T105 - Navigation II Unit 2 COLREG (1-18) (8 Files Merged)
T105 - Navigation II Unit 2 COLREG (1-18) (8 Files Merged)
T105 - Navigation II Unit 2 COLREG (1-18) (8 Files Merged)
UNIT 2. Conduct of vessels in any condition of visibility and insight of one another ( Rule 1-18)
A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
20. In determining the safe speed, most important factor to be considered by all vessels is
A. State of visibility
B. Over all length
C. Tonnage
D. State of wind
21. Which of the following factors are considered to determine safe speed by all vessels?
I. State of visibility
II. Traffic density
III. Manoeuvrability
IV. Background light
V. State of wind , sea and current
VI. Daft
VII. Proximity of navigational hazard
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,III,IV
C. I,II,III,IV, V, VI
D. All of the above
22. Risk of collision exists if
I. Compass bearing of an approaching vessel does not appreciably change
II. Approaching a very large vessel or tow , even if there is appreciable bearing change
III. Approaching a vessel at close range , even if there is appreciable bearing change
A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
23. When determining risk of collision, if there is any doubt, it ______________.
A. Shall be deemed to exist
B. May exist
C. Does not exist
D. Should be confirmed with other vessel on VHF
24. Which of the following is/are CORRECT for determining risk of collision?
I. Use radar including long range scanning
II. Use radar plotting or equivalent systematic observation of detected objects
III. Make assumptions on the scanty radar information
A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II, III
25. Action taken to avoid collision shall be
I. Positive
II. Made in ample time
III. With due regard to the observance of good seamanship
A. I
B. II
C. I,II
D. I,II, III
26. Which of the following is/are CORRECT with respect to action to avoid collision ?
I. Any alteration of course should be large enough to be readily apparent to another
vessel
II. Avoid small alteration of course
III. Small alteration of speed
A. I
B. II
C. I,II
D. II,III
27. If there is sufficient sea room, alteration of course alone may be most effective action to
avoid close quarter situation, provided
A. It is made in in good time
B. It is substantial
C. It does not result in another close quarter situation
D. All of the above
28. Which of the following is /are CORRECT with respect to action to be taken to avoid collision?
I. Action to avoid collision with another vessel shall result in passing a safe distance
II. The effectiveness of action taken shall be carefully checked until other vessel is finally
passed and clear
III. If necessary a vessel shall slacken her speed
IV. If necessary a vessel shall take all way off by stopping or revering he means of
propulsion
A. I
B. II,II
C. I,II, II
D. I,II,III,IV
29. A vessel proceeding along the course of a narrow channel shall keep
A. As near to the outer limit which lies on her port side as is safe and practicable.
B. As near to the inner limit which lies on her starboard side as is safe and practicable.
C. As near to the outer limit which lies on her starboard side as is safe and practicable
D. As near to the centre of the channel as is safe and practicable
30. Which of the following vessels shall not impede the passage of a vessel which can safely
navigate only within a narrow channel or fairway?
A. Fishing vessel
B. Sailing vessel
C. Vessel less than 20 m in length & Sailing vessel
D. CBD
31. A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of_____________ navigating within
narrow channel or fairway.
A. CBD
B. Sailing vessel
C. Power driven vessel
D. Any vessel
32. In a narrow channel or fairway, if a vessel intends to overtake from starboard side, following
signal(s) to be sounded to indicate the intention to vessel being over taken
A. One short blast
B. Two short blasts
C. Two prolonged and one short blasts
D. Two prolonged and two short blasts
33. A vessel nearing a bend or area of narrow channel or fairway where other vessel may be
obscured by an intervening obstruction shall navigate with particular alertness and caution and
sound following signals to indicate her presence.
A. One short blast
B. One prolonged blast
C. Two prolonged blasts
D. One prolonged and one short blast
34. Which of the following are related to TSS?
I. Vessels must proceed in appropriate traffic lane
II. Vessels must proceed in the general direction of traffic flow
III. Keep clear of traffic separation line or zone
A. I
B. I,II
C. II,III
D. I,II, III
35. Which of the following are CORRECT for joining/leaving a traffic lane in TSS?
I. Normally, join or leave at the termination of the lane
II. If joining or leaving from either side, shall do so as at as small an angle to the general
direction of traffic flow as practicable.
