neural System

Q A neuron is a microscopic structure composed of three major parts:
(i) Cell body (ii) Dendrites (iii) Axon
Q Cell Body (Cyton or Soma)
O The cell body contains cytoplasm with typical cell organelles and certain granular bodies called
Nissl’s granules.
O Presence of Nissl’s granules is the characteristics of all neurons.
Q Dendrites
O Dendrites are usually shorter, tapering and much branched processes that project out of the cell
body.
O They also contain Nissl’s granules and may be one to several in number.
O They conduct nerve impulses towards the cell body and are called afferent processes (receiving
processes).
Q Axon: Axon is a single, usually very long processes of uniform thickness. The part of cyton from
where the axon arises is called axon hillock (most sensitive part of neuron).
Q Each branch terminates as a bulb like structure called synaptic knob which possess synaptic vesicles
containing chemicals called neurotransmitters.
Q The axon transmit nerve impulses away from the cell body to a synapse or to a neuromuscular
junction.
Q Based on the number of axons and dendrites, the neurons are divided into 3 types:
(i) Multipolar (ii) Bipolar (iii) Unipolar
Q Multi-polar neuron contains one axon and two or more dendrites e.g., neurons of cerebral cortex.
Q Bipolar: These neurons have one dendrite and one axon. They are present in retina of eye.
Q Unipolar: These neurons have cell body with one axon only. These are found usually in the embryonic
stage.
Q There are two types of axons:
(i) Myelinated
(ii) Non myelinated
(i) Myelinated: In myelinated nerve fibres, Schwann cells form myelin sheath around the axon.
The gaps between two adjacent myelin shealth are called nodes of Ranvier.
Myelinated nerve fibres are found in cranial and spinal nerves and white matter of brain.

(ii) Non myelinated: In non myelinated nerve fibres, Schwann cells do not form myelin sheath
around the axon and are without nodes of Ranvier. They are commonly found in autonomic
and somatic neural system.
3. Main Properties of Neural Tissue

Q The neural tissue has two outstanding properties:
Q Excitability: It is the ability of nerve cells to generate an electrical impulse in response to a stimulus
by altering the normal potential differences across their plasma membrane.
Q Conductivity: It is the ability of nerve cells to rapidly transmit the electrical impulses away from the
site of its origin along with their length in a particular direction.
4. Functions of Neural System

Q The nervous system serves the following important functions:
(i) Control and Coordination: Nervous system controls and coordinates the working of all parts
of the body so that it functions as an integrated unit.
This is achieved by three overlapping processes i.e., sensory input, integration and motor output.
(ii) Memory: Nervous system stores the impression of previous stimuli and retrieves (recalls) these
impressions in future. These impressions are referred to as the experiences or memory.
(iii) Homeostasis: Nervous system helps in the maintenance of the body’s internal environment i.e.,
homeostasis.
5. Generation and Conduction of Nerve Impulse

Q Nerve impulse is a wave of bioelectric/electrochemical disturbances that passes along a neuron
during conduction of an excitation.
Impulse conduction depends upon
(i) Permeability of axon membrane (axolemma).
(ii) Osmotic equilibrium (electrical equivalence) between the axoplasm and extracellular fluid
(ECF) present outside the axon.
Q The generation of nerve impulse is the temporary reversal of the resting potential in the neuron.
It occurs only in 3 steps: polarisation, depolarisation and repolarisation.
Q Different types of ion channels are present on the neural membrane, which are selectively permeable
to different ions.
Q When a neuron is not conducting any impulse i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively
more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+) and negatively
charged proteins present in the axoplasm.
Q The axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins and
low concentration of Na+.
Q The fluid outside the axon contains a low concentration of K+, a high concentration of Na+ and thus
form a concentration gradient.
Q The ionic gradient across the resting membrane are maintained by active transport of ions by the
sodium potassium pump which transports 3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell and hence the outer
surface of the axonal membrane possesses a positive charge while its inner surface becomes negatively
charged and therefore is polarised.
Q The electric potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is called as the resting potential.

Q Mechanism of generation of nerve impulse and its conduction along an axon
O When a stimulus is applied at a site on the polarised membrane, the membrane at the site-A
becomes freely permeable to Na+, which leads to a rapid influx of Na+, followed by the reversal
of the polarity at that site and the membrane is depolarised.
O The electric potential difference across the plasma membrane is called action potential.
O Depolarisation is followed by the increase in permeability of K+ to the membrane leading to
change in polarization and the process is called repolarisation and the membrane is repolarised.
O During depolarisation, the outer surface of the membrane becomes negatively charged and inner
surface becomes positively charged.
O During repolarisation, outside of membrane becomes positively charged and inside becomes
negatively charged. Regain of resting potential takes place due to action of Na+/K+ ATPase
enzyme, which transports 3 Na+ inside and two K+, with expense of one ATP.
6. Transmission of Impulse
Q A nerve impulse is transmitted from one neuron to another through junctions called synapses.
Q A synapse is formed by the membrane of a presynaptic neuron and a post synaptic neuron which
may or may not be separated by a gap called synaptic cleft.
Q There are two types of synapses namely electrical synapse and chemical synapse.
Q Electrical Synapse
O The membrane of pre and post synaptic neurons are in very close proximity and electrical current
can flow directly from one neuron into the other across these synapses.
O Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical
synapse.
O Electrical synapse are found in cardiac muscle fibres, smooth muscle fibres of intestine and the
epithelial cells of liver.
Q Chemical Synapse
O The membrane of pre and post synaptic neurons are separated by a fluid filled space called
synaptic cleft.
O Chemicals called neurotransmitters are involved in the transmission of impulses at synapses.
O The axon terminals contain vesicles filled with these neurotransmitters.
O When an impulse arrives at the axon terminal, it stimulates the movement of the synaptic vesicles
towards the membrane where they fuse with plasma manbrane and release their neurotransmitter
in the synaptic cleft. The released neurotransmitters bind to their specific receptors present on
the post synaptic membrane, which opens ion channels allowing the entry of ions which can
generate a new potential in the post synaptic neuron.
Axon of
sensory neuron
Synaptic vesicles
Synaptic
membrane
Mitochondria
Fig 18.1 Depiction of axonal terminal and synapse

7. Central Nervous System
Q The brain is the central information processing organ of our body and acts as the ‘Command and
Control System’.
Q It controls the voluntary movements, balance of the body, thermoregulation and the brain also
process vision, hearing, speech, etc.
Q The human brain is well protected by the skull.
Q Inside the skull, the brain is covered by cranial meninges consisting of an
(i) outer layer called dura mater.
(ii) a very thin middle layer called arachnoid and
(iii) an inner layer called pia mater.
Q The brain is divided into 3 major groups:
(i) Forebrain
(ii) Midbrain
(iii) Hind brain
Motor area
Sensory area
Frontal lobe
Primary
visual area
Prefrontal
lobe Associative
visual area
Broca's area
(in left hemisphere)
Primary
auditory area Associative auditory area
(includes Wernicke's area in
the left hemisphere)
Fig 18.2 Diagram showing Sagittal section of the human brain
Q Forebrain: The forebrain consists of: (i) Cerebrum (ii) Thalamus (iii) Hypothalamus
O A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into two halves which are termed as the left and
right cerebral hemispheres.
O The hemisphere are connected by a tract of nerve fibres called corpus callosum.
O The outer cover of cerebral hemisphere is called cerebral cortex. It is referred to as the gray matter
due to its greyish appearance (as neuron cell bodies are concentrated here).
O The cerebral cortex is greatly folded. The upwards folds gyri alternate with the downward
grooves or sulci.
O The cerebral cortex contains motor areas, sensory areas and large regions that are neither clearly
sensory nor motor in function. These regions are called as association areas.
O Fibres of the tracts are covered with the myelin sheath which constitute the inner part of cerebral
hemisphere which gives an opaque white appearance to the layer and hence is called the white
matter.
O The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus which is major coordinating centre for
sensory and motor signaling.

O Hypothalamus, another part of brain lies at the base of the thalamus which controls body
temperature and urge for eating.
O Hypothalamus also contains several group of neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones
called hypothalamic hormones.
O The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group of associated deep structures form a complex
structure called the limbic lobe or limbic septum.
O Each cerebral hemisphere of the cerebrum is divided into four lobes i.e., frontal, parietal,
temporal and occipital lobe which are involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, expression
of emotional reactions e.g., excitement, pleasure, rage, fear and motivation.
Q Midbrain
O The midbrain is located between the thalamus of the forebrain and pons of the hindbrain.
O A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes through the midbrain.
O The dorsal portion of the midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings called corpora
quadrigemina.
O Midbrain and hindbrain form the brain stem.
Q Hindbrain: The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla.
Q Pons consists of fibre-tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain.
Q Cerebellum is the second largest part of the brain. It has very convoluted surface in order to provide
additional space for many more neurons and the medulla of the brain is connected to the spinal cord.
Q Medulla (Oblongata) is connected to the spinal cord and contains centres which control respiratory
rhythm, cardiovascular reflexes, gastric secretions and the postural gestures of the body (vertigo).
NCERT Exercises
Q. 1. Briefly describe the structure of the brain.
Ans. Brain: Brain is the central information processing organ of our body. The brain can be divided
into three major parts: (i) Forebrain (ii) Midbrain (iii) Hindbrain.
(i) Forebrain: The forebrain consists of cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus. Cerebrum
forms the major part of human brain. A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into
two halves known as the left and the right cerebral hemispheres.
The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus which is a major coordinating
centre for sensory and motor signalling.
The hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus. It is connected to pituitary gland, an
endocrine gland.
(ii) Midbrain: The midbrain is located between forebrain and pons of hindbrain. The dorsal
portion of the midbrain consists mainly of four round swellings (lobes). These are called
optic lobes forming corpora quadrigemina. A canal called the cerebral aqueduct passes
through midbrain.
(iii) Hindbrain: The hindbrain comprises pons, cerebellum and medulla. Pons consists of fibre
tracts that interconnect different regions of the brain. The cerebellum has very convoluted
surface in order to provide the additional space for many more nerves. The medulla of brain
extends out of cranium to form spinal cord.

Q. 2. Compare the following:
(i) Central neural system (CNS) and Peripheral neural system (PNS)
(ii) Resting potential and action potential
Ans. (i)
S. No. Central neural system (CNS) Peripheral neural system (PNS)
1. It occupies the central region of the body. It occupies the peripheral region of the body.
2. It consists of brain and spinal cord in It comprises cranial nerves and spinal nerves
vertebrates. in vertebrates.
3. The groups of neuron in CNS are called The group of neurons are called ganglia.
nuclei.
4. Brain is protected by cranium and No such protective structure are found there.
spinal cord is protected by the vertebral
column.
(ii)
S. No. Resting potential Action potential
1. It is the potential difference across It is the potential difference across neurilemma

neurilemma when neuron is resting. when the neuron is stimulated.
2. At resting potential, the membrane At action potential, Na+ channels are

is permeable for K+ and Cl– and open and Na+ ion is more mobile across
moderately permeable for Na+. membrane.
3. At resting potential, interior of neuron At action potential, the exterior is negatively
is negatively charged and exterior is charged and interior is positively charged.
positively charged.
Q. 3. Explain the following processes:

(i) Polarisation of the membrane of a nerve fibre.
(ii) Depolorisation of the membrane of a nerve fibre.
(iii) Conduction of a nerve impulse along a nerve fibre.
(iv) Transmission of a nerve impulse across a chemical synapse.
Ans. (i) Polarisation of the membrane of a nerve fibre: In case of a resting nerve fibre the neuroplasm
inside axon contains high concentration of K+ and negatively charged proteins and low
concentration of Na+. The fluid outside axon contains low concentration of K+ and a high
concentration of Na+ ions. Hence outer surface of membrane is positively charged and inner
surface is negatively charged. This state of resting membrane is termed as polarised state.
The electrical potential difference across the membrane is termed as resting potential and it
is maintained with the help of sodium – potassium pump which pumps 3Na+ outwards and
2K+ inwards.
(ii) Depolarisation of the membrane of a nerve fibre: When a stimulus is applied at a site on the

polarised membrane, the membrane near it becomes freely permeable for Na+. This leads
to a rapid influx of Na+ followed by reversal of the polarity at that site. This results into the
outer surface of membrane becoming negatively charged and the inner surface becoming
positively charged. This condition is the depolarised state of nerve fibres. The potential
difference in such case is action potential.
(iii) Conduction of nerve impulse along a nerve fibre: The generation of action potential due
to depolarisation of nerve fibre is known as nerve impulse. At a site exactly ahead the axon
membrane has positively charge on the outer surface and negatively charge on the inner

surface. As a result current flows on inner surface forward to the site i.e., A to B as shown
in figure while on outer surface the current flows from site B to A to complete the circuit of
current flow. Thus impulse generated at site A arrives at site B. The sequence is repeated
along the length of axon and consequently impulse is conducted due to depolarisation wave.
A
Na
+ + + + + + + +
− − + +
− − − − − − − −
+ + −
+ + − − − − − − − −
− − + + +
+ + + + + +
+
Na
+ B
− − + + + + + + + + +
− − − − − − − −
+ + −
+ + − − − − − − − −
− − + + +
+ + + + + +
+
(iv) Refer to Points to remember 6. (Chemical Synapse).

