FUTMINNA POST UTME

PAST QUESTIONS
Contents
BIOLOGY ....................................................................................................................................................... 2
ANSWERS .................................................................................................................................................. 5
chemistry ...................................................................................................................................................... 6
ANSWERS ................................................................................................................................................ 11
ECONOMICS ................................................................................................................................................ 12
ANSWERS TO ECONOMICS...................................................................................................................... 15
ENGLISH ...................................................................................................................................................... 16
ANSWERS ................................................................................................................................................ 21
GEOGRAPHY ............................................................................................................................................... 22
ANSWERS TO GEOGRAPHY ..................................................................................................................... 25
MATHEMATICS ........................................................................................................................................... 26
ANSWERS ................................................................................................................................................ 30
PHYSICS ....................................................................................................................................................... 31
ANSWERS ................................................................................................................................................ 36
BIOLOGY
(1) Which of the following pairs are the products of sucrose hydrosis?

(a) Glucose + glucose (b) Fructose + fructose (c) Glucose + fructose (d) Galactose + glucose (e) Fructose +
galactose

(2) When freshly tapped palm wine was kept overnight it was found to be more alcoholic. This effect
must have been due to (a) the addition of saccharin (b) the addition of sugar (c) the addition of whisky
or local gin (d) anaerobic respiration of on organism (3) Which of the following is NOT an function of
mammalian blood

(a) engulfing bacteria (b) production of hormones (c) transporting urea (d) distribution of heat (e)
transporting glucose .(4) If an organic compound has its Hydrogen: Oxygen ratio 2: lit is likely to be (a) a
protein (b) a carbohydrate (c) a fat (d) a fatty and glycerol (e) an amino acid

(5) In the onion bulb, food is stored in the (a) stem (b) lateral buds (c) cotyledons (d)leaf bases

(6) Which of the following invertebrates does NOT possess antennae? (a) centipede (b) crustacean (c)
millipede (d) spider

(7) The removal of mans pancreas by surgical operation can affect only the digestion of (a) starch (b)
starch, protein and fats (c) oils and fats (d)carbohydrates and fats

(8) Which of the following diseases could be exclusively associated with a river basin? (a) malaria (b)
syphilis (c) onchocereiasis (d) cholera (e) poliomyelitis

(9) The function of the ossicles (maleus, incus and stapes) in the mammalian ear is the (a) transmission
of vibrations (b) regulation of pressure (c) support of the inner ear (d) Maintenance of balance during
motion (e) secretion of oil

(10) Which of these worms is beneficial to man? (a) Hookworm (b) tapeworm (c) roundworm (d)
earthworm (e) Guinea worm

(11) The following are connected with the movement of a reflex action (1) Central nervous system(2)
muscle (3) skin (4) sensory nerve (5)motor nerve.. Which of the following sequences indicates a correct
path?

(a) 1-2-3-4-5 (b) 2-1-4-5-3 (c) 3-4-1-2-5 (d) 3-4-1-5-2

(12) A person whose blood can be donated to all other people, must have the blood group (a) 0 (b) AB
(c) B (d) A (e) None of the above

(13) The deficiency of vitamin D leads to (a) scurvy (b) pellagra (c)rickets (d)beriberi(e) polio

(14) If a tall man (TT) marries a dwarf woman (gg) and they have four male children, the offspring will be
(a) all short (b) three short and one tall (c) two short and two tall (d) one short and three tall (e) all tall

(15) Soil is said to be fertile if (a) it is block (b) it can supply usable nutrients to plants (C) the oxygen
content is very high (d) artificial manure is added to it (e) it is not water-logged
(16) Which of the following structures is common to euglena, white blood cell and amoeba? (a) vacuole
(b) cell wall (c) cilia (d) cell membrane

(17) The following organisms are hermaphrodites EXCEPT (a) snail (b) taenia (c) schistosoma (d)
earthworm

(18) The main waste products formed in plants ore (a) alkaloids, tannis and resins (b) water, alkaloids
and carbon dioxide (c) oxygen, carbon-dioxide and alkaloids (d) water, carbondioxjde and oxygen

(19) vegetative propagation, which of the following requires part of another plant to develop? (a) scion
(b) bulb (c) rhizome (d) sucker

(20) If a dark-skinned woman (Sb) marries on albino man (bb) and they have four children, how many of
the children will be dark-skinned? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0

(21) Most commercial fertilizers are rich in salts of (a) sodium, iron and calcium (b) nitrogen, phosphorus
and potassium (c) iron, copper and nitrogen (d) calcium, sodium and phosphorus

(22) There will be agglutination when the (a) group A serum mixes with group A erythrocytes (b) group A
serum mixes with group B erythrocytes (c) group AS serum mixes with group 0 erythrocytes (d)group b
serum mixes with group S erythrocytes

(23) Which of the following is the function of lymph? (a) carries hormones round the body (b) transport
nutrients and oxygen from the blood capillaries to the cells (c) distributes heat uniformly round the body
(d) conveys amino acids and glucose from the small intestine to the liver

(24) Which of the following diseases can be caused by a bacterium?

ringworm (b) poliomyelitis (c) malaria (d) syphilis

(25) 5g of oven dried soil was heated in a furnace for 24 hours. After cooling, it weighed 4.8g. What is
the amount of humus in the soil? (a) 40.009 per 100g dry soil (b) 4.4g per 100g dry soil (c) 4.09 per 100g
dry soil (d) 0.4g per 100g dry soil

(26) Theory of natural selection was proposed by_______. (A) Charles Darwin (B) Hugo de Vries (C)
Gregor Johann Mendel (D) Jean Baptiste Lamarck

(27) Somatic gene therapy_______. (A) affects sperm (B) affects egg (C) affects progeny (D) affects body
cell

(28) The paternal and maternal genetic material which influences the traits is_____. (A) RNA (B) m-RNA
(C) DNA (D) t-RNA

(29) Which of the following is inheritable? (A) An altered gene in sperm (B) An altered gene in testes (C)
An altered gene in Zygote (D) An altered gene in udder cell

(30) The first ever scientific experimental study on heredity was worked out between the years
________. (A) 1801 - 1807 (B) 1812 - 1842 (C) 1838 – 1871 (D) 1822 – 1884
(31) The first experiment of Mendel considering the inheritance of a single trait is called________. (A)
Hybrid cross (B) Monohybrid cross (C) Polyhybrid cross (D) Dihybrid cross

(32) _______ is called as ‘Father of Genetics’. (A) Charles Darwin (B) Hugo de Vries (C) Gregor Johann
Mendel (D) Jean Baptiste Lamarck

(33) In vegetative propagation, which of the following requires part of another plant to develop? (a)
scion (b) bulb (c) rhizome (d) sucker

(34) If a dark-skinned woman (Sb) marries on albino man (bb) and they have four children, how many of
the children will be dark-skinned? (a) 3 (b) 2 (c) 1 (d) 0

(35) Most commercial fertilizers are rich in salts of (A) sodium, iron and calcium (b) nitrogen, phosphorus
and potassium (c) iron, copper and nitrogen (d) calcium, sodium and phosphorus

(36) There will be agglutination when the (a) group A serum mixes with group A erythrocytes (b) group A
serum mixes with group B erythrocytes (c) group AS serum mixes with group O erythrocytes (d)group b
serum mixes with group S erythrocytes

(37) The meat eaters who existed 1.5 million years ago were called ______. (A) Homo habilis (B)
Hominids (C) Homo erectus (D) Homo sapiens

(38) The term vaccine was coined by______. (A) Dr. Ian Wilmut (B) Edward Jenner (C) Charles Darwin
(D) Alexander Flemming

(39) Soil is said to be fertile if (a) it is block (b) it can supply usable nutrients to plants (C) the oxygen
content is very high (d) artificial manure is added to it (e) it is not water-logged

(40) Which of the following structures is common to euglena, white blood cell and amoeba? (a) vacuole
(b) cell wall (c) cilia (d) cell membrane

(41) The following organisms are hermaphrodites EXCEPT (A) snail (b) taenia (c) schistosoma (d)
earthworm

(42) The main waste products formed in plants are (A) alkaloids, tannis and resins (B) water, alkaloids
and carbon dioxide (C) oxygen, carbon-dioxide and alkaloids (D) water, carbondioxjde and oxygen

(43) Which of the following is the function of lymph? (A) carries hormones round the body (B) transport
nutrients and oxygen from the blood capillaries to the cells (C) distributes heat uniformly round the
body (D) conveys amino acids and glucose from the small intestine to the liver

(44) Which of the following diseases can be caused by a bacterium? (A) ringworm (b) poliomyelitis (c)
malaria (d) syphilis

(45) 5g of oven dried soil was heated in a furnace for 24 hours. After cooling, it weighed 4.8g. What is
the amount of humus in the soil? (a) 40.009 per 100g dry soil (b) 4.4g per 100g dry soil (c) 4.09 per 100g
dry soil (d) 0.4g per 100g dry soil

(46) Antibiotics are chemical substances derived from microbes like_____. (A) Fungi, Algae (B) Fungi,
Bacteria (C) Fungi, Virus (D) Bacteria, Algae
ANSWERS
1.C, 2.E, 3.B, 4.B, 5.E, 6.E, 7.E, 8.D, 9.A, 10.D, 11.E, 12.A, 13.C, 14.E, 15.B, 16.D, 17.A, 18.A, 19.C, 20.B,
21.B, 22.D, 23.B, 24.D, 25.A, 26.A, 27.D, 28.C, 29.C, 30.D, 31.B, 32.C, 33.C, 34.B, 35.B, 36.D, 37.C, 38.B,
39.B, 40.D, 41.A, 42.A, 43.B, 44.D, 45.A, 46.B
chemistry
(1) Radon is used as a tracer in medical research because it is (A) monatomic (B) is radioactive (C) is a
noble gas (D) has a complete valence shell (E) has a low boiling point

(2) An orange drink concentrate is suspected to contain traces of poisonous green dye and a harmless
dye having the same boiling point. Which of the following techniques is most suitable for isolation of the
dyes? (A) Fractional distillation (B) Paper chromatography (C) Coagulation (D) Recrystallization

(3) Which of the following pairs illustrates isotopy? (A) But -1 -one and but -2-ene (B) Orth-hydrogen (C)
Oxygen and Ozone (D) Hydrogen and deuterium (E) Alpha particle and beta- particle.