III. Join or leave at right angle to the general direction of traffic flow
IV. Join or leave after making a large alteration.
A. I, III
B. I, II, III
C. I, II,
D. I, II, III,IV
36. A vessel shall so far as practicable,
I. Avoid crossing traffic lanes
II. If obliged to do so shall cross at small angle
III. If obliged to do so shall cross at right angles
A. I,II
B. II,III
C. I, III
D. I, II, III
37. Which of the following are CORRECT for inshore traffic zone?
I. Do not use inshore traffic zone when a vessel can safely navigate within adjacent TSS
II. A vessel may use inshore traffic zone when enroute to or from a port situated within
the inshore traffic zone
III. A vessel may use inshore traffic zone when enroute to or from offshore installation or
structure situated within the inshore traffic zone
IV. A vessel may use inshore traffic zone when enroute to or from pilot station situated
within the inshore traffic zone
V. A vessel may use inshore traffic to avoid immediate danger
A. I,II
B. I,II,III
C. I,II,III,IV
D. All of the above
38. Which of the following vessels can use inshore traffic zone?
A. Vessel less than 20 m
B. SV
C. Both A & B
D. FV
39. A vessel shall not enter a separation zone or cross a separation line except
I. in case of emergency to avoid immediate danger
II. When crossing traffic lane (s)
III. a vessel joining or leaving a lane
IV. to engage in fishing
A. I, IV
B. I,II, IV
C. I,II, III
D. I,II,III, IV
40. Which of the following are CORRECT for TSS?
I. Exercise caution when navigating in areas near the termination of TSS
II. Avoid anchoring in TSS or in areas near its terminations
III. Avoid by wide margin if not using the TSS
A. I,II
B. I, III
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
41. Which of the following vessel(s) shall not impede the safe passage of a power driven vessel
following a traffic lane?
A. Sailing vessel
B. Vessel less than 20 m
C. Both A & B
D. Vessel engaged in fishing
42. A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of the following vessel following a
traffic lane in TSS?
A. Any vessel
B. Sailing vessel
C. Vessel less than 20 m
D. Power driven vessel
43. Which of the following RAM vessels are exempted from complying rule 10 of TSS?
I. A vessel engaged in operation for the maintenance of safety of navigation
II. A vessel engaged in an operation for the laying servicing or picking up a submarine cable
III. A vessel engaged in dredging operation
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
44. Which of the following are related to overtaking situation insight of one another ?
I. Any vessel overtaking any other shall keep out of the vessel being overtaken.
II. A vessel is deemed to be overtaking when she is able to see the stern light but neither of
her sidelights
III. If in doubt whether overtaking, assume that this is the case and act accordingly
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. II,III
D. I,II,III
45. If an overtaking vessel advances so as to cross the line of two points abaft the beam, the
vessel
A. Remains overtaking vessel until she is finally passed and clear
B. Becomes a crossing vessel
C. Is overtaking or crossing depending upon the situation
D. Is neither overtaking nor crossing
46. The rule 14- Head-on situation is applicable to which of the following vessels ?
A. Any vessel
B. Sailing vessel
C. Fishing vessel
D. Power driven vessel
47. When two power-driven vessels are meeting on reciprocal or nearly reciprocal courses, so as
to involve risk of collision, each shall alter her course to
I. Port
II. Starboard
III. Port or Starboard depending upon the situation
A. I
B. II
C. III
D. None of these
48. The head-on situation between two power-driven vessels will exist when at night both can see
the following lights of each other
I. Masthead lights
II. Sidelights
III. Stern lights
A. I
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. I,II,III
49. Which of the following are related to head-on situation between two power-driven vessels
insight of one another?
I. If the vessels are in doubt, assume that situation exists and ac accordingly
II. Each vessel shall alter her course to starboard so that each shall pass port to
port
III. Each shall pass starboard side of the other
A. I
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. III
50. When two power-driven vessels insight of one another are crossing so as to involve risk of
collision, following action are required ?
