Challenging Practice Questions Mix

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Physics A

High Challenge practice


questions mix
This pack contains 200 marks of random high level of
challenge questions. The first half is based on
Modelling Physics, the second half is based on
Exploring Physics

OCR supplied materials:


Additional resources may be supplied with this paper.

Other materials required:


• Pencil
• Ruler (cm/mm)

INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
• Write your name, centre number and candidate number in the boxes above. Please write clearly and in capital letters.
• Use black ink. HB pencil may be used for graphs and diagrams only.
• Answer all the questions, unless your teacher tells you otherwise.
• Read each question carefully. Make sure you know what you have to do before starting your answer.
• Where space is provided below the question, please write your answer there.
• You may use additional paper, or a specific Answer sheet if one is provided, but you must clearly show your candidate number, centre number
and question number(s).

INFORMATION FOR CANDIDATES


• The quality of written communication is assessed in questions marked with either a pencil or an asterisk. In History and Geography
a Quality of extended response question is marked with an asterisk, while a pencil is used for questions in which Spelling, punctuation and
grammar and the use of specialist terminology is assessed.
• The number of marks is given in brackets [ ] at the end of each question or part question.
• The total number of marks for this paper is 200.
• The total number of marks may take into account some 'either/or' question choices.
1. * A student makes a pendulum using a length of string with a ball of adhesive putty which acts as a bob. The mass of this
bob is M.
A similar second pendulum is constructed with the same length of string but with a bob of a smaller mass. The mass of
this bob is m.

The arrangement of the pendulums is shown below.

The bob of mass M is pulled back to a vertical height of H from its rest position. It is released and collides with the bob of
mass m. The two bobs then stick together and reach a maximum vertical height h from the rest position.

The height h is given by the equation .

Describe how to perform an experiment to test the validity of this equation and how the data can be analysed.
[6]

2. * In 2017, an ultra-cool star TRAPPIST-1 was discovered with at least five of its own orbiting planets. Astronomers are
interested about the possibility of finding life on some of the planets orbiting TRAPPIST-1.

The table below shows some data.

TRAPPIST-1 Sun
Luminosity L / W 2.0 × 1023 3.8 × 1026
Surface temperature T / K 2500 5800
Radius of star / m R 7.0 × 108
Distance between Earth and Sun / m 1.5 × 1011
1.6 × 109
Distance between planets and TRAPPIST-1 / m
to 9.0 × 109

The temperature T in kelvin of a planet, its distance d from the star and the luminosity L of the star are related by the
expression

constant.

The average temperature of the Earth is about 290 K. Explain how life may be possible on some of the planets

orbiting TRAPPIST-1.
• Use your knowledge of luminosity to show that the radius R of TRAPPIST-1 is smaller than the Sun.
• Support your answers by calculations.
[6]

3. Antares is a red giant and one of the brightest stars in the night sky. The parallax angle for this star is 0.0059 arc
seconds.

Sirius-B is a white dwarf. In comparison with Sirius-B, Antares has 12 times greater mass and has 1.1 × 105 times greater
radius. The surface temperatures of Sirius-B and Antares are 25000 K and 4300 K respectively.

The intensity I of electromagnetic radiation emitted from the surface of a star is related to its temperature T in kelvin as
follows:

I ∝ T4.
i. Explain what is meant by intensity.

[1]

ii. Calculate the ratio

1.

ratio = ..................................................

2.

ratio = ..................................................

4. A gas is at a temperature of 20°C. The mass of each molecule is 4.7 × 10 −26 kg.

i. Show that the root mean square (r.m.s.) speed the gas molecules is about 500 m s −1.

[3]

ii. A gas molecule makes a head-on collision with a stationary smoke particle. Fig. 20 shows the gas molecule and
the smoke particle before and after the collision. The final speed of the smoke particle is 23 m s −1.
1. State and explain the total momentum of the molecule and smoke particle after the collision in a direction
perpendicular to initial velocity of the gas molecule.

[2]

2. Calculate the speed v of the gas molecule after the collision.

v = ............................................m s−1 [2]

5(a). This question is about a simple pendulum made from a length of string attached to a mass (bob). For oscillations of small
amplitude, the acceleration a of the pendulum bob is related to its displacement x by the expression

where g is the acceleration of free fall and L is the length of the pendulum.
The pendulum bob oscillates with simple harmonic motion.

i. Show that the period T of the oscillations is given by the expression


[3

ii. A student notices that the amplitude of each oscillation decreases over time.
Explain this observation and state what effect this may have on T.

[2]

(b).
Describe with the aid of a labelled diagram how an experiment can be conducted and how the data can be

analysed to test the validity of the equation for oscillations of small amplitude.
[6]

(c). Another student conducts a similar experiment in the laboratory to investigate the small amplitude oscillations of a
pendulum of a mechanical clock. Each ‘tick’ of the clock corresponds to half a period.

i. Show that the length of the pendulum required for a tick of 1.0 s is about 1 m.

[2

ii. If the pendulum clock were to be used on the Moon, explain whether this clock would run on time compared with
an identical clock on the Earth.
[2]

6. Fig. 2.1 shows the path of a golf ball which is struck at point F on the fairway landing at point G on the green. The effect
of air resistance is negligible.

The ball leaves the club at 17 m s−1 at an angle of 60° to the horizontal at time t = 0.

Show that the speed of the ball at the highest point H of the trajectory is between 8 and 9 m s−1.

speed = .......................................... m s−1 [2]

7. A plastic kettle is filled with 0.60 kg of water at a temperature of 20°C.


A 2.2 kW electric heater is used to heat the water for a time of 4.0 minutes.

The specific heat capacity of water is 4200 J kg−1 K−1 and the specific latent heat of vaporisation of water is 2.3 × 10 6 J
kg−1. The boiling point of water is 100°C.

Calculate the mass of water remaining in the kettle after 4.0 minutes.
Assume that all the thermal energy from the heater is transferred to the water.

mass of water remaining = ......................................... kg [4]


8(a). Lasers are often used to form precision-welded joints in titanium. To form one such joint it is first necessary to increase
the temperature of the titanium to its melting point. Fig. 5.1 shows the joint and the volume of titanium to be heated.

The photon beam from the laser is focused onto the shaded volume of the joint and is converted into thermal energy in
the titanium.

The wavelength of the photons is 1.1 × 10−6 m.

Show that the energy of a photon in the beam is 1.8 × 10 −19 J.

[1]

(b). Photons are emitted from the laser at a constant rate of 6.3 × 10 19 s−1.

Estimate the time taken to raise the temperature of the shaded volume of titanium shown in Fig. 5.1 to melting point. Use
the data below for your calculations.

initial temperature = 20 °C
melting point of titanium = 1700 °C
density of titanium = 4.5 × 103 kg m−3
specific heat capacity of titanium = 520 J kg−1 K−1
shaded volume of titanium being heated = 8.1 × 10−12 m3.

time = ........................................................... s [3]

(c). In practice it takes a longer time to reach the melting point.


State and explain two factors that will increase the time taken.

[2]
(d). To complete the weld more photons must be focused onto the joint. During this final stage the temperature remains
constant. Explain why this is to be expected.

[1]

9. Fig. 23.1 shows a metal cylinder of diameter of about 5 cm placed on a horizontal table.

Fig. 23.1

i. State Archimedes' principle.

[1]

ii. Fig. 23.2 shows the metal cylinder hung from a newtonmeter.

Fig. 23.2

The reading on the newtonmeter is 9.0 N.


The cylinder is slowly lowered into water in a beaker until it is completely submerged.
The cylinder does not touch the side or the bottom of the beaker. The newtonmeter reading now is 7.8 N. The
density of water is 1000 kg m−3.
Calculate the density ρ of the metal of the cylinder.
ρ = ........................................................... kg m−3 [3]

10.
Fig. 3.1 shows a simple representation of a hydrogen iodide molecule. It consists of two ions , held together
by electric forces.

Fig. 3.1

Fig. 3.2 shows a simple mechanical model of the molecule consisting of two unequal masses connected by a spring of
force constant k and negligible mass. The ions oscillate in simple harmonic motion when disturbed.

i. The approximate acceleration a of the hydrogen ion, mass mH, is given by the equation

where k is the force constant of the spring and x is the displacement of the ion.
The ions oscillate with a frequency of 6.6 × 1013 Hz. The mass mH is 1.7 × 10−27 kg.
Show that the value of k is about 300 N m−1.

[3]

ii. Use Newton's laws of motion and a requirement for simple harmonic motion to explain why the amplitude of
oscillation of the iodine ion, mass mI, is about 0.08 pm when the amplitude of oscillation of the hydrogen ion is
about 10 pm.
[4]

11(a). Civil engineers are designing a floating platform to be used at sea. Fig. 4.1 shows a model for one section of this
platform, a sealed metal tube of uniform cross-sectional area, loaded with small pieces of lead, floating upright in
equilibrium in water.