(4) A reducing agent is expected to:

(A) Decolorize acidified KMnO4 solution (B) decolorize acidified FeSO4 solution (C) liberate Cl2 from a
chloride (D) liberate CO2 from NaHCO3

(5) The component of air that is removed when air is bubbled into alkaline pyrogallol solution is (A)
Carbon (IV) Oxide (B) Oxygen (C) Water vapour (D) Nitrogen (E) Helium

(6) Pipe borne water is usually chlorinated in order to: (A) Improve the taste of the water (B) Remove
the hardness of the water (C) Coagulate sediments in the water (D) Kill harmful bacteria in the water (E)
make the water clear and colourless

(7) The following statements about graphite are correct except that (A) it Is used as a lubricant (B) has a
network (C) Contains mobile free electrons (D) is a good conductor (E) Coal tar

(8) The following can be obtained directly from the destructive distillation coal except (A) Ammoniacal
liquor (B) Coke (C) Producer gas (D) Coal gas (E) Coal tar

(9) If 20 cm-3 of distilled water is added to 80cm-3 of 0.50 mol dm3 hydrochloric acid, the concentration
of the acid will change to (A) 0.20 mol dm-3 (B) 0.40 mol dm-3 © 2.00 mol dm-3 (D) 5.00 mol dm-3

(10) The Phenomenon observed when dust particles collide randomly in a beam of sunlight is known as;
(A) Tyndal effect (B) diffusion (C) osmosis (D) Brownian movement (E) dialysis

(11) Which of the following separation is routinely applied in the petroleum industry? (A) Filtration (B)
chromatography (C) evaporation (D) Fractional crystallization (E) fractional distillation

(12) Consider the reaction represented by the equation below: OX + YO=X +Y02 in the reaction, YO acts
as (A) an acidic oxide (B) a basic oxide (C) a reducing agent (D) a weak base (E) an oxidizing agent

(13) Which of the following is used as water softener? (A) Na2CO3.10H20 (B) CuSO4 .5H20 (C) MgSO4.
7H20 (D) CaCl2.2H20 (E) Na2SO4 10H20

(14) Consider the reaction represented by the following equation: CaCl(aq) + H2C204(aq) Which of the
following would dissolve the precipitate of CaC2O? (A) Stirring the mixture vigorously (B) adding more
calcium chloride solution (C) increasing the concentration of the ethanedioic acid (D) adding
concentrated hydrochloric acid (E) adding some distilled water

(15) Biotechnology is applied in the following except. (A) Baking industry (B) Wine production (C) non-
biodegradable (D) Manufacture soap
(16) The spontaneity of a chemical reaction is determined by the change in t h e (A) concentration of the
reactants (B) temperature of the system ‘4ree energy of the system (D)volume of the reactants

(17) Which of the following statements about an exothermic reaction is correct? (A) The products have
less heat content than the reactants (B) Temperature of the system (C)The activation energy is high (D)
The enthalpy change is positive.

(18) Which of the following, on burning in air, contributes to acid rain? (A) Sulphur (B) Magnesium (D)
Aluminum (D) Zinc

(19) Which of the following compounds is not decomposed by heat? (A) Sodium trioxocarbonate (IV) (B)
Ammonium trioxoccirboncite (IV) (C) Sodium hydrogentrioxocarbonate (IV) (D) Calcium trioxocarbonate
(IV) (E) Calcium hydrogentrioxocarboncite (IV)

(20) The reaction between alkanoic acids and alkanols in the presence of a mineral acid is known as

(A) Saponification (B) hydrolysis (C) Polymerization (D)Esterification (E) dehydration

(21) A given volume of methane diffuses in 20 seconds. How long will it take the same volume of sulphur
(IV) oxide to diffuse under the same conditions? (CH4 16;SO2= 64) (A) 5 sec (B) 20sec (C) 40sec (D)
6OSec (E) 80sec

(22) Trixosulphate (IV) acid is not stored for a long period because it

(A) is a weak dibasic acid (B) has beaching properties is unstable and easily decomposed (D) smells
strongly of sulphur (IV) oxide (E) can act as a germicide

(23) Which of the following gases is colourless, odourless and soluble in potassium hydroxide solution?
(A) No2 (B) SO2 ,(C) H2 (D) CO2

(24) Petrol can be obtain from diesel by a. distillation b. cracking c. catalysis d. polymerization e.
dehydrogenation

(25) The following metals are extracted by the electrolytic method except a. potassium b. calcium c.
sodium d. tin e. magnesium

(26) To what temperature must a gas be raised from 273K in order to double both its volume and
pressure? a. 298K b. 300K c. 546K d. 810K e. 1092K

(27) When air is passed through a heated tube containing finely divided copper, the component that is
absorbed in the process is a. carbon (iv) oxide b. Nitrogen c. Oxygen d. Water vapour e. Noble gases

(28) CH2CH2 +H2SO4→ CH2 CH2 OSO3H. The reaction illustrated by the equation above is an
example of a. substitution b. oxidation c. reduction d. addition e. displacement

(29) Water from a river contaminated by alkali waster will have a pH of about a. 1 b. 3 c. 6 d. 7 e. 9

(30) Compounds that have the same molecular formular but different structures are said to be a.
allotropic b. polymorphic c. polymeric d. isomeric e. isotopic

(31) Which of the following compounds is not a raw material for the manufacture of plastics
a. Ethyne b. ethane c. monochloroethene d. propene e. butadiene

(32) The energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an atom in the gaseous state
is known as the a. bond energy b. ionization energy c. potential energy d. activation energy e.
kinetic energy

(33) Vulcanization of rubber _____ a. stops the growth of fungus on the rubber b. increase the
solubility of the rubber c. decreases the elasticity of the rubber d. hardens the rubber through cross-
linkage e. removes sulphur from the rubber

(34) Which of the following compounds of tin is a strong reducing agent? a. SnCl2 b. SnCl4 c. SnO2 d.
SnH4 e. Sn(OH)2

(35) Example of polymers include the following except a. starch b. nylon c. wool d. Perspex e. glass

(36) The component of air that is removed when air is bubbled into alkaline pyrogallol solution is__ a.
carbon(iv) oxide b. oxygen c. water vapour d. nitrogen e. Helium

(37) Which of the following substances is peroxide? a. Na2 O2 b. CuO c. Pb3 O4 d. Fe2 O3 e. Al2 O3

(38) Which of the following is not a halogen? a. silicon b. fluoride c. astatine d. bromine e. iodine

(39) The following compounds contain the same type of bonds except a. sodium chloride b. hydrogen
chloride c. magnesium chloride d. potassium chloride e. lithium chloride

(40) A positive brown ring test indicates the presence of____

a. NO3 b. Fe3+ c. HCl d. H3 O+ e.HNO3

(41) The gas produced when a mixture of sodium propanoate and soda lime is heated in____

a. methane b. pentane c. ethane d. butane e. ethyne

(42) The existence of two or more forms of the same element in the same physical state is known as (a).
allotropy (b). resonance (c). hybridization (d). isotopy (e). isomerism

(43) If 11g of a gas occupies 5.6 dm3 at S.T.P. calculate its vapour density.(1.0mole of a gas occupies
22.4dm3 at S.T.P) (a) /22 (b) 4 (c) 66 (d)33

(44) Which of the following quantities is the same for one mole of Br2(l) and one mole of He(g)

(a) Number of molecules (b) Number of atoms (c) Total mass of the particles (d) Volume occupies at
s.t.p.

(45) If 100cm3 of hydrogen diffuse through a porous pot in 1 .0 second, how long will it take the same
volume of oxygen to diffuse through the same pot under the same condition? (H= 1.0; 0=1 6.0)

(a) 2.5s (b) 4.0s (c) 16.0s (d) 25.0s

(46) Which of the following acids is dibasic?(a) Hydrochloric acid (b) Trioxosulphate (iv) acid (c)
Dioxonitrate (III) acid (d) Ethanol acid
(47) Bees inject an acidic substance when they sting. Which of the following chemical could be used to
treat bee stings? (a) CH3CQQH (b) NaHCO3 (c) C2HeOH (d) H2O2

(48) Which of the following salts can be prepared by reacting with the metal with dilute H2S04? (a)
CuSO4 (b) MgS04 (c) BaSO4. (d) PbSO4

(49) Which of the following solutions will give a precipitate with dilute tetraoxosulphate(Vl) acid? (I) lead
(II) trioxonitrate (V) solution (II) Barium chloride solution (Ill) Sodium chloride solution. (a) I only (b) II
only (c) I and II only (d) II and Ill only

(50) Substance Q reacts with cold water to form a solution which turns red litmus blue substance Q
could be; (a) Zinc (b) Phosphorus (c) Lead (d)Sodium

(51) What term is used to describe an oxide whose aqueous solution turns blue litmus red? (a) Strong
electrolyte (b) acid anhydride (c) amphoteric oxide (d) basic oxide

(52) Which of the following processes involves neutralization?

(a) Hardening of oils (b) souring of milk (c) charring of sugar (d) liming of soil

(53) Which of the following compounds is not a raw material for the manufacture of plastics? (a) Ethyne
(b) Ethane (c) Monochloroethene (d) Propene

(54) The energy required to remove the most loosely bound electron from an atom in the gaseous state
is known as the (a) Bond energy (b) Ionization energy (c) potential energy (d) activation energy

(55) Vulcanization of rubber

(a) stops the growth of fungus on the rubber (b) increase the solubility of the rubber (c) Decreases the
elasticity of the rubber (d) Hardens the rubber through cross-linkage

(56) Which of the following compounds of tin is astrong reducing agent?(a)SnCl2 (b) SnCl4 (c) SnO2 (d)
SnH4

(57) Example of polymers include the following except (a) Starch (b) Nylon (c) Wool (d) Glass

(58) The component of air that is removed when air is bubbled into alkaline pyrogallol solution is (a)
Carbon(IV)oxide (b) Oxygen (c) Water vapour (d) Nitrogen

(59) Which of the following substances is a peroxide?

(a) Na2O2 (b) CuO (c) Pb3O4 (d) Fe2O3

(60) Which of the following is not a halogen? (a) Silicon (b) Flourine (c) Astatine (d) Bromine

(61) The following compounds contain the same type of bonds except (a) Sodium chloride (b) hydrogen
chloride (c) Magnesium chloride (d) potassium chloride

(62) A positive brown ring test indicates the presence of

(a) NO3 (b) Fe3+ (c) HCl (d) H3O+

(63) The gas produced when a mixture of sodium propanoate and soda lime is heated is
(a) Methane (b) Pentane (c) Ethane (d) Butane

(64) Pauli Exclusion is related to (a)Quantum numbers of electron (b) reversibility of equilibrium
reactions (c) Electronegativity values of elements (d) Collision theory of reaction rates

(65) Which of the following has neither mass nor charge?

