Module - 1

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Module -1

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Iodometry is employed in the analysis of:
A. Acids
B. Reducing reagents C
C. Oxidizing reagents
D. Complex salts
2. In quantitative analysis, a burette with a glass stopcock is
used to accurately measure_____ solutions.
A. Acid
A
B. Blank
C. Alkali
D. Buffer
3. This describes the relative position of an energy level with
respect to the other energy level present
A. Principal Quantum Number
A
B. Azimuthal Quantum Number
C. Magnetic Quantum Number
D. Spin Quantum Number
4. Conformation of organic molecules is most commonly
determined by which of the following analytical methods?
A. Nuclear magnetic resonance
A
B. Mass spectrophotometry
C. Optical rotation
D. Pk Determination
5. Which of the following is described as one-gram
equivalent weight of solute in a liter of solution?
A. Formal solution
C
B. Molal solution
C. Normal solution
D. Molar solution
6. Chlorides may be precipitated by _______.
A. Potassium nitrate
B. Calcium chloride D
C. Sodium nitrate
D. Silver nitrate
7. In the bisulfite method of analysis, which among
apparatus listed is used in the assay of aldehyde or ketones
content of volatile oils?
A. Babcock bottle B
B. Cassia flask
C. Biuret
D. Distilling apparatus
8. Which of the following is a first-generation urinary tract
anti-infective?
A. Nalidixic acid
A
B. Griseofulvin
C. Salicylic acid
D. Norfloxacin
9. Gerhard Domagk found out that Prontosil, a red dye is
converted to _______________. The metabolite is responsible
for the dye's antimicrobial activity?
A. Sulfacetamide C
B. Sulfamethoxazole
C. Sulfanilamide
D. Sulfapyridine
10. Which of the following combination therapy is the
treatment of choice for Pneumocystis carinii pneumonia
(PCP)? A
A. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
B. Emetine and dehydroemetine
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C. Metronidazole and iodoquinol
D. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
11. A combination of non-ionic and cationic surfactants with
iodine is KNOWN as________.
A. Povidone- iodine
A
B. Tincture of iodine
C. Iodine in potassium iodide solution
D. Strong iodine solution
12. Which of the following is NOT an alcohol?
A. Terpin hydrate
B. Sorbitol D
C. Menthol
D. Eucalyptol
13. Which of the following functional group is susceptible to
hydrolysis?
A. R---CO---R
D
B. R---COOH
C. R---O---R
D. R---COOR
14. These substances absorb moisture from the air but does
not dissolve in it.
A. Hygroscopic
A
B. Dehydrating substance
C. Efflorescent
D. Deliquescent
15. Which type of radiation has no mass and no charge but
has the greatest penetrating power?
A. Beta radiation
B
B. Gamma radiation
C. sun rays
D. Alpha radiation
16. A drug receptor may be all of the following, EXCEPT?
A. Isolable enzyme
B. Functional component of all cell membrane D
C. Nucleic acid
D. A chelate
17. Which of the following statements best describes
facilitated diffusion?
A. Energy requiring
C
B. Involves shifting of solvent
C. Carrier-specific
D. The movement against a concentration gradient
18. The following describes active transport, except:
A. Higher to lower concentration gradient
B. Follow saturation kinetics A
C. Carrier mediated
D. Expenditure of energy
19. Elements that exist in two or more crystalline forms are
said to be ______.
A. Amphoteric
D
B. Polymorphic
C. Amorphous
D. Allotropic
20. Enthalpy in thermodynamics means:
A. Latent heat
B. Heat content B
C. Degree of total molecular randomness
D. Heat of fusion

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21. A law that states that the entropy of a pure, crystalline
solid at absolute zero temperature is zero.
A. Zeroth
D
B. First
C. Second
D. Third
22. What is the chemical name of quartz?
A. Silicon dioxide
B. Magnesium oxide A
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Aluminum oxide
23. Which of the following binary compounds is called
arsine?
A. CH3
B
B. AsH3
C. PH3
D. NH3
24. Cream of tartar is known chemically as ________.
A. Potassium bitartrate
B. Sodium bitartrate A
C. Sodium carbonate
D. Potassium nitrate
25. Amalgams are alloys of which of the following elements?
A. Mercury
B. Iron A
C. Copper
D. zinc
26. Upon addition with potassium ferrocyanide, which ion
produces Turnbull's blue precipitate?
A. Stannic
D
B. Ferric
C. Stannous
D. Ferrous
27. Simethicone is a component of several antacid
formulation, how is it chemically classified?