Q. 4. Draw labelled diagrams of the following:
(i) Neuron (ii) Brain
Ans. (i) Structure of a neuron
Nucleus
Dendrites
Node of
Ranvier
Cell body
Axon
Schwann terminals
cells
Axon Myelin sheath
(ii) Refer to Fig. 18.2

Q. 5. Write short notes on the following: (i) Neural coordination (ii) Forebrain (iii) Midbrain
(iv) Hindbrain (v) Synapse
Ans. (i) The neural or nervous system provides an organised network of neurons that spread
throughout the body of animal. The endocrine system provides chemical coordination of
organ and organ system through hormones which act as chemical messenger. The neural
system coordinates and integrates functions as well as metabolic and homeostatic activities
of all the organs. Neurons, the functional units of neural system are excitable cells due to
a differential concentration gradient of ions across the membrane. In our body the neural
system and the endocrine system jointly coordinate and integrate all the activities of the
organs so that they function in a synchronised fashion.
(ii) Refer to Points to remember 7.
(iii) Refer to Points to remember 7.

(iv) Refer to Points to remember 7.
(v) A synapse is formed by the membranes of a pre-synaptic neuron and a post-synaptic neuron,
which may or may not be separated by a gap called synaptic cleft. There are two types
of synapses, namely, electrical synapses and chemical synapses. At electrical synapses, the
membranes of pre- and post-synaptic neurons are in very close proximity. Electrical current
can flow directly from one neuron into the other across these synapses. Transmission of an
impulse across electrical synapses is very similar to impulse conduction along a single axon.
Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is always faster than that across a chemical
synapse. Electrical synapses are rare in our system.
Q. 6. Give a brief account of mechanism of synaptic transmission.
Ans. At a chemical synapse, the membranes of the pre and post-synaptic neurons are separated by
a fluid-filled space called synaptic cleft. Chemicals called neurotransmitters are involved in the
transmission of impulses at these synapses. The axon terminals contain vesicles filled with these
neurotransmitters. When an impulse (action potential) arrives at the axon terminal, it stimulates
the movement of the synaptic vesicles towards the membrane where they fuse with the plasma
membrane and release their neurotransmitters in the synaptic cleft. The released neurotransmitters
bind to their specific receptors, present on the post-synaptic membrane. This binding opens ion
channels allowing the entry of ions which can generate a new potential in the post-synaptic neuron.
The new potential developed may be either excitatory or inhibitory. Refer to Fig. 18.1.
Q. 7. Explain the role of Na+ in the generation of action potential.
Ans. When a neuron is not conducting any impulse, i.e., resting, the axonal membrane is comparatively
more permeable to potassium ions (K+) and nearly impermeable to sodium ions (Na+).
Similarly, the membrane is impermeable to negatively charged proteins present in the axoplasm.
Consequently, the axoplasm inside the axon contains high concentration of K+ and negatively
charged proteins and low concentration of Na+. In contrast, the fluid outside the axon contains
a low concentration of K+ , a high concentration of Na+ and thus form a concentration gradient.
These ionic gradients across the resting membrane are maintained by the active transport of
ions by the sodium-potassium pump which transports 3Na+ outwards for 2K+ into the cell.
Q. 8. Differentiate between: (i) Myelinated and Non-myelinated axons (ii) Dendrites and Axons
(iii) Thalamus and Hypothalamus (iv) Cerebrum and Cerebellum
Ans. (i) Myelinated and non-myelinated axons
S. No. Myelinated axon Non-myelinated axon
1. Transmission of nerve impulse is faster. Transmission of nerve impulse is slower.
2. Myelinated axon has a myelin sheath. Myelin sheath is absent.
3. Node of Ranvier is present between Node of Ranvier is absent.

adjacent myelin sheaths.
(ii) Dendrites and axons

S. No. Dendrites Axons
1. Dendrite is a small projection arising Axon is a single, long projection that conducts
from the neuron. It conducts the nerve the nerve impulse away from cell body to the
impulse towards the cell body. next neuron.
2. Nissl’s granules are present in dendrites. Nissl’s granules are absent in axons.
3. Dendrites are always non-myelinated. Axons can be myelinated or non-myelinated.

(iii) Thalamus and hypothalamus
Thalamus Hypothalamus
Thalamus is the part of the forebrain that Hypothalamus is the part of the forebrain that
receives nerve impulses of pain, temperature, controls involuntary functions such as hunger,
touch, etc., and conduct them to the cerebral thirst, sweating, sleep, fatigue, sexual desire,
hemisphere. temperature regulation, etc.
(iv) Cerebrum and cerebellum

Cerebrum Cerebellum
It is the part of the forebrain that controls It is the part of the hindbrain that controls voluntary
voluntary functions. It is the place where functions and controls the equilibrium.
intelligence, will power, memory, etc., reside.
Q. 9. Answer the following:

(i) Which part of the human brain is the most developed?
(ii) Which part of our central neural system acts as a master clock?
Ans. (i) Cerebrum of forebrain. (ii) Pineal body acts as master clock.
Q. 10. Distinguish between:
(i) Afferent neurons and efferent neurons
(ii) Impulse conduction in a myelinated nerve fibre and unmyelinated nerve fibre
(iii) Cranial nerves and spinal nerves
Ans. (i) Difference between afferent neuron and efferent neuron
S. No. Afferent neuron Efferent neuron
1. These transmit impulses towards CNS. These transmit impulses from CNS.
2. These are sensory in nature. These are motor in nature.
3. These pick information from receptors. These take information to effectors.
(ii) Difference between impulse conducted by myelinated nerve fibre and unmyelinated nerve
fibre
S. No. Impulse conduction in myelinated fibre Impulse conduction in unmyelinated fibre
1. Conduction is much faster and called Conduction is slower.
saltatory conduction.
2. Energy expenditure is less. Energy expenditure is greater for
depolarization of membrane.
3. The depolarization occurs only at nodes Depolarization occurs all along the length.
of Ranvier.
4. Action potential jumps from one node of Action potential travels along the entire length
Ranvier to another. of nerve fibre.
(iii) Difference between cranial nerves and spinal nerves

S. No. Cranial nerves Spinal nerves
1. Cranial nerves originate from brain. Spinal nerves originate from different region
of spinal cord.
2. Cranial nerves may be sensory, motor or Spinal nerves are always mixed in nature.
mixed.
3. 12 pairs of cranial nerves are found in 31 pairs of spinal nerves are found in human
mammals including human. beings.


1. Axon endings release from their synaptic vesicles a type of neurotransmitter substance known
as
(a) acetylcholine esterase (b) diacylglycerol
(c) acetylcholine (d) inositol-3-phosphate
2. Branched tree like structure present in cerebellum is
(a) arbar vitae (b) arcole
(c) dendron (d) archenteron
3. Corpus callosum is the connection between
(a) cerebral hemispheres (b) cerebellar
(c) midbrain and hindbrain (d) meninges and brain
4. For most excitable cells, the threshold stimulus is
(a) +40 mV (b) –55 to –60 mV
(c) +60 mV (d) –70 mV
+
5. The rapid movement of Na ions from extracellular fluid into the nerve cells leads to
(a) repolarization (b) depolarization
(c) polarization (d) all of these
6. How many pairs of cranial nerves are purely sensory?
(a) three (b) four
(c) five (d) six
7. If we accidently focus on intense light sources such as sun, it will damage
(a) macula (b) cornea
(c) lens (d) blind spot
8. Which part of brain is involved in organising the behaviour of an organism related to its
survival?
(a) amygdela (b) cerebral cortex
(c) corpus callosum (d) hypothalamus
9. One of the following is not the lobe of cerebral hemisphere?
(a) parietal lobe (b) olfactory lobe
(c) temporal lobe (d) occipital lobe
10. Due to the presence of gyri and sulci, the surface area of cerebral cortex almost becomes
(a) double (b) three times
(c) four times (d) six times
11. Depolarization is a/an
(a) passive process (b) active process
(c) both active and passive (d) first passive then it becomes active
12. In human beings a typical nerve cell is
(a) apolar (b) multipolar
(c) bipolar (d) pseudounipolar

13. The function of our visceral organs is controlled by
(a) sympathetic and somatic neural system.
(b) sympathetic and para sympathetic neural system.
(c) central and somatic nervous system.
(d) none of the above.
14. Resting membrane potential is maintained by
(a) hormones (b) neurotransmitters
(c) ion pump (d) none of the above
15. The function of choroid plexus is
(a) to produce lymph (b) to produce blood
(c) to produce endolymph (d) to produce CSF
16. Potential difference across resting membrane is negative. This is due to differential distribution
of the following ions
(a) Na+ and K+ (b) CO3++ and Cl–
(c) Ca++ and Mg++ (d) Ca++ and Cl–
17. Chemicals which are released at the synaptic junction are called
(a) hormones (b) neurotransmitters
(c) cerebrospinal fluid (d) lymph
Answers
1. (c) 2. (a) 3. (a) 4. (b) 5. (b) 6. (a) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (b) 10. (b)
11. (a) 12. (b) 13. (b) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (a) 17. (b)
1. Assertion : Electrical synapses are rare in our system.
Reason
: Impulse transmission across an electrical synapse is slower than that across
chemical synapse.
2. Assertion : Presence of myelin sheath increases the rate of conduction of nerve impulse.
Reason
: Ionic channels are absent in the area covered by myelin sheath therefore,
depolarisation occurs only at the nodes of Ranvier, resulting in saltatory or
jumping conduction.

3. Assertion : Fibres of the tract are covered with the myelin sheath, which constitute the outer
part of cerebral hemisphere.
Reason
: They give an opaque white appearance to the layer and hence, is called dark
matter.
4. Assertion : Neurons regulate the endocrine activity.
Reason
: Endocrine glands regulates neural activity and neural activity regulates endocrine
gland.
Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (c)
PASSAGE–1
Study the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:
The brain is the anterior most part of the central neural system which is lodged in the cranial
cavity of the skull. The human neural system has about 100 billion neurons, majority of them occur in
brain. The brain is covered by three membranes known as meninges. The innermost membrane is thin,
very delicate and vascular known as pia mater. The middle one is arachnoid tough fibrous membrane
adhering closely to the inside of skull. The space between meninges arachnoid and pia mater are sub-
arachnoid space filled up with cerebrospinal fluid. At certain points the pia mater is fused to the brain.
(i) What is CSF? Where it is present?