(a) Alpha particle (b) Deuterium (c) Gamma ray (d) Neutron

(66) Two radioactive elements Q and S have half-life periods of 10 hours and 20 hours respectively.
Therefore, (a) S decays faster than Q (b) Q is twice as stable as S (c) Q emits fewer particles than S (d) S is
more stable than Q

(67) Which of the following separation is routinely applied in the petroleum industry? (a) Filtration (b)
Chromatography (c) Evaporation (d) Fractional crystallization (e)fractional distillation

(68) Consider the reaction represented by the equation below: XC + YO X + YO,. In the reaction, YO acts
as (a) an acidic oxide (b) a basic oxide a reducing agent (d) a weak base (e) an oxidizing agent

(69) The following statements about graphite are correct except that it

(a) is used as a lubricant (b) has a network structure (c) contain mobile free electrons (d) is a good
conductor (e) is an allotrope of carbon

(70) A given volume of methane diffuses in 20 seconds. How long will it take the same volume of sulphur
(IV) oxide to diffuse under the same conditions? (CH4 = 16; SO2 = 64) (a) 5 seconds (b) 20 seconds (c) 40
seconds (d) 60 seconds (e) 80 seconds

(71) The reaction between alkanoic acids and alkanols in the presence of a mineral acid is known as

(a) Saponification (b) Hydrolysis (c) Polymerization (d) Esterification (e) Dehydration

(72) If 20cm3 of distilled water is added to 80cm3 of 0.50 mol dm3 hydrochloric acid, the concentration
of the acid will change to (a) 0.20 mol dm’ (b) 0.40 mol dm’ (c) 2.00 mol dm (d) 5.00 mol dm3

(73) Biotechnology is applied in the following except (a) Non-biodegradable (b) manufacture of soap (c)
baking industry (d) Wine production

(74) A reducing agent is expected to: (a) Decolorize acidified KMnO4 solution (b) decolorize acidified
FeSO4 solution (c) liberate Cl2from a chloride (d) Liberate CO2 from NaHCO3

(75) What is the IUPAC name of CH3CH2COOCH3?

(a) Ethylethanoate (b) Methylethanoote (c) Methylpropanoate (d) Prophylmethanoote

(76) Which of the following gases is colourless, odourless and soluble in potassium hydroxide solution?

(a) NO2(b) SO2 (c) NH2(d) CO2

(77) Trixosulphate (IV) acid is not stored for a long period because it
(a) is a weak dibasic acid (b) has bleaching properties (c)is unstable and easily decomposed (d) smells
strongly of sulphur (IV) oxide (e) can act as a germicide

(78) The component of air that is removed when air is bubbled into alkaline pyrogollol solution is

(a) Carbon(IV)Oxide (b) oxygen (c) Water vapour (d) Nitrogen (e) Helium

(79) The following can be obtained directly from the destructive distillation coal except (a) ammoniacal
liquor (b) coke (c)producer gas (d) coal gas (e) cool tar

(80) Random is used as a tracer in medical research because it

(a) is monatomic (b) is radioactive (c) is a noble gas (d) has a complete valence shell (e) has a low boiling
point

(81) Which of the following is used as water softener? (a) Na2CO3.10H2O (b) CuS04.5H2O

MgSO4. 7H2O (c) CaCl2.2H2O (e)Na2SO4.10H2O

(82) The spontaneity of a chemical reaction is determined by the change in the (a) concentration of the
reactants (b) temperature of the system (c) free energy of the system (d) pressure applied to the system
(e) volume of the reactants

(83) Which of the following, on burning in air, contributes to acid rain? (a) Sulphur (b) Magnesium (c)
Aluminium (d) Zinc

(84) Which of the following statements about on exothermic reaction is correct?

(a) The products have less heat content than the reactants

(b) The system absorbs heat from surrounding (c) the activation energy is high (d) the enthalpy change is
positive .

ANSWERS
1.C, 2.C, 3.A, 4.A, 5.B, 6.D, 7.B, 8.C, 9.C, 10.D, 11.E, 12C, 13.A, 14.D, 15.D, 16.C, 17.C, 18.A, 19.C, 20.D,
21.C, 22.C, 23.C, 24.B, 25.B, 26.D, 27.C, 28.A, 29.E, 30.D, 31.B, 32.B, 33.E, 34.A, 35.E, 36.B, 37.A, 38.A,
39.E, 40.A, 41.C, 42.A, 43.A, 44.D, 45.B, 46.C, 47.A, 48.A, 49.C, 50.D, 51.B, 52.B, 53.B, 54.B, 55.D, 56.A,
57.D, 58.B, 59.A, 60.A, 61.B, 62.A, 63.C, 64.A, 65C.A, 66.D, 67.E, 68.C, 69.B, 70.C, 71.D, 72.C, 73.B, 74.A,
75.C, 76.C, 77.C, 78.B, 79.C, 80.C, 81.A, 82.C, 83.A, 84.C
 ECONOMICS
1. A good is said to be Inferior if its demand (a) is perfectly inelastic (b)rises as Income rises (c) falls as
Income tails (d)rises as its price falls

2.The market price of a commodity is determined by (a) the level of productivity (b) buyers alone (C)
forces of demand and supply (d) sellers alone

3. the median of an odd numbered set of scores is the (a) middle value in the set (b) highest value in the
set (c) arithmetic mean of the set (d) most frequently occurring score

4.The basic central problem is (a) misallocation of resources (b)scarcity (c)choice (d)opportunity cost

5. In a perfect competition, the short run supply curve is equal to the (a) total cost curve (b)average
variable coal (c) marginal cost curve (d)average fixed cost curve.

6.Which of the following solutions can give rise to economic problems? (a) unlimited human wants
.(b)wants of varying importance (c) limited means available for satisfying wants (d) means used in
different ways.

7. The determinants of elasticity of demand includes (a) price, time and technology changes (b) time and
availability of alternatives (c) price, time and availability of alternatives (d) technology and cost of
production

8. The scale of preference shows a consumer’s (a) unlimited wants (b) demand for commodity (c)
opportunity cost (d) marginal utility

9. Patents and copy rights enable monopolists to (a) determine the sale of their products (b) determine
the quality of their products (C) restrict information flow to new firms (d) restrict entry of new firms

10.A major disadvantage of the arithmetic mean is that it is (a)not useful for large data (b)not suitable
for further statistical analysis (c)cumbersome to determine the actual value (d) affected by extreme data

11.Adequate supply of goods will help to curb the problem of(a) choice (b)hoarding (c)wastage (d)
storage

12. A change in consumer’s Income will cause (a) a change in demand (b) an Increase savings (c) reckless
spending (d) a change In quantity demanded

13. If the price of au tens increases by 8% while quantity demanded falls from 1500 units to 1492 units,
the demand is said to be (a) perfectly elastic (b) Inelastic (c) elastic (d)perfectly Inelastic

14. lire following curves arc U shaped except (a) average variable cost (b) average fixed coat (c) average
total cost (d) marginal cost

15. ‘The money paid per hour for work done is (a) salary (b) wage rate (c) bonus (d) allowance.

16. Given a market demand equation Qc1202p and a supply equation Qa4p, find the equilibrium price
and quantity. (a)N20 and 80 units (b)N30 and l20units (c)N40 and 60 units (d)N60 and 240 units

17. An agrcem6nt among firms on price and segmentation is termed (a) Haggling (b)collusion (c)
specialization (d)cartel
18. What happens in the demand for a commodity If the price of its substitute falls? (a) it remains
constant (b)it fluctuates (c)it falls (d) it increases

19.Which of the following results in greater unequal distribution of income? (a) capitalism (b)federalism
(c) socialism (d) communism

20. Which of the following best defines supply? The quantity (a) offered for sale by the producer (b)
offered for sale at a price and time (c) of output produced (d) consumers want to buy

21. Suppose that the equilibrium price of an article is N5.00 but the government fixes the price by law at
N4.O0, the supply will be A. The same as equilibrium supply B. Greater than equilibrium supply C. Less
than the equilibrium supply D. Determined later by government E.None of these

22. A budget deficit means A. That a country is buying more than is selling B. That a country is

selling more than is buying C. That a government is spending more than in takes in taxation D.

Thai a government is spending less than it takes in taxation E. That a government is spending as

much as it takes in taxation

23.When elasticity is zero, the demand curve is A. Perfectly elastic B. Perfectly inelastic C.

Concave D. Downward slopping E. Circular -

24. The following is NOT a reason for the existence of small fines A. Scale of production is limited by size
of the market B. Expansion brings diminishing return C. Large firms can carter for wide markets D. Small
firms can provide personal services £. All of the above

25. Inferior goods are referred to in Economics as goods A. whose quality Is low B. Consumed by very
poor people C. Whose consumption falls when consumers’ income rises D. Which satisfy only the basic
needs E. None of the above

26. Mal thus became famous through his theory which may be stated simply A. the death rate may
become so high that people may not be able to produce B. population may outgrow the means of
subsistence C. people will eventually decide not to have children D. migration of people from one place
to another may leave some Paris of the world barren E. all of the above

27. A commercial bank is unique in that it is only the institution that A. makes loam to private people
and businessmen B. accept deposits C. can store peoples’ valuables D. can transfer moneyfrom one
place to another for its customers E. naves money through the granting of credits

28. Which is an expression of an invisible item in the trade Account of Ghana? A. Export of Cocoa from
Ghana B. Import of oil from Nigeria C. A gift of a Peugeot 504 by a firm in Nigeria to a firm in Ghana D:
Payment for shipping and insurance by a Ghanaian company to companies outside Ghana E. None of the
above

29. Which is NOT a direct effort to increase Agricultural production in Nigeria? A. Operation feed the
Nation B. Nigerian Youth Service Corps C. Increased loans to farmers and cooperatives D. Research in
Agric & Extension services E. Mechanization of Agriculture
30. If a company doubles all its inputs and discovers that its output more than doubles, we can- say that
the company is experiencing A. Increasing Marginal utility B. Diseconomies of scale C. Increasing costs P.
Constant returns to scale F. Increasing returns to scale

31.Price control cannot work in Nigeria because A. the population is too large B. the policemen hate to
arrest people C. while it is fairly easy to control producers and foreign firms, smaller distributors are too
many to be controlled D. control cannot work wider military rule E. too many things are produced in the
country

32. The foreign exchange market is a market where A. graded commodities like what flour, etc are sold
and bought B. currencies arc sold arid bought C. treasury bills are sold and bought D. government bonds
are sold and bought E. treasury certificates are sold

33. Which of the following financial assets consist the lowest rate of interest in Nigeria? A. commercial
bills B. call money C. treasury bills D. development loan stocks F. deposits with the federal savings bank

34. The effect of the demand of a product A. caused by a change in the price of a product B is called? A.
cross-elasticity of demand B. elasticity of supply C. competitive demand D. composite demand F. joint
demand

