8.

Mean Reeidence Time (MRT) represents which percentage of intravenous bolus dose to be
tl6l20L5 eliminated ?
(A) 46.2 (B) 63.2
Maximum : 100 marke
(c) 50 (D) 73.2
Time : I hour and 15 minutes

1. Which organ comes under poorly perfused organ? 9. Toxoids are bacterial:
(A) Exotoxin G) Endotoxin
(A) Skin (B) Musde
(C) Agglutinin (D) PreciPitin
(C) Fat @) Kidneys
10. The enzyme which is known as spreading factor ?
2. Dilatant material termed ae : (A) Collagenase (B) HYaluronidase
(A) Shear thickening system (B) Shear thinning system (C) Lecithinase (D) HaemolYsins

(C) Plastic system @) Pseudoplasticsystem

11. The mechanism of absorption ofsabin poliovaccine :

(A) Active transport (B) Passive diffusion

3. Dimethicooe is the other nane of :
(C) Endocytosis (D) Ion pair transport
(A) Calamine (B) Titanium dioxide
(C) Silicon oil (D) Zinc stearate 12. Rideal walker coeffrcient test uses astrain of:
(A) Salmonella typhi @) Mvcobacterium tuberculosis
4, Alpha 2 globulin ie otherwise knowu ag : (C) Mycobacterium leprae @) Vibrio cholerae
(A) Trangcortin (B) Ceruloplasmin
13, Drugs having pKa value greater than 8.0:
(C) Traneferrin @) Oroeomucoid
(A) unionized at all pH (B) unionized in stomach pH only
(C) ionized at all pH (D) ionized in stomach pH only
5. Conbined impact and attrition is the working principal of:
(A) Cutter mill (B) Hammer nill 14. Colchicine is used to treat:
(C) Ballmill @) Roller mill (A) Malaria (B) Gout
(C) Migraine @) Asthma
6. Lyophilisation ia the other term of:
15. Marmeloein A, B & C are the chief constituents in:
(A) Freeze drying (B) Digtillation
(A) Gokhru (B) Amla
(C) Flui<lized bed drying (D) Crystallisation (C) Bael @) Manna
7. BCG vaccine is the living cells of strain of: 16. Water soluble fraction of etarch is :

(A) Mycobacterium tuberculosis (B) Mycobacteriunleprae (A) Amylose (B) Amylopectin

(C) Pasteurellapertusis @) Vibrio cholerae (C) Cyclodextrin (D) Pectin

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17. S-Glycosidic linkage is found in Plant constituent used in preparation of mosquito coils :
:
25.
(A) Arbutin G) Sinigrin (A) Ergot (B) Ephedra
(C) Aloin @) Indisine (C) Aconite @) Pyretbrum

18. Carboxylic acid having alpha hydrogen atom replaced by chlorine in presence of phosphorus
26, Drugs acting directly on the skeletal muscle :

is known as :
(A) SuccinYl choline @) Tubocurarine
(A) Hell- Volhard Zelinsky reaction (B) Etard's reaction
(D) Dantrolene
(C) Gallamine
(C) Perkin reaction @) Wurtz reaction

27. A potassium channel activator is :

19. Haemolysis test is for which glycoside ?
(D
(A) Veratrun Prazoein
(A) Saponin (B) Thiocynate
(D)
(C) Minoxiilil None
(C) Anthraquinone @) Phenol

Vitamin Be is :
THC is present in :
(A) Biotin (B) Pyridoxine
(A) Capsicum @) Asafoetida
(C) Thiamine (D) Niacin
(C) Kaladana (D) Cannabis
Chancroid is caused bY :
2I. Mixture exhibit negative deviation from Rault s law :
(B) H. pylori
(A) H. ducrei
(A) Carbon tetra chloride & cyclohexane (B) Ethanol & water
(C) S. aureus @) E.coli
(C) Benzene & ethanol . (D) Chloroform & acetone

pKa of sulphacetanide :
Equipment used for drying milk :
(A) 8.2 (B) 4.8
(A) Spray dryer (B) Vacuum dryer
(c) 5.4 (D) 7.8
(C) Tray dryer @) Tunnel dryer

Drugs used to aid digestion in the grt :

23. Agent used to measure active tubular secretion is :

(A) (B) Para amino hippuric acid

(A) Pepsin (B) Probucol
Creatinine
(C) (C) GuguliPid (D) Pectin
Inulin @) Mannitol

24. The antidote for opioid poisoning:

82. Adninietration of expired tetracyclin results :

(A) Fanconi syndrome (B) Gray baby eyndrome

(A) Bal (B) Naloxone
(C) Stevan-Johnson'ssYndrome (D) Down's syndrome
(C) Atropine @) Physostigmine

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 l
33. Metabolite of drug causes methemoglobinaemia : 4L. Avicel is the trade name of :

(A) Imiprarnine (B) Dapsone (A) Starch (B) Methyl cellulose

(C) Paracetamol (D) Nicotine (C) Microcrystallinecellulose (D) Chitosan

An oral hyaoglyceamic sulphonyl urea drug :

34, Progestins with androgenic effect:
(A) Phenformin @) Acarbose
(A) Norgestrel (B) Norethynodrel
(C) Guargum @) Tolbutamide
(C) Norethinsterone (D) Ethinodioldiacetate
43. Complete seperation of top or bottom crowns of a tablet :

35, Supplement given for cancer patient who is under methotrexate therapy ? (A) Stickins (B) Capping
(A) Folic acid (B) Folinic acid (C) Lamination (D) Picking
(C) P1'ridoxine (D) Ascorbic acid
44. Ceresin is :

(A) Synchro waxes (B) Ozokerite & parafEn wax

36. Panxoside is the constituent of:
(C) Synchro waxes & ozokerite (D) Ozokerite only
(A) Ginseng (B) Brahmi
(C) Senega (D) Gokhru 45. A second generation cephalosporin :

(A) CePhalothin (B) Cefepine

37. Fluid moves in a direction opposite to the sedimentation movement :
(C) Cefazolin (D) Cefaclor
(A) settling @) elutriation
(D) 46. An immunosuppressant which is specific t-cell inhibitors ?
(C) centrifugation precipitation
(A) Cyclosporine (B) Chlorambucil

38. Coulter current method used for determination of: (C) Muromonab @) Azathioprine

(A) particle shape (B) particle volume 47. Number of milligrams of potassium hydroxide required to neutralize free acids & saponify
(C) particle size (D) particle density esters in 1 gram offat is :
(A) Iodine value (B) Water number
39. Drug used for ulcerative colitis : (C) Acid value (D) Saponificationvalue
(A) Kanamycin @) Sucralfate
48. Part used to attach valve proper to aerosol container :

(C) Sulfasalazine (D) Cycloserine (A) (B)

Gasket Stem
(C) Housing (D) Ferrule
40. A moderately sedative anti-histamine:
(A) Promethazine (B) Hydro:ryzine 49. Standards for disinfectant coming under which schedule ?
(C) Clemastine @) Antazoline (A) M (B) P
(c) o (D) R

l16i/20r5 116/2015
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 Novocaine is the other name of :
59. Antioxidants used for oil systems :

(A) Chlorprocaine (B) Lignocaine (A) Thioglvcerol (B) Sodium sulfite

(C) Proparacaine (D) Procaine (C) Lecithin (D) Sultur tlioxide

51. Presence or absence of functiona-l group can be identified by the spectra:

60. Mevalonic acid formation is catalysed by the enzyme :

(A) Mass (B) NMR (B) Phosphomevalonate kinase

(A) Acetyl- CoA
(C) Visible (D) Infrared (D)
(C) Mevalonate kinase HMG-CoA reductase

