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INDUSTRIAL & POWER PLANT DESIGN 6. In the absorption refrigeration system, it is the
ELEMENTS inlet part of the condenser, cooled by a
separate circuit of cooling water or strong
1. In Refrigeration, how do you call a heat aqua. It condenses a small part of the vapor
exchanger in which low-pressure refrigerant leaving the bubble column and returns it as a
boils or vaporizes, thus absorbing heat that liquid to the top of baffle plate. This ensures
was removed from the refrigerated area by the that the vapor going to the condenser is
cooling medium (water)? lowered in temperature and enriched in
a) Evaporator b) Chiller ammonia. What is this component?
c) Cooler d)Flooded Evaporator a) Reflux b) Analyzer
c) Rectifier d) Absorber
Answer: b) Chiller. In refrigeration application,
the appropriate term used for evaporator is Answer: c) Rectifier
chiller.
7. Which of the following is a scale of
2. It is a type of refrigeration system where only temperature in which the melting point of ice
part of the circulated refrigerant is evaporated, is taken as 0o and the boiling point of water is
with the remainder being separated from the 80o?
vapor and then recirculated. How do you call a) Reaumur Scale b) Carrene Scale
this system? c) Genetron Scale d) Frigorie Scale
a) Absorption refrigeration system
b) Vacuum refrigeration system Answer: a) Reaumur Temperature Scale
c) Vapor-compression refrigeration system
d) Flooded refrigeration system 8. What is the amount of heat energy required to
raise the temperature of one pound of water
Answer: d) Flooded refrigeration system one degree Fahrenheit. It is 1/180 of the heat
required to raise the temperature of one pound
3. How do you call the ice formation on a of water from 32 to 212 oF at constant
refrigeration system at the expansion device, atmospheric pressure of 14,696 psi absolute.
making the device inoperative? a) Specific heat b) British thermal unit
a) Ice formation b) Freeze-up c) Calorie d) Sensible heat
c) Freezing d) Pump-down
Answer: b) British thermal unit or Btu
Answer: b) Freeze-up
9. How do you call the mixtures or substances
4. In a lithium bromide solution absorption that are used in laboratory methods of
refrigeration system, which of the following is producing a drop in temperature? The most
the function of water? common example is the mixture of ice and
a) Refrigerant b) Absorbent salt.
c) Coolant d) Analyzer a) Calorific mixture b) Water-ammonia
mixture
Answer: a) Refrigerant. c) Frigorific mixture d) Hygroscopic mixture

5. In the absorption refrigeration system, is a Answer: c) Frigorific mixture

pressure vessel mounted above the generator
through which the vapor leaving the generator 10. It the maximum temperature of any gas or
pass. How do you call this component? vapor at which it may be condensed into a
a) Absorber b) Analyzer liquid; above this temperature, it is impossible
c) Rectifier d) Reflux to condense regardless of the pressure
applied. How do you call this temperature?
Answer: b) Analyzer or bubble column a) Saturation temperature

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b) Superheated temperature builds up on the water side of the tube. What
c) Critical temperature is this factor?
d) Dew point temperature a) Cooling factor b) Contact factor
c) By-pass factor d) Fouling factor
Answer: Critical temperature
Answer: d) Fouling Factor
11. Any refrigerant that exists as a liquid under
normal atmospheric pressure and temperature 15. It is a refrigeration system evaporator which is
must be vaporized in an evaporator under a arranged with a tank or a single drum
pressure below atmospheric. This is sometimes (accumulator) located above the coil so that
referred to as: the inside of the evaporator is full of
a) Halogenated refrigerant refrigerant. How do you call this type of
b) Freon refrigerant evaporator?
c) Vacuum refrigerant a) Flooded evaporator b) Dry evaporator
d) Halocarbon refrigerant c) Cooing coil evaporator d) Headered coil
evaporator
Answer: c) Vacuum refrigerant
Answer: a) Flooded evaporator
12. It is any one of a group of refrigerants that
have been developed since about 1925 to 16. What is the standardized term used by the
overcome the irritating or toxic effects of industry to describe any device that meters or
refrigerants, such as ammonia and sulfur regulates the flow of liquid refrigerant to an
dioxide and the high condensing pressures evaporator?
required with carbon dioxide. How do you call a) Refrigerant control b) Expansion valve
these refrigerants? c) Throttling valve d)Capillary tube
a) Halogenated refrigerants
b) Freon refrigerants Answer: b) Expansion Valve
c) Vacuum refrigerants
d) Halocarbon refrigerants 17. Define a “control valve”.
a) The value set on the scale of the control
Answer: a) Halogenated refrigerants system in order to obtain the required
condition
13. This refrigeration system component combines b) The quantity or condition of the controlled
the functions of a cooling tower and a medium
condenser. It consists of a casing enclosing a c) The flow or pressure of the steam (or fluid)
fan or blower section, water eliminators, being manipulated
refrigerant condensing coil, water pan, float d) The valve of the controlled condition
valve, and spray pump outside the casing. actually maintained under steady state
How do you call this component? conditions
a) Water-cooled condenser
b) Evaporative condenser Answer: d) The valve of the controlled
c) Atmospheric condenser condition actually under steady state conditions
d) Chiller
18. A pneumatic temperature control is used on
Answer: b) Evaporative condenser the steam supply to a non-storage heat
exchanger that heats water serving an office
14. It refers to a factor used in calculating the heating system. What is referred to as
over-all heat transfer through the tube walls of “manipulated variable”?
a condenser tube or other heating surface. It a) The water being heated
includes the sum of the heat-transfer rate of b) The air signal from the controller to the
the layer of dirt and foreign material that valve actuator
c) The steam supply

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d) The temperature of the air being heated c) They cannot be fitted outside
d) They can only be fitted on low pressure steam
Answer: c) Manipulated variable is referred to systems
as the steam supply
Answer: b) they operate by holding back
19. Which of the following valves is the one condensate until it has cooled
designed to allow a fluid to pass through in 25. What are the main considerations for steam
one direction? trap selection?
a) Globe valve b) Gate valve a) Price
c) Float valve d) Check valve b) Air venting, plant performance, flow capacity
and reliability
Answer: d) Check valve c) Connections
d) The trap must be the same size as the
20. How do you classify a solenoid valve? condensate drain line
a) A thermal valve b) A magnetic stop valve
c) A bellows valve d) A bi-metallic valve Answer: b) Air venting, plant performance,
flow capacity and reliability
Answer: b) A solenoid valve is classified as
magnetic stop valve 26. Can temperature controlled applications be
trapped?
21. What is a thermostat? a) Traps should not be fitted under any
a) A temperature-operated switch circumstances
b) A pressure-operated switch b) Only if there is no lift after the trap
c) A superheat-operated switch c) If the pressure on the trap is always higher
d) A back pressure-operated switch than backpressure
d) Pumps should always be fitted to remove
Answer: a) A temperature –operated switch condensate

22. Which of the following is the one of the main Answer: c) If the pressure on the trap is
purposes of refractory in a boiler furnace? always higher than back pressure
a) Help preheat the air for the furnace
b) Help preheat the feed water 27. Unless they are designed to flood, what is the
c) Protect economizer from excessive heat important when removing condensate from
d) Prevent excessive furnace heat losses heat exchangers?
a) Condensate is allowed to sub-cool before
Answer: d) Prevent excessive furnace heat reaching the trap
losses b) Condensate is removed at steam temperature
c) Condensate should back-up into the steam pipe
23. Balance pressure traps are what type of steam d) That the trap is fitted level with or above the
trap? heater outlet
a) Thermodynamic b)
Mechanical Answer: b) Condensate is removed at steam
c) Thermostatic d) They do not temperature
belong to any specific type of trap family
28. How is flash steam produced?
Answer: c) Thermostatic a) From condensate passing from high to low
pressure systems
24. What is a characteristic feature of b) From saturated steam
thermodynamic steam traps? c) From superheated steam
a) They pass condensate at steam temperature d) From steam mixed with high temperature air
b) They operate by holding back condensate until
it has cooled