OR
(i) What are the functions of CSF?
(ii) What are the point of junction between pia matter and brain?
(iii) What is the site for synthesis of CSF?
(iv) How many membrane coverings are present around brain?
Answers
(i) CSF represents cerebrospinal fluid. It fills up the space between brain and pia mater as well as
sub-arachnoid space. It also fill the hollow of brain and spinal cord.
OR
(i) CSF functions as shock absorber. It provides a pad to cushion the CNS from external shock.
It also provides a medium for exchange of food materials, wastes, respiratory gases and other
materials.
(ii) Pia matter remains fused with the brain at certain points known as choroid plexus.
(iii) CSF gets synthesized at the point of choroid plexuses.
(iv) Three membranous coverings surround the human brain.


Q. 1. (a) What are multipolar neurons?
(b) Where can one find bipolar neuron?
Ans. (a) If a neuron possesses one axon and two or more dendrites it is termed as multipolar neuron.
It is commonly present in cerebral cortex.
(b) Bipolar neurons are neurons with one axon and one dendron. They are found in the retina
of the eye.
Q. 2. (a) What are the components of limbic system?
(b) What is the role of limbic system?
Ans. (a) The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group of associated deep structures like
amygdala, hippocampus, etc., form the limbic system.
(b) Limbic system is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour and expresssion of emotional
reactions and motivation.
Q. 3. (a) What is corpora quadrigemina?
(b) What is corpus collosum?
Ans. (a) The dorsal position of midbrain possess four optic lobes which together are known as
corpora quadrigemina.
(b) The two cerebral hemispheres are connected on vertical surface with a tract of nerve fibres
known as corpus callosum.
Q. 4. (a) Is brain hollow or solid? If hollow what are the cavities known as?
(b) Where is the hunger centre located in human brain?
Ans. (a) Brain is a hollow structure. Cavities of brain are known as ventricles.
(b) Hypothalamus in forebrain.
Q. 5. Our reaction like aggressive behaviour, use of abusive words, restlessness etc. are regulated by
brain, name the parts involved.
Ans. The inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group of associated deep structures form a
complex structure called limbic lobe or limbic septum.

Q. 1. (a) What do grey and white matter in the brain represent?
(b) What is the importance of grey matter in humans?
(c) Name the structures involved in the protection of the brain.
Ans. (a) The cerebral cortex is referred to as grey matter due to its greyish appearance. Fibres of the
tract covered by myelin sheath represents white matter.
(b) The grey matter contains cell bodies of many neurons and dendrites. It helps in interpretations
during reflex actions.

(c) The human brain is protected by three meninges inside the skull. These are Dura mater
(outer), Arachnoid (middle) and Pia mater (inner one).
Q. 2. (a) How does chemical transmission differ from electrical transmission?
(b) What are neurotransmitters?
Ans. (a) A chemical transmission takes place at a chemical synapse in a synaptic cleft. It is a slower
mode of transmission. An electrical transmission takes place at an electric synapse where
synaptic cleft may or may not be present. It is a faster mode of transmission.
(b) Neurotransmitters are chemicals that help in transmissions of nerve impulses across synapse.
For example, acetylcholine.
Q. 3. How does a wave of depolarization spread along with a nerve fibre?
Ans. Nerve cells have polarized membranes, having an electrical potential difference across the
membrane. The trigger zone for a particular neuron is the place on the membrane where voltage-
gated channels are clustered most densely. When stimulated opening of voltage-gated Na+ ion
channel brings Na+ ions into the cell, a temporary, very localized, but rapid inflow of Na+ ions
into the cells occurs, wiping out the local electrical potential difference in the immediate vicinity.
This is called depolarization.
The depolarization thus spreads, producing a local current, which induces passive Na+ channels
to open and so to depolarize the near site. In this way, initial depolarization passes outward over
the membrane and spreads out in all directions along with the nerve fibre, from dendron to
axon.
Q. 4. The major parts of the human neural system is depicted below. Fill in the empty boxes with
appropriate words.
Human Neural System
CNS (i)
Autonomic
Brain (ii) (iii)
Neural System
Mid Sympathetic
(iv) (v) (vi)
Brain NS
Ans. (i) PNS (ii) Spinal Cord
(iii) Somatic Neural system (iv) Fore brain
(v) Hind brain (vi) Parasympathetic NS

Q. 1. (a) Why does the nerve impulse flow more rapidly in myelinated nerve fibres than in the non-
myelinated fibres?
(b) What is a nerve fibre? How is it classified?
Ans. (a) Due to the following reasons nerve impulse flows more rapidly in myelinated nerve fibres:
Myelin sheath provides insulation to the nerve fibres from electrical disturbances between
the neighboring fibres. Myelin sheath is impermeable to free ions present in the extracellular

fluid. So, it prevents the exchange of ions between the extracellular fluid and the interior
of the myelinated axon. The myelin sheath is absent at the nodes of Ranvier, so, action
potential jumps from one node of Ranvier to the next. Thus, the nerve impulse flows in
the form of leaps or jumps. This is known as the saltatory conduction of impulse. It is more
rapid than the smooth flow of impulse.
(b) A long dendrite or axon of a neuron is called a nerve fibre. Nerve fibres have been classified
according to presence of myelin sheath as:
(i) Myelinated nerve fibres (ii) Non-myelinated nerve fibres
Q. 2. (a) What are receptors?
(b) Explain motor-end plate.
Ans. (a) Receptors are peripheral nerve endings in the skin or special sense organs. They collect
information from the external or internal environment of the body; transform them into
electrical potential changes, which then pass along the afferent neurons to CNS.
(b) A motor-end plate is a specialized structure formed by the muscle fibre at the point where
the axon terminal is applied to it. The axon of the motor neuron is divided into branches
near the muscle fibres. Each branch loses its myelin sheath near its termination and ends in
an expanded foot-like form which is supplied closely to a muscle fibre.
There is no actual continuity between the neuron and muscle fibre. The membranes of the
two are separated from each other by a narrow cleft-like fluid-filled space.
Q. 3. (a) What are the biological functions of dorsal and ventral spinal nerve roots fibres?
(b) Which part of the nervous system participates in the maintenance of balance and co-
ordinate body movements?
Ans. (a) Dorsal spinal nerve root fibers bring impulses from the peripheral tissues, giving rise to
sensations like touch, temperature, and pain, or to involuntary spontaneous activities called
reflexes.
Ventral spinal nerve root fibres: Some of the root fibres go to skeletal muscle fibres directly
to stimulate or inhibit their activities; many others go to autonomic ganglia and end in them.
(b) The cerebellum process all the data and co-ordinates muscle movement in conjunction with
the cortex and sends signals to the muscles to adjust.
Q. 4. (a) What is a synapse? How does the nerve impulse travel across the synapse?
(b) What is the primary function of neuroglial cells? What special structure is produced by
Schwann cells?
Ans. (a) A nerve signal travels from neuron to neuron all around the body. These associations are
called synapse.
There are mainly two types of synapses: Electrical and chemical depending upon the nature
of the transfer of information across the synapse. In electrical synapses, cells are separated
by a gap, the synaptic cleft, of only 0.2 mm. So that an action potential arriving at the pre-
synaptic side of the cleft can sufficiently depolarize the post-synaptic membrane to directly
trigger its action potential. Chemical synapses are the common type of synapse consisting of a
bulbous expansion of a nerve terminal called a synaptic knob. The cytoplasm of the synaptic
knob contains numerous tiny round sacs called synaptic vesicles. Each vesicle contains a
neurotransmitter substance responsible for the transmission of nerve impulses across the
synapse.

(b) The neuroglial cells perform many house-keeping functions, provide nutritional support to
the neurons and consume waste products. They also insulate, separating each neuron from
the others. Schwann cells, a type of neuroglial, wrap around the axon with concentric layers
of the insulating plasma membrane.
Q. 5. (a) What functions does the hypothalamus serve in coordinating the various activities of the
body?
(b) Why is the mode of conduction of electrical impulse along the myelinated neuron
advantageous to a non-myelinated neuron? What is this type of conduction called?
Ans. (a) It contains nerve centers for temperature regulation, hunger, thirst, and emotional reactions.
It secretes neurohormones, which control the secretion of anterior pituitary hormones. It
synthesizes the posterior pituitary hormones and controls their release into the blood.
(b) The myelinated nerve fibres carry impulses nearly 20 times faster than the non-myelinated
nerve fibres. These avoid the dissipation of impulses into adjacent fibres. The myelin sheath
serves as a highly insulating layer that prevents the flow of ions between the fluid external
to the myelin sheath and within the axon. In non-myelinated fibre, ionic charges and
depolarization are repeated over the membrane along the length of the fibre and action
potential flow over the entire length of the fibre. But in myelinated fibres, ionic charges and
depolarization are repeated only at the nodes. Thus the impulse is more rapid in myelinated
fibres and requires less energy. This jumping of depolarization from node to node is called
saltatory conduction of nerve impulse.
Q. 6. Name the parts of human forebrain indicating their respective functions.
Ans. The forebrain consists of cerebrum, thalamus and hypothalamus. Cerebrum forms the major
part of the human brain. A deep cleft divides the cerebrum longitudinally into two halves, which
are termed as the left and right cerebral hemispheres. The hemispheres are connected by a tract
of nerve fibres called corpus callosum. The layer of cells which covers the cerebral hemisphere
is called cerebral cortex and is thrown into prominent folds. The cerebral cortex is referred to
as the grey matter due to its greyish appearance. The neuron cell bodies are concentrated here
giving the colour. The cerebral cortex contains motor areas, sensory areas and large regions that
are neither clearly sensory nor motor in function. These regions called as the association areas are
responsible for complex functions like intersensory associations, memory and communication.
Fibres of the tracts are covered with the myelin sheath, which constitute the inner part of
cerebral hemisphere. They give an opaque white appearance to the layer and, hence, is called
the white matter. The cerebrum wraps around a structure called thalamus, which is a major
coordinating centre for sensory and motor signaling. Another very important part of the brain
called hypothalamus lies at the base of the thalamus. The hypothalamus contains a number of
centres which control body temperature, urge for eating and drinking. It also contains several
groups of neurosecretory cells, which secrete hormones called hypothalamic hormones. The
inner parts of cerebral hemispheres and a group of associated deep structures like amygdala,
hippocampus, etc., form a complex structure called the limbic lobe or limbic system. Along with
the hypothalamus, it is involved in the regulation of sexual behaviour, expression of emotional
reactions (e.g., excitement, pleasure, rage and fear), and motivation.