52. Warfarin displaced from site one of human serum albumin by :

the given is true object oriented
61. Which computer programming language among
(A) Furesamide @) Phenyl butazone programming language?
(C) Disulfiram (D) Cimetidine (B) JAVA
(A) BASIC
53, Agent used as a contrast medium in the X-ray examination of gall bladder : (c) c (D) FORTRAN
(A) Cinnamic acid (B) Iothalamic acid
(C) 62. ExamPle for volatile memory :
Iopanoic acid @) Mandelic acid
(B) Hard Disk
(A) CD - ROM
E4. Biotin is : (c) RoM (D) RAM
(A) Vitamin C (B) Vitamin E
(C) Vitanin H @) Vitamin D 63. 1MB =:
(A) 22oByte (B) 210 BYte
aa. Most popular eye drop preservative (D) zrzBit
:
(C) 28 Byte
(A) BHA (B) BHT
signals into
(C) Methyl paraben (D) Benzalkoniumchloride 64. --is a device that converts the digital signals into analog and analog
digital.
56. An example of pM indicator :
(A) l"AN Card (B) Webcam
(A) Methyl orange (B) Phenolphthalein (D) SMPS
(C) Modem
(C) Phenyl red (D) Murexide
65. Which one is not an output device?
57. Solvents have both protogenic & protophilic properties :
(B)
(A) Monitor Joystick
(A) Levelling solvent (B) Amphiproticsolvent
(D)
(C) Plotter Printer
(C) Differenciatingsolvent @) Aprotic solvent

58. the principle in HPTLC is : 66. (37)ro = QC)z:

(A) X= 100101 (B) X = 101001

(A) Absorption @) Elution
(C) Adsorption (C) X= 101101 @) X = 100110
@) Purgrng

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67. Solarie ie a/an: 76. Diagram that represents a process in sequential order:
(A) ApplicationSoftware (B) Utility Software (A) Algorithm (B) FIow chart
(C) Operating System @) Microprocessor (C) Stack (D) Queue
68. The first free web based email service is: is a basic data type in C++.
(A) Hotmail (B) Yahoomail (A) Int (B) Struct
(C) Gmail @) Redif&nail (C) Class @) Union

69. Malware is a:
78, Which standard network protocol is used to transfer computer files from one host to another
(A) Hardware (B) Firmware host?
(C) Software @) None of theee (A) F"rP (B) SMTP

Who invented the computer mouse in 1964?

(c) PING (D) TELNET

(A) Larry Page (B) Paul Allen

79. Processed data is known as :
(C) Steve Jobg @) Douglas C. Engelbart
(A) (B) Database
FiIe
PARAM is a series of : (C) Library (D) Information
(A) Micro computers (B) Mainframe computers
(C) 80. Step which is not involved in software development :
Mini computers (D) Super computers
(A) Documenting (B) Programming
Topology used in Ethernet I"AN is : (C) Embedding (D) Testing
(A) Irregular (B) Complete
(C) Bus (D) Tree
81. Mother kerala, "Sleeps with her head on the lap of the Sahyadri clad in green" and her feet
pillowed on the crystal ocean sand, kumari at one end and the lord of Gokarna on the other".
Universal gates are :
This poetic language belongs to :
(A) ORandAND (B) NAND andNOR (A) Pala Narayanan Nair (B) Mahakavi vallathol
(C) NOT and NAND (D) XOR and NOT (C) O.N.V. Kurup (D) Kumaranasan

74. Storage capacity of a etandard eingle eided, single layer DVD-R ia : 82. Rani Gaidiliu, a rebel leader against the British was from :

(A) 70oMB (B) 4.7 GB (A) Assam (B) Haryana

(c) 100 MB (D) 8.5 GB (C) Bengal (D) Nagaland

75. ie a translator progran which tranelateg assembly language progxam to 83. 'Operation black board project'was introduced by :

machine language program.

(A) Rajeev Gandhi (B) Narasimha Rao
(A) Linker (B) Ioader
(C) (D) H.D. Devagawda
A.B. Vajpayee
(C) Interpreter @) Assembler
-
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84. A major incident in Kerala, connection with the Quit India movement : 92. 'Samatva samajam' was founded by :

(A) Payyannursatyagraha (A) Vaikunda Swamikal (B) Ayvankali

(B) Wagon tragedy (C) Sree Ramakrishna Paramahamsa (D) Swami Vagbhadananda
(C) Keezhariyur bomb case
93. The National Calender of India is based on the :
@) Kakori conspiracy case (A) Gupta Era (B) Kollam Era
(C) Saka Era (D) Vilram Era
85. The 5th 'Brics' conference of March - 2013 was held at :

(A) Durban @) Capetown 94. Who has been hailecl as the "Father of Modern Kerala Renaissance" ?

(C) Johannes burg @) Petoria (A) Sree Narayana Guru (B) Rajaram Mohan Roy
(C) Swami Vivekananda (D) DayanandaSaraswathy
86. The film 'Gravity' wins seven Oscars, including best director. Who is the director?
(A) Bruno Delbonnel (B) Alfonso Cuaron 95. The First Viceroy of India after Queen's proclamation:
(C) Catherine Merlin (D) William Chang Suk Ping (A) lord Rippon (B) Mount Batten
(C) Lord Curson (D) Lord Canning
87. Name the sailing vessel used by Lt.Cdr. Abhilash Tomy for his solo unassisted non stop
circum navigation : 96. The National Voters day:
(A) INS Tarangini (B) INSV Sudarsini (A) August - l5 (B) January - 25

(C) (D) (C) April - 10 (D) December - 10

INSV Mhadei INS Godavari
97 . The country took up the mediation in the Tashkent ileclaration of 1996:
88. 'Economic history of Infia was written by :
(A) Soviet union (B) USA
(A) Bipin Chandra @) M.N. Roy
(C) China @) France
(C) A.R. Desai (D) R.C. Dutt
98. Chattampi swamikal attained Samadhi at :

89. The monsoon which brings rain in Kerala during the period October to December is called :
(A) Kannan moola (B) Varkkala
(A) South West Monsoons (B) South East Monsoons (C) Chempazhanthi @) Panmana
(C) North West Monsoons (D) North East Monsoons
99. The study of coins is called :

90. The first chief election conmissioner of India : (A) Epigraphy (B) Neumismatics
(A) Kalyana Sundaram (B) Nagendra Singh (C) Paleography @) Demography
(C) Sukumar Sen (D) V.S. Remadevi
100. The ofEcial slogan of FIFA World Cup - 2014 :

91. The Malayalam poetess Sugatha kumari has been chosen for the Saraswathi Samman Award
(A) Last stop : Glory (B) It is time for a new champion
for her poetry collection : (C) All in one rhythm (D) Hope is my road, victory my destiny

(A) Ratri mazha @) Manalezhuthu

(C) Pathira pookkal (D) Ambala mani

A 13 116/2015 116/2015 l4
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 9. Bae J@s Prct€ins tound in uine ffilr in :
200 / 2or5 (A) Livqdisars {B) Djaberes hellitus
I.l Vulbple nvetond tn) Thald:lemD
1- ]1E carhairic PloPe.ty ol castd oil is due lo the J,re*n'c or :
(B) Ara.hidonic acid 10, PEparatios of digftdtis is used in the h.rreent oi
(A) Linolei. a.id
(a) Hr?dtelsion (B) cout
(c) Ridnoleic acid lD) Stearic acid
(c) Myo.ddial iniadion (D) Congesiiee crdiac hjlure

2. d-Tubodranre is a i
11. PhFosti8me ad as a.hdtinoSic drug by :
(A) N€nrnu<dd blo.king agdl (A) DEcdy blnding wuh nicotini. eepto$
(B) Anticholine €stqe (B) Binding with hukarjni. Eeptob
(C) Inlubiting chotinstens eMym.
(D) N€urc deSomriv€ agml (D) Bindins *it! p1 (eptos

3. nF rheduL which Pdide standdd for ophthalmlc PrePffiton : 12. lthi.h dog rtu foltowi^E i3 rct a mtunt ina.ricjde ?

