300+ Top Obstetrics and Gynecology Mcqs and Answers: Any Skill Search
300+ Top Obstetrics and Gynecology Mcqs and Answers: Any Skill Search
300+ Top Obstetrics and Gynecology Mcqs and Answers: Any Skill Search
Answer: d
a. Maternal coagulopathy
b. Thrombocytopenia
c. Prophylactic low-molecular-weight heparin within 12 hours
d. Refractory maternal hypertension
Answer: d
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: d
a. Increased risk of PPROM and PTL in pregnant women and higher post
hysterectomy cuff infection
b. Less than 10% of men contract the disease after a single exposure to an
infected woman
c. T. vaginalis infection is associated with a two to three fold increased risk for
HIV acquisition
d. Clue cells and Whiff test may be positive in TV
Answer: b
Answer: c
Answer: a
a. The ulcer of syphilis has irregular margins and is deep with undermined
edges
b. The chancroid ulcer has a smooth, indurated border and a smooth base
c. The genital herpes ulcer is often multiple, sub-epidermal and inflamed
d. If inguinal buboes with no ulcer is present, the most likely diagnosis is LGV
Answer: d
Answer: d
a. Approximately 85% of women with endometriosis and pelvic pain who are
treated with GnRH agonists experience relief of their pain
b. Dienogest is effective in improving endometriosis-associated pain and may
even help overcome progesterone resistance by increasing the number of
progesterone receptors
c. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives is cytoreductive and halts progression of
endometriosis in upto 90% of affected women when taken continuously
d. The levonorgestrel-releasing intrauterine device is of value in women with
deep infiltrating rectovaginal endometriosis in reducing pain and
dysmenorrhea recurrence following surgical therapy
Answer: c
a. the overall risk of recurrence is approximately 10% for women with one
previous ectopic pregnancy and at least 25% for women having two or more
b. estrogen-progestin contraceptives and vasectomy are associated with the
lowest absolute incidence of ectopic pregnancy (0.005 ectopic
pregnancies/1,000 women years)
c. if pregnancy does occur with an IUD in situ, the risk for ectopic pregnancy
is as high as 80%
d. approximately one-third of all pregnancies resulting from sterilization
failure are ectopic
Answer: c
13. Medical Management of Ectopic pregancy-Find INCORRECT
statement
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: d
17. All the following are indications for fetal ECHO EXCEPT
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: c
a. Pudendal nerve
b. Superior gluteal artery
c. Inferior gluteal artery
d. Internal pudendal vessels
Answer: b
22. All the following statements about ureteric injury are TRUE
EXCEPT
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: b
a. 10% of all ovarian serous tumors are of borderline type and 50% occur
before the age of 40 years
b. Up to 40% of serous borderline tumors are associated with spread beyond
the ovary
c. Up to 10% of women with ovarian serous borderline tumors and
extraovarian implants may have invasive implants
d. Borderline serous tumors may harbor foci of stromal microinvasion and if
so, should be managed as aggressive serous carcinomas
Answer: d
a. Type B
b. Type C1
c. Type C2
d. Type D2
Answer: b
a. In patients with stage IA dysgerminoma, unilateral oophorectomy alone
results in a 5-year disease-free survival rate of greater than 95%
b. Patients with stage IA, grade 1 immature teratoma need 4 cycles of BEP
adjuvant therapy after surgery
c. All patients with Endodermal Stromal Tumours (EST) should be treated
with chemotherapy shortly after recovering from surgery ovarian dysfunction
of failure
d. Transient ovarian failure is common with platinum-based chemotherapy