A. Wax
C
B. Ketone
C. Silicone
D. alcohol
28. Which among the following compounds in incorporated
in certain topical preparation as a solar ray protective or sun
block?
A. barium sulfate emetic B
B. titanium dioxide
C. sodium nitrate
D. antimony chloride
29. Which elements belong to Group VII-A?
A. F, Br
B. Na Ca A
C. F, Na
D. Na, F
30. Which group is referred to as "alkali metals"?
A. Group I-A
B. Group II-A A
C. Group IV-A
D. Group III-A
31. Which is the lightest of all metals?
A. Platinum B
B. Lithium
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C. Nickel
D. Gold
32. The following elements form basic hydrides,
EXCEPT________.
A. Calcium
B
B. Sulfur
C. Strontium
D. Magnesium
33. Which of the following elements is the MOST
electronegative?
A. I
D
B. Br
C. CI
D. F
34. Which of the following elements are referred to as
volatile metals? I. Cadmium II. Mercury III. Beryllium IV. Zinc
A. I, III, IV
C
B. II, III, IV
C. I, II, IV
D. I, II, III
35. When water undergoes electrolysis forming hydrogen
and oxygen molecules, which of the following phrases BEST
describes this occurrence?
A. Substitution reaction B
B. Chemical change
C. Physical change
D. Evaporation
36. Which of the following elements is NOT found as
component of extracellular fluids in humans?
A. Calcium ion
C
B. Sodium ion
C. Iodine in form of iodide
D. Chlorine in form of chloride
37. This waxy substance is obtained from head of whales
and oftentimes used in the preparation of cosmetic creams
and candles?
A. Spermaceti A
B. Carrageenan
C. Fucoidan
D. Prostaglandins
38. All of the following substances naturally obtained from
opium extract, EXCEPT?
A. Thebaine
D
B. Papaverine
C. Codeine
D. Methadone
39. Mescaline is classified as _____________ derivative.
A. Steroid
B. Xanthine D
C. Indole-ethylamine
D. Phenyl-ethylamine
40. Surfactants have:
A. Water solubilizing and fat solubilizing groups in
the same molecule.
A
B. Positive and negative charges
C. Water solubilizing groups only
D. Fat solubilizing groups only.
41. The major organ for drug metabolism is the:
A. Liver
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B. Small intestines
C. Kidney A
D. Lung
42. Barbiturates containing sulfur atom are usually?
A. Ultra-short acting
B. Short acting A
C. Intermediate acting
D. Long acting
43. Which of the following is true about bases?
A. They have a characteristic sour taste
B. They turn red litmus paper to blue B
C. They turn blue litmus paper to red
D. They are salty
44. The modern periodic table of elements was prepared by:
A. Antoine Lavoisier
B. Dobereiner D
C. Mendeleev
D. Moseley
45. The following are used as preservatives, except
A. Methyl Paraben
B. Benzoic acid D
C. Potassium Sorbate
D. Undecylenic acid
46. As the intermolecular forces of attraction increases, the
boiling point
A. Increases
A
B. Decreases
C. Remains the same
D. None of the above
47. Also known as the salt forming group
A. Group VIA
B. Group VIIA B
C. Group VIIIA
D. Group VIIB
48. For the treatment of systemic mycoses, which of the
following antifungal agents can be administered by
intravenous route?
A. Miconazole B
B. Amphotericin B
C. Ketoconazole
D. Clioquinol
49. Talc is chemically known as
A. Aluminum silicate
B. Magnesium silicate B
C. Zinc silicate
D. Calcium silicate
50. Fuller's earth is known as
A. Hydrated magnesium aluminum silicate
B. Floridin D
C. Aluminum Magnesium silicate
D. B and C
51. Which of the following is a depot penicillin preparation?
A. Phenoxymethylpenicillin
B. Benzyl penicillin D
C. Methicillin
D. Benzathine penicillin
52. A fourth generation Cephalosporin
A. Cefalexin
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B. Cefepime
C. Cefamandole B
D. Cefuroxime
53. First element produced artificially
A. Tantalum
B. Technetium B
C. Titanium
D. Thallium
54. Derivatives of benzylsulfonyl urea useful as:
A. Spasmolytics
B. Anti-inflammatory C
C. Oral hypoglycemic
D. Diuretics
55. Which of the following is the least stable vitamin?
A. Vitamin A
B. Niacin C
C. Ascorbic acid
D. Folic acid
56. The factors that may affect the pH of a buffer solution
are as follows, EXCEPT:
A. Presence of neutral salts
B
B. Constant temperature
C. Dissolution of atmospheric CC2
D. Ionic strength changes of solution
57. The ring common among penicillin and cephalosporins
is ____.
