Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan

MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Paper—I

Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250
QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS
Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions.
There are EIGHT questions divided in Two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in
ENGLISH. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.
Question no. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted
choosing at least ONE from each section.
The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.
Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission certificate which must be
stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) booklet in the space
provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized
one.
Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly
indicated.
Diagrams/Figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering
the question itself.
Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meaning.
Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a
question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank
in the answer book must be clearly struck off.
SECTION -A
Q. 1(a) In the Figure shown below, block C has a mass of 50 kg and is confined between two
walls by smooth rollers. If the block rests on the top of the 40 kg spool, determine
the required coefficient of static friction at A and B so that the spool slips at A
and B when the magnitude of applied force P is increased to 300 N. 10
OE = 0.4 m
OD = 0.2 m

Q. 1(b) In the Figure shown, a plate is supported at three positions, A, B and C. A is the ball
and socket support, B is the roller support and CD is the cord. Determine the
components of reactions at A and B and tension in cord CD. 10

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 Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan
Q. 1(c) The bending moment diagram for a simply supported beam AB is shown in Fig.
below. Sketch the loading diagram and S.F. diagram of the beam. 10

Q. 1(d) Distinguish clearly the function of a flywheel used in I.C. Engines and in mechanical
punching presses. For the same power output, why flywheels of multi-cylinder
inline engines are relatively smaller than that of single cylinder engine? 10
Q. 1(e) Differentiate between (i) annealing, and (ii) tempering.
Mark the processes on a TTT diagram and bring out the transformations that take
place during the process. 10

Q. 2(a) A compound pendulum of mass 27 kg is suspended from a pivot, such that the
distance of pivot from the mass centre of pendulum is 380 mm. When the pendulum
swings about its pivot with small oscillation, the period of oscillation is 1.60 second.
If the pendulum is now made to swing with amplitude of 45° on each side of the
vertical, find the force exerted on the pivot at the extremity of the swing. 25
Q. 2(b) A simply supported beam of 3 m span is subjected to loads as shown below. The
beam is of I-section and all its dimensions are shown in mm. Determine the principal
stresses at point D in the web. This section is located at a distance of 1 m from the
right hand support of the beam. 25

Q. 3(a) In a loaded component principal stresses at a point are 130 MPa and 30 MPa. Using
Mohr's stress circle, determine the state of stress at the point with respect to axes x'
and y' which are inclined to σ1 and σ2 (principal stress) axes at 30° each in
anticlockwise direction. Also determine principal strains at the point. Take E = 200
GPa and G = 80 GPa. 20
Q. 3(b) The mass of an electric motor is 100 kg. The mass of the armature alone is 30 kg and
its centre of gravity lies 0.5 mm from the axis of rotation. The motor is mounted on
five springs of negligible damping and the force transmitted to the floor is one-
eleventh of the applied force. Assuming mass of the motor is equally distributed

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 Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan
among the five springs, determine the (i) stiffness of each spring (ii) dynamic force
transmitted to the floor. The motor is operating at a speed of 1400 rpm. 10
Q. 3(c) In the epicyclic gear train shown in the Figure, S 1 is the driver, A2 is connected to
output. A 1 and A2 are annulus gears, and S1 and S2 are external gears, in which S2 is
fixed gear. Given the tooth numbers of gears are S 1 = 40, S2 = 30, A1 = 120 and A2
= 100, determine the velocity ratio of the co-axial shafts.
Determine also the magnitude and direction of the torque required to fix S2, if a
torque of 300 N-m is applied in a clockwise direction to S1 . 20

Q. 4(a) In the figure shown, the end A of a bar AB, is constrained to move along vertical path
AD and the bar passes through a swivel bearing pivoted at C. When A has a velocity
of 3 m/s towards D and an acceleration of 25 m/s2 in the opposite direction,
determine:
(i) Velocity and acceleration of sliding of bar through the swivel,
(ii) Angular velocity and angular acceleration of AB. 25