(A) s.he{tlle P (B) *hedul€ R (C) *hEdule FF (D) s'h€dn€ Y (A) Cluysd€mum cinmrieidtum
(B) Nicotim tobadn
(c) Ryania spdca
4- Gtric &id cYcle bkts Plt@ in :
(D) PirE nigum
(A) Livd (B) Mitchonitri'
(q EndoPl*mi reridlun (O) Nu'l€ic
13. M6r tu
'cid advm etk ot non stercidat dti inna'|lfubry agmr j
(A) cfJS toxi.ity (B) ca3Eo id*riml roriciiy
5. The Ptrimidim .mPondt of RNA b : (c) c.rdi,c rori.iry (D) Skin hsh6
(A) Admin€ (B) Gunim (c) Ihvmire (D) un'il
14. EprrephDe is noi uFd in :

6. Major side efid of chlsanPhhicol ir : (a) Brcn hospash (B) H,,Pe,kftion

(A) Bone mafts dePP*ion (D) GIT dtnrb'n'6 (C) Hlersmsrrivity redion G)) LrEasd jnrra eutar
lesur€
(c) Insomnia (D) Prcro!'d dYsPne
ls- Barbitura6e whnh is us.d for the tnducrion of anesrh.ua B ;

{A) Ph€nobarbitone (B) Se.oba,bital

?, EuiPle for a 6ve menb€red hehev.lic comPound w*h one helto ttom F :
(c) Mephobarbtal (D) Tttopsrdne sd:um
(A) Pyinidine (B) r!'ane (c) Azi (D) Phemnthrene
'line
15. A hignly Fle.riv€ @x-2 jrhibto, h :
3. One table sPd tull G : (a) r€noxican (B) Keroploren (c) arerjb (D) Kerorcbc

2@/ 20t5

lPT.O.l
 antiwnal dru8 m.n for t @tunt oi l"tkinsomsm f :
the

Arunladine (B) LevodoPa (C) Bildiden

llcs j! 27. Vitanin A is also.alled :

13, A prord PunP inhibilor conndnly used in rie ttealmenr of FPlic (A) V rmin
Anh $urviric (B) Anrisldilfti vihmin
(C) AnrihamEhatic vitamin (O) Antirerophthali. V amin
{C) Aluninjan hydrcxid. g.l

24. olr body aF.oll{tively caled as :

19, Ithi.h anong the following dfl8s is lsed ao tn eFeti' ?

(c) (c) antibioti., (D) Helrdc

1A) Aponor?hiie (B) codenE laPaveme

20, Anlibioft vhich is used .s a cttotoa. atht

o
(A) PiFraciuin (B) AmP'cillin (c)

30, AnrhEquind. Slycosid€s

21, Colchidm autllwle b€lorgs to the fam v :
(A) kpaehula (B) (c) Asw.gandha (D) Rnubdb
(A) blia€ae (!) Rut2'eae (c) Motu8a'eae (D) R\amnee'e

31. Phts'cally distircr tohs ot sm enzy@

22, Ih€ {t whi.h MEols the advdti@t oI enain dtu8s:
(A) Ismzym (B) co€._,me
(A) Th€ dEg a.d MaAc !!ftd'B A't 1955
(B) Itu€1icid6 A.t 1968 32. Albinism is prcduccd due l,o th€ dei{t in bi6ynth6is ot :
(C) The Phada.Y Act 19tt (A) rJG'n€ {B) Melmin (c) valine
(D) Poisore A.t 1919

Dtss and ailments whj.h drug @y nor

Ke6hiorkor diss .s6iaEd with th. deiiciencv ol:
is a (A) sche.lul€ Cl (B) sdEdule c
(A) vihj! Br1 G) vitarun D (c) catbohvdbh
34, whi.h ft ammE rhe lollowing i, classited
(A) Punarn'va (B) heaclnha
(B)

(D) Toral 6dsy a.ind lron me nol ot Elu(e u&r ambic @nditid jr :
(A) 8 ATP (8) 38 A1" {c) 12ArP (D) 36 ATP
ol bPner
DruF olored dred Poudered or Polnh'd to coN'l drmaE€
or u) aPt"cr ro bc

lhF;peuti. value Dn lh€y dlv ar€ is ca'l'd :

16, HoldinS t€hpeErN ior moist hear sterilizadon is 115,11t.c ,or :
(A) 30 mi.utes (B) 15 minures (C) 0 ninutes

n0/ 2015
5 2O0/2015
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 Chmical t6t for oPilm is Llone lo ch(l lh' Prcstrce of
(A) F€rulic a.id (B) Eugenol (g Mc'oni' r'id
(A) dat
Four unr6a {lr) Everyo$dday
(c) As needed (D) lrrls
38. fte ilmlniiy in whid thc body r*ives readym.de antibodv is called ^irer
(B) Pasiv€ imtuirtt
(D) Innare imnun,iY
43. Superjor and inf€rior vem.ara drret
(A) Righr airirn (B) Leftrr,ium (c) RiShtvoEicle (D) rrt. vdrricl€
Wakr whrch is lre rrom vohnl€ and non _ volatile idPlrities/ hicio orgadsms and PvtoS4s
49. Rhdmatoid anhritis is.a!*d by
(B) (A) Mycobad.num tuberulGis (B) D€tici€n ! ol olci!6
(D) st€ril€ water lot injdtion (c) dd .rysrals
Uric (D) Auroinmune die.def

dirdlv snwrred inro vaP@r G caled :

The Pu6 in $hEh a solid gets 50. Vaep6sin i3 stRred tt :
(A) Desi(atton 13) Sublinatioi (c) EvaPoration (D) condNiion (A) Hyporhalam$ (B) An[erjor pilunary
; (c) PGr€rio p larary (o) AdPn.l rcdulla
Adulr dN or a drug i, 2't0 mg dlculabd doe ld a child of a8e of l? Yan :

(A) 60 ns {B) 30 hg (g lmms (D) 120 mg

51. Diaberis tulli$ h .atrsrl wtm rhre h :

reF.ledv ar shon inhdaB dtFai€d res?ols is obbired (A) a de6cimcy oI imulin

12. }l'hd crlain dru8s adminisi@d
(B) a de6.jd.v of gluotai
(A) IdiGyffas-v (B) roleE'e (q ftcht?htlaxtu (D) AnbsonFn (c) a d@*d Fspon* ot *jdnels ot vasopGein
(D) a d€ftienc)' of trowth ho':rrm
{3, pepa6ndns aPdien -ith iictim it c.ll.d
{B) oinitrenr (c) l.nY 52. AnI sukr.ft€ @FbL 6t rriggeing an immu@aFGc n @r€d a l
(A) Hrphn€ (B) Antibody (C) rnt€rt€rcn (D) Anhgen
,r4, ndro |
1 :500 cdcnhahon ot a orug
(A) 1ng in 5€O nL (8) lkginsmkg (c) 18 in 5oo ml- (D) 1gin500L
51. HIV vnus destro]6l
(A) T h€lp€r.elk (B) Eosinophits (C) B,sPhils (D) Moneyt€s
Mnufacruie of Preptlalions containing al'ohol