A. Beta lactam ring
A
B. Thiazole ring
C. Benzene ring
D. Phenothiazine ring
58. Which of the following compounds exhibits amphoteric
properties that makes it suitable to prevent systemic
alkalosis?
A. Magnesium sulfate C
B. Calcium hydroxide
C. Aluminum hydroxide
D. Barium sulfate
59. Which of the following statements best characterize
gamma amino butyric acid?
I. It is major inhibitory neurotransmitter in the
brain.
II. It is biosynthesized from glutamic acid
III. High level of GABA may be linked to anxiety
or mood disorders.
D
IV. GABA is degraded by a pyridoxal- dependent
enzyme, GABA transaminase, producing
butyric acid and succinic acid semi-aldehyde.
A. II and III
B. III and IV
C. I and IV
D. I and II
60. Which among the listed compounds is a polysaccharide
found to be a useful plasma expander?
A. Dextran
A
B. Sorbitol
C. Starch
D. Dextrose
61. Which among the following is an alternative inhibitor for
patient allergic to penicillin?
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A. Aureomycin
B. Erythromycin
B
C. Oxacillin
D. Spectinomycin
62. Which of the following refers to the amount of a strong
acid or base that must be added to a liter of solution to
change the pH by one unit?
A. Ionization constant D
B. Equilibrium constant
C. Concentration
D. Buffer capacity
63. Compounds that result from a combination of electron
donor and a metal forming a ring structure is called a _____?
A. Ligand
C
B. Lactam ring
C. Chelate
D. prodrug
64. Which of the following enzymes is involved in the
process of sulfonation?
A. Sulfatases
B
B. Sulfotransferase
C. DT-diaphorases
D. Monoamine oxidase
65. Which of the following is NOT soluble or miscible in
alcohol USP?
A. Ether
D
B. Phenobarbital
C. Formaldehyde
D. Acacia
66. Which of the following statements best describe
elements in the Periodic Table?
I. Helium is the first element in Group I-A
II. Non-metals occupy the upper right area of
the Periodic Table
III. Metals are located in the left area of the
Periodic Table D
IV. Diagonally related elements are known as
"bridge elements"
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV
67. Which of the following combination therapy is the most
effective against toxoplasmosis?
A. Emetine and dehydroemetine
B
B. Pyrimethamine and sulfadiazine
C. Metronidazole and iodoquinol
D. Trimethoprim and sulfamethoxazole
68. Reactive reduction metabolites of Metronidazole
believed to be responsible for triggering lethal effect on the
microorganism include
I. Nitroxide
II. Nitroso
III. Hydroxylamine B
IV. Iodoquinol
A. II, III, IV
B. I, II, III
C. I, III, IV
D. I, II, IV

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69. Which of the following substance when present in the
urine is the MOST likely positive of pregnancy?
A. Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG)
A
B. Thyroid Stimulationg Hormone (TSH)
C. Interstitial Cell-stimulating Hormone (ICSH)
D. Adrenocorticotropic Hormone (ACTH)
70. Which of the following common names is the other
name for Beryl?
A. Borax
D
B. Salt Peter
C. Marble
D. Aquamarine
71. An example of a barbiturate with intermediate action?
A. Phenobarbital
B. Thiopental D
C. Pentobarbital
D. Amobarbital
72. Which of the following is a constituent of a mixture
commonly known as Bordeaux mixture a well-known
fungicide?
A. Ferric sulfate C
B. Magnesium sulfate
C. Cupric sulfate
D. Silver nitrate
73. Which of the following elements is found in Grignard
reagent?
A. Co
D
B. Pb
C. Fe
D. Mg
74. What could be another name for lactic acid?
A. Bichloroacetic acid
B. Dihydroxy succinic acid D
C. Ethanedioic acid
D. 2- hydroxyl propionic acid
75. Which of the following refers to a kind of chemical
reaction whereby a substance splits into simpler substance?
A. Decomposition reaction
A
B. Single replacement reaction
C. Double replacement reaction
D. Combination reaction
76. What is the systematic name of acetone?
A. Propanone
B. 4-hexanone A
C. 2-butanone
D. 3-pentanone
77. Which of the following is a monoamine oxidase inhibitor
used as an anti-depressant drug?
A. Amitriptyline
C
B. Thioridazine
C. Tranylcypromine
D. Clozapine
78. Which of the following statements is NOT true about
half-life of radioisotopes?