I. The vessel which has the other on her own starboard side shall keep out of
the way
II. Give-way vessel shall avoid crossing ahead of the other vessel
III. The give-way vessel shall take early and positive action
A. I
B. I,II
C. I,III
D. I,II,III
51. Which of the following are CORRECT for vessels in sight of one another ?
I. The give-way vessel shall take early and substantial action to keep well clear
II. The stand-on vessel shall maintain her course and speed
III. The stand-on vessel may take action by her manoeuvre alone as soon as it becomes
apparent that give -way vessel is not taking action
IV. The stand-on vessel shall if the circumstances of the case admit, not alter her course to
port for a vessel on her port side
A. I,II
B. II,III
C. I,II,III
D. All of the above
52. A power-driven vessel underway shall keep out of the way of
I. NUC
II. RAM
III. FV
IV. SV
V. CBD
A. I,II,III
B. I,II,IV
C. I,II, II, IV
D. I,II, III, IV
53. A sailing vessel underway shall keep out of the way of
I. NUC
II. RAM
III. FV
IV. CBD
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. I,II,III
D. I,II,III,IV
54. A vessel engaged in fishing when underway shall keep out of the way of
I. NUC
II. RAM
III. SV
IV. CBD
A. I,II
B. I,III
C. I,II,III
D. I,II,III,IV
55. Any vessel other than following shall avoid impeding the safe passage of a CBD.
A. NUC
B. RAM
C. Both NUC & RAM
D. FV
56. A seaplane in general shall keep well clear of the following vessels.
A. NUC
B. RAM
C. Power-driven vessel
D. All other vessels
57. A WIG craft when taking off, landing and inflight near the surface shall keep well clear of
A. NUC
B. SV
C. RAM
D. All other vessels
58. A seaplane/WIG shall avoid impeding the navigation of any vessel
A. within TSS
B. within Narrow channel
C. Anywhere
D. Near Port area
59. A vessel less than 20 m shall not impede the safe passage of a______________ when following
the lane.
A. NUC
B. RAM
C. Power-driven
D. SV
60. A vessel engaged in fishing shall not impede the passage of any vessel
A. Within TSS & Narrow Channel
B. Within Narrow channel
C. Within TSS
D. Anywhere
UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY
A) Mercury Barometer
B) Gold slide Barometer
C) Barograph
D) Anemometer
Option (C)
2. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-1?
A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Pen release lever
D) Orifice
Option (A)
3. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-2?
A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Pen release lever
D) Orifice
Option (B)
4. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-3?
A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Orifice
D) Pen release lever
Option (D)
5. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-4?
A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Orifice
D) Pen release lever
Option (C)
6. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-5?
A) Drum
B) Pen arm
C) Orifice
D) Pen release lever
Option (C)
7. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-6?
A) Adjustment
B) Pivot
C) Rigid joint
D) Oil
Option (A)
8. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-7?
A) Rigid joint
B) Oil
C) Pivot
D) Adjustment
Option (C)
9. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-8?
A) Oil
B) Pivot
C) Adjustment
D) Rigid joint
Option (D)
10. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-9?
A) Pivot
B) Oil
C) Adjustment
D) Rigid joint
Option (B)
11. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-10?
A) Brass cylinder
B) Pivot
C) Vacuum chamber
D) Gate suspension
Option (A)
12. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-11?
A) Brass cylinder
B) Pivot
C) Vacuum chamber
D) Gate suspension
Option (C)
13. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-12?
A) Brass cylinder
B) Pivot
C) Vacuum chamber
D) Gate suspension
Option (D)
14. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-13?
A) Brass cylinder
B) Pivot
C) Vacuum chamber
D) Gate suspension
Option (B)
Option (D)
A) Barogram
B) Angiogram
C) Sonogram
D) Picogram
Option (A)
Option (C)
18. The revolving drum of a Barograph requires ___________ winding.
A) Daily
B) Hourly
C) Monthly
D) Weekly
Option (D)
A) every hour
B) every week
C) daily
D) monthly
Option (B)
A) Prismatic error
B) Error of perpendicularity
C) Index error and height of eye error
D) Side error
Option (C)
A) UTC
B) Ship's time
C) IST
D) US time
Option (A)
22. The pen of the Barograph should be washed with water or cleaned with
___________ about once a month to ensure that the trace is thin, clear and
even.
A) Ethanol
B) Kerosene
C) Acetone
D) Methylated spirit
Option (D)
A) Copper
B) Brass
C) Aluminium
D) Nickel
Option (B)
24. What is the primary purpose of the oil in the cylinder of the Barograph?
Option (C)
25. The instrument used to determine both relative humidity and dew point
temperature is called a __________.
A) Pyrometer
B) Anemometer
C) Hydrometer
D) Hygrometer
Option (D)
A) Mason’s
B) Aspiration
C) Capacitive and Resistive
D) Hair-tension
Option (A)
27. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-1?
A) Cistern
B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer
Option (B)
28. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-2?