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Answer: a) From condensate passing from Answer: b) Low pressure side
high to low pressure systems
34. Why is a boiler feed tank heated to
29. Are steam traps required to pass air? approximately 85 oC?
a) Steam traps should not pass air under any a) To reduce the energy required to raise steam
circumstances b) To reduce the content of total dissolved solids
b) Only when the trap has passed all the in the water supplied to the boiler
condensate c) To reduce the gas content of the water
c) Air should be removed as soon as it reaches the d) To reduce the content of suspended solids in
trap the water
d) Only on high pressure steam system
Answer: c) To reduce the gas content of the
Answer: c) Air should be removed as soon as water
it reaches the trap
35. What is used to dry air?
30. How do you call a system employing open a) A separator b) A strainer
sprinklers attached to a piping system c) A steam trap d) A tee piece
connected to a water supply through which is
opened by the operation of a fire detection Answer: a) A separator
system installed in the same areas as the
sprinklers? 36. What causes water hammer in the boiler?
a) Mechanical sprinkler b) Automatic system a) Suspended water droplets
c) Wet pipe system d) Deluge system b) An air/water mixture
c) Strainers fitted on their sides
Answer: d) Deluge system d) Slugs of water in the steam

31. What is probably the first consideration when Answer: d) Slugs of water in the steam
selecting a control system?
a) What degree of accuracy is required? 37. How does air enter a steam system?
b) Is the control for heating or cooling? a) Through joints, on shut down of the steam
c) Is a two or three port valve required? system
d) In the event of power failure, must the valve b) With make-up water to the boiler feedtank
fail-open or fail-closed? c) With condensate entering the boiler feedtank
d) Both a, b, & c
Answer: d) In the event of power failure, must
the valve fail-open or fail-closed? Answer: d) All of the items stated from a to c

32. Which of the following ranges of humidity ratio 38. Why should strainers installed on steam lines
is used for comfort air conditioning? be fitted on their sides?
a) 50 to 55 % b) 55 to 60 % a) To prevent the build-up of water in the
c) 60 to 65 % d) 45 to 50 % strainer body
b) To trap more dirt
Answer: b) RH = 55 % to 60 % c) To reduce the frequency of cleaning
d) To provide maximum screening area for the
33. When adding the refrigerant in a refrigeration steam
system, it shall be charge into which of the
following parts of the system? Answer: a) To prevent the build-up of water in
a) High pressure side b) Low the strainer body
pressure side
c) Low and high pressure sided) 39. What is the result of using a heat exchanger
Compressor discharge line rating to calculate its steam consumption?

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a) The true connected heat load may be different
from the rated figure. Answer: d) It dilutes the tank content
b) The rating does not take account of the
temperature of the secondary medium 43. The existing 2000 TR chiller at a large hospital,
c) The rating is based on a steam pressure of 1.0 where you are assigned as Engineer, must be
bar replaced. Which of the following types most
d) The rating does not allow for condensate likely to be installed?
forming in the heat exchanger a) Screw chiller b) Scroll Chiller
c) Reciprocating chiller d) Centrifugal chiller
Answer: a) The true connected heat load may
be different from the rated figure Answer: d) Centrifugal chiller

40. A heat exchanger has a design rating based on 44. Refrigeration condensers are rated based upon
a working pressure of 7 bar g. What would be their ability to reject the total heat that comes
the effect of supplying the exchanger with from which of the following?
steam at 3 bar g? a) Compressor work and net refrigeration effect
a) The heat output would be greater because the b) Superheating
enthalpy of evaporation at 3 bar g is higher than c) Subcooling
at 7 bar g. d) Compressor work
b) The heat output would be greater because
steam at 3 bar g has a greater volume than steam Answer: a) Compressor Work and net
at 7 bar g. refrigeration effect
c) Less weight of steam would be required
because steam at 3 bar g has a higher enthalpy of 45. A published ‘U’ value from a steam coil to a
evaporation than 7 bar g. water based solution is given as 550 – 1300
d) The output would be reduced because the W/m2-oC. When would be figure near the lower
difference in temperature between the steam and end of the range be used?
product is reduced. a) When the steam is known to be of good quality
b) For short coils
Answer: d) c) For small diameter coils
d) When scaling or fouling of the coil takes place
41. For any particular tank temperature how does
the heat loss from the lid of a closed tank Answer: d) When scaling or fouling of the coil
compare with that of bottom? takes place
a) They are approximately double those from the
bottom 46. Steam coils should enter and leave the top of a
b) Losses from the top are approximately tank when:
double those from the bottom a) The tank contains a corrosive solution
c) Losses from the bottom are b) When agitation of the tank solution is required
approximately double those from the top c) When steam locking the trap draining a base
d) Losses from the top are approximately 4 coil could occur
times those from the bottom d) When good heat distribution is required

Answer: b) Losses from the top are Answer: a) The tank contains a corrosive
approximately double those from the bottom solution
47. What range of ‘U’ values would you apply for
42. What is the disadvantage of heating a tank by mild steel jacket around a stainless steel tank
direct steam injection? containing a water and detergent solution?
a) It agitates the solution a) 285 – 480 b) 450 – 1140
b) Some of the enthalpy of water is used c) 850 – 1700 d) 285 – 850
c) Steam traps are not required
d) It dilutes the tank content Answer: b) 450 to 1140 kJ/kg-oK

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it often has an individual control system.
48. A tank is to be heated by direct steam What is this?
injection. How will the quantity of heat a) Zone b) Room
required compare with steam coil heating? c) Space d) Plenum
a) It depends on the temperature of the water
being heated Answer: b) Room
b) More heat will be required
c) The same amount of heat will be required 54. It represents the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which
d) Less heat will be required heat enters a conditioned space from an
external source or is released to the space
Answer: c) The same amount of heat will be from an internal source during a given time
reuired interval.
a) Space heat gain b) Space cooling load
49. Which of the following parameters has the c) Space heating load d) Space heat extraction
greatest limiting effect on the thermal rate
performance of an open, evaporative cooling
tower? Answer: a) Space heat gain
a) Wet-Bulb temperature b) Dry-Bulb temperature
c) Range d) Approach 55. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat
must be removed from a conditioned space so
Answer: a) Wet-bulb temperature as to maintain a constant temperature and
acceptable relative humidity. Its sensible load
50. Air enters a cooling tower at 10 oC DB and 9.5 component is equal to the sum of the
o
C WB temperature. It leaves the tower convective heat transfer from the surfaces of
saturated at 21 oC. Which condition is a likely the building envelope, furnishings, occupants,
outcome of this? appliances, and equipment. How do you call
a) Sublimation b) Condensation this?
c) Adsorption d) Fog a) Space heat gain b) Space cooling
load
Answer: d) Fog c) Space heating load d) Space heat extraction
rate
51. It is a space, or several rooms, or units of
space having some sort of coincident loads or Answer: b) Space cooling load
similar operating characteristics. It may or
may not be an enclosed space, or it may 56. A process that the body uses to convert
consist of many partitioned rooms. How do you energy in food into heat and work, or it is the
call this? process that determines the rate at which
a) Zone b) Room energy is converted from chemical to thermal
c) Space d) Plenum form within the body.
a) Metabolism b) Eating
Answer: a) Zone c) Body food processing d) Blood circulation

52. In air conditioning, it indicates either a volume Answer: a) Metabolism

or a site without a partition or a partitioned
room or group of rooms. How do you call this? 57. What is a body insulation that is usually
a) Zone b) Room described as a single equivalent uniform layer
c) Space d) Plenum over the whole body?
a) Skin b) Blood
Answer: c) Space c) Clothing d) Water