35. Which of the following can be regarded as a liability of a commercial bank? A. advances B. deposits
C. treasury bills D. overdraft E. cash

36. Tax which takes a higher percentage from a higher income is called? A. a regressive tax B. a
progressive tax C. a proportional tax D. an indirect tax F. a direct tax

37.Which of the following statements is true? A. A proportional lax is one which Lakes from high income
people a higher fraction of their income than it takes for low Income people B. taxes on commodities of
services which can be shifted elsewhere are usually called direct Lazes C. The sole proprietor is a legal
entity D: the influence of demand on price will be smallest on the shortrun E. the cost of production is
the most important determining factor of supply in the long run

38. The largest liability appearing in (he book of a commercial bank is A. cash B. deposits C. loans and
advances E. capital and reserves F. treasury bills

39. The Lagos clearing house is A. a commodity market B. an import licensing centre C. another name for
the Lagos stock exchange D. an insurance and underwriting centre D. a cheque sorting centre

40. The biggest source of government revenue in Nigeria is A. mining, rents and royalties B. company
income tax C. import duties D. export duties E. petroleum profit lax

41. An increase in revenue requirements by tire central bank of Nigeria will result in A. a reduction in
commercial banks’ excess reserves B. more commercial hank loan to members of the public C. an
increase in cornnierc.ial banks excess reserves D. no change in commercial banks excess reserves E a
reduction in central banks gold reserves

42. A distinguishing characteristics of a consumers cooperative is the fact that A. the customers arc the
owners B. the customers arc the workers C. the customers are the managers D. the customers are low
income people E. the customers are high income people
43. Disposable income is the same thing as A. personal income minus personal saving B. personal
income minus taxes C. national income minus depreciation D. exports minus imports E. savings plus
investments

44. Marginal cost is A. Lowest cost of producing goods B. The cost of production of the most efficient
firm in the industry C. Cost of production of the most inefficient firm in the industry D. The cost of
production at which the minimum profit is obtained by the firm E. Which of the following is not a form
of business organization

45. Which of the following is not a form of business organization A. A sole proprietorship B. Cartel C.
Partnership D. Joint stock E. Cooperative society.

ANSWERS TO ECONOMICS
1.A 2.C 3.A 4.B 5.C 6.A 7.A 8.C 9.C 10.B 11.A 12.D 13.C 14.C 15.B 16.A 17.C 18.C 19.A 20.A 21.C
22.C 23.B. 24 25.C 26.B 27. C 28.D 29.B 30.E 31.C 32.B 33.D 34.A 35.B 36.B 37.B 38.B 39.B 40.E 41.C 42.A
43.B 44.D 45.B
ENGLISH
From the list of worlds lettered A to E choose the word or group of words that is most nearly
Opposite in meaning to the underlined word and that will, at the same time, correctly fill the gap in the
sentence. (Q1- Q7)

1. I was impressed by the man’s eagerness but was rather put off by his wife’s _______ (A) Anxiety (B)
Impatience (C) difference (D) Negligence (E) Harmless

2. The first twin is so vain and the second so_________ that one would think they were not brothers (A)
Proud (B) Complacent (C) Selfish (D) Humble (E) Harmless.

3. To ascend this steep hillis the problem, to_______ is quite easy.

(A) Depart (B) Decline (C) Drop (D) Descend (E) Disengage

4. Working in the field is easy when your machete is sharp and not when it is (A)Jagged (B) Coarse (C)
Sound (D) Keen (E) Blunt

5. The exterior and the _____ parts of the fruit remain very hard even after it is ripe.(A)Inward (B) inner
(C) Intrinsic (D) Peripheral (E) Extraneous

6. The probationary workers do not have same rights as staff

(A) Approved (B) Dismissed (C) Postponed (D) Confirmed (E) Provoked

7. After years of hostility the two communities now lives in_____

Bondage (B) Security (C) harmony (D) Amity

Choose the best options to fill the gaps in the following sentences

8 The prices-------------- are too high for us. (a) You lent me (b) You quoted (c) You attended (d) You gave
me (e) You want to buy

9. The method------------- does not give the expected results (a) You recommend (b) You visited (c) You
told (d) You sent me (e) You wanted

10. Oxygen is necessary for life. Nothing can live without it. It was------------ a century ago (a) Invented (b)
Found out (c) Discovered (d) Learnt (e) Extracted

11. Why does flamingo stand on one leg? Because if it lifted the other one, it would------ (a) Go down (b)
Let down (c) Fall down (d) Come down (e) Get down

12. I am travelling by the 6.30 train tomorrow morning, will you-----me--------? (a) See/Off (b) Look/Up (c)
Take/Down (d) See/To (e) Put/Up

In questions 6 to 8 select the wrongly spelt word.

13. (a) Disappointed (b) Embarassed (c) Equipped (d) Rhythm (e) Restaurant

14. (a) Occurence (b) Surprise (c) Personnel (d) Possess (e) Curiosity

15. (a) Quiet (b) Believe (c) Proceed (d) Precede (e) Opportunity
In questions 9 to 12 fill in the right word/phrase

16. There is no------------sense in what that politician has just said. (a) Many (b) Plenty (c) Lot of (d) Much
(e) Big

17. He-------- the book to the library last week (a) Has returned (b) Had returned (c) Was returning (d)
Returned (e) Was to be returning

18. The candidate made ------------- at the village square a day before the elections (a) A sermon (b) An
address (c) A eulogy's (d) A lecture (e) A speech

(19) The policeman was sent to ----------- the allegation made by the man (a) Investigate (b) Examine (c)
Probe (d) Enquire (e) Observe

In questions 20 to 28 choose the expression or word which best completes each sentence.

(20) The student who went home without an exit has apologized ---------- his misconduct. (a) On (b) At (c)
To (d) For (e) About

(21) The man has atoned ------------- his sins. (a) Upon (b) On (c) For (d) At (e) Against

(22) The headmaster was interviewed in connection ----------- the expansion project (a) To (b) With (c)
For (d) About (e) At

(23) What do you want me to do now? I’ m --------- withdrawing and keeping quiet (a) For (b) With (c) Up
(d) Off (e) On

(24) I am looking ------------ seeing you family (a) Ahead (b) Forward to (c) Forward on (d) For to (e) Ahead
to

(25) These folk tales have been handed ------------- from generation to generation. (a) In (b) Over (c)
Down (d) Up (e) Across

(26) John arrives at the airport on time but he could not get ------- the plane. (a) Into (b) On (c) In (d)To
enter (e) To

(27) The young lovers first met --------- the University of Ibadan Havana Night Dance. (a) in (b) At (c) In
course (d) On (e) Inside

(28) I have seen my headmaster ------ the beginning of this section. (a) From (b) In (c) For (d) At (e) Since

In question 29 to 37 choose the option opposite in meaning to the word in \"quote\"

(29) Mr. Jack was not most \"flexible\" in his instruction (a) Rigid (b) Correct (c) Stiff (d) Upright (e)
Straight

(30) The University has offered \"temporary\" accommodation to its staff. (a) Popular (b) Permanent (c)
Recognized (d) Regular (e) Consistent

(31) Mary complained that she slept on the \"coarse\" floor (a) smooth (b) Rough (c) Bad (d) Harsh (e)
Rugged
(32) Jim was one of the \"spectators\" at the concert (a) Ushers (b) Judges (c) Guests (d) Performers (e)
Organizers

(33) The government is making \"concerted\" efforts at providing essential social facilities in the rural
areas. (a). Dissipated (b). unconcerned (c). Unsuccessful (d). Uncontrolled

(34) The western allies frowned at their enemies’ \"indiscriminate\" bombing of their territory. (a)
impartial b. Selective c. Unprovoked d. Divided

(35) The girl is very intelligent, but her jokes are rather \"outrageous\". (a) Offensive (b). Courageous (c).
Pleasant (d). Unwholesome

(36) We cannot but talk about his \"invaluable\" contributions to the affairs of the society. (a) worthless
(b) Costly (c). Unrecognized (d). Incalculable

(37) The average fertility figure, of course, \"conceals\" wide individual variations among the people.

(a) Attracts (b). Covers (c) Exposes (d) Concludes

In questions 38 to 42 choose the option NEAREST IN MEANING to the word(s) or phrases(s) in \"quote\".

(38) The boss made a \"clean\" sweep of all the old hands in the office.

(a). completely got rid (b). Cleanly swept the office (c) Made a quick change (d). Made an adjustment

(39) Her anxiety was \"apparent\" to everyone present at the ceremony.

(a) real (b)Visible (c) Transparent (d) Unknown

(40) Our experience on board the aircraft is \"nothing to write home about\". (a) Not remarkable (b)
not pleasant (c) Nobody’s business (d) Not a home affair

(41) The rampage was organized and directed by the \"militant\" ones among the students. (a) soldiers
(b) Rebellious ones (c) Belligerent ones (d) commandoes

(42) The governor advised his people to get \"off the beaten tracks\" in their approach to community
matters. (a) use the old roads (b) Make the tracks better (c) find new ways (d) Avoid beaten about the
bush

In each question 11 to 25, choose the word(s) or phrase(s) which best fill(s) the gap(s)

(43) why do you worry about such ________ matters? (a) Insignificant (b) Significant (c) Non-significant
(d) Unsignificant

(44) It was difficult to_______ a man walking on the moon two centuries

(a) Contrive (b) perceive (c) Conceive (d) imagine

(45) This section of the test will _____ questions on set passages (a) consist (b)comprise (c) Contain (d)
carry

(46) Animals in_______ behave differently from animals living in the natural habitat (a) prison (b)
bondage (c) captivity (d) slavery
(47) After months of tedious climbing, the team reached the______ of the mountain.

(a) End (b) summit (c) height (d) terminal

(48) After Jerry had made the bed, he ______ on it. (a) Layer (b). Laid (c) Lied (d) Layed

(49) Knowledge of figures of speech as well as idioms and lexical items _____ in this section.(a) Is tested
(b)have been tasted (c) Are tested (d) Were tested

(50) The buildings damaged by the rainstorm ______ schools, hospitals and private houses. (a) Included
(b) include (c) were included (d) was included

(51) I would have been off to see Biola at Festac Town by the time you ____ tomorrow. (a) Returned (b)
Return (c) Are returning (d) Would return

(52) The lecturer said that we ______ be able to finish the next chapter this evening. (a) Must (b) Can (c)
Shall (d )Should

(53) If you want a successful marriage, you____pray for it. (a) Have better (b) better (c) had better (d)
Would better

(54) could have agreed with your action if I _____ not _____ you promise to increase the worker’s
salaries. (a) Have/heard (b) had/heard (c) were/hearing (d) was/hearing

(55) He ____ during the whole of last month. (a) was sick (b) has been sick (c) had been sick (d) had
sicken

(56) Ladies and gentlemen, our guest speaker, Dr. Oni ____ also resident doctor at the teaching hospital
(a) who is (b) which is (c) who was (d) is

(57) We are not surprised he was not elected; every one of his constituents ______ that he is unreliable
(a) Know (b) knows (c) will know (d) do know

From the words or group of words lettered A to D, choose the one best completes each of the following
sentences

(58) Bob is a good friend of mine, but I am sometimes _______ by her careless attitude. (a) Blown off (b)
Forced out (c) Turned out (d) put off.