for germ cell tumours and majority will have successful childbearing in the
future
Answer: b
Answer: d
a. bile acids are cleared incompletely and accumulate in plasma but the cause
is unclear
b. pruritus shows predilection for the soles and may precede laboratory
findings by several weeks
c. total plasma concentrations of bilirubin exceed 8 mg/dL and serum
transaminases exceed 500 in 30% patients
d. ursodeoxycholic acid relieves pruritus and improves fetal outcome better
than steroids and cholestyramine
Answer: c
36. All the statements about sickle cell anaemia in pregnancy are
TRUE EXCEPT
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: c
39. All the statements about thyroid in pregnancy are TRUE
EXCEPT
a. Women with TPO antibodies are at increased risk for progression of thyroid
disease and postpartum thyroiditis
b. It is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for 1 month after
radioablative therapy with iodine 131
c. Pregnancy is associated with an increased thyroxine requirement in
approximately a third of supplemented women
d. Prophylthiouracil (PTU) is preferred in pregnancy because it partially
inhibits the conversion of T4 to T3 and crosses the placenta less readily than
methimazole
Answer: b
40. All the statements about SLE in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: c
a. Young age
b. Higher BMI
c. Higher AMH and AFC
d. Higher serum Oestradiol
Answer: b
Answer: a
46. All are TRUE regarding cell free fetal DNA EXCEPT
Answer: b
Answer: b
a. 300 mcg dose is given for each 15 mL of fetal red cells or 30 mL of fetal
whole blood to be neutralized
b. Anti-D immune globulin may produce a weakly positive-1 : 1 to 1 : 4-
indirect coombs titer in the mother
c. Routine postpartum administration of anti-D immune globulin to at-risk
pregnancies within 72 hours of delivery lowers the alloimmunization rate by
50 percent
d. Antepartum anti-D immune globulin at 28 weeks’ gestation reduces the
third-trimester alloimmunization rate from approximately 2 percent to 0.1
percent
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: a
a. BMI greater than 35 or weight greater than 100 kg, should receive 2 g of
cefazolin as preoperative antibiotic prophylaxis
b. In as many as 50% of postoperative patients, Febrile morbidity in first 48
hours is noninfectious and does not need antibiotics
c. Even a single dose of perioperative prophylactic antibiotic decreases the
incidence of postoperative urinary tract infection from 40% to as low as 4%
d. Incidence of wound infections could be decreased by hexachlorophene
showers before surgery and shaving of the woundsite just prior to incision
Answer: d
Answer: d
a. To avoid injury to the deep inferior epigastric vessels, the lateral trocar
should be placed 3 to 4 cm medial to the medial umbilical ligament
b. Transillumination of the abdominal wall from within permits the
identification of the deep inferior epigastric vessels in most thin women
c. The amount of gas transmitted into the peritoneal cavity should depend on
the measured intraperitoneal pressure, not the volume of gas inflated
d. Hasson’s open entry method is better than the closed method in preventing
organ injury
Answer: c
a. Data are insufficient regarding fasting times for clear liquids and the risk of
pulmonary aspiration during labor
b. Modest amounts of clear liquids can be allowed in uncomplicated laboring
women
c. Obvious solid foods are best avoided
d. A fasting period of 6 to 8 hours for solid food is recommended for
uncomplicated parturients prior to undergoing Category I, II and III
Caesarean sections
Answer: d
Answer: d
a. Oligohydramnios
b. Antepartum hemorrhage
c. Any contraindication to labour
d. Multiple gestation
Answer: a
baby ?
