UT - FS (G 2) 2025 - T03 (Code A) - 04 10 2023 - Compile

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Code-A

04/10/2023
(Weekday)

Corporate Office : Aakash Tower, 8, Pusa Road, New Delhi-110005,


Ph.011-47623456

MM : 300 Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A) Time : 180 Min.

Topics Covered:
Physics : Work, Energy And Power, System Of Particles And Rotational Motion
Chemistry : Thermodynamics, Equilibrium
Mathematics : Sequences And Series, Permutations And Combinations

General Instructions :

1. Duration of Test is 3 hrs.


2. The Test booklet consists of 90 questions. The maximum marks are 300.
3. There are three parts in the question paper consisting of Physics, Chemistry and Mathematics having 30
questions in each part of equal weightage. Each part has two sections.

i. Section-I : This section contains 20 multiple choice questions which have only one correct answer. Each question
carries +4 marks for correct answer and –1 mark for wrong answer.
ii. Section-II : This section contains 10 numerical value based questions. In Section-II, attempt any five questions out
of 10. The answer to each of the questions is a numerical value. Each question carries +4 marks for correct answer
and –1 mark for wrong answer.

PHYSICS

Section-I

1
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

1. The graph between kinetic energy of a 5. A spring stores 10 J of energy for a


particle and its velocity is compression of 10 cm. The additional work
(1) to be done to compress it further by 10 cm is
(1) 10 J
(2) 20 J
(3) 30 J
(4) 40 J

(2) 6. Two blocks of masses m1 and m2 are


connected by an ideal spring and kept on
smooth horizontal surface as shown. The
block of mass m1 is given velocity v0 as
shown. The speed of block of mass m2 when
compression in the spring is maximum is

(3)

(1) m1 v0

m1 +m2

(2) m2 v0

m1 +m2
(4)
(3) v0
(4) m2 v0

m1

7. Four identical rods, each of mass m and


length l, make a square frame in xy plane as
shown in the figure given below
2. →
ˆ ˆ ˆ
A force F = 5 i + 6 j – 4k acting on a body,

ˆ ˆ
produces a displacement s = 6 i + 5k .
Work done by the force is
(1) 18 units
(2) 15 units
(3) 12 units
(4) 10 units

3. If kinetic energy of rigid rotating body about


The moment of inertia of frame about z-axis
fixed axis is increased by 21%, then
passing through O is
increase in its angular momentum will be
(1) 10 ml2
(1) 12% 3

(2) 7% (2) 4
ml
2

3
(3) 11%
(3) 16
ml
2
(4) 10% 3

(4) 8
ml
2

3
4. →
ˆ ˆ
If A = (2 i + 5 j ) and
→ → →
8. Potential energy of particle as a function of x
ˆ ˆ
B = ( i − j ), then value of A ⋅ B is is given as U = –ax2 + bx4 (a, b > 0). Position
of unstable equilibrium is at x =
(1) 3 (1) 0
−−
(2) –3 (2) a

(3) 2 2b

−−
(4) –2 (3) −√
a

2b



(4) a

b

2
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

9. In the arrangement shown, the block m is 14. A 2 kg block situated on a smooth fixed
slowly pulled through a distance x. Then the incline is connected to a spring of negligible
energies stored in springs (1), (2) and (3) mass, with spring constant k = 100 Nm–1 , via
are in the ratio respectively a frictionless pulley. The block is released
from rest when the spring is unstretched.
What is its acceleration when it momentarily
comes to rest at its lowest point?