(B) Exci* Connbsionei s4. MicMytic hypo chroni. an.dja is calsed by tlE d€fici€ncy or
(D) Didtor ol tlealth Sedi.es (A) viianin Bj: (B) Ribo,ravin (c) tror (D) Folic a.id

'Ihe l'oPonbn oI oil wat€t 55, Orc rorte k used to d.Liver drug tn to :

(A) a:2:1 (B) (c) 2:2, I (D) 2.r I

(A) Eye (B) Fardn.l (c) Nop (D) sLin
2OO/tO75
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 64. Ral€ ofbiela abiUty r gft.resr fo. :
56, Normrl !trluc of qe.tinine cLaran.e I
(^) capsule (B) rabler
(B) (c) suspensions (D) sorrrion
(r\) nL/nnutu
r5 - lZ5 125 - 175 ml-/ninui€
(C) 175 - lio nllminuh (D) 59 - z5 nl/ninute
65. Th€ vftaain whi.h js givm in *vd. cas6 of al@holrm is :
(Al Asdbic acid (!) Ribonavin (q Tnianine (D)
57, i eteb wilh Phmybin
{ta'fzrin by inierf€rinE wit' : ryidorjne
(A) Also.ption (!) Protein binding
66, Hdp h p6r.ycuc nbq. orared rEn ln.3b ot,
(c) Metabolbn (D) Elimination
(A) Linunlrtotishm (B) corchorcus odro.us
(c) c.@ble ntiva (D) cosypirm nEb*rn
58, Antidot ,or lren loisoning is :
(A) Deldoranine (s) A.etvl cvstine (c) DimeKaProL (D) Peniciuanin€
67. Basic rjnS presmr tn p€rXidin€ b:

s9, T€sl fo! wdi€r hot<tinE .aPao(v is Pr€'diH aor :

(A) Pyrmle {D) ptridift {c) Thiophd. (D) elinothe
(A) clt glt (B) Abrcrbent cotron
(C) surgical gaurc lD) Sanjbry NaPrjtu 63. Eruple tor. prcrein whi.h js u.d in Uely jr :
(A) Adl@tire (B) Hyrdf@rri$ne (c) lnsulin (D) _rxyroxin

60, Ust ot dNF !] b. plrhased in a h6Pilal is PreParid by :

(A) chiel Pbrtuitr 59. Ciprcfloucjn b.lonF ro rhe caie8ory ot :

(B) HosPital snP€lintendml

(A) Fluoroqnimlon6 (B) Anino8lyc6i.res
(C) Phrmct and th€EPeulic conmne 'r. Macor.tes {D) cePh,olPor res
(D) Drug r&hnical advisry b@rd
70. Hetro atotu pr*nt in chlo.promzire ae :

61, Saf4r and the nost etlicimi neL\od of drug dilhilution sFrem a
:
{A) Nihog€n an.t oxyg6 (B) Sdphur ed orygtr
(A) FlMtt(k sys!.m (B) Cod|Pl€te floor si4k (c) Nibogq Sulplnr dd Oxyga (D) NiFoS.n and sur?hu.
'Fteh
(c) chdge fl@r slat svstem (D) Unjl do* drug disltibunon svsrd
tl l.raJor side etfer of edium bnE.bdEr ,hh ed as anbod js :

62, Faithtul idh€i€@ oI the i6tNcrioE Siven bv PhFi'ian/Phffiilir

is called: (A)Syrr6i..lkat6ie (B)Sysi€Eric.crdcc
(A) Non.onllianc. (B) Pharma'€Dti'al .@ (c) M€rabori. dlklo,is (D) Metsboh. &don!
(c) Pati€nt co!.*!,rs (D) Patidt odphn@
72, An .xdhple for .nrioxiddr is :

63, AnicL* Pullished in jorUeb aie caled : (A) Sodihhslrphite

(!) @) Soiuh hutzl sutphate
(A) liler.tuE
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(c) terriiry sde (D) Absi'a'ting
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73. [email protected] should b€ stored in :
Dr l{.rnrnn cunJe( I'ho prepded rhe fi6r Dcriotury in Mal.yalam i5 s*iared
wirh
(.\) Alunrnium .ontain.R {B) lon conbi'6 whrh ot rhe lolloBina Mi$ions ?
(q BoGilicate 8bs conlaineF (D) Led coibmds (B) Missionan6 ol chdig
(c) Enelish Chantdbk Vission (D) Evangelical Mi$id
C'bic acid is added in lhe llmit le3t
(A) Pruvide atr a.idn tEdium 62. clru coE{r.re th€ tdol of
(!) Io reaci with imn to Prcdue a PlrPre co'dr
(c) To lom a conPld wilh ircn 1o PEv.nt ?rdiPrht'd (3) 1913 (C) 1333 {D) 1e03
(D) to dct w)lh a.id radicals to
33. l4lich oi rne lollohng is nor a parr of the peanbl€ to the tn<tran
lnorgnnic @Pound whnh is ued as a ddtim d€s4ilis B; (B) selllarism (C) Feddalish
(A) cakirm carbo@le (E Stimhrm .hloride
(D) Calciuh ht"aNdil€
r]t'l|o ,lMg tlE fotlmina @lc fte wort
(a) vasbhadananda G) saint Blias Klrtatop Ch&vda
(c) sE Narayana cN (D)
(A) A .om?l.x carlohY&ab
{D) HydrolyzEd ollassds o'tenar
85, In lvhi.h yed was the Cdnin Sbl.
is
(A) 6lan!.ry 193; (B) 16 January 1941
Conmtration of alcohol no$ €ll€'tiv€ ai bact€ricidtl
:
77, (c)
(D) 10% 12 ArElsr r%5 (D) 8 tult 1946
(A)

74, F.wd ot srpreme cour. ot lndia to d<ide tlE dispuF b€t'^@ the Cqtse ard Siai..
lnds
(c) 't'' -- Juidictim.
(A) (B) APpellar. (g writ (D) Orisrnaj

lim dtu8 lor Tuhduldis ?

$'ho su8A6red |h€ ene ,Abshention
(B) clFonoecin (c)

30. Salin€ cathalti(s acl bY :

(A) StirulatinS tne Easno inl*tinar ruc6a

(B) lreasing rhe garbo inslicl Ntilitv 33. W}'o ammA thc loltowjr8 r.aslarEd T:E@,3 ,ciianjati, for
rhe fiEt ti@
(C) Inaea6ing the @moti' load ol ihe int€srtul bact (A) Kundan,sah (B) c. san*da Kurup
(D) D{r€tting the gasEo inbestitul @tilitt' (D) S.( Podaktad

11
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97. wlb ms the tud€! oI'satutw. &nrFd
ttE Fre€don st Sgle ?
(B)
(A) At&atr@ ClE ian (B)
(c) sw.ni Ag.mMnd. (D)
(Ci A.V, Kuitimlu AtlM (D) Thoda*lod Madhavi Amm

98. fouo{iig (eraliter w{ ih€ Edftor of tne N€wspapd, ,Th€ Ma.l,as

,0. TIE@di5t b have @n tlE'JEnPith awrd fd the riBt tim ftm K€Ela ir

(A) c. s6Fke KmP (A) G-P- iilbi . (E Kn (*va M6d

(D) MT. vasud€van Nair
-
99. Wf icIr Aittcl€ of th€ tndi.n C@tituiim i, etated b r+esi<thri.l Rut. in qales
tr. IrF nEnbqt ol E \iale PuUts4vFCo|r]lrr|!.m e aP?otr{.'l bv: ?