Q. 4(b) What are the desirable properties while selecting a tool material for metal-cutting
applications? Compare HSS and ceramic tools with regard to their application in
high speed machining. 15
Q. 4(c) What are composite materials? Enumerate the advantages and limitations of the use
of composites as engineering materials. 10
SECTION—B
Q. 5(a) What is underlying philosophy behind JIT systems? Briefly describe the
characteristics of JIT systems. 10
Q. 5(b) List the basic principles of plant layout. 10
Q. 5(c) Bars of length 20.05/19.95 mm are in stock. From each, piece of 5.03/4.98 mm are
cut. Determine the lengths of the remaining parts. 10
Q. 5(d) A cup, of 50 mm diameter and 100 mm height, is to be drawn from low carbon steel
sheet. Neglecting the influence of thickness and corner radii:
(i) Calculate the blank diameter

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 Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan
(ii) Decide whether it can be drawn in a single draw, if maximum reduction
permitted is 40%. 10
Q. 5(e) For a machined surface, show macro and micro-irregularities. What are their causes?
What are the various measures of surface finish? Explain any three of them. 10

Q. 6(a) An open loop type NC machine has a stepper motor with a step of 0.9 degree. The
lead screw of the machine is of 4 mm pitch.
(i) If the tool has to be moved by 2.87 mm, how many pulses will have to be fed?
(ii) If the motor is rotating at 15 r.p.m., what is the pulse frequency and the feed rate
of the machining operation? 10
Q. 6(b) The process capability of machines manufacturing holes and shafts is ± 0.24 min.
The assembly requirements for the hole/shaft, of nominal dimension 20.00 mm, are
of clearance between 0.04 and 0.08 mm. Devise the complete scheme (state what it
is?) so that satisfactory assemblies are made. 10
Q. 6(c) Sketch the set-up for spot welding showing details of power input and electrodes
(i) Draw the force/time and current/time diagrams.
(ii) Explain how heating takes place.
(iii) Indicate order of magnitude of current, voltage and time.
(iv) How projection -welding is different from spot welding? 10
Q. 6(d) The following table gives the monthwise actual demand of units of some product:
Table
Month March April May June July August
Demand (units) 350 440 450 460 495 510
The forecasted demand for the month of March was 400 units.
The firm uses exponential smoothing method with smoothing factor 0.2 to forecast
demand.
(i) Calculate the tracking signal for the model.
(ii) Comment on the smoothing factor. 20
Q. 7(a) An assembly line is to produce 40 microwave ovens an hour. The relevant data for
the work elements involved in assembly are given below:
Work element Time (sec) Immediate Predecessor(s)
A 20 None
B 55 A
C 25 B
D 40 B
E 05 B
F 35 A
G 14 D, E
H 40 C, F, G
(i) Draw the precedence diagram.
(ii) Design a balanced assembly line.
(iii) Calculate (a) idle time, (b) efficiency, and (c) balance delay.
(iv) What can be the maximum output from this assembly line? 25
Q. 7(b) How is the domestic kitchen gas cylinder manufactured? State the raw material, its
shape and the processes involved. 10

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 Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan
Q. 7(c) A manufacturer carries stock of an item with an annual demand of 30,000 units. The
setup cost (s) and holding cost (h) are not known precisely, though they vary
between 100 : 1 and 150 : 1.
(i) Calculate EOQ in both conditions.
(ii) How sensitive is the optimal Q to s/h ratio?
(iii) If s/h doubles or triples, what happens to economic order quantity Q*? 15