(1) 4 : 3 : 2
(2) 3 : 2 : 1
(3) 2 : 3 : 6
(4) 6 : 3 : 2

10. A uniform solid sphere of mass 2 kg rolls on


a horizontal surface without slipping. If the
velocity of center of mass is 5 m/s, then find
the work done in stopping the sphere
completely
(1) 20 J (1) 3 m/s2
(2) 25 J
(2) 6 m/s2
(3) 30 J
(3) 12 m/s2
(4) 35 J
(4) Zero
11. At any instant rate of change of potential
energy of the projectile (of mass m) is 15. A horizontal force F0 is applied on the
numerically equal to (vx and vy are uniform ring as shown. The minimum
horizontal and vertical velocities) coefficient of friction (μ) required between
(1) mgvx ring and surface so that ring rolls without
slipping is
(2) mgvy
(3) mg(vx + vy )
(4) mg 2 2
√Vx +Vy

12. In a vertical spring-mass system a block of


mass m is held at rest when there is no
extension. Now if the mass is released
suddenly, the maximum elongation in the
spring is (Spring constant is k) (1) μ = 0
(1) 2mg (2) μ = 0.1
k
(3) μ = 0.2
(2) mg

2k (4) μ = 0.3
(3) mg

(4) 3mg

2k

13. An inclined plane makes an angle of 30°


with the horizontal. A disk rolling down this
inclined plane from rest without slipping has
a linear acceleration equal to
(1) 2g
3

(2) g

(3) g

(4) g

3
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

16. A solid cylinder of mass M and radius R is 19. Two identical particles are connected by
released from rest from the position shown ideal string as shown. Complete
in the figure at time t = 0. If string unwinds arrangement is in horizontal plane. A
without slipping on cylinder, then kinetic sudden impulse J = 10 N – s is provided to
energy of cylinder at time t is particle C along BC. Speed of B just after the
impulse is

(1) 4 m/s
(1) 2 2 2
(2) 10 m/s
Mg t
3
(3) 3 m/s
(2) 1
Mg t
2 2
(4) 5 m/s
6

(3) 1
Mg t
2 2

2
20. A uniform cubical block of edge length a and
(4) 1
Mg t
2 2
mass M is kept in equilibrium by pressing it
3
towards a rough wall as shown. The torque
of normal reaction about the centre of mass
17. Rod is released from horizontal position, rod of block will be
can rotate in vertical plane about an fixed
axis passing through O as shown, what is
the hinge reaction on rod just at the moment
it was released from rest?

(1) 3mg

mg
(2) ( )
4

(3) mg
(4) Zero

18. A disc is rolling without slipping with angular (1) Zero


velocity ω. The points P and Q are two points (2) Mga
at a distance R/2 from the centre C of the (3) Mg a

disc. The ratio of speeds vP/vQ is 2

(4) 2Mga



(1) 5

2


(2) √5

(3) √3


(4) 3

2

Section-II

21. Moment of inertia of a uniform solid sphere


of mass M, radius R about any tangent to the
sphere is NMR2 , find N.

4
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

22. The angular momentum of a particle 26. A pendulum bob is given a velocity
−−

changes from 8 kg m2 s–1 to 12 kg m2 s–1 in u = √2gl horizontally when it is at its
2 seconds in same direction. The average lowest position (l is length of pendulum). The
torque acting on the particle (in Nm) is maximum tangential acceleration of the bob
will be (in m/s2 ) _______. (g = 10 m/s2 )
23. The coordinates of a triangle ABC are A(2,
4), B(6, 8) and C(–6, –2). Three particles of 27. A boy holds a 50 N weight at arm’s length for
masses 1 kg, 2 kg and m kg are placed at 10 s. This arm is 1.5 m above the ground.
the vertices of the triangle respectively. If the The work done by the boy on the weight
coordinates of the centre of mass are while he is holding it, is
2 16
(
5
,
5
), then mass m, in kg will be
28. A pump is required to lift 800 kg of water per
minute from a 10 m deep well and eject it
24. 2
A wheel of moment of inertia 0.1 kg m is with a speed of 20 ms-1 . The required power
rotating at a speed of 1200 rpm. Now it is of the pump is (in kilowatt)(Take g = 10
slowed down uniformly such that it comes to
rest after making 314 complete revolutions. m/s2 )
The magnitude of the retarding torque in
M.K.S units is _____. [Take π = 3.14] 29. The radius of curvature (in metre) of path
traced by a point situated at the edge of a
25. A ball hits a smooth wall perfectly pure rolling disc of radius R = 2 m, when the
inelastically. The velocity of the ball just after point attains the maximum height is______.
the collision is ____ m/s.
30. A block of mass 2 kg is lifted through a
chain. When block moves through 2 m
vertically, the velocity of the block becomes 4
m/s. The work done (in J) by chain force on
the block until it moves by 2 m, is ______. (g
= 10 ms–2 )