(A) Chid MinisLr (B) Chief l!sh&

(c) chid serct ry 1q,. Who i. FpuLtty lnoh G [!,tin ol^ or lcrat , ?
(B) Veluklutry Ar.yd
92. wlb a'Mt nF ioll@ing,.e th. Chaitr@ oI th. Cmvtyd StryaStalD crmifie ?
(D) Pddlt K.P. K.ruppan
(B) A.K. GoP.rnn
(D) M@rnu Padru..bhr

o Ms the tusl Vice<hfteuo of Kd.la Univ6i9 ?

(^) Sardd K.M. P'nkkq (B) ioePh Mundasn
(c) ,ohr Mrdui (D) MV Paili

t4. whd is rn BRICS Ban* bei.t .st blish€d ?

(A) china (B) lndia (c) Bnzil

95, On which d.ie was the Naiioml F@d S€clrity Act sigled irio trw ?

(A) 2013
1t &pttmb.r (E 12 S€Pr.mter 2013

(C) 26 Autlst 2013 (D) 3 Au8u.r 2013

96. Who aI@E the bllowint js 6e pemt Cnai@n of The Naudal wmn's comission ?

(A) Mao slwma

(c) t llha K@atungalah
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P.T.O.1
1.138  CHAPTER 6 JURISPRUDENCE  1.139

19. Appendix II is about 28. Injection syringe and needle are covered under
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS (a) Number of animals for long-term toxicity studies (a) Schedule A (b) Schedule B
(b) Patient consent for participation in a Phase I clini- (c) Schedule C (d) Schedule D
1. Standard for disinfectant fluids comes under 11. “Ampicillin capsule should be used within 24 months.” cal trial
This statement comes under 29. “Dettol” comes under
(a) Schedule O (b) Schedule R (c) Format for submission of clinical trial reports
(c) Schedule S (d) Schedule E (a) Schedule C (b) Schedule R (a) Schedule N (b) Schedule O
(d) Four groups of fixed dose combination and their
(c) Schedule M (d) Schedule P data requirements (c) Schedule P (d) Schedule Q
2. One of the following forms is needed for the cosmetic
manufacture. 12. If the drug contains in filthy, putrid or decomposed 20. “Schedule F3” is related with 30. If blood group is “AB” then colour label used is
(a) Form 36 (b) Form 32 substance then is known as (a) Standard for surgical dressing (a) Red (b) White
(c) Form 20 (d) Form 24 (a) Misbranded drug (b) Adulterated drug (b) Standard for sterilized umbilical tapes (c) Yellow (d) Blue
(c) Spurious drug (d) Drug (c) Standard for ophthalmic preparation 31. Schedule N states
3. How many members are elected among themselves by
(d) Standard for production of sera (a) List of minimum equipment for efficient running
registered pharmacist of state? 13. Schedule M2 states that
(a) Three (b) Four (a) Requirements of factory premises for the manu- 21. Spurious drug comes under of pharmacy
(c) Five (d) Six facture of medical devices (a) Section 17 (b) Section 17A (b) List of minimum equipment required for manufac-
(b) Requirements of factory premises for the manu- (c) Section 17B (d) Section 3B turing of drug
4. Nominated or elected members in “State Pharmacy (c) Requirement of factory premises and hygienic
facture of homeopathy 22. Insulin comes under
Council” hold office for a term of condition to be complied
(c) Requirements of factory premises for the manu- (a) Schedule H (b) Schedule J
(a) Three years (b) Four years (d) Standard for cosmetics
facture of cosmetics (c) Schedule G (d) Schedule O
(c) Five years (d) Six years
(d) Requirements of factory premises for the manu- 23. Form 20 states that 32. Schedule C is related to
5. Pharmacy Act is established in facture of allopathy (a) List of Biological and Immunological product
(a) Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or
(a) 1948 (b) 1940 14. Pharmacy Council of India has___________ state distribute by retail other than specified C, C1 and X. (b) List of Homeopathy product
(c) 1995 (d) 1919 government nominated member(s) (b) Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or (c) List of Ayurvedic product
(a) 1 (b) 2 distribute by wholesale other than specified C, C1 (d) List of Allopathic product
6. Which pharmaceutical product is not included in
Schedule C? (c) 3 (d) 4 and X. 33. “Kala jadu or Kavach” comes under
(c) Licenses to sell stock or exhibit or offer for sell or (a) Schedule J (b) Schedule K
(a) Toxins (b) Sera 15. In AICTE the chairman is appointed by
distribute by retail other than specified C, C1.
(c) Antigen (d) Capsule (a) State Government of Delhi (c) Schedule L (d) Schedule P
(d) Licenses to sell stock or offer for sell or redistribute
7. Names of drugs which shall be marketed under generic (b) Central Government by retail other than specified C, C1 and X 34. Pharmacy Council of India contain comprises ______
names only come under (c) Election of Registered Pharmacists member(s) from AICTE and UGC.
24. Application for grant of a licence to manufacture
(a) Schedule W (b) Schedule X (d) President Ayurvedic, Sidhha or Unani drugs requires (a) 1 (b) 2
(c) Schedule Y (d) Schedule U 16. In the “Joint State Pharmacy Council” elected member(s) (a) Form 24D (b) Form 25E (c) 3 (d) 4
8. Pharmacy Council of India is doing all of below func- among the Registered Pharmacists is/are (c) Form 20 (d) Form 21 35. Proforma for sending memorandum is included in
tions except (a) 1 (b) 3 25. Private testing laboratory for carrying out tests on which schedule?
(a) To regulate minimum educational standard in (c) 2 (d) 5 drugs requires (a) D (b) A
pharmacy institute 17. Manufacturing and analytical records of cosmetics are (a) Form 32 (b) Form 31 (c) FF (d) Q
(b) To prescribe the minimum standard of education included in which schedule? (c) Form 30 (d) Form 36 36. The schedule in Drug and Cosmetics Act that deals
required for registered as a pharmacist (a) Y (b) U 26. List of coal tar colours permitted to be used in cosmet- with requirement and guidelines of clinical trial,
(c) To compile and maintain central register for (c) U1 (d) V ics is covered under import and manufacture of new drug is
pharmacist (a) Schedule O (b) Schedule P (a) Schedule O (b) Schedule M
(d) To prescribe drug 18. Insulin injection according to Schedule P is should be
stored (c) Schedule Q (d) Schedule R (c) Schedule F (d) Schedule Y
9. Blood Bank comes under the schedule 27. Schedule J is related to
(a) At temperature 2˚C to 8 ˚C and it must not allow 37. State Pharmacy Council should have the following
(a) Schedule B (b) Schedule D (a) GMP number of elected members:
to freeze
(c) Schedule F (d) Schedule G (b) Curable disease
(b) At temperature which not exceed 5°C (a) Six (b) Five
10. Crocin is sale under (c) At temperature which not exceed 20°C (c) List of diseases and ailments which drug cannot (c) Nine (d) Seven
(a) Schedule H (b) Schedule G (d) In cold place claim.
(c) Schedule W (d) Schedule Y (d) Pack sizes of drug.
1.140  CHAPTER 6 JURISPRUDENCE  1.141