(i) Which of the following is purely motor cranial nerve?
(a) Vagus (b) Optic
(c) Olfactory (d) Abducens
(ii) In mammals, the brain centre which regulates body temperature is situated in
(a) cerebrum (b) cerabellum
(c) medulla oblongata (d) hypothalamus
(iii) An area in the brain which is associated with strong emotions is
(a) cerebral cortex (b) cerebellum
(c) limbic system (d) medulla
(iv) Which of the following is not involved in Knee-jerk reflex?
(a) Muscle spindle (b) Motor neuron
(c) Brain (d) Interneurons
below:
(a)
(i) Assertion (A) : The chemical stored in the synaptic vesicles are termed as neurotransmitters.
Reason (R) :
Synaptic vesicles release their chemicals in the synaptic cleft.
(ii) Assertion (A) :
The resting membrane gradient are maintained by the active transport of
ions by the sodium potassium pump which transport 3Na+ outwards for
2K+ into the cell.
Reason (R) :
The electric potential difference across the resting plasma membrane is
called as the resting potential.
3. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:

(a) What are nodes of Ranvier?
(b) What is meant by Nissl’s granules?
(c) What are Schwann cells? Mention its function.
4. Which sensory organ is involved in vertigo (sensation of oneself or objects spinning around)?
5. (a) Complete the statement by choosing appropriate match among the following:
A. Resting potential (i) chemicals involved in the transmission
of impulses at synapses.
B. Nerve impulse (ii) gap between the pre synaptic and post
synaptic neurons
C. Synaptic cleft (iii) electrical potential difference across the
resting neural membrane
D. Neurotransmitters (iv) an electrical wave like response of
a neuron to a stimulation.
(b) Rearrange the following in the correct order of involvement in electrical impulse movement-
synaptic knob, dendrites, cell body, axon terminal, axon
6. (a) What is the action potential of a neuron? Do all neurons possess the same action potential?
(b) What is depolarized condition of neuron?
7. During resting potential, the axonal membrane is polarised. Explain and indicate the movement
of +ve and –ve ions leading to polarisation diagrammatically.
8. Explain the process of the transport and release of a neurotransmitter with the help of a labelled
diagram showing a complete neuron, axon terminal and synapse.
Answers
1. (i)—(d), (ii)—(d), (iii)—(c), (iv)—(c) 2. (i)—(a), (ii)—(b)
zzz

19 Chemical Coordination
and Integration
1. Endocrine glands and hormones

Q The neural system and the endocrine system jointly coordinate and regulate the physiological
functions in the body.
Q Endocrine glands lack ducts and are hence, called ductless glands. Their secretions are called
hormones.
Q Hormones are non-nutrient chemicals which act as intercellular messengers and are produced in
trace amounts.
Q Hormones are released into the blood and transported to a distantly located target organ.
2. Human Endocrine System

Q The endocrine glands and hormone producing diffused tissues/cells located in different parts of our
body constitute the endocrine system.
Q Pituitary, pineal, thyroid, adrenal, pancreas, parathyroid, thymus and gonads (testis in males and
ovary in females) are the organised endocrine bodies in our body.
Q In addition to these, some other organs, e.g., gastrointestinal tract, liver, kidney, heart also produce
hormones.
Pineal gland Hypothalamus

Pituitary gland
Thyroid gland
Thymus
Pancreas
Adrenal glands
Testes
(male)
Ovaries
(female)
Fig 19.1 Location of endocrine glands

2.1. The Hypothalamus
Q The hypothalamus is the basal part of diencephalon, forebrain and it regulates a wide spectrum of
body functions.
Q It contains several groups of neurosecretory cells called nuclei which produce hormones. These
hormones regulate the synthesis and secretion of pituitary hormones.
Q The hormones produced by hypothalamus are of two types,
O The releasing hormones (which stimulate secretion of pituitary hormones)
O The inhibiting hormones (which inhibit secretions of
pituitary hormones).
Q For example (GnRH) stimulates the pituitary synthesis and
release of gonadotrophins. On the other hand, somatostatin
from the hypothalamus inhibits the release of growth hormone
from the pituitary.
Q These hormones reach the pituitary gland through a portal
circulatory system and regulate the functions of the anterior
Hypothalamus
pituitary. The posterior pituitary is under the direct neural
regulation of the hypothalamus.
2.2. Pituitary Gland

Q The pituitary gland is located in a bony cavity called sella tursica and is attached to hypothalamus
by a stalk.
Q It is divided anatomically into an adenohypophysis and a neurohypophysis. Adenohypophysis
consists of two portions,
(i) pars distalis
(ii) pars intermedia
Q The pars distalis region of pituitary, commonly called anterior pituitary, which produces the following
hormones:
Growth hormone (GH)
Prolactin (PRL)
Thyroid stimulating hormone (TSH),
ANTERIOR PITUITARY
Adrenocorticotrophic hormone (ACTH),
Luteinizing hormone (LH)
Follicle stimulating hormone (FSH).
Neurosecretory cells
Optic
chiasm
Anterior pituitary
Posterior pituitary
Artery
Vein
Fig 19.2 Relationship of pituitary with hypothalamus
Chemical Coordination and Integration 455

Q Pars intermedia secretes only one hormone called melanocyte stimulating hormone (MSH). In
humans, the pars intermedia is almost merged with pars distalis.
Q Neurohypophysis (pars nervosa) also known as posterior pituitary, stores and releases two hormones.
Oxytocin
POSTERIOR PITUITARY
ADH (vasopressin)
Q Over-secretion of GH stimulates abnormal growth of the body leading to gigantism and low secretion
of GH results in stunted growth resulting in pituitary dwarfism.
Q Prolactin regulates the growth of the mammary glands and formation of milk in them.
Q TSH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of thyroid hormones from the thyroid gland.
Q ACTH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of steroid hormones called glucocorticoids from the
adrenal cortex.
Q LH and FSH stimulate gonadal activity and hence are called gonadotrophins.
O In males, LH stimulates the synthesis and secretion of hormones called androgens from testis. In
males, FSH and androgens regulate spermatogenesis.
O In females, LH induces ovulation of fully mature follicles (graafian follicles) and maintains the
corpus luteum, formed from the remnants of the graafian follicles after ovulation. FSH stimulates
growth and development of the ovarian follicles in females.
Q MSH acts on the melanocytes (melanin containing cells) and regulates pigmentation of the skin.
Q Oxytocin acts on the smooth muscles of our body and stimulates their contraction. In females, it
stimulates a vigorous contraction of uterus at the time of child birth, and milk ejection from the
mammary gland.
Q Vasopressin acts mainly at the kidney and stimulates resorption of water and electrolytes by the
distal tubules and thereby reduces loss of water through urine (diuresis). Hence, it is also called as
anti-diuretic hormone (ADH).
2.3. Thyroid Gland

Q The thyroid gland is composed of two lobes which are located on either side of the trachea.
Q Both the lobes are interconnected with a thin flap of connective tissue called isthmus.
Q The thyroid gland is composed of follicles and stromal tissues.
Q These follicular cells synthesise two hormones, tetraiodothyronine or thyroxine (T4) and
triiodothyronine (T3). Iodine is essential for the normal rate of hormone synthesis in the thyroid.
Q Deficiency of iodine in our diet results in hypothyroidism and enlargement of the thyroid gland,
commonly called goitre.
Larynx
Left Thyroid gland Right Thyroid gland
Trachea
Fig 19.3 Thyroid gland

Hypothyroidism during pregnancy Due to cancer of the thyroid gland
causes defective development and or due to development of nodules
maturation of the growing baby of the thyroid glands, the rate
leading to stunted growth (cretinism), of synthesis and secretion of the
mental retardation, low intelligence thyroid hormones is increased to
quotient, abnormal skin, deaf-mutism, abnormal high levels leading to a
etc. In adult women, hypothyroidism condition called hyperthyroidism
may cause menstrual cycle to become which adversely affects the body
irregular. physiology.
Q Thyroid hormones control the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. Maintenance of water
and electrolyte balance is also influenced by thyroid hormones.
Q Thyroid gland also secretes a protein hormone called thyrocalcitonin (TCT) which regulates the blood
calcium levels.
2.4. Parathyroid Gland

Q In humans, four parathyroid glands are present on the back side of
the thyroid gland, one pair each in the two lobes of the thyroid gland.
Q The parathyroid glands secrete a peptide hormone called parathyroid
hormone (PTH).
Q Parathyroid hormone (PTH) increases the Ca2+ levels in the blood.
PTH acts on bones and stimulates the process of bone resorption
(dissolution/ demineralisation). PTH also stimulates reabsorption
of Ca2+ by the renal tubules and increases Ca2+ absorption from the
digested food. Parathyroid glands
Q It is, thus, clear that PTH is a hypercalcaemic hormone, i.e., it increases Fig 19.4 Parathyroid gland
the blood Ca2+ levels. Along with TCT, it plays a significant role in
calcium balance in the body.
2.5. The Pineal Gland

Q The pineal gland is located on the dorsal side of forebrain.
Q Pineal secretes a hormone called melatonin. Melatonin plays a very important role in the regulation
of a 24-hour (diurnal) rhythm of our body. It helps in maintaining the normal rhythms of sleep-wake
cycle, body temperature.
Q In addition, melatonin also influences metabolism, pigmentation, the menstrual cycle as well as our
defence capability.
2.6. Thymus
Q The thymus gland is a lobular structure located between lungs behind sternum on the vertral side of
aorta.
Q The thymus plays a major role in the development of the immune system. This gland secretes the
peptide hormones called thymosins.
Q Thymosins play a major role in the differentiation of T-lymphocytes, which provide cell-mediated
immunity.
Q In addition, thymosins also promote production of antibodies to provide humoral immunity. Thymus
is degenerated in old individuals resulting in a decreased production of thymosins. As a result, the
immune responses of old persons become weak.

2.7. Adrenal Gland
Q There is one pair of adrenal glands, one at the anterior part of each kidney.
Q The gland is composed of two types of tissues. The centrally located tissue is called the adrenal
medulla, and outside this lies the adrenal cortex.
Q The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones called adrenaline or epinephrine and noradrenaline or
norepinephrine. These are commonly called as catecholamines.
Adrenaline and noradrenaline are rapidly secreted in response to stress of any kind and
during emergency situations and are called emergency hormones or hormones of Fight
or Flight. These hormones increase alertness, pupillary dilation, piloerection (raising of
hairs), sweating etc.
Adrenal gland
Capsule
Medulla Cortex
Blood
vessels
Kidney
(a) (b)
Fig 19.5 (a) Adrenal gland above kidney (b) Section showing two parts of adrenal gland
Q Both the hormones increase the heart beat, the strength of heart contraction and the rate of respiration.
Q Catecholamines also stimulate the breakdown of glycogen resulting in an increased concentration of
glucose in blood. In addition, they also stimulate the breakdown of lipids and proteins.
Q The adrenal cortex can be divided into three layers,
O called zona reticularis (inner layer),
O zona fasciculata (middle layer) and
O zona glomerulosa (outer layer).
Q The adrenal cortex secretes many hormones, commonly called as corticoids. The corticoids, which
are involved in carbohydrate metabolism are called glucocorticoids. In our body, cortisol is the main
glucocorticoid.
Q Corticoids, which regulate the balance of water and electrolytes in our body are called
mineralocorticoids. Aldosterone is the main mineralocorticoid in our body.
Q Glucocorticoids stimulate, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis; and inhibit cellular uptake and
utilisation of amino acids. Cortisol is also involved in maintaining the cardio-vascular system as well
as the kidney functions.
Q Glucocorticoids, particularly cortisol, produces anti-inflamatory reactions and suppresses the
immune response. Cortisol stimulates the RBC production.
Q Aldosterone acts mainly at the renal tubules and stimulates the reabsorption of Na+ and water and
excretion of K+ and phosphate ions. Thus, aldosterone helps in the maintenance of electrolytes, body
fluid volume, osmotic pressure and blood pressure. Small amounts of androgenic steroids are also
secreted by the adrenal cortex which play a role in the growth of axial hair, pubic hair and facial hair
during puberty.
2.8. Pancreas
Q Pancreas is a composite gland which acts as both exocrine and endocrine gland.
Q The endocrine pancreas consists of ‘Islets of Langerhans’.