A) Cistern
B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer
Option (A)
29. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-3?
A) Cistern
B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer
Option (C)
30. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-4?
A) Cistern
B) Stevenson screen
C) Muslin and wick
D) Dry bulb thermometer
Option (D)
31. With respect to the above figure, identify the part of the meteorological
instrument numbered-5?
Option (A)
32. The extra length of the strands of wick of the hygrometer is immersed in a
cistern of ___________.
A) Mineral water
B) Distilled water
C) Sea water
D) Ethyl alcohol
Option (B)
33. The muslin of the hygrometer always remains damp, water is drawn upwards,
from the cistern through the strands of the wick. This happens because of the
____________.
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Surface tension
D) Capillary action
Option (D)
34. Hygrometers should be fitted at about ________ above the deck for the
convenience of the observer.
A) 2.0 m
B) 3.0 m
C) 1.5 m
D) 1.0 m
Option (C)
35. When using a Whirling psychrometer, the instrument should be swung for at
least _______.
A) 2 minutes
B) 1 minutes
C) 3 minutes
D) 1.5 minutes
Option (A)
A) 6 knots
B) 7 knots
C) 8 knots
D) 9 knots
Option (B)
A) Hygrometer
B) Gold slide Barometer
C) Barograph
D) Anemometer
Option (D)
38. _____________ is the instrument used to measure sea water temperature.
A) Hygrometer
B) gold slide Barometer
C) Sea water temperature bucket
D) Anemometer
Option (C)
A) Rubberized
B) Vulcanized
C) made up of aluminium
D) made up of copper
Option (A)
A) True
B) Apparent
C) Exact
D) Virtual
Option (B)
UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY
4.8 DESCRIBE THE PROPERTIES OF WATER VAPOUR IN THE ATMOSPHERE AND DEFINE
SPECIFIC, ABSOLUTE AND RELATIVE HUMIDITY. EXPLAIN SATURATION, DEW
POINT AND OUTLINE KNOWLEDGE OF HYDROLOGICAL CYCLE (EVAPORATION,
CONDENSATION AND PRECIPITATION).
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) four
Option (C)
Option (A)
Option (B)
4. Which of the following statement is true for Water vapour?
Option (D)
A) infrared radiation
B) UV radiation
C) Visible light
D) Cosmic rays
Option (A)
A) Water vapor creates a green- house effect that helps maintain a life
sustaining climate on Earth.
B) Water vapour is a greenhouse gas and contribute towards the global warming
of the Earth.
C) It is the most variable gas in atmosphere.
D) All of the above.
Option (D)
A) 490
B) 500
C) 540
D) 600
Option (C)
8. Any parcel of air that is fully saturated is called ______ air or ________ air.
A) dry, unsaturated
B) wet, unsaturated
C) dry, saturated
D) wet, saturated
Option (D)
9. Any parcel of air that is not fully saturated is called ______ air.
A) Dry
B) Unsaturated
C) Wet
D) Humid
Option (A)
10. The state of air at any moment in respect of water vapour content is called the
____________ of the atmosphere.
A) Absolute humidity
B) Humidity
C) Relative humidity
D) Specific humidity
Option (B)
A) Absolute humidity
B) Humidity
C) Relative humidity
D) Specific humidity
Option (A)
12. Absolute humidity is expressed as _________.
A) Kg/m2
B) gm/m2
C) Kg/m3
D) gm/m3
Option (D)
13. ______________ is the ratio between the amount of water vapour actually in
the air and the amount that it can absorb before becoming saturated, at the
same temperature.
A) Absolute humidity
B) Humidity
C) Relative humidity
D) Specific humidity
Option (C)
Option (B)
15. ________________ is defined as the ratio of mass of water vapour to the mass
of moist air.
A) Absolute humidity
B) Humidity
C) Relative humidity
D) Specific humidity
Option (D)
16. If a sample of air was relatively cooled, its relative humidity would steadily
increase i.e., the air would become relatively more moist. At some temperature,
the air would become wet i.e., its relative humidity would become 100%. The air
is then said to be __________ and the temperature at which this occurs is called
the _____________ temperature of that sample of air.
Option (A)
17. Dew point of a sample of air would depend on its _________ & ___________.
Option (C)
18. Both relative humidity and dew point of air are found by using a ___________
or a whirling psychrometer and then consulting meteorological tables – dry bulb
reading on one axis and the difference between wet & dry readings on the other
axis.