38. Schedule D as per D & C Act is concerned with (b) Requirements of factory premises for the manu- (c) Skin cosmetic preparation 66. Patent Act is established in
(a) List of drug exempted from the provision of import facture of Homeopathy drugs (d) Ophthalmic preparation (a) 1948 (b) 1940
of drugs (c) Requirements of factory premises for the manu- (c) 1970 (d) 1919
57. Which of the following is prohibited to be imported?
(b) Disease or ailments which a drug may not purport facture of Ayurveda, Sidhha and Unani drugs
(d) Requirements of factory premises for the manu- (a) Toilet preparations 67. Pack size of drug is covered under
to prevent or cure
facture of Allopathy drugs (b) Ayurvedic drugs (a) Schedule P (b) Schedule R
(c) Requirement of factory premises
(c) Schedule ‘C’ and ‘G’ drugs (c) Schedule P1 (d) Schedule O
(d) List of prescription drugs 48. TGA is regulatory agency of _____________.
(d) Misbranded drugs
39. One of the following is/all are ex officio member(s) of (a) Denmark (b) Austria 68. For licence granted to sell by retail drugs, specified in
State Pharmacy Council (c) Australia (d) Zimbabwe 58. Hatch Waxman Act is related to schedule C and C(I) drugs form no. require is
(a) Chief pharmacist of government hospital 49. MHRA is regulatory agency of ___________ (a) Banned dugs (b) Over-the-counter drugs (a) 20 (b) 20B
(b) Chief administrative medical officer of the state (c) Dangerous drugs (d) Generic drugs (c) 21 (d) 21B
(a) UK (b) Denmark
(c) Assistant drug controller (c) Brazil (d) South Africa 59. Coca, opium and hemp come under:
69. As per Schedule P Carbenicillin Sodium Powder
(d) All (a) Insecticide Act
50. Schedule _________ of Drugs and Cosmetics Act in- should be stored in/at
40. The Education Regulation is published in official cludes requirements and guidelines on clinical trials (b) Poisons Act (a) A cool place
gazette by for import and manufacture of new drugs. (c) Dangerous Drugs Act (b) A cold place
(a) Ministry of Education (a) W (b) X (d) Spurious Drug Act (c) Temperature not exceeding 5°C
(b) Central Government (c) Y (d) V 60. The first edition of Indian Pharmacopoeia was pub- (d) Well closed container, Protect from light, in cool
(c) Drug Controller 51. For parenteral preparation in glass containers minimum lished in the year: place, protect from light
(d) President, Pharmacy Council of India area required is (a) 1940 (b) 1950 70. DTAB has __________ ex officio members.
41. List of drugs whole import, manufacture and sale, label- (a) 250 square metres (b) 400 square metres (c) 1955 (d) 1985
ling and packaging are governed by special provisions (a) Five (b) Six
(c) 500 square metres (d) 150 square metres
are included in schedule 61. Pharmacy Council of India is reconstituted: (c) Four (d) Eight
52. MCC is regulatory agency of _____________ (a) Every 2 Years (b) Every 3 Years
(a) X (b) K 71. For Schedule X drug use of Human beings Special
(c) H (d) G (a) UK (b) Denmark (c) Every 5 Years (d) Every 6 Years Labelling requirement require is
(c) Brazil (d) South Africa
42. Biological and Biotechnological products are included 62. In Phase-II trial following number of patient should be (a) Symbol X given in red
in Schedule 53. In State Pharmacy Council all following are ex officio studied (b) Symbol N in red displayed on left top corner of the
members except label
(a) A (b) B (a) 10–12 patients (b) 1–10 patients
(a) President of India (c) Symbol N displayed on left top corner of the label
(c) C and C1 (d) X (c) 100 patients (d) 500 patients
(b) Chief Administrator Medical Officer of State (d) Symbol H displayed on right top corner of the la-
43. Drug and Magic Remedies Act is enacted in (c) The Officer In Charge of Drug Control Organization 63. Purpose of Phase-III trial is bel
(a) 1954 (b) 1948 (d) Government Analyst (a) To determine maximum tolerated dose in humans,
(c) 1985 (d) 1919 Pharmacodynamic effects, Adverse effects 72. Aspirin sodium comes under
54. Schedule X of Drugs and Cosmetics Act comprises
44. Diabetes comes under (b) Determine Possible therapeutic uses, Effective (a) Schedule G (b) Schedule H
(a) List of incurable diseases (c) Schedule J (d) Schedule W
(a) Schedule G (b) Schedule H doses range
(b) Guidelines for clinical trials
(c) Schedule D (d) Schedule J (c) Efficacy and Ssafety of drug in larger number of 73. Example of Schedule G drug is
(c) List of generic drugs
patients (500 patients)
45. Grant of licence to manufacture a drug requires (d) None of the above (a) Metformin (b) Enalapril
(d) Long time adverse effects after marketing drug
(a) Form 24 (b) Form 25 (c) Cefuroxime (d) Barbital
55. As per D and C Act “Schedule N” is related with
(c) Form 26 (d) Form 27 64. Standard for mechanical contraceptive comes under
(a) List of maximum equipments for efficiently running 74. In 1954 one of the following act is passed
Schedule __________ as per D and C Act
46. List of drugs which should be used by patient under pharmacy (a) Narcotic and Psychotropic Substance Act
medical supervision is covered under _______ as per (a) R (b) R1
(b) Area for opening retail pharmacy (b) Drug and Magic Remedies Act
D & C Act (c) List of minimum equipment for efficiently running (c) S (d) O
(c) The Medical Termination of Pregnancy Act
(a) Schedule G (b) Schedule H pharmacy 65. If drug is so coloured, coated or polished that damage (d) Poisonous Act
(c) Schedule I (d) Schedule J (d) Area required to open wholesale drug store its therapeutic value or it is made to appear of better or
75. Post marketing Surveillance comes under clinical trail
47. As per D and C Act Schedule T states about 56. As per D & C Act “Schedule FF” is related with greater therapeutic value than it really is known as
(a) Phase I (b) Phase II
(a) Requirements of factory premises for the manu- (a) Parenteral preparation (a) Adulterated Drug (b) Spurious Drug
(c) Phase III (d) Phase V
facture of medical devices (b) Ointment formulation (c) Misbranded Drug (d) True Drug
 PSK KOTTATAM
PHARMACIST GRADE II

MCQ IN PHARMACEUTICAL CHEMISTRY II

1.142  CHAPTER 6
1. Which of the following of the contains dibenzoazepine nucleus?
a. Chlorpromazine
b. Imipramine
c. Haloperidol
ANSWER KEYS d. Diazepam
2. Tofranil is a brand name of
1. (a) 2. (b) 3. (d) 4. (c) 5. (a) 6. (d) 7. (a) 8. (d) 9. (c) 10. (c) a. Imipramine
11. (d) 12. (b) 13. (c) 14. (a) 15. (b) 16. (b) 17. (c) 18. (a) 19. (c) 20. (b) b. Tolnaphthate
21. (c) 22. (c) 23. (a) 24. (a) 25. (d) 26. (c) 27. (c) 28. (c) 29. (b) 30. (b) c. Carbamazepine
31. (a) 32. (a) 33. (a) 34. (a) 35. (b) 36. (d) 37. (a) 38. (a) 39. (d) 40. (b) d. Verapamil
41. (a) 42. (c) 43. (a) 44. (d) 45. (b) 46. (a) 47. (c) 48. (c) 49. (a) 50. (c) 3. Biperiden is
51. (a) 52. (d) 53. (a) 54. (d) 55. (c) 56. (d) 57. (d) 58. (d) 59. (c) 60. (c) a. Antiadrenergic
61. (c) 62. (a) 63. (c) 64. (b) 65. (c) 66. (c) 67. (c) 68. (c) 69. (c) 70. (d)
b. Anticholinergic
71. (b) 72. (d) 73. (a) 74. (b) 75. (d)
c. Cholinergic agonist
d. Sympathomimetic
4. Which of the following is an example for Catechol amine.
a. Methoxamine
b. Ephedrine
c. Isoprenaline
d. Amphetamine
5. Which among the following is not a pyridine derivative ……………….
a. Clofazimine
b. Coramine
c. INH
d. Ethionamide
6. Largactil is the marketed name of ……………
a. Diazepam
b. Chlorpromazine
c. Phenobarbitone
d. Loperamide
7. Which of the following is an example for tranquillizer?
a. Haloperidol
b. Thiopental
c. Glutethimide
d. Amitriptyline
8. Pick the wrong statement from the following for epinephrine.
a. Epinephrine is a sympathetic hormone synthesized from adrenal medulla
b. It stimulates both alpha- and beta-adrenergic system
c. It causes constriction in bronchi through β2 receptor.
d. It causes gastric stimulation
9. Catecholamines are metabolised by
a. Catechol-o-methyl transferase
b. Monoamine oxidase
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
10. …………………. is a selective α-1 agonist.
a. Prazosin
b. Isoproterenol
c. Methoxamine
d. Ephedrine
11. Clonidine is a α2 agonist which can be used against all the disease except
a. Migraine
b. Asthma
c. Glaucoma