Q The two main types of cells in the Islet of Langerhans are called α-cells and β-cells. The α-cells secrete
a hormone called glucagon, while the β-cells secrete insulin.
l
GLUCAGON is a peptide hormone. l INSULIN is a peptide hormone.
l Plays an important role in maintaining the l Plays a major role in the regulation of glucose
normal blood glucose levels. homeostasis.
l Glucagon acts mainly on the liver cells l Insulin acts mainly on hepatocytes and
(hepatocytes) and stimulates glycogenolysis adipocytes (cells of adipose tissue), and
resulting in an increased blood sugar enhances cellular glucose uptake and
(hyperglycemia). utilisation. As a result, there is a rapid
l In addition, this hormone stimulates the movement of glucose from blood to
process of gluconeogenesis which also hepatocytes and adipocytes resulting
contributes to hyperglycemia. in decreased blood glucose levels
l Glucagon reduces the cellular glucose (hypoglycemia).
uptake and utilisation. l Insulin also stimulates conversion of glucose
l Thus, glucagon is a hyperglycemic to glycogen (glycogenesis) in the target cells.
hormone.
Q The glucose homeostasis in blood is thus maintained jointly by the two – insulin and glucagon.
Insulin and Glucagon
Insllin released by
Beta cell of
Pancreas Fat cell take
in Glucose
from Blood
Liver releases
Glucagon released Glucose into
by Alpha Cell Blood
of pancreas
Fig 19.6 Role of insulin and glucagon in glucose homeostasis
Q Prolonged hyper-glycemia leads to a complex disorder called diabetes mellitus which is associated
with loss of glucose through urine and formation of harmful compounds known as ketone bodies.
Diabetic patients are successfully treated with insulin therapy.
2.9. Testis
Q A pair of testis is present in the scrotal sac (outside abdomen) of male individuals.
Q Testis performs dual functions as a primary sex organ as well as an endocrine gland.
Q Testis is composed of seminiferous tubules and stromal or interstitial tissue.
Q The Leydig cells or interstitial cells, which are present in the intertubular spaces produce a group of
hormones called androgens mainly testosterone.

Q Functions of Androgens: Androgens regulate the development, maturation and functions of the
male accessory sex organs like epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicles, prostate gland, urethra
etc. These hormones stimulate muscular growth, growth of facial and axillary hair, aggressiveness,
low pitch of voice etc. Androgens play a major stimulatory role in the process of spermatogenesis
(formation of spermatozoa). Androgens act on the central neural system and influence the male sexual
behaviour (libido). These hormones produce anabolic (synthetic) effects on protein and carbohydrate
metabolism.
2.10. Ovary
Q Females have a pair of ovaries located in the abdomen.
Q Ovary is the primary female sex organ which produces one ovum during each menstrual cycle.
Q Ovary produces two groups of steroid hormones called estrogen and progesterone.
Q Ovary is composed of ovarian follicles and stromal tissues.
l The estrogen is synthesised and secreted l After ovulation, the ruptured follicle is
mainly by the growing ovarian follicles. converted to a structure called corpus luteum,
l Estrogens produce wide ranging actions which secretes mainly progesterone.
such as stimulation of growth and activities of Progesterone supports pregnancy.
female secondary sex organs, development l Progesterone also acts on the mammary
of growing ovarian follicles, appearance glands and stimulates the formation of alveoli
of female secondary sex characters (e.g., (sac-like structures which store milk) and milk
high pitch of voice, etc.), mammary gland secretion.
development.
l Estrogens also regulate female sexual
behaviour.
3. Hormones of Heart, Kidney and Gastrointestinal Tract

S. No. ORGANS/TISSUES HORMONES SECRETED
1. The atrial wall of our heart. ANF (atrial natriuretic factor) which
decreases blood pressure.
2. The juxtaglomerular cells of kidney. Erythropoietin which stimulates
erythropoiesis (formation of RBC).
3. Endocrine cells present in different parts of l Gastrin- Gastrin acts on the gastric
the gastro-intestinal tract. glands and stimulates the secretion
of hydrochloric acid and pepsinogen.
l Secretin acts on the exocrine
pancreas and stimulates secretion of
water and bicarbonate ions.
l CCK acts on both pancreas and gall
bladder and stimulates the secretion
of pancreatic enzymes and bile juice,
respectively.
l GIP inhibits gastric secretion and
motility.
4. Mechanism of Hormone Action

Q Hormones produce their effects on target tissues by binding to specific proteins called hormone
receptors located in the target tissues only.
Q Hormone receptors present on the cell membrane of the target cells are called membrane-bound

receptors and the receptors present inside the target cell are called intracellular receptors, mostly
nuclear receptors (present in the nucleus).
Q Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads to the formation of a hormone-receptor complex.
Q Hormone-Receptor complex formation leads to certain biochemical changes in the target tissue.
4.1. Mechanism of Protein Hormone

Q Hormones which interact with membrane-bound receptors normally do not enter the target cell,
but generate second messengers (e.g., cyclic AMP, IP3, Ca++ etc) which in turn regulate cellular
metabolism.
Hormone (e.g., FSH)
Receptor Ovarian
cell membrane
Response 1
(Generation of second messenger)

(Cyclic AMP or Ca++)
Biochemical responses
Physiological responses
(e.g., ovarian growth)
Fig 19.7 Mechanism of protein hormone
4.2. Mechanism of Steroid Hormone

Q Steroid hormones mostly regulate gene expression or chromosome function by the interaction of
hormone-receptor complex with the genome. Cumulative biochemical actions result in physiological
and developmental effects.
Uterine cell
membrane
Hormone
(e.g., estrogen)
Nucleus
Genome
Receptor-Hormone
complex
Proteins
(Tissue growth and
differentiation)
Fig 19.8 Mechanism of steroid hormone

NCERT Exercises
Q. 1. Define the following:
(a) Exocrine gland (b) Endocrine gland
(c) Hormone
Ans. (a) Exocrine gland – These are the glands that liberate their secretions into ducts conveying
either on the surface of the body or to particular organs of the body e.g., sebaceous glands,
sweat glands, salivary glands and intestinal glands.
(b) Endocrine gland – Endocrine glands are ductless glands of the endocrine system that secrete

their products, hormones, directly into the blood. e.g., thyroid gland.
(c) Hormone – It is a non-nutrient chemical that serves as an intercellular messenger and is

secreted in trace amounts.
Q. 2. Diagrammatically indicate the location of the various endocrine glands in our body.
Ans. Refer to fig 19.1.
Q. 3. List the hormones secreted by the following:
(a) Hypothalamus (b) Pituitary
(c) Thyroid (d) Parathyroid
(e) Adrenal (f) Pancreas
(g) Testis (h) Ovary
(i) Thymus (j) Atrium
(k) Kidney (l) G-I Tract
Ans.
Name of the structure Hormone secreted
(a) Hypothalamus Releasing hormone:
lAdrenocorticotropin-releasing hormone (ACRH)
lThyrotropin-releasing hormone(TRH)
lLuteinising hormone-releasing hormone(LH-RH)
lFollicle-stimulating hormone-releasing hormone (FSH – RH)
lProlactin-releasing hormone(PRH)
lGrowth hormone – releasing hormone
lMelanocyte stimulating hormone – releasing hormone
Inhibiting hormone
lGrowth inhibiting hormone
lProlactin inhibiting hormone
lMelanocyte stimulating hormone – inhibiting hormone
(b) Pituitary Anterior pituitary

lFollicle stimulating hormone
lLuteinizing hormone
lThyroid stimulating hormone
lAdrenocorticotrophic hormone
lSomatotrophic or Growth hormone
lProlactin hormone or Luteotrophic hormone.
Posterior pituitary
lOxytocin
lVasopressin or antidiuretic hormone.
Middle (intermediate) lobe of pituitary : Melanocyte stimulating hormone

(c) Thyroid lCalcitonin
lTri-iodothyronine(T3)
lTetraiodothyronine/Thyroxine(T4)
(d) Parathyroid Parathormone(PTH)

(e) Adrenal Adrenal cortex – Mineralocorticoids, Glucocorticoids
Adrenal medulla – Adrenaline, Noradrenaline
(f) Pancreas Glucagon, Insulin
(g) Testis Testosterone
(h) Ovary lEstrogens such as estradiol
lProgesterone
lRelaxin
(j) Atrium Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF)

(k) Kidney Erythropoietin
(l) G-I tract Gastrin Secretin
Cholecystokinin Enterocrinin
Duocrinin Villikinin.
Q. 4. Fill in the blanks:
Hormones Target gland
(a) Hypothalamic hormones __________________
(b) Thyrotrophin (TSH) __________________
(c) Corticotrophin (ACTH) __________________
(d) Gonadotrophins (LH, FSH) __________________
(e) Melanotrophin (MSH) __________________
Ans. (a) Pituitary
(b) Thyroid
(c) Adrenal cortex
(d) Gonads -Testes in male and ovaries in female.
(e) Skin.
Q. 5. Write short notes on the functions of the following hormones:
(a) Parathyroid hormone (PTH) (b) Thyroid hormones
(c) Thymosins (d) Androgens
(e) Estrogens (f) Insulin and Glucagon
Ans. (a) Parathyroid hormone increases the level of calcium and decreases the level of phosphate in
the blood.
(b) Thyroid hormones control the metabolism of carbohydrates, proteins and fats. Maintenance
of water and electrolyte balance is also influenced by thyroid hormones. Calcitonin regulates
the concentration of calcium in the blood.
(c) Thymosin is secreted by thymus. It accelerates cell division, stimulates the development and
differentiation of T-lymphocytes, help in cell mediated immunity.
(d) Androgens are secreted by testis. They stimulate the development of male reproductive
system, formation of sperms, development of male accessory sex characters and also
determines the male sexual behaviour and the sex urge.
(e) Oestrogens are secreted by ovaries. They stimulate the female reproductive tract to grow
to full size and become functional, differentiation of ova and development of accessory sex
characters.

(f) Insulin is secreted by the β-cells of the pancreas. It lowers blood glucose level, and promotes
synthesis of proteins and fats. Glucagon is secreted by the α-cells of the pancreas. It increases
the level of glucose in the blood.
Q. 6. Give example(s) of:
(a) Hyperglycemic hormone and hypoglycemic hormone
(b) Hypercalcemic hormone
(c) Gonadotrophic hormones
(d) Progestational hormone
(e) Blood pressure lowering hormone
(f) Androgens and oestrogens
Ans. (a) Hyperglycemic hormone and hypoglycemic hormone – Glucagon and Insulin respectively.
(b) Hypercalcemic hormone – Parathyroid hormone (PTH).
(c) Gonadotrophic hormones – Follicle-stimulating hormone (FSH) and Luteinizing
Hormone (LH).
(d) Progestational hormone – Progesterone.
(e) Blood pressure lowering hormone – Atrial natriuretic factor (ANF).
(f) Androgen – Testosterone.
Estrogen – β- oestradiol.
Q. 7. Which hormonal deficiency is responsible for the following:
(a) Diabetes mellitus (b) Goitre
(c) Cretinism
Ans. (a) Insulin.
(b) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine.
(c) Thyroxine and Triiodothyronine.
Q. 8. Briefly mention the mechanism of action of FSH.
Ans. FSH is protein hormone. Refer to 4.
Q. 9. Match the following:
Column I Column II
(a) T4 (i) Hypothalamus
(b) PTH (ii) Thyroid
(c) GnRH (iii) Pituitary
(d) LH (iv) Parathyroid
Ans. (a) – (ii); (b) – (iv); (c) – (i); (d) – (iii)

1. If secretary cells of GHRH are damaged then which of the following will take place?
(a) The process of cell division will be adversely affected.
(b) Urine amount will increase.
(c) Sugar level in blood increases.
(d) ADH secretion will increase.