A. The faster the isotope decays the more stable it
is A
B. Half-life is the time it takes for the amount of
radioactivity to reduce 50%
C. The faster the isotope decays the more unstable it
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is
D. The half-life is unique for any given isotopes
79. Which of the following is identified by the Vitali-Morris
reaction whereby a violet coloration is observed when the residue
of the unknown is treated with a drop of freshly
prepared potassium hydroxide solution?
A
A. Atropine
B. Quinine
C. Hesperidin
D. Digoxin
80. Which of the following is identified by the Thalleioquin
test?
A. Quinine
A
B. Atropine
C. Digoxin
D. Hesperidin
81. Which of the following are B-caboline derivatives
isolated from sponges?
A. Fucoidan
D
B. Carrageenan
C. Alginic acid
D. Eudistomine
82. Which of the following is a sulphated polysaccharide
compound extracted from brown algae active herpes
simplex virus?
A. Alginic acid B
B. Fucoidan
C. Eudistomine
D. Carrageenan
83. Which of the following is a polysaccharide obtained
from red seaweeds used in the preparation of toothpaste as
emulsifying agent?
A. Prostaglandins C
B. Spermaceti
C. Carrageenan
D. Fucoidan
84. In the process of purifying water by chlorination what is
the rationals of adding chlorine dioxide?
A. To ensure the pH of the water is 7
C
B. To destroy unpleasant odor and taste
C. To further disinfect the water
D. To act as a bleaching agent
85. Which group in the periodic table is referred to as the
chalcogens?
A. II-B
B
B. VI-A
C. I-B
D. I-A
86. Which group is referred to as "coinage"?
A. Group 0
B. Group II-B C
C. Group I-B
D. Group III-A
87. Which group is referred to as "alkali metals"?
A. Group IV-A
B. Group I-A B
C. Group II-A
D. Group III-A

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88. Which elements are referred to as the triads of Group
VIII?
I. Co
II. Mn
III. Ni
B
IV. Fe
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV
89. Which of the following are classified as amebicides?
I. Emetine and dehydroemetine
II. Nitroimidazole derivatives such as
Metronidazole
III. Arsenal compound Carbarsone
C
IV. Dimercaprol
A. I, II, IV
B. I, III, IV
C. I, II, III
D. II, III, IV
90. The combination trimethoprim trimethoprim and
sulfamethoxazole are also known as ____.
A. Co-trimoxazole
A
B. Clotrimazole
C. Cotrimazine
D. Miconazole
91. Which of the following anesthetics are amino esters?
I. Cocaine
II. Lidocaine
III. Benzocaine
IV. Prilocaine B
A. III, IV
B. I, III
C. II, III
D. I, II
92. Which of the following antineoplastics os NOT
considered as antimetabolite?
A. Methotrexate
A
B. Thioguanine
C. Fluouracil
D. Cytarabine
93. Which of the following represents the index of the
protective power of colloids?
A. Lumina
C
B. Poise
C. Zigmondy
D. Cytarabine
94. It is a dry mixture of sodium chloride, sodium
bicarbonate or sodium citrate, potassium chloride and
dextrose, used to treat chronic diarrhea.
A. Oral Rehydration Salts A
B. Electrolyte Powder
C. A and B
D. None of these
95. It states that no two electrons in an atom can have the
same set of four quantum numbers
A. Heisenberg's Uncertainty Principle
B
B. Pauli Exclusion Principle
C. Hund's Rule of Maximum Multiplicity
D. Aufbau Building up Principle
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96. Stereoisomer that are not mirror-images of each other
are called
A. Enantiomers
B
B. Diasteriomers
C. Cis-Trans Isomers
D. Anomers
97. Which of the following substituents is ortho-para
directing in a benzene ring?
A. NO2
D
B. SO3
C. CH3
D. OH
98. What is the IUPAC name of valproic acid?
A. 2-Methylpropanoic acid
B. 2-Ethylbutanoic acid C
C. 2-Propylpentanoic acid
D. 2-Butylhexnoic acid
99. Which of the following metabolites is/are common to
both MAO-mediated and COMT-mediated metabolisms of
catecholamines like Norepinephrine and Epinephrine?
I. 3-Methoxy-4-hydroxy phenylethylene glycol
II. Vanillylmandelic acid
C
III. 3, 4-Dihydroxymandelic acid
A. I only
B. III only
C. I and II
D. II and III
100. Which of the following local anesthetic are benzoic acid
derivatives?
A. Procaine
A
B. Mepivacaine
C. Lidocaine
D. Etidocaine

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