53. It is an enclosed or partitioned space that is Answer: c) Clothing

usually treated as a single load. If conditioned,

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58. What is the insulating value of clothing? a) Wet materials b) Hygroscopic materials
a) Btu unit b) Clo units c) Gross materials d) Bone-dry-weight material
c) Calorie unit d) Frigorie Unit
Answer: b) Hygroscopic material
Answer: b) Clo units
64. The hygroscopic moisture content of a
59. Which of the following is the value of clo units? substance expressed as a percentage of the
o
F⋅ft 2⋅Hr bone-dry-weight of the material.
1 clo=0 .880 a) Moisture content b) Regain
a) Btu b) c) Bone-dry-weight d) Gross weight
o 2
F⋅m
1 clo=100 Answer: b) Regain
kW
o 2
F⋅m 65. What is the advantage of a pressurized
1 clo=0 .275
c) W d) deaerator over an atmospheric deaerator?
o a) A boiler feed tank is no longer required
F⋅m2
1 clo=190 b) Less over all energy will be required to
kW produce the steam
o
F⋅ft 2⋅Hr c) It can be fitted at ground level
1 clo=0 .880 d) It removes more oxygen
Answer: a) Btu
Answer: d) It removes more oxygen
60. What is the basic index used to describe the
radiant conditions in a space, it is the mean
66. In proximate analysis, the coal analysis is
temperature of individual; exposed surfaces in
consisting of moisture content, fixed carbon,
the environment?
ash, and which of the following?
a) Index temperature
a) Sulfur b) Hydrogen
b) Mean radiant temperature
c) Nitrogen d) Volatile matter
c) Space temperature
d) Dry bulb temperature
Answer: d) Volatile matter
Answer: b) Mean Radiant Temperature
67. How do you call the heating value of the fuel if
the water in the products of combustion is in
61. In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal
the liquid state?
pump, which of the following is true?
a) Higher heating value b) Lower heating value
a) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH
c) Proximate heating value d) Gravimetric heating
b) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH
value
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH
d) Installation NPSH should be negative
Answer: a) Higher heating value
Answer: a) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH
68. What is the rate, in Btu/h or W, at which heat
must be added to the conditioned space to
62. What always accompanies an isentropic
maintain a constant temperature and
expansion of steam?
sometimes a specified relative humidity?
a) An increase in entropy b) An increase in
a) Space heat gain b) Space cooling load
enthalpy
c) Space heating load d) Space heat extraction
c) A decrease in entropy d) A decrease in enthalpy
rate
Answer: d) A decrease in enthalpy
Answer: c) Space heating load
63. Those substance that are particularly variable
69. Space heat extraction rate Qex, Btu /h (W), is
in the moisture content that they can possess
the rate at which heat is actually removed
at different times.

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from the conditioned space by the air system. c) Psychrometer d) Barometer
Its sensible heat rate component is equal to
the sensible cooling load only when the space Answer: b) Hygrometer
air temperature remains constant.
a) Space heat gain b) Space cooling load 74. It is a device designed to control the flow of
c) Space heating load d) Space heat extraction steam, water, gas, or other fluids. It can be
rate considered a variable orifice positioned by an
actuator in response to impulses or signals
Answer: d) Space heat extraction rate from the controller. It may be equipped with
either a throttling plug, V-port, or rotating ball
70. It is the rate, in Btu/h or W, of heat transfer at specially designed to provide a desired flow
the coil. Its cooling load component is the rate characteristic. How do you call this device.
at which heat is removed by the chilled water a) Automatic Valve b) Automatic flow meter
flowing through the coil or is absorbed by the c) Thermostat d) Pyrometer
refrigerant inside the coil. What do you call
this? Answer: a) Automatic Valve
a) Coil load b) Heating coil load
c) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load 75. Assume that you are checking the water level
in a boiler which is on the line in a power
Answer: a) Coil load plant. Upon opening the gage cocks, you
determine that the water level was above the
71. It is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat is top gage cock. Of the following actions, the
added to the conditioned air from the hot best one to take first in this situation would be
water, steam, or electric heating elements to:
inside the coil. a) Shut-off the fuel and air supply
a) Coil load b) Heating coil load b) Surface-blow the boiler
c) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load c) Close the steam outlet valve from the boiler
d) Increase the speed of the feed water
Answer: b) Heating Coil Load
Answer: c) Close the steam outlet valve from
72. What is the rate, in Btu/hr or W, at which heat the boiler
is absorbed by the refrigerant at the
evaporator. For central hydronic systems, it is 76. It is a component in a hydro plant that absorbs
the sum of the coil load plus the chilled water water hammer during load fluctuations and
piping heat gain, pump power heat gain, and serves as an auxiliary reservoir during high
storage tank heat gain. For most water load demands. What is this component?
systems in commercial buildings, the water a) Spillway b) Dam c) Surge tank d) penstock
piping and pump power heat gain is only about
5 to 10 percent of the coil load. In an air Answer: c) Surge Tank
conditioning system using DX coil(s), it is
equal to the DX coil load. 77. It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty of
a) Coil load b) Heating coil load hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses when
c) Refrigerating load d) Cooling load burned. This coal is ideal for forming
carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What
Answer: c) Refrigerating load do you call this coal?
a) Coking or coking coal b) Free burning coal
73. It is a humidity sensor used to measure c) Peat coal d) Lignite coal
relative humidity, dew point, or absolute
humidity of ambient or moving air. This device Answer: a) Coking or coking coal
could be mechanical or electronic. How do you
call this? 78. It is the temperature at which the oil vapors
a) Hydrometer b) Hygrometer will continue to burn when ignited.

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a) Fire point b) Flash point a) Cloud point b) Pour point
c) Ignition temperature d) Creep c) Creep point d) Flash point
temperature
Answer: b) Pour point
Answer: a) Fire point
84. It is a term indicating the measure of acidic
79. It is the temperature to which oil has to be components in oils; and was original intent to
heated until sufficient flammable vapor is indicate the degree of refining in new oils, and
driven off to flash when brought into to follow the development of oxidation in
momentary contact with a flame. How do you service, with its effects on deposit formation
call this temperature? and corrosion. What is this?
a) Fire point b) Flash point a) Neutralization number b) Total base number
c) Ignition temperature d) Creep c) Total acid number d) Neutralization
temperature number and total acid number

Answer: b) Flash point Answer: d) Neutralization number and total

acid number
80. The color of a lubricating oil is obtained by
reference to transmitted light; the color by 85. How do you call a measure of alkaline
reflected light is referred to as: components in oils, especially those additives
a) Bloom b) Reflection used in engine oils to neutralize acids formed
c) Deflection d) Residue during fuel combustion?
a) Neutralization number b) Total base number
Answer: a) Bloom c) Total acid number d) Neutralization
number and total acid number
81. How do you call the material left after heating
an oil under specified conditions at high Answer: b) Total base number
temperature, and is useful as a quality control
tool in the refining of viscous oils, particularly 86. These are materials with low coefficients of
residual oils? friction compared to metals, and they are used
a) Ash b) Color to reduce friction and wear in a variety of
c) Carbon residue d) Coke applications. There are a large number of such
materials, and they include graphite,
Answer: c) Carbon residue molybdenum disulfide, polytetrafluoroethylene,
talc, graphite fluoride, polymers, and certain
82. Petroleum oils, when cooled, may become metal salts. How do you call these materials?
plastic solids, either from wax formation or a) Greases b) Liquid lubricants
from the fluid congealing. With some oils, the c) Solid lubricants d) Powder lubricants
initial wax crystal formation becomes visible at
temperatures slightly above the solidification Answer: c) Solid lubricants
point. When that temperature is reached at
specific test conditions, it is known as the 87. These are engine oil additives used to help
a) Cloud point b) Pour point keep the engine clean by solubilizing and
c) Creep point d) Flash point dispersing sludge, soot, and deposit
precursors. How do you call these oil
Answer: a) Cloud point additives?
a) Detergents b) Dispersants
83. It is the temperature at which cooled oil will c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Corrosion
just flow under specific test conditions; and it inhibitors
indicates the lowest temperature at which a
lubricant can readily flow from its container. Answer: b) Dispersants
How do you call this temperature?