Q. 8 (a) A special screw is being produced on a machine. The diameter of screw is critical
and the process is to be controlled. Twelve samples of four screws each are drawn
chronologically and inspected. The data is tabulated below:
Sample Screw Diameter (mm)
No. 1 2 3 4
1 12.50 12.56 12.51 12.49
2 12.55 12.52 12.51 12.56
3 12.58 12.55 12.54 12.50
4 12.53 12.55 12.56 12.52
5 12.54 12.53 12.51 12.59
6 12.50 12.48 12.53 12.60
7 12.52 12.53 12.51 12.55
8 12.55 12.51 12.58 12.59
9 12.53 12.54 12.51 12.58
10 12.56 12.53 12.55 12.56
11 12.55 12.54 12.54 12.57
12 12.60 12.55 12.54 12.58
The statistical control chart constants for some samples are as under:
No. of Chart for Average Factor for Chart for ranges of
observations Factors for Control Central line Factors for Control Limits
in sample Limits
n A1 A2 A3 d2 D1 D2 D3 D4
2 2.121 3.759 1.880 1.128 0.0 3.686 0.0 3.268
3 1.732 2.394 1.023 1.693 0.0 4.358 0.0 2.574
4 1.500 1.880 0.729 2.059 0.0 4.698 0.0 2.282
5 1.342 1.596 0.577 2.326 0.0 4.918 0.0 2.114
Is the process under statistical control? Justify your answer. 20
Q. 8(b) What is the principle of LBM (Laser Beam Machining)? Draw a sketch and name the
salient elements used in LBM. 15
Q. 8(c) Determine the optimum speed, for minimum cost, for a machining operation. The
data is as follows:
Machine hour rate = Rs. 3,000
Cost of tool = Rs. 3,000
Machining time/job = 6 min.
Tool life = 90 min.
Taylor's equation constants c = 100; n = 0.5
Handling time/job = 4 min.
Tool changing time = 9 min. 15

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 Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan
MECHANICAL ENGINEERING Paper—II
Time Allowed: Three Hours Maximum Marks: 250
QUESTION PAPER SPECIFIC INSTRUCTIONS
(Please read each of the following instructions carefully before attempting questions)
There are EIGHT questions divided in two Sections and printed both in HINDI and in
ENGLISH. Candidate has to attempt FIVE questions in all.
Question Nos. 1 and 5 are compulsory and out of the remaining, THREE are to be attempted
choosing at least ONE question from each Section.
The number of marks carried by a question/part is indicated against it.
Answers must be written in the medium authorized in the Admission Certificate which must
be stated clearly on the cover of this Question-cum-Answer (QCA) Booklet in the space
provided. No marks will be given for answers written in medium other than the authorized
one.
Wherever any assumptions are made for answering a question, they must be clearly
indicated.
Diagrams/Figures, wherever required, shall be drawn in the space provided for answering
the question itself.
Unless otherwise mentioned, symbols and notations carry their usual standard meaning.
Attempts of questions shall be counted in chronological order. Unless struck off, attempt of a
question shall be counted even if attempted partly. Any page or portion of the page left blank
in the Question-cum-Answer Booklet must be clearly struck off.
Section-A
1. (a) Derive an expression for entropy (S) as given below

for a closed system undergoing a reversible process. 10

(b) Write Bernoulli's equation and the conditions for which it is valid. If a fluid ' obeying
Bernoulli's equation has elevation, velocity and pressure at a point as 30 m, 50 m/s and
50 bar respectively, calculate the total energy per unit mass of this fluid if its density is
1000 kg/m3. 10
(c) What is the effect of Mach number on the compressibility? Derive an expression for
pressure coefficient in terms of Mach number. 10
(d) Explain Wien's displacement law. Assuming sun to be a blackbody with a constant
surface temperature of 5780 K, calculate the wavelength at which it will have the
maximum spectral emissive power. 10
(e) In a standard vapour compression refrigeration cycle, the specific enthalpies of
refrigerant at the end states of different processes in ascending order are 74.6 kJ/kg,
185.4 kJ/kg and 208.0 kJ/kg. If the mass flow rate of refrigerant is 30 kg/min, calculate
power consumption and COP of the cycle. 10