A) Hydrometer
B) Hygrometer
C) Pyrometer
D) Barometer
Option (B)
19. The difference between wet & dry readings also called ___________.
A) Difference
B) Depression
C) depression of dry bulb
D) depression of wet bulb
Option (D)
20. The Earth's water is always in movement, and the water cycle, also known as
the ________________, describes the continuous movement of water on, above,
and below the surface of the Earth.
A) hydrological cycle
B) life cycle
C) weather cycle
D) ecology cycle
Option (A)
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Option (B)
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Sublimation
D) Precipitation
Option (A)
23. ______________is transformation of water vapor into water.
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Sublimation
D) Precipitation
Option (B)
Option (D)
25. ____________ is any form of water, either liquid or solid (rain or snow) that
falls from clouds and reaches the ground.
A) Evaporation
B) Condensation
C) Precipitation
D) Sublimation
Option (C)
A) Mist
B) Rain
C) Snow
D) Sleet
Option (A)
27. With respect to the above figure, identify the cycle numbered-1?
A) hydrological cycle
B) life cycle
C) weather cycle
D) ecology cycle
Option (A)
28. With respect to the above figure, identify the item numbered-2?
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Sublimation
Option (B)
29. With respect to the above figure, identify the item numbered-3?
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Sublimation
Option (A)
30. With respect to the above figure, identify the item numbered-4?
A) Condensation
B) Evaporation
C) Precipitation
D) Sublimation
Option (C)
UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY
Option (C)
2. The rate at which air temp decreases with ___________ is called Environmental
Lapse Rate.
A) Height
B) Depth
C) Length
D) Breadth
Option (A)
3. The average standard lapse rate is about _______ deg Celsius per 1000 m of rise.
A) 10
B) 6.5
C) 5
D) 7.5
Option (B)
4. Any parcel of air that is fully saturated is called ______ air or ________ air.
A) dry, unsaturated
B) wet, unsaturated
C) dry, saturated
D) wet, saturated
Option (D)
5. Any parcel of air that is not fully saturated is called ______ air.
A) Dry
B) Unsaturated
C) Wet
D) Humid
Option (A)
A) Isentropic, heat
B) Isenthalpic, heat
C) Adiabatic, heat
D) Isobaric, heat
Option (C)
7. The Environmental Lapse Rate can be further divided into _______ parts.
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Option (A)
Option (B)
9. What does " SALR ", stands for in Meteorology?
Option (D)
A) 10
B) 6.5
C) 5
D) 7.5
Option (A)
A) 10
B) 6.5
C) 5
D) 7.5
Option (C)
A) greater than
B) less than
C) equal to
D) greater than equal to
Option (B)
A) Poles
B) 45O latitude
C) 60 O latitude
D) Equator
Option (D)
14. The value of SALR is more at _______.
A) Poles
B) 45O latitude
C) 60 O latitude
D) Equator
Option (A)
A) rises unsteadily
B) rises steadily
C) falls steadily
D) falls unsteadily
Option (C)
16. Name the phenomenon, in which the temperature increases with height instead
of falling?
A) Temperature inversion.
B) Isothermal layer
C) Adiabatic inversion
D) Isentropic inversion
Option (A)
17. Name the phenomenon, in which the temperature remains constant with height?
A) Temperature inversion.
B) Isothermal layer
C) Adiabatic inversion
D) Isentropic inversion
Option (B)
18. The atmospheric temperature reaches its maximum at about _______ hours
local time.
A) 1500
B) 1300
C) 1200
D) 1400
Option (D)
19. The atmospheric temperature reaches its minimum at about _______ after
sunrise.
A) 15 minutes
B) 20 minutes
C) 30 minutes
D) 60 minutes
Option (C)
20. Diurnal range of air temperature over _______ is large whereas over _______,
it is very small.
A) land, sea
B) sea, land
C) land, sky
D) sea, sky
Option (A)
UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY
A) Cosmic
B) Nuclear
C) Solar
D) Electromagnetic
Option (C)
A) Visible light
B) UV light
C) Infrared light
D) Cosmic rays
Option (A)
A) UV light
B) Visible light
C) Infrared light
D) Cosmic rays
Option (B)
4. Solar radiation is commonly measured with a ____________.
A) Thermometer
B) Sphygmomanometer
C) Barometer
D) Pyranometer
Option (D)
A) small, light
B) small, sound
C) large, light
D) large, sound
Option (A)
6. The sun, being a very hot body, emits __________ wave radiation.
A) Medium
B) Long
C) Short
D) very large
Option (C)
A) Medium
B) Long
C) Short
D) very short
Option (B)
A) highly translucent
B) nearly opaque
C) nearly translucent
D) nearly transparent
Option (D)
9. Scattering, Reflection and _________ are three of the things that happen during
Insolation.