(59) The new bakery will one thousand loaves of bread daily.

turnover (b)—tarn out (c) turn up (d) turn in

(60) His clothes were not only tottered but also ______ with oil. (a) were dripping (b) is dripping (c) have
dripped (d) drip

(61) The uncompromising politician remained ______ a political (a) wilderness for almost a decade.

for (b) into (c) in (d) by

(62) The prices of cars have become _______ (a) Painful (b) unbearable (c) stringent (d) harsh (e)
exorbitant
(63) The policeman has gathered _____ to complete the investigation.

(a) Few information (b) many informations (c) sufficient information (d) on information

(64) We need to ______ our resources in these hard times

(a) squander (b) economise (c) minimize (d) retrench (e) withhold

(65) The governor ordered that the work done by any contractor should be properly___ so as to know
the correct amount to pay. (a) processed (b) investigated (c) accounted (d) probed

(66) The poor boy was ______ when he stepped on live with (a) Blazed (b) electrified (c) radiated (d)
burnt (e) electrocuted

(67) The students threatened to embark on____ a of lectures if their demands were not met. (a)
Condonation (b) Suspension (c) Rejection (d) Strike(e) Boycott

(68) The Governor scolded the contractors for the poor_____ of the project. (a) Prosecution (b)
installation (c) investigation (d) execution (e) foundation

After each of the following sentences, a list of possible interpretations of the sentences is given. Choose
the interpretation that you consider appropriate for each sentence.

(69) When asked to state her side of the story, Bunmi started by beating about the bush. This means
that Bunmi. (A) Went straight to the point (b) was lost in great thought (c) followed a bush path
(d)approached the subject without coming to the point

(70) The friendship between Segun and Shehu has turned sour. This means Segun and Shehu are longer
(a) friends (b) still friends (c) better friends now (d) getting to understand each other.

(71) The students were advised to face their studies and let sleeping dog lie. This means that the student
should (a) obey the authorities (b) organized themselves properly (c) leave matters as they are not (d)
be as watchful as sleeping dogs

(72) The economic situation is so bad that many wage-earners are hardly able 40 make both ends meet.
This means that (a) peoples income exceed their expenditure (b) most people are extravagant with their
income (c)people’s earnings are not sufficient for their essential needs. (d) Most people engage in
activities that bring them extra pay.

(73) Since I found out his hypocritical nature, I have been keeping him at arm’s length. This means that I
(a) avoid being familiar with him (b) ignore his advice (c) report him to the authorities (d) stop visiting
him

(74) I knew Sadiku’s father very well and I must say that his son is a chip off the old book. This means
that Sadiku (a) has chosen the same career as his father ,(b) is very much like his father (c) is an
extremely different sort of person from his father (d) has taken up a different profession from his
father’s

(75) The debating team was warned to make convincing points and not to play to the gallery. This means
that the team should not (a) be selfish .(b) underrate the opponent (c) be over-confident (d) attempt to
win cheap popularity
(76) The Supreme Court set aside the ruling of the High Court. (a) upheld (b) nullified (c) agreed with (d)
justified (e) rebuked

(77) His approach to work is rather perfunctory (A) Careful (b) serious (c )careless (d) encouraging (e)
bad

ANSWERS
1.C, 2.D, 3.D, 4.E, 5.B, 6.D, 7.C, 8.B, 9.A, 10.C, 11.C, 12.A, 13.B, 14.A, 15.D, 16.D, 17.A, 18.E, 19.A, 20.D,
21.C, 22.B, 23.A, 24.B, 25.C, 26.A, 27.B, 28.D, 29.B, 30.B, 31.A, 32.D, 33.B, 34.B, 35.C, 36.A, 37.C, 38.A,
39.B, 40.B, 41.B, 42.C, 43.A, 44.B, 45.B, 46.C, 47.D, 48.B, 49.B, 50.A, 51.B, 52.D, 53.C, 54.A, 55.A, 56.A,
57.B, 58.D, 59.B, 60.D, 61.C, 62.E, 63.C, 64.B, 65.C, 66.E, 67.E, 68.D, 69.D, 70.A, 71.C, 72.C, 73.A, 74.B,
75.B, 76.C, 77.C
GEOGRAPHY
1. Which of these is an effect of the earth’s revolution? (a)day and night (b)varying length of day and
night (c) diffraction of winds (d) daily rising and falling of tides.

2. When the sun is over at the tropic of cancer arcs located on the southern hemisphere, we experience
(a) longer days (b) equal day (c)equal day and night (d) longer night

3. All the following are Jovian planets except (a) mercury (b)Uranus (c)Neptune (d)Jupiter

4.The following are example of metamorphic rocks except; (a)quartzite (b) Marble (c)gabro (d)gneiss

5.Fold mountains result from (a) convergent plate movements (b)divergent plate movements (c)
volcanic eruption (d)tensional force

6. Which of the following is not a type of chemical weathering? (a) carbonation (b) salt crystallization
(c)oxidation (d) hydrolysis

7. A serious environmental hazard which causes both vertical and lateral displacement of parts of the
earth crust is? (a) earthquake (b)volcano (c)landslide (d) weathering

8. Environmentalists agree that there is a general rise in sea level as a result of(a) excessive rainfall
(b)excavation of sand from ocean beds level (c) global warming (d) man induced erosion along sca coasts

9. A hazard that could be traced directly to the ozone layer depletion is (a) escalation of the melting of
polar and temperature ice (b) introduction of UV rays into the troposphere (c) submergence of
numerous coastal settlements in the world (d) extension of desert- like condition of the savannah

10. Which of these is not an clement of weather and climate? (a) ocean (b) rainfall (c) temperature (d)
atmospheric (e) pressure

11. the most common greenhouse gas in the atmosphere is (a) chlorofluorocarbon (b)carbon monoxide
(c)hydrogen bromide (d)carbon dioxide

12.dark coloured soils most likely have (a)human humus content (b)low humus content (c)high nitrogen
content (d)low nitrogen content

13.in a typical soil profile, which of the following is considered as rho sub soil (a) 0 Horizon (b) A Horizon
(c) B Horizon (d) C Horizon

14. water loving plants arc called; (a)sciophytes (b)hydrophytes (c)xerophytes (d) heliophytes

15. which of these contributes to the least of Nigeria national economy (a)mining (b) manufacturing
(c)agriculture (d) tourism

16. The population density of a country is calculated on the basis of(s) rate of population increase
(b)birth and death rate (c) size of the country in relation to the population (d) number of people
migrating to the country.

I7. The major causes of change in population size are (a)births, marriage and divorce (b)birth, death and
migration (c)migration, fertility and marriage (d)death, disease and divorce.
18. A major limitation factor to the development of industries in the developing countries is (a)low level
of capital formation (b)high population growth (c) shortage of raw material (d) unfavourable climate

19.Which of the following population characteristic is associated with developed countries (a)declining
birth rate and high death rate (b)high birth rate and low death rate (c)low birth rate and low death
rate(d)low birth role and declining death rate

20. The majorfactors accounting for increased desertification in the west Africa Sahel drought arc (a)
overgrazing and over cultivation (b)locustand queller birds (c) urbanizationand fuel wood exploitation
(d)harmattan and sand dews.

21. Which of the following phenomena is not directly related to the revolution of the earth?

A. seasonal changes B. Varying duration of sunshine bows unequal solar radiation on the earth’s
surfaceD. night and day. E. the tropics

22.Which pair of activities would you NOT find in an equatorial climate 1. Commercial grain farming. 2.
Rice cultivation 3. Lumbering. 4. plantation agriculture 5. dry farming A. I and 2 B. 2 and 5 C. 3 and 4 D.
land 5 E.2 and 3

23.Inter-regional trade between countries in West Africa is promoted mainly by A. relationship with
former colonial rulers B. production of similar goods C. deliberate government policies in recent times D.
competition among the nations in Africa F. frequent changes in government of different countries

24. Which statement is NOT true of the middle belt in Nigeria? A. the soil is productive B. the population
is sparse C. there are insect pests and disease carriers D. mineral resources can be found there K. none
of the above

25.Which of the following tones is the least industrialized in Nigeria? A. Lokoja-Ajaokuta B. Lagos-Lokoja
C. Port Harcourt-Aba D. Kaduna-Zaria E. Abeokuta-Ibadan

26. Which purpose is NOT served by the Kanji dam?A. provision of research facilities B. provision of
water of domestic use all over Nigeria C. provision of fishing facilities D. generation of electricity for use
all ova Nigeria K. provision of recreational facilities

27.Which is not exported by the Republic of South Africa? A. WinesB. MaizeC. Wool D. Coffee E. Wheat

28.Name the most important industrial mineral of Ghana A. Diamond B. Bauxite C. Manganese D. old.
Aluminum

29. Which of the following factors least explains the fast growing population in Africa?

A. control of diseases IL decline in death rate C. the education of women D. improvement in

transportation K. provision of more hospitals

30.Which of the following provides the best location for a bakery? A. Near a regular source of flour B. In
an area of cheap labour C. Near a large market For bread D. Near a source of good clean water E. Near a
regular source of electricity
31. Which of the following type of agriculture would you expect to find around a big city in an industrial
society such as in Europe? A. Dairy farming B. Grain farming C. Fish farming. Animal husbandry E.
Intensive subsistence agriculture

32. What is the Nile valley best known for? A. Industrial development B. Water navigation C. Commerce
D. Development E. hydro-electricity

33. If a scale of 1:50,000 is reduced by half, what is the new scale of the map? A. 1:250,000 B.I:25,000C.
1:200,000 D. 1:100,000 E. 1:125,000

34. Which of the following most accurately describe the climate of coast lands which are adjacent to
cool ocean currents? A. summer rain, winter drought B. winter rain, summer drought C. rain all the year
round P. moon sun rainfall pattern E. Aridity

35. How were the major mountain belts of the world produced? A. by wind erosion B. By Folding C. By
glacial erosion D. By weathering E. By river deposition