The tube has length 300 mm and diameter 50 mm. The total mass of the lead and tube is 0.50 kg. Show that the length l
of tube above the surface is more than 40 mm.

density of water = 1000 kg m−3

[3]

(b). When the tube is pushed down a small amount into the water and released it moves vertically up and down with simple
harmonic motion. The period of these oscillations which quickly die away is about one second.

The oscillations of the tube can be maintained over a range of low frequencies by using a flexible link to a simple
harmonic oscillator.

Fig. 4.2 shows a graph of amplitude of vertical oscillations of the tube against frequency obtained from this experiment.
i. Use information from Fig. 4.2 to state the amplitude of the motion of the oscillator.

amplitude = .......................................... mm [1]

ii. Add a suitable scale to the frequency axis of Fig. 4.2.

[1]

iii. The experiment is repeated in a much more viscous liquid such as motor oil.
On Fig. 4.2 sketch the graph that you would predict from this experiment.

[2]

12. * A supply rocket, with its engines shut down, is trying to dock with the International Space Station. Initially it is moving in
the same circular orbit above the Earth and at the same speed as the ISS. The two craft are separated by a distance of a
few kilometres. The rocket is behind the ISS. It can move closer to the ISS using the following procedure.

The rocket engines are fired in reverse for a few seconds to slow the rocket down. This action causes the rocket to fall
into an orbit nearer to the Earth.

After an appropriate time, the rocket engines are fired forwards for a few seconds to move the rocket back into the
original orbit closer to the ISS.

Use your knowledge of gravitational forces and uniform motion in a circular orbit to explain the physics of this procedure.
[6]

13. A flat, circular disc moves across a horizontal table with negligible friction.
Fig. 19.1 shows the disc X of mass 50 g subject to a force F. Fig. 19.2 shows the variation of the force F with time t.

The disc is initially at rest. Calculate the change in velocity of the disc caused by F.

change in velocity = ............................. ms−1 [2]

14(a). Fig. 2.1 shows the path of a golf ball which is struck at point F on the fairway landing at point G on the green. The effect
of air resistance is negligible.
The ball leaves the club at 17 m s−1 at an angle of 60° to the horizontal at time t = 0.

At t = 1.5 s the ball reaches point H. Calculate

i. the maximum height h of the ball

h = .......................................... m [3]

ii. the distance between the points F and G.

distance FG = .......................................... m [2]

(b). Suppose the same golfer standing at F had hit the ball with the same speed but at an angle of 30° to the horizontal. See
Fig. 2.2.

Show that the ball would still land at G.

[3]

(c). Compare the magnitude and direction of the two velocities as the ball lands at G and using this information suggest, with
a reason, which trajectory you would choose to travel a longer distance after hitting the green at G.
[2]

15(a). A cyclist moves along a horizontal road. She pushes on the pedals with a constant power of 250 W. The mass of the
cyclist and bicycle is 85 kg. The total drag force is 0.4v2, where v is the speed of the cyclist.

The cyclist now moves up a slope at a constant speed of 6.0 ms −1 and continues to exert a power of 250 W on the
pedals.

Fig. 17.1 represents the cyclist and bicycle as a single point P on the slope.

i. Draw arrows on Fig. 17.1 to represent the forces acting on P. Label each arrow with the force it represents.

[1]

ii. Calculate the angle θ of the slope to the horizontal.

θ = ............................. ° [2]

(b). The cyclist continues to move up the slope at 6.0 ms −1 and approaches a gap of width 2.5 m as shown in Fig. 17.2.

A student has calculated that the cyclist will be able to clear the gap and land on the other side. Another student suggests
that this calculation has assumed there is no drag and has not accounted for the effect caused by the front wheel losing
contact with the slope before the rear wheel.

Without calculation, discuss how drag and the front wheel losing contact with the slope will affect the motion and explain
how these might affect the size of the gap that can be crossed successfully.
[4]

16. A high energy gamma photon passing through a scintillator crystal converts some of its energy into visible light photons of
mean wavelength 450 nm.

Show that the energy of a single photon of wavelength 450 nm is less than 3 eV.

[3]

17. A researcher is investigating the de Broglie wavelength of charged particles.

The charged particles are accelerated through a potential difference V. The de Broglie wavelength λ of these particles is
then determined by the researcher.

Each particle has mass m and charge q.

i. Show that the de Broglie wavelength λ is given by the expression .

[2]

ii. The researcher plots data points on a λ2 against grid, as shown below.
Calculate the percentage uncertainty in λ for the data point circled on the grid.

percentage uncertainty = ..................................................... % [2]


2 Draw a straight line of best fit through the data points. [1]
The charge q on the particle is 2e, where e is the elementary charge.

Use your best fit straight line to show that the mass m of the particle is about 10−26 kg.

[4]

18. * A resistance wire is coiled around a thermistor. The coil of wire will warm the thermistor.

It is suggested that the relationship between the power P dissipated in the coiled wire and the stable resistance R of the
thermistor is given by the expression P = kRn, where k and n are constants.

Describe how an experiment can be conducted to assess the validity of this expression and how the data collected can
be analysed to determine k and n.

Use the space below for a circuit diagram.


[6]

19. * A student is investigating electron diffraction. A beam of electrons is directed towards a thin slice of graphite in an
evacuated tube.
The electrons are accelerated by a potential difference of 2000 V. The diagram below shows the pattern formed on the
fluorescent screen of the evacuated tube.
Describe and explain how the pattern changes as the potential difference is increased. Include how the de Broglie
wavelength λ of the electron is related to the potential difference V.
[6]

20. Fig. 20 illustrates a device used to determine the relative abundance of charged rubidium ions.

Fig. 20

A uniform magnetic field is applied to an evacuated chamber. The direction of the magnetic field is perpendicular to the
plane of the paper.

A beam of positive rubidium ions enters the chamber through a hole at H. The ions travel in a semi-circular path in the
magnetic field. The ions are detected at point D.

Each rubidium ion has charge +1.6 × 10–19 C and speed 4.8 × 104 m s–1.
The radius of the semi-circular path of the ions is 0.18 m.
The mass of a rubidium ion is 1.4 × 10–25 kg.

Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic flux density B of the magnetic field.

B = ......................................................T [3]

21. * Fig. 22.4 shows an arrangement used by a student to investigate the forces experienced by a small length of charged
gold foil placed in a uniform electric field.

Fig. 22.4
The two vertical metal plates are connected to a high-voltage supply.

The foil is given a positive charge by briefly touching it to the positive plate.
The angle θ made with the vertical by the foil in the electric field is given by the expression

where q is the charge on the foil, E is the electric field strength between the plates and W is the weight of the foil.

The angle θ can be determined by taking photographs with the camera of a mobile phone.

Describe how the student can safely conduct an experiment to investigate the relationship between θ and E.
Identify any variables that must be controlled.
[6]

22. A narrow beam of unpolarised light is incident at the boundary between air and glass.

Fig. 18 shows the incident ray, the reflected ray and the refracted ray at the air-glass boundary.

Fig. 18 (not to scale)

The refractive index of air is 1.00 and the refractive index of the glass is 1.50.
The angle of incidence of the light is 56.3°.

Calculate the time t taken for the refracted light to travel a depth of 6.0 cm of glass.

t= s [2]

23.
A metal circular plate is rotated at a constant frequency by an electric motor.
The plate has a small hole close to its rim.
Fig. 17.1 shows an arrangement used by a student to determine the frequency of the rotating plate.
Fig. 17.1

A light-dependent resistor (LDR) and a fixed resistor of resistance 1.2 kΩ are connected in series to a battery. The
battery has e.m.f. 4.5 V and has negligible internal resistance. The potential difference V across the resistor is monitored
using a data-logger.

Fig. 17.2 shows the variation of V with time t.

Fig. 17.2

Use your knowledge and understanding of potential divider circuits to explain the shape of the graph shown in Fig. 17.2.
Include in your answer the maximum and minimum values of the resistance of the LDR.
Describe how the student can determine the frequency of the rotating plate.
[6]

24. Fig. 6.1 shows a single photomultiplier tube and its internal components. The tube can detect gamma photons in high-
energy physics experiments.
A single gamma photon incident on the scintillator crystal generates many photons of blue light. These visible light
photons travel to the photocathode where they are converted into photoelectrons. The number of electrons is then
multiplied in the photomultiplier tube with the help of electrodes called dynodes. A short pulse of electric current is
produced at the output end of the photomultiplier tube.