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88. How do you call these engine oil additives used c) Oxidation inhibitors
to prevent attack on sensitive bearing metals? d) Rust inhibitors
a) Detergents b) Dispersants
c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Corrosion Answer: a) Anti-wear additives
inhibitors
94. These are engine oil additives used to allow air
Answer: d) Corrosion inhibitors to break away easily from the oil.
a) Anti-wear additives
89. These are engine oil additives used to prevent b) Defoamants
or reduce deposits and corrosion by c) Oxidation inhibitors
neutralizing combustion by-product acids. d) Rust inhibitors
What are these additives?
a) Detergents b) Dispersants Answer: b) Defoamants
c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Corrosion
inhibitors 95. These engine oil additives are used to improve
fuel efficiency by reducing friction at rubbing
Answer: a) Detergents surfaces. How do you call these oil additives?
a) Anti-wear additives b) Friction modifiers
90. What is the molecular attraction of layers of an c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors
unlike matters?
a) Adhesion b) Cohesion Answer: b) Friction modifiers
c) Advection d) Convection
96. How do you call an opening where hot source
Answer: a) Adhesion of energy from the earth is harnessed?
a) Crater b) Hot water source
91. How do you call these engine oil additives used c) Fumarole d) Volcano opening
to prevent attack on iron and steel surfaces by
condensed moisture and acidic corrosion Answer: c) Fumarole
products, aggravated by low-temperature
stop-and-go operation? 97. At standard atmospheric conditions, what is
a) Detergents b) Dispersants the approximate speed of sound?
c) Oxidation inhibitors d) Rust inhibitors a) 336 m/s b) 363 m/s
c) 633 m/s d) 346 m/s
Answer: d) Rust inhibitors
Answer: a) 336 m/s
92. How do you call these engine oil additives used
to help enable adequate low-temperature flow, 98. The speed of sound is also called as:
along with sufficient viscosity at high a) Sound velocity b) Acoustic velocity
temperatures? c) Subsonic velocity d) Critical velocity
a) Viscosity-index improvers
b) Pour point dispersants Answer: b) Acoustic velocity
c) Oxidation inhibitors
d) Rust inhibitors 99. This is the velocity at which a small pressure
wave moves through a fluid. How do you call
Answer: a) Viscosity-index improvers this velocity?
a) Sonic velocity b) Subsonic velocity
93. These oil additives are used to minimize wear c) Supersonic velocity d) Hypersonic velocity
under boundary lubrication conditions, such as
cam and lifter, and cylinder-wall and piston- Answer: a) Sonic Velocity
ring surfaces.
a) Anti-wear additives 100. Which of the following is the speed of
b) Pour point dispersants light?

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a) 2.998 x 108 m/s b) 2.998 x 109 Answer: c) Miniature boiler
c) 2.998 x 1010 m/s d) 2.998 x 107 m/s
106. It is a closed vessel in which steam or
Answer: a) 2.998 x 108 m/s other vapor (to be used externally to itself) is
generated by the direct application of heat
101. What can you say about entropy in the used for power generation. How do you call
universe? this boiler?
a) Entropy is always increasing a) Power boiler b) Portable boiler
b) Entropy is decreasing c) Oil-fired boiler d) Miniature boiler
c) Entropy will zero at the end of time
d) Entropy is stagnating Answer: a) Power boiler

Answer: a) Entropy is always increasing 107. It is a closed vessel intended for use in
heating water of for application of heat to
102. Which of the following is the chemical generate steam or other vapor to be used
formula of butane? externally from it. What do you call this
a) C2H5 b) C10H16 c) C4H10 d) C3H6 pressure vessel?
a) Boiler or steam generator
Answer: c) C4H10 b) Fired pressure vessel
c) Unfired pressure vessel
103. If the sensible heat ratio is 0.75, what d) Pressurized tank
does it mean?
a) 75 % latent heat and 25 % sensible heat Answer: a) Boiler or steam generator
b) 75 % sensible heat and 25 % latent heat
c) 25 % latent and sensible heat and 75 % 108. What do you call a vessel in which
latent heat pressure is obtained from external sources, or
d) 75 % sensible and latent heat and 25 % from an indirect application of heat?
sensible heat a) Boiler or steam generator
b) Fired pressure vessel
Answer: b) 75 % sensible heat and 25 % c) Unfired pressure vessel
latent heat d) Pressurized tank

104. The hardness of ground water required as Answer: c) Unfired pressure vessel
feed water for a boiler is 0 – 10 ppm (part per
million), which of the following is the range of 109. It is any boiler or unfired pressure vessel
alkalinity requirement? constructed, installed, placed in operation but
a) pH 9 to pH 10 b) pH 6 to pH 10 subject to annual inspection. What do you call
c) pH 10 to pH 11 d) pH 8 to pH 10 this?
a) Miniature boiler b) Existing installation
Answer: c) pH 10 to pH 11 c) New boiler d) Portable boiler

105. As used in the Revised PSME Code for Answer: b) Existing installation
Boilers and Pressure Vessels, it is any boiler
which does not exceed any of the following 110. It is a boiler that has been inspected and
limits: 405 mm inside diameter, 1065 mm declared unsafe to operate or disqualified,
overall length of outside to outside heats at marked and marked indicating its rejection.
center, 1.85 m2 of water heating surface, and How do you call this boiler?
7.03 kg/cm2 maximum allowable working a) Second hand boiler b) Reinstalled boiler
pressure. What is this boiler? c) Condemned boiler d) Unfired boiler
a) Power boiler b) Portable boiler
c) Miniature boiler d) Locomotive boiler Answer: c) Condemned boiler

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111. When new boilers are installed in either d) The condensate orifice can be the same size for
existing or new buildings, a minimum height of all pressure gauges
at least ______ shall be provided between top Answer: c) It significantly increases the cold
of the boiler proper and ceiling. start-up capacity of the trap
a) 1050 mm b) 2130 mm
c) 1250 mm d) 2050 mm 116. In a mechanical steam trap, what
advantage does a bucket trap have over a
Answer: b) 2130 mm float type?
a) It is able to withstand water hammer
112. For power boilers, when the tensile b) It can be used on higher pressure
strength of steel is not known, it shall be taken c) It can discharge air freely
as 379 MPa and which of the following for the d) It cannot lose its water seal
wrought iron?
a) 379 N/mm2 b) 310 MPa Answer: b) it can be used on higher pressure
c) 450 MPa d) 521 N/mm2
117. A heat exchanger is designed to operate
Answer: b) 310 MPa without waterlogging of the steam space. What
is the usual choice of trap for its drainage?
113. Name one characteristic feature of a) Thermostatic trap b) Inverted bucket trap
mechanical steam traps. c) Thermodynamic trap d) Float trap with
a) They pass condensate at steam temperature thermostatic air vent
b) They operate by sensing condensate
temperature Answer: d) Float trap with thermostatic air
c) They can be fitted into any position vent
d) They are not affected by increasing back
pressure 118. Which is the best trap to use when steam
locking can occur?
Answer: b) They pass condensate steam a) An inverted bucket trap with an internal check
temperature valve mechanism
b) A balanced pressure steam trap
114. In a mechanical steam trap, why is a float c) A float trap with automatic air vent
trap better at venting air than an inverted d) A float trap with steam lock release mechanism
bucket trap?
a) A float can quickly adjust to the presence of Answer: b) A balanced pressure steam trap
air
b) A float is fitted with an automatic air vent 119. What is a common cause of waterhammer
c) A float trap does not vent air better than in drying coils?
bucket trap a) Wet steam supplied to the coil
d) The air vent orifice is adjustable on a float b) Too low a steam pressure onto the coil
trap c) Condensate has to lift after the steam trap
d) The coil falling in the direction of steam flow
Answer: b) A float fitted with automatic air
vent Answer: c) Condensate has to lift after the
steam trap
115. In a mechanical steam trap, what added
benefit does the automatic air vent offer to a 120. Which of the following statements is true?
float trap? a) Bimetallic steam traps are an ideal choice for
a) It stops the trap from freezing in cold weather rotating cylinders
b) The trap can be use on larger backpressures b) Rotating cylinders can not suffer from steam
c) It significantly increases the cold start-up locking
capacity of the trap c) Strainers cannot be fitted to float traps which
have a steam lock release

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d) Air vents around the thermodynamic and a) 1 atmosphere b) 1 Bar
inverted bucket traps can considerably improve c) 100 kPa d) 2 gage pressure
start-up times
Answer: d) Answer: b) 1 bar