36, Which of the following factors must account for the rapid increase in world population during the
twentieth century? A. The slave trade was abolished B. Death rates have decreased rapidlyC. Birth rates
have increased rapidly P. Increasing world production offood E. Larges scale migration of people

37. What does subsistence agriculture means? A. Intensive agriculture B. Extensive agriculture C.
Agricultural production for cash D). Agricultural production for export E. Agricultural production fur
household consumption

38. The greatest volume of shipping across the Atlantic Ocean is A. between Africa and South America II.
between Africa and North America C. between North America and South America D. between Europe
and North America E. between Europe and Africa

39. Which of the following towns is NOT a pre-colonial town? A. Bonn B. Bids C. Enugu P. Ibadan E. Kano

40.Which of the following has the highest mean annual raints1l? A. Freetown B. Accra C. Lome D. Lagos
E. Enugu

41. The Middle Best of West Africa is NOT characterized by one of the following. Which one? A. Low
population densities B. Ethnic fragmentation C. Few large towns D. Much export crop production E.
Predominance of subsistence agriculture

42. Which ONE of the following statements about the railway lines of Africa is false?

A. There is no trans-continental railway in Africa which can be compared with the Trans-liberian Railway
in length or importance B. Africa’s railway lines arc all of uniform gauge C. Few railway lines in Africa
cross from one country to another D. The railway lines of Africa generally run from the coast inland E.
The densest railway network in Africa is in the Republic of South Africa

43. Which one of the following countries has an export trade which is dominated by a single mineral? A.
Central Africa Empire B. Uganda C. Kenya D. Zambia E. Mózambique

44, A World Title Boxing contest took place in New York (75GW time zone) on a Tuesday between 21:30
and 22:30 Hours and was televised live. When did viewers in Lagos (15°E Lime zone) watch the contest
live on television? A. Wednesday between 03:30 and 04:30 Hours
B. Monday between 03:30 and 04:30 Hours C. Tuesday between 15:30 and 16:30 Hours D. Tuesday
between 21:30 and 22:30 Hours F. Tuesday between 02:30 and 03:30 Hours25

45.Which of the following currents has a warming influence upon the coast along which it flows? A.
Mozambique current B. Labrador currentC. Benguela current D. Canaries current F. Humboldt current

ANSWERS TO GEOGRAPHY
1.B 2.D 3.A 4.A 5.A 6.B 7.A 8.C 9.B 10.A 11.D 12.A 13.C 14.B 15.D 16 C 17.B 18.A 19.C 20.A
21.D 22.D 23.C 24.E 25.A 26.C 27.E 28.D 29.D 30.C 31.A 32.E 33.D 34.E 35.B 36.B 37. E 38.D 39.C 40.A
41.D 42.B 43.A 44.A 45.E
MATHEMATICS
1. Simplify(271/3)2 (a) 4½ (b) 6 (c) 9 (d) 18 (e) 81

2. If log10 a=4, what is a? (a) 0.4 (b) 40 (c) 400 (d) 1000 (e) 10000

3. Simplify361/2 X 64-1/2 X 50 (a) 0 (b) 1/24 (c) 2/3 (d) 11/2 (e) 71/2

4. Solve the equation 3a+ 10=a2

(a) a=5 or =2 (b) a= -5 or a=2 (c) a=10 or a=0 (d) a=5or a=-2 (e) a=-5 or a=-2

5. Solve 6(x-4)+3(x+7)=3 (a) 3/2 (b) 2/3 (c) 1/2 (d) 1/3 (e) 0

6. The common ratio of a GP is 2. If the 5th term is greater than the 1st term by 45 find the 5th term. (a)
3 (b) 6 (c) 45 (d) 48 (e) 90

7. A house bought for N 100,000 was later auctioned for N 80,000. Find the loss percent. (a) 20% (b)
30% (c) 40% (d) 50% (e) 60%

8 Simplify 21og3 6 +ig3 1 2—log3 16 (a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 221og3 2 (d) 3 1og3 23 (e) 4 1og3 2

9. If 8x - 4 = 6x-10, find the value of 5x. (a) -35 (b) -15 (c) -3 (d) 3 (e) 7

10. Given that 2p-m = 6 and 2p + 4m = 1. Find the value of (4p + 3m). (a) 1 (b) 3 (c) 5 (e) 9

11. Which of the following is not a factor of 2p2 -2 (a) 2 (b) p- 1 (c) p + 1 (d) 2p- 2 (e) 2p + 1

(12) A car is traveling at an average speed of 80 km/hr. Its speed in meters per second(m/s) is

(a) 22.2m/s (b) 133.3m/s (c) 13.3m/s (d) 222.2m/s

(13) Solve the equation log8x 4 log8 x = 2 (a) 1/4 (b) ½ (c) 1 (d) 2 (e) 4

14. Find the product of xy if x ,2/3, 6/7, y are in GP (a) 24/49 (b) 4/7 (c) 2/7 (d) 7/4 (e) 2 1/8

15. A box contains 2 white and 3 blue identical balls. If two balls are picked at random one after the
other without replacement, what is the probability of picking two balls of different colours? (a) 6/25 (b)
7/20 (c) 3/5 (d) 2/3 (e) 5/6

16. The factors 6x-5-x2 are

(a) –(x+3), (x+2) (b) (x-5), (x-1) (c) -(x+5), (X+1) (d) (x-5), (1-x) (e) ( x+5), (1-x)

17. Seven years ago, the age of a father was three times that of his son, but in six years time the age of
the son will be half of the father. Representing the ages of the father and son by X and Y, respectively,
the two equations relating X and Y are;

(a) 3Y-X=0; 2Y-X=0 (b) 3Y-X=14; X-2Y=6 (c) 3Y-X=7; X-2Y=6 (d) 3Y-X=14; Y-2X=6 (e) X+3Y=7; X=2Y=12

18. If M represents the median and D is the mode of the measurements 5, 9, 3 and 8, the (M,D) is (a)
(6,5) (b) (5,8) (c) (5,7) (d) (5,5) (e) (7,5)

19. The value of (0.03)2-(0.02)2 is

(a) 0.019 (b) 0.0019 (c) 0.00019 (d) 0.000019 (e) 0.000035

20. If 263+441=714, what number base has been used? (a) 12 (b) 11 (c) 10 (d) 9 (e) 8

21. Bala chooses at random a number between 1 and 300. What is the probability that the number is
divisible by 4 (a) 1/3 b. ¼ c. 1/5 d. 4/300 e. 1/300

22. Using triangle xyz in the figure below, find xyz a. 290 b. 310 20 c. 310 d. 310 18 e. 590

23. (3+2) (3-2) ( 3+2)

(a) 0 b.( 3+2) c. (3-2) (3+2) d. (3+2) e. 1

24. Find correct to two decimal places 100 + 1/100 + 3/1000 + 27/10000

a. 100.02 b. 1000.02 c. 100.22 d. 100.01 e. 100.51

25. Solve the following equation

2/2r-1 - 5/3 = 1/r+2

a. (-1, 5/2 ) b. (1, -5/2 ) c. (5/2, 1 ) d. (2, 1 ) e. (1, 2)

26. Simplify 0.0324 × 0.0064/0.48 × 0.012 a. 3.6 × 102 b. 3.6 × 10-2 c. 3.6 × 10-3 d. 3. 6 × 10-4 e. 3.
6 × 10-5

27. If cos = a/b, find 1 + tan θ

a. b2/a2 b. a2/b2c. (a2 + b2) / (b2 + a2) d. 2 (a2 + b2)/ (a2+ b2) e. b/a 2

28. Make V the subject of formular √(6/v –w/2) a. v= 6/52 + 12/w b. v=12/(2s-w) c. v=12/w-2s2 d.
v=12/(2s2+w) e. v=6/(2s+w)

29. Simplify without using tables (log2 6- log2 3)/ (log28-2log21/2)

a. 1/5 b. ½ c. -1/2 d. log23/log2 e. ¼

30. If the 9th term of an A. P is five times the 5th term, find the relationship between a and d.

a 2a + d=0 b. 3a + 5d=0 c. a + 3d=0 d. a +2d=0 e. 5d + a=0

31. A bucket is 12cm in diameter at the top, 8cm at the bottom and 4cm deep. Calculate its volume.

a. 304/π3cm3 b. 144 πcm3 c. 128/3 πcm3 d. 72 πcm3 e. 54 πcm3

32. Calculate 33105 - 14425

a. 13135 b. 21315 c. 43035 d.11035 e. 22135

33. Express the product of 0.0014 and 0.011 in standard form.

(a) 1.54 × 10-2 (b) 1.54× 10-3 (c) 1.54 × 10-4 (d) 1.54 × 10-5 (e) 1.54 × 10-6

34. Factorize completely the expression abx2+ 6y -3ax-2yx

(ax-2y)(bx-3) (b) bx+3)(2y-ax) (c) (bx+3)(ax-2y) (d) (ax-2y)(ax-b) (e) (ax+1)(3-y)

35. Find the simple interest rate percent per annun at which N1000 accumulates to N1240 in 3years.

(a) 6% (b) 8% (c) 10% (d) 12% (e) 14%

36. An arc of a circle suspends on angle 700 at the centre. If the radius of the circle 6cm, calculate the
area of the sector subtended by the given angle. (a) 22cm3 (b) 44cm3 (c) 66cm3 (d) 88cm3 (e)
108cm3

37. Find the standard deviation of the following data: -5,-4,-3,-1,0,1,2,3,4,5

(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 6 (e) 8

38. Differentiate with respect to X

6x2-5x2+1/3x2

(a) 2+ 2/3x2 (b) 2+1/6x (c) 2-2/3x2 (d) 2-1/6x (e) 2+1/3x

39. Divide 2x3 + 11x2 + 17x +6 by 2x (a) X2+5x+6 (b) 2x2+5x+6 (c) 2x2-5x+6 (d) x2-5x+6 (e) x-
5x2+6

40. If 10112 + X7 = 2510 solve for X

(a) 14 (b) 20 (c) 24 (d) 25 (e) 28

41. If x is the addition of the prime numbers’ between 1 and 6; and y the H.C.F of 6,9, 15. Find the
product of x and y. (a) 27 (b)30 (c) 33 (d) 90

42. A 5.0g of salt was weighed by Tunde as 5.1g. What is the percentage error? (a) 20 (b) 2 (c ) 1 (d) 0.02

43. Find correct to one decimal place, 0.24633/70.0306

(a) 0.8 (b) 1.8 (c) 8.0 (d) 8.1

44. Two sisters, Taiwo and Kehinde, own a store. The ratio of Taiwos share to Kehinde’s is 11:9. Later,
Kehinde sells 2/3 of her share to Taiwo for 720.00. Find the value of the store. (a) 1,080.00 (b) 2,400.00
(c) 3,000.00 (d) 3,600.00

45. A basket contains green, black and blue balls in the ratio 5:2:1. If there are 10blue balls, find the
corresponding new ratio when 1 0 green and 1 0 black balls are removed from the basket (a) 1:1:1 (b)
4:2:1 (c) 5:1:1 (d) 4:1:1

46. A taxpayer is allowed 1/8th of his income tax fee, and pays 20% on the remainder. If he pays
N490.00 tax, what is his income?