2. Steroid hormones are almost similar in structure to [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) cholesterol (b) tyrosine
(c) triglycerides (d) coenzyme A
3. Select the right match of endocrine gland and their hormone among the options given below.
(NEET 2017)
(A) Pineal (i) Epinephrine
(B) Thyroid (ii) Melatonin
(C) Ovary (iii) Estrogen
(D) Adrenal medulla (iv) Tetraiodothyronine
Options:
(a) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i) (b) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii)
(c) (A)-(iv), (B)-(ii), (C)-(i), (D)-(iii) (d) (A)-(ii), (B)-(iv), (C)-(iii), (D)-(i)
4. Hormone responsible for ovulation is [Manipal 2005]
(a) LH (b) FSH
(c) progesterone (d) testosterone
5. Write full form of ACTH?
(a) Adrenal Cortical Tropic hormone (b) Adrenocortico Target hormone
(c) Adrenocortex Tropic hormone (d) Adrenocortico Tropic hormone
6. Which hormone regulate 24-hr rhythm of our body?
(a) Somatotropic (b) LTH
(c) Melatonin (d) T4 and T3
7. Which hormone increases blood calcium level?
(a) Thyroxine (b) Thyrocalcitonin
(c) PTH (d) All of the above
8. Which of the following hormones is not secreted by anterior pituitary. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Growth hormone (b) Follicle stimulating hormone
(c) Oxytocin (d) Adrenocorticotrophic hormone
9. Mary is about to face an interview. But during the first five minutes before the interview she
experiences sweating, increased rate of heart beat, respiration etc. Which of the following
hormones are responsible for her restlessness? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Estrogen and progesterone (b) Oxytocin and vasopressin
(c) Adrenaline and noradrenaline (d) Insulin and glucagon
10. Withdrawal of which of the following hormone is the immediate cause of menstruation?
[CBSE 2006]
(a) Oestrogen (b) FSH
(c) FSH and LH (d) Progesterone
11. Which of the following secretes mineralocorticoids?
(a) Zona glomerulosa (b) Zona Reticularis
(c) Zona Fasciculata (d) Adrenal medulla
12. What is cause of exophthalmic goitre?
(a) Less secretion of thyroid (b) Under secretion of parathyroid
(c) Over secretion of parathyroid (d) Over secretion of thyroid
13. A steroid hormone which regulate glucose metabolism is? [CBSE 2006]
(a) Cortisol (b) Corticosterone
(c) 11-deoxy corticosterone (d) Cortisone

14. Thymosin is responsible for [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) raising the blood sugar level (b) raising the blood calcium level
(c) differentiation of T lymphocytes (d) decrease in blood RBC
15. Which of the following option is not correct for the state of body in stress?
(a) Increased heart-beat (b) Increased alertness
(c) Increased glucose level of blood (d) Rate of protein synthesis increases
16. Diabetes insipidus is caused by the deficiency of hormone
(a) insulin (b) vasopressin
(c) glucagon (d) oxytocin
17. If receptor molecule is removed from target organ for hormone action, the target organ will
(a) continue to respond but in opposite.
(b) not respond to hormone.
(c) continue to respond but require higher concentration of hormone.
(d) continue to respond without any difference.
18. The steroid responsible for balance of water and electrolytes in our body is
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) insulin (b) melatonin
(c) testosterone (d) aldosterone
19. Hormones are called chemical signals that stimulate specific target tissues. Their action
depends on the presence of receptors on the respective target tissues. Which of the following
is the correct location of the receptors in the case of protein hormones? [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Extra cellular matrix (b) Blood
(c) Plasma membrane (d) Nucleus
20. In the mechanism of action of a protein hormone, one of the second messengers is
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) cyclic AMP (b) insulin
(c) T3 (d) gastrin
21. A pregnant female delivers a baby who suffers from stunted growth, mental retardation, low
intelligence quotient and abnormal skin. This is the result of [NEET 2013]
(a) deficiency of iodine in the diet (b) over secretion of pars distalis
(c) low secretion of growth hormone (d) cancer of the thyroid gland
22. A hypothalamic hormone, GnRH, needed in reproduction, acts on [NEET 2017]
(a) the anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the secretion of LH and oxytocin.
(b) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates the secretion of LH and relaxin.
(c) posterior pituitary gland and stimulates the secretion of oxytocin and FSH.
(d) anterior pituitary gland and stimulates the secretion of LH and FSH.
23. Leydig cells produce a group of hormones called [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) androgens (b) oestrogens
(c) aldosterone (d) gonadotropins

24. Corpus luteum secretes a hormone called [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) prolactin (b) progesterone
(c) aldosterone (d) testosterone
25. Spot the mis-matched.
(a) Intestine - Secretin (b) Insulin - CSK
(c) Atrial wall - ANF (d) Adrenal medulla – Adrenaline
26. Glucagon and insulin are
(a) secreted from same cell and are same in function.
(b) secreted from same cells but are opposite in function.
(c) antagonistic secretion action and similar function.
(d) secreted from different cells but are opposite in function.
27. Which hormone is responsible for milk ejection after the birth of baby? [MP-PMT 2007]
(a) Oxytocin (b) Progesterone
(c) Prolactin (d) Oestrogen
28. LH in human female [BHU 2008]
1. facilitates luteinization of granulosa cells of ovulated follicle.
2. called ovulation hormone.
3. helps in milk ejection .
4. activates Leydig’s cells to secrete androgens.
(a) 1,2 and 3 are correct (b) 2 and 4 are correct
(c) 1 and 2 are correct (d) 1 and 3 are correct
29. Cortisol is secreted by [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) pancreas (b) thyroid
(c) adrenal (d) thymus
30. A hormone responsible for normal sleep-wake cycle is [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) epinephrine (b) gastrin
(c) melatonin (d) insulin
31. Which of the following conditions is not linked to deficiency of thyroid hormones?
[NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Cretinism (b) Goitre
(c) Myxoedema (d) Exophthalmia
32. Which of the following organs in mammals does not consist of a central ‘meduallary’ region
surrounded by a cortical region?
(a) Ovary (b) Adrenal
(c) Liver (d) Kidney
33. Blood calcium level is resultant of how much dietary calcium is absorbed, how much calcium
is lost in the urine, how much bone dissolved releasing calcium into the blood and how
much calcium from blood enters tissues. A number of factors play an important role in these
processes. Mark the one which has no role. [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Vitamin D (b) Parathyroid hormone
(c) Thyrocalcitonin (d) Thymosin

Answers
1. (a) 2. (a) 3. (d) 4. (a) 5. (d) 6. (c) 7. (c) 8. (c) 9. (c) 10. (d)
11. (a) 12. (d) 13. (a) 14. (c) 15. (d) 16. (b) 17. (b) 18. (d) 19. (c) 20. (a)
21. (a) 22. (d) 23. (a) 24. (b) 25. (b) 26. (d) 27. (a) 28. (c) 29. (c) 30. (c)
31. (d) 32. (d) 33. (d)
1. Assertion : Insulin is said to be an anabolic hormone.

Reason
: Failure of insulin secretion causes diabetes.
2. Assertion : In a tadpole, if thyroid is cut, metamorphosis stops. [Haryana PMT 2000]

Reason
: TSH is not secreted.
3. Assertion : Our body secretes adrenaline in intense cold.

Reason
: Adrenaline raises metabolic rate.
4. Assertion : Females have less stature than males after puberty.

Reason
: This happens because of the presence of HCG in the blood of females.
5. Assertion : Pituitary gland is also called the master gland.

Reason
: It secretes a number of trophic hormones which regulate secretion from other
endocrine glands.
6. Assertion : Relaxin is released during childbirth.

Reason
: As it relaxes cervix of the uterus for easy birth of child.
7. Assertion : Oxytocin is also known as ADH.

Reason
: ADH can cause an increase in renal absorption of water.
Answers
1. (b) 2. (c) 3. (a) 4. (c) 5. (c) 6. (a) 7. (d)

PASSAGE–1
Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
Hormone (e.g., FSH)
Receptor Ovarian
cell membrane
Response 1
(Generation of second messenger)

(Cyclic AMP or Ca++)
Biochemical responses
(e.g., ovarian growth)
(i) Which hormone mechanism is shown here?

(ii) Write the full form of cAMP.
(iii) What is hormone receptor complex?
Answers
(i) Protein hormone.
(ii) Cyclic adenosine monophosphate.
(iii) Binding of a hormone to its receptor leads to the formation of a hormone-receptor complex.
PASSAGE–2
(i) Name the gland shown in the above picture.

(ii) List the layers of adrenal cortex.
(iii) What are catecholamines?

Answers
(i) Adrenal gland.
(ii) The adrenal cortex can be divided into three layers,

v called zona reticularis (inner layer),

v zona fasciculata (middle layer) and

v zona glomerulosa (outer layer).
(iii) The adrenal medulla secretes two hormones called adrenaline or epinephrine and noradrenaline
or norepinephrine. These are commonly called as catecholamines.
Q. 1. State whether true or false: [NCERT Exemplar]

(a) Gastrointestinal tract, kidney and heart also produce hormones.
(b) Pars distalis produces six trophic hormones.
(c) B-lymphocytes provide cell-mediated immunity.
(d) Insulin resistance results in a disease called diabetes mellitus.
Ans. (a) True.
(b) True.
(c) False because T-lymphocytes provide cell-mediated immunity and B- lymphocytes provide
humoral immunity which is a type of adaptive immune system.
(d) True.
Q. 2. Correct the following statements by replacing the term underlined.
(a) Insulin is a steroid hormone.
(b) TSH is secreted from the corpus luteum.
(c) Tetraiodothyronine is an emergency hormone.
(d) The pineal gland is located on the anterior part of the kidney. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Insulin is a protein hormone.
(b) TSH is secreted from the anterior pituitary.
(c) Adrenaline is an emergency hormone.
(d) The adrenal gland is located on the anterior part of the kidney.
Q. 3. Name the gland that secretes the following hormone:
(a) HCG
(b) Relaxin
Ans. (a) Placenta.
(b) Corpus luteum.
Q. 4. Give examples of:
(a) Blood pressure lowering hormone
(b) Gonadotrophic hormone

Ans. (a) ANF.
(b) FSH and LH.
Q. 5. Differentiate between somatotrophin and somatostatin.
Ans.
Somatotrophin Somatostatin
Secreted by anterior lobe of pituitary. Secreted by hypothalamus.
Stimulates body growth. Decreases the secretion of growth hormone from
the anterior pituitary.
Q. 6. Rearrange the following hormones in Column I so as to match with their chemical nature in
Column II. [NCERT Exemplar]]
Column I Column II
(a) Oxytocin (i) Aminoacid derivative
(b) Epinephrine (ii) Steroid
(c) Progesterone (iii) Protein
(d) Growth hormone (iv) Peptide
Ans. (a) - (iv) (b) - (i)
(c) - (ii) (d) - (iii)
Q. 7. Give an example of neuroendocrine reflex. What is the source of vasopressin?
Ans. Milk release. The source of vasopressin is neurons of supraoptic nucleus of hypothalamus.
Q. 8. (a) List one peculiar symptom of diabetes mellitus.
(b) Deficiency of which hormone leads to Diabetes insipidus?
Ans. (a) Glycosuria/ Hyperglycaemia.
(b) ADH hormone.
Q. 9. (a) There are many endocrine glands in human body. Name the glands which is absent in
male and the one absent in female. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Which is the endocrine part of testis?
Ans. (a) In Males—Ovary and in Females—Testis.
(b) Interstitial cells.

Q. 1. On an educational trip to Uttaranchal, Ketki and her friends observe that many local people
were having swollen necks. Please help Ketki and her friends to find out the solutions to the
following questions.
(a) Which probable disease are these people suffering from?
(b) How is it caused?
(c) What effect does this condition have on pregnancy? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Goitre.
(b) Iodine deficiency in diet.