Fig. 6.1

The photocathode is coated with potassium which has a work function of 2.3 eV. Each emitted photoelectron is
accelerated by a potential difference of 100 V between the photocathode and a metal plate, called the first dynode.

i. Show that the maximum kinetic energy of an emitted electron at the photocathode is very small compared to its
kinetic energy of 100 eV at the first dynode.

ii. 2000 photoelectrons are released from the photocathode. Each photoelectron has enough energy to release four
electrons from the first dynode at the collision. These four electrons are then accelerated to the next dynode
where the process is repeated. There are 9 dynodes in the photomultiplier tube. The total number of electrons
collected at the anode for each photoelectron is 49.
The pulse of electrons at the anode lasts for a time of 2.5 × 10 −9 s.

Calculate the average current due to this pulse.

average current = A[

25(a).

Fig. 18.1 shows a circuit.

Fig. 18.1
The cell has e.m.f. 1.5 V. The cell and the variable power supply both have negligible internal resistance.

i. The e.m.f. of the power supply is set at 4.2 V.


Calculate the current I in the 33 Ω resistor.

I = ......................................... A [3]

ii. The e.m.f. of the variable supply is now slowly decreased from 4.2 V to 0 V.
Describe the effect on the current I in the 33 Ω resistor.

[2]
(b).
A group of students are investigating the power dissipated in a variable resistor connected across the terminals of a
cell. The cell has e.m.f. 1.5 V.
The students determine the power P dissipated in the variable resistor of resistance R.

Fig. 18.2 shows the data points plotted by the students on a graph of P (y-axis) against

Fig. 18.2

The group of students know that maximum power is dissipated in the variable resistor when R is equal to the internal
resistance r of the cell.

Describe, with the help of a suitable circuit diagram, how the students may have determined P and R.
Use Fig. 18.2 to estimate the internal resistance r of the cell and discuss any limitations of the data plotted by the group.
[6]

26(a). Fig. 19 shows a photocell.

When the metal M is exposed to electromagnetic radiation, photoelectrons are ejected from the surface of the metal.
These photoelectrons are collected at the electrode C and the sensitive ammeter indicates the presence of a tiny current.
The work function of the metal M is 2.3 eV.
The incident electromagnetic radiation has wavelength 5.1 × 10 −7 m.
The ammeter reading is 0.24 μA.

Calculate the maximum kinetic energy of the ejected photoelectrons.

maximum kinetic energy = .......................................... J [3]

(b). The wavelength of the incident radiation is kept constant but the intensity of the radiation is doubled.

State and explain the effect, if any, on the current in the photocell.
[2]

27(a). Calculate the maximum wavelength of the X-rays for the pair production process.

maximum wavelength = .......................................... m [3]

(b). An X-ray image of a patient’s arm is required.


Fig. 23.1 shows a parallel beam of X-rays is incident on a cross-section of the patient’s arm.

Fig. 23.2 shows the variation of the intensity of the X-rays with distance x from the point A.

Explain the shape of the graph shown in Fig. 23.2.


[4]

28. A possible fission reaction is

where k is the number of neutrons released in the reaction. The nucleus is very unstable.

i. State the number k of neutrons released in this reaction.

k = ................................. [1]

ii. State the binding energy of the released neutrons.

[1]

iii. A nuclear reactor uses uranium-235 as fuel. The output power from the reactor is 1.0 GW. The mass of the
nucleus is 236.053 u. The total mass of the fission products is 235.840 u.

Calculate the number of fission reactions per second.

number of reactions per second = .......................................... s−1 [4]

29(a). A radioactive substance has 2000 nuclei. The decay constant of the isotope of the substance is 0.10 s −1.
Use the equation and Δt = 1.0 s to estimate the number of nuclei left after time t = 2.0 s.

number of nuclei left = .......................................... [2]

(b). * A group of students are investigating the decay of protactinium.


A fresh sample of protactinium is prepared. The activity of the sample was measured at intervals of 1.0 minutes for 6.0
minutes.
The table shows the activity corrected for background radiation.

time t / min 0 1.0 2.0 3.0 4.0 5.0 6.0


activity A / Bq 943 523 287 161 79 61 20

Fig. 20 shows the variation of ln(A) with time t.

Explain how the graph in Fig. 20 can be used to determine the half-life of protactinium. Determine the half-life of
protactinium. Include an uncertainty in your value.
[6]

30(a). Fig. 22.1 shows the circular track of a positron moving in a uniform magnetic field.

The magnetic field is perpendicular to the plane of Fig. 22.1.


The speed of the positron is 5.0 × 107 m s−1 and the radius of the track is 0.018 m.

At point B the positron interacts with a stationary electron and they annihilate each other. The annihilation process
produces two identical gamma photons travelling in opposite directions.

Calculate the wavelength of the gamma photons. Assume the kinetic energy of the positron is negligible.

wavelength = .......................................... m [3]

(b). Calculate the magnitude of the magnetic flux density of the magnetic field.

magnetic flux density = .......................................... T [3]

31. The speed v of the transverse waves on the string is directly proportional to √T, where T is the tension in the string.
The tension T in the string is increased by 14 %. The frequency f of the oscillator is adjusted to get the same stationary
wave pattern as Fig. 18.1.

Calculate the percentage increase in the frequency f.


increase = .......................................... % [2]

32. This question is about the use of a thermistor fitted inside a domestic oven as a temperature sensor in a potential divider
circuit.

Fig. 2.1 shows the potential divider circuit in which the component R2 is connected in parallel to the input of an electronic
circuit that switches the mains supply to the heating element in the oven on or off.

It is required that the p.d. across the thermistor R2 is 7.0 V when at a temperature of 180 °C. The variation of resistance
with temperature for R2 is shown in Fig. 2.2.

The thermistor R2 is fitted inside the oven. When the p.d. across R2 falls to 5.0 V the oven heater switches off. The oven
cools until the p.d. across R2 rises to 7.0 V when the heater switches on again.

R1 is adjusted to 250 Ω. Calculate the temperatures at which the oven heater is switched on and off.

temperature on ........................................................... °C

temperature off ........................................................... °C [4]


33. An X-ray tube operates using a 150 kV supply. X-ray photons are produced inside the tube when a beam of high-speed
electrons accelerated from the cathode collide with the metal anode. About 99% of the total kinetic energy of the
electrons at the anode is converted into heat energy which heats the anode. The remaining energy is transformed into
the energy of the X-ray photons.

The current in the electron beam between the cathode and the anode is 4.8 mA.

i. Show that the number of electrons incident at the anode per second is 3.0 × 10 16 s−1.

ii. The anode is made from metal of specific heat capacity 140J kg −1 K−1. It has a mass of 8.6 g. The X-ray tube is
switched on. Calculate the initial rate of increase of temperature of the anode.

rate of temperature increase = ........................................................... °C s−1 [

iii. A single electron is responsible for producing an X-ray photon. Calculate the shortest wavelength of the X-rays
produced from the X-ray tube.

wavelength = ........................................................... m [

34. A charged particle enters a region of uniform magnetic field. Fig. 2.2 shows the path of this particle.
The direction of the field is perpendicular to the plane of the paper. The magnetic field has flux density B. The particle has
mass m, charge Q and speed v. The particle travels in a circular arc of radius r in the magnetic field.

i. Derive an equation for the radius r in terms of B, m, Q and v.

ii. A thin aluminium plate is now placed in the magnetic field. Fig. 2.3 shows the path of an unknown charged
particle.

The particle loses some of its kinetic energy as it travels through the plate. The initial radius of the path of the
particle before it enters the plate is 4.8 cm. After leaving the plate the final radius of the path of the particle is 1.2
cm.

Calculate the ratio

ratio = ........................................................... [
END OF QUESTION PAPER
Mark scheme

Questio Mark
Answer/Indicative content Guidance
n s

Level 3 (5–6 marks) Indicative scientific points may include:


Clear description of experiment and
measurements and clear analysis.
Description
There is a well-developed line of reasoning
which is clear and logically structured. The • Release method
information presented is relevant and • Ensure bob is not pushed
substantiated. • Repeat experiment for same H
• Repeat for different H
Level 2 (3–4 marks) • Centre of mass of single bob and joined bob considered
Some description of experiment and some • Keep bob string taught
measurements and some analysis.

Measurements
There is a line of reasoning presented with
some structure. The information presented is
• Measure heights h and H with ruler
in the most-part relevant and supported by
• Use centre of mass of bob or another suitable method
1 some evidence. B1×6
• Use video camera to record motion
• Use of datalogger and appropriate sensor to measure H
Level 1 (1–2 marks)
and h
Limited description of experiment
• Measure mass with (top pan) balance
or
Limited measurements
Analysis
or
Limited analysis
• Construct a table of h and H
• Plot graph of h against H
The information is basic and communicated in
• LoBF should pass through origin.
an unstructured way. The information is
• Determine gradient or calculate h/H repeatedly
supported by limited evidence and the
relationship to the evidence may not be clear. • gradient (gradient must be consistent with the
plot)
• Masses substituted into above expression and checked
0 marks against experimental gradient
No response or no response worthy of credit.