A) Convection
B) Absorption
C) Greenhouse effect
D) Goldilocks effect
Option (B)
A) 1 only
B) 1 and 2 only
C) 1, 2 and 3
D) 2 and 3 only
Option (C)
A) Ultraviolet Radiation
B) Infrared radiation
C) Electromagnetic waves
D) Transverse waves
Option (C)
12. The Sun's heat is slightly depleted through ____________ by cloud and water
vapour and ____________ by dust particles in its passage through the
atmosphere. Also, part of the radiation is ___________ by cloud top and by the
earth’s surface itself.
Option (A)
13. The literature of heat transfer generally recognizes distinct modes of heat
transfer. How many modes are there?
A) One
B) Two
C) Three
D) Five
Option (C)
A) Temperature difference
B) Energy difference
C) Mass difference
D) Volumetric difference
Option (A)
“Look at the above figure carefully and answer the question that
follows.”
A) Absorption
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Radiation
Option (D)
A) Absorption
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Radiation
Option (C)
A) Absorption
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Radiation
Option (B)
18. What causes heat, or the transfer of energy from one object to another?
A) Differences in temperature
B) Differences in pressure
C) Differences in humidity
D) Differences in wind
Option (A)
19. A metal spoon becomes hot after being left in a pan of boiling water. The hot
spoon is an example of…
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (B)
20. A metal spoon becomes hot after being left in a pot of boiling water. The boiling
water is an example of....
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (C)
21. Which type of heat transfer is least effective in heating Earth's atmosphere?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (B)
22. Earth receives energy from the sun through which method of heat transfer?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (A)
23. You can feel the heat from a hot spoon before you actually touch it. This is an
example of....
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (A)
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (C)
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (B)
26. A huge rock at the mountain gets really hot because of __________.
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (A)
27. Transfer of thermal energy through space is an example of _________.
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (A)
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (A)
29. Walking on the sand alongside a beach, bare feet is an example of __________.
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (B)
30. Warm air rises and cold air sinks demonstrates which type of heat exchange
process?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (C)
31. When a frying pan is touching the stove which is on, what kind of heat transfer
is it?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (B)
Option (C)
33. The Gulf Stream is a current that brings warm ocean water from the south to
the north. What type of heat transfer is this?
A) Radiation
B) Conduction
C) Convection
D) Reflection
Option (C)
Option (D)
35. Near the ceiling of a room the air is warmer. The warm air rises because of…
A) Convection
B) Radiation
C) Conduction
D) Reflection
Option (A)
36. __________ is the transference of heat from one place to another through
space, without the necessity of any intervening medium.
A) Convection
B) Radiation
C) Conduction
D) Reflection
Option (B)
37. _____________ is the name given to all forms of energy received by the earth,
from the sun.
A) Scattering
B) Absorption
C) Insolation
D) Desolation
Option (C)
UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY
A) Gravity
B) Energy
C) Atmosphere
D) Ozone
Option (C)
2. _____________ is simply the mass of air above a given level or the force which
a column of air exerts on unit area of the earth's surface.
A) Atmospheric Pressure
B) Pressure
C) Gravity
D) Potential energy
Option (A)
Option (B)
4. The formula to define atmospheric pressure, P = _________.
A) ⍴gh2
B) 3⍴gh
C) 5/2⍴gh
D) ⍴gh
Option (D)
Option (A)
6. The formula to define atmospheric pressure, contains ' g ' which is _________.
A) Avogadro constant
B) Planck constant
C) acceleration due to gravity
D) universal gravity constant
Option (C)
7. The formula to define atmospheric pressure, contains ' h ' which is _________.
A) Planck constant
B) the relative humidity of the air in the column
C) the humidity of the air in the column
D) height of the air column
Option (D)
A) Anemometer
B) Barometer
C) Stevenson screen
D) Whirling psychrometer
Option (B)
9. Low pressure will usually bring what kind of weather?
A) Stormy
B) Sunny
C) Light winds
D) Calm
Option (A)
A) Stormy
B) Strong winds
C) Cloudy
D) Good
Option (D)
A) Centibars
B) Pascal
C) Millibars
D) Kilopascal
Option (C)
12. An _________ is a line drawn on a weather map joining all places of same
atmospheric pressure.