121. Name the principle cause of waterhammer? 127. What do you call a refrigeration system in
a) Water particles suspended in steam which the refrigerant gas evolved in the
b) Water allowed to build up in pipes evaporator is taken up in an absorber and
c) Water droplets carried along the insides of pipes released in a generator upon the application of
d) Wet steam passing through steam traps heat?
a) Absorption refrigeration system ]
Answer: b) Water allowed to build up in pipes b) Cascade refrigeration system
c) Flooded refrigeration system
122. What effect does steam locking have on d) Steam jet refrigeration system
rotating machinery?
a) None at all Answer: a) Absorption refrigeration system
b) It reduces the drying rate of drying cylinders
c) It increases the drying rate of drying cylinders 128. What do you call a shut-off valve other
d) It causes the steam trap to air bind than a valve for controlling the flow of
refrigerant in a refrigeration system?
Answer: b) It reduces the drying rate of drying a) Fusible valve b) Stop valve
cylinders c) Check valve d) Relief valve

123. What do you call a boiler of which both the Answer: b) Stop valve
location and ownership have been changed
after primary use? 129. What is a device, used in refrigeration
a) Second hand boiler b) Surplus boiler system, having a predetermined temperature
c) Miniature boiler d) Reinstalled boiler fusible member for the relief of pressures?
a) Fusible valve b) Stop valve
Answer: a) Second hand boiler c) Check valve d) Relief valve

124. It is a boiler removed from its original Answer: a) Fusible valve

setting and re-erected at the same location or
erected at a location without change of 130. It is a measure of the lack of potential or
ownership. How do you call this boiler? quality of energy; and once that energy has
a) Second hand boiler b) Surplus boiler been exchanged or converted, it cannot revert
c) Miniature boiler d) Reinstalled boiler back to a higher level. What is this?
a) Specific heat b) Entropy
Answer: d) Reinstalled boiler c) Internal energy d) Molecular energy

125. Each miniature boiler shall be equipped Answer: b) Entropy

with which of the following for the
determination of water level? 131. What do you call the method used to
a) Safety valve b) Fusible plug evaluate all welds performed on pressure parts
c) Water gage glass d) Pressure gages of boiler tube materials?
a) Radiographic test b) Hydrostatic test
Answer: c) Water gage glass c) Vacuum test d) Orsat analysis

126. The maximum allowable working pressure Answer: a) Radiographic test

of a non-code steel or wrought iron heating
boiler of welded construction shall not exceed 132. It is a boiler testing method that is used to
to which of the following pressures? verify the microstructure of the boiler tubes

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using optical microscopes. How do you call this 138. What is true about steam as it condenses?
method? a) It does so at constant entropy and
a) Tube sampling b) Metallurgic replication temperature
c) Radiographic testing d) Optical testing b) It does so at constant enthalpy and
reducing temperature
Answer: b) metallurgic replication c) Both enthalpy and entropy reduce and
temperature remains constant
133. Which of the following is true regarding the d) Both enthalpy and entropy increase
relation of rk and re for spark-ignition engine,
where rk = compression ratio while re = Answer: c) Both enthalpy and entropy reduce
expansion ratio? and temperature remains constant
a) rk > re b) rk < re
c) rk = re d) re is not considered in the spark- 139. It is an increase in fluid pressure in a long
ignition engine pipe caused by a sudden velocity decrease,
where the sudden decrease in velocity is
Answer: c) rk = re caused by a valve closing.
a) Aero dynamics b) Water hammer
134. It is the generic term given to a family of c) Terminal velocity d) Drag
solid fuels with high carbon content. How do
you call this? Answer: b) Water hammer
a) Solid fuel b) Coal
c) Anthracite d) Bituminous 140. It is an upward force that is exerted on an
object (like flat plate, airfoil, rotating cylinder,
Answer: Coal etc.) as the object passes through a fluid.
What do you call this?
135. It is a boiler fuel created from the residue a) Drag b) Lift
produced from crude petroleum after it has c) Aero horsepower d) Terminal velocity
been distilled to produce lighter oils like
gasoline, paraffin, kerosene, diesel or gas oil. Answer: b) Lift
What is this fuel?
a) Oil b) Kerosene 141. What is a frictional force that acts parallel
c) Coke d) Peat but opposite to the direction of motion of fluid?
a) Drag b) Lift
Answer: a) Oil c) Aero horsepower d) Terminal velocity

136. What do you call a form of boiler fuel that Answer: a) Drag
is easy to burn, with very little excess air?
a) Coal b) Oil 142. It is a term used by automobile
c) Gas d) Bunker manufacturers to designate the power required
to move a car horizontally at 50 mi/hr against
Answer: c) Gas the drag force. What is this?
a) Mechanical horsepower b) Aero horsepower
137. The second law of thermodynamics says c) Fuel power d) Fluid power
that whenever energy is exchanged or
converted from one form to another, the Answer: b) Aero Horsepower
potential for energy to do work will be
_________. 143. A manufacturer claims that it has a COP of
a) Decreased b) Increased 2.0 when cooling a food at 5 oC using ambient
c) Zero d) Stagnant air at 30 oC as a heat sink. Is the claim of the
manufacturer valid?
Answer: a) Decreased a) Yes b) No c) Probably d) It needs
verification

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149. Generally steam turbines in power station
Answer: a) Yes, because the claimed COP of operate at which of the following speeds?
the manufacturer is lower than the COP of a) 3000 rpm b) 1000 rpm
Carnot Refrigeration c) 4000 rpm d) 500 rpm

144. What can you say about the velocity of Answer: c) 4000 rpm
fluid at the center of the pipe section?
a) Maximum b) Minimum 150. Tidal power is the power generated from
c) Average d) Zero which of the following?
a) Waves of the ocean
Answer: Maximum, the velocity of the flowing b) Thermal energy of ocean water
fluid is maximum at the pipe center c) Raw sea water
d) Rise and fall of tides
145. Continuity equation is applicable to which
of the following? Answer: d) Rise and fall of tides
a) Viscous and unviscous fluids
b) Compressibility fluids 151. Which of the following is an expression or
c) Conservation of mass equivalent of horsepower per ton of
d) Steady and unsteady flows refrigeration?
4.715 COP
Answer: c) Conservation of mass a) COP b) 4.715
1
146. Hygrometer is an instrument used to
determine of which of the following? c) COP x 4.715 d) 4.715 x COP
a) Specific gravity of fluids Answer: a) 4.715 divided by the COP
b) Specific gravity of gases
c) Specific gravity of liquids
d) Specific gravity of solids 152. It is the ratio of the amount of heat taken
up by a substance to the temperature at which
Answer: a) Specific gravity of fluids the substance exists. How do you call this?
a) Internal energy b) Flow energy
147. At critical point of a pure substance, what c) Enthalpy d) Entropy
is the value of latent heat?
a) Maximum b) Minimum Answer: d) Entropy
c) Zero d) Below zero
153. Which of the following is a type of water
Answer: c) Zero, at the critical point hg – hf = turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on
0 the blades or buckets and due to the impulse
of water the turbine starts moving?
a) Reaction turbine b) Steam turbine
148. Which of the following is a function of a c) Francis turbine d) Pelton wheel
steam nozzle?
a) Converts kinetic energy into heat energy Answer: d) Pelton Wheel
b) Changes internal energy into kinetic energy
c) Converts potential energy into heat energy 154. What do you call a fan in which the fluid is
d) Changes enthalpic energy into kinetic accelerated parallel to the fan axis?
energy a) Axial centrifugal fan b) Mixed flow
centrifugal fan
Answer: d) Changes in enthalpic energy is c) Radial centrifugal fan d) Francis type fan
converted into changes in kinetic energy
Answer: a) Axial centrifugal fan

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155. It represents the loss due to mechanical b) Once a day under full load
friction of the moving parts of the engine, and c) When the chemical concentration is greatest
expressed as horsepower. How do you call d) Once a shift
this?
a) Indicated Hp b) Brake Hp Answer c) When the chemical concentration is
c) Combined Hp d) Friction Hp greatest