Total 6

Level 3 (5−6 marks)


Correct calculations for radius and Use level of response annotation in RM Assessor, e.g. L2 for 4
temperature range or distance or intensity for marks, L2^ for 3 marks etc.
Earth-like temperature within given distance
range, with clear explanation. Indicative scientific points may include:

2 There is a well-developed line of reasoning B1x6 Explanation


which is clear and logically structured. The
information presented is relevant and • TRAPPIST-1 is cooler than the Sun
substantiated. • The planets are closer to TRAPPIST-1
• Possible for temperature on planets to be like Earth
Level 2 (3−4 marks) • For life to exist, temperature is not the only factor
Radius calculated or at least one temperature
of planet calculated and some explanation. • L = 4πr2σT4 (Any subject)

There is a line of reasoning presented with Calculations


some structure. The information presented is
in the most-part relevant and supported by • Calculation of ’constant’ for Earth: 4(.19) x 105
some evidence. • For inner-most planet, T = 430 K
• For outer-most planet, T = 180 K
Level 1 (1−2 marks) • Calculation of distance for T = 290 K, i.e. 3.4 x 109 (m)
Some explanation and an attempt at least • There must therefore be a planet with temperature similar
one calculation. to that of the Earth
• L = 4πr2σT4 used to calculate radius of TRAPPIST-1
There is an attempt at a logical structure with • Radius of TRAPPIST-1 is 8.5 x 107 (m) or L/T4 is smaller
a line of reasoning. The information is in the for TRAPPIST-1
most part relevant. • Comparison of calculated intensities at extreme distances
around TRAPPIST-1 to intensity at Earth
0 marks
No response or no response worthy of credit.

Examiner’s Comments

This level of response question was very well answered, largely


due to the highly mathematical content. Higher level responses
showed clarity of method as well as one of a range of ways of
supporting the idea that life may be possible on the planets of
TRAPPIST-1.

Many candidates opted to show that that the temperature of the


nearest planet was approximately 430 K while that at the furthest
planet was approximately 180 K. The argument went that there
must be a distance at which the temperature was approximately
290 K. Other methods found the distance from TRAPPIST-1 that
would give a surface temperature of 290 K and showed that lay
within the range of distances given in the table.

Total 6

Allow ‘energy per (unit) area per unit time’


Not: power per m2

Examiner's Comments
3 i power per (unit) area or power/area B1

Most candidates correctly defined intensity as power divided by


area. A small number of candidates defined intensity incorrectly as
‘energy divided by area’.

ii 1

ii C1
ratio =

ii ratio = 9.0 × 10−15 A1 Allow: 9.0 × 10−15 : 1Allow: 1 sf answer of 9 × 10−15

ii 2 (power = intensity × surface area)

ii power ∞ T4r2 C1
ii C1
ratio =

Note: Answer to 3 sf is 1.06 × 107


Allow: 1.1 × 107 : 1

Examiner's Comments

This was a good discriminating question that required careful


execution. Most candidates in the upper quartile scored four or
ii ratio = 1.1 × 107 B1 more marks. Their answers showed good development and errors
were minimised. Most candidates in the lower quartile managed to
get at least one mark. Candidates at this end struggled with writing
the correct expressions for surface area and volume of the star.
Sadly, for a significant number of candidates, the volume V of a
star was given by the expression V = 4πr2/3. A significant number
of candidates confused the terms ‘power’ and ‘intensity’ and ended
up calculating the ratio of intensities instead.

Total 6

4 i T = 293 K M1

i 3/2 kT = ½ mv2 C1

3/2 × 1.38 × 10−23 × 293 = ½ × 4.7 × 10−26 ×


i M1
v2

i v = 510 (m s−1) A0 Note answer is 509.8 m s−1 to 4 s.f.

1. Total vertical momentum after = 0


B1
ii Total vertical momentum before = 0
B1
(momentum is conserved)

2. 4.7 × 10−26 × v × sin 88° = 1.4 × 10−24 × 23


ii C1
× sin 45°

ii v = 480 (m s−1) A1 Allow other correct methods.

Total 7

M1

5 a i M1
Correct substitution and Note: Both M1 marks are required to score this A1 mark

rearranging to give correct expression A1 Examiner’s Comments


Most students had considerable success in deriving the required
expression.

Transfer of energy to air / retort stand B1 Allow ‘loss of energy from pendulum (due to friction)’
(because of air resistance / friction) Allow ‘work done’ for ‘energy’

ii
Allow ‘isochronous’

No effect on T (as T is independent of B1 Examiner’s Comments


amplitude in SHM for small amplitude A pleasingly large proportion of students remembered that
oscillations of pendulum) specification point
5.3.1 (f) states that the period of a simple harmonic oscillator is
independent of its amplitude.

A similarly large proportion referred to damping or action of the


drag force but fell slightly short of the idea that the effect of that
force is to reduce the energy stored in the pendulum.

Indicative scientific points may include:


Experiment
Description

• Pendulum string clamped / fixed (can be shown on


diagram)

• Use a stopwatch to determine time period T

Level 3 (5–6 marks) • Time multiple oscillations to


Clear description including steps to obtain determine T
high quality data and analysis
• Use a ruler to measure L
There is a well-developed line of reasoning
• Vary length L and determine T
which is clear and logically structured.
The information presented is relevant and
Quality of Data
substantiated.

Level 2 (3–4 marks) • Method used to ensure small oscillations


Clear description and some analysis
• Small angles i.e. <10 degrees

There is a line of reasoning presented with


• Idea of fiducial mark
some structure. The information presented is
B1 ×
b in the most part relevant and supported by
6 • Start / stop timing at the centre of the oscillation
some evidence.
• Measure from the fixed point to the centre of the bob
Level 1 (1–2 marks)
Limited description and analysis Or limited Analysis
description
• Correct plotting of graph, e.g. T2 against L or T against √L
The information is basic and communicated in or lg T against lgL
an unstructured way.
The information is supported by limited • Analysis of data table showing T2/L
evidence and the relationship to the evidence = constant
may not be clear.
• Expect a straight line through the origin
0 marks
No response or no response worthy of credit. • Correct gradient of the line e.g. 4π2/g

Use only L1, L2 and L3 in RM Assessor.

Examiner’s Comments
While a small number of candidates described the incorrect
experiment (such as masses on a spring or circular motion) most
candidates made excellent attempts to describe the experiment
and the ensuing analysis.

References to even the most basic equipment are essential, such


as measuring lengths with a ruler and periods of time with a
stopwatch or other suitable timer. Candidates that did neither could
not score higher than Level 1.

Level 3 responses included ideas about achieving high quality


data, such as use of a fiducial mark, starting the oscillation count
(and hence the timer) at the midpoint where the pendulum bob is
fastest, stating a suitable small angle of ten degrees or less and
how to achieve that consistently with a protractor and by measuring
the length of the string from the suspension point to the centre of
the bob.

By far the preferred method of analysis leading to verification of the


relationship was plotting a graph of T2 against L and expecting the
trend to be not only straight but also through the origin with a
gradient of (4π2/g). An acceptable alternative was to suggest
calculating several values of (T2/L) and demonstrating that ratio to
be constant and equal to (4π2/g). Note that writing ‘Plot a graph of
T2/L’ is not an acceptable short hand for ‘plot T2 on the y-axis and L
on the x-axis.

C1 Note: 1 (m) here cannot score this A1 mark


Correct substitution of T= 2(.0 s) into
Examiner’s Comments
c i
A large majority of candidates successfully showed that the
length = 0.99 (m) pendulum length should be 0.99m for a ‘tick’ length of 1.0 seconds.
A1
Candidates that attempted the reverse argument, by assuming a
length of 1 m and then calculating the corresponding length, were
usually unable to show the period of the resulting pendulum was
2.01s. Candidates that showed how to arrive at this period gained
full credit.

Accept ‘g is a sixth of g on Earth’ AW


Not gravity (is less)
Lower g / gravitational field strength /
acceleration (of free fall) on Moon. B1

T is longer (on Moon) and justified by Examiner’s Comments


ii
Many candidates suggested that g is less on the Moon than it is on
the Earth, gaining one mark of credit. Most candidates suggested
B1
that would mean the period of the pendulum would be larger, but
or is larger did so without justification from the formula in the question or
contradicted themselves by stating that would make the pendulum
‘run faster’.