2. (a) Prove that the cyclic integral of ratio between heat transfer and temperature of any
thermodynamic process is less than or equal to zero. 20
(b) A pipe having 15.4 cm inside diameter and 3.2 m length stands vertically. Another
pipe having 10.2 cm inside diameter and 4.8 m length is welded on top of this pipe.
Water at 22 °C fills the smaller diameter pipe to a depth of 2.24 m. Above the water is
air under an absolute pressure of 242 kPa. Determine the total force on the bottom of
the larger diameter pipe. 15
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 Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan
(c) Hot gases enter the blades of a gas turbine with a velocity of 550 m/s and leave with a
velocity of 120 m/s. There is an increase in the enthalpy of the gases in the blade
passages to the extent of 5.1 kJ/kg. The rate of gas flow is 98 kg/min. Determine the
power produced. 15

3. (a) Derive an expression for entropy change across a normal shock wave occurring in a
nozzle. Show the trend of this entropy change (in the form of a diagram), with respect
to the Mach number value before the shock. 15
(b) Define availability of a closed and steady-flow system. Atmospheric air is compressed
steadily from 100 kPa, 27 °C to 500 kPa, 117 °C, by a compressor that is cooled only
by atmospheric air. Neglecting kinetic energy changes, determine the minimum work
required per kg of air compressed. 15
(c) In a balanced counterflow heat exchanger, where , show that—
(i) ΔT1 = ΔT2 = ΔT at any section;
(ii) the temperature profiles of two fluids are parallel and linear. 20

4. (a) In a double-pipe heat exchanger, . The inlet temperatures of hot

and cold fluids are Th i and Tc,i. Determine an expression, in terms of Th,i, Tc,i and Th,0, for
the ratio of area of counterflow heat exchanger to that of parallel-flow heat exchanger,
which will give same hot fluid outlet temperature Th0. Also find out the ratio, if Th,i =
150 °C, Tci = 30 °C and Th,0 = 90 °C. 25
(b) A hot plate of 100 cm height and 25 cm wide is exposed to atmospheric air at 25 °C.
The surface temperature of the plate is 95 °C. Find the heat loss from both the surfaces
of the plate. Also find the change in heat loss if the height of the plate is reduced to 50
cm and the width is increased to 40 cm.
Use the following relations:
Nu = 0.59 (Gr.Pr)0.25 if Gr.Pr < 109
= 0.10 (Gr.Pr)0.335 if Gr.Pr > 109
The properties of air are:
ρ = 1-06 kg/m3;
Cp =1004 J/kg-K
k = 0.029 W/m-K
ν = 18.97 X l0-6 m2 /sec 15
(c) Do you think that velocity boundary layer and thermal boundary layer depend on
Prandtl number? If yes, explain properly. Also explain, with the help of neat sketches,
the significance of relative thickness of velocity boundary layer and thermal boundary
layer for the following:
(i) Liquid metals
(ii) Oils 10
SECTION—B
5. (a) Explain Kelvin-Planck and Clausius statements of the second law of thermodynamics
and prove that both the statements are equivalent. 10
(b) How do the following parameters influence knocking in SI engine combustion?
(i) Self-ignition temperature of the fuel
(ii) Air-fuel ratio
(iii) Dilution by residual gas

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 Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan
(iv) Shrouded inlet valve
(v) Combustion chamber design 10
(c) Hot gases inside a chimney are at 430 °C and the chimney height is 32 metres. The
temperature of outside air is 28 °C. The furnace is supplied with 17 kg of air per kg of
coal burnt. Calculate—
(i) draught in mm of water;
(ii) draught height in metres of hot gases. 10
(d) What is the significance of by-pass factor? For a heating coil, derive an expression of
by-pass factor. Find the expression for efficiency also for heating coil. 10
(e) Inner and outer surfaces of a spherical shell are maintained at temperatures Ti and T0
respectively such that Ti > T0. If inner and outer radii of the shell are ri and r0 and its
conductivity is k, derive an expression for the rate of heat conduction through the shell.
Assume steady state and no heat generation within the shell. 10