(c) Hypothyroidism during pregnancy causes defective development and maturation of the
growing baby leading to stunted growth (cretinism), mental retardation, low intelligence
quotient, abnormal skin, deaf- mutism, etc.
Q. 2. (a) Name the hormone that helps in cell-mediated immunity. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Old people have weak immune system. What could be the reason? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Thymosin.
(b) Thymus gland secretes a hormone, thymosin. This gland plays a major role in the
development of immune system. But, thymus gland gets degenerated in old individuals
resulting in decreased production of thymosin. As a result, the old people have weak immune
system.
Q. 3. A sample of urine was diagnosed to contain high content of glucose and ketone bodies. Based
on this observation, answer the following: [NCERT Exemplar]
(a) Which endocrine gland and hormone is related to this condition?
(b) Name the cells on which this hormone acts.
(c) What is the condition called and how can it be rectified?
Ans. (a) Pancreas is the gland and hormone is insulin. Insulin decreases the level of glucose in blood
by increasing the rate as which glucose is transported out of blood and into the cell. When
insulin is not produced adequately glucose uptake is hampered and hence glucose starts
appearing in urine along with ketone bodies.
(b) Hepatocytes and adipocytes.
(c) The condition is called diabetes mellitus. It can be rectified by insulin therapy.
Q. 4. (a) Explain why maternal iodine deficiency might lead to neurological impairment in the
foetus.
(b) The thyroid hormones, T3 and T4, are often referred to as metabolic hormones. Justify.
Ans. (a) Iodine deficiency in a pregnant woman would also deprive the foetus. Iodine is required
for the synthesis of thyroid hormones, which contribute to foetal growth and development,
including maturation of the nervous system. Insufficient amounts would impair these
functions.
(b) The thyroid hormones, T3 and T4, are often referred to as metabolic hormones because
their levels influence the body’s basal metabolic rate, the amount of energy used by the body
at rest.
Q. 5. Describe the structure and function of glucocorticoids.
Ans. O OH
HO OH
H
H H
O
Glucocorticoids are corticosteroid hormones, which are a class of essential steroid hormones,
secreted from the adrenal glands. Glucocorticoids are corticosteroids that bind to the
glucocorticoid receptor that is present in almost every vertebrate animal cell.

Function: Glucocorticoids stimulate, gluconeogenesis, lipolysis and proteolysis; and inhibit

cellular uptake and utilisation of amino acids. Cortisol is also involved in maintaining the cardio-
vascular system as well as the kidney functions.
Glucocorticoids, particularly cortisol, produces anti-inflammatory reactions and suppresses the
immune response. Cortisol stimulates the RBC production.
Q. 6. Give the cause and symptom of adrenal virilism.
Ans. Cause- excess secretion of adrenal androgens results in adrenal virilism. It may be due to tumour
in the zona reticularis region or congenital enzymatic deficiency.
Symptom- Adult females may have amenorrhea, atrophy of the uterus, clitoral hypertrophy,

decreased breast size, acne, hirsutism, deepening of the voice, baldness, increased libido, and
increased muscularity.
In adult males, the excess adrenal androgens may suppress gonadal function and cause infertility.
Ectopic adrenal tissue in the testis may enlarge and simulate tumours.
Q. 7. (a) What is the source of MSH?
(b) George comes on a vacation to India from US. The long journey disturbs his biological
system and he suffers from jet lag. What is the cause of his discomfort?
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Intermediate lobe of pituitary.
(b) Melatonin is the hormone which is responsible for this biological clock. Melatonin is
manufactured in pineal gland and its synthesis and release are stimulated by darkness and
suppressed by light. Jet lag is a temporary sleep disorder. The body clock is adjusted to the
solar day by rhythmic cues in the environment, mainly the light-dark cycle and the rhythmic
secretion of melatonin.

Q. 1. (a) Differentiate between zona fasciculata and zona glomerulosa on the basis of region of
location and hormones secreted.
(b) Mention the difference between hypothyroidism and hyperthyroidism.
[NCERT Exemplar]
(c) Which of the two adrenocortical layers, zona glomerulosa and zona reticularis lies outside
enveloping the other? [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a)
Zona fasciculata Zona glomerulosa
Located in intermediate region of the Located in most superficial region of the

adrenal cortex. adrenal cortex.
Produce hormones called glucocorticoids Produces the hormones collectively referred to

as mineralocorticoids.

(b)
Hypothyroidism Hyperthyroidism.
Hypothyroidism is when the thyroid Hyperthyroidism is due to the high amount of
hormone secretes less amount which secretion which causes the excessive amount of
causes this disease. thyroid hormone.
The symptoms include weight gain, loss The symptoms include weight loss, increased
of appetite, dry and coarse skin. appetite and moist skin.
(c) Outer layer—Zona glomerulosa.

Inner layer—Zona reticularis.
Q. 2. (a) Which hormone is associated with BMR?
(b) Name the hormone which is also called degrowth hormone and why?
(c) Name two neurohormones released from posterior pituitary.
(d) Which hormone was first to be discovered?
(e) Name the only hormone secreted by pars intermedia of the pituitary gland.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Thyroxine.
(b) Somatostatin as it inhibits the secretion of growth hormone.
(c) Oxytocin and ADH.
(d) Secretin.
(e) Melanocyte-stimulating hormone (MSH).
Q. 3. Illustrate the differences between the mechanism of action of a protein and a steroid
hormone. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Refer 4.1 and 4.2
Q. 4. (a) Describe the role of negative feedback in the function of the parathyroid gland.
(b) You have learnt that a characteristic feature of endocrine system is the presence of feed
back loops. By this what is meant if hormone A stimulates gland ‘X’ to secrete hormone
B, the production of ‘A’ could be modified when the level of B changes in our blood. An
example is the relation between hormones LH and estrogen (E2). An old woman exhibits
the following features. High levels of LH in blood but low levels of E2 in the blood. Another
woman exhibits high level of LH in blood and also high level of E2 in the blood. Where is
the defect in both these women? Provide suitable diagram to support this answer.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) The production and secretion of PTH is regulated by a negative feedback loop. Low blood
calcium levels initiate the production and secretion of PTH. PTH increases bone resorption,
calcium absorption from the intestines, and calcium reabsorption by the kidneys. As a result,
blood calcium levels begin to rise. This, in turn, inhibits the further production and secretion
of PTH.
(b) Low level of E2 should have positive feedback control on secretion of LH resulting in increase
in production of E2. But old woman shows low level of E2 and high level of hormone LH, this
means LH is not stimulating gland X to secrete hormone E2.

Hormone A
(LH)
Positive Gland Negative

feeback ‘X’ feeback
Secretes
Hormone B
(E2)
Decreased Increased
concentration concentration
High level of E2 should have negative feedback control on secretion of LH resulting in

decrease in production of E2. But another woman shows high level of both E2 and LH, this
means there is some defect in the negative feedback loop.
Q. 5. Hypothalamus is a super master endocrine gland. Elaborate. [NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. Hypothalamus is a super master endocrine gland as it secretes hormones that regulate the
synthesis and secretion of pituitary gland which is a master gland. The hormones produced by
hypothalamus are of two types, the releasing hormones (which stimulate the secretion of pituitary
hormones) and the inhibiting hormones (which inhibit secretions of pituitary hormones). The
hormones secreted by hypothalamus are summarised below:
Releasing hormone:

l Adrenocorticotropin-releasing hormone (ARH)
l Thyrotropin-releasing hormone (TRH)
l Luteinising hormone-releasing hormone (LH-RH)
l Follicle-stimulating hormone-releasing hormone (FSH – RH)
l Prolactin-releasing hormone (PRH)
l Growth hormone – releasing hormone
l Melanocyte stimulating hormone – releasing hormone
Inhibiting hormone

l Growth inhibiting hormone
l Prolactin inhibiting hormone
Melanocyte stimulating hormone – inhibiting hormone.

Q. 6. (a) Name the endocrine gland that produces calcitonin and mention the role played by this
hormone. [NCERT Exemplar]
(b) Calcium plays a very important role in the formation of bones. Write on the role of
endocrine glands and hormones responsible for maintaining calcium homeostasis.
[NCERT Exemplar]
Ans. (a) Thyroid gland also secretes a protein hormone called thyrocalcitonin (TCT) which regulates
the blood calcium levels. TCT is secreted by ‘C’ cells of thyroid glands. TCT is a hypocalcemic
hormone which lower the blood calcium level by increasing calcium deposition in the bones,
so checks osteoporosis.

(b) Thyroid gland and the parathyroid gland that is an antagonist with each other are responsible
for maintaining calcium homeostasis. Calcitonin is responsible for the low calcium level in
the blood by increasing calcium deposition in the bones whereas parathyroid hormone
increases the calcium level in blood which is secreted by the parathyroid gland. It increases
the reabsorption of calcium by renal tubules of the kidney.

(i) Which do not stimulate hormone secretion?
(a) Neural signals
(b) Environmental cues
(c) Local chemical changes
(d) All of the above can stimulate hormone secretion
(ii) Which hormone causes resorption of Na+ and excretion of K+, H+ and H2O?
(a) TSH (b) FSH
(c) Aldosterone (d) LH
(iii) Which one is a peptide hormone?
(a) Androstene-dione (b) Thyroxine
(c) Oxytocin (d) Cortisol
(iv) Select the right match of endocrine gland and their hormone among the options given below
A. Pineal (i) Epinephrine
B. Thyroid (ii) Melatonin

C. Ovary (iii) Estrogen
D. Adrenal medulla (iv) Tetraiodothyronine
Options:
(a) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(iii), D–(i) (b) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(i), D–(iii)
(c) A–(iv), B–(ii), C–(i), D–(iii) (d) A–(ii), B–(iv), C–(iii), D–(i)
below:
(a)

(i) Assertion (A) : TCT and PTH are antagonistic hormones.
Reason (R) :
TCT increases the calcium level in blood while PTH decreases calcium level
in blood.
(ii) Assertion (A) : After operation, menstrual cycle in women may be stopped.
Reason (R) : Ovarian hormone induce menstrual cycle.
(iii) Assertion (A) : FSH is also known as interstitial cell stimulating hormone.
Reason (R) : It is because of the fact that FSH stimulates the interstitial cells of testis.
3. Study the diagram given below and answer the questions that follow:
(a) Name the gland shown in the above picture.

(b) Name a disease that is caused due to deficiency of hormone produced by it.
(c) Where is this gland situated?
4. (a) What are the two integrating systems found in our body?
(b) What causes acromegaly?
5. Name two catecholamines produced by adrenal medulla.
6. How do hormones differ from other glandular secretions of the body?
7. State the function of ANF.
8. Differentiate between diabetes mellitus and diabetes insipidus.
9. If innervation to the adrenal medulla were disrupted, what would be the physiological outcome?
10. (a) What will happen if thyroxine is injected inside a young tadpole of frog?
(b) Inflammatory responses can be controlled by a certain steroid. Name the steroid, its source
and also its other important functions. [NCERT Exemplar]
11. What is the source of somatotrophin? Give the scientific term for the removal of pituitary gland.
How many hormones are secreted by anterior pituitary?
12. State the site of production of the following:
(i) secretin
(ii) CCK
(iii) gastrin