Total 15
horizontal component = 17 sin 30 or 17 cos
6 B1
60 = 8.5 (m s–1)

at highest point vertical component of velocity


B1
is zero.

Total 2

Possible ecf from (a)

Energy used to heat water to 100 °C C1


= 0.60 × 4200 × 80 (= 201.6 kJ)

Energy remaining to vaporise water C1


= 528 (kJ) − 201.6 (kJ) (= 326.4 (kJ)

7
mass vaporised = 326.4 × 103 / 2.3 × 106 C1
Examiner’s Comments
= 0.1419 (kg)
This was a challenging multi-step calculation that differentiated
between the candidates well.
mass of water left = 0.60 − 0.1419

A method employed by many high-scoring candidates began with a


mass of water left = 0.46 (kg) A1
word equation "Total energy transferred = energy required to heat
water to boiling point + energy required to vaporize water”. This
made it clear to award the mark for substituting into the specific
heat capacity equation and clear to the candidate how to find the
mass of vaporized water.

A minority of candidates forgot to subtract the mass of vaporized


water from the initial mass.

Total 4

8 a B1 Values must be substituted

Answer to 3sf is 1.81 × 10−19 (J)

Examiner's Comments

This question was specifically included to give a hint as to the


E = 1.8 × 10−19 (J) A0
method to be used in (b). The question was written in a ‘show’
format to enable candidates to answer (b) even if they could not
recall this area of synoptic work. However this did mean that all
working, including substitution, had to be shown and this did result
in a small number losing the mark.

m = pV = 8.1 × 10−12 × 4.5 × 103 = (3.645 ×


b C1
108)

Thermal energy gained = (mc Δθ) = 3.645 ×


10−8 × 520 × [1700 − 20] (= 0.0318) C1 Allow: ecf from (a) and mass of titanium
1.81 × 10−19 × 6.3 × 1019 × t = 0.0318
Examiner's Comments

Again this question had three distinct strands to the physics. The
vast majority of candidates were capable of determining the correct
mass and thermal energy required to raise the temperature of the
t = 2.8 × 10−3 (s) A1 titanium. A small number of errors were seen in these two strands
however: mainly in transposition of the density formula and
converting temperature changes incorrectly to kelvin scale. The
final stage to determine the time was less confidently handled with
transposition errors and some strange manipulation of the
equations which usually resulted in the reciprocal of the correct
answer. Perhaps the very small time involved in this form of
welding surprised a few candidates.

Thermal energy is conducted / transferred to


c B1 Not: heat lost to surroundings
the rest of titanium / metal

Examiner's Comments

The answers given for this question were disappointing. All too
often the only factor quoted was the vague ‘heat lost to the
Photons are reflected / scattered from / not surroundings’. A significant number of candidates scored one mark
B1
absorbed the titanium surface by identifying the loss of thermal energy to the non-shaded volume
of titanium. Only a tiny minority realised that some photons would
be reflected from the metal surface. Other suggestions such as
‘photons are absorbed in the air’, ‘photons would miss the target’,
‘not all photons have the same energy’, ‘the laser needs to heat up
as well’ were not given any credit. Marks for this discriminating
question were mostly awarded only to the more able candidates.

Allow: energy is used to overcome the forces between atoms /


breakdown the crystal structure of titanium (rather than increase
kinetic energy)
(Photon) energy is converted into potential
energy (rather than kinetic energy)
Examiner's Comments
OR
Energy is used to change solid to liquid /
d B1 This question discriminated across the entire spectrum of ability,
phase (rather than increase kinetic energy)
largely as a result of candidates writing about the lack of a
OR
temperature change rather than focusing on what actually
Energy provides (specific) latent heat of
happened to the energy supplied at this stage. Many answers were
fusion (rather than increase kinetic energy)
merely statements lacking in the vital explanation. It was, however,
encouraging to see that the physics involved in this unfamiliar
situation was broadly understood by the candidates.

Total 7

Examiner's Comments
The upthrust is equal to the weight of the fluid
9 i B1
/ liquid / water / air displaced
About one in every seven candidates omitted this question and
only about a third of the candidates gave an acceptable statement
of Archimedes' principle. It was clear from the answers that most
candidates had not revised this topic. There were countless
guesses, with many famous laws incorrectly linked to this principle.

(upthrust =) 9.0 − 7.8 (N) or (mass =) Note: This C1 mark for determining the upthrust (1.2 N) or the
ii C1
9.0/9.8(1) mass (0.92 kg) of the cylinder

ii C1

Allow full credit for alternative methods, e.g:

Examiner's Comments

ii ρ = 7.5 × 103 (kg m−3) A1 This proved to be a discriminating question that favoured those
candidates who could apply, rather than just rote learn,
Archimedes‘ principle. About a third of the candidates scored
nothing in this question but many candidates did score one mark
for determining the upthrust of 1.2 N. Most candidates stopped at
this point. The top-end candidates correctly determined the volume
of the displaced water and then went on to successfully calculate
the density of the metal.

Total 4

1
i a = 4п2f2 × C1 condition for SHM
0

so k = (m4п2f2) = 1.7 × 10−27 × 4 × 9.87 ×


i B1 substitution
43.7 × 1026

i k = 292 (N m−1) A1 ecf if incorrect mass used

ii (N2 gives) FH = mHaH and FI = mIaI B1 allow total momentum = 0 at all times

ii (N3 gives) FH = FI can be implicit B1 SHM gives v = 2пfxmax

ii SHM gives a α (−)x B1 so mHXH = mIxI

ii hence xH/xI = aH/aI = mI/mH = 127 B1 accept 127 = xH/xI ≈ 10/0.08 = 125

Total 7

1 W of tube = upthrust (caused by submerged


a B1 Archimedes principle expressed in some form.
1 length) = A(0.30 − l) ρg

W = 0.5 × 9.8 = 4.9 = π(2.5 × 10−2)2 × (0.3 −


C1
l) × 1.0 × 103 × 9.8 = 19.2 (0.30 − l)

0.30 – l = 0.255 giving l = 0.045 m = 45


A1
(mm).

b i 5 (mm). A1

minimum requirement for mark: 0 to 3 Hz marked at 1 Hz intervals


ii 1.0 mark on scale at peak of curve. B1
along axis.
ii approx. same (or slightly lower) resonance
B1
i frequency.

smaller amplitude/broader peak but curves


ii
must not cross and passes through (0, 5 B1
i
mm).

Total 7

A initial scenario

• for circular orbit a centripetal force (of magnitude mv 2 / r)


is required or AW in terms of accelerations
• this is provided by the gravitational force GMm/r2
Level 3 (5–6 marks)
or G force just pulls radially inwards sufficiently to
a structured combination of at least 6
maintain orbit
statements taken from A, B and C or A and D
• the speed in orbit v = (GM/r)1/2
a combination of at least 5 statements; script
of a lower quality
B reverse thrust
N.B. bonus given for any of E at any level
The ideas are well structured providing
• G force causes rocket to spiral towards Earth when rocket
significant clarity in
slowed;
the communication of the science.
• rocket speeds up in process
• v in orbit is larger when radius r is smaller; condition for
Level 2 (3–4 marks)
faster lower orbit can be achieved
a good combination of at least 4 statements
or T smaller because either v is larger or r / circumference
taken from A and B or A and C or B and C or
is smaller or both or 2πr/v is smaller
A and D
1
a combination of at least 3 statements taken B1
2 C forward thrust
from two sections which are relevant
together.
• when rocket speeds up with engines fired forwards G
There is partial structuring of the ideas with
force insufficient to hold orbit so spirals to larger orbit
communication of the science generally clear.
• slowing as it does so

Level 1 (1–2 marks)


D energy approach
at least 2 statements from A, B, C or D which
are relevant together some attempt which is
• some p.e. goes to k.e. when rocket is slowed as it moves
related to the question
towards Earth
The ideas are poorly structured and impede
• so v increases
the communication of the science.
• vice versa when rocket is accelerated

Level 0 (0 marks)
E further comments
Insufficient or relevant science.

• extra corrections needed to obtain circular orbit after


manoeuvre (not mentioned in passage)
• any other relevant statement not included above


Total 6

1 Area under graph = 0.5 × 0.06 × 1.8 = 0.054


C1
3 (Ns)

0.05 × v = 0.054, therefore v = 1.1 (ms−1) A1

Total 2
1
a i u = 17 cos 30 = 14.7 (m s–1) C1
4

i h = ut − ½gt2; = 14.7 × 1.5 − ½ × 9.81 × 1.52 C1


or use v2 = u2 – 2gs or s = (u + v)t/2

i h = 11 (m) A1
note: if g = 10 is used, then maximum score is 2/3

ii s = 2 × 8.5 × 1.5 C1
ecf 2a

ii s = 26 (m) A1
allow 25.5 m

b 0 = 17 sin 30 t - ½ × 9.81 × t2 C1

so t = 0 or 17/9.81 = 1.73 C1

s = 14.7 × 1.73 = 25.4 (m) A1


allow s = 15 × 1.7 = 25.5 (accept 25 or 26 to 2 sf)

the ball has the same speed (of 17 m s–1) but


c is at different (either at 60o or 30o) angle to B1
the horizontal.

larger horizontal velocity (second trajectory)


so travels further or higher bounce (first
B1 accept any sensible answer, e.g. steeper bounce loses more
trajectory) so less drag from grass so travels
energy in impact so slows more.
further.