(a) 560.0 (b) 2,450.00 (c) 2,800.00 (d) 3,920.00

47. Evaluate 2700000 x 0.03 + 1 8000 (a) 4.5 x 10° (b) 4.5 x 101(c) 4.5 x 102(d) 4.5 x 103

48. The prime factors of 2,520 are (a) 2,9,5 (b) 2,9,7 (c)2, 3,5,7 (d) 2, 3, 7, 9

49. If 1 2e = X7, find X where e = 1 2 (a) 20 (b) 15 (c) 14 (d) 1 2

50. What is the difference between 0.00768,5 correct to three significant figures and 0.007685 correct
to four places of decimal?

(a) 105 (b) 7x10-4 (c) 8x 10-5 (d) 10-5

51. Oke deposited N800.00 in the bank at the rate of 121/2% simple interest. After some time the total
amount was one and half times the principal. For how many years was the money left in the bank?

(a) 2 (b) 4 (c) 51/3 (d) 8

52. If the surface area of a sphere is increased by 44%, find the percentage increase in its diameter.

(a) 44 (b) 30 (c) 22 (d) 20

53. Factorize completely y3 - 4xy + xy3 - 4y (a) (y+xy) (y+2) (y-2) (b) (y-xy)(y+2)(y-2) (ç) y(l+x)(y+2)(y-2)
(d) y(l-x)(y+2)(y-2)

54. Factorize 4a2 -12ab –c2 + 9b2 (a) 4a(a -36)+(3b-c)2 (b) (2a+3b-c)(2a+3b+c) (c) (2a-3b-c)(2a-3b+c) (d)
4a(a-3b)+(3b+c)2

55. What are K and L respectively if ½ (3y- 4x)2 = (8x2+Kxy+Ly2)

(a) -12,9/2 (b) -6,9 (c) 6,9 (d) 12,9/2

56. Solve the pair of equation for x and y respectively —

2x-1+ 3y-l=4 and 4x-1 +y-l = 1 (a) -1,2 (b) 1,2 (c) 2,1 (d) 2,-1

57. Simplify2l34x234

(a) 103114 (b) 103214 (c) 122314 (d) 132114

58. In a class of 40 students, 32 offer Mathematics, 24 offer physics and 4 offer neither mathematics not
physics. How many offer both mathematics and physics? (a) 20 (b) 16 (c) 8 (d) 4

59. A woman buys 270 oranges for N 1,800.00 and sells at 5 for N40.00. What is her profit? (a) 2,160.00
(b) 1,620.00 (c) 630.00 (d) 360.00

60. Given: U {Even numbers between 0 and 30}

P{Multiplesofóbetweenoand30}

Q = (Multiples of 4 between 0 and 30} Find(Pu Q)O; (a) {2,10,14,22,26} (b) {0,10, 14,22,26) (c) {2, 4, -4,
1 8, 26} (d) {0, 2,6,22, 26)

61. The length a person can jump is inversely proportional to his weight. If a 20kg person can jump 1
.5m, find the constant of proportionality. (a)60 (b)30 (c) 20 (d) 15

62. Find the values of x and y respectively if 3x - 5y + 5 = 0 and 4x - 7y + 8 = 0 (a) 0,4 (b) -4,-5 (c) 4,5 (d)
0.5,4

63. Divide 6x2-13x + 5 by 2x-1 (a) 3x+5(b) 3x-5 (c) 5x-3 (d) 5x+3

64. A polynomial in x whose zeros are -2,-I and 3 is (a) x3-7x+6 (b) x3+7x-6 (c) x3+7x+6 (d) x3 -7x-6
65. The time taken to do a piece of work is inversely proportional to the number of men employed. If it
takes 30 men to do a piece of work in 6 days, how many men are required to do the work in 4 days?

(a) 20 (b) 35 (c) 5 (d) 60

ANSWERS
1.C, 2.E, 3.C, 4.B, 5.B, 6.D, 7.A, 8.B, 9.B, 10.D, 11.E, 12.A, 13.A, 14.A, 15.C, 16.C, 17.D, 18.E, 19.D, 20.D,
21.B, 22.D, 23.B, 24.A, 25.C, 26.C, 27.A, 28.D, 29.A, 30.C, 31.D, 32.A, 33.D, 34.A, 35.B, 36.A, 37.D, 38.C,
39.A, 40.A, 41.B, 42.C, 43.C, 44.B, 45.D, 46.B, 47.A, 48.C, 49.C, 50.D, 51.C, 52.D, 53.C, 54.C, 55.A, 56.D,
57.C, 58.A, 59.D, 60.A, 61.B, 62.D, 63.B, 64.D, 65.C
PHYSICS
1. A parallel plate capacitor has a common plate area of 5 x 1 0 m2 and plate separation of 2 x 1 O
m. assuming free space, what is the capacitance? (A) 2.25 x 1 07F (B) 4.50x 1 017F (C) 2.25x 1 0’6E (D)
4.50 x 1 016F (E) Reflects

2. In sunlight, a blue flower looks blue because we see the flower by the light it (A) Receives from our
eye (B) disperse (C) absorbs (D) refracts (E) reflects

3. The velocity v of a particle in a time it is given by the equation V =10 + 2t2 Find the instantaneous
acceleration after 5 second.

(A)10m/S2 (B) 15ms2 © 20m/s2 (D) 60m/s2 (E) 40 rn/s2

4. A radio is operated by eight cells each of e.m.f.2.0 V connected in series. If two of the cells are
wrongly connected, the net e.m.f. of the radio is (A) 1 6 V (B) 1 2 V (C) 10 V (D) 8 V (E) 6 V

5. A catapult used to hold a stone of mass 500 g is extended by 20cm with an applied force F. if the
stone leaves with a velocity of 40 rn/s. the value of F is (A) 40000N (B) 4O00 (C) 2000 N (D) 400 (E) 200N

6. An air force jet flying with a speed of 335 rn/s went past an anti aircraft gun. How far is the aircraft 5s
later when the gun was fired? (A) 838m (B) 3350m (C) 670 m (D) 1675 m (E) 67 m

7. If the critical angle of a glass-air boundary is c and the refractive index of the glass is n, which of the
following relationships is correct?

(a) n=90 Sin c (B) n=sin c 90 (C) n= sin 90 sin c (D) n=1 sin c (E) n=sin c sin 45

8. An inclined plane which makes an angle of 30° with the horizontal has a velocity ratio of (A) 2 (B) 1 (C)
0.866 (D) 0.5 (E) 1 .5

9. The heights of the mercury thread in a mercury in-glass thermometer when in melting ice and then in
steam are 3 cm and 1 8 cm respectively. At a temperature of 60°C the height would be (A) 7.5 cm (B)
9cm (C) 10.8cm (D) 1 2cm (E) 1 2.6 cm

10. If the fraction of the atoms of a radioactive material left after 1 20 years is 1/64, what is the half-life
of the material? (A) 2 years (B) 1 0 years (C) 20 years (D) 24 years (E) 1 .8 years

10. If the volume of a fixed mass of a gas is kept constant, the pressure of the gas (A) is inversely
proportional to its centigrade temperature (B) is inversely proportional to its absolute temperature (C)
is directly proportional to its centigrade temperature (D) is directly proportional to its absolute
temperature (E) remains constant also

11. Which of the following can be used to reduce local action in a leclanche cell? (A) carbon rod as the
positive pole (B) Potassium permanganate solution in contact with the positive pole (C) Common salt
solution pure Zinc as the negative pole

12. A working electric motor takes a current of 1.5 A when the p.d across it is V. if its efficiency is 80%,
the power output is (A) 3000.0W (B) 469.0 W (C) 133.0W (D) 4.8 W(E) 208.3W

13. The displacement, d produced in a glass block thickness, t and refractive index, n when an object is
viewed through it is (A) t - n (B) t(1+1/n) (C) t(1 - 1/n) (D)t(1/n - 1) (E) n – t
14. When the brakes in a car are applied, the frictional force on the tyres is (A) A disadvantage because
it is in the direction of motion of the car (B) A disadvantage because it is in the opposite direction of
motion of the car (C) An advantage because it is in the direction of motion of the car (D) An advantage
because it is in the opposite direction of motion of the car

15. The external and internal diameters of a tube are measured as (32=2) mm and (21 = 1) mm
respectively. Determine the percentage error in the thickness of the tube (A)27% (B) 14% (C)9% (D)3%
(E)6%

16. A solid suspended by a piece of string is completely immersed in water. On attempting to lift the
solid out of water, the string breaks when the solid is partly out of the water. This is because. (A) The
tension in string decreases as the solid is lifted (B) The mass of the solid has increased (C) The solid
apparently weighs less when completely immersed in water than when partly immersed (D) Part of the
solid still in water is exerting more force on the string (E) The solid is no longer in equilibrium with water

17. The force experienced by an object of mass 60.0kg in the moon’s gravitational field is 1.002 x JON.
What is the intensity of the gravitational field? (A) 0.60N/kg (B) 1.67 N/kg (C) 6.12x 102 N/kg (D) 9.81
rn/s2

18. When the temperature of a liquid is increased, its surface tension

(A)Decreases (B) increases (C) remains constant (D) increases then decreases (E) decreases then increase

19. An astronomical telescope is said to be in normal adjustment when the (A) Eye is accommodated (B)
Focal length of objective lens is longer than that of eye piece (C) Final image is at the near point of eye
(D) Final image is at infinity (E) focal length of objective lens is shorter than that of eye piece

20. The force on a current carrying conductor in a magnetic field greatest when (A) Conductor makes an
angle of 60° with the filed

(B) Force is independent-of the angle between the field and the conductor (C)Conductor is parallel with
the filed (D) Conductor is at right angles with the filed (E) Conductor makes an angle of 30° with the filed

21. The primary coil of a transformer has N turns and is connected to a 1 20 V A.C. power line. If the
secondary coil has 1.000 turns and a terminal voltage of 1,200 V, what is the value of N? (A)120 (B) 100
(C) 1,000 (D) 1,200 (E) 10,000

22. A hygrometer is an instrument used to measure? (A) Dew point (B) temperature (C) relative density
(D) relative humidity (E) vapour pressure

23. Which of the following statement is not correct? (A) A magnetic field is a region in which the
magnetic force may be detected

(B) A line of force is a line along which a magnetic N-pole would tend to move it were free(C) Magnetic
field is scalar quantities (D) Neutral points are obtained where the earth’s magnetic field is exactly equal
and opposite to that due to the magnet (E) the dip angle is the angle between the horizontal and the
earth’s total magnetic field
24. The temperature at which the water vapour present in the air saturates the air and begins to
condense is known as (A) boiling point (B) melting point (C) triple point (D) dew point (E) critical
temperature

25. Two lamps rated 40W and 220v, each are connected in series. The total power dissipated in both
lamps is___ a. 10W b. 20W c. 40W d. 80W e.