1
PSK KOTTATAM PSK KOTTATAM
PHARMACIST GRADE II PHARMACIST GRADE II

d. Opioid withdrawal syndrome d. Two carboxyl group

12. Which of the following is used as a uterine relaxant to delay premature labour? 23.………………. is the general group for sulphonamides.
a. Salbutamol a. sulphonyl group
b. Phenyl ephrin b. sulphomyl group
c. Isoproterenol c. sulphanilide group
d. Methoxamine d. sulfhydril group
13. Which of the following is wrong statement? 24. Which of the following enzyme is inhibited by Trimethoprim?
a. Ephedrine and pseudoephedrine are enantiomers a. Dihydropteroate synthetase
b. Ephedrine is a Erythro form isomer b. Transpeptidase
c. Ephedrine is more potent than pseudoephedrine c. DHFR
d. Ephedrine has β2agonistic action. d. Tetrahydrofolate reductase
14……………………. is used for the diagnosis of pheochromocytoma. 25. Which of the following ring is present in pyridostigmine?
a. Phenoxybenzamine a. Azepine
b. Tolazoline b. Azine
c. Tamsulosin c. Imidazole
d. Pilocarpine d. Pyrolidine
15. Which of the following is Quaternary nitrogen compound? 26. Which among the drug do not have a sulphonyl group.
a. Pyridostigmine a. Dapsone
b. Physostigmine b. Tolbutamide
c. Neostigmine c. Acetazolamide
d. All the above d. Tinidazole
16. Which of the following is used for the diagnosis of Myasthenia gravis? 27. Which drug cause Red green blindness…………
a. Edrophonium a. Ethambutol
b. Neostigmine b. Rifampicin
c. Pyridostigmine c. Pyrazinamide
d. Pralidoxime d. Ethionamide
17. Which of the following drug contain pyridine ring in the structure? 28. Which is an antibiotic used as an amoebicidal agent?
a. Isoniazid a. Daunorubicin
b. Neostigmine b. Paramomycin
c. Arecoline c. Rifamycin
d. Tolazoline d. Amphotericin B
18. Which of the following is not obtained from natural source? 29. Thiambutosine is used as:
a. d-tubocurarine a. Antifungal
b. Physostigmine b. Antimalarial
c. Arecoline c. Antileprotic
d. Homatropine d. Anti TB
19. Which of the following is not an example of Anticholine esterase? 30. Which drug inhibit Na+-K+-2Cl transporter in thick ascending loop of Henle?
a. Donepezil a. Bumetanide
b. Rivastigmine b. Xipamide
c. Galantamine c. Azetazolamide
d. Benztropine d. Spironolactone
20. What is the ratio of Trimethoprim: Sulphamethoxazole in the cotrimoxazole tablet. 31. Which one of the following indirectly inhibit K+ secretion by inhibiting Sodium
a. 3:1 channel in DCT?
b. 5:1 a. Furosemide
c. 1:5 b. Hydrochlorthiazide
d. 1:3 c. Amiloride
21. Which one the following is an example for prodrug. d. Chlorthalidone
a. Sulphasalazine 32. All are example for osmotic diuretic except
b. Sulphadiazine a. Ethacrynic acid
c. Sulphathiazole b. Glycerine
d. Sulphaguanidine. c. Isosorbide
22. The structure of proflavine contains……………… d. Urea
a. Two amino group 33. Which of the following is in case of quinidine?
b. One methyl and one amino group a. Quinine and quinidine are optical isomer
c. Two methoxy group b. Quinidine is cardiac depressant

2 3
PSK KOTTATAM PSK KOTTATAM
PHARMACIST GRADE II PHARMACIST GRADE II

c. Quinidine has quinoline and quinuclidine ring c. Cefotaxime

d. Quinidine is indicated in malaria d. Vancomycin
34. Which of the following antifungal agent used only in superficial mycosis? 45. Quinacrine is a acridine derivative antimalarial drug which cause
a. Itraconazole a. Cyanosis
b. Flucytosine b. Yellowish pigmentation
c. Miconazole c. Red green blindness
d. Ketoconazole d. Orange red colour sweating and tear secretion
35. What is the source of antifungal antibiotic Nystatin? 46. Which of the following drug is a Dibenzo cycloheptadiene derivative?
a. S. nodosus a. Phenelzine
b. S. noursei b. Nortriptyline
c. S. mediterranei c. Tranylcypromine
d. S. venezuele d. Chloralhydrate
36. Penicillin V is chemically………… 47. Which of the following diuretic is a steroidal derivative?
a. Benzathine penicillin a. Spironolactone
b. Phenoxy methyl Penicillin b. Fusidic acid
c. Phenoxy Penicillin c. Triamterene
d. Phenoxy Vinyl Penicillin d. Ethacrynic acid
37. In Penicillin, the β-lactam ring is fused with………………. 48. Which of the following is an imidazolidine dione drug?
a. Thiazolidine a. Pilocarpine
b. Thiophene b. Phenytoin
c. Thiazine c. Metronidazole
d. Thiazole d. Imipramine
38. Which of the following is not a prodrug? 49. Which of the following drug inhibit impair the biosynthesis of ergosterol which is an
a. Proguanil essential component of cytoplasmic membrane?
b. Sulfasalazine a. Ketoconazole
c. Spironolactone b. Tolazoline
d. Captopril c. Pyrimethamine
39. Clavulanic acid has a beta-lactam ring fused with d. Ethionamide
a. Thienyl system 50. Thiopental is
b. Thiadiazole a. Short acting opioid derivative
c. Thiazolidine b. Barbiturate derivative
d. Oxazolidine c. Iminostillbine
40. Proflavine will cause …………. d. Anxiolytic
a. Alkylation of bacterial protein 51.Canrenone is an active metabolite of ……………………
b. Coagulation a. Anticancer drug
c. Mutation of genetic material b. Tranquillizer
d. Protein precipitation c. diuretic
41. Penicillin produce bactericidal by inhibiting d. Antihypertensive
a. Transglycolase 52. Which drug causes disruption of cell membrane and causing leakage of ions and
b. Transpeptidase small molecule?
c. Transaminase a. Amphotericin
d. Tranferase b. Griseofulvin
42. Which of the following drug is an inhibitor of DNA gyrase enzyme? c. Bacitracin
a. Rifabutin d. Ethionamide
b. Griseofulvin 53. Which is the heterocyclic ring present in ethionamide?
c. Isoniazid a. Pyridine
d. Ofloxacin b. Piperidine
43. Difference between the structure of ampicillin and amoxicillin is c. Pyrrole
a. Amino group in para position aminobenzene d. Pyrrolidine
b. Hydroxyl in ortho position of aminobenzene 54. Clofazimine is used as
c. Two hydroxyl group in benzene a. Second line anti TB drug
d. One hydroxyl group in the para position of aminobenzene b. Antiviral
44. Which of the following drug inhibit protein synthesis? c. Antileprotic
a. Carbenicillin d. Antimoebic
b. Clarithromycin 55. Tranylcypromine contain…………. group