Total 10

1 weight; (tractive) force up slope; drag;


a i
5 (normal) reaction

i B1

All forces in correct direction and correctly


i
labelled.

ii 14.4 + (85 × 9.81 × sin θ) = 41.7 C1 ecf from (a)(ii)

ii θ = 1.9 ° A1

any three from:

Allow argument based on:


• drag reduces velocity or increases
time to cross or some kinetic energy
• very short crossing time (< 0.43s at speed of 6 ms −1 up
of cyclist goes to heat. B1 ×
b slope).
• longer crossing time results in cyclist 3
• energy changed to heat insignificant compared to KE
at lower point on other side of gap.
• amount of rotation very small in short time.
• moment on bicycle
• rotation lowers height of front wheel.

• conclusion based on argument(s).


So no change in maximum gap width.

Conclusion based on argument(s).


B1
The maximum gap width is smaller.
Total 7

E = (hc/λ =) 6.63 × 10−34 × 3.0 × 108/450 × C1


10−9
1
6 E = 4.42 × 10−19 (J) C1

energy = 2.76 (eV) A1


N.B. the answer here must be 2 SF or more

Total 3

M1
Vq = ½ mv2 and
1 Allow p for mv
i
7 Allow e for q in (b)(i) – this is to be treated as a ‘slip’

A1
Clear algebra leading to

C1

Note 10 (%) on answer line will score the C1 mark


A1
(% uncertainty in λ2 =) 10%
1
(% uncertainty in λ =) 5%
B1
Straight line of best fit passes through all
2 error bars
Ignore POT for this mark; Allow ± 0.20 (× 10−22)
gradient = 1.0 (× 10−22)
C1
ii

gradient
3 C1
Possible ECF for incorrect value of gradient
gradient
Note check for AE (condone rounding error here) and answer
C1
m = 6.9 × 10 −27 (kg) (hence about 10−26 must be about 10−26 (kg) for any incorrect gradient value for this A1
kg) mark

A1
Special case: 1.37 × 10−26 kg scores 3 marks for q = 1.6 × 10−19 C
because answer is about 10−26 kg

Total 9

Level 3 (5–6 marks)


Indicative scientific points may include:
Clear description and clear analysis of data

Description
There is a well-developed line of reasoning
which is clear and logically structured. The
• Circuit showing supply, ammeter, voltmeter and resistance
1 information presented is relevant and
B1×6 wire / coil
8 substantiated.
• Measure I (in coil) with ammeter
• Measure V (across coil) with voltmeter
Level 2 (3–4 marks)
• Power (for coil) calculated: P = VI
Some description and some analysis of data
• Resistance of thermistor either calculated using R = V/I or
OR
measured with ohmmeter
Clear description
OR • Change P / change V / use variable power supply / use
Clear analysis of data variable resistor (to change I)
• Keep the number of turns of coil constant throughout / no
There is a line of reasoning presented with draughts / wait until the resistance stabilises
some structure. The information presented is
in the most-part relevant and supported by
some evidence. Analysis

Level 1 (1–2 marks) • lgP = lgk +nlgR (or natural logs ln)
Limited description and limited analysis • Plot a graph of lgP against lgR
OR • If expression is correct, then a straight line with non-zero
Some description intercept
OR • gradient = n
Some analysis of data • intercept = lgk
• k = 10intercept (or k = eintercept for natural logs)
There is an attempt at a logical structure with
a line of reasoning. The information is in the
most part relevant.

0 marks
No response or no response worthy of credit


Total 6

Level 3 (5–6 marks)


Indicative scientific points may include:
Description and explanation of pattern
changes and quantitatively explains link
between de Broglie wavelength and potential
Description of pattern changes
difference.
• Rings become closer (not just smaller)
• Rings become brighter
There is a well-developed line of reasoning
which is clear and logically structured. The
information presented is relevant and
Qualititative explanation of pattern changes in terms of de
substantiated.
Broglie wavelength and potential difference

Level 2 (3–4 marks)


Clear description of how pattern changes and
• Electrons gain greater energy
explanation of pattern changes and
• Electrons have a greater speed
qualitatively explains link between de Broglie
• Electrons have a greater momentum
1 wavelength and potential difference or
B1 ×6 • Implies smaller wavelength
9
• Smaller wavelength means less diffraction
limited description of how pattern changes
Shorter wavelength gives shorter path differences between
and •
areas of constructive and destructive interference
quantitatively explains link between de
Broglie wavelength and potential difference.
Quantitative explanation of pattern changes in terms of de
There is a line of reasoning presented with Broglie wavelength and potential difference
some structure.

The information presented is in the most-part
• p = mv
relevant and supported by some evidence.
• v2 α V or p2 α V

Level 1 (1–2 marks)


Limited description of how pattern changes • or
and limited attempts to explain qualitatively
the link between de Broglie wavelength and • or
potential difference or
qualitatively explains link between de Broglie
wavelength and potential difference. Examiner’s Comments
This question tested an understanding of electron diffraction. Many
The information is basic and communicated in candidates gave a good qualitative explanation of how the pattern
an unstructured way. The information is would change. High achieving candidates clearly demonstrated
supported by limited evidence and the how the de Broglie wavelength λ was related to the potential
relationship to the evidence may not be clear. difference V by equating the energy eV to kinetic energy, then
using the definition of momentum and the de Broglie wavelength.
0 marks Some candidates confused speed v with potential difference V.
No response or no response worthy of credit. Many candidates gave a good qualitative explanation. Many
candidates did not state that the rings would become brighter.

AfL

Candidates should be able to describe how to use light gates. In


particular, candidates should be able to indicate the measurements
that are needed to determine speed and acceleration. Candidates
should state that the light gates should be connected to a timer or
data-logger.

AfL

When analysing experimental data, candidates should be able to


determine appropriate graphs to plot which will give a straight line
(if the given relationship is true). Candidates should also be able to
describe how unknown quantities may be determined using the
gradient and / or y-intercept.

Misconception

There is some confusion between the equations to use for


photoelectric effect and the equations to use when considering the
de Broglie wavelength. For the de Broglie wavelength, a common
misconception is to relate the energy to wavelength by the equation
for the energy of a photon,

Total 6

Allow e
F = BQv and F =mv2/r or B = mv/Qr (Any
C1
subject) Examiner’s Comments

This question on the circular motion of charged particles in a


2 C1
(B =) uniform magnetic field was answered with confidence and flair.
0
Most candidates got the correct answer of 0.23 T for the magnetic
flux density. A small number of candidates, mainly at the low-end,
were using incorrect equation for the magnetic force experienced
A1
B = 0.23 (T) by the ions. Some of these equations were hybrids of the electric
force experienced by charged particles.
Total 3

Use level of response annotations in RM Assessor


Indicative scientific points may include:

Description

• E = V/d
• Voltmeter used to measure p.d.
• Ruler used to measure separation d plates
• Plastic rod held in a stand
• Safety: Do not touch the terminals of high-voltage supply /
(positive) plate
• Vary d or V to change E
• θ determined for each value of E
Level 3 (5–6 marks)
• Experiment repeated for several values of E
Clear description and at least two from
• Sensible techniques used to determine θ, e.g. use a
control of variables
protractor
• Plot tanθ against E or tanθ against 1/d graph
There is a well-developed line of reasoning
• Straight line through origin (expected)
which is clear and logically structured. The
information presented is relevant and
substantiated.