6. (a) In a 4-stroke, 2-cylinder diesel engine, the following data was collected:
Piston stroke = 60 cm
Diameter of the cylinder = 40 cm
Speed of the engine = 250 r.p.m.
Indicated mean effective pressure = 8 bar
Brake power of the engine = 220 kW
Fuel consumption = 80 kg/hr
CV of fuel used = 43000 kJ/kg
Hydrogen content in fuel = 13% and remaining is carbon
Air consumption = 30 kg/min
Cooling water circulated = 90 kg/min
Rise in temperature of cooling water = 38 °C
Piston cooling oil used = 45 kg/min
Rise in temperature of cooling oil = 23 °C
Cp of water = 4.18 kJ/kg-K
Cp of cooling oil = 2.2 kJ/kg-K
Cp of exhaust gases = 1.1 kJ/kg-K
Cp of superheated steam = 2 kJ/kg-K
Latent heat of steam = 2520 kJ/kg
Exhaust gas temperature = 450 °C
Ambient temperature = 27 °C
Find the following quantities per minute:
(i) Heat converted to useful brake power (BP)
(ii) Heat carried away by cooling water
(iii) Heat carried away by cooling oil
(iv) Heat carried away by dry exhaust gases
(v) Heat carried away by steam formed
(vi) Heat supplied by fuel
Draw up also a heat balance sheet on minute basis and percentage basis. 40
(b) In the pressure crank angle diagram of normal combustion SI engine, show the point of
ignition, point of combustion, angle of advance, ignition lag and combustion period. 10

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 Civil Services Examination-2013 Brij Bhooshan
7. (a) With the help of T-s diagrams, differentiate between Carnot and Rankine vapour cycles.
State the advantages of Rankine cycle and derive the expression for its thermal
efficiency. 15
(b) A combined cycle power plant operates with mercury and steam cycles. Mercury cycle
is superimposed over the steam cycle operating between boiler outlet condition of 40
bar and 400 °C (h = 3215.7 kJ/kg and sg = 6.713 kJ/kg-K) and condenser temperature
of 40 °C. The heat released by mercury condensing at 0.2 bar is used to impart the
latent heat of vaporization to the water in steam cycle. Mercury turbine receives
mercury as saturated vapour at 10 bar. Calculate the mass of mercury circulated per
unit mass of water and the efficiency of this binary cycle. 35
Properties of saturated mercury and steam are:
P T (°C) Enthalpy (kJ/kg) Entropy (kJ/kg-K) Sp. vol. (m3 / kg)
(bar) hf hg sf sg vf vg
-6
mercury 10 515. 5 72.23 363 0.1478 0.5167 80.5 x l0 0.0333
-6
0.2 277.3 38.35 336.55 0. 0967 0.6385 77.4 x l0 1.163
Steam 0.074 40 167. 5 2574.4 0. 572 8.258 0.001 19.546

8. (a) 100 m3 of air per minute at 15 °C DBT and 80% relative humidity is sensibly heated
until its temperature becomes 22 °C. Saturation pressures of water vapour at 15 °C and
22 °C are 0.017 bar and 0.02645 bar respectively. Find heat added to air per minute.
Take atmospheric pressure =1.013 bar. 25
(b) An air refrigerator used for food storage provides 50 tons of refrigeration. The
temperature of air entering the compressor is 7 °C and the temperature of air before
entering into the expander is 27 °C. Assuming 30% more power is required than
theoretical, find (i) actual COP of the cycle and (ii) kW capacity required to run the
compressor.
The quantity of air circulated in the system is 100 kg/min. The compression and
expansion follow the law pv1.3 = constant. Take γ = l.4 and Cp = 1 kJ/kg-°C for air.

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