26. If PHCN charges 5K per kwh, what is the cost of operating for 24hours alamp requiring 1A on a 200V
line. a. 24K b. 55K c. 40K d. 26K e. 32K

27. The density of 400cm3 of palm oil was 0.9gcm3 before frying. If the density of the oil was 0.6gm3
after frying, assuming no loss of oil due to spilling, its new volume was____-

a. 360cm3 b. 600cm3 c. 240cm3 d. 800cm3 e. 450cm3

28. An object is placed 30cm from a concave mirror of focal length 15cm. the linear magnification of the
image produced is___ a. 0 b. 2/3 c. 1 d. 2 e. 3

29. Radio carrier waves are generated by causing electrons to oscillate rapidly in____a. a microphone
b. a television camera c. an antenna coaxial cable e. a transmitter

30. Which of the following statements are true in the structure of atoms? a. The atoms of the different
elements differ only in the number of protons and electrons.

b. The number of protons equals the number of electrons c. Atoms are constructed according to the
plan of solar energy d. All of the above e. only A and C

31. Any line or section through and advancing wave in which all the particles are in the same phase is
called___ a. Wave length b. wave crest c. wave trough d. wave amplitude e. wave front

32. In sunlight, a blue flower looks blue because we see the flower by the light it ____ a.receives from
our eye b. disperses c. Absorbs d. refracts e. reflects

33. Which of the following radiations cannot be deflected by a magnetic field? a. a b. b c. Y d. C e.

none of the above

34. The principle of the transmissibility of pressure in a fluid at rest in all directions is known as___ (a).
Archimedes principle b. flotation principle c. Newton1s law d. Pascal`s law e. Boyle`s law

35. The resistance of a 240V, 60W electric filament bulb is ______ (a). 0.25 (b). 480 (c).60 (d). 240 (e).
960

36. Two particles X and Y starting from rest covered the same distance. The acceleration of X is twice
that of Y. The ratio of the time taken by X to that taken byY is _____

a. ½ b. 2 c. 1/3 d. 2 e. 4

37. The speed of light in air is 3.00 × 103ms-1. Its speed in glass having a refractive index of 1.65 is___
(a). 1.65 × 108ms-1 b. 3.00 × 108ms-1 c. 4.95 × 108ms-1 d. 1.82 × 108ms-1 e. 6.00 × 108ms-1

38. The force responsible for holding the moon in its orbit around the earth against the gravitational pull
of the earth is____ (a). centrifugal b. rotational c. reaction d. centripetal e. tractional
39. If the force on a charge of 0.2 coulomb in an electric field is 4N, then the electric field intensity of the
field is__ a. 0.8 b. 0.8N/C c. 20.0N/C d. 4.2N/C e. 20.0C/N

40. Longitudinal waves do not exhibit___(a). Refraction b. reflection c. diffraction d. polarization e.

rare fraction

41. The unit of quantity of electricity is called___ a. the ampere b. the volt c. the coulomb d. the
ammeter e e. electromotive force

42. Catode rays are__ a. high energy electron magnetic wave’s b. protons c. streams of neutrons d.
neutrons e. radio waves

43. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental S.I unit? a. metre b. ampere c. Kelvin d. second e.
radian

44. Water shows anomalous behavior a. below 00C b. between 00C and 40C c. at exactly 40C d.
between 40C and 1000C e. above 1000C

45. What is the number of neutrons in Uranium isotope 238 92X a. 92 b. 146 c. 238 d. 330 e. 119

46. A gas occupies a volume of 330cm3 at a temperature of 270C. What is its volume at 540C when the
pressure is constant? a. 150cm3 b. 273cm3 c. 327cm3 d. 600cm3 e. 720cm3

47. Which of the following is NOT a part of a D.C electric motor?

a. field magnet b. armature c. commutator d. transformer e. stabilizer

48. The sign of the charge glass rod may be determined with

a. a charged electroscope b. an unchanged electroscope c. galvanometer d. an electrometer e.

ammeter

49. Which of the following is most strong deflected by a magnetic field? a. Y-rays b. X-particles c. –
particles d. X-rays e. UV-rays

50. Which of the following is the most suitable for use as an altimeter? (a) Mercury barometer (b) A
fortin barometer (c) Mercury manometer (d) An aneroid barometer

51. A body of weight W rests on a smooth plane inclined at an angle to the horizontal. What is the
resolved part of the weight in Newton’s along the plane? (a) W sinθ (b) W cosθ (c) W secθ (d) W tanθ

52. A small metal ball is thrown vertical upwards from the top of a tower with an initial velocity of 20ms-
1. If the ball took a total of 6s to reach the ground level, determine the height of the tower. (a) 60m (b)
80m (c) l00m (d) 120m

53. An objects moves with uniform speed round a circle, its acceleration has (a) Constant magnitude and
constant direction (b) Constant magnitude and varying direction (c) Varying magnitude but constant
direction (d) Varying magnitude and varying direction

54. A brass rod is 2m long at a certain temperature, What is the length for a temperature rise of 100k, if
the expansivity of brass is 1 8 x 10-6 (a) 2.0036m (b) 2.0018m (c) 2.1800m (d) 2.0360m
55. What is the least possible error in using a rule graduated in centimeter? (a) 0.1cm (b) 0.5cm (c) l.0cm
(d) 2.0cm

56. Which of the following affects the period of a simple pendulum?

(I) Mass of the pendulum bob (b) Length of the Pendulum (III) Acceleration due to gravity

(a) I, II and Ill (b) II and Ill only (c) I and Ill only (d) I and II only

57. A man weighing 800N climbs up a flight of stairs to a height of 15m in 12.5s. What is the man’s
average power of output? (a) 667W (b) 810W (c) 960W(d) 15000W

58. A machine requires 1000J of work to raise a load of 509N through a vertical distance of 1.5m.
Calculate the efficiency of the machine (a) 80% (b) 75% (c) 50% (d) 33%

59. What is the frequency of the sound made by a siren having a disc with 32 holes and making 25
revolutions per second? (a) 80Hz (b) 600Hz (c) 800Hz (d) 1600Hz

60. A wave has a frequency of 2Hz and a wavelength of 30cm. The velocity of the wave is (a) 60.0ms-1
(b) 6.0ms-1 (c) 1.5ms-1 (d) 0.6ms-1

61. A boat at anchor is rocked by waves whose crest reach l00m apart and whose velocity is 25ms-1 at
what interval does the wave crest reach the boat? (a) 2500,00s (b) 75.00s (c) 4.00s (d) 0.25s

63. Which of the following instruments has a pure tone? (a) Guitar (b) Vibrating string (c) Turning fork
(d) Siren

64. The lowest note emitted by a stretched string has a frequency of 40Hz. How many overtone are
there between 40Hz and 150 Hz? (a) 1 (b) 2 (c) 3 (d) 4

65. Which of the following statement supports the assumption that light travels straight lines? (a) Light
can be diffracted (b) A source of light produces distance shadows of opaque objects (c)A source of light
produces interference patterns on suitably placed screen (d) Light can reflected

66. If an object is placed in front of two mirrors inclined at 90°, how many images will be formed? (a)
five (b) four (c) three (d) two

67. An object 3.0cm high is placed 60.0cm from converging lens whose focal length is 20.0cm. Calculate
the size of the image formed. (a) 0.5cm (b) 5cm (c) 2.0cm (d) 6.0cm

68. A pool of water appears to be 1.0m deep when viewed vertically from above. If the refractive index
of water is 1.33, what is the actual depth of the pool? (a) 0.750m (b) 1.013m (c) 1.330m (d) 13.3000m

69. A ray of light is incident at an angle of 300 on one top surface of a parallel- from the sided glass block
of refractive index 1 .5. The ray finally emerge slower surface. What is the angular deviation of the
emergent ray? (a) 60° (b) 39° (c) 28° (d) 0°

70. Four lenses are being considered for use as a, microscope objective. Which of the following focal
length is most suitable? (a) -5mm (b) +5mm (c) 5cm (d) 5m

71. If the angle of declination in a place is 100E, calculate the true geographic bearing the compass reads
N40°E. (a) N50°E (b) N40°E (c) N30°E (d) 2.5°E
72. When a transformer has more secondary windings than primary windings, it (a) has a smaller
secondary current (b) has a greater power output (c) step-down transformer (d) increases the total
energy output

73. A current of 0.5A flows through a resistor when connected to a 40V battery. How much energy is
dissipated in 2 minutes? (a) 1 200J (b) 1 500J (c) 2400J (d) 96000J .

74. The direction of the magnetic field at a point in the vicinity of a bar magnet is (a) Always towards the
north pole of the magnet (b) always away from the south pole of the magnet (c) along the line joining
the point to the neutral (d) in the direction the North Pole of a compass needle would point.

75. Two capacities of 6,uF and 8,uF are connected is series. What additional capacities must be
connected in series with this combination to give a total of3,μF (a) 3, μF (b) 816, μf (c) 24,uF (d) 3QμF

ANSWERS
1.D, 2.A, 3.B, 4.B, 5.B, 6.D, 7.E, 8.E, 9.C, 10.D, 11.E, 12.D, 13.C, 14.D, 15.B, 16.D, 17.D, 18.D, 19.C, 20.A,
21.B, 22.C, 23.D, 24.C, 25.D, 26.D, 27.A, 28.B, 29.C, 30.B, 31.D, 32.E, 33.E, 34.C, 35.D, 36.E, 37.A, 38.D,
39.B, 40.C, 41.D, 42.D, 43.A, 44.E, 45.B, 46.B, 47.E, 48.E, 49.A, 50.A, 51.C, 52.A, 53.A, 54.A, 55.A, 56.A,
57.B, 58.C, 58.B, 60.D, 61.B, 62.D, 63.A, 64.B, 65.B, 66.C, 67.B, 68.A, 69.E, 70.B, 71.B, 72.B, 73.C, 74.D,
75.C