5
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

CHEMISTRY

Section-I

31. 100 mL of 0.1 M HCl is taken in a beaker 33. Consider the following reaction :
and to it 100 mL of 0.1 M NaOH is added in N2 O4 (g) ⇌ 2NO2 (g); ΔHo = + 58 kJ
steps of 2 mL and the pH is continuously For each of the following cases (a, b), the
measured. Which of the following graphs direction in which the equilibrium shifts is :
correctly depicts the change in pH? (a) Temperature is decreased
(1) (b) Pressure is increased by adding N2 at
constant T.
(1) (a) Towards product, (b) towards
reactant
(2) (a) Towards reactant, (b) no change
(3) (a) Towards reactant, (b) towards
product
(2) (4) (a) Towards product, (b) no change

34. 5.1 g NH4 SH is introduced in 3.0 L


evacuated flask at 327°C. 30% of the solid
NH4 SH decomposed to NH3 and H2 S as
gases. The Kp of the reaction at 327°C is (R
= 0.082 L atm mol–1 K–1 , Molar mass of S =
(3) 32 g mol–1 , molar mass of N = 14 g mol–1 )
(1) 4.9 × 10–3 atm2
(2) 0.242 atm2
(3) 1 × 10–4 atm2
(4) 0.242 × 10–4 atm2

(4)
35. If the equilibrium constant for A ⇌ B + C is
(1) (2)
Keq and that of B + C ⇌ P is Keq , the
equilibrium constant for A ⇌ P is
(1) K(1) / K(2)
eq eq

(2) (1)
Keq + Keq
(2)

(3) (2)
Keq − Keq
(1)

32. The colour of acidic form of an indicator is


(4) (1) (2)
red, the colour of its basic form is blue. Keq Keq

Calculate the change in its pH when the


colour of indicator change from 75% red to
25% red. [Assume indicator is HIn] 36. The pH of a 0.001 M NaOH at 25°C will be
(1) 0.75
(2) 0.85 (1) 3
(3) 1 (2) 2
(4) 0.95 (3) 11
(4) 12

6
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

37. The solubility of Ca(OH)2 in water is 42. If Ksp of Ag2 CO3 is 8 × 10–12 , the molar
[Given : The solubility product of Ca(OH)2 in solubility of Ag2 CO3 in 0.1 M AgNO3 is
water = 5.5 × 10–6 ] (1) 8 × 10–11 M
(1) 1.77 × 10–2
(2) 8 × 10–12 M
(2) 1.11 × 10–2
(3) 8 × 10–13 M
(3) 1.77 × 10–6
(4) 8 × 10–10 M
(4) 1.11 × 10–6

43. If solubility product of Zr3 (PO4 )4 is denoted


38. For the chemical reaction X ⇌ Y, the by Ksp and its molar solubility is denoted by
standard reaction Gibbs energy depends on S, then which of the following relation
temperature T (in K) as between S and Ksp is correct?
∘ 3
–1
Δr G (in KJ mol ) = 120–
8
T (1) Ksp
1

S = ( )
The major component of the reaction mixture 929

at T is (2) 1

Ksp
(1) Y if T = 280 K S = ( )
7

216
(2) X if T = 315 K
(3) 1

(3) Y if T = 300 K S = (
Ksp
)
6

144
(4) X if T = 350 K
(4) Ksp
1

S = ( )
39. During which of the following processes, 6912

does entropy decrease?