Control of variables
Level 2 (3–4 marks)
Some description and at least one from
• Charge q kept constant (ignore method)
control of variables
• Method for keeping q constant (e.g. same V for the
(positive) plate, use separate constant voltage supply, etc)
There is a line of reasoning presented with
2 • Use the same foil / keep W the same
some structure. The information presented is B1× 6
1 • Keep d or V constant
in the most part relevant and supported by
• Foil in between plates (where the field is uniform)
some evidence.
• Draught-free room
• Do the experiment quickly to avoid leakage of charge
Level 1 (1–2 marks)
Any description but no control of variables
or
Examiner’s Comments
Limited mention of control of variable(s)
This was the second level of response (LoR) question in this paper.
This too was designed to assess practical skills of planning,
There is an attempt at a logical structure with
implementation, analysis and evaluation. The context of the
a line of reasoning. The information is in the
question was force experienced by a charged gold foil in the
most part relevant.
uniform electric field provided by two parallel plates. Candidates
were not expected to have seen such an experiment, but they were
0 marks
expected to use their knowledge of electric field strength and
No response or no response worthy of credit.
practical skills to present plausible approaches. On occasions, the
experimental methods showed poor appreciation of some basic
ideas. Some candidates were charging the foil using large current
that allegedly would cause heating issues for the foil, while others
decided to use Q = It, ammeter and a stopwatch to determine the
charge on the foil – failing to appreciate that the time constant will
be too small for such a technique. However, on this occasion, such
over ambitious techniques were generally overlooked by
examiners.

As with 16d, a holistic approach to marking was used, with marks


given according answers matching the descriptors for the various
levels. There is no one perfect answer for this question, examiners
were expecting an eclectic approach. The key things examiners
were looking for were:

- Methods for determining electric field strength E.

- Using the right instruments for the measurements.

- Plotting the correct graph to show the relationship given in the


question was valid.

- Correctly identifying the variables that were being controlled (kept


constant).

Access to higher level marks dependent on fully answering the


question – and this included the last statement about control of
variables. A significant number of candidates focused on the
description and analysis of the data, without ever addressing the
last sentence of the question. This question did discriminate well,
with L1, L2 and L3 marks roughly distributed in the ratio 1:3:4.

Total 6

distance = 6.0/cos 33.7 or 7.2 (cm)

OR Allow 34°

2
v = 3.00 × 108 / 1.50 or 2.00 × 108 (m s−1) C1 A1
2

t = 7.2 × 10−2/ 2.00 × 108 Allow 2 × 108

t = 3.6 × 10−10 (s)

Total 2

Level 3 (5–6 marks)


Clear explanation, some description and both Indicative scientific points may include:
resistance values correct
Explanation of trace
There is a well-developed line of reasoning
which is clear and logically structured. The • The ‘trace’ is because of light reaching and not reaching
information presented is relevant and LDR
substantiated. • Resistance of LDR varies with (intensity) of light
• In light
Level 2 (3–4 marks) o resistance of LDR is low
Some explanation, limited or no description o p.d. across LDR is low
2
and both resistance values correct o p.d across resistor (or V) is high
3 B1 ×
OR o current in circuit is large
6
Clear explanation, limited or no description • In darkness
and calculations mostly correct / one correct o resistance of LDR is high
calculation o p.d. across LDR is high
OR o p.d across resistor (or V) is low
Clear explanation, some description and no o current in circuit is small
calculations • Vmax = 4.0 V; Vmin = 2.0 V
• Potential divider equation quoted
There is a line of reasoning presented with • Substitution into potential divider equation
some structure. The information presented is
in the most-part relevant and supported by
some evidence.

Level 1 (1–2 marks) Description of determining frequency


Some explanation
OR • Time between pulses is constant because of constant
Some description speed
OR
Some calculation • Time between pulses = 0.4 (s)
• f = 1/T
There is an attempt at a logical structure with • frequency = 2.5 (Hz)
a line of reasoning. The information is in the
most part relevant.

0 marks Calculations
No response or no response worthy of credit
• Resistance of LDR is 150 (Ω) in light
• Resistance of LDR is 1500 (Ω) in darkness

Examiner’s Comments

This was one of the two LoR questions. It required understanding


of potential dividers, light-dependent resistor and rotation frequency
of a spinning plate.

Examiners expect varied responses, and two very dissimilar


answers can score comparable marks as long as the criteria set
out in the answers’ section of the marking scheme are met. Level 3
answers had the correct maximum and minimum resistance values
of the LDR, a decent description and explanation of the trace
shown in Fig. 17.2, and an outline of how the frequency of the
spinning plate was determined. As mentioned earlier, eclectic
answers are inevitable – verbose and concise answers can be at
Level 3.

In Level 2 answers there were generally missed opportunities. Half-


done calculation and descriptions either with some errors or lacking
in depth. Level 1 answers had some elements of calculations or
descriptions.

The two exemplars below, illustrate a Level 3 response and a Level


1 response.

Exemplar 7
This is a Level 3 response from a top-end candidate who scored 6
marks.

The description of the variation of the resistance of the LDR, the


circuit current and the potential difference across the fixed resistor
is perfect. The calculations of the LDR resistances are nicely
embedded into the general explanation. The calculation of the
frequency is all correct. This is a model answer for 6 marks.

Compare and contrast this with the Level 1 response below.

Exemplar 8

This is a Level 1 response from an E-grade candidate.

The description of the variation of the resistance of the LDR is


correct. However, there are no calculations of the resistance of the
LDR, as required in the question. Hence, a significant part of the
question has been omitted. According to the marking criteria, this
could only score Level 1. The examiner credited 2 marks for this
response.

Total 6

2 2.76 − 2.3 = 0.46 eV (so only 0.5% of allow 2.8 − 2.3 = 0.5 eV and 3.0 − 2.3 = 0.7 eV possible ecf from
i B1
4 energy/AW) (b)

allow ecf for wrong n

n = 2000 × 49 (= 5.24 × 108) C1


allow 34 m(A); answer is 1.7 × 10−5 A if 2000 omitted (2/3)

Q = ne = 8.4 × 10−11 (C) C1


Examiner’s Comments
ii
I = 8.4 × 10−11 / 2.5 × 10−9
Almost all of the candidates attempted this last section of the paper
with some success. In part (i) most candidates showed that they
average current = 0.034 (A) A1
understood the theory behind the question and subtracted the
appropriate two numbers from part (b) to gain the mark. Part (ii)
was done well with a significant number obtaining the correct
answer. Another large group forgot that 2000 electrons were
released and performed the calculation for only a single electron
being multiplied up and so forfeited the final mark.

Total 4

Allow (1/60 + 1/120)-1

Allow 2 marks for


C1
Resistance of parallel combination
= 40 (Ω)
2
a i Examiner’s Comment
5 C1
The success in this question hinged on understanding the effect of
two opposing e.m.f.s in a circuit and determining the total
I = 0.037 (A)
A1 resistance of the circuit. About a third of the candidates produced
well-structured and reasoned answer leading to the correct current
of 0.037 A. Most candidates picked up a mark for determining the
total resistance of the two parallel resistors
(40 Ω). The total e.m.f. in the circuit is
2.7 V and the total resistance is 73 Ω. Those using a total e.m.f. of
5.7 V ended up with the incorrect current of 0.078 A; two marks
were awarded for this answer. A small number of candidates tried
to calculate the current using either using 1.5 V or 4.2 V or 33 Ω.

Any two from:


ii
The current decreases up to 1.5 V
The current is zero at 1.5 V B1×2 Allow ‘current is zero when the e.m.f.s are the same’
The current changes direction / is negative
when < 1.5 V Examiner’s Comment
The current increases below 1.5 V Most of the answers here showed poor understanding of the circuit
in Fig. 18.1. Nothing could be awarded for vague answers such as
‘current decreases because I ∝ V or ‘e.m.f. decreases so current
decreases’. The current decreases as the e.m.f. of the supply
approaches
1.5 V, at 1.5 V the current is zero, the direction of the current
reverses and its magnitude increases when the e.m.f. of the supply
gets below 1.5 V. About a quarter of the candidates gave credible
answers.

Use level of response annotations in RM Assessor, e.g. L2 for 4


marks, L2ˆ for 3 marks, etc.
Indicative scientific points may include:

Description and estimation

• Correct circuit with (variable) resistor, ammeter and


voltmeter
• Correct symbols used for all the components
• R changed to get different values for P
Level 3 (5-6 marks)
• R = V / I (using ammeter and voltmeter readings) or R
Clear description including a reasonable
measured directly using an ohmmeter with the variable
estimate of r and clear limitations
resistor isolated from the circuit or R read directly from a
resistance box
There is a well-developed line of reasoning
• Power calculated using P = V2/R or
which is clear and logically structured. The
P = VI or P =I2R
information presented is relevant and
• The value of r is between 1.0 to 3.0 Ω
substantiated.
• A smooth curve drawn on Fig. 18.2 (to determine r)
• A better approximation from sketched graph or r is
Level 2 (3-4 marks)
between 1.5 and 2.7 Ω
Some description with an attempt to estimate
• Any attempt at using E = V +Ir, with or without the power
b r and some limitations
equation(s) to determine r - even if the value is incorrect

There is a line of reasoning presented with


B1×6
some structure. The information presented is
in the most part relevant and supported by
Limitations
some evidence.