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PSK KOTTATAM PSK KOTTATAM
PHARMACIST GRADE II PHARMACIST GRADE II

a. Diamino acridine a. INH

b. cyclopropylamine b. Ethambutol
c. Diamino methyl propyl c. Ofloxacin
d. Isopropyl amino d. Pyrazinamide
56. The basic ring present in the marketed formulation ’largactil’ is 67. Peripheral neuritis id ADR for …………
a. Acridine a. Pyridoxine
b. Phenothiazine b. Isoniazid
c. Benzodiazepine c. Rifampicin
d. Dibenzoazepine d. Ethionamide
57. Which of the following drug inhibit dihydropteroate synthase? 68. Which of the following is wrong in case of Phenyl ephrine
a. Trimethoprim a. Used as pressor agent in hypotensive crisis like circulatory failure
b. Methotrexate b. Act on β1 receptors producing hypetension.
c. Busulphan c. Act on α1 receptors causes constriction of iris and uterus
d. 5-flurouracil d. It is given combination with local anesthetic to reduce their absorption.
58. Toxicity of the host cell due to administration of methotrexate can be minimized by 69. Which of the following is wrong in case of ethacrynic acid?
a. Leucovorin a. It is a phenoxypropionic acid derivative
b. Folic acid b. It contains two chloro group in the structure
c. Pyridoxine c. It belongs to loop diuretic
d. Thiamine d. It consists of an active methylene group and ketone
59. 6-mercaptopurine is indicated in 70. Which of the following is not a cardiac stimulant?
a. Choriocarcinoma a. Adrenaline
b. Crohn’s disease b. Dobutammine
c. Both a and b c. Isoprenaline
d. Gout d. Salmeterol
60. …………………. Is an example for anthracyclines. 71. Which of the following is anticholinergic?
a. Doxorubicin a. Prophantheline
b. Mitomycin b. Tolazoline
c. Bleomycin c. Pralidoxime
d. Actinomycin d. Edrophonium
61. Tetracyclines are characterized by common……………. 72. Which of the following anticholinergic drug used in Parkinsonism?
a. Tetrahydronaphthacene a. Homatropine
b. Octahydronaphthacene b. Benztropine
c. saturated naphthacene c. Tropicamide
d. tetranaphthaquinone d. Scopolamine
62. Picromycin is a type of 73. All the following are uses of propranolol except
a. Aminoglycoside a. Prophylaxis for migraine
b. Macrolides b. Asthma
c. beta lactam c. Angina pectoris
d. fluroquinalones d. arrythmia
63. Which of the drug is an example for dibenzpyrazine 74. All are uses of chlordiazepoxide except
a. Trimethoprim a. Used in treatment of anxiety
b. Thiambutosine b. Insomnia
c. Clofazimine c. Alcohol withdrawal symptom
d. Pyrazinamide d. Neuralgia
64. Which one the following drug is not used in DOTS therapy? 75. In chlorpromazine, the side group attached to ‘N’ is
a. INH a. Diethyl amino propyl
b. Ethambutol b. Dimethylaminopropyl
c. Ofloxacin c. Dimethyl aminoethyl
d. Pyrazinamide d. Diethyl aminopropyl
65. The basic nucleus present in Trimethoprim is ………….. 76. Which of the following is a drug interfere in pyramidine metabolism?
a. 4- aminopyridine a. Methotrexate
b. Benzopyridine b. 5-flurouracil
c. 2,4-diaminopyrimidine c. 6-mercaptopurine
d. Biguanide d. 5-guanothymidine
66. Which one of the following is a bacteriostatic 77. The basic heterocyclic rings present in the Pilocarpine is

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PSK KOTTATAM PSK KOTTATAM
PHARMACIST GRADE II PHARMACIST GRADE II

a. Pyridine + Piperidine a. Penicillin

b. Piperidine+ Imidazole b. Cephalosporin
c. Imidazole + Furan c. Chloramphenicol
d. Pyrimidine + Imidazole d. Ofloxacin
78. Which is a naturally occurring compound? 89. In chloroquine, the chloro- group is attached to
a. Physostigmine a. 4th carbon of quinoline
b. Pyridostigmine b. 7th carbon of quinoline
c. Neostigmine c. 8th carbon of quinoline
d. Rivastigmine d. 3rd carbon of quinoline
79. Which drug is used for the treatment of schizophrenia? 90. Propranolol contains …………………….ring
a. fluoxetine a. Phenyl
b. Imipramine b. Naphthalene
c. Phenelzine c. Anthracene
d. Oxypertinine d. Cyclopropyl
80. …………. is an example for first generation cephalosporin. 91. Which of the following statement is true?
a. Cefaclor a. Amoxycillin is active only against Gram positive bacteria
b. Cefuroxime b. Benzyl penicillin is broad spectrum antibiotic
c. Cefoxitin c. Clavulinate Potassium is a betalactamase inhibiter
d. Cefazolin d. Sulphonamide are bacteriocidal
81. ………………….. is an example for extended spectrum penicillin 92. Which statement below is a false statement.
a. Carbenicillin a. Pyrazine is a diazine
b. Methicillin b. Pyramidine and Pyrazine are isomers
c. Nafcillin c. Thiazolidine is β lactam ring
d. Procaine penicillin d. Purine is fused ring consisting of Pyramidine and imidazole
82. In Penicillin G the ………….. is attached to 6-aminopeicillanic acid. 93. ……………………. is an analogue of thymidine
a. Benzyl a. 5-FU
b. Benzoyl b. 6-Mercaptopurine
c. Amino benzyl c. 5-TG
d. Benzene d. Ara- C
83. Which of the following phenothiazine derivative having piperazine ring? 94.. Crystalluria is one of side effect of
a. Triflupromazine a. 4-aminoquinolines
b. Prochlorperazine b. Sulphonamide
c. Thiothixene c. Fluro quinolones
d. Promethazine d. Thiazide diuretics
84. Which class of antibiotics are originally derived from the fungus, acremonium? 95. Prontosil is an example for
a. Cephalosporin a. Biguanides
b. Aztreonam b. Sulphonamide
c. Actinomycin c. Sulphonyl urea
d. Amphotericin d. Quinolone
85. Cepham ring consist of 96. What is the use of Biperiden?
a. β-lactam ring fused Thiazolino ring a. Antiulcer
b. β-lactam ring fused dihydro thiazine b. Anti-parkinsonism
c. β-lactam ring fused dihydro thiazolidine c. Bronchodilator
d. β-lactam ring fused with oxazolidine d. Antifungal
86. Which drug is known as Soframycine? 97. Azothioprine is a prodrug which is converted to
a. Tobramycin a. cytarabine
b. Gentamycin b. 6-mercaptopurine
c. Framycetin c. Allopurinol
d. Netilimicin d. 5- thioguanidine
87. Which of the drug does not consist of sugar in its structure? 98. In Penicillanic acid, the carboxylic acid is attached to…………the beta lactam ring
a. Amikacin a. 3rd carbon
b. Clarithromycin b. Nitrogen in the 4th Position
c. Chloramphenicol c. 4th carbon
d. Azithromycin d. 6th carbon
88. Which of the following is bacteriostatic?

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PHARMACIST GRADE II

99. Which of the following is an example for naturally occurring tropane derivative having
anticholinergic activity?
a. Eucatropine
b. Homatropine
c. Hyoscine
d. Glycopyrorolate
100. Which is basic ring present in Sulfomethoxazole?
a. Oxazole
b. Isoxazole
c. Thiazole
d. Pyrazole

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