(A) Freezing of water to ice at 0°C 44. The reaction MgO(s) + C(s) → Mg(s) +
(B) Freezing of water to ice at –10°C
CO(g), for which ΔrH° = +491.1 kJ mol–1 and
(C) N2 (g) + 3H2 (g) ⇌ 2NH3 (g)
ΔrS° = 198.0 JK–1 mol–1 , is not feasible at
(D) Adsorption of CO(g) on lead surface
(E) Dissolution of NaCl in water 298 K. Temperature above which reaction
Choose the correct answer from the options will be feasible is
given below. (1) 2040.5 K
(1) (A) and (E) only (2) 1890.0 K
(2) (A), (C) and (E) only (3) 2480.3 K
(3) (A), (B), (C) and (D) only (4) 2380.5 K
(4) (B) and (C) only
45. In which one of the following equilibria, KP ≠
40. What is the molar solubility of Al(OH)3 in 0.2 KC?
M NaOH solution? Given that, solubility (1) 2HI(g) ⇌ H2 (g) + I2 (g)
product of Al(OH)3 = 2.4 × 10–24 (2) 2NO(g) ⇌ N2 (g) + O2 (g)
(1) 3 × 10–19 (3) NO2 (g) + SO2 (g) ⇌ NO(g) + SO3 (g)
(2) 12 × 10–21 (4) 2C(s) + O2 (g) ⇌ 2CO(g)
(3) 12 × 10–23
(4) 3 × 10–22 46. The enthalpy change for the process C(s) →
C(g) represents the
(1) Heat of vaporization
41. 5 moles of an ideal gas at 100 K are allowed
to undergo reversible compression till its (2) Heat of fusion
temperature becomes 200 K. If CV = 28 J K– (3) Heat of allotropic change
1 mol–1 , calculate ΔU and ΔPV for this (4) Heat of sublimation
process. (R = 8.0 J K–1 mol–1 )
(1) ΔU = 14 kJ; Δ(PV) = 18 kJ
(2) ΔU = 2.8 kJ; Δ(PV) = 0.8 kJ
(3) ΔU = 14 J; Δ(PV) = 0.8 J
(4) ΔU = 14 kJ; Δ(PV) = 4 kJ

7
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

47. Match the processes on column I with work 49. Statement I: According to first law of
done in column II. thermodynamics, whenever a quantity of
Column-I Column-II one kind of energy disappears, an
equivalent amount of energy appears in
P1
(A) Isochoric (p) w = – 2⋅303 RT log some other form.
P2
Statement II: Work done on the system is
(B) Isothermal (q) Δ w = ΔU positive.
(C) Adiabatic (r) Zero (1) Statement I is true; statement II is true;
(D) Isobaric (s) w = – PΔV statement II is a correct explanation of
statement I
(1) (A) – (s), (B) – (q), (C) – (p), (D) – (r)
(2) Statement I is true, statement II is true,
(2) (A) – (r), (B) – (p), (C) – (q), (D) – (s) statement II is NOT a correct
(3) (A) – (p), (B) – (r), (C) – (s), (D) – (q) explanation for statement I
(4) (A) – (s), (B) – (r), (C) – (p), (D) – (q) (3) Statement I is true, statement II is false
(4) Statement I is false, statement II is true
48. Match the equilibrium constant in column I
with the reaction direction in column II. 50. Statement I: Pressure is intensive property.
Column-I Column-II Statement II: Pressure is independent of
amount of substance.
(A) Q = K (p) Backward direction (1) Statement I is true; statement II is true;
(B) Q > K (q) Forward direction statement II is a correct explanation of
statement I
(C) Q < K (r) Equilibrium (2) Statement I is true, statement II is true,
statement II is NOT a correct
(1) (A) – (p), (B) – (q), (C) – (r)
explanation for statement I
(2) (A) – (r), (B) – (q), (C) – (p)
(3) Statement I is true, statement II is false
(3) (A) – (r), (B) – (p), (C) – (q)
(4) Statement I is false, statement II is true
(4) (A) – (p), (B) – (r), (C) – (q)

Section-II

51. A homogeneous ideal gaseous reaction 55. The pH value of 0.05 M Ca(OH)2 solution at
AB2(g) ⇌ A(g) + 2 B(g) is carried out in a 25 25°C will be [Assume calcium hydroxide
litre flask at 27°C. The initial amount of AB2 completely ionises in water into
was 1 mole and the equilibrium pressure Ca2+ and OH– ]
was 1.9 atm. The value of Kp is x × 10–2 . The
value of x is _________. (Integer answer) 56. If the standard molar enthalpy change for
[R = 0.08206 dm3 atm K–1 mol–1 ] combustion of graphite powder is – 2.48 ×
102 kJ mol–1 , the amount of heat generated
52. Value of Kp for the equilibrium reaction on combustion of 1 g of graphite powder is x
x

N2 O4(g) ⇌ 2 NO2(g) at 288 K is 47.9. The kJ. Write 10 in nearest integer.