Answer: d) Friction Hp 161. In performing a hydrostatic test on an

existing power boiler, the required test
156. How do you call a device or engine which pressure must be controlled so that it is not
continually and indefinitely discharged more exceeded by more than:
energy than it receives? a) 2% b) 4% c) 6% d) 8%
a) Carnot engine b) Generating machine
c) Stirling engine d) Perpetual motion Answer: a) 2%
machine
162. The first step to take in planning a
Answer: d) Perpetual motion machine preventive maintenance program is to:
a) Replace all electric wiring
157. In plotting the bHp versus speed in a wide b) Make an equipment inventory
open throttle test for a spark ignition engine, c) Replace all pump seals
the bHp curve: d) Repair all equipment which is not in operation
a) is a Straight line
b) tends to concave downward Answer: b) Make an equipment inventory
c) has no characteristic shape
d) tends to concave upward 163. Which of the following is the most
important consideration in a fire prevention
Answer: b) tends to concave downward program?
a) Train the staff to place flammable in fireproof
158. Upon entering the boiler room, you find the containers
water out of the glass, the safety valve b) Know how to attack fires regardless of size
blowing off strong, and a fire under the boiler. c) See that halls, corridors, and exits are not
Your first action would be to: blocked
a) Remove the fire with draft and damper open d) Detect and eliminate every possible fire hazard
b) Cool the boiler down completely
c) Prevent priming by not raising the safety valve Answer: d) Detect and eliminate every possible
or making change in operating of engines or boiler fire hazard
d) Cool the boiler down completely and prevent
priming by not raising the safety valve 164. Which of the following types of portable
fire extinguisher is recommended as most
Answer: a) Remove the fire with draft and effective for putting out oil fires?
damper open a) Pump tank type b) Cartridge actuated type
c) Soda acid type d) Foam type
159. The A.S.M.E. Boiler code for boiler shells
requires a tensile strength of which of the Answer: d) Foam type
following, in psi?
a) 10000 to 20000 b) 25000 to 45000 165. Which of the following are the four stages
c) 55000 to 63000 d) 70000 to 85000 of the warning system designated by the high
air pollution alert warning system?
Answer: c) 55000 to 63000 a) Initial, chronic, acute, penetrating
b) Forecast, alert, warning, emergency
160. The best time to blow a boiler down is: c) Light, medium, heavy, extra heavy
a) Once a day when the load is lightest d) Early, moderate, severe, toxic

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b) 5oF, 9.6 psig for the suction 96oF, 154.5 psig for
Answer: b) Forecast, alert, warning, the discharge
emergency c) 10oF, 9.6 psig for the suction 96oF, 144.5 psig
for the discharge
166. The chemical most commonly used to d) 5oF, 19.6 psig for the suction 96oF, 134.5 psig
speed sedimentation of sewage is known as: for the discharge
a) Lime b) Copper sulfate
c) Sulfuric acid d) Methylene blue Answer: a) 5oF, 19.6 psig for the suction 86oF,
154.5 psig for the discharge
Answer: a) Lime
172. In accordance with the air pollution control
167. Most of the bacteria in sewage are: code, no person shall cause or permit the
a) Saprophytic b) Dangerous emission of air contaminants from a boiler with
c) Parasitic d) Pathogenic a capacity of 500 million BTU sulfur dioxide
content of more than:
Answer: a) Saprophytic a) 300 parts per million by volume undiluted
emissions measured at 15 % excess air
168. One of the two types of non-material b) 200 parts per million by volume of undiluted
nuclear radiation is: emissions measured at 10 % excess air
a) Gamma radiation c) 200 parts per million by volume undiluted
b) Transmutation radiation emissions measured at 15 % excess air
c) Walton radiation d) 300 per million by volume undiluted
d) Betatron radiation emissions measured at 10 % excess air

Answer: a) Gamma radiation Answer: b) 200 parts per million by volume of

undiluted emissions measured at 10 % excess
169. Which of the following is not a qualification air
for an applicant for ME board examination:
a) A certified plant mechanic
b) At least 18 years old 173. Assume that one of your assistance was
c) A holder of BSME degree near the Freon 11 refrigeration system when a
d) A citizen of the Philippines liquid Freon line ruptured. Some of the liquid
Freon 11 has gotten into your assistant’s right
Answer: a) A certified plant mechanic eye. Of the following actions, the one which
you should not take is to:
170. A thermo hydraulic feed water regulator is a) Immediately call for an eye doctor specialist
used to regulate the flow of water to a drum (medical doctor)
type boiler. The amount of water input to the b) Gently and quickly rub the Freon 11 out of
boiler is controlled in proportion to the: the eye
a) Boiler load c) Uses a boric-acid solution to clean out the
b) Setting of the feed pump relief valve Freon 11 from his eye
c) Amount of water in the outer tube that d) Wash the eye by gently blowing the Freon
flashes into steam 11 out of his eye with air
d) Water level in the drum
Answer: b) Gently and quickly rub the Freon
Answer: d) Water level in the drum 11 out of the eye

171. The standard capacity rating conditions for 174. As compared to a power-driven triplex
any refrigeration compressor is: single-acting pump of the same size and
a) 5oF, 19.6 psig for the suction 86oF, 154.5 psig operating at the same speed, a steam-driven
for the discharge duplex double-acting pump will:
a) Pump more water per minute

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b) Give a more uniform discharge d) Steam reversing direction
c) Have a higher first cost
d) Be more economical to operate Answer: c) Steam striking blades at zero angle

Answer: a) Pump more water per minute 180. Gas produced by the combustion of fuel oil
and cannot be found in the flue gases is:
175. It is a device commonly used to cool a) Carbon dioxide b) Hydrogen
condenser water in Power and Refrigeration c) Oxygen d) Nitrogen
plants. The function of which is to reject heat
to the atmosphere by reducing the Answer: b) Hydrogen
temperature of water circulated through
condenser or other heat rejection equipment. 181. Scale in boiler can:
What is this device commonly called? a) Create low steam quality b) Cause
a) Condenser b) Cooler foaming
c) Cooling tower d) Evaporator c) Overheat blow off line d) Inhibit
circulation and heat transfer
Answer: c) Cooling tower
Answer: d) Inhibit circulation and heat transfer
176. It is a type of dryer in which the gases of
combustion pass through the spaces 182. The effectiveness of a body as a thermal
surrounding, or in other ways heating, the radiator at a given temperature:
drying chamber, but the gases are not allowed a) Absorptivity b) Emissivity
in contact with the material being dried. What c) Conductivity d) Reflectivity
is this dryer?
a) Direct-heat type dryer b) Indirect-heat type Answer: b) Emissivity
dryer
c) Steam-heated type dryer d) Rotary Dryer 183. To protect adequately the engine bearings,
what type and better arrangement of
Answer: b) Indirect-heat type dryer lubricating oil filter is most practical?
a) Full flow type filter installed between the
177. In a refrigeration system, which of the lubricating oil pump and bearings
following would cause a high suction pressure? b) Splash lubricating system in the crank case
a) Expansion valve not open wide enough c) Duplex filter installed before the lubricating
b) Expansion valve open too wide pump
c) King valve not open wide enough d) Bypass filter with cleanable and replaceable
d) Dirty dehydrator elements

Answer: b) Expansion valve open too wide Answer: a) Full flow type filter installed
between the lubricating oil pump and bearings
178. In the deep well installing or operation, the
difference between static water level and 184. When the expansion or compression of gas
operating water level is called: takes place without transfer of heat to or from
a) Suction lift b) drawdown the gas, the process is called:
c) priming level d) clogging a) Reversible b) Adiabatic
c) Polytrophic d) Isothermal
Answer: b) drawdown
Answer: b) Adiabatic
179. Which of the following is an characteristics
of an impulse turbine? 185. Which of the following is other name for
a) Steam striking blades on angle the liquid valve?
b) No steam reaction to velocity a) Freon valve b) shut off valve
c) Steam striking blades at zero angle c) king valve d) Master valve

