Operational Procedure and Radio Comunication (PPL)
Operational Procedure and Radio Comunication (PPL)
Operational Procedure and Radio Comunication (PPL)
1. When approaching to land at an airport without an operating control tower, in Class G airspace, the
pilot should:
Answer: Make all turns to the left, unless otherwise indicated
2. To operate an airplane under SPECIAL VFR (SVFR) within Class D airspace at night, which is
required?
Answer: The pilot must hold an instrument rating, and the airplane must be equipped for instrument
flight
3. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control
tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Answer: Prior to entering the airspace, a pilot must establish and maintain communication with the
ATC serving facility
4. Which is true regarding flight operations to or from a satellite airport, without an operating control
tower, within the Class C airspace area?
Answer: Aircraft must equipped with an ATC transponder
5. When operating an aircraft in the vicinity of an airport with an operating control tower, in Class E
airspace, a pilot must establish communication prior to:
Answer: NM, and up to and including 2,500 feet AGL
6. When approaching to land at an airport with an ATC facility, in Class D airspace, the pilot must
established communication prior to:
Answer: NM, up to and including 2,500 feet AGL
7. After experiencing a power plant failure at night, one of the primary considerations should include:
Answer: Planning the emergency approach and landing to an unlighted portion of an area
8. When planning a night cross-country flight, a pilot should check for the availability and status of:
Answer: Destination airport lightning system
9. For night flying operations, the best night vision is achieved when the:
Answer: Rods in the eyes have become adjusted to the darkness in approximately 30 minutes
10. A pilot is entering an area where significant clear air turbulence has been reported. Which action is
appropriate upon encountering the first ripple?
Answer: Adjust airspeed to that recommended for rough air
11. Which is the best technique for minimizing the wing-load factor when flying in severe turbulence?
Answer: Set power and trim to obtain airspeed at or below maneuvering speed, maintain wings level,
and accept variations of airspeed and altitude
12. If serve turbulence is encountered during flight, the pilot should reduce the airspeed to:
Answer: Design-maneuvering speed
14. A pilot’s most immediate and vital concern in the event of complete engine failure after becoming
airborne on takeoff is:
Answer: Maintaining a safe airspeed
15. When turbulence is encountered during the approach to a landing, what action is recommended and
for what primary reason?
Answer: Increase the airspeed slightly above normal approach speed to attain more positive control
16. Which type of approach and landing is recommended during gusty wind conditions?
Answer: A power-on approach and power-on landing
17. When taxiing with strong quartering tailwinds, which ailerons positions should be used?
Answer: Aileron down on the side from which the wind is blowing
18. Which aileron position should a pilot generally use when taxiing strong quartering headwinds?
Answer: Aileron up on the side from which the wind is blowing
20. Which wind condition would be most critical when taxiing a nose wheel equipped high wing
airplane?
Answer: Quartering tailwind
22. The greatest vortex strength occurs when the generating aircraft is?
Answer: Heavy, clean and slow
23. When departing behind a heavy aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by maneuvering the
aircraft?
Answer: Above and upwind from the heavy aircraft
24. When landing behind a large aircraft, the pilot should avoid wake turbulence by staying?
Answer: Above the large aircraft’s final approach path and landing beyond the large aircrafts
touchdown point.
25. During a night flight you observe a steady red light and a flashing red light ahead at the same
altitude. What is the general direction of movement of the aircraft?
Answer: The other aircraft is crossing to the left
26. During a night flight, you observe steady red and green lights ahead and at the same altitude. What is
the general direction of movement of the other aircraft
Answer: The other aircraft approaching head on.
27. During a night flight, you observe steady white and flashing red lights ahead and at the same altitude.
What is the general direction of movement of the other aircraft
Answer: The other aircraft is flying away from you
28. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 090: Traffic 3
O’CLOCK, 2 MILES WESTBOUND…”
Where should be the pilot look?
Answer: South
29. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot flying on a heading of 360: Traffic 10
O’CLOCK, 2 MILES SOUTHBOUND…..”
Where should be the pilot look?
Answer: Northwest
30. An ATC radar facility issues the following advisory to a pilot during a local flight: TRAFFIC 2
O’CLOCK,5 MILES, NORTHBOUND
Where should the pilot look?
Answer: Between directly ahead and 90 to the right
31. When flying under VFR which transponder code should be selected
Answer: 1200
32. A steady green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft n flight
Answer: Is clear to land
33. A flashing white light signal from the control tower to a taxiing aircraft
Answer: Return to the starting point on the airport
34. If the control tower uses light signal to direct a pilot t give way to other aircraft and continue circling
the light will be
Answer: Steady red
35. Which light signals from the control tower clears a pilot to taxi?
Answer: Flashing green
36. An alternating red and green light signal directed from the control tower to an aircraft in flight is a
signal to
Answer: Exercise, extreme caution
38. Which procedure is recommended to ensure that the emergency locator transmitter (ELT) has not
been activated?
Answer: Monitor 121.5 before engine shutdown
39. To use VHF/DF facilities for assistance in locating a aircraft position ,the aircraft must have
VHF transmitter and receiver
40. It the aircraft radios fails, what is the recommended procedure when landing at a controlled airport?
Answer: Observe the traffic flow, enter the pattern, and look for a light signal from
the tower
41. What is making routine transponder code changes, pilots should avoid inadvertent selection of which
codes?
Answer: 7500, 7600, 7700
48. If you are unable to contact a station on a designated frequency you should:
Answer: Try another appropriate frequency
50. Your reply to the message “REPORT FLIGHT CONDITIONS” should be:
Answer: VMC/IMC
52. The instruction “ORBIT” from ATC means that the aircraft should:
Answer: Carry out one 360 degree turn only
53. The full range of VHF frequencies used for communications is:
Answer: 117.95 to 135.195 MHz
55. The phrase to use when you want to say “yes” is:
Answer: AFFIRMATIVE
59. The instruction from ATC to an aircraft to abandon its take-off includes the phrase:
Answer: ABORT
64. Your action in response to the instruction from ATC to “RESET SQUAWK” is
Answer: Reselect the numbers on the control unit
67. If a flight is made from an area of low pressure into an area of high pressure without the altimeter
setting being adjusted, the altimeter will indicate
Answer: Lower than the actual altitude above sea level.
70. When planning a night cross country flight a pilot should check for the availability and the status of
Answer: Destination airport lighting system
71. Frost covering the upper surface of an airplane wing will usually will cause
Answer: The airplane to stall at an angle of attack that is lower than normal
72. Which procedure should you follow to avoid wake turbulence if a large jet crosses your course from
left to right, approximately 1mile ahead and at your altitude
Answer: Make sure you are slightly above the path of the Jet