a. Scanzoni maneuver
b. Pajot’s maneuver
c. Prague maneuver
d. Kristellar maneuver
Answer: c
a. Brow presentation
b. Fetal bleeding disorder or demineralization disorder
c. Previous fetal scalp sampling
d. Less than 34 weeks of gestation
Answer: c
Answer: c
a. It now appears that both testis and ovary differentiation require dominantly
acting genes
b. SRY activation of SOX 9 may be all that is necessary to activate other genes
important to testis development
c. WNT4 and R-Spondin 1(RSPO1) genes team to promote ovary development
via repression of SOX9
d. Ovarian differentiation is considered the “default” pathway of
sexdetermination the automatic result in the absence of a testis-determining
factor
Answer: d
Answer: d
a. An females, the classic forms of CAH (with and without salt wasting) are
characterized by genital ambiguity and is most commonly due to 21-
hydroxylase deficiency
b. Two-thirds of patients with 11β-hydroxylase deficiency exhibit hypotension
and hypokalemia
c. Females with the non-classical “late-onset” form of 21-hydroxlyased
deficiency have normal external genitalia and present later, during early
adolescence with precocious puberty or other signs of hyperandrogenism such
as hirsutism
d. Diagnosis of 21-hydroxylase deficiency is based on a high serum
concentration of 17-OH Progesterone
Answer: b
Answer: a
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: a
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: a
72. The sensitivity of cervical cytology testing by Pap Smear for the
detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranges from
a. 60 to 95%
b. 47% to 62%
c. 20-30%
d. 10-15%
Answer: b
Answer: c
Answer: c
a. The registered medical practitioner shall submit the report on the condition
of the child within 48 hrs to the SJPU or local police
b. Provide prophylaxis for identified STD including prophylaxis for HIV and
emergency contraception
c. Shall request for legal or magisterial requisition or other documentation
prior to rendering such care
d. Options 1) and 3)
Answer: d
Answer: d
Answer: d
78. All the following are methods to decrease OHSS EXCEPT
a. HCG trigger
b. GnRH antagonists
c. Invitro oocyte maturation
d. Cabergoline
Answer: a
Answer: d
a. Myometrial invasion
b. Peritoneal cytology
c. Tumor size
d. Lymph node metastasis
Answer: b
Answer: b
Answer: d
Answer: c
Answer: c
Answer: b
a. The most important mechanism of action with internal iliac artery ligation
is an 85-percent reduction in pulse pressure in those arteries distal to the
ligation
b. ROTEM or TEG cannot diagnose coagulopathies stemming from platelet
dysfunction or anti platelet drugs
c. Each single-donor apheresis six-unit bag raises the platelet count by
approximately 5000/L
d. Dilutional coagulopathy that is clinically indistinguishable from DIC is the
most frequent coagulation defect found with blood loss and multiple
transfusions
Answer: c
88. All are TRUE about USS features of Placenta Accreta Spectrum
(PAS) EXCEPT
Answer: c
a. 24%
b. 54%
c. 81%
d. 93%
Answer: a
Answer: c
Answer: d
Answer: b
Answer: b
95. All the following statements about fetal lung surfactant are
TRUE EXCEPT
Answer: c
a. menstrual cycles are relatively unchanged, the serum levels of FSH are low,
AMH and inhibin B are low
b. menstrual cycles become shorter, FSH increases, while AMH, AFC and
inhibin B declines
c. periods of amenorrhea lasting greater than or equal to 60 days, FSH level in
menopausal range, vasomotor symptoms such as hot flushes
d. undetectable AMH, Inhibin and occasional antral follicle
Answer: b
Answer: a
a. Copper IUD can be used anytime during the preovulatory phase of the
menstrual cycle and upto 8 days after ovulation
b. Ulipristal acetate is slightly more effective than the single 1.5-mg dose of
levonorgestrel when used within 120 hours
c. Mifepristone prevents about 80-85% of expected pregnancies and has the
same efficacy and side effects as levonorgestrel method
d. Treatment with Levonorgestrel acts primarily by preventing or delaying
ovulation and by preventing fertilization
Answer: a
Answer: c
Answer: d
------>>[MOST IMPORTANT]<<------
LEAVE A REPLY
Your email address will not be published. Required fields are marked *
Comment *
Name *
Email *
Website
Post Comment
Engineering 2023 , FAQs Interview Questions , Theme by Engineering|| Privacy Policy|| Terms and Conditions||
ABOUT US|| Contact US||
Engineering interview questions,Mcqs,Objective Questions,Class Lecture Notes,Seminor topics,Lab Viva Pdf PPT
Doc Book free download. Most Asked Technical Basic CIVIL | Mechanical | CSE | EEE | ECE | IT | Chemical | Medical
MBBS Jobs Online Quiz Tests for Freshers Experienced .