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c) 2 times the piston displacement of the
Answer: c) king valve pump
d) 2 ½ times the piston displacement of the
186. In accordance with recommended pump
maintenance practice, thermostats used in a
pneumatic temperature control system should Answer: d) 2 ½ times the piston displacement
be checked: of the pump
a) Weekly b) Bi-monthly
c) Monthly d) Once a year 190. Economical partial-load operation of steam
turbines is obtained by minimizing throttling
Answer: d) Once a year losses. This is accomplished by:
a) Reducing the boiler pressure and
187. Of the following, the best method use to temperature
determine the moisture level in a refrigeration b) Throttling the steam flow into the
system is to: uncontrolled set of nozzles
a) Weigh the driver after it has been in the system c) Dividing the first-stage nozzles into several
for a period of time groups and providing a steam control valve for
b) Use a moisture indicator each group
c) Visually check the sight glass for particles of d) Controlling the fuel flow to the steam
corrosion generator
d) Test a sampler lubricating oil with phosphorus
pentoxide Answer: c) Dividing the first-stage nozzles into
several groups and providing a steam control
Answer: b) Use a moisture indicator valve for each group
191. How do you compare superheated steam
188. A full-flow drier is usually recommended to to that of saturated steam at the same
be used in a hermetic refrigeration compressor pressure?
system to keep the system dry and to: a) Contains more heat energy b)
a) Prevent the products of decomposition from Has a greater enthalpy of evaporation
getting into the evaporator in the event of c) Has a smaller specific volume
motor burn-out d) Condenses at a higher temperature
b) Condense out liquid refrigerant during
compressor off cycles and compressor start-up Answer: a) Contains more heat energy
c) Prevent the compressor unit form
decreasing in capacity 192. Which of the following is not a
d) Prevent the liquid from dumping into the characteristic of superheated steam?
compressor crank-case a) It contains no water droplets
b) It causes severe erosion in pipes
Answer: a) Prevent the products of c) It may cause uneven heating of a product
decomposition from getting into the d) It has a temperature greater than 165 oC
evaporator in the event of motor burn-out
Answer: b) It causes severe erosion in pipes
189. You are supervising the installation of a
steam-driven reciprocating pump. The pump’s 193. Superheated steam at a pressure of 6 bar
air chamber is missing and you have to replace g:
it with one with several salvaged ones. The a) Has a larger specific heat capacity than water
salvaged air chamber selected should have a b) Has a dryness fraction of 0.99
volume equal to, most nearly,: c) Must not be used as a heat transfer medium
a) Half of the position displacement of the d) Has a temperature greater than 165 oC
pump
b) 1 ½ times the position displacement of the Answer: d) Has a temperature greater than
pump 165 oC

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d) Eliminates the need for separating non-
194. Of the following, the main purpose of a condensable from the steam
sub-cooler in a refrigerant piping system for a
two-stage system is to: Answer: a) Increases the mean effective
a) Reduce the total power requirements and pressure in the prime mover
total heat rejection to the second stage
b) Reduce the total power requirements and 198. The automatic shut off valves for a water
return oil to the compressor gage installed on a high-pressure boiler must
c) Improve the flow of evaporator gas per ton be:
and increase the temperature a) Horizontal swing-check valves
d) Increase the heat rejection per ton and b) Vertical swing-check valves
avoid system shutdown c) Ball-check valves
d) Spring-loaded check valves
Answer: a) Reduce the total power
requirements and total heat rejection to the Answer: c) Ball-check valves
second stage
199. The efficiency of a riveted joint is defined
195. In large refrigeration systems, the usual as the ratio of the:
location for charging the refrigeration system a) Plate thickness to the rivet diameter
is into the: b) Strength the riveted joint to the strength of a
a) Suction line welded joint
b) Liquid line between the receiver shut-off valve c) Strength of the riveted joint to the strength of
and the expansion valve the solid plate
c) Line between the condenser and the d) Number of rivets in the first row of the joint to
compressor the total number of rivets on one side of the joint
d) Line between the high pressure cut-off switch
and the expansion valve Answer: c) Strength of the riveted joint to the
strength of the solid plate
Answer: b) Liquid line between the receiver
shut-off valve and the expansion valve 200. It corresponds to a heat absorption rate of
237.6 Btu/min (4.175 kW) with inlet and outlet
196. The effect of a voltage variation to 90 pressures corresponding to saturation
percent of normal voltage, for a compound temperature of 23 oF (-5 oC) and 59 oF (15 oC),
wound DC motor, of the full load current is: respectively. How do you call this absorption
a) Increase in the full load current approximately rate?
by 10% a) American Unit of refrigeration
b) Zero b) British Unit of refrigeration
c) A decrease in the full load current of c) European Unit of refrigeration
approximately 10% d) Standard Unit of refrigeration
d) A decrease in the full load current 20%
Answer: b) British Unit of refrigeration
Answer: a) Increase in the full load current
approximately by 10% 201. What is the advantage of an internal water
level control over an external one?
197. The main advantage of operating a steam a) The external control is in a ‘dead’ are
engine or steam turbine “condensing” is that b) It is less likely to scale up
it: c) It will respond more quickly to changes in water
a) Increases the mean effective pressure in level
the prime mover d) Daily testing of the level control chamber is not
b) Decrease the condensate temperature required
c) Permits the use of exhaust steam to drive
auxiliary equipment

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Answer: d) Daily testing of the level control b) A reduction in boiler pressure and carryover of
chamber is not required water
c) Occurrence of excessive TDS and carryover of
202. What is the purpose of testing gauge water
glasses? d) Balancing of boilers in a multi-boiler installation
a) To ensure the gauge cocks are operative
b) To ensure there is sufficient water over the top Answer: c) Occurrence of excessive TDS and
fire tube carryover of water
c) To ensure the boiler water level is being
properly sensed 207. What is the advantage of interruptible
d) To check the boiler 1st and 2nd low water level tariff?
alarms a) Quick and easy to change to heavy fuel oil
when required
Answer: a) To ensure the gauge cocks are b) Price of fuel
operative c) Price of interruptible gas lower than fixed
supply d) Convenience of supply
203. What is the effect of an overloaded boiler?
a) Water level rises and lock-out occurs Answer: c) Price of interruptible gas lower
b) Reduced steam production than fixed supply
c) Water level drops and lock-out occurs
d) Steam velocity reduces and separator 208. At what pressure should a boiler safety
efficiency drops valve be set?
a) Maximum working pressure b) Normal
Answer: c) Water level drops and lock-out working pressure
occurs c) Hydraulic test pressure d) Feed
pump maximum pressure
204. Why is slow, controlled warm-up of a
steam system essential? Answer a) Maximum working pressure
a) To make it easier to open the boiler main stop
valve 209. What is the purpose of a bottom blowdown
b) To minimize undue stresses and eliminate valve?
damage a) To control water level b) To drain
c) To permit separators to remove more water the boiler
d) To prevent stress on the boiler c) To maintain TDS d) To remove
sludge
Answer: b) To minimize undue stresses and
eliminate damage Answer: d) To remove sludge

205. Which of the following is the main purpose 210. How often, as a minimum, should gauge
of the steam distribution manifold? glasses be tested?
a) It replaces the need for a separator after the a) Once a shift b) Twice a day
boiler c) Once a day d) Once a week
b) to remove air from the steam system
c) To provide an extra separating function Answer: c) Once a day
d) It is a requirement of the pressure systems
regulations 211. Why are two gauge glasses often fitted?
a) One is a check against the other b)
Answer: c) To provide an extra separating One is a reserve
function c) It is a legal requirement d) To
increase periods between maintenance
206. Priming of a boiler is:
a) Getting a boiler prepared for start-up Answer: c) It is a legal requirement

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b) The feedwater tank is raised to at least 85 oC
212. Temporary hardness salts are reduced by: c) They are chemically treated to produce
a) Raising the water temperature b) Lowering suspended solids
the water temperature d) They are removed by filtration means
c) Raising the pH value d) letting the
water settle Answer: c) They are chemically treated to
produce suspended solids
Answer: a) Raising the water temperature
218. Which of the following types of alcohol is
213. What is the effect of CO2 in a steam the most frequently considered as fuel for
system? internal combustion engine?
a) The formation of scale a) Methyl alcohol b) Isopropyl alcohol
b) The formation of sludge c) Ethyl alcohol d) Alcogas
c) Corrosion
d) Acidity Answer: c) Ethyl alcohol

Answer: c) Corrosion 219. In a thermal plant, name the components

of a self-acting temperature control system.
214. Which of the following forms soft scale or a) Control valve and actuator
sludge? b) Control valve, actuator and sensor
a) Magnesium sulphate b) Sodium c) Control valve, actuator, capillary tube
carbonate and sensor
c) Sodium bicarbonate d) Calcium d) Control valve, actuator and capillary
bicarbonate tube