• ‘More data’ required


Level 1 (1 -2 marks)
• Data point necessary at R = 2.0 Ω / More data (points)
Limited description
needed between 1 to 3 Ω
• No evidence of averaging / Error bars necessary (for both
There is an attempt at a logical structure with
P and R values)
a line of reasoning. The information is in the
most part relevant.

Examiner’s Comment
0 marks
This was a level of response (LoR) question had three ingredients -
No response or no response worthy of credit.
drawing a viable circuit diagram that would enable the data shown
in Fig.18.2 to be reproduced, using the figure to estimate the
internal resistance of the cell and finally outlining any limitations of
the data displayed in the figure. There is no one perfect model
answer for a level of response question. A variety of good answers
did score top marks. Most circuit diagrams were correct and well-
drawn. There was the occasional mistake with the circuit symbol for
a variable resistor; the thermistor symbol was a regular substitute.
Most candidates drew a smooth curve on Fig. 18.2 and used this to
estimate the internal resistance of the cell. Many also realised that
the data points showed no evidence of averaging or error bars and
that there were missing data points between 1.0 Ω and
3.0 Ω. Some candidates wanted ‘more data points spaced regularly
at interval of
0.5 Ω’, which was a sensible suggestion.
Some weaker candidates attempted to draw a straight line of best-
fit through the data points and then tried to determine the internal
resistance from the gradient. There was a good spread of marks
amongst the three levels.

Total 11

2
a C1
6

C1

Allow 3 marks for an answer of 2.0 × 10−20 J; value of h to 2 s.f. is


KEmax = 2.2 × 10−20 (J) A1
used.

b The rate of photons incident on M is doubled. B1

The rate of emission of photoelectrons /


B1
current is doubled.

Total 5

2
a C1
7

C1

Allow 2 marks for 2.4 × 10−12 (m); factor of 2 omitted in the first
λ = 1.2 × 10−12 (m) A1
line.

The intensity decreases with thickness of


b B1
muscle / bone.

The decrease is exponential. B1

The attenuation (absorption) coefficient μ of


B1
bone must be greater than the μ of muscle

because there is a significant decrease in the


B1
intensity from x = 3.0 cm to 4.0 cm.

Total 7

2
i 2 B1
8

ii Zero B1

ii
Δm = 236.053 − 235.840 = 0.213 u C1
i
ii ΔE = [0.213 × 1.661 × 10−27] × (3.0 × 108)2 =
C1
i 3.184 × 10−11 (J)

ii number of reactions per second = 109/3.184


C1
i × 10−11

ii number of reactions per second = 3.1 × 1019


A1
i (s−1)

Total 6

2 number decaying in 1st second = 2000 ×


a C1
9 0.10 = 200

number decaying in the 2nd second = 1800 ×


A1
0.10 = 180 number left = 1800 – 180 = 1620

Level 3 (5–6 marks)


Correct explanation
Correct determination of λ and half-life
Correct determination of uncertainty
(Maximum 6 marks)
Any point omitted or incorrect (5 marks).
There is a well-developed line of reasoning
which is clear and logically structured. The
information presented is relevant and Explanation
substantiated.
1. A = A0e−λt
Level 2 (3–4 marks) 2. lnA = lnA0 − λt
Mostly correct explanation 3. A graph of lnA against t will be a straight line with gradient (−) λ
Mostly correct determination of λ and half-life 4. half-life = ln2/λ
Some attempt of determining uncertainty
(Maximum 4 marks) Determination
Any point omitted or incorrect (3 marks). B1 x
b
There is a line of reasoning presented with 6 1. Line of best fit drawn
some structure. The information presented is 2. Gradient determined using a large triangle
in the most-part relevant and supported by 3. decay constant in the range 0.5 to 0.7 min−1
some evidence. 4. half-life in the range 1.0 to 1.4 min

Level 1 (1–2 marks) Uncertainty


Basic explanation
Some attempt to determine λ or half-life 1. Worst line of fit drawn
No attempt at uncertainty. 2. Correct attempt to determine uncertainty
(Maximum 2 marks)
The information is basic and communicated in
an unstructured way. The information is
supported by limited evidence and the
relationship to the evidence may not be clear.

0 marks
No response or no response worthy of credit.

Total 8

3
a C1
0
C1

wavelength = 2.4 × 10−12 (m) A1

centripetal force provided by BQv; hence


b C1

C1

B = 1.6 × 10−2(T) A1

Total 6

3
v ∝ f and since v ∝ ✓T, therefore f ∝ ✓T C1
1

frequency will increase by a factor of ✓1.14 =


A1
1.068, therefore increase = 6.8%

Total 2

3 switch on 5.0 = 12 × 250/(250 + R) or 7.0 =


M1 accept solution in 2 stages first calculating currents
2 12 × R/(250 + R)

giving R = 350 Ω which is 190°C A1 on I = 0.02 and R = 7/0.02

switch off 7.0 = 12 × 250/(250 + R) or 5.0 =


M1 off I = 0.028 and R = 5/0.028
12 × R/(250 + R)

allow ± 5°C in reading from graph N.B. zero marks for correct
temperatures quoted without some correct working / justification

giving R = 180 Ω which is 210°C


Examiner's Comments
or Switch on, R2 / R1 = 7/5 giving R2 - 250 ×
7/5 = 350 ohm A1
This question discriminated well with the top third scoring full
Switch off, R2 / R1 = 5/7 giving R2 = 250 ×
marks; a few candidates failed to indicate which was the ON and
5/7 = 179 ohm
which the OFF position reversing their answers. About half had
failed to grasp the clues from the earlier parts and tried to include
the value of current from b(ii); hence failing to score any marks.

Total 4

Note: This must be seen to gain a mark

Examiner's Comments

3 Most candidates scored a mark for dividing 4.8 × 10−3 by 1.6 ×


i number per second = 4.8 × 10−3/1.6 × 10−19 M1
3 10−19. A small number used a slightly longer route to show that the
number of electrons incident at the anode was 3.0 × 1016 s−1. They
calculated the total power dissipated using the potential difference
and current and then divided the power by the energy gained by
each electron (2.4 × 10−14 J).

i number per second = 3.0 × 1016 s−1

(incident power =) 150 × 103 × 4.8 × 10−3


ii or (incident power =) 3.0 × 1016 × 150 × 103 × C1 Note an incident power of 720 (W) scores this C1 mark
1.6 × 10−19
(P = mc[Δθ/Δt])
ii C1
0.99 × 720 = 0.0086 × 140 × [Δθ/Δt]

Note: Answer to 3 sf is 592 (°C s−1)


Allow: 2 marks for 598 (°C s−1) or 600 (°C s−1); 99% omitted
Allow: 2 marks for 1.97 × 10−14 (°C s−1); 3.0 × 1016 omitted

Examiner's Comments

The answers were generally easy to follow. The modal range for
ii rate of temperature increase = 590 (°C s−1) A1
this question was two to three marks. The best candidates gave
brief and flawless answers. Some candidates lost a mark for

• premature rounding of numbers within the calculation;


• failing to convert the mass into kg;
• subtracting 273 K from the correct answer.

• ii
(photon energy = maximum KE of electron)
i

ii E = 150 × 103 × 1.6 × 10−19 or E = 2.4 × 10−14


C1 Allow: E = 720/3.0 × 1016
i (J)

ii
(Allow any
i
subject)

Allow: 1 mark 8.3 × 10−10 (m); E = 2.4 × 10−16 (J) used

Examiner's Comments

The more able candidates performed well in this question. The


ii
wavelength = 8.3 × 10−12 (m) A1 energy of a single photon was equal to the maximum kinetic energy
i
of a single electron. The omission rate was noticeably high for
candidates in the lower quartile. The most common errors made
were using mc2, 1.6 × 10−19 J and 720 J as the energy of the
photon. A small number of candidates tried to use the de Broglie
equation to determine the shortest wavelength of the X-rays.

Total 6

3
i BQv = mv2/r M1 Allow e, q instead of Q
4

Note: r must be the subject of this equation

Examiner's Comments

i A1 The majority of the candidates did extremely well in this question.


The physics was clear and the manipulation of the equations was
easy to follow. It was rare to see an incorrect answer. Examiners
did not award any marks for just quoting the final equation r =
mv/BQ without any working.

ii (p = mv = BQr; )

ii KE α r2 C1 Allow full credit for correct alternative approaches


ii

Allow 16: 1

Examiner's Comments

This was a discriminating question, with many best candidates


ii ratio = 16 A1
gaining full marks. The answers showed careful reasoning and
good algebraic skills. The crucial step towards the correct answer
was realising that v ∝ r and hence kinetic energy ∝ r2. About half of
the candidates did not make good use of their equation from (b)(i)
and incorrectly arrived at answers such as 0.0625, √2, 2 and 4.

Total 4

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