13. Mention any three difference between hormonal control and the nervous control.
14. What happens to the walls of DCT of a nephron when vasopressin is released by the pituitary into
the stream?
15. Compare and contrast the role of oestrogens and progesterone. How does anabolic steroids affect
the body? What is castration? How does it affect the body?
16. Draw a labelled diagram of steroid hormone mechanism. What is the endocrine function of
thymus?
17. (a) Name the target tissues for prolactin. Where is the hypothalamus–pituitary complex located?
(b) A milkman is very upset one morning as his cow refuses to give any milk. The milkman’s wife
gets the calf from the shed. On feeding by the calf, the cow gave sufficient milk. Describe the
role of endocrine gland and pathway associated with this response? [NCERT Exemplar]
Answers
1. (i)—(d), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(c), (iv)—(d) 2. (i)—(c), (ii)—(c), (iii)—(d)
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PART–B
S Sample Question Paper
(As per Latest CBSE Pattern)
Sample Question Paper
(Solved)
Time Allowed: 3 hours Max. Marks: 70
General Instructions:
(i) All questions are compulsory.
(ii) The question paper has five sections and 33 questions. All questions are compulsory.
(iii) Section–A has 16 questions of 1 mark each; Section–B has 5 questions of 2 marks each; Section–C has
7 questions of 3 marks each; Section–D has 2 case-based questions of 4 marks each; and Section–E has
3 questions of 5 marks each.
(iv) There is no overall choice. However, internal choices have been provided in some questions. A student has to
attempt only one of the alternatives in such questions.
(v) Wherever necessary, neat and properly labelled diagrams should be drawn.
SECTION–A
The following questions are multiple-choice questions with one correct answer. Each question carries 1
mark. There is no internal choice in this section.
1. In annelida, formation of larva is usually absent. But when present the larva is called
(a) tadpole (b) planula
(c) trochophore (d) ephyra
2. Systema Naturae is written by
(a) Aristotle (b) Linnaeous
(c) Hippocrates (d) Darwin
3. Root hairs
(a) are unicellular, form exogenously and are short lived.
(b) are multicellular, form exogenously and are long lived.
(c) are unicellular, form endogeneously and are short lived.
(d) are multicellular, form exogenously and are short lived.
4. Cymose inflorescences commonly occurs in
(a) Cruciferae (b) Malvaceae
(c) Solanaceae (d) Liliaceae
5. Enzymes are biocatalysts. They catalyse biochemical reactions. In general they reduce
activation energy of reactions. Many physico-chemical processes are enzyme mediated. Which
of the following is not enzyme-mediated in biological system?
(a) Dissolving CO2 in water.
(b) Untwining the two strands of DNA.
(c) Hydrolysis of sucrose.
(d) Formation of peptide bond.
Sample Question Paper 481

6. The cell organelle that stores materials such as water, salts, proteins, carbohydrates and
metabolic wastes in plant cells are known as
(a) Chloroplast (b) Mitochondria
(c) Vacuole (d) Nucleus
7. Double membrane is absent in
(a) Mitochondria (b) Chloroplast
(c) nucleus (d) lysosome
8. The law of limiting factor was given by
(a) Calvin (b) Blackman
(c) Priestley (d) None of these
9. Hypersecretion of growth hormone in adults does not cause further increase in height,
because
(a) growth hormone becomes inactive in adults.
(b) muscle fiber does not grow in size after birth.
(c) bones lose their sensitivity to growth hormones in adults.
(d) epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
10. Which one of the following is the correct description of a certain part of a normal human
skeleton?
(a) First vertebra is axis which articulates with the occipital condyles.
(b) The 9th and 10th pairs of ribs are called the floating ribs.
(c) Glenoid cavity is a depression to which the thigh bone articulates.
(d) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint.
11. Which of the following hormone is a modified amino acid?
(a) Progesterone (b) Epinephrine
(c) Oestrogen (d) Prostaglandins
12. Unmyelinated nerve fiber is
(a) not endosed by schwann cell and hence not myelin sheath
(b) enclosed by a schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath
(c) not enclosed by a schwann cell but enclosed by a myelin sheath
(d) not found in autonomous nervous system.
13. Assertion (A) : Lichens do not grow in polluted areas having SO2.
Reason
(R) : Lichens secrete carbonic acid and oxalic acid on barren rocks.
14. Assertion (A) : M-phase is the most dramatic period of the cell cycle.
Reason
(R) : It involves a major re-organisation of virtually all components of the cell.

15. Assertion (A) : A sigmoid curve is obtained during limited resources.
Reason
(R) : Growth is slow in lag phase, rapid in log phase and slow in stationary phase.
16. Assertion (A) : Osteoarthritis is also called wear and tear disease.
Reason
(R) : In Osteoarthritis there is an inflammation and degeneration of cartilages at the
joints.
SECTION–B
This section contains 5 questions with internal choice in one question. The following questions are very short
answer type and carry 2 marks each.
17. Explain the different modes of reproduction in green algae?

18. (a) What is Lichens?
(b) Write the classification of Lichens?
19. Define Photoperiodism and Vernalization?
20. What is the function of pigments other than absorbing solar energy?
OR
What is the significance of coupling factor in photosynthesis?
21. (a) Define RQ
(b) When Glucose Oxidized completely. Name the process involved and what are the end
products formed during process.
SECTION–C
This section contains 7 questions with internal choice in one question. The following questions are short
answer type and carry 3 marks each.
22. (a) What is the location of stomata in plants and state its function?
(b) Why monocot leaf are considered to be isobilateral leaf?
23. Formation of enzyme-substrate complex (εS) is the first step in catalysed reactions. Describe the
other steps till the formation of product.
24. (a) Which membrane surrounds the lung? Mention its function.
(b) Where do the exchange of gases occur in lungs?
25. (a) What is heart rhythm?
(b) Define ECG. Which instrument records ECG.
26. How are gram positive bacteria different from gram negative bacteria?
27. (a) Which group of plants is regarded as the first terrestrial plant? Why?
(b) Why some Bryophytes are called as liverworts?
OR
(a) Arrange it in the correct order of taxonomic categories.
Kingdom, Phylum, Genus, Species, Order, Class, Family.
(b) Name the different codes of nomenclature?
(c) What are the basis of modern taxonomic studies?
28. Write the basis of classification of axon? Explain it.

SECTION–D
Q. No 29 and 30 are case based questions. Each questions has sub-parts is it.
29. Study the diagram given below and answer the question that follow:
Outer membrane
Inner membrane
Stromal lamella
Grana
Stroma
Ribosomes
Starch granule
Lipid droplet
Answer the following questions:

(a) Mention the site, among the labelled unit, where only cyclic electron transport takes place.
(b)
Mention the site among the labelled unit where only non-cyclic electron transport takes
place.
(c) What is the source of starch grain formation?
OR

Pyruvate
(3C)
CoA NAD+
NADH+H+
CO2
Acetyl Coenzyme A
(2C)
Oxaloacetic acid
(4C) Cltric acid
+
NADH+H (6C) CO2
NAD+
NAD+ +
NADH+H
α-ketoglutaric acid
Malic acid (5C)
(4C) CITRIC ACID CYCLE
CO2
NAD+
FADH2
NADH+H+
FAD GDP
Succinic acid
(4C) GTP

(a) Write one conversion involving FAD as hydrogen acceptor?
(b) What acts as an oxidoreductive process?
(c) What depicts the above given diagram?

30. Read the given passages and answer the questions that follow.

Our vertebral column is formed by 26 serially arranged units called vertebrae and is dorsally
placed. It extends from the base of the skull and constitutes the main framework of the trunk.
Each vertebra has a central hollow portion (neural canal) through which the spinal cord passes.
First vertebra is the atlas and it articulates with the occipital condyles. The vertebral column is
differentiated into cervical (7), thoracic (12), lumbar (5), sacral (1-fused) and coccygeal (1-fused)
regions starting from the skull. The number of cervical vertebrae are seven in almost all mammals
including human beings. The vertebral column protects the spinal cord, supports the head and
serves as the point of attachment for the ribs and musculature of the back. Sternum is a flat bone
on the ventral midline of thorax.
(a) State the function of vertebral column.
(b) Name the structure through which spinal cord passes.
(c) Why rib is known as bicephalic?
OR

Collecting duct
Osmolality Blood
of interstitial from efferent
fluid (mosm) arteriole
To vein
300
300 100
300
100 100 300 300 300
Cortex H 2O NaCl NaCl NaCl

H 2O H 2O
300
400 200 400
H 2O NaCl 100 400
H 2O NaCl NaCl NaCl

H 2O 400
H 2O
Outer H 2O NaCl
medulla 600 400 100 600
600
H 2O
NaCl 600 NaCl
Urea H 2O H 2O
H 2O
900 700 900 900
NaCl 900 NaCl

H 2O Urea H 2O H 2O
Inner 1200
100 1200
medulla
1200
(a) Loop of Henie (b) Vasa recta
Key:
Active transport
Passive transport

(a) (i) Name the mechanism depicted in the image above.
(ii) Where does the selective reabsorption of Glomerular filtrate take place?
(b) State the significance of this process.
(c) What is the cause behind increasing osmolarity?

SECTION–E
The following questions are long answer type and carry 5 marks each. All questions have an internal choice
31. (a) What are plasmids? Describe their role in bacteria?

(b) What are histones? What are their functions?
(c) State the importance of chromosomes.
OR

What is a centromere? How dos the position of centromere form the basis of classification of
chromosomes? Support your answer with a diagram showing the position of centromere on
different types of chromosomes.
32. Describe the general characters of the phylum arthropoda with examples.
OR
Describe the characteristics of five kingdom classification in tabular form.
33. (a) Write briefly about the nervous system of frog.
(b) The first finger of the male frog is swollen. Why?
(c) Which membrane protects the eye of frog during hibernation.
OR
Name the three basic tissue system in the flowering plants. Give the tissue names under such
system. Explain?
Answers
1. (d) ephyra
2. (a) Aristotle
3. (a) are unicellular, form exogenously and are short lived.
4. (c) Solanaceae
5. (a) Dissolving CO2 in water.
6. (c) Vacuole
7. (d) Lysosome
8. (b) Blackman
9. (d) epiphyseal plates close after adolescence.
10. (d) Parietal bone and the temporal bone of the skull are joined by fibrous joint.
11. (b) Epinephrine
12. (b) enclosed by a schwann cell that does not form a myelin sheath.
13. (b)
14. (a)
15. (a)
16. (a)
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Unit-I Diversity of Living Organisms

1 The Living World

1. Diversity in the Living World

The Living World 7

Nuclear Absent Present Present Present Present

Body Cellular Cellular Multicellular/loose Tissue/organ Tissue/organ/

Mode of Autotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic Autotrophic Heterotrophic

Sub-Group I. Cryptogams Sub-Group II. Phanerogams

Division-1: Division-2 Division-3 Division-1 Division-2

46 Xam idea Biology–XI

78 Xam idea Biology–XI

Q. 5. What is the difference between direct and indirect development?

92 Xam idea Biology–XI

(i) What has been represented by the given diagram?

98 Xam idea Biology–XI

8 Cell: The Unit of Life

162 Xam idea Biology–XI

190 Xam idea Biology–XI

10 Cell Cycle and

1. Understanding Cell Cycle

2. Phases of Cell Cycle

G2 (2nd gap) M (Mitosis)

Fig. 10.1: Diagrammatic view of the Cell Cycle

220 Xam idea Biology–XI

278 Xam idea Biology–XI

Each of the following questions are of 2 marks.

Q. 1. (a) What is trigone?

Excretory Product and their Elimination 401

Long Answer Questions–I

Each of the following questions are of 3 marks.

402 Xam idea Biology–XI

Excretory Product and their Elimination 403

404 Xam idea Biology–XI

Long Answer Questions–II

Each of the following questions are of 5 marks.

(b) There are three phases:

Excretory Product and their Elimination 405

406 Xam idea Biology–XI

Renal capsule Ureter

(ii) Proximal convoluted tubule Distal convoluted tubule

Excretory Product and their Elimination 407

Urine flows into

408 Xam idea Biology–XI

Excretory Product and their Elimination 409

1. (i)—(a), (ii)—(b), (iii)—(b) 2. (i)—(a), (ii)—(a), (iii)—(a)

410 Xam idea Biology–XI

Q Movement is one of the significant features of living beings.

Locomotion and Movement 411

Main Features Location Types of Cells Histology

Smooth  Fibres: non-straited,

Cardiac  Fibres: striated,

Fig. 17.1 Structure of Skeletal Muscle

Q Each muscle fibre is lined by the plasma membrane called sarcolemma.

412 Xam idea Biology–XI

2.1. Structure of Contractile Proteins

Locomotion and Movement 413

Tropomyosin Cross arm

2.2. Mechanism of Muscle Contraction

(Breaking of cross bridge)

Cross bridge Myosin head

Smooth  Fibres: non-straited,

Cardiac  Fibres: striated,