KC for this reaction at same temperature is
––––––. (Nearest integer) (R = 0.083 L bar 57. For a given chemical reaction A → B at 300
K–1 mol–1 ) K the free energy change is –49.4 kJ mol–1
and the enthalpy of reaction is 51.4 kJ mol–
1 . The entropy change of the reaction is x J
53. A solid compound (NH2 CONH4 ) dissociate
K–1 mol–1 . Write 10 to nearest integer.
x
in a container and equilibrium is achieved
as
NH2 CONH4 (s) ⇌ 2 NH3 (g) + CO(g)
58. What is the pH of a buffer solution at 25°C
If initially only NH2 CONH4 (s) is present and containing 0.10 mole of NH4 OH and 0.20
at equilibrium total pressure is 6 atm, then mol of NH4 Cl? (Kb for NH4 OH is 2 × 10–5
the equilibrium constant (Kp ) of the above
and log(2) = 0.3)
reaction is

54. During compression of a spring the work


done is 10 kJ and 2 kJ escaped to the
surroundings as heat. The change in
internal energy, ΔU (in kJ) is

8
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

59. 50 ml of a basic solution containing 2 g of


NaOH, 2.1 g of Na2 CO3 and 2 g of NaHCO3
is titrated with standard HCl (1 N) in
presence of only phenolphthalein as
indicator, from the very beginning then
volume of HCl (in mL) used till end point will
be nearly _____. (Report your answer in the
nearest whole number)

60. 10 mL solution of 0.1 M weak acid (HA) is


titrated with 0.1 M of a NaOH. The variation
of pH of the solution with the volume of base
added is obtained as below. (Take log(2) =
0.3, log(3) = 0.47) (at 25°C)

Find the value of (y – x).

9
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

MATHEMATICS

Section-I

61. The value of 9 P3 + 3.9 P2 is equal to 66. Which of the following sequence {f(n)} is an
arithmetic sequence?
(1) 9P
4 (1) f(n) = an + b; n ∈ N
(2) 10 P4
(2) n
f(n) = k r ; n ∈ N
(3) 10 P3
(3) f(n) = (an + b) k r ; n ∈ N
n

(4) 9 P
3 (4) 1
f(n) = ; n ∈ N
b
a(n+ )
n

62. If 6th term of an A.P. is 53 then the sum of 11


terms from the beginning, is 67. The value of x satisfying
(1) 385 log x + log x + log 3 x + ......... log a x
a √a √a √a
(2) 583 a+1
=
(3) 835 2

(4) 853 (a∈N, x>0) will be


(1) x = a
(2) x = aa
63. If
1
+
1
+
1
+ ........ to ∞=
π
4

then
4
1 2
4 4
3 90 (3) x = a–1/a
1 1 1

4
+
4
+
4
+ ........ to ∞ is equal to (4) x = a1/a
1 3 5

(1) π
4

96

(2) π
4 68. If S is the sum to infinity of a geometric
45
progression, whose first term is a, then the
(3) 89 π
4 sum of the first n terms is
n
90
(1) a
S(1 − )
S
(4) π
4

n
90 (2) a
S [1 − (1 − ) ]
S

n
64. The sum of theinfinite series (3) a
a [1 − (1 − ) ]
4 7 10
+ … … ∞ terms is
S
1+ + +
2 3
7 7 7 a
(4)
(1) 3 1−S