A) Isallobar
B) Isobar
C) Isotherm
D) Isogonic
Option (B)
Option (D)
14. Where consecutive isobars are very far apart, isobars are drawn at ______ mb
intervals.
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Option (B)
Option (A)
16. When we compute the amount of pressure change that occurs over a given
distance, we have the ___________.
A) relative humidity
B) atmospheric pressure
C) pressure gradient
D) barometric tendency
Option (C)
17. If the distance between consecutive isobars is small, the pressure gradient is
said to be high or steep (strong) pressure gradient indicating __________.
A) calm seas
B) sunny
C) light winds
D) high/strong winds
Option (D)
18. If the distance between consecutive isobars is large, the pressure gradient is
said to be small or gentle (weak) pressure gradient- indicating __________.
A) light winds
B) cloudy
C) high/strong winds
D) stormy seas
Option (A)
19. A characteristic term used in weather coding to denote the shape of the trace of
the barograph during the three hours preceding the time of observation, also
known as ____________.
A) relative humidity
B) barometric tendency
C) atmospheric pressure
D) pressure gradient
Option (B)
20. Lines termed as ___________ are drawn on the chart which join points having
the same pressure tendency.
A) Isotherm
B) Isobar
C) Isallobars
D) Isogonic
Option (C)
21. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 30O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 27 O C.
A) 25 O C
B) 30 O C
C) 27 O C
D) 26 O C
Option (D)
22. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 28O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 26 O C.
A) 25 O C
B) 30 O C
C) 27 O C
D) 26 O C
Option (A)
23. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 26 O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 25 O C.
A) 25 O C
B) 30 O C
C) 27 O C
D) 26 O C
Option (A)
24. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 28 O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 24 O C.
A) 25 O C
B) 30 O C
C) 22 O C
D) 26 O C
Option (C)
25. Use the above table to find the Dew point temperature, if dry bulb thermometer
shows 26 O C and wet bulb thermometer shows 21 O C.
A) 17 O C
B) 18 O C
C) 19 O C
D) 16 O C
Option (B)
A) in vacuum
B) With liquid
C) Without liquid
D) Without gas
Option (C)
“Look at the below figure carefully, and answer the question that
follows.”
27. Identify the above instrument?
A) Aneroid barometer
B) Mercury barometer
C) Anemometer
D) Whirling psychrometer
Option (A)
28. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-1?
A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Fine Chain
D) Dial Pointer
Option (D)
29. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-2?
A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Fine Chain
D) Dial Pointer
Option (C)
30. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-3?
A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Fine Chain
D) Dial Pointer
Option (B)
31. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-4?
A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Fine Chain
D) Dial Pointer
Option (A)
32. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-5?
A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Hair Spring
D) Dial Pointer
Option (C)
33. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-6?
A) Adjustment
B) Spring
C) Hair Spring
D) Vacuum Chamber
Option (D)
34. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-7?
A) Adjustment
B) Spring
C) Hair Spring
D) Vacuum Chamber
Option (B)
35. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-8?
A) Adjustment
B) Spring
C) Hair Spring
D) Vacuum Chamber
Option (A)
36. With respect to the above figure, Identify the part numbered-9?
A) Pivot
B) Rigid Joints
C) Lever System
D) Dial Pointer
Option (C)
Option (B)
38. Which of the following best describes the properties of the vacuum chamber of
Aneroid barometer?
Option (B)
A) 1
B) 2
C) 3
D) 4
Option (B)
A) Index error
B) Side error
C) Prismatic error
D) Error of perpendicularity
Option (A)
Option (C)
43. Name the error caused by imperfect elasticity of the vacuum chamber of an
Aneroid barometer?
A) Error of perpendicularity
B) Side error
C) Height correction
D) Index error
Option (D)
44. Height correction of an Aneroid barometer, in mb= Height above sea level in
metres / _______?