Answer: d) Calcium bicarbonate Answer: c) Control valve, actuator, capillary

tube and sensor
215. Which of the following are principal
dissolved solids that are scale forming? 220. What is the purpose of over temperature
a) Carbonates and sulphates of sodium protection within the self-acting control
b) Calcium bicarbonate system?
c) Carbonates and sulphates of magnesium a) To protect the valve from high temperature
d) Bicarbonate of sodium and magnesium steam
b) To protect the liquid fill in the capillary from
Answer: c) Carbonates and sulphates of boiling
magnesium c) To protect the control system from
irreversible damage
216. What is the effect of temperature on d) To protect the application from
calcium and magnesium sulphates? overtemperature
a) They separate out as soft scale and
sludge Answer: c) To protect the control system from
b) They precipitate out solution and form irreversible damage
hard scale
c) Foaming and carryover occurs 221. Why are three-port self-acting control
d) The TDS is increased valves used in an industrial steam of a thermal
system?
Answer: b) They precipitate out solution a) To mix or divert liquids especially water
and form hard scale b) To dump steam to waste under fault
conditions
217. What is the treatment for scale forming c) Where cooling applications are required
salts in boiler feedwater? d) When large valves are required to meet
a) They are chemically treated to modify the pH large capacities

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spray, the dust fly ash are then wetted and
Answer: a) To mix or divert liquids especially hence separated from the gas leaves the
water scrubber at the top.
a) Cinder trap or catcher b) Cyclonic Spray
222. How do you call a process in which Scrubber
superheated steam is either restored to its c) Cyclone Separator d) Electrostatic
saturated state, or its superheated Precipitator
temperature is reduced?
a) Superheating b) Reheating Answer: b) Cyclonic Spray Scrubber
c) Regenerative heating d) Desuperheating
227. What is a heat exchanger that allows cross
Answer: d) Desuperheating contact between two media? This heat
exchanger allows the cooling water to flow by
223. What does MAWP stand for/ gravity over the outside of tubes or plates.
a) Maximum attenuated working pressure a) Single-pass heat exchanger
b) Double-pass heat exchanger
b) Maximum allowable working pressure c) Baudelot heat exchanger
c) Maximum allowable with pressure d) Shell-and-tube heat exchanger
d) Minimum allowable working pressure
Answer: c) Baudelot heat exchanger
Answer: b) Maximum allowable working
pressure 228. What is the recommended weight of the
machine foundation?
224. Name one disadvantage of a direct acting a) 3 to 5 times the machine weight
pressure reducing valve. b) 4 to 6 times the machine weight
a) It only has proportional control c) 2 to 4 times the machine weight
b) It has proportional and integral control but no d) 2 to 4 times the machine weight
derivative control
c) It operates in an o/off fashion Answer: a) 3 to 5 times the machine weight
d) An external power source is required for it to
operate 229. It is a bituminous coal that contains plenty
of hydrocarbons, forming lumped masses
Answer: a) It only has proportional control when burned. This coal is ideal for forming
carbonaceous gases for reduction of ore. What
225. In order to avoid cavitation in a centrifugal do you call this coal?
pump, which of the following is true? a) Coking or coking coal b) Free burning coal
a) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH c) Peat coal d) Lignite coal
b) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH
c) Installation NPSH < pump NPSH Answer: a) Coking or coking coal
d) Installation NPSH should be negative
230. It is an engine in which the connecting rod
Answer: a) Installation NPSH  pump NPSH is directly connected to the piston wristpin.
The side thrust caused by the angularity of the
226. It is dust removal equipment that consists connecting rod is taken by the piston bearing
of a cylindrical tank structure provided with a against the cylinder wall.
tangential opening at one end for gas passage a) Opposed-piston engine b) Trunk piston engine
and a spray manifold at the center which is c) Crosshead engine d) 2-stroke engine
made of a vertical pipe attached with spray
nozzles where water is introduced at the Answer: b) Trunk piston engine
bottom of this spray pipe. The gas revolves
around the cylindrical body as it enters the 231. It is an internal combustion engine wherein
scrubber, and comes in contact with the water the ignition of the fuel is not accomplished

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solely by the heat developed from the
compression of the combustion air supplied Answer: c) Tower dryer
but partly or entirely by other heat sources,
such as an uncooled tube, plate, bulb, or an 236. How do you call those substances that are
electric resistance coil. particularly variable in the moisture content
a) Spark-ignition engine that they can possess at different times?
b) Compression-ignition engine a) Wet materials b) Hygroscopic materials
c) Surface-ignition engine c) Gross materials d) Bone-dry-weight material
d) Dual combustion engine
Answer: b) Hygroscopic materials
Answer: c) Surface-ignition engine
237. The bottom blow down on a boiler is used
232. This is the condition in a geothermal plant to:
wherein the ground surface where the well is a) Remove mud drum water impurities
drilled is depressed or subsides due to b) Increase boiler priming
depleting. What do you call this? c) Reduce steam pressure in the header
a) Ground subsidence b) Thermal pollution d) Increase the boiler water level
c) Chemical pollution d) Dissolved solids
Answer: a) Remove mud drum water
Answer a) Ground subsidence impurities

233. In the critical thickness of insulator concept 238. In a Brayton cycle or gas turbine cycle,
for a cylinder, what does the Biot number what do you call the heat exchanger that
indicate if its value is less than 1? passes exhaust heat to the compressed air,
a) Condition for optimum heat flow prior to combustion?
a) Reheater b) Recuperator
b) Addition of insulation will increase heat c) Heater d) Heat exchanger
transfer rate
c) Additional insulation will decrease the heat Answer: b) Recuperator
transfer rate
d) Heat transfer rate reaches a maximum 239. The heat rejected by the working
substance to the regenerator in the Stirling
Answer: b) Addition of insulation will increase cycle is:
heat transfer rate a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the
working substance from the regenerator
234. How do you call the ratio of the product of b) Not equal to the heat absorbed by the
a convective heat transfer coefficient and the working substance from the regenerator
critical radius of the insulator to that of the c) Dependent on the value of temperature
thermal conductivity of the insulator? in the heat addition process
a) Biot number b) Prandlt number d) Measured during the constant
c) Nusselt number d) Reynolds number temperature heat rejection process

Answer: a) Biot number Answer: a) Equal to the heat absorbed by the

working substance from the regenerator
235. This is a type of dryer that consists of a
vertical shaft in which the wet feed is
introduced at the top and falls downward over 240. How do you call a device that converts
baffles while coming in contact with the hot air liquid refrigerant to vapour, with the help of
that rises and exhaust at the top. This dryer is the surrounding heat?
used for drying palay, wheat, and grains. a) Condenser b) Expansion valve
a) Rotary dryer b) Hearth dryer c) Compressor d) Evaporator
c) Tower dryer d) Tray dryer

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Answer: d) Evaporator WHEN YOU’RE ABOUT TO GIVE UP, TRY TO
REMEMBER WHY YOU STARTED. 

241. In gas compressor, when the volumetric

efficiency increases, the piston displacement
has:
a) Not been changed b) Been decreased
c) Been increased d) Been insufficient
data

Answer: b) Been decreased

242. The ratio of its radiating power to that of a

black body at same temperature.
a) Transmissivity b) Reflectivity
c) Absorptivity d) Emissivity

Answer: d) Emissivity

243. Fans used to withdraw air under suction,

that is, the resistance to gas flow is imposed
primarily upon the inlet.
a) Blowers b) Exhauster
c) industrial fans d) Domestic fans

Answer: b) Exhauster

244. The phenomenon of rising water in the

tube of small diameter is called what?
a) Surface tension b) Capillary rise c)
Water gage rise d) Fluid column rise

Answer: b) Capillary rise

245. Pitot tube is used to measure,

a) Height b) Velocity
c) Viscosity d) Density

Answer: b) Velocity

246. During engine operation, to vary the air

quantity and also to vary the air fuel mixture,
this is used to pen and closed the inlet
manifold.
a) Throttle valve b) Check valve
c) Choke valve d) Gate valve

Answer: a) Throttle valve

NOTES:

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