(2) 7

4 69. In a touring cricket team there are 16 players


(3) 3 in all including 5 bowlers and 2 wicket-
4 keepers. How many teams of 11 players
(4) 7 from these, can be chosen, so as to include
8
exactly three bowlers and exactly one
wicket-keeper
65. Number of ways of selection of 3 balls out of (1) 650
7 yellow distinct balls and 5 green distinct (2) 720
balls if atleast one green ball is there in each
(3) 750
selection, is
(1) 135 (4) 800
(2) 185
(3) 195 70. x y z
If a = b = c and a, b, c are in geometric
(4) 215 progression then x, y, z are in
(1) Arithmetic progression
(2) Geometric progression
(3) Harmonic progression
(4) Neither arithmetic, geometric or
harmonic progression

10
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

71. Geometric mean of the numbers 5, 52 , 53 76. Let b i > 1 for i = 1, 2, ..., 101. Suppose
,...., 5n is log
e
b1 , log b2 , ... , log b101
e e
are in
(1) n+1
Arithmetic Progression (A.P.) with the
5 2
common difference loge 2. Suppose a1 , a2 ,
(2) n−1
..., a101 are in A.P. such that a1 = b1 and a51
5 2

= b51 . If t = b1 + b2 + ... + b51 and s = a1 + a2


(3) 2
5+5 +5 +...+5
3 n

n
+ ... + a51 , then
(4)
n
(1) s > t and a101 > b101
5 2

(2) s > t and a101 < b101

72. Total number of points of intersection of 10 (3) s < t and a101 > b101
lines, when no two of them are parallel and (4) s < t and a101 < b101
no three lines are concurrent is
(1) 45
(2) 55
77. If n P5 = 20 n P3 , then n is equal to
(3) 60 (1) 6
(4) 78 (2) 7
(3) 8
73. A box contain 3 white, 4 black and 2 red (4) 9
balls. The number of ways of drawing 3 balls
from the box, if atleast one black ball is 78. If log(a + c) + log(a – 2b + c) = 2log(a – c),
included is then a, b, c are in
(1) 74 (1) Arithmetic Progression
(2) 62 (2) Geometric Progression
(3) 66 (3) Harmonic Progression
(4) 54 (4) Neither arithmetic, geometric or
harmonic progression
74. The number of positive divisors of the
number N = 18000 is equal to 79. n i j
∑ ∑ ∑ 1 is equal to
(1) 20 i=1 j=1 k=1

(1) n(n+1)
(2) 30
2

(3) 60 (2) n(n+1)(n+2)

(4) 65 6

(3) n(n+1)(2n+1)

6
75. Number of ways to arrange 8 boys along a
(4) 2
row so that 3 particular boys are always (
n(n+1)
)
together, is 2

(1) 2160
(2) 720 80. The total number of 4 digit numbers formed
(3) 4430 with 0, 2, 4, 6 and 8, where no digit is
repeated in a number is
(4) 4320
(1) 96
(2) 121
(3) 130
(4) 156

Section-II

81. If m arithmetic means (A.Ms) and three 83. If 2x, x + 8, 3x + 1 are in arithmetic
geometric means (G.Ms) are inserted progression, then the value of x will be
between 3 and 243 such that 4th A.M. is
equal to 2nd G.M., then m is equal to 84. Sum of 5 terms of S = 1 + 2 + 22 + 23 + … is
_________ .
85. Three numbers are in arithmetic progression
82. The sum of 100-terms of series –1 + 2 – 3 + 1
with common difference equal to 2 . If sum of
4 – 5 + … is
the numbers is 6, then their product is

11
Unit Test for First Step (Group-2)-2025_T03 (Code-A)

86. If sum of first n terms of an arithmetic 88. How many triangles can be drawn by joining
progression is 3n2 + 5n and the mth term is three points as vertices out of 9 points out of
164, then m is equal to which no three points are collinear?

87. Let the product of all the divisors of 1440 is 89. If


1
+
1
=
x
, then the value of
x
is
9! 10! 11! 11

x. If x is divisible by 24y, then maximum


value of y is
90. Number of even divisors of N = 1800 is

12

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