A) 5
B) 10
C) 100
D) 50
Option (B)
A) Added
B) Subtracted
C) Multiplied
D) Divided
Option (A)
46. The atmospheric pressure shown on the weather fax or map is the pressure at
__________.
Option (D)
UD11T4105 NAVIGATION II: BRIDGE EQUIPMENT, WATCHKEEPING &
METEOROLOGY
A) Oxygen
B) Argon
C) Nitrogen
D) Carbon-di-oxide
Option (C)
A) Meteorology
B) Oncology
C) Oceanology
D) Metrology
Option (A)
A) 21%
B) 78%
C) 1%
D) 49%
Option (B)
4. The Percentage of the Oxygen in the Earth's atmosphere is about________.
A) 78%
B) 1%
C) 49%
D) 21%
Option (D)
A) 78%
B) 1%
C) 49%
D) 21%
Option (B)
A) Sub-tropical Region
B) Tropical Region
C) Equatorial region
D) Polar region
Option (C)
A) Argon
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) CO2 and Water vapour
Option (D)
A) CO2
B) Argon
C) Nitrogen
D) Oxygen
Option (A)
9. Which of the following statement is true?
Option (B)
A) Water vapour
B) Nitrogen
C) Oxygen
D) Argon
Option (A)
11. _______________exists in all three states of matter and plays a significant role
in the earth’s heat-energy balance.
A) Nitrogen
B) Oxygen
C) Argon
D) Water vapour
Option (D)
12. Water vapour releases large amount of heat, called __________when it changes
from vapor into liquid or ice.
A) Desolation
B) Insolation
C) latent heat
D) specific heat
Option (C)
A) Two
B) Three
C) Four
D) Five
Option (B)
14. Ozone is efficient absorber of ___________ and protects life forms on Earth.
A) UV radiation
B) infrared radiation
C) cosmic radiation
D) beta ray’s radiation
Option (A)
A) 30O latitude N
B) 45O latitude N
C) Pole
D) Equator
Option (D)
Option (C)
A) 373 O Kelvin
B) 273 O Kelvin
C) -273 O Kelvin
D) -373 O Kelvin
Option (B)
A) 373 O Kelvin
B) 273 O Kelvin
C) -273 O Kelvin
D) -373 O Kelvin
Option (A)
Option (D)
Option (B)
“Look at the above figure carefully and answer the question that
follows.”
21. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -1?
A) Stratosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (C)
22. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -2?
A) Troposphere
B) Tropopause
C) Stratopause
D) Mesopause
Option (B)
23. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -3?
A) Mesosphere
B) Troposphere
C) Thermosphere
D) Stratosphere
Option (D)
24. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -4?
A) Stratopause
B) Tropopause
C) Mesopause
D) Stratosphere
Option (A)
25. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -5?
A) Stratosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (B)
26. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -6?
A) Stratopause
B) Tropopause
C) Mesopause
D) Mesosphere
Option (C)
27. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -7?
A) Stratosphere
B) Mesosphere
C) Troposphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (D)
28. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -8?
Option (A)
29. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -9?
Option (C)
30. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -10?
Option (B)
31. With reference to the above figure of the different layers of atmosphere with
respect to their height, identify the item numbered -11?
Option (D)
32. What is the correct order of earth's atmospheric layers from bottom to top?
Option (C)
33. Which layer of the atmosphere has the highest density of gas molecules?
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (A)
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (B)
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (A)
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (D)
37. What frequencies of electromagnetic radiation are absorbed by the earth's ozone
layer?
A) Infrared light.
B) Radio waves.
C) Ultraviolet light.
D) Microwaves.
Option (C)
A) 5 layers
B) 6 layers
C) 7 layers
D) 8 layers
Option (A)
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (A)
Option (D)
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (C)
A) Troposphere
B) Stratosphere
C) Mesosphere
D) Thermosphere
Option (D)
A) It gets hotter
B) It gets colder
C) It stays the same
D) It is always changing
Option (B)
Option (C)
45. The Troposphere extends to a height of about _____Km above the poles and
about ______Km above the equator.
A) 8, 16
B) 16, 8
C) 8, 50
D) 16, 50
Option (A)
4.1 Atmosphere
1. The earth’s atmosphere consists of
A) Nitrogent
B) Oxygen
C) Carbon dioxide
Option D
A) 25
B) 50
C) 78
D) 88
Option C
Although atmoshere extends upwards for many hundreds of kilometers, almost 99% of the atmosphere
lies within _________ km of earth’s surface.
A) 5
B) 10
C) 20
D) 30
Option D
A) P ,Q
B)Q,R
C) P,Q, R
D) All of the above
Option D
5. Where does lie the maximum concetration of water vapuours?
A) At poles
B) At 45 degree latitides North or South
